BIOLOGY

FULL BOOK MCQS PART2

CHAPTER NO: 15
HOMEOSTASIS
1. The protection of internal environment from the harms of the fluctuations
in external environment is:
a) osmosis (b)apoptosis (c) homeostasis (d) osmoregulation
OSMOREGULATION (balance of water and solutes in the body)

2. A diluted solution compared to the cell concentration is termedas:

a) hypertonic (b)hypotonic (c)isotonic (d) paratonic
3. The more concentrated external environment is termedas:
a) Hypertonic (b)hypotonic (c)isotonic (d) paratonic
OSMOREGULATION IN PLANTS
4. The mesophytes plantis:
a) cacti (b)Brassica (c)kikar (d)hydrilla
5. They have adaptations for reduced rate oftranspiration:
a) Xerophytes (b) mesophytes (c) halophytes (d) hydrophytes
6. The stomata are located on the upper surface onlyin:
a) xerophytes (b) mesophytes (c) hydrophytes (d) epiphytes
7. Which one of the following is not a mesophyte plant?
a) brassica (b) rose (c) mango (d) cacti
8. Plants which shed their leaves during driest season to avoid loss of water:
a) Ferns (b) Mosses (c) Cacti (d) Grasses
9. Which one is an example of xerophytes?
a) brassica (b) rose (c) mango (d) cactus
OSMOREGULATION IN ANIMALS
10. The animals which do not adjust their internal salt conc. according to external
environment:
a) Osmoregulators (b)thermoregulators (c)osmoconformers (d) none
ofthese
11. The environment when the animal produce large volume of dilute urine:
a) hypertonic (b)isotonic (c) hypotonic(d)osmoconformeraquatic
12. Among the vertebrates, the hagfishes are isotonic with thesurrounding:
a) freshwater (b) sea’s water (c)pond’swater (d) river’s water
13. Fresh water protozoans pump out excess waterby:
a) phagocytosis (b) foodvacuole (c) pinocytosis (d)contractilevacuole
14. Fishes retain which of these chemicals to be protected againsturea:
a) Allantoin (b) creatine (c)xanthine (d) trimethylamineoxide
15. The fishes which drink large amount of sea’s water and excrete concentrated
urineare:
a) cartilaginous fishes (b)bonyfishes (c)lungfishes (d) jawlessfishes
16. Most cartilaginous fish possess salt secreting organ known as the:
a) Foetal gland (b) Rectal gland (c) Caecal gland (d) Sebaceous
glands
17. The characteristic of terrestrial animals to tolerate dehydration is called:
a) Osmoregulation (b) Anhydrobiosis (c): Excretion (d)
Thermoregulation
EXCRETION IN PLANTS
18. One of the following parts of the plant is excretophores:
 a) Leaves (b) stem (c) roots (d) flower
EXCRETION IN ANIMALS
19. Animals secreting ammoniaare:
a) ureotelic (b)uricotelic (c) ammonotelic (d) excretotelic
20. Metabolism of purines and pyrimidines produces significant amount of:
a) Creatinine (b) Creatine (c): Xanthine(d)Trimethylamine oxide
21. The excretory product that needs minimum water for itsremoval:
a) urea (b) uric acid (c) ammonia (d) creatinine
22. Uric acid is produced from:
a) Amino acids (b) Nucleic acids (c) Fatty acids (d) Proteins
EXCRETION IN VERTEBRATES
23. Basic unit of human excretory systemis:
a) nephron (b)ureter (c) pelvis (d) urinarybladder
24. The end product of breakdown of hemoglobin and metabolites of hormonesare:
a) Bilirubin (b) uric acid (c) creatinine (d) all of these
EXRETORY ORGANS (LIVER)

25. Major homeostatic function of liver is storageof:

a) bile (b) cholesterol (c)urea (d) iron
26. In urea cycle, the detoxified form of ammoniais:
a) urea (b) uric acid (c) ammoniumion (d)nitrates
27. Production of sweat and sebum is relatedwith:
a) Skin (b)lung (c)liver (d) gills
28. Production of sweat is relatedwith:
a) osmoregulation (b)thermoregulation (c)excretion (d)digestion
29. Which organ is the central station ofmetabolism?
a) Liver (b)kidney (c) spleen (d) skin
30. Which of the following is not synthesized inLiver?
a) Urea (b)uric acid (c)albumin (d) urine
31. Urea is producedin:
a) lungs (b) liver (c)kidneys (d) pancreas
32. Arginase splits the arginine to form ureaand:
a) Ornithine (b)citrulline (c) creatinine (d) ammonia
33. Liver also has numerous crucial functionsof:
a) osmoregulation (b) homeostasis (c) excretion (d)thermoregulation
34. Of all the excretory products, the principal oneis:
a) Ammonia (b)urea (c) uricacid (d) bilirubin
URINARY SYSTEM& NEPHRON

35. Which one is not part of human urinarysystem?

a) kidney (b) pelvis (c)pubis (d) ureter
36. The urine leaves the body during urination from bladder through a
tubecalled:
a) pelvis (b) urethra (c)ureter (d)medulla
37. Blood supplied to kidneys from each cardiac beatis:
a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 30% (d) 50%
38. The best selective process in the nephron is called:
a) Secretion (b) Absorption (c) Filtration (d) All of
these
39. Sodium uptake in nephron is promotedby:
a) cortisone (b)aldosterone (c)ADH (d) FSH
 40. Glomerulus circulates blood through capsule as it arrivesthrough:
a) vasarecta (b) peritubular capillaries (c) Afferentarteriole (d) efferent
arteriole
41. Mammalian kidney including human is adapted to conserve water upto:
a) 69.5% (b) 79.5% (c)89.5%
(d)99.5%
42. In juxtamedullary nephrons additional capillaries extend down to form a loop of
vessels called:
a) peritubularcapillaries (b) efferent arterioles(c)vasa recta (d) glomerulus
43. All the collecting tubules of human kidney finally discharge intothe:
a) bowman’s capsule(b)glomerulus (c)pelvis (d)urethra
44. The reabsorption of water in collecting tubules is under the controlof:
a) aldosterone (b)ADH (c)tubular secretion (d)
pressurefiltration
45. Which one of these ions is conserved by aldosterone by preventing its loss from
kidney tubules?
a) Ca++ (b) K+ (c) Mg++ (d) Na+
KIDNEY PROBLEMS AND CURES

46. High level of circulating calcium in the blood iscalled:

a) Hypercalcemia (b)hypoglycemia (c) Osteomalcia (d) Hyperoxaluria
47. The incidence of calcium phosphate stones in human kidneysis:
a) 70% (b) 15% (c) 20% (d) 30%
48. The incidence of calcium oxalate type stonesare:
a) 10% (b) 15% (c) 70% (d) 50%

49.Hemodialysismeans:
a) removing the blood (b) clearing theblood
(c) Dilutingthe blood (d) storing theblood
50. The high degree renal failure iscalled:
a) Uremia (b) end stage renaldisease (c) both a&b (d) uredecty
51. The human abdominal cavity is lined by a thin epitheliumcalled:
a) ectoderm (b) endoderm (c) peritoneum (d) epidermis
THERMOREGULATION IN ANIMALS
52. Some mammals possess brown fat for the rapid productionof:
a) Heat (b)sweet (c) urine (d) feces
53. Which animal is notPoikilotherms?
a) starfish (b)frog (c)tortoise (d) parrot
54. Which one of the following is anendotherm?
a) hummingbird (b)reptiles (lizard) (c)birds (d) bat
55. Which of the following is notendoderm?
a) bird (b) amphibian (c)flyinginsect (d) mammal
56. Bats don’t regulate body temperature in narrow range andis:
a) endotherm (b) homeotherms (c) heterotherm (d) poikilotherms
57. Activation of sweat glands to produce sweat for evaporative cooling is a type
ofadaptation:
a) Structural (b)physiological (c) behavioral (d) none ofthese
THERMOREGULATION IN MAMMALS
58. The rate of heat production is increased by increasing muscle contraction, by
movement is called:
a)Thermoregulation (b) shiveringthermogenesis
 (c)Nonshiveringthermogenesis (d)thermostat
59. Use salvia and urine for evaporativecooling:
a) Bats (b) birds (c) insects (d) dogs
60. The mechanism of evaporative cooling in respiratory tract of dog is knownas:
a) Panting(b) shiveringthermogenesis(c)thermoregulation (d)vasodilation
THEMOSTAT FUNCTION AND FEEDBACK CONTROL IN HUMAN
61. The homeostatic thermostat is presentin:
a) pituitary (b)hypothalamus (c) pancreas (d)kidney
62. The body temperature regulation in human is based on complex homeostatic
thermostat present inthe:
a) cerebrum (b) medulla oblongata(c)hypothalamus (d)thalamus
TEMPERATURE IN FEVER
63. In bacterial and viral infection, pathogens and leukocytes release a chemicalcalled:
a) Pyrexia (b)toxin (c) aflatoxins (d) pyrogens

CHAPTER NO: 16 SUPPORT AND MOVEMENTS

SUPPORT IN PLANTS
1. The membrane that bounds vacuole is called:
a) tomoplast (b) Tonoplast (c) Monoplast (d) Tocoplast
2. Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma cells are heavily lignified cells:
a) Cortex and phloem (b) Cortex and xylem (c) Xylem and phloem (d) Pericycle
and cortex
3. Angular thickening in their primary walls are present in:
a) Parenchyma cells (b) Collenchyma cells (c) Sclerenchyma cells (d)
Tracheids
4. The cell wall of sclerenchymatous cells are impregnated with:
a) Silica (b) Pectin (c) Lignin (d) Suberin
5. Fibers, sclereides and vessels are three types of:
a) Collenchyma (b) Parenchyma (c) Cambium (d)
Sclerenchyma
6. The Sclerenchyma cells found in seed coats and nut shells are the:
a) Fibers (b)Sclereides (c) Tracheids (d)Vessels
7. Which of these are long, cylindrical and exist as bundle caps?
a) Sclereides (b) Vessels (c) Trachea (d) Tracheids
8. The collenchyma cells have protoplast and usually lacks:
a) Secondary wall (b) Primary wall (c) Cell membrane (d) Vacuole
EXOSKELETON

9. The process of moulting is controlled by the nervous system and a hormone

called:
a) Aldosterone (b) Androgen (c) Ecdysone (d) Oxytocin
10. Ecdysis occur in arthropods during:
a) Immature stage(b): Mature stage (c): Both stages
(d): Do not undergo any change
ENDOSKELETON

11. A bone which connects scapula with sternum:

a) Humerus (b) Ischium (c) Pubis (d) Clavicle
12. Vertebral column protects the spinal cord and has curvatures:
a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 4

13. Sacrum is formed by the fusion of:

a) Two bones (b) Three bones (c) Four bones (d) Five bones
14. The fusion of 4 posterior vertebrae present in the pelvic region form:
a) Cervical (b) Coccyx (c) Lumber (d) Sacrum
15. Femur, tibia & fibula are the bones of:
a) Neck (b) Skull (c) Fore limb (d) Hind limb
16. The bone dissolving cells are:
a) Osteoblast (b) Osteocytes (c) Osteoclasts (d) Stem cells
17. The first cervical vertebra is called:
a) Atlas (b) Axis (c) Nasal (d) Sacrum
18. Which one is bone of hind limb?
a) Radius (b) Tarsal (c) Ulna (d) Carpal
19. The joints that allow movements in several directions are:
a) Ball & socket (b) Hinge joint (c) Fibrous joint (d) Synovial joint
20. Human vertebral column has vertebrae:
a) 20 (b) 23 (c) 33 (d) 37

21. Mature bone cells are called as:

a) Osteoblasts (b) Osteocytes (c) Osteoclasts (d)
Chondrocytes
22. In thoracic region, number of vertebrae is:
a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 05 (d) 04

23. All of the following bones are associated with coxal bones, except:
a) Ilium (b) Ischium (c) Pubis (d) Clavicle
24. The number of lumbar vertebrae are:
a) 05 (b) 07 (c) 12 (d) 33

25. The number of pelvic vertebrae in vertebral column of man is:

a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 12

26. Which one is not a bone of axial skeleton?

a) Ribs (b) Sternum (c) Pelvic (d) Cranium
27. Joints that are held together by short fibers embedded in connective tissues:
a) Fibrous Joints (b) Cartilaginous Joint(c) Synovial Joints (d) Hinge Joints
28. The connective tissue which attaches the bones together and slightly elastic is
called:
 a) Ligament (b) Tendon (c) Cross bridges (d) Z-line
29. Collagen fibers of bone are hardened by the deposition of:
a) Calcium phosphate (b) Sodium phosphate (c) Sodium carbonate
(d) Calcium carbonate

30. The synovial joint is surrounded by a layer of connective tissue called:

a) Ligament (b) Nucleus pulposus (c) Annulus fibroses (d) Fibrous
capsule
31. Both bones and cartilage consists of living cells embedded in the matrix of protein
known as:
a) Collagen (b) Keratin (c) Insulin (d) Fibrinogen
DEFORMATIES OF SKELETON

32. A condition in which palatine process of maxilla & palatine fail to fuse:
a) Arthritis (b) Tetany (c) Cleft palate (d)
Osteoporosis
33. Estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) is best protection against:
a) Sciatica (b) Osteoporosis (c) Spondylosis (d) Fracture
34. The inflammatory or degenerative disease that damages joints:
a) Arthritis (b) Osteoporosis (c) Meningitis (d)
Spondylosis
35. Bowed legs and deformed pelvis are the symptoms of which disease in children:
a) Disc Slip (b)Rickets (c) Sciatica (d) Hematoma
36. A disease which causes immobility and fusion of vertebral joint is called:
a) Sciatica (b) Spondylosis (c) Rickets (D) Disc Slip
37. Rickets is due to deficiency of vitamin:
a) A (b) C (c) D (d) E
38. Which one of the following is not a joint disease?
a) Arthritis (b) Sciatica (c) Disc Slip (d) Spondylosis
39. Acute forms of arthritis usually result from:
a) Bacterial Invasion(b) Viral Invasion (c) Fungal Invasion (d) Severe
Injury
MUSCLES (SMOOTH, CARDIAC AND SKELETON)

40. Muscle present in the Gut wall is:

a) Smooth (b) Skeletal (c) Cardiac (d) Voluntary
41. Which is the end of muscle which remains fixed when the muscle contracts?
a) Insertion (b) Origin (c) Tendon (d) Belly
42. Muscle is connected to bone by:
a) Tendon (b) Ligament (c) Z-line (d) Cross bridges
43. The unit of structure of myofibril lies between two successive Z-lines is known as:
 a) Sarcolemma (b) Sarcoplasm (c) Sarcomere (d)
Myolemma
44. Skeletal muscles fibers have diameter:
a) 100-200 µm (b) 10-100 µm (c) 10-100 mm (d) 100-1000
µm

45. Skeletal muscles are called striated muscles due to the presence of:
a)Red and yellow band (b) White and yellow band

(c)Alternating light and dark band (d) Red and black band

46. The most abundant protein in the muscles is:

a) Myosin (b) Actin (c): Troponin (d) Tropomyosin
47. Thick filament in myofibril is made up of:
a) Troponin (b) Actin (c) Tropomyosin (d) Myosin
48. The protein filament which binds to the calcium:
a) Actin (b) Myosin (c) Troponin (d) Tropomyosin
49. Twisting around the actin chains there are two strands of another protein i.e.
a) Myosin (b) Tropomyosin (c) Troponin (d) Creatinine
50. There are muscles in the human body, most of which occur in pairs:
a) 650 (b) 630 (c) 660 (d) 645
51. Which of the following muscle straightens the elbow joint?
a) Brachialis (b) Triceps (c) Biceps (d)
Brachioradialis
ENERGY FOR MUSCLE CONTRACTION

52. Muscle fatigue is caused by the accumulation of:

a) Uric acid (b) Fumaric acid (c) Lactic acid (d)
Ethyl alcohol
EVOLUTIONARY CHANGES IN ARRANGEMENT OF BONES

53. The depression present in pelvic girdle for articulation of femur is:
a) Acetabulum (b) Ischium (c) Ilium (d) Pubis
54. are ideal for gliding into wind:
a) Narrow wings (b) Broad wings (c) Long Narrow wings (d) Short Broad wings
55. The supracoracoid muscle provide power for the:
a) Upward stroke (b) Downward stroke (c) Recovery stroke (d) Neutral stroke
56. Which Animal has long narrow wings?
a) Mammals (b) Owl (c) Reptiles (d) Gull

CHAPTER NO: 17 COORDINATION AND CONTROL

1. Galls are out growth on plants that are inducedby:

a) Parasites (b))Sporophytes (c) Predator (d) Lichens
 2. If plants are wounded they form masses of amorphous material known as:
a) Etiolated (b) Chlorosis (c) Calluses (d) Galls
PLANT HORMONES
3. It is applied to rubber plant to stimulate flow oflatex:
a) Abscisicacid (b)) Gibberellins (c)Ethene (d) Auxins
4. The hormone which promote the bolting of some rosette plantsis:
a) Auxins (b)) Cytokinins (c)Ethane (d) Gibberellins
5. Abscisic acid promotes closing of stomata under conditionsof:
a) Water stress (b)) Light stress
(c)Temperaturestress (d) Wind stress
6. It delays repining and improve storagelife:
a) Auxins (b))Gibberellins (c)Cytokinins (d) Abscisicacid
7. The plant hormone which inhibits growth and promotes seed and bud
dormancyis:
a) Auxins (b))Gibberellins (c)Cytokinins (d) AbscisicAcid
8. Ethene induce floweringin:
a) Banana (b)) Rose (c)Pine-apple (d) Orange
9. Which of the plant the following plant hormone promotes fruitripening?
a) IAA (b)GA3 (c)Ethene (d) ABA
10. Selective weed killeris:
a) 2-4-D (b)IAA (c) NAA (d)IPA
RECEPTORS
11. One which detect change in theenvironment:
a) Effectors (b) Receptor (c) Nerve (d) Muscles
12. The sensation of pain is producedby:
a) Chemoreceptors (b))Nociceptors
(c) Photoreceptors (d) Mechanoreceptors

13. Nociceptors produce the sensationof:

a) Pain (b) Light (c)Taste (d) Hearing
14. Touch receptors are much more numerous inthe:
a) Arms (b))Fingertips (c)Palms (d) Feet
15. Which hormone is used in fruitripening?
a) Auxins (b))Gibberellins (c)Cytokinins (d) Ethene
REFLEX ARC
16. Pathway of passage of impulse during reflex action iscalled:
a) Reflex (b))Stimulus
(c) Reflex Arc (d) Membrane Potential
NERVE IMPULSE
17. During non-conducting state, the neuron membrane is permeable to effluxof:
a) K+ (b))Na+ (c)Ca+ (d) Cl-
18. Cell membrane of neuron is slightly permeableto:
a) K+ (b))Na+ (c) Ca++ (d) Fe++
19. The max. speed of nerve impulse in humans ism/sec:
a) 120 (b))240 (c)100 (d) 200
20. In myelinated neurons, the impulse jumps from node to node and iscalled:
a) Saltatoryimpulse (b)) Nerveimpulse (c) Synapse (d) Synapsis
21. Value of active membrane potential during nerve impulse is:
 a) +0.05 volts (b)) +0.5 volts (c) +50 volts (d) both a and c
SYNAPSE
22. In neurons the message is transmitted across synapse in the form of chemical
messenger called:
a) Neurotransmitters (b)) Communication
(c)NerveImpulse (d) SynapticVesicle

CENTRAL AND PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM

23. The structure of human brain that control sleep-wake cycleis:

a) Amygdala (b))Hippocampus (c)Thalamus (d) Hypothalamus
24. The structural & functional unit of nervous systemis:
a) Neuron (b))Receptors (c) Effectors (d) None of these
25. The largest part of the brainis:
a) Cerebellum (b))Cerebrum (c) Medulla (d)Thalamus
26. Medulla belongs to:
a) Hindbrain (b)) Midbrain (c)Fore brain (d) Spinal cord
27. In human mid brainis:
a) Reduced (b)) Enlarged (c)Swollen (d) Broken
28. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is similar in compositionto:
a) Blood (b))Blood plasma (c) Blood Serum (d) Blood Proteins
29. The Limbic System is located between thalamusand:
a) Hypothalamus (b)) Cerebellum (c)Cerebrum (d) Pons
30. The thalamus carries sensory information to the limbic systemand:
a) Cerebellum (b))Cerebrum (c) Cerebralmedulla (d) Cerebralcortex
31. All are related to medulla oblongataexcept:
a) Long term memory(b))Breathingrate (c) HeartBeatRate (d) BloodPressure
32. The hind brain of man consistsof:
a) Cerebrum (b))Thalamus (c) Hypothalamus (d) None ofthese
33. A nerveis:
a) Collection of neurons
b) Bundle of axons ordendrites
c) Connection ofdendrites
d) Bundle of axon or Dendrites bounded by connectivetissue
34. The number of spinal nerve in manis:
a) 24 (b))62 (c)12 (d) 31
35. What is the number of cranial & spinal nerves inman?
a) 121&131 (b)) 24&62 (c)10&40 (d) All of
these
36. The two cerebral hemispheres communicate with each other by means of large
band of axon:
a) Meninges (b)) Pons (c) Corpus collusum (d) limbic system
37. Chief structural and functional unit of nervous system is:
a) Neuron (b)) Receptor (c) Effector (d) Schwann cell
NERVOUS SYSTEM DISORDERS

38. Effective drug available for Parkinson’s diseaseis:

a) Nicotine (b))GDNF (c) AZT (d) L-dopa
39. EEG is the most important test for the studyof:
a) Epilepsy (b)) Parkinson’sdisease
(c)Alzheimer’s disease (d) Arthritis
 40. Metal illnesscauses:
a) Goiter (b))Anemia (c)Alzheimer (d) Scurvy
41. The onset of epilepsy usually occurs before the ageof:
a) 25 years (b)) 50years (c) 30 year (d) 35year
42. To cure Parkinson’s disease Dopamine producing cells could be grafted directly
intothe:
a) Brain (b)) Liver (c)Bone marrow (d) Blood
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

43. Which one produced in excess that leads to abnormal development

calledacromegaly?
a) TSH (b)) MSH (c) ACTH (d) STH
44. Which hormone in male stimulates the interstitial cells of the testis to
secretetestosterone?
a) TSH (b)) FSH (c) ICSH (d) LTH
45. The hormone secreted by mucosa of the pyloric region of the stomachis:
a) Gastrin (b)) Secretin (c) Oestrogen (d)Progesterone
46. Corpus luteum secretes a hormonecalled:
a) FSH (b))LH (c) Progesterone (d) Estrogen
47. Match diabetes insipidus with one of thefollowing:
a) Oxytocin (b))Vasopressin (c) Insulin (d) Glucagon
48. Secretin is a hormone producedby:
a) Liver (b)) Gut (c) Pancreas (d) Adrenals
49. Chemically cortisoneis:
a) Aminoacid (b))Protein (c)Polypeptide (d) Steroid
50. Thyroid glands produce:
a) T3,T4,calcitonin (b)) Calcitonin
(c)Tri-iodothyronine (d) Tetraiodothyronine
51. Alpha cells of pancreassecrete:
a) Glucagon (b)) Insulin (c)Pancreatic juice (d) Secretin
52. Endocrine glandssecrete:
a) Hormones (b))Salts (c) Enzymes (d) Mucous
53. Insulin and glucagonhormonesare in nature:
a) Carbohydrates (b)) Proteins (c)Steroids (d) Polypeptides
54. Gastrin is the hormone produced by mucosaof:
a) Esophagus (b)) Small Intestine (c)Large Intestine (d) Stomach
55. Excess thyroxine produces a diseasecalled:
a) Addison’s (b))Cretinism (c) Graves (d) Epilepsy

PLANT HORMONES
1. The plant hormone that inhibits the growth of lateral shoots is:
(A) cytokinins (B) gibberellin (C) auxin (D) ethene
RECEPTORS
2. Which produce the sensation of pain:
 (A) Chemoreceptors (B) mechanoreceptors (C) nociceptors (D) stretch
NERVE IMPULSE
3. Value of active membrane potential during nerve impulse is:
(A) +0.05 volts (B) +0.5 volts (C) +50 volts (D) both a and c
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
4. Which one is not the part of limbic system:
(A) thalamus (B) hypothalamus (C) amygdala (D) hippocampus
5. Hind brain includes the medulla, pons and:
(A) cerebrum (B) cerebellum (C) thalamus (D) amygdala
6. The cerebrospinal fluid is similar in composition to:
(A) blood (B) blood plasma (C) blood serum (D) blood proteins
7. The largest part of brain is:
(A) cerebellum (B) medulla (C) cerebrum (D) thalamus
8. The structure of human brain that control sleep wake cycle is:
(A) amygdala (B) hippocampus (C) cerebrum (D) hypothalamus
9. In human, relay center is located in:
(A) fore brain (B) mid brain (C) hind brain (D) none
10. The structure in human brain that controls hunger:
(A) amygdala (B) hippocampus (C) hypothalamus (D) None of these
11. _______is best developed in birds:
(A) Cerebrum (B) hippocampus (C) cerebellum (D) amygdala
PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SY
12. A nerve is:
(A) collection of neurons (B) collection of dendrites
(C) bundle of axons or dendrites bonded by connection (D) none
13. In human pairs of cranial nerves are:
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 18
NERVOUS DISORDERS
14. The onset of epilepsy is before age of:
(A) 10 years (B) 20 years (C) 30 years (D) 40 years
ENDOCRINE GLANDS OF MAMMALS
15. Endocrine glands secret:
(A) hormones (B) salts (C) enzymes (D) mucus
16. Which hormone is chemically steroid:
(A) ADH (B) cortisone (C) thyroxine (D) insulin
17. Insulin and glucagon hormones are:
(A) carbohydrates (B) proteins (C) steroids (D) polypeptides
18. Alpha cells of pancreas secrete:
(A) glucagon (B) insulin (C) pancreatic juice (D) secretin
19. A pair of adrenal glands is present on top of each:
(A) ear (B) kidney (C) eye (D) testis
20. Testosterone is secreted by:
 (A) sertoli cells (B) interstitial cells (C) prostate gland (D) germinal cells
21. The corpus leutum secrets a hormone:
(A) oxytocin (B) estrogen (C) progesteron (D) testosteron
22. The hormone that suppresses ovulation is:
(A) testosterone (B) estrogen (C) gastrin (D) progesterone
23. Which hormone in male stimulate the production of testosterone:
(A) TSH (B) FSH (C) LTH (D) ICSH
24. The hormone that suppress the ovulation is:
(A) Testosterone (B) oestrogen (C) progesteron (D) gastrin
25. Parathormone is antagonistic to:
(A) calcitonin (B) glucagon (C) vasopressin (D) epinephrine
26. Oxytocin is released from:
(A) Anterior pituitary lobe (B) median pituitary lobe
(C) Posterior pituitary lobe (D) none
27. Calcitonin is released by ______gland:
(A) Thyroid (B) pituitary (C) adrenal (D) parathyroid
28. Secretin is a hormone produced by:
(A) liver (B) gut (C) pancreas (D) adrenals
CH#18 REPRODUCTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Reproduction in necessary for the survivalfor:
(A) Individual (B) Species (C)Community (D) Biome
2. Fruit ripening is due to the productionof:
(A) Auxins (B) Cytokinins (C) Gibberellins (D) Ethane
3. Union of gametes iscalled:
(A) Fertilization (B)Gametogenesis (C)Spermatogenesis (D) Oogenesis
4. The special condition of rest, which enables an embryo to survive during the long
periodsis:
(A) Rootdormancy (B) Shootdormancy (C)Seed dormancy (D) Plant dormancy
5. In honeybee, males are haploid and produce spermsby:
(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis (C)Apomixes (D) Parthenogenesis
6. Parthenocarpy is induced in tomato and pepper byadding:
(A) Auxins (B) Cytokinins (C)Ethene (D) Abscisicacid
7. Vehicle for transport of male gamete in land plantsis:
(A) Water (B)Pollen tube (C) Pollen grain (D) Wind
8. Between the seminiferous tubules are interstitial cells, whichsecrete:
(A) Estrogen (B)Testosterone (C) Aldosterone (D) Corticosteroids
9. Discharge of egg from the ovary iscalled:
(A) Oogenesis (B) Ovulation (C)gametogenesis
(D)Spermatogenesis
10. Developing seeds are a rich sourceof:
(A) Auxins (B)Gibberellins (C)Cytokinins
(D) All of these
11. Parthenocarpy is the development of fruitwithout:
A Pollination (B)Germination (C) Fertilization (D)Hormones
12. Fruit ripening is often accompanied by burst of respiratory activitycalled:
 (A) Apomixes (B) Climacteric (C) Photoperiodism (D) Endosperm
13. Evolution of pollen tube is parallel to the evolutionof:
(A) Stem (B)Leaves (C) Flower (D) Seed
14. Average loss of blood during birth in human female isabout:
(A) 150cm3 (B) 250cm3 (C) 350cm3 (D) 450cm3
15. Human embryo remains enclosed in a saccalled:
(A) Placenta (B) Chorionic Sac (C) Amniotic Sac (D) EggShell
16. Ovoviviparity is shownby:
(A) Reptile (B) Bird (C) Duckbill platypus(D) Human
17. Sperms are formedin:
(A) Vas deferens (B) Collecting ducts
(C)Epididymis (D) Seminiferous tubules
18. The hormone, which controls the development of male secondary sexual
characteristics during puberty,is:
(A) Insulin (B)Testosterone (C) Oestrogen (D)Progesterone
19. Fluid secreted by sertoli cells provides liquid medium, protection and
nourishmentto:
(A) Oocyte (B)Sperms (C)Polarbody (D)Spermatids
20. Decrease of FSH and increase of estrogen causes the pituitary gland tosecrete:
(A) LH (B) LTH (C)TSH (D) ACTH
21. Which is not a stimulus to releaseoxytocin?
(A) Distensionofcervix (B) Decrease in progesteronelevel
(C) Neural stimulusduringparturition (D) High level of Ca++ions
22. The first convoluted part of the vas deferensis:
(A) Epididymis (B)Penis (C)Scrotum (D) Sperm
23. In human female, the total gestation period isusually about :
(A) 280days (B) 280 weeks (C) 28 months (D) 360days
24. The hormones that induces labourpain:
(A) Lactogen (B) LTH (C)LH (D) Oxytocin
25. The human embryo is referred as the fetus from beginningof:
(A) 3rdMonth (B)3rdWeek (C) 6thMonth (D) 6thWeek
26. Causative agent of Genital Herpes isa:
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C)Fungi (D) Protozoan
27. When will you call embryo as afetus?
(A) After2months (B) After3 months (C) After 4months (D) After 5 months
28. In human female discharge of blood and debrisis:
(A) Ovulation (B)Abortion (C)Menstruation (D) Secretion
29. Reptilesare:
(A) Oviparous (B)Viviparous (C) Ovoviviparous (D)Enviparous
30. Oviduct opensinto:
(A) Ovary (B) Uterus (C)Vagina (D) Urethra
31. External genitalia very sensitive during copulationis:
(A) Placenta (B) Uterus (C) Cervix (D) Clitoris
32. The mammalian testes are made up of a large numberof:
(A) Epididymis (B) Seminiferoustubules
(C)Fallopian tubule (D) Uriniferous tubules
33. The disease caused by the herpes simplex type 2 virusis:
(A) AIDS (B) Syphilis (C) Gonorrhea (D) Genital herpes
34. Ovoviviparousanimals:
(A) Layeggs (B) Give birth to young (C)Give larva (D) Give pupa
35. Syphilis caused by a spirochete namedas:
 (A) Neisseriagonorrhea (B) Treponemapalladium
(C) E.coli (D) Hyphomicrobium

36. The hormone responsible for the production of sperms and male secondary
charactersis:
(A) Progesterone (B)Thyroxine (C)Testosterone (D) Estrogens
37. Which hormone in male stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to
secretetestosterone?
(A) TSH (B) FSH (C) ICSH (D) LTH
38. Gonorrhea is causedby:
(A) Neisseria (B) T.Pallidum (C)Herpessimplex (D) Clostridium
39. Uterus opens into vestibule (vagina)through:
(A) Cervix (B)Ureter (C) Oviduct (D) Uterinetube
40. The internal fertilization leads to internal development of embryo, which gives
birth to young one, such animals, iscalled:
(A) Oviparous (B)Viviparous (C) Ovoviviparous (D)Vivi-ovaparous
41. Inhumanbeings,mostofthemajororgansofembryoareformedwithinthe:
(A) Tenweeks (B)Sixweeks (C)Twelveweeks (D) Fourteen weeks
42. In human how many ova are discharged from ovaries at onetime?
(A) 1 (B)2 (C)6 (D) 3
43. All of the following animals are the haploid Parthenocarpicexcept:
(A) Wasps (B)Aphids (C) Honeybees (D) Ants
44. Corpus luteum starts secreting a hormone knownas:
(A) Progesterone (B) Oxytocin (C)Testosterone (D) Estrogen
45. From the beginning of the third month of pregnancy, the human’s embryo
iscalled:
(A) Kitten (B)Kid (C)Cub (D) Fetus
46. Diploid parthenogenesis occurs in:
(A) Wasp (B)Aphid (C) Ants (D) Bee
47. Sertoli cells are the cellsof:
(A) Testis (B) Ovaries (C) Urethra (D)Kidney
48. A type of asexual reproduction in which parent organism simply divides into
two daughter organisms is:
(A) Budding (B)Multiplefission (C) Binary fission (D) Nuclear fission

CH#19 GROWTH AND REPRODUCTION

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Somites are formed and organizedby:
(A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm (C)Endoderm (D) Blastoderm
2. Cleavage results in the formation of rounded closely packed mass Blastomeres:
(A) Blastula (B) Gastrula (C)Morula (D)Neurula
3. The discoidal cap of cells above the blastocoelis:
(A) Epidermis (B)Endodermis (C) Blastoderm (D)Hypoblast
4. Cork cambium is the exampleof:
(A) Lateral meristem (B) Apical meristem
(C)Intercalarymeristem (D) Bud primordial
5. The larval epidermis is formedfrom:
 (A) Clear cytoplasm (B) Yellow cytoplasm
(C) Grayvegetalcytoplasm (D) Grey equatorialcytoplasm
6. The removal of apex releases the lateral buds from the apical dominance. It
iscalled:
(A) Inhibitoryeffect (B) Compensatory effect
(C)Apical effect (D) Reproduction
7. Hatching period of chickis:
(A) 15days (B)18 days (C) 21 days (D) 28days
8. The cavity formed between somatic and splanchnic mesodermis:
(A) Archenteron (B)Hensen’snode (C)Coelom (D) Neurocoel
9. Acetabulatariais a/an:
(A) Epiphyte (B)Alga (C)Fungus (D)Angiosperm
10. Gray vegetal cytoplasm gives riseto:
(A) Gut (B)Muscle Cells (C) Larvalepidermis (D) Notochord
11. Gray equatorial cytoplasm givesrise to :
(A) Epidermis (B) Muscle Cells
(C) Notochord andNeuraltube (D) Gut
12. Yellow cytoplasm give riseto:
(A) Larvalepidermis (B) Muscle Cells (C)Gut (D) Notochord
13. The branch of biology, which deals with the study of abnormal development and
its factors, is:
(A) Teratology (B)Embryology (C) Microcephaly (D) Gerontology
14. The ability to regain the lost partis:
(A) Regeneration (B)Aging (C) Embryonic induction (D) None
ofthese
15. Neural plate is formedfrom:
(A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm (C)Endoderm (D) Notochord
16. In the zone of elongation; the volume of the cells increase upto:
(A) 100times (B)150 times (C)200times (D) 250times
17. Intercalary meristem are, situatedat:
(A) RootApex (B)ShootApex (C) Baseof Internodes (D) Top ofInternodes
18. The shell, over chick egg is, secreted as it passesthrough:
(A) Ovary (B) Oviduct (C) Uterus (D) Cloaca
19. During gastrulation, the blastoderm splits into two layers, an upper layer of cells
iscalled:
(A) Hypoblast (B)Areapellucida (C)Epiblast (D) Area opaca
20. The unspecialized cells present in flatworms and Planariaare:
(A) Neoblasts (B)Osteoblast (C) Osteoclast (D) Chondrocyte
21. Anything, which interferes with the normal process of development,isthefactorcausing:
(A) Aging (B)Regeneration (C)Normalities (D) Abnormalities
22. The head can be regeneratedin:
(A) Earthworm (B) Frog (C) Leech (D) Grasshopper
23. In birds shell is secreted as the egg passesthrough:
(A) Oviduct (B) Uterus (C) Cloaca (D) Coelom

CHAPTER#20 CHROMOSOMES AND DNA (SOLVED MCQs)

1. The number of chromosomes in mosquitoare:

 (A)32 (B)20 (C)06 (D) 26
2. Penicillin, a fungus has following pairs ofchromosomes:
(A) 1 (B)2 (C)3 (D) 4
3. No. of chromosomes in Honey beeare:
(A)06 (B)20 (C)32 (D) 40
4. No. of chromosomes in mouseare:
(A)06 (B)32 (C)26 (D) 40
TYPES OF CHROMOSOMES
5. The particular array of chromosomes that an individual possess is calledits:
(A) Genotype (B)Phenotype (C)Karyotype (D) Epistasis
6. Morphological Characteristics of chromosomes are collectivelycalled:
(A) Holotype (B)Karyokinesis (C)Karyotype (D) Neotype
7. The total chromosomal complement of cellis:
(A) Phenotype (B)Genotype (C)Karyotype (D) Epistasis
8. V shaped chromosomes arecalled:
(A) Acrocentric (B) Metacentric (C)Telocentric (D) Submetacentric
COMPOSITION OF CHROMOSOMES
9. The highly condensed portion of the chromatin iscalled:
(A) Heterochromatin(B)Euchromatin (C)Nucleosome (D) Centromere
10. A typical human chromosomecontains about million nucleotides:
(A)100 (B)120 (C)140 (D)160
11. Number of histone protein molecule in a single nucleosomeare:
(A) 6 (B)8 (C)9 (D) 10
12. Most of chromosomes consist of DNA and protein:
(A) 90%-10% (B): 20%-80% (C): 40%-60%(D): 70%-30%
13. Unlike most proteins,histonesare :
(A) Positivelycharges (B) Negatively charged
(C)Neutral (D) Discharged
DNA AS HEREDITARY MATERIAL
14. The first evidence of hereditary nature of DNA was proved by:
(A) W. Sutton (B) Vernon Ingram (C) F. Griffith (D) Morgan
15. Transfer of genetic material from one cell to other that can alter the genetic
make-up of recipient cell iscalled:
(A) Transformation (B)Translation (C)Transcription (D) Replication
CHEMICAL NATURE OF DNA
16. The 5-Carbon sugar in DNAis:
(A) Ribose (B) Maltose (C) Fructose (D) Deoxyribose
17. Repeating units of DNA arecalled:
(A) Histones (B)Nucleosides (C)Nucleotides (D) Amino Acids
18. Adenine and guanineform:
(A) Purines (B) Pyrimidines
(C)Nucleotides (D) Phosphodiester bond
19. Erwin Chargaff showed that the amount of guanine is always equalto:
(A) Cytosine (B)Thymine (C)Adenine (D) Uracil
20. X-ray diffraction analysis of DNA was performedby:
(A) ErwinChargaff (B)Watson&Crick (C) RosalindFranklin (D) CharlesDarwin
DNA REPLICATION
21. The enzyme which play supporting role in DNAreplication:
(A) RNAprimase (B) DNA Polymerase II
(C) DNAPolymeraseI (D) DNA Polymerase III
22. The stand which elongates towards the replication forkis:
 (A) Leading (B)Lagging (C)Okazaki (D) Primer
23. Each Okazaki fragment is synthesizedby:
(A) DNApolymeraseI (B) DNA polymerase II
(C) DNApolymeraseIII (D) DNA polymerase IV
24. DNA polymerase only adds nucleotides to theend:
(A) 5'end (B)3'end (C)2'end (D) 4'end
THREE TYPES OF RNA
25. Human cell contains 45 different kindsof:
(A) DNA (B)mRNA (C)tRNA (D)rRNA
TRANSCRIPTION
26. mRNA is synthesizedby:
(A) DNA polymerase (B) RNA polymerase (C)DNAligase (D) None ofthese
27. RNA polymeraseII synthesized:
(A) mRNA (B)rRNA (C)tRNA (D) Protein
28. Transcription starts at the RNA polymerase binding site on DNA called;
(A) Codon (B) Primer (C): promotor (D) Anticodon
29. Which of the following is the stop signal duringtranscription?
(A) CA (B) GA (C)GC (D)TA
GENETIC CODE
30. Which of the following is a non-sensecodon?
(A) UGA (B)UGG (C) AUG (D) AUC
31. Which one of the following is initiationcodon?
(A) AUG (B)GUA (C) UGA (D) GAC
32. One of the given does not code for any aminoacid:
(A) AUG (B) ACU (C) GAU (D) UAA
33. All of the following are non-sense codonsexcept:
(A) AUG (B)UAA (C) UGA (D) UAG
TRANSLATION
34. Successive amino acids bearing tRNA will bindat:
(A) Asite (B) B site (C) Esite (D) P site
MUTATION
35. If the alterations involve only one or few base pairs in the coding sequence they
are called
(A) Mutation (B) Point mutation (C)Deletion (D) Inversion
36. In sickle cell anemia disease, a single thymine is replaced with an adenine in the
DNA that codesfor:
(A) Valine (B)Histidine (C) Glycine (D) GlutamicAcid

CH#21
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. Individual with Klinefelter’s syndrome has sex chromosomesas:
(A) XO (B)XXO (C)XXY (D)XXXY
2. Synapsis startduring:
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C)Pachytene (D) Diplotene
3. In Klinefelter’ssyndrome:
(A) One X-chromosomesmissing (B) Additional sex-chromosomes present
(C) Sex-chromosomes failtosegregate (D) None of these
4. Which structure becomes visible when cell startdividing?
(A) Nucleus (B)Cell membrane (C)Chromosome (D) Nuclear
membrane
5. Full cell cycle in Yeast cells has lengthof:
(A) 30minutes (B)60 minutes (C)90 minutes (D) 120 minutes
6. Which one is absent in animalcell?
(A) Spindle (B) Centriole (C) Chromatids (D) Phragmoplast
7. The spread of tumor cells to the secondary areas of growthis:
(A) Epistasis (B) Metastasis (C)Peristasis (D) None ofthese
8. The condensation of chromosomes reaches to itsmaximum:
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C)Pachytene (D) Diakinesis
9. The pairing of homologous chromosomes is completedin:
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C)Pachytene (D) Diplotene
10. Each bivalent is consist of four:
(A) Chromosomes (B)Chromatids (C) Chiasmata (D) Spore
11. The spindle fibers are composed of RNA and proteincalled:
(A) Insulin (B) Actin (C)Myosin (D)Tubulin
12. The most critical phase of mitosisis:
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C)Anaphase (D)Telophase
13. Exchange of chromosomal segment due to chiasmata formationis:
(A) Crossingover (B)Linkage (C)Diplotene (D) None of these
14. The vesicles forming Phragmoplast originateduring:
(A) Prophase (B) Metaphase (C)Interphase (D)Telophase
15. The microtubules are composed of a protein tubulin and tracesof
(A) DNA (B) RNA (C)Lipids (D)Terpenoids
16. During cell division, the nuclear division iscalled:
(A) Cytokinesis (B)Karyokinesis (C)Karyotype (D) Plasmolysis
17. The healing of depend upon:
(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis (C) Mutation (D) Apoptosis
18. DNA synthesis and chromosomal doubling occursin:
(A) G1–phase (B) G2 –phase (C) G0– phase (D) S-phase
19. Interphase period can be dividedinto:
(A) G1,G2,G3 (B) G1,G2,F1 (C) G1,S, G2 (D) S1, G1,S2
20. Post mitotic cells can exist the cell cycleduring:
(A) G0–phase (B) G1–phase (C) S – phase (D) G2–phase
21. Chromosomal doubling occursin:
(A) S-phase (B)G1-phase (C)G2-phase (D) G0-phase
22. Phragmoplast is formed by vesicles originatedfrom:
(A) EndoplasmicReticulum (B) GolgiComplex
(C) Chloroplast (D) Mitochondria
23. Karyokinesis involves of nucleus and cytokinesis refersto:
(A) Division ofwholecell (B) Division of Cytoplasm
(C) DivisionofCentromere (D) Division of Cell wall
24. Which tumor is delocalized or has branches other than site oforigin?
(A) Benign (B) Malignant (C) Both (D) Apoptosis
25. Cancer is caused mainly by mutationin:
(A) Somaticcells (B) Malignant cells (C)Sexcells (D) Reproductive
cells
26. Type of cell division in which number of chromosomes is reduced to half in
daughter cells is called:
(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis (C) Budding (D) Binary Fission
27. The number of sets of microtubules originate from each pair of
Centrioles is
 (A)03 (B)04 (C)05 (D)
06
28. Chromatin network is visibleduring:
(A) Interphase (B) Prophase (C) Metaphase (D) Anaphase
29. Microtubules are composedof:
(A) Tubulin (B) Insulin (C)Hemoglobin (D) Adrenaline
30. Contractile ring is cytokinesis is formedby:
(A) Tubulin (B) Actin &Myosin (C)Keratin (D) Cyclin
31. The most critical phase of mitosis, which ensures equal distribution of
chromatids in the in the daughter cellsis:
(A) Anaphase (B) Metaphase (C) Prophase (D)Telophase
32. Which one sub-stage of prophase-I of Meiosis-I lasts for days, week or evenyears?
(A) Zygotene (B)Leptotene (C)Pachytene (D)Diplotene
33. The stage of prophase that last for days, week or even yearis:
(A) Pachytene (B) Zygotene (C) Leptotene (D) Diplotene
34. In which stage of Meiosis, crossing overoccurs:
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C)Pachytene (D) Anaphase
35. Cancer occurs due to errorin:
(A) Mitosis (B) Meiosis (C)Binary fission (D) Budding
36. An unwanted clone of cells and establishment of secondary areas of growth
iscalled:
(A) Tumor (B)Growth (C)Lump (D) Swelling
37. The actual reduction division is:
(A) Meiosis-I (B)Meiosis-II (C)Mitosis (D) Cytokinesis
38. The prophase stage in which the chromosomes become visible, shorten
andthick:
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C)Pachytene (D) Diplotene
39. In which stage of Meiosis, the paired chromosomes repel each other and begin
toseparate:
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C)Diplotene (D) Pachytene
40. The frequency of occurrence of Down syndromeis:
(A) 1/700 (B)1/40 (C) 1/500 (D) 1/200
41. In human cell, average cell cycle isabout:
(A) 14hours (B)24 hours (C) 34 hours (D) 44hours
42. The presence of invading cells other than normal tissue is an indicationof:
(A) Melatoma (B)Abnormality (C)Mutation (D) Malignancy
43. The affected individual have one missing X-chromosome with only 45
chromosomesin:
(A) Down’ssyndrome (B) Sach’s syndrome
(C)Turner’s syndrome (D) Klinefelter’ssyndrome
44. The duration of mitosis in human cell cycleis:
(A) 30hour (B)30sec (C) 30days (D) 30 min
45. Cell death due to tissue damage iscalled:
(A) Apoptosis (B) Metastasis (C) Necrosis (D) Suicide
46. A network of very fine treads called chromatin material can be visualized in
cellduring:
(A) Interphase (B) Metaphase (C)Anaphase (D) Prophase
47. Thepairedchromosomesrepeleachotherandbegintoseparateduring:
(A) Pachytene (B) Diplotene (C)Leptotene (D) Zygotene
48. Mongolism is also knownas:
(A) Down’ssyndrome (B) Klinefelter’ssyndrome
(C)Turner’s syndrome (D) Complement ofGene
 49. The period of life cycle of a cell between two consecutive divisionsis:
(A) Prophase (B)Telophase (C)Degreephase (D) Interphase
50. During meiosis the tetrad is formedin:
(A) Leptotene (B) Zygotene (C)Pachytene (D)Interphase
51. Meiosis-II is just likethe:
(A) Amitosis (B) Mitosis (C)Regeneration (D) Regeneration
52. The tumor which is localized and not transferred to the other bodyparts:
(A) Cancer (B)Melanoma (C)Benign (D) Malignant

Ch#22 VARIATION AND GENETICS

Solved MCQs

GENES, ALLELES AND GENE POOL

1. The position of gene on chromosome is called its:
a) allele b) phenotype c) locus d) genotype
2. The genes found in breeding population constitute:
a) genotypeb) genome c) gene frequecy d) gene pool
3. Expression of a trait is termed as:
a) genotype b) phenotype c) karyotype d) heterozygous genotype
4. Locus is:
a) Part of DNA b) position of gene c) partner a gene d) compliment of a
gene
5. The gene pool consists of all alleles at all gene loci in all individuals of:
a) species b) population c) environment d) ecosystem
6. The_____ are like beans in beanbag:
a) allele b) genes c) traits d) characters

MENDEL’S LAWS OF INHERETANCE

7. Mendelian factor was termed as gene by :
a) mendle b) correns c) johanssen d) morgan
8. The cross which is used to find out the homozygous or heterozygous nature of genotype is
called as:
a) test cross b) reciprocal cross c) monohybrid cross d) dihybrid cross
9. In test cross, heterozygous produces:
a) all round b) all wrinkle c) 50:50 d) none of these
DOMINANCE RELATIONS
10. Different alleles of a gene that are both expressed in a heterozygous condition are called:
a) codominance b) complete dominance c) incomplete dominance d) over dominance
11. MN blood group is an example of :
A)codominance b) incomplete dominance c)overdominance d) complete
dominance
12. Incomplete dominance was discovered by 4 ’O clock plant in 1899 by:
a) Devries b) Mendel c) Johansen d) Carl Correns
MULTIPLES ALLELES (ABO & Rh GROUP SYSTEM)
13. Rh blood group system is named after its:
a) discoverer b) rhesus monkey c) a patient d) Rhinocores
14. The individual called as universal recipient have:
a) A blood group b) B blood group c) AB blood group d) O blood group
15. In 1910, ABO blood group system was discovered by:
A) punnet b) karl Landsteiner c) bern stein d) weiner
16. Secretors have dominant secretor gene Se on chromosome:
A) 09 b) 19 c)21 d) 24
17. ABO blood group system in man is encoded by a polymorphic gene I on chromosome:
a) 7 b) 9 c) 21 d) 10
SEX CROMOSOMES
18. The sex chromosome were discovered by:
a) sutton b) morgan c) jordan d) correns
19. The gene that triggers developmental process towards maleness is:
a) TFM b) SRY c)MODY d) BOB
SEX-LINKAGE IN HUMANS
20. Hemophilia C :
a) affect both sexes equally b) affects men more than women
c) affects women more than men d) none of these
21. Hemophilia is:
A) x linked dominant trait b) x linked recessive trait
c) sex influenced trait d) sex limited trait

22. Blue cone monochromacy is an X linked trait in which:

a) red cone cells are absent b) green cone cells are absent
c) both red and green cone cells are absent d) blue cone cells are absent
23. The gene for blue opsin is present on autosome :
a) 7 b) 11 c) 19 d) 21
24. The true color blindness is :
a) monochromacy b) dichromacy c) trichromacy d) tetrachromacy
25. Green color blindness is called :
a) deutranopiab) protanopia c)tritanopia d) color blind
26. Hypophosphatemic rickets is an x linked:
a) dominant trait b) recessive trait c) co-dominant trait d) over dominant trait
27. Deutranopia is a color blindness of :
a) red b) blue c) green d) yellow
28. The maturity onset diabetes of the young is:
a) an autosomal dominant trait b) autosomal recessive trait
c) sex linked trait d) sex influenced trait
29. Pattern baldness is _____ trait:
a) sex limited b) sex influenced c) sex linked trait d) autosomal

CH#23 BIOTECHNOLOGY

RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

 1. The two different pieces of DNA joint together are called as :
a) Tetrameric DNA b) chimeric DNA c) trimeric DNA d) dimeric DNA

2. first restriction enzyme was isolated by:

a) Karry mulis b) hamilton c) sanger d) Mendel

3. pbR 322 has an antibiotic resistant gene for:

a) Tetracycline and ampicillin b) streptomycin only c) tetracycline only d) ampicillin
only

4. One common type of vector is:

a) Chromosome b) plasmid c) lysosome d) mitochondria
5. The single stranded but complementary ends of the two DNA molecules are called:
a) sticky ends b) gluey endsc) adhesive ends d) tacky ends

POLYMERASE CHAIN REACTION

6. PCR is used to diagnose:

A) Viral infection b) genetic disorder c) cancer d) all of above
B) Archeobacteria can tolerate temperature upto
a) 100oC b) 40 oC c)50 oC d) 120 oC
7. Commonly enzyme, Thermus aquaticus, is also known as:
A) taq polymerase b) DNA polymerase c) RNA polymerase d) taq ligase

ANALYZING DNA

8. DNA finger prints can also be used as:

a) Crime evidence b) forensic evidence c) offense evidence d) litigation evidence

9. The DNA from a single sperm is enough to identify a suspected:

a) child b) women c) zygote d) rapist

GENE SEQUENCING

10. dideoxy ribonucleotide triphosphates are used to terminate into DNA synthesis at
different sites in:
a) maxam-gilbert method b) Sanger method c) smith method d) Sanford method

TRANSGENIC BACTERIA
11. Organism used as biofilters is:
a) Transgenic plant b) transgenic animalc) transgenic bacteriad) transgenic virus

12. phenylalanine is an organic chemical needed to make aspartame, dipeptide sweetener

better known as:
a) nutra toxin b) nutra sweetc) dipeptide sweet d) nutra salt
 13. some mining companies are testing genetically engineered organisms that have improved:
A) rate of reproduction b) rate of mutation

c) bio-fowling capabilities d) bioleaching capabilities

14. Genetic engineering may enhance the ability of bacteria to extract:

a) copper b) uranium c) gold d) all a,b,c

TRANSGENIC PLANTS

15. An antibody made by soybeans can be used as treatment for:

a) AIDS b) herpes simplex c) genital herpes d) hepatitis C

TRANSGENIC ANIMALS
16. antithrombin is biotechnological product produced in:
a) sheep b) goat c) cow d) mice

17. Urine is preferable vehicle for a biotechnology product than :

a) milk b) plasma c) soma-clonal d) blood

GENETIC ENGINEERING IN PLANTS

18. The enzyme luciferase produced by an insect commonly called as:

a) House fly b) butterfly c) firefly d) caddis

Ch#24

EVOLUTION

1. According to endosymbiont hypothesis, the aerobic bacteria developedinto:

(A) Ribosome (B)Lysosome (C) Mitochondria (D) Golgiapparatus
2. Darwin’s “Origin of Species” was publishedin:
(A)1840 (B) 1859 (C) 1865 (D)1890
3. Archeobacteria tolerates temperature upto:
(A)60ºC (B) 90ºC (C) 120ºC (D) 150ºC
4. Armadillos, the armored mammals liveonly in :
(A) Africa (B)America (C)Europe (D) Asia
5. Tube that connect the middle ear with the throat in humans arecalled:
(A) Eustachiantube (B)Neuraltube (C) Fallopian tube (D) Nephridial tube
6. In terrestrial vertebrates, the gill pouches developinto:
(A) Gills (B) Lungs (C) Nose (D) Eustachian
tube
7. In natural selection, the environment plays role affecting the proportions of
genein:
(A) Population (B)Community (C) Area (D) Biome
8. A group of individuals belong to a particular species and sharing a common
geographic area iscalled:
(A) Community (B)Population (C)Ecosystem (D)Biosphere
9. The change in frequency of alleles at locus that occur by chance iscalled:
 (A) Mutation (B) Migration (C)GeneticDrift (D)Selection
10. Endosymbiont hypothesis was proposedby:
(A) Cuvier (B) Lyell (C) Margulies (D) Malthus
11. Eukaryotes are thought to have firstappearedabout billion years ago:
(A)1.5 (B)2.5 (C)3.5 (D)4.5
12. Wallace developed a theory of natural selection identicalto:
(A) Lamarck (B) Linnaeus (C)Darwin (D) Hutton
13. The vermiform appendix is vestigial organin:
(A) Herbivores (B) Carnivores (C)Omnivores (D) Frugivores
14. Endosymbiont hypothesis was proposedby:
(A) Cuvier (B) Lyell (C)Lynn Margulies (D) Malthus
15. The scientist who published Principles of Geologywas:
(A) Lamarck (B) Linnaeus (C) Lyell (D) Darwin
16. In man the vestigial organis:
(A) Earmuscles (B) Nictitatingmembrane
(C)Nosebone (D) Pelvis and legbones
17. Anexampleofnaturalselectioninactionisevolutionofantibioticresistancein:
(A) Algae (B)Fungi (C) Bacteria (D)Viruses
18. Among birds, Darwin collected 13 typesof:
(A) Robins (B)Finches (C) Ferrets (D) Pterodactyl les
19. The oldest known fossils areof:
(A) Fungi (B)Eukaryotes (C) Prokaryotes (D)Plants
20. The gene pool consists of all alleles at all gene loci in all individualof:
(A) Individual (B) Species (C)Population (D) Community

CHAPTER 25
INTRODUCTION
1. the study of relationship of organisms to their environment is known as:

a) Biology b) zoology c) ecology d) mycology

ECOSYSTEM

2. the smallest biological unit that can evolve over time is:

a) Organism b) cell c) population d)species

3. Any group of interbreeding organisms of the same species that exist together in both time
and space is called:
A) gene pool b) popultion c) true breeders d) multiple alleles

4. Any group of interbreeding organisms of the same species that exist together in both time
and space is called:

A) gene pool b) popultion c) true breeders d) multiple alleles

5. there are ____major terrestrial biomes:

a)3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
6. Atmosphere means the____ content of earth:
 a)soil b) air c) water d)non living things

BIOTIC COMPONENTS
7. Biosphere is spread out over the surface of planet earth extending about:
a) 3-6 kilometer b) 4-8 kilometer c)8-10 kilometer d)8-12 kilometer

N- CYCLE
8. when bacteria in soil oxidized ammonia or ammonium ion is called:
A)oxidation b)denitrification c) Ammonification d) Nitrification

9. the amount of nitrogen in the air is:

a) 70% b) 78% c) 71% d) 75%

10. The sequence of principle stages of nitrogen cycle is:

a)ammonification nitrification assimiation b) nitrification ammonification assimilation

c) assimilation ammonification nitrification d) none
11. The reduction of nitrate into ammonium in the plant cell is called:

a) nitrification b) ammonification c) assimilation d) both a and b

ABIOTIC COMPONENTS

12. Lithosphere includes:

b) Earth soil b) air c) water d) gases

SYMBIOSIS
13. An association between two organisms in which both are benefited is called:

A)parasitism b) commensilism c) mutualism d) predation

14. Relationship between remoras and shark is an example of:

A) commensalism b) predation c)mutualism d)parasitism

15. lichens is an example of:
A) commensalism b) predation c)mutualism d)parasitism
16. one of the following is an example of predator-prey relationship:

A)Fungus and algae b) root nodule bacteria c) fox and rabbit d) flower
and insect
17. in root nodules organisms present are:

A)Bacteria b) cyanobacteria c) algae d)fungi

18. Diseases in living organisms caused by parasites are called:

A) infestation b) enoparasites c)disinfestation d)ectoparasites

 19. over grazing may lead to:

A)forest b) more grass c) desert d) none

FLOW OF ENERGY IN FOOD CHAIN OF ECOSYTEM

20. total energy of the sun, traped by producers in an ecosystem is about :

A)20% b) 5% c) 10% d)1%

BIOSPHERE

21. Who proposed the term niche in ecology:

A)Heackel b) Grinnell c) Elton d) Darwin

22. Actual location of planet where an organism lives called:

A)Niche b) HABITAT c) ECOSYSTEM d) POPULATION

23. Upper layer of earth crust is:
A) dust b) sand c)land d)soil

FOOD WEB
24. All the food chains begin with:

b) Producers b) primary consumers c) secondary consumers d) decomposer

25. A short chain of two or three links supports a community:

A)efficiently b) more efficiently c) in efficiently d) less efficiently

CHAPTER 26

AQUATIC OR HYDROSPHERIC ECOSYSTEM

1. A little light is left to power photosynthesis at the depth of:
(A) 600 feet (B)300feet (C)400feet (D) 200feet
2. Nutrients tend to be concentrated near the bottom sediments:
(A): Desert (B): Aquatic ecosystem (C): Tundra (D): Coniferous forests
PRODCUTIVITIY OF AQUATIC ECOSYSTEM
3. The productivity of aquatic ecosystem is basically determinedby:
(A) Light and nutrients (B) Light andmud
(C) Lightand sand (D) Light andair
4. The productivity can be indicatedby:
(A) Consumption ofCO2 (B) Consumption ofO2
(C) Evolutionof CO2 (D) Evolution of N2
FRESH WATER LAKES
5. Floating plants are called:
(A) Phytoplankton (B) Protista (C)Fungi (D) Algae
6. The zone where enough light penetrate to support photosynthesis:
 (A) Littoral zone (B) Limnetic zone (C)Profundal zone (D) Benthic zone
7. Limnetic phytoplankton includes the:
(A) Bacteria (B) Mosses (C) Algae (D) Cyanobacteria
8. Here, light is insufficient to supportphotosynthesis:
(A) LittoralZone (B) Limnetic Zone
(C) Profundal Zone (D) Phytoplankton Zone
9. The zone rich in life in fresh water lake is called:
(A) LittoralZone (B) Limnetic Zone (C) Profundal Zone (D) Desert
10. The deepest zone of freshwater lakes is:
(A): Benthic zone (B): Profundal zone (C): Limnetic zone (D): Littoral zone
TERRESTRIAL OR LITHOSPHERIC ECOSYSTEM
11. Ecosystem present on land or soil is called:
(A) Terrestrial (B) Atmosphere (C)Lithosphere (D) Both A andC
12. The upper weathered layer of earth’s crust is called_______.
(A): Soil (B): Weather (C): Climate (D): None
TEMPERATE DECIDUOUS FOREST
13. The average rainfall in temperate deciduous forest isb/w:
(A) 600-1500mm (B)650-1500mm (C)700-1500mm (D) 750-1500mm
14. Temperate deciduous forests are located in Pakistan:
(A) Shogran (B) Chilas (C) Mianwali (D) Sind
15. The scientific name for Rhesus monkeyis:
(A) Macacamulatto (B)Taxusbaccata (C)Felisfelis (D) None of these
16. Felisbengalensisis the Zoological nameof:
(A) LeopardCat (B)Leopard (C) Cat (D)Tiger
CONIFEOUS ALPINE AND BOREAL FORESTS
17. The coniferous forest located at high altitudes are called:
(A) Boreal (B)Alpine (C) Desert (D)Temperate
18. Chilas has major terrestrialecosystem:
(A) Deciduousforest (B) Alpineforest (C)Tundraforest (D) Grassland
19. Coniferous forest located at high latitude are called:
(A) Alpine (B) Boreal (C)Taiga (D) Wood land
20. Northern coniferous forests arecalled:
(A) Savanna (B) Prairies (C)Taiga (D)Tundra

21. Which one is not a Desert?

(A) Thal (B)Thar (C) Sahara (D)Taiga
THE GRASSLAND ECOSYSTEM
22. The soil of grass land is basically impermeable with excessive:
(A) Neutral pH (B)Acidity (C) Salinity (D) Moisture
23. The rate of primary production is about 700-1500 gm/m2 annuallyis:
(A) Tundra (B) Tropical grassland (C)Temperategrassland (D) Desert
24. The Grassland having no woody plants are also known as:
(A) Prairies (B) Savanna (C) Alpine (D) Boreal
25. All of the grasses form 2 layer in grass land ecosystem except:
nd

(A) Stipa (B)Sporobolus (C) Oryzopsis (D) Andropogon

26. The rate of primary production is about 70-1500 g/m2 annually is:
(A) Desert (B): Temperate Grassland (C): Tundra (D): Tropical grassland
27. The Grassland of tropical region is called:
(A): Alpine (B): Tiaga (C): Boreal (D): Savanna
 28. The biome which has very fertile soil, rich in organic matter with maximum
water holding capacity is:
(A) AlpineForest (B) Temperate DeciduousForest
(C)Grassland (D) Desert
DESERT ECOSYSTEM
29. The annual average rainfall in desert ecosystem is about:
(A) 20-40 inches (B): 25-40 inches (C): 30-40 inches (D): Less than 10-20
inches
30. Cacti and euphorbia are the desert plants which store water in their:
(A): Roots (B): Stem (C): Bud (D): Leaves
31. Which biome is increased in area by human activity?
(A): Desert (B): Grassland (C): Forest (D): Savanna
32. An example of human population exceeding the carrying capacity of the land:
(A) Tundra (B)Savannah (C)Forest (D)Sahel
33. The plants in desertsare:
(A) Remain ever green (B)Short rooted (C) Conserve water (D) Broad leaves
34. The biomes which has been increased in area by humanactivities:
(A) Grassland (B)Tundra (C) Desert (D) Coniferousforests
35. In which type of ecosystem is the smallest fraction of nutrients present insoil:
(A) Forest (B) Savanna (C) Grass land (D) Desert
36. In Sindh, the desert ecosystemis:
(A) Thal (B)Thar (C) Sahara (D) Cholistan
37. Desert ecosystem of Bhakkar and Mianwali iscalled:
(A) Thar (B)Thal (C) Cholistan (D)Rohi
38. In which type of ecosystem is the smallest fraction of nutrients present insoil:
(A) Forest (B) Savanna (C) Grass land (D) Desert
TUNDRA ECOSYSTEM
39. Which of the following is the most fragile ecosystem?
(A) Grassland (B) Woodland (C) Savanna (D)Tundra
40. Tundra Ecosystem is located on mountainsof:
(A) Karakoram (B)Hindukush (C) Suleiman (D) Both A &B
41. Arctic tundra stretches across north America, North Europeand:
(A) Siberia (B) Cyprus (C)Morocco (D) Algeria

Ch#27

MAN AND HIS ENVIRONMENT

26. A treasure of all type of recources essential to maintain life on earth:

a) environment b) water c) land d) earth

RENEWABLE AND NON REEWABLE RESOURCE

27. Which of the following is a renewable resource:

a) oil and air b) water and oil c) oil and natural gas d) air and water
 28. The mostly widely used source of energy on earth:
a) wind b) sun c) water d) geothermal

IMPORTANCE OF FOREST

29. Which of the following act as environmental buffer :

b) dessert b) grass land c) community d) forest
DEFORTATION AND AFFORESTATION
30. establishment of new forests where no forests existed before is called:
a) deforestation b) desrtification c) reforestation d) afforestation

OZONE DEPLETION

31. the decline in thickness of ozone layer is caused by increasing level of:
a) chloroflourocarbons b) nitrogen c) chiorine d) carbon dioxide

32. CFCs are produced by:

a) moving carts b) industrial machines c) air conditioners d) aeroplanes

33. Ozone in the upper layer of atmosphere that filters:

a) IR radiations b)UV radiations c) beta radiations d) alpha radiations

34. Ozone molecule is made up by binding of three atoms of :

A)nitrogen b) oxygen c)hydrogen d) carbon
35. As CFCs rise to the atmosphere, the ultraviolet rays release:
a) flourine b) chlorine c) carbon d) oxygen

36. In pure form ozone is :

A)greenish b) reddish c)yellowish d) bluish

WATER POLLUTION
37. some detergents contain a lot of:
a) sulphur b) carbon c) phosphate d) carbonates

ACID RAIN

38. Stone cancer is result of:

A)soil pollution b) water pollution c) air pollution d) stone pollution

39. Acid water draining through the soil washes out essential nutrients such as :
A) potassium b) calcium c) both d) none
EUTRFICATION OR ALGAL BLOOM

40. The large amount of phosphate encourages the growth of microscopic plants called:
A) eutrofication b) green house c)stone cancer d) fuel