1.

The wastewater disposed on land reaches groundwater and thereby contaminates

surface water.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Disposal onto land generally pollutes groundwater, and may reach
surface water when groundwater eventually discharges into surface water. Disposal
from an off-site treatment plant for groundwater recharge to control encroachment
of seawater in coastal areas is a form of reuse.

2. What does LPED stand for?

a) Low plane effluent disposal

b) Low pressure effluent disposal

c) Low pressure effluent distribution

d) Low plane effluent distribution

Answer: c

Explanation: LPED stands for Low pressure effluent distribution. Effluent may be
discharged more evenly across the disposal area by pump or dose loading. It also
eliminates the chance of disposal surges that may occur during periods of high
household use.

3. _______ is an improved sinkhole or a subsurface fluid distribution system.

a) Deep well

b) Injection well

c) Sink well

d) Bore well

Answer: b
Explanation: An injection well is a device that places fluid deep underground into
porous rock formations, such as sandstone or limestone, or into or below the
shallow soil layer. The fluid may be chemicals mixed with water, wastewater, etc.

4. Waste water is injected into the ground between impermeable layers of rocks to
avoid polluting fresh water supplies.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: In waste water disposal, treated waste water is injected into the
ground between impermeable layers of rocks to avoid polluting fresh water
supplies or adversely affecting the quality of receiving waters.

5. _________ is the controlled application of waste water onto the land surface to
achieve a specified level of treatment.

a) Water treatment

b) Wastewater treatment

c) Land treatment

d) Soil treatment

Answer: c

Explanation: The controlled application of waste water onto the land surface to
achieve a specified level of treatment through natural physical, chemical, and
biological processes within the plant soil-water matrix is called land treatment.

6. Which type of treatment methods are used for municipal and industrial
wastewaters?

a) Slow rate

b) Rapid infiltration

c) Overflow
d) Main stream

View Answer

Explanation: Slow Rate (SR) systems are the predominant form of land treatment
for municipal and industrial waste-water. Such a technology incorporates waste-
water treatment, water reuse, crop utilization of nutrients and waste-water disposal.

7. How are suspended solids removed from the soil?

a) Soil adsorption

b) Bacterial oxidation

c) Filtration

d) Chemical immobilization

Answer: c

Explanation: BOD is removed through soil adsorption and bacterial oxidation.

Suspended solids are removed by filtration through the soil. Phosphorus is
removed by chemical immobilization (precipitation and adsorption), plant uptake.

8. How are the traces of organic compounds removed from the soil?

a) Denitrification

b) Soil filtration

c) Precipitation

d) Sorption

Answer: d

Explanation: Nitrogen is removed by denitrification. The traces of organic

compounds are removed by photodecomposition, volatilization, sorption,
degradation. Metals are removed by precipitation.

9. Which of the following wastewater constituents are removed by chemical

immobilization?
a) BOD

b) Suspended solids

c) Metals

d) Phosphorus

Answer: d

Explanation: Chemical immobilization is a process consisting of precipitation and

adsorption. Phosphorus is removed by chemical immobilization and it is also
removed by plant uptake. The plant utilizes phosphorus for various purposes.

10. Which of the following is an intensive method of land treatment?

a) Rapid infiltration

b) Infiltration

c) Slow rate

d) Over flow

Answer: a

Explanation: Rapid infiltration (RI) is the most intensive of all land treatment
method. To shallow infiltration or spreading basins high hydraulic and organic
loadings are applied intermittently.

11. Which one of the following is the basic indicator of river health?

a) BOD

b) COD

c) DO

d) ThOD

Answer: c
Explanation: The amount of dissolved Oxygen (DO) in water is one of the most
commonly used indicators of a river health. Below 4 or 5 mg/l, the life forms that
survive are reduced.

12. What is the minimum amount of DO required for the life survival of aquatic
animals?

a) 10 mg/l

b) 5 mg/l

c) 2 mg/l

d) 1 mg/l

Answer: c

Explanation: As DO drops below 4 or 5 mg/L the forms of life that can survive
begin to be reduced. A minimum of about 2.0 mg/L of dissolved oxygen is
required to maintain higher life forms.

13. Oxygen demanding wastes improves DO.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: Oxygen demanding wastes remove DO. Plants add DO during the
day but remove it at night. Respiration of organisms removes oxygen. Temperature
is reduced in summer which inturn reduces flow.

14. In the concept of self purification of natural streams, complete the following
phrase. Solution to pollution is _________

a) Control

b) Dilution

c) Reuse
d) Recycle

Answer: b

Explanation: Waste water disposal practices are based on the premise that “the
solution to pollution is dilution”. In this method relatively small quantities of waste
are discharged into large bodies of water.

15. _________ is accomplished by the replenishment of oxygen lost to bacterial

degradation of organic waste.

a) Gas transfer

b) Dilution

c) Filtration

d) Re-suspension

Answer: a

Explanation: The transfer of gases into and out of water is an important part of the
natural purification process. Gas transfer is accomplished by the replenishment of
oxygen lost to bacterial degradation of organic waste.

16. On which of the following does the self purification process does not depend?

a) Volume

b) Flow rate

c) Temperature

d) Aquatic species

Answer: d

Explanation: The speed and completeness of the self purification process depend
upon many factors like volume, flow rate, the turbulence of flow, variation in
sunlight, etc. Aquatic species are affected by polluted streams.

17. Flowing water bodies recover rapidly.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Flowing water bodies like streams, canals and rivers can recover
rapidly from degradable, oxygen demanding wastes and excess heat through a
combination of dilution and bacterial decay.

18. In a flowing stream, the breakdown of degradable wastes by bacteria ________

dissolved oxygen.

a) Increases

b) Depletes

c) Maintains

d) Improves

Answer: b

Explanation: In a flowing stream, the breakdown of degradable wastes by bacteria

depletes dissolved oxygen. This eliminates the populations with high oxygen
requirements until the stream is cleansed of wastes.

19. What is the objective of water quality management?

a) Control the discharge of pollutants

b) Pollutants are discharged into flowing streams

c) Selective pollutants are released

d) Only highly toxic pollutants are released

Answer: a

Explanation: To control the discharge of pollutants so that the water quality is not
degraded to an unacceptable extent below the natural background level is the
objective of water quality management.
20. The impact of pollution depends upon nature of the pollutants and the
___________

a) Toxic contaminants

b) Season

c) Contaminants

d) Characteristics of river

Answer: d

Explanation: The impact of pollution depends upon nature of the pollutants and the
characteristics of the river like discharge and speed of flowing water, depth of the
river, type of bottom, surrounding vegetation, etc.

21. Separation is a unit operation.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: In chemical engineering and related fields, a unit operation is a basic

step in a process. Unit operations involve a physical change or chemical
transformation such as separation, crystallization, evaporation, filtration,
polymerization, isomerization, and other reactions.

22. Refrigeration is a mass transfer process.

a) True

b) False

Answer: b

Explanation: Processes like gas liquefaction and refrigeration are thermodynamic

processes. Mass transfer processes include gas absorption, distillation, extraction,
adsorption and drying.
23. Solids concentration will be ________ in water than wastewater.

a) More

b) Less

c) Equal to

d) Similar

Answer: b

Explanation: Water and waste water differ only in the way that solids
concentration will be more in waste water. Straining the finer particles in water
treatment is called filtration and is towards the biological action of bacteria on the
trickling filter to remove organic solids.

24. Unit operations are the ______ operations to remove the impurities.

a) Physical

b) Chemical

c) Biological

d) Biochemical

Answer: a

Explanation: The physical operations to remove the impurities present in the water
and waste water are called unit operations where as the unit processes are the
chemical and biological conversion on the status of the impurities that they will be
converted to a form that can be easily separated.

25. What did the structures use to prevent floating matter that enters into pumps
and pumping systems?

a) Aeration units

b) Screens

c) Grit chamber
d) Bioreactor

Answer: b

Explanation: Screens are in use from the intake structure where they prevent the
floating matter enters into the pumping units, and fine and coarse screens are in use
to treat waste water to prevent the entry of floating wastes and coarse solids into
the treatment.

26. _________ is simply detaining water for a sufficient time.

a) Coagulation

b) Flocculation

c) Sedimentation

d) Filtration

Answer: c

Explanation: Sedimentation is simply detaining water for a sufficient time mostly

in stagnant or relatively stagnant position to make the flow velocity of water less
than the settling velocity of the solid particles that they without being driven by
horizontal force settles down by gravity.

27. What is the removal of fine particle sand dissolved solids called?

a) Filtration

b) Sedimentation

c) Deoxidation

d) Disinfection

Answer: a

Explanation: Filtration is to the removal of fine particle sand dissolved solids

where the fine sand layer and coarse sand layer below serves as the media to
remove colloidal solids and the water remains completely free of solids.
28. How are colour and odour removed?

a) Adsorption

b) Sedimentation

c) Filtration

d) Coagulation

Answer: a

Explanation: Odour and colour present in water and waste water are removed by
aeration and adsorption process. The odour and colour causing elements are
adsorbed and aerated that the water is free from impurities for use and wastewater
for reuse and recycling.

29. The law of ________ states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed.

a) Radiation

b) Wastewater

c) Conversion of mass

d) Water

Answer: c

Explanation: The law of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be
created nor destroyed. Thus in a processing plant, the total mass of material
entering the plant must equal the total mass of material leaving the plant, less any
accumulation left in the plant.

30. What is the size of openings of a coarse screen?

a) 6mm-150mm

b) 150-200mm

c) >200mm

d) < 6mm
Answer: a

Explanation: The size of the coarse screens ranges from 6-150mm. Coarse screens
are further classified as hand cleaned and mechanically cleaned. Coarse screens
remove large particles and prevent clogging in pipes and pumps.

31. While designing a mechanical screen, the clear space between the bars would
be in what range?

a) 15-75mm

b) 25-50mm

c) 20-40mm

d) >75mm

32. What is the maximum approach velocity to be considered for a mechanical

screen while designing it?

a) 0.3-0.5m/s

b) 0.6-1m/s

c) 1-1.5m/s

d) 2 m/s

Answer: b

Explanation: The maximum approach velocity for a mechanical screen would be in

the range 0.6-1m/s. The minimum approach velocity would be in the range 0.3-
0.5m/s. These mechanical screens reduce manual labour.

33. What is the size of the openings for a fine screen?

a) 0.1 mm

b) 0.8-1mm

c) 0.2-0.6mm

d) 1-3mm
Answer: c

Explanation: The size of openings for a fine screen is 0.2-0.6mm. These are used
as a substitute for a primary clarifier. These are used to remove the suspended
particles.

34. What is the percentage of TSS removed by a rotary drum fine screen?

a) 50%

b) 60%

c) 65-75%

d) 25-45%

Answer: d

Explanation: 25-45 percentage of TSS is removed by rotary drum fine screens.

This however actually depends on the nature of the waste water. Also it depends on
the waste water travel time.

35. Which type of mixers are used to mix coagulants like alum, ferric ammonium
sulphate and coagulant aids such as polyelectrolyte and lime?

a) Static mixers

b) Mechanical mixers

c) Mechanical aerators

d) Paddle mixers

Answer: d

Explanation: Paddle mixers are used to mix coagulants and coagulant aids. Paddle
flocculators contain appropriately spaced paddles mounted on a shaft. Flocculation
is brought about by the movement of the slow moving paddles.

36. Which type of mixer is used when the flow needs to be changed often?

a) Paddle mixer
b) Static mixer

c) Mechanical mixer

d) Mechanical aerator

Answer: b

Explanation: When the flow needs to be changed /reversed often static mixers are
used. These can be comprised of over and under narrow channels. The flow
reversals in these mixers produce the energy required for flocculation.

37. In order to prevent clogging what should be provided prior to tube settlers?

a) Clarifiers

b) Coarse screen

c) Fine screen

d) Grit chamber

Answer: c

Explanation: Fine screens are placed before a tube settler. This is done in order to
prevent clogging. Tube settlers are placed at an angle of 45-60 degree.

38. Which of these is not a type of grit chamber

a) Horizontal flow

b) Vortex

c) Vertical flow

d) Aerated

Answer: c

Explanation: Grit chambers are of the type horizontal flow, aerated, vortex.
There’s no type such as vertical flow. These protect mechanical equipment from
abrasion and reduces the formation of heavy particles in pipes.
39. What is the detention time considered while designing a Grit chamber?

a) 20-40 sec

b) 10-20 sec

c) 90-120 sec

d) 45-90 sec

Answer: d

Explanation: The detention time considered while designing a Grit chamber is 45-
90 sec. Usually, 60 secs is considered as the detention time in most of the cases.
The typical head loss considered is 30-40%.

40. In which of the following systems no flow is added or allowed to leave during
the design detention time?

a) Arbitrary flow reactor

b) Fluidized bed reactor

c) Mixed batch reactor

d) Packed bed reactor

Answer: c

Explanation: Arbitrary reactor is any degree of partial mixing between plug-flow

and complete-mix. Where no flow is added or allowed to leave during the design
detention time is called mixed batch reactor.

41. In __________ reactor the bed is filled with a packing material that expands
when wastewater moves upwards.

a) Fluidized bed reactor

b) Packed bed reactor

c) Plug flow reactor

d) Mix batch reactor

Answer: a

Explanation: Fluid particles pass through the tank and are discharged in the same
sequence in which they enter in plug flow reactor. The packing material that
expands and gets fluidized when wastewater moves upward in the reactor is
provided in fluidized bed reactor.

42. What is the aspect ratio of a stirred tank bioreactor?

a) 1-2

b) 2-3

c) 2-4

d) 3-5

Answer: d

Explanation: The aspect ratio of a stirred tank bioreactor is usually between 3-5.
However, for animal cell culture applications, the aspect ratio is less than 2. The
number of impellers depends on the size of the bioreactor and is variable.

43. The diameter of the impeller is usually 1/3 rd of the vessel diameter.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: The diameter of the impeller is usually 1/3 rd of the vessel diameter.
The distance between two impellers is approximately 1.2 impeller diameter.
Different types of impellers (Rustom disc, concave bladed, marine propeller etc.)
are in use.

44. In bubble column bioreactor, the flow rate of air/ gas influences the
performance of oxygen transfer.

a) True

b) False
Answer: a

Explanation: The air or gas is introduced at the base of the column through
perforated pipes or plates, or metal micro porous sparger is in the bubble column
bioreactor. The flow rate of the air/gas influences the performance factors —O2
transfer, mixing.

45. The vessel used for bubble column bioreactors is _______

a) Square

b) Rectangular

c) Cylindrical

d) Circular

Answer: c

Explanation: The bubble column bioreactors may be fitted with perforated plates to
improve performance. The vessel used is usually cylindrical with an aspect ratio of
4-6 (i.e., height to diameter ratio).

46. In which of the following bioreactors is the vessel divided into two
interconnected zones?

a) Bubble column bioreactors

b) Airlift bioreactors

c) Continuous stirred tank bioreactors

d) Packed bed bioreactors

Answer: b

Explanation: In the airlift bioreactors, the medium of the vessel is divided into two
interconnected zones by means of a baffle or draft tube. Air is pumped in one of
two zones. The other zone that receives no gas is the down comer.

47. Which of the following reactors is comparable to bubble column bioreactor?

a) Fluidized bed bioreactor

b) Packed bed bioreactors

c) Airlift bioreactors

d) Continuous stirred tank bioreactors

Answer: a

Explanation: Fluidized bed bioreactor is comparable to bubble column bioreactor

except the top position is expanded to reduce the velocity of the fluid. The design
of the fluidized bioreactors is such that the solids are retained in the reactor while
the liquid flows out.

48. Which of the following bioreactor consists of biocatalysts on or within the

matrix of solids?

a) Photo-bioreactors

b) Packed bed bioreactors

c) Airlift bioreactors

d) Fluidized bed bioreactor

Answer: b

Explanation: A bed of solid particles, with biocatalysts on or within the matrix of

solids, packed in a column constitutes a packed bed bioreactor. The solids used
may be porous or non-porous gels, and they may be compressible or rigid in
nature.

49. Which bioreactor is designed for fermentation?

a) Photo bioreactors

b) Continuous stirred tank bioreactors

c) Fluidized bed bioreactor

d) Airlift bioreactors
Answer: a

Explanation: The bioreactors designed for fermentation that can be carried out
either by exposing to artificial illumination or sunlight is called Photo bioreactors.

50. The array of tubes or flat panels constitutes ________ in photo bioreactors.

a) Light receiving systems

b) Heating systems

c) Cooling systems

d) Radiation emitting systems

Answer: a

Explanation: Glass or more commonly transparent plastic is used to make photo

bioreactors. The array of tubes or flat panels constitutes light receiving systems
(solar receivers).

51. Hydrolysis of chlorine in water has a rate constant of 11 s-1. What does this
imply?

a) It is a slow reaction.

b) It is a moderate reaction

c) It is a fast reaction

d) It is a very slow reaction

Answer: c

Explanation: Hydrolysis of chlorine in water is a first order reaction. Any first

order reactions with rate constant > 1s-1 is considered as a fast reaction. Hence the
above reaction is a fast reaction.

52. Which type of reactor is used for mixing chemicals in water treatment?

a) Continuous reactor

b) Batch reactor
c) Plug flow reactor

d) Fixed bed reactor

Answer: b

Explanation: Batch reactors are used while mixing chemicals for water treatment.
When chemicals such as alum, ferric ammonium sulphate are required for
coagulation, chemical mixing is done. For the preparation of flocculants and other
pH controlling chemicals also the same batch reactor process is used for chemical
mixing.

53. Which reactors are characterized by non-continuous reactions?

a) Plug flow reactor

b) Continuous reactor

c) Batch reactor

d) Fluidized bed reactor

Answer: c

Explanation: Based on the operation, the reactors are classified as batch and
continuous. Batch reactors follow non-continuous mode of reaction. While in a
continuous flow reactor, the continuous reaction takes place.

54. In which type of reactor, mixing is uniform?

a) Ideal reactor

b) Batch reactor

c) Non-ideal reactor

d) Fixed bed reactor

Answer: a
Explanation: Ideal reactors are those in which the mixing is uniform. The reactors
in which the mixing is not uniform, those reactors are known as non-ideal reactors.
Ideal reactors have uniform hydraulic conditions.

55. Which type of reactor is not used for oxidation?

a) Packed bed reactor

b) Stirred tanks

c) Tank in series

d) Venturi reactor

Answer: a

Explanation: Packed bed reactors are not used for the oxidation reaction. Oxidation
is carried out in a venturi reactor, tank in series and stirred tank reactors. Oxidation
of Iron, Oxidation of manganese, dechlorination of SO2 and ozone reactions are
carried out in these reactors.

56. Which type of reactor is not subjected to back mixing?

a) Plug flow

b) Completely stirred reactor

c) Batch reactors

d) Venturi reactor

Answer: a

Explanation: Plug flow reactors are not subjected to back mixing. They are
designed for a specific detention time. Disinfection of water is carried out in a plug
flow reactor.

57. Which type of reactor is used for stripping off gases from water?

a) Venturi reactor

b) Packed bed reactor

c) Plug flow reactor

d) Continuous stirred reactor

Answer: b

Explanation: Packed bed reactors are used in stripping off gases from water. These
are used to strip off undesirable gases or organic compounds from water. Counter
current flow is usually encountered in such reactors.

58. Which type of reactor is used in ion exchange or adsorption?

a) Fixed bed reactor

b) Venturi reactor

c) Plug flow reactor

d) Continuous flow stirred reactor

Answer: a

Explanation: Ion exchange takes place in a fixed bed reactor. This reaction takes
place within the solid phase. These type of reactions also take place in a fluidized
bed reactor.

59. Which type of reactor is used in precipitation reactions?

a) Fluidised bed reactor

b) Plug flow reactor

c) Venturi reactor

d) Recycle reactor

Answer: d

Explanation: Recycle reactors are predominantly used in precipitation reactions. In

these reactions, a part of the solid precipitated is recycled. This is done in order to
increase the rate of reaction as in the case of softening.
60. In which type of reactor diffusion and dispersion contribute to solid fluxes into
and out of the reactor?

a) Venturi reactor

b) Open reactor

c) Closed reactor

d) Recycle reactor

Answer: b

Explanation: In open reactors diffusion and dispersion contribute to solute fluxes

into and out of the reactor. An example of an open reactor is ground water with
contaminant plume. In this case, the plume flows along with the ground water by
diffusion.

Explanation: The mathematical representation of a plug flow reactor after a tracer

is added is ŧ=V/Q. Plug flow reactors have uniform mixing. Also, there’s no back
mixing in these reactors.

Explanation: The completely stirred reactor is represented as C=C0e-1/ŧ. In most of

the water treatment process completely stirred reactors are used. To improve the
hydraulic performance, a series of completely mixed stirred reactors are employed.

61. Screening and comminution are preliminary treatment processes.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Screening and comminution are preliminary treatment processes

utilized to protect mechanical equipment in the treatment works, to aid
downstream treatment processes by intercepting unacceptable solids and to alter
the physical form of solids so they are acceptable for treatment.

62. _____ devices remove materials which would damage equipment or interfere
with a process.
a) Grit

b) Screening

c) Oxidation

d) Reduction

Answer: b

Explanation: Screening devices remove materials which would damage equipment

or interfere with a process or piece of equipment. Screening devices have a varied
application of wastewater treatment facilities.

63. __________ represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater.

a) Debris

b) Waste

c) Screens

d) Grit

Answer: d

Explanation: Grit represents the heavier inert matter in wastewater which will not
decompose in treatment processes. It is identified with matter having a specific
gravity of about 2.65 and design of grit chambers is based on the removal of all
particles of about 0.011 inch or larger (65 mesh).

64. Supplemental means of aeration are often employed with an equalization basin
to provide better mixing.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: supplemental means of aeration are often employed with an

equalization basin to provide better mixing, chemical oxidation of reduced
compounds, some degree of biological oxidation, agitation to prevent suspended
solids from settling.

65. Which of the following should be provided in the case where aeration is
absent?

a) Screening devices

b) Mechanical mixers

c) Grit removers

d) Sedimentation tank

Answer: b

Explanation: If aeration is not provided, baffles or mechanical mixers must be

provided to avoid stratification and short circuiting in equalization basins. The size
and shape of an equalization facility will vary with the quantity of waste and the
patterns of waste discharge.

66. Which process is employed to gain sufficient head for the wastewater?

a) Screening

b) Pumping

c) Oxidation

d) Fermentation

Answer: b

Explanation: Pumping facilities may be employed to gain sufficient head for the
wastewater to flow through the treatment works to the point of final disposal.
Pumping is also generally required for recirculation of all or part of the flow
around certain units within the plant. Pumping facilities are classified as influent,
effluent, or recirculation stations and perform a critical function.

67. What is the most common used coagulant?

a) Alum
b) Ferric sulphate

c) Limestone

d) Coal

Answer: a

Explanation: Sedimentation using chemical coagulation has been implied mainly to

pre-treatment of industrial or process wastewaters and removal of phosphorus from
domestic wastewaters. Alum is mostly used as it is cheap and easily available.

68. What is the intermediate zone composed of in aerobic-anaerobic ponds?

a) Algae

b) Aerobic bacteria

c) Facultative bacteria

d) Organic solids

Answer: c

Explanation: Aerobic-anaerobic ponds consist of three zones: a surface zone of

algae and aerobic bacteria in a symbiotic association; an intermediate zone
populated with facultative bacteria (aerobic or anaerobic); and an anaerobic bottom
zone where settled organic solids are decomposed by anaerobic bacteria.

69. Nitrification efficiency is significantly suppressed as the temperature is

_________

a) Increased

b) Decreased

c) Neutral

d) Maintained

Answer: b
Explanation: Two important considerations in nitrification are the maintenance of a
proper pH and temperature. Nitrification is a very temperature-sensitive system
and the efficiency is significantly suppressed as the temperature decreases.

70. __________ is a process which involves further removal of the nitrogen.

a) Nitrification

b) Denitrification

c) Ammonification

d) Reduction

Answer: b

Explanation: As with nitrification, denitrification is a process which involves

further removal of the nitrogen by conversion of the nitrate to nitrogen gas. This
represents a process for the ultimate removal of nitrogen from wastewater.

71. In rotating biological contractors, what percent of corrugated plastic discs are
submerged?

a) 20

b) 50

c) 80

d) 40

Answer: d

Explanation: In the process of rotating biological contractors, the large diameter

corrugated plastic discs are mounted on a horizontal shaft and placed in a tank. The
medium is slowly rotated with about 40 percent of the surface area always
submerged in the flowing wastewater.

72. What is the method of treatment used when the TSS in the sample is high?

a) Ultrafiltration
b) High rate solid contact clarifier

c) Pressure Sand filter

d) Activated Carbon filter

Answer: b

Explanation: High rate solid contact clarifier is used to treat samples with very
high TSS. The other methods namely ultrafiltration and pressure sand filter cannot
treat samples with very high TSS. This is because the filters will get clogged.

73. Which type of treatment does clarification fall in?

a) Secondary treatment

b) Primary treatment

c) Preliminary treatment

d) Tertiary treatment

Answer: b

Explanation: Clarification is classified as Primary treatment. Influent with high

TSS can be treated here. The COD associated TSS also gets reduced in this stage.

74. Which of these remove coarse materials?

a) Coarse screen

b) Grit chamber

c) Fine screen

d) Commutors

Answer: a

Explanation: Coarse screens remove coarse materials. The size of the coarse screen
is 6mm-25mm. These coarse screens maybe manual or mechanically driven.

75. Which type of treatment is the coarse screen?

a) Preliminary treatment

b) Primary treatment

c) Secondary treatment

d) Tertiary treatment

Answer: a

Explanation: Coarse screens are classified as preliminary treatment. This is mainly

to remove grit, sand particles. This prevents clogging of the pipe and pump.

76. Tube settlers are classified as which type of treatment?

a) Tertiary treatment

b) Secondary treatment

c) Preliminary treatment

d) Primary treatment

Answer: b

Explanation: Tube settlers are classified as secondary treatment. These are used
mainly to remove TSS. Tube settlers will be followed generally after a clarifier and
a flocculator.

77. Activated Carbon is classified as which type of treatment?

a) Preliminary treatment

b) Primary treatment

c) Secondary treatment

d) Tertiary treatment

Answer: d
Explanation: Activated Carbon is classified as tertiary treatment. This works on the
principle of adsorption. Pressure sand filter is usually prior to the activated carbon
filter.

78. Which of these is used to remove odour?

a) Ultrafiltration

b) Pressure sand filter

c) Activated carbon

d) Nano filter

Answer: c

Explanation: Activated carbon filters are used to remove odour. This is also used to
reduce COD by removing organics. The treatment process works on the principal
of adsorption.

79. Reverse Osmosis is which type of treatment?

a) Primary treatment

b) Preliminary treatment

c) Secondary treatment

d) Tertiary treatment

Answer: d

Explanation: Reverse Osmosis is classified as tertiary treatment. This is mainly

used to remove ions. This results in the reduction of total dissolved salts.

80. Which is usually prior to reverse osmosis?

a) Ultrafiltration

b) Activated carbon filter

c) Clarifier
d) Tube settler

Answer: a

Explanation: Ultrafiltration is usually prior to reverse osmosis. This is to remove

the TSS present in the sample. Reverse osmosis reduces the total dissolved solids
in the water sample.

81. What does zero discharge actually refer to?

a) There is zero discharge of ions

b) The reject is recycled from every part of the treatment plant

c) The reject is not rejected out. Influent equals effluent

d) 100 percent efficient plant

Answer: b

Explanation: Zero discharge usually refers to the treatment plant in which the
reject from each part of the treatment plant is recycled. The reject is fed as the
influent and once again treated. The removal efficiency of the pollutants is
approximately 97-98%.

82. Which of these is the mathematical representation of a condition of a plug flow

reactor after a tracer is added?

a) ŧ=V/Q

b) C=C0e-1/ŧ

c) ŧ=Q/V

d) C0=Ce-1/ŧ

Answer: a

83. Primary sludge includes __________

a) Total suspended solids

b) Suspended solids
c) Removable solids

d) Settleable solids

Answer: d

Explanation: Sludge is mostly water with lesser amounts of solid material removed
from liquid sewage. Primary sludge includes settleable solids removed during
primary treatment in primary clarifiers.

84. Secondary sludge includes treated sewage sludge.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Primary sludge includes settleable solids removed during primary

treatment in primary clarifiers. Secondary sludge separated in secondary clarifiers
includes treated sewage sludge from secondary treatment bioreactors.

85. Sludge treatment helps is reducing treatment costs.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Reducing sludge weight and volume to reduce disposal costs is the
aim of sludge treatment. The choice of a sludge treatment method depends on the
volume of sludge generated, and comparison of treatment costs required for
available disposal options.

86. Which of the following methods are used in rural communities?

a) Aerobic digestion

b) Mechanical dewatering

c) Dewatering
d) Composting

Answer: d

Explanation: Air-drying and composting may be attractive to rural communities,

while limited land availability may make aerobic digestion and mechanical
dewatering preferable for cities, and economies of scale may encourage energy
recovery alternatives in metropolitan areas.

87. From which of the following methods can toxic chemicals be removed?

a) Sorption

b) Adsorption

c) Absorption

d) Dewatering

Answer: a

Explanation: Coarse primary solids and secondary sewage sludge may include
toxic chemicals removed from liquid sewage by sorption onto solid particles in
clarifier sludge. Reducing sludge volume may increase the concentration of some
of these toxic chemicals in the sludge.

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88. What is the term used for reuse of sewage sludge?

a) Compost

b) Solids

c) Biosolids

d) Sludge

Answer: c
Explanation: “Biosolids” is a term often used in engineering publications and
public relations efforts by local water authorities when they want to put the focus
on reuse of sewage sludge after the sludge has undergone suitable treatment
processes.

89. In which year was the term Biosolids introduced?

a) 1990

b) 1995

c) 1998

d) 2000

Answer: c

Explanation: The term “biosolids” was introduced by the Water Environment

Federation in the U.S. in 1998. However, some people argue that the term is a form
of “propaganda” with the aim to hide the fact that sewage sludge may also contain
substances that could be harmful to the environment when the treated sludge is
applied to land.

90. What is the first step in the sewage treatment process?

a) Dewatering

b) Thickening

c) Phosphorus recovery

d) Digestion?

Answer: b

Explanation: Thickening is often the first step in a sludge treatment process.

Sludge from primary or secondary clarifiers may be stirred (often after addition of
clarifying agents) to form larger, more rapidly settling aggregates.

91. What is the amount of solids released into wastewater by human beings?

a) 30 gpcd
b) 40 gpcd

c) 60 gpcd

d) 70 gpcd

Answer: d

Explanation: Humans deposit about 70 g per capita per day of solids into
wastewater. With ‘garbage grinders’, this can reach 100g per day. The impurities
present in the wastewater must either be transformed into innocuous end-products
or be effectively separated from the effluent stream.

92. What is the percentage of aerobically digested sludge?

a) 0.2-0.5

b) 0.3-0.6

c) 1.0-2.0

d) 1.5-3.0

Answer: c

Explanation: The solids concentration in thickened, aerobically digested sludge is

generally in the range 1.0% – 2.0% as determined by digester design and
operation.

93. Ws = Wsp + Wss

What does Wsp stand for in the above equation?

a) Total dry solids

b) Raw primary solids

c) Suspended solids

d) Polluted solids

Answer: b
Explanation: Waste solids production in primary and secondary processing can be
estimated using the calculation above. Ws stand for total dry solids. Wsp stands for
raw primary solids. Wss stands for secondary biological solids.

94. Sludge from the primary clarifier is ______

a) Brown and flocculant like appearance

b) Dark in colour

c) Gray and slimy

d) Dark brown in colour

Answer: c

Explanation: Sludge from the primary clarifier is gray in colour. It is also slimy in
appearance. Also it has an offensive odour.

95. How does the chemical sludge appear?

a) Gray in colour and not slimy

b) Brown and flocculant like appearance

c) Red/grayish brown

d) Black in colour

Answer: c

Explanation: In case the sludge contains iron it is red in colour. In case it is lime
sludge, it is grayish brown in colour. This sludge also has an objectionable odour.

96. How does the activated sludge appear?

a) Gray

b) Red

c) Brown and flocculant like appearance

d) Greasy
Answer: c

Explanation: The activated sludge is brown in colour. It also has flocculant like
appearance. If the colour is dark, then the sludge has approached septic condition.

97. What is the % of dry solids assumed for a primary sludge from a settling tank
at the outlet?

a) 12%

b) 5-7%

c) 8%

d) 9-11%

Answer: b

Explanation: The percentage of dry solids for a primary sludge is assumed as 5-7%
at the outlet. In most cases, it is considered as 6%. In the case of sludge is from the
flocculator or clarifier the percentage of solids is considered as 2-4%.

98. What is the percentage of dry solids assumed for the sludge at the outlet of a
centrifuge?

a) 10-15%

b) 1-3%

c) 4-8%

d) 9-12%

Answer: c

Explanation: The percentage of dry solids assumed for the sludge at the outlet of a
centrifuge is 4-8%. In most cases, this is considered as 5%. Even for a Gravity belt
thickener with the addition of polyelectrolyte the percentage of dry solids is
considered as 4-8%.

99. What is the percentage of dry solids for the primary sludge assumed at the
outlet of aerobic digester?
a) 1-2.5%

b) 7-10.5%

c) 2.5-7%

d) 10.5-12.5%

Answer: c

Explanation: The percentage of dry solid assumed at the outlet of an aerobic

digester for the primary sludge is 2.5-7%. In most cases, it is considered as 3.5%.
This however depends on the water constituents.

100. In the case of anaerobic digestion, what is the percentage of dry solids for the
primary sludge considered at the outlet?

a) 2-5%

b) 1-2%

c) 10-12%

d) 7-9%

Answer: a

Explanation: The percentage of dry solids for the primary sludge at the outlet of
the anaerobic digester is considered as 2-5%. Generally, it is considered 4%. This
however depends on the water constituents.

101. What is the concentration of polymer added to a belt filter press handling the
primary sludge?

a) 2-5 kg/Mg dry solids

b) 1-4 kg/Mg dry solids

c) 5-10 kg/Mg dry solids

d) 10-12 kg/Mg dry solids

Answer: b
Explanation: 1-4 kg/Mg dry solids is the concentration of the polymer that is added
to the belt filter press handling primary sludge. In case of centrifuge the
concentration would be 1-2.5 kg/Mg dry solids. Polymer doses will vary according
to molecular weight and ionic strength.

102. Heat treatment involves heating of the sludge. The supernatant from the heat
treatment system is rich in ___________

a) TDS

b) TSS

c) BOD

d) Heavy metals

Answer: c

Explanation: The supernatant is rich in BOD. Thus this requires to be recycled to

the treatment plant in order to be treated again. Heat treatment of the sludge is
done in order to condition the sludge.

103. What is the maximum temperature up to which conditioning can be

conducted?

a) 50 degree

b) 70 degree

c) 60 degree

d) 40 degree

Answer: c

Explanation: The maximum temperature up to which the sludge can be heated in

order to carry out conditioning is 60 degree. By heating the sludge the soluble
BOD increases which are contained in the supernatant. This sludge preheating
method enhances the dewatering performance.

104. What is the temperature at which sludge has to be frozen in order to carry out
conditioning?
a) -2 to -5 degree

b) -20 to -25 degree

c) -5 to -8 degree

d) -10 to -20 degree

Answer: d

Explanation: The temperature at which the sludge has to be frozen in order to carry
out conditioning is -10 to -20 degree. This should be frozen for at least 30 mins.
This technology works on even difficult-to-dewater sludge.

105. What is the concentration of solids in the filtrate after thawing and freezing?

a) 45-50%

b) 50-60%

c) 25-40%

d) 60-65%

Answer: c

Explanation: The concentration of solids in the filtrate would be 25-40% after the
sludge is thawed. This would contain the very low concentration of TSS. The time
required to freeze/thaw the sludge depends on the concentration of solids present in
the sludge.

106. Out of the below given methods which of these have the lowest capital cost?

a) Sludge drying bed

b) Filter press

c) Centrifuge

d) Sludge lagoons

Answer: a
Explanation: Sludge drying bed has the lowest capital cost. It has low consumption
of chemicals too. However, sludge removal is labour intensive.

107. Out of the below given methods which of these have the highest cake solids
concentration?

a) Sludge drying bed

b) Recessed plate Filter press

c) Centrifuge

d) Sludge lagoons

Answer: b

Explanation: A recessed plate filter press yields the highest cake solid formation
while handling sludge disposal. However, it has low suspended solids in filtrate.
The capital cost in this treatment method is high.

108. Out of the below given methods which of these is operated in batch process?

a) Sludge drying bed

b) Belt Filter press

c) Centrifuge

d) Sludge lagoons

Answer: b

Explanation: The belt filter press is operated in batch process. The operation and
maintenance cost for these equipments is very high. It also requires high labour
cost.

109. Out of the below given methods which of these requires a grit removal prior
to it?

a) Sludge drying bed

b) Filter press
c) Centrifuge

d) Sludge lagoons

Answer: c

Explanation: A centrifuge requires a grit removal prior to it, in order to remove the
grit particles. This has a low capital cost. It has moderately suspended solids in the
centrate.

110. Out of the below given methods which of these produce an odour?

a) Sludge drying bed

b) Belt Filter press

c) Centrifuge

d) Recess plate filter press

Answer: b

Explanation: A belt filter press produces an odour. The high pressure machines
produce very dry cakes. Generally, automatic operation is not advised for these
equipment.

111. Out of the below given methods in which of these organic matters is
stabilized?

a) Sludge drying bed

b) Filter press

c) Centrifuge

d) Sludge lagoons

Answer: d

Explanation: In sludge lagoons, the organic matter is stabilised. Low capital cost is
involved in this method. However large space is required to carry out this process.
112. Out of the below given methods in which of these does the sludge contain 70-
80% moisture?

a) Sludge drying bed

b) Filter press

c) Centrifuge

d) Sludge lagoons

Answer: c

Explanation: In a centrifuge the sludge cake produced contains approximately 70-

80 % water. The solid concentration varies from 10-30 %. The centrate contains
very low TSS.

113. What is the general size of belt available in the markets for a belt filter press?

a) 0.5 -3.5 m

b) 4-6 m

c) 7-9m

d) <0.5m

Answer: a

Explanation: Generally the size of the belt in the belt filter press is 0.5-3.5 m. In
most cases, a belt of width 2m is used. Sludge loading rate varies from 90-680
kg/mh depending on the sludge type.

114. What is the opening of fine screens?

a) 0.5 inch

b) 1 inch

c) 0.25 inch

d) 0.15 inch
Answer: c

Explanation: Fine screens have openings of less than 0.25 in. and are used to
remove solids smaller than those retained on bar racks. They are used primarily in
water or wastewater containing little or no coarse solids.

115. In drum type screen, which axis does the drum rotate?

a) Horizontal

b) Vertical

c) Irregular

d) Horizo-vertical

Answer: a

Explanation: The drum-type screen consists of a cylinder covered by a screen cloth

with the drum rotating on a horizontal axis, slightly less than half submerged.
Wastewater enters the inside of the drum at one end and flows outward through the
screen cloth.

3. Installing screens at an angle allows easier cleaning.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Screens are placed either vertically or at an angle in the flow channel.
Installing screens at an angle allows easier cleaning (particularly if by hand) and
more screen area per channel depth, but obviously requires more space.

116. Which of the following is true for screens and comminutors?

a) Unit operation

b) Unit process

c) Chemical treatment
d) pH balancer

Answer: a

Explanation: The primary treatment incorporates unit operations for removal of

floating and suspended solids from the wastewater. They are also referred to as the
physical unit operations. The unit operations used are screening for removing
floating papers, rages, cloths, plastics, cans stoppers, labels, etc.

117. Screen is the first unit operation in wastewater treatment plant.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Screen is the first unit operation in wastewater treatment plant. This is
used to remove larger particles of floating and suspended matter by coarse
screening. A set of inclined parallel bars, fixed at certain distance apart in a
channel helps to accomplish this.

118. __________ wastewater treatment plant may or may not need the screens.

a) Domestic

b) Industrial

c) Sewage

d) Chemical

Answer: b

Explanation: Industrial wastewater treatment plant may or may not need the
screens. Screens must be provided even for industrial wastewater treatment plant to
separate labels, stopper, cardboard, and other packing materials.

119. How many types of screens are present?

a) 3
b) 4

c) 2

d) 5

Answer: c

Explanation: Screens can be broadly classified into two types depending upon the
opening size provided as coarse screen (bar screens) and fine screens. There are
manually cleaned screens and mechanically cleaned screens based on the cleaning
operation.

120. Lower the velocity through the screen, the ________ is the amount of
screening that would be removed.

a) Lower

b) Greater

c) Lesser

d) Stronger

Answer: b

Explanation: The velocity of flow ahead of and through a screen varies materially
and affects its operation. Lower the velocity through the screen, the greater is the
amount of screening that would be removed.

121. What is the approach velocity for grit bearing wastewaters?

a) 0.2-0.3 m/s

b) 0.6-0.75 m/s

c) 0.5-0.75 m/s

d) 0.45-0.60 m/s

Answer: b
Explanation: The approach velocity of 0.6 to 0.75 m/sec for the grit bearing
wastewaters is suggested. Accordingly, the bed slope of the channel should be
adjusted to develop this velocity.

122. Which of the following does the quantity of screening does not depend on?

a) Type of rack

b) Type of screen

c) Type of sewer system

d) Temperature

Answer: d

Explanation: The quantity of screening depends on the type of rack or screen used
as well as sewer system and geographic location. The quantity of screening
removed by bar screen is 0.0035 to 0.0375 m3 / 1000 m3 of wastewater treated
(Typical value = 0.015 m3 /1000 m3 of wastewater).

123. The head lost by water flowing in a channel as a result of turbulence caused
by the velocity of the flowing water is called ________

a) Putrefaction

b) Buffer

c) Head

d) Head loss

Answer: d

Explanation: The head, pressure or energy lost by water flowing in a pipe or

channel as a result of turbulence caused by the velocity of the flowing water,
channel walls or restrictions caused by fittings.

124. What is the maximum allowable head loss for a manual coarse screen?

a) 150mm
b) 300 mm

c) 200 mm

d) 100mm

Answer: a

Explanation: The maximum allowable head loss for a manual coarse screen is 150
mm. For a mechanical screen, it ranges from 150-600mm. The maximum approach
velocity for a manual screen is 0.3-0.6 m/s.

125. At what angle generally a coarse manual screen is placed?

a) 60 degree

b) 50 degree

c) 65-70 degree

d) 30-45 degree

Answer: d

Explanation: The coarse screens are generally placed at 30-45 degree. This holds
good only for a manual screen. For a mechanical screen the angle is between 0-30
degrees.

126. Which of these screens can handle very large particles?

a) Reciprocating rake

b) Continuous belt

c) Front clean/Front return

d) Front clean/back return

Answer: a

Explanation: Reciprocating rake is a type of mechanically driven screen. This can

handle very large particles. This has relatively low operating and maintenance cost.
127. From which of these type of screens there is a possibility of odour emission?

a) Catenary

b) Reciprocating rake

c) Continuous belt

d) Chain driven screen

Answer: a

Explanation: Catenary screens have an open design. Due to this construction, there
is a possibility that they might emit odour. These screens also remove large
objects.

128. Which of these screens have a very large footprint?

a) Reciprocating

b) Continuous belt

c) Catenary

d) Chain driven

Answer: c

Explanation: Catenary screens are placed at an angle 45-75 degree. Due to this
reason, it has a very large footprint.

129. With respect to the operation which of these screens is the most expensive?

a) Chain driven

b) Continuous belt

c) Catenary

d) Reciprocating

Answer: b
Explanation: For a continuous belt replacement of screen is a time consuming
process. Also this is a very expensive process. Hence the Continuous belt screen is
considered the most expensive type of screen.

130. Which of these type of screen can be used both as a fine and coarse screen?

a) Continuous belt

b) Catenary

c) Reciprocating

d) Chain driven

Answer: a

Explanation: A continuous belt type screen can be used both as a fine and coarse
screen. This is because the screen openings range from 0.5-30 mm. This is a
continuous self- cleaning screen.

131. What is the maximum allowable approach velocity for a bar screen at peak
flow rates?

a) >0.9 m/s

b) <0.9m/s

c) 1-2 m/s

d) 2.5m/s

Answer: b

Explanation: The approach velocity at peak flow rates for a bar screen should not
exceed 0.9m/s. This is to prevent the pass-through of debris. These screens should
be designed in such a way to prevent accumulation of debris or grit.

132. What should be installed in order to control the velocity of the bar screens?

a) Sluice gate

b) Grit chamber
c) Parshall flume

d) Hoppers

Answer: c

Explanation: Parshall flumes are installed at the downstream of a bar screen. These
are installed in order to control the approach velocity of a bar screen. The approach
velocity is a very important factor while designing the screens to prevent the
accumulation of grit and debris.

133. What is the mathematical representation of hydraulic loses through a screen?

a) hL= 1/C(V2/2g)

b) hL= 1/C(V2-v2/2g)

c) hL= 1/C(V2-v2/g)

d) hL= 1/C(V2/g)

Answer: b

Explanation: The hydraulic loss/ head loss is represented as hL= 1/C(V2-v2/2g)

.Where hL is the head loss of the screen and C is the empirical discharge
coefficient. V is the velocity of the bar screen through the openings, v is the
approach velocity in the upstream and g is the acceleration due to gravity
(9.81m/s).

134. Which of these screens is used to remove secondary suspended solids?

a) Medium drum rotary screen

b) Fine drum rotary screen

c) Tangential fine screen

d) Horizontal reciprocating screen

Answer: b
Explanation: Fine drum rotary screens are used to remove secondary suspended
solids. The mesh is generally made up of stainless steel. The screen cloth would be
polyester material.

135. What is the headloss for fine screens?

a) 0.8-1.4m

b) 2-2.5m

c) 3-3.5m

d) <0.8 m

Answer: a

Explanation: The head loss for fine screens would be 0.8-1.4m. In many
applications fine screens is limited to plants where head loss through screens is not
a problem. Water sprays are supplied in order to keep the screens clean
continuously.

136. What is the amount of BOD removed by a fixed parabolic fine screen?

a) 25-40 %

b) 40-50%

c) 5-20%

d) 30-40%

Answer: c

Explanation: The amount of BOD removed by a fixed parabolic fine screen is 5-

20%. The amount of TSS is removed 5-30%. Compared to a rotary drum fine
screen, the efficiency of these screens is low.

137. How is the headloss for a fine screen calculated?

a) hL= 1/2g(Q/CA)2

b) hL= 1/g(Q/CA)2
c) hL= 1/2g(Q/C)2

d) hL= 1/2g(Q/CA)

Answer: a

Explanation: The headloss for a fine screen is calculated as hL= 1/2g (Q/CA)2.
Where hL is the headloss through the fine screen. Q is the flow rate, A is the
effective open are of the submerged screen.

138. What is the size of the openings for a microscreen?

a) 35-50µm

b) 10-35µm

c) 50-60µm

d) 60-6µm

Answer: b

Explanation: The size of the openings for a microscreen range from 10-35µm.
Microscreens utilize the use of variable low speed. This speed is up to 4r/min.

139. What is the removal efficiency of TSS in case of microscreens?

a) 80-85%

b) 85-90%

c) <10%

d) 10-80%

Answer: d

Explanation: The removal efficiency of the TSS by microscreens is around 10-

80%. Usually it is around 55 % in most of the cases. Microscreens can’t handle
solid fluctuations.

140. What is the typical headloss through the microscreens?

a) 150-200mm

b) 75-150mm

c) <75mm

d) >200mm

Answer: b

Explanation: The typical headloss through the microscreens is 75-150mm. In case

the headloss exceeds 200 mm then bypasss should be provided. The mesh is
generally made up of stainless steel.

141. What is the hydraulic loading rate for a microscreen?

a) 1-3 m3/m2.min

b) 7-9 m3/m2.min

c) 3-6 m3/m2.min

d) 10-12 m3/m2.min

Answer: c

Explanation: The hydraulic loading rate for a microscreen is 3-6 m3/m2.min. The
hydraulic loading rate is based on the submerged surface area of the drum. The
drum diameter is 2-2.5 m.

142. Comminutors are usually installed in which size of water treatment plants?

a) 0.2 m3/sec

b) <0.2 m3/sec

c) 0.5 m3/sec

d) 1 m3/sec

Answer: b
Explanation: Comminutors are usually installed in plants which are <0.2 m3/sec.
These are installed in order to shred material. These require high operating and
maintenance cost.

143. What is the headloss through a communitor?

a) 0.3-0.4 m

b) 0.1-0.3 m

c) 0.5-0.6 m

d) 0.6-0.7 m

Answer: b

Explanation: The headloss through the communitor is 0.1-0.3m. In large units it

can approach 0.9m. These may be preceded by grit chambers.

144. In aerated grit chambers, there are no moving parts below the water surface.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Aerated grit chambers consist of extremely simple design. It consists

of no moving parts and air lifting pumps can be used as well as air blowers to
pump air. Maintenance is significantly reduced.

143. A grit chamber is usually installed ______ primary sedimentation tanks.

a) Before

b) After

c) In between

d) In

Answer: a
Explanation: A grit chamber is usually installed before primary sedimentation
tanks and it is sensible to say that it should be placed well before wastewater
pumps. There are basically three different types of grit chambers.

144. At what velocity will the particles settle down?

a) 0.5 m/s

b) 0.3 m/s

c) 0.1 m/s

d) 0.25 m/s

Answer: b

Explanation: The design of a horizontal flow type is such that as wastewater flows
through in horizontal direction at a certain velocity (0.3m/s) particles will start to
settle at the channel before reaching the outlet point.

145. Grit chamber is constructed to protect the further mechanical equipment of the
water treatment plant.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Grit chamber is needed to protect major mechanical equipment from

wear and tear including damage. Other than that, it also ensures that formation of
deposit especially in pipelines can be avoided and overall this can save the time
that otherwise would be spent to clean the accumulation of waste.

146. Grit chambers are constructed to prevent their accumulation in _______

a) Sedimentation tank

b) Sludge digesters

c) Coagulation tank
d) Sand filter

Answer: b

Explanation: Grit chamber is needed to protect major mechanical equipment from

wear and tear including and remove the inorganic particles to prevent damage to
the pumps and to prevent their accumulation in sludge digesters.

147. What is the cleaning period for manual grit chambers?

a) 3 days

b) 5 days

c) 48 hours

d) 1 week

Answer: d

Explanation: Manually cleaned grit chambers should be cleaned at least once a

week. The simplest method of cleaning is by means of shovel. The grit washing
mechanisms are also of several designs most of which are agitation devices using
either water or air to produce washing action.

148. Grit chamber is similar to which of the following?

a) Screening unit

b) Sedimentation tank

c) Coagulation tank

d) Sand bed

Answer: b

Explanation: Sedimentation tanks and grit chambers are similar, designed to

separate the intended heavier inorganic materials (specific gravity about 2.65) and
to pass forward the lighter organic materials.

149. What is the specific gravity of settleable particles in the grit chamber?
a) 2.98

b) 2.56

c) 2.65

d) 2.89

Answer: c

Explanation: The specific gravity of heavier particles is 2.65. Grit chambers are
nothing but like sedimentation tanks, designed to separate the intended heavier
inorganic materials (specific gravity about 2.65) and to pass forward the lighter
organic materials.

150. Stoke’s law holds good for Reynolds’s number ______

a) Less than 1

b) Equal to 1

c) Greater than 1

d) Nearer to 1

Answer: a

Explanation: The settling velocity of discrete particles can be determined using an

appropriate equation depending upon Reynolds number. Stoke’s law holds good
for Reynolds number, Re below 1.

156. What is the horizontal velocity considered for grit chamber?

a) 0.25-0.4m/sec

b) 0.6-0.9 m/sec

c) 1-2 m/sec

d) 3-4m/sec

Answer: a
Explanation: The horizontal velocity considered while designing a grit chamber is
0.25-0.4m/sec. In most cases, it is considered as 0.3 m/sec. The setting velocity for
the removal of 21mm material is 1-1.3m/ sec.

157. What is the detention time considered for aerated grit chamber?

a) 5-6 mins

b) 2-5 mins

c) 1-2 mins

d) 3-4 mins

Answer: b

Explanation: The detention time for aerated grit chambers is 2-5 mins. Usually, in
most cases, a detention time of 3 mins is considered. The release of VOC is one
application of these aerated grit chambers.

158. Which of these is not a grit removal equipment installed in the aerated grit
chamber?

a) Screw conveyers

b) Tubular conveyers

c) Jet pumps

d) Communitors

Answer: d

Explanation: Communitors are used to grind the materials. These are prior to a
screen. Screw conveyers, tubular conveyers and jet pumps are used to remove the
grit.

159. What is the amount of air supplied for these grit chambers?

a) 1-2 m3/m.min

b) 0.2-0.5 m3/m.min
c) 0.5-0.8 m3/m.min

d) 0.8-1 m3/m.min

Answer: b

Explanation: The air supplied for an aerated grit chamber ranges from0.2-0.5
m3/m.min. There are air diffusers installed in these chambers. These aid in
diffusing the air supplied to the chamber.

160. At what depth are the air diffusers placed in the grit chamber?

a) 0.6-0.9 m

b) 1-2 m

c) 0.1-0.4m

d) 0.45-0.6 m

Answer: d

Explanation: The air diffusers are placed at 0.45-0.6m at the chamber. Influent and
effluent baffles are also placed at the chamber. These improve the grit removal
efficiency.

161. What is the amount of grit quantities captured by the aerated grit chamber?

a) 0.004-0.20 m3/103.m3

b) 0.25 m3/103.m3

c) <0.004 m3/103.m3

d) 0.5 m3/103.m3

Answer: a

Explanation: The amount of grit quantities captured by the aerated grit chamber
ranges from 0.004-0.20 m3/103.m3.Usually it is in the range 0.015 m3/103.m3. In
terms of US unit the typical value is 2 ft3/Mgal.
162. Usually while designing what is the range of the width of the aerated grit
chamber assumed?

a) 0.5-2 m

b) 8-10 m

c) 2.5-7.0m

d) 12m

Answer: c

Explanation: While designing an aerated grit chamber the width is assumed in the
range 2.5-7.0m. The ratio of the width: depth is 1:1 to 5:1. Typical ratio is
generally assumed as 1.5:1.

163. Usually while designing what is the range of length of the aerated grit
chamber assumed?

a) 7.5-20

b) 4-6 m

c) 25 m

d) 50 m

Answer: a

Explanation: While designing an aerated grit chamber the width is assumed in the
range 7.5-20 m. The ratio of the length: width is 3:1 to 5:1. Typical ratio is
generally assumed as 4:1.

164. Usually while designing what is the range of depth of the aerated grit chamber
assumed?

a) 0.5-2 m

b) 8-10 m

c) 2-5 m
d) 12 m

Answer: c

Explanation: While designing an aerated grit chamber the width is assumed in the
range 2-5 m. When expressing the same in US unit it is 7-16 ft. The release of
VOC by theses aerated grit chambers is one thing which we have to consider and
take proper measures to reduce the same.

165. Aerated grit chambers are usually designed to remove particles in which range
of size?

a) 0.1mm diameter

b) 0.35 mm diameter

c) 0.21 mm diameter

d) 0.41 mm diameter

Answer: c

Explanation: The aerated grit chambers are designed to remove particles in the
range 0.21mm diameter. The cross section of these tanks is similar to that of an
activated sludge process tank. The only difference is that these chambers have
hoppers of about 0.9m in depth.

166. In Newton’s law for the settling of discrete particles, the particles size is
_______

a) 1 mm

b) Greater than 1 mm

c) Less than 1 mm

d) 0.5 mm

Answer: b
Explanation: The particle size is greater than 1mm for the specific gravity of 2.65
and temperature is 20˚C for Newton’s law for the settling of discrete particles. The
Reynolds number is in the range of 103-104.

167. Newton’s law is used for_______

a) Turbulent flows

b) Non-turbulent flows

c) Laminar flow

d) Spiral flow

Answer: a

Explanation: Newton’s law is used for turbulent flows. The Reynolds number is in
the range of 103-104. The particle size is greater than 1mm for a specific gravity of
2.65 and temperature is 20˚C for Newton’s law for settling of discrete particles.

168. For laminar flow Reynolds number is 1.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Stock’s law is used for laminar flow conditions and the Reynolds
number is 1. The particle size is up to 0.1 mm for a specific gravity of 2.65 and
temperature of 20˚C for Stoke’s law.

169. The individual particle settling is hindered when the volumetric concentration
is high.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: When the volumetric concentration is high, the rate of individual
particle settling is hindered by the upward movement of water displaced by the
downward movement of suspended particles.

170. Non-spherical particles will settle _______ spherical particles.

a) Slower than

b) Faster than

c) Equal as

d) Same as

Answer: a

Explanation: Non-spherical particles will settle more slowly than spherical

particles of the same volume and density. For all flow conditions other than
laminar the drag coefficient is also a function of the shape of the particle and must
be determined experimentally.

176. Grit and sand particles are removed from waste water by which type of
settling?

a) Flocculent settling

b) Discrete particle settling

c) Hindered settling

d) Compression settling

Answer: b

Explanation: Sand and grit particles are removed from the wastewater by discrete
particle settling. This process generally involves settling of particles in a
suspension of low solids. These particles settle as individual entities.

177. In the discrete settling type which of these factors is a constant?

a) velocity
b) acceleration

c) time taken to settle

d) weight of the particles

Answer: b

Explanation: In the case of discrete settling process acceleration is constant.

Particles suspended in a low solid concentration settle down due to gravity in a
constant acceleration field. Particle settles down as individual entities and doesn’t
interact with neighboring particles.

178. Which of these process is involved in the removal of chemical flocs?

a) Flocculent settling

b) Ballasted flocculent settling

c) Hindered settling

d) Compression settling

Answer: a

Explanation: Flocculent settling is involved in the removal of chemical flocs from

the waste water. This also removes a portion of the TSS from the untreated waste
water in primary settling tanks. By coalescing, the mass increases and thus the
particles settle faster.

179. Which of these process is involved in the settling of particles in the secondary
settling tanks?

a) Flocculent settling

b) Ballasted flocculent settling

c) Compression settling

d) Hindered settling

Answer: d
Explanation: Hindered settling brings about the settling of particles in the
secondary settling tanks. This type of settling occurs in the biological treatment
tanks. In this type of settling the inter-particle forces are sufficient enough to
hinder the settling of neighbouring particles.

180. Which of these process is involved in the removal of BOD and phosphorous?

a) Flocculent settling

b) Accelerated gravity settling

c) Ballasted flocculent settling

d) Compression settling

Answer: c

Explanation: The Ballasted Flocculent settling is involved in the removal of BOD

and phosphorous. An inert ballasting agent is added in order to bring about rapid
settling. A portion of the recovered ballasting agent is recycled.

181. How concentrated are the suspensions which are subjected to hindered
settling?

a) Low

b) High

c) Very high

d) Medium

Answer: d

Explanation: The suspension of intermediate concentration is usually subjected to

hindered settling. The particles tend to remain in their fixed positions with respect
to each other. The mass of the particles settles as a unit.

182. Which of these process is involved in the settling process in solid thickening
facilities?

a) Compression settling
b) Hindered settling

c) Accelerated gravity settling

d) Flocculent settling

Answer: a

Explanation: Compression settling is involved in the settling of solid thickener

facilities. This usually occurs in the lower layers of deep solids. Compression
occurs due to the weight of the particles, which are constantly being added to the
structure.

183. Which of these process are involved in the removal of oil and grease?

a) Accelerated gravity settling

b) Floatation

c) Flocculent settling

d) Compressed settling

Answer: b

Explanation: The floatation process is involved in the removal of oil and grease.
This process is involved in the removal of material that floats on water. This is also
involved in the thickening of solid suspensions.

184. For a discrete particle settling which of these mathematical equations is true?

a) Q= A Xv

b) Q=A/V

c) Q= A X t

d) Q=A/t

Answer: a

Explanation: For a discrete particle settling process Q=AX v. Where Q is the flow
rate. A is the area of the sedimentation basin and v is the velocity.
185. How is the design velocity expressed mathematically for a discrete particle
settling process?

a) Vc = depth/detention time

b) Vc = depth x detention time

c) Vc = depth/area

d) Vc = area /detention time

Answer: a

Explanation: The design velocity is expressed as Vc = depth/detention time. Where

Vc is the critical velocity. This depends on both the detention time and depth of the
tank

186. _______ is a process by which particles settle to the bottom of the liquid.

a) Settling

b) Coagulation

c) Sedimentation

d) Filtration

Answer: a

Explanation: The process by which particulates settle at the bottom of a liquid and
form sediment is called settling. Particles experience a force, either due to gravity
or due to centrifugal motion and tend to move in a uniform manner.

187. Settling tanks are also called as sedimentation tanks.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Settling tanks are also referred to as sedimentation tanks. The process
by which particulates settle at the bottom of a liquid and form sediment at the
bottom of the vessel is called settling.

188. Which is the primary force acting on the Settleable particles?

a) Gravitational force

b) Centrifugal force

c) Mechanical force

d) Radial force

Answer: a

Explanation: The applied force such as gravity and a drag force that is due to the
motion of the particle through the fluid. The applied force is not affected by the
particle’s velocity. The drag force is a function of the particle velocity.

189. How many types of settling are present?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 6

Answer: c

Explanation: There are four types of settling present. Type 1 is for non-flocculent
particles, type is for flocculent particles, type 3 is called as a zone or hindered
settling, type 4 is called as compression settling.

190. Type III settling is called as hindered settling.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Close particles that hinder interparticle forces and the settling of
neighbouring particles, settle at a constant velocity and settle in secondary
clarifiers in type III settling.

191. What is type IV settling also called as?

a) Zone settling

b) Hindered settling

c) Compression settling

d) Expansion settling

Answer: c

Explanation: In a high concentration settling where the particles touch each other
and settling can occur only by compression of the compacting mass is called
compression settling.

192. What is the product obtained when a coagulant is mixed with wastewater?

a) Sediments

b) Acid

c) Floc

d) Grit

Answer: a

Explanation: The most commonly used coagulant is alum. A coagulant combines

with the impurities in wastewater and forms an end product called as flocs which is
greater in diameter and can be easily removed.

193. Which mode of settling are tube settlers based on?

a) Counter current settling

b) Cocurrent settling

c) Cross flow settling

d) Flocculant settling

Answer: a

Explanation: Settling in tubesettler is based on counter current settling. Solids that

settle down, move due to gravity. These constitute various plastic shaped
geometries that enhance the settling characteristics of the sedimentation basin.

194. In countercurrent settling how is the solid suspension fed?

a) From the bottom

b) From the sides

c) From the top

d) Flow is up the plates

Answer: c

Explanation: In countercurrent settling the solid suspension is fed from the top.
The time taken for a particle to settle in both countercurrent/co-current settling is
the same. The direction in which the feed is fed is different.

195. How is the length of the surface calculated in case of countercurrent settling?

a) Lp=wVƟ/ v cos Ɵ

b) Lp=(VƟ – V sinƟ)/ v cos Ɵ

c) Lp=w(VƟ – V sinƟ)

d) Lp=w(VƟ – V sinƟ)/ v cos Ɵ

Answer: d

Explanation: The length of the surface is calculated as Lp=w (VƟ– V SinƟ)/ v cos
Ɵ. Where LƟ is the length of the surface. V is the settling velocity. W is the
perpendicular distance. Ɵ is the angle of surface inclination.

196. When will the particles settle in a tank which is subjected to countercurrent
settling?
a) V<(VƟ – V sinƟ)/v cosƟ

b) V>= VƟ/v cosƟ

c) V>= (VƟ – V sinƟ)/v cosƟ

d) V<VƟ/v cosƟ

Answer: c

Explanation: The particles will settle in a tank when V>= (VƟ – V sinƟ)/v cosƟ.
Where V is the settling velocity. Ɵ is the angle of surface inclination.

197. Lamella Clarifier works on which principle?

a) Cocurrent settling

b) Countercurrent settling

c) Cross flow settling

d) Hindered settling

Answer: b

Explanation: Lamella Clarifier works on Countercurrent settling. The feed is fed

by a feed duct to the feed box. The flow is directed downwards towards individual
side-entry plate slots.

198. How is the length of the surface of a settling tank determined in case of cross-
flow settling?

a) Lp=wVƟ/ v cos Ɵ

b) Lp<wVƟ/ v cos Ɵ

c) Lp= (VƟ – V sinƟ)/ v cos Ɵ

d) Lp<(VƟ – V sinƟ)/ v cos Ɵ

Answer: a
Explanation: The length of the settling tank in case of cross flow settling is
determined as Lp=wVƟ/ v cos Ɵ .Where Lp is the length of the surface. V is the
settling velocity. W is the perpendicular distance. Ɵ is the angle of surface
inclination.

198. How is the area of a sludge thickening tank calculated?

a) A=2QTa/H0

b) A=QTa/H0

c) A=QTa/2H0

d) A=QTa/H02

Answer: b

Explanation: The area of the sludge thickening tank is calculated as A=QTa/H0.

Where A is the area of the sludge thickening tank. Q is the flow rate. Ta is the time
to reach the desired underflow concentration. H0 is the initial height of the
interface column.

199. How is the critical concentration of sludge thickener tank calculated?

a) Hu= C02 H0/ Cu

b) Hu= C0 H0/ Cu2

c) Hu= Cu H0/ CoS

d) Hu= C0 H0/ Cu

Answer: d

Explanation: The critical concentration is calculated as Hu= C0 H0/ Cu. Where Hu

depth at which the solids are under the desired underflow concentration. Cu is the
desired underflow concentration.

200. What is the major assumption made when solid flux method is used to find
the area of the sedimentation basin?

a) Settling basin is not operating at a steady state

b) Settling basin is operating at an adiabatic state

c) Settling basin is operating at a steady state

d) Settling basin is operating at an isobaric state

Answer: c

Explanation: Settling basin is operating at a steady state. This is the assumption

made when the area of the sedimentation basin is to be calculated by the solid flux
analysis method. The downward flux of the solids is brought about by gravity.

201. How is the height of the sludge calculated in a sludge drying bed?

a) Ht-Hx=(H2-Hx)eit2

b) Ht=(H2-Hx)eit2

c) Ht-Hx=(H2)eit2

d) Ht-Hx=(Hx)eit2

Answer: a

Explanation: The height of the sludge in a sludge drying bed due to compression
settling is calculated as Ht-Hx= (H2-Hx)eit2 where Ht is the height of the sludge at
time t. Hx is the height of sludge after 24 hrs. H2 height of sludge after 2 days. i is
a constant for a given suspension.

202. Sedimentation is a process using gravity to remove suspended solids from

water.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

Explanation: Sedimentation is a physical water treatment process using gravity to

remove suspended solids from water. Solid particles entrained by the turbulence of
moving water may be removed naturally by sedimentation in the still water of
lakes and oceans.
203. What are the ponds constructed for removing entrained solids called?

a) Clarifiers

b) Settling basins

c) Eco-ponds

d) Ditches

Answer: b

Explanation: Settling basins are ponds constructed for the purpose of removing
entrained solids by sedimentation. Clarifiers are tanks built with mechanical means
for continuous removal of solids being deposited by sedimentation.

204. The tanks built with mechanical means for continuous removal of solids being
deposited by sedimentation are called _________

a) Clarifiers

b) Settling basins

c) Sedimentation tanks

d) Eco-pons

Answer: a

Explanation: Clarifiers are tanks built with mechanical means for continuous
removal of solids being deposited by sedimentation. Settling basins are ponds
constructed for the purpose of removing entrained solids by sedimentation.

205. Sedimentation tank is also called as settling tank.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Sedimentation tank, also called settling tank or clarifier is a
component of a modern system of water supply or wastewater treatment. The
suspended particles settle down thereby providing some degree of purification.

206. What is the accumulated layer at the bottom of the tank called as?

a) Flocs

b) Sediment

c) Sludge

d) Sewage

Answer: c

Explanation: A layer of accumulated solids called sludge forms at the bottom of

the tank and is periodically removed. Prior to sedimentation, coagulants are added
to the water in order to facilitate the settling process, which is followed by
filtration and other treatment steps.

207. How many types of sedimentation tanks are there based on the method of
operation?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 5

d) 7

Answer: a

Explanation: Based on the method of operation, there are two types of

sedimentation tanks. The first one is filled and draw type tank and the second one
is the continuous flow type tank.

208. How many types of sedimentation tanks are present based on the shape of the
tank?

a) 2
b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

Answer: a

Explanation: Based on the shape of the sedimentation tank, there are two types of
sedimentation tank. They are circular sedimentation tank and rectangular
sedimentation tank.

209. What is the time period for which the water is stored in fill and draw type of
sedimentation tank?

a) 48 hours

b) 24 hours

c) 52 hours

d) 76 hours

Answer: b

Explanation: In case of fill and draw type sedimentation tank, water from the inlet
is stored for some time. The time may be 24 hours. The suspended particles settle
down. After 24 hours, the water is discharged through the outlet.

210. How many hours does the removing of Settleable particles require in fill and
draw type of sedimentation tanks?

a) 3-6

b) 6-9

c) 6-12

d) 12-15

Answer: c
Explanation: Then settled particle is removed. This removal action requires 6-12
hours. 30-40 hours is required for one complete action in case of fill and draw type
sedimentation tank.

211. In which of the following sedimentation tanks, the flow may be either
horizontal or vertical?

a) Circular

b) Rectangular

c) Fill and draw type

d) Continuous flow

Answer: d

Explanation: In the case of continuous flow type, water is not allowed to rest. Flow
always takes place but with a very small velocity. During this flow, suspended
particles are settling at the bottom of the tank. The flow may be either in a
horizontal direction or vertical direction.

212. What is the maximum permissible velocity in horizontal flow type

sedimentation tank?

a) 0.2 m/s

b) 0.3 m/s

c) 0.5 m/s

d) 1 m/s

Answer: b

Explanation: Horizontal flow type sedimentation tanks generally in rectangular

shape. They have more length twice its width. Because they need to flow more
distance to settle all suspended particles. The maximum permissible velocity in this
case is 0.3m/sec.

213. The vertical type of sedimentation tanks are usually in _________ shape.
a) Circular

b) Rectangular

c) Semi-circular

d) Cylindrical

Answer: a

Explanation: The vertical flow type sedimentations tanks are generally in circular
shape and flow takes place in vertical direction. The flow is usually horizontal
generally in rectangular tanks.

214. Why are the baffle walls provided?

a) Prevent short circuit

b) Abstruct flow

c) Reduce velocity

d) Collect sediment

Answer: a

Explanation: The sedimentation tanks preferred are rectangular and are used
widely. The flow takes place in horizontal direction that is length wise in
rectangular tanks. Sometimes baffle walls are provided for rectangular tank to
prevent short circuiting.

215. Sludge is disposed through _______

a) Hopper bottom

b) Sludge pump

c) Deflector

d) Launder

Answer: b
Explanation: A deflector box located at the top. This deflects the influent from
central pipe downwards in case of hopper bottom tanks. Sludge is collected at the
bottom and it is disposed of through sludge pump.

216. ________ is provided after activated sludge process.

a) Primary sedimentation tank

b) Flocculation tank

c) Secondary sedimentation tank

d) Sand filter

Answer: c

Explanation: The suspended particles present in the wastewater contains microbes

and are removed and reflected towards aerobic filter to maintain high microbe
concentration in an aerobic filter.

217. In a primary sedimentation tank in percentage what is the amount of TSS

removed?

a) 40-50%

b) 50-70%

c) 80%

d) 85%

Answer: b

Explanation: A primary sedimentation tank removes around 50-70% of TSS. This

is a type of preliminary treatment. This is usually followed after the screens.

218. In a primary sedimentation tank in percentage what is the amount of BOD

removed?

a) 40-50%

b) 20-40%
c) 60-70%

d) 20-30%

Answer: b

Explanation: In a primary sedimentation tank, around 20-40% of BOD is removed.

This primary sedimentation is prior to the clarifiers and flocculators. Also, it is
classified as preliminary treatment.

219. What is the detention time considered while designing a primary

sedimentation tank which is followed by a secondary treatment tank?

a) 1hr

b) 1.5-2.5hrs

c) 3hrs

d) 3-4hrs

Answer: b

Explanation: The detention time considered while designing a primary

sedimentation tank is 1.5-2.5 hrs. This majorly depends on the amount of TSS and
BOD present in the raw waste water. In most cases, it is considered as 2 hrs.

220. What is the detention time considered while designing a primary

sedimentation tank which is followed by an activated sludge treatment tank?

a) 1hr

b) 1.5-2.5hrs

c) 3hrs

d) 3-4hrs

Answer: b

Explanation: The detention time considered while designing a primary

sedimentation tank, which is followed by activated sludge treatment tank is 1.5-2.5
hrs. This majorly depends on the amount of TSS and BOD present in the raw waste
water. In most cases, it is considered as 2.5 hrs.

221. What is the weir loading rate assumed while designing a primary
sedimentation tank which comes prior to a secondary settling tank?

a) 125-500 m3/m.d

b) 50-100 m3/m.d

c) 25-50 m3/m.d

d) >500 m3/m.d

Answer: a

Explanation: The weir loading rate for a primary sedimentation tank is assumed as
125-500 m3/m.d. Rectangular tanks have bridge mechanisms which is used for
cleaning. These also have a chain and solid collector to clean the tank.

222. What is the range of width assumed while designing a rectangular tank?

a) 1-3 m

b) 3-24m

c) 24-48m

d) 48-60m

Answer: b

Explanation: The width of the rectangular tank is assumed as 3-24m while

designing it. In the case of width is greater than 6m than more people have to be
employed to clean the tank. The typical value assumed is 5m.

223. While designing a rectangular primary sedimentation tank in what range the
length should be assumed?

a) 10-12m

b) 15-90m
c) 100-150m

d) 150-200m

Answer: b

Explanation: While designing a rectangular primary sedimentation tank, 15-90m is

the range in which the length of the tank should be assumed. The typical depth
value for a rectangular tank is around 4.3 m.

224. What is the range of diameter assumed while designing a circular tank?

a) 60-80m

b) 3-60m

c) 80-150m

d) 150-300m

Answer: b

Explanation: The diameter of the circular tank is assumed as 3-60 m while

designing it. In the US units it is around 40-150 ft. The typical value assumed is in
between12-45 m.

225. What is the flight speed assumed while designing a circular tank?

a) 0.01r/min

b) 0.02-0.05 r/min

c) 0.06 r/min

d) 0.06-0.09 r/min

Answer: b

Explanation: The range of diameter assumed while designing a circular tank is

0.02-0.05 r/min. The typical value for the circular tank would be 0.03 r/min. The
typical value for bottom slope would be 1/12mm/mm.

226. What is the flight speed assumed while designing a rectangular tank?
a) 0.1r/min

b) 0.2-0.5 r/min

c) 0.6-1.2 r/min

d) 1.2-1.5 r/min

Answer: c

Explanation: The range of diameter assumed while designing a circular tank is 0.6-
1.2 r/min. The typical value for the circular tank would be 0.9 r/min. The velocity
in these tanks should be maintained between 3-9 m/min.