1.

A dam reservoir which is not provided with gate controls on its spillway and other
sluices is called ________________
a) detention dam
b) storage reservoir
c) retarding basin
d) flood control reservoir
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Storage reservoir is the one having gates and valves installed at its
spillway and at its sluice outlets. The retarding basin is the one with uncontrolled and
ungated outlets. The cost of gate installation is saved and there are no gates hence,
the possibility of human error and negligence in their operation is eliminated.
2. A hydel power project has been envisaged to serve the water supply and irrigation
needs of the area at its inception stage. The dam reservoir so constructed is known
as __________________
a) multipurpose reservoir
b) single-purpose reservoir
c) distribution reservoir
d) retarding reservoir
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A reservoir planned and constructed to serve various purposes together
is a multipurpose reservoir. It is designed to protect the downstream areas from
floods, to conserve water, irrigation, industrial needs, hydroelectric purposes, etc.
Bhakra dam and Nagarjuna Sagar dam are important multipurpose dams.
3. A dam reservoir catering to flood control, irrigation, and water supply basically
designed for irrigation alone is a _______________-
a) multipurpose reservoir
b) single-purpose reservoir
c) distribution reservoir
d) retarding basins
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A reservoir planned, designed and constructed for one purpose is
called a single purpose reservoir whereas a reservoir planned and constructed to
serve various purposes together is a multipurpose reservoir. A small storage
reservoir constructed within a city water supply system is called distribution reservoir
4. Which reservoir is also known as Mitigation reservoir?
a) Conservation reservoir
b) Flood control reservoir
c) Multipurpose dam
d) Storage reservoir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A flood control reservoir protects the downstream areas by storing a
portion of the flood flows to minimize the flood peaks. The entire inflow entering the
reservoir is discharged or gradually released to recover the capacity for the next
flood. It is also called as a mitigation reservoir.
5. A reservoir having gates and valves installation at its spillway and at its sluice
outlets ___________
a) storage reservoir
b) retarding basin
c) both storage and retarding reservoir
d) distribution reservoir
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Storage reservoir is the one having gates and valves installed at its
spillway and at its sluice outlets whereas retarding basin is the one with uncontrolled
and ungated outlets. It provides more flexibility in operation and better control.
6. Which reservoir is helpful in permitting the pumps or the water treatment plants to
work at a uniform rate?
a) Storage reservoir
b) Detention reservoir
c) Multipurpose reservoir
d) Distribution reservoir
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A small storage reservoir constructed within a city water supply system
is called a distribution reservoir. It stores water during hours of no demand or less
demand and supply water from their storage during the critical time of maximum
demand.
7. In which of the following reservoir the flood crest downstream can be better
controlled and regulated properly?
a) Distribution reservoir
b) Multipurpose reservoir
c) Storage reservoir
d) Retarding reservoir
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Storage reservoirs are preferred on large rivers and require better
control. It is provided with gated spillway and sluiceways for more flexibility of
operation, better control and to increase the usefulness of the reservoir.
8. What are the types of flood control reservoirs?
a) Multipurpose reservoir and Single purpose reservoir
b) Storage reservoir and retarding reservoirs
c) Distribution reservoir and Storage reservoir
d) Distribution reservoir and multipurpose reservoir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two basic types of flood-mitigation reservoirs i.e. storage
reservoir and retarding reservoirs. Storage reservoir is the one having gates and
valves installed at its spillway and at its sluice outlets whereas the retarding basin is
the one with uncontrolled and ungated outlets.
9. As the reservoir elevation increases, the outflow discharge increases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When floods occur the reservoir gets filled and discharges through
sluiceways and the water level goes on rising until the flood has subsided. The inflow
becomes equal or less than the outflow. The water gets completely withdrawn until
the stored water is completely discharged.
10. The maximum discharging capacity of a retarding reservoir should not be equal
to the maximum safe carrying capacity of the channel downstream.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since the retarding reservoir is not always filled much of the land below
the maximum reservoir level will be submerged only temporarily and occasionally.
The automatic regulation of outflow depends upon the availability of water. The
maximum discharging capacity should be equal to the maximum safe capacity of the
channel d/s.

1. What is the most important physical characteristic of a reservoir?

a) Storage capacity
b) Annual Yield
c) Average yield
d) Reservoir water level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of a reservoir is to store water and thus to stabilize
the flow of water therefore, the most important physical characteristic is its storage
capacity. It is determined from the contour maps of the area. The planimeter is used
to measure the area enclosed within each contour.
2. In general practice adopted for capacity computations is to actually survey the site
contours only at vertical distances of __________________
a) 5 m or more
b) Less than 5 m
c) 0.5 m or more
d) Less than 0.5 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The area of the intervening contours at smaller intervals of 0.5 m or so
and at vertical distances of 5 m or so. It is then interpolated by taking the square root
of the surveyed contours. It is also assumed that the square root of the interpolated
ones varies in exact proportion to their vertical distances.
3. The area-elevation curve when integrated will yield the capacity-elevation curve.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The surveyed area at large intervals is plotted on a graph and area-
elevation curve is drawn. The equation of this curve can be obtained by statistical
methods. It can be integrated to obtain the equation of the capacity-elevation curve
to obtain storage capacity.
4. Which of the following method does not give more than 3% error in the
determination of the capacity of a reservoir?
a) Prismoidal formula
b) Trapezoidal method
c) Average formula
d) Integration method
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The capacity of the reservoir can be determined by surveying only a
few contours by using this method. When it is cross-checked with the capacity
worked out by surveying a large number of contours this method gives less than 3%
error. Since the areas of contours are not very precise figures this error is not
considered much.
5. The surcharge storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
________________
a) between the minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b) between the minimum and normal reservoir levels
c) between normal and maximum reservoir levels
d) below the minimum pool level
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Surcharge storage is uncontrolled storage which is the volume of water
stored between the normal pool level and the maximum pool level. It is that portion
above the crest of the dam’s spillway which cannot be regulated.
6. The useful storage in a dam reservoir is the volume of water stored
__________________
a) between the minimum and maximum reservoir levels
b) between the minimum and normal reservoir levels
c) between normal and maximum reservoir levels
d) below the minimum pool level
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Useful storage can be defined as the volume of water stored in a
reservoir between the minimum pool and normal pool level. Conservation storage
and flood-mitigation storage are the two sub-divisions of useful storage in a multi-
purpose reservoir.
7. The dead storage in a dam reservoir is the available volume for collection of silt
and sediment between _______________
a) bed level of the reservoir and minimum reservoir level
b) bed level of the reservoir and the silt level in the reservoir
c) bed level of the reservoir and the normal pool level
d) above the minimum pool level
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Useful storage can be defined as the volume of water stored in a
reservoir between the minimum pool and normal pool level. Dead storage is the
water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level. It is not of much use in
the operation of reservoirs.
8. Bank storage in a dam reservoir _________________
a) increases the compound reservoir capacity
b) decreases the computed reservoir capacity
c) sometimes increases and sometimes decreases the computed reservoir capacity
d) has no effect on computed reservoir capacity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The certain amount of water that seeps into the permeable reservoir
banks when the reservoir is filled up is known as bank storage. This water comes out
as soon as the reservoir gets depleted and it effectively increases the capacity of the
reservoir.
9. The valley storage reduces the effective storage capacity of a reservoir.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The effective storage for flood mitigation is equal to the useful storage
plus surcharge storage minus valley storage i.e. storage corresponding to the rate of
inflow in the reservoir. The actual net increase in the storage is equal to the storage
capacity of the reservoir minus the natural valley storage. Thus, the available storage
is reduced for flood mitigation reservoir.
10. The maximum level to which the water rises during the worst design flood is
known as _________________________
a) full Reservoir level
b) maximum conservation level
c) minimum pool level
d) surcharge storage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Normal pool level or maximum conservation level is the maximum
elevation to which the reservoir water rises during normal operating conditions.
Minimum pool level is the lowest water surface elevation which has to be kept under
normal operating conditions. Surcharge storage can be defined as the volume of
water stored between the normal pool level and the maximum pool level.
11. Which of the following formula can be used to determine the storage when three
consecutive sections at equal height are taken?
a) Prismoidal formula
b) Trapezoidal method
c) Average formula
d) Integration method
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: According to the Prismoidal formula,
Storage = h/6 [A1 + 4A2 + A3] where A1, A2, and A3 are the areas of succeeding
contours and h is the vertical distance between two alternate contours.
It can be preferably used where three consecutive sections at equal height are
taken.

1. Average yield of a storage reservoir is the arithmetic average of its

________________
a) firm yields over a long period
b) secondary yields over a long period
c) firm and secondary yields over a long period
d) reservoir yield over a long period
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Firm yield is the yield corresponding to the most critical year on record.
Secondary yield is the water available in excess of the firm yield during years of
higher inflows. Average yield is the average of both firm yield and secondary yield.
2. While planning a water supply reservoir as compared to an irrigation reservoir the
design yield may be kept __________________
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
d) lower or higher as per designers discretion
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The dependability percentage value will depend upon the risk which
can be absorbed for the proposed use of water. The city water supply projects can
absorb lesser risk as compared to the irrigation projects. Hence, higher percentage
values are considered.
3. Yield of a reservoir represents ___________________
a) the inflow into the reservoir
b) the capacity of the reservoir
c) the outflow demand on the reservoir
d) the optimum value of catchment yield
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The yield of the catchment is the long-range runoff from a catchment. It
helps in designing the capacity of the reservoir. The outflow from the reservoir
(reservoir yield) is represented by the mass demand line.
4. Design yield of a storage reservoir is kept _______________
a) higher than its firm or safe yield
b) lower than its firm or safe yield
c) equal to its firm or safe yield
d) higher or lower than the firm yield depending upon the designer’s intuition
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An intermediate dependability percentage such as 50% to 75% is used
to compute the design yield or dependable yield. This value will depend upon the risk
which can be absorbed for the proposed use of water.
5. Who did the first effort to give empirical relations for converting the yearly rainfall
value into the yearly runoff for the given catchment?
a) Mr. W L Strange
b) Alexander Binnie
c) Mr. T.G Barlow
d) Sir Inglis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The first effort made in India was from Sir Alexander Binnie to connect
the long-range rainfall and the yield. The observations were made on two rivers in
the central provinces for the entire monsoon period. He worked out certain
percentages to connect the monthly rainfall with the monthly yield which was further
adjusted by Mr. Garret.
6. In which of the following method, the catchments were categorized as good, bad
and average catchments to account for the general characteristics of the catchment?
a) Binnie’s percentages
b) Strange’s tables
c) Barlow’s tables
d) Inglis formula
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Strange’s tables was an improvement over Binnie’s tables. The
catchments prone to producing higher yield were good catchments and that of low
yields were bad catchments. Average catchments were the intermediate types.
7. What is the value of Barlow’s runoff percentage (K) for hills and plains with little
cultivation?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: For Flat, cultivated, and adsorbent soils, the runoff percentage is taken
as 10 and for flat, partly cultivated stiff soils, it is taken as 15. For average
catchment, the value is taken as 20 and for hills and plains with little cultivation, the
value of the runoff percentage is 25.
8. What is the value of Lacey’s monsoon duration factor for a good year?
a) 0.5
b) 1.2
c) 1.5
d) 1.8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The monsoon duration factor (m) for a bad year is 0.5 and that of the
normal year the value is 1.2. For a good year, the monsoon duration factor is 1.5.
9. Which of the following yield formula is used for the catchments of West
Maharashtra state of India?
a) Inglis formula
b) Khosla’s formula
c) Lacey’s formula
d) Barlow’s table
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Inglis formula was given by Sir Inglis derived his formula for catchments
of Maharashtra state of India. He divided the areas into ghat areas (Sahyadri ranges)
and non-ghat areas depending upon the rainfall intensity and gave the formula to
determine the yield.
10. Which of the following formula for calculating yield can be applied to all
catchments?
a) Inglis formula
b) Khosla’s formula
c) Lacey’s formula
d) Barlow’s table
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Khosla formula is based upon the recent research work conducted in
the field. It is a simple and useful formula and can be applied to the entire country.
The formula is given as-
Yield (Q) = P – 0.48 Tm where Q = the yield in cm, P = rainfall in cm, and Tm = mean
annual temperature of the area.
11. According to the Inglis formula, the non-ghat areas are the one where rainfall is
_____________
a) 200 cm or more
b) 200 cm or less
c) 100 cm or more
d) 100 cm or less
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The ghat area is the one where rainfall is 200 cm or more and in non-
ghat areas the rainfall is less than 200 cm. The formulas are-
For ghat areas, Yield = (0.85P – 30.48)
For non-ghat areas, Yield = [P (P – 17.78)] / 254 where P is the rainfall in cm.

1. The design annual rainfall for the catchment of a proposed reservoir has been
computed to be 99 cm. The catchment area contributing to the proposed reservoir is
1000 sq.km having a mean annual temperature of 20°C. Calculate the annual design
catchment yield for the reservoir using Khosla’s formula.
a) 89.4 M.m3
b) 8.94 M.m3
c) 894 m3
d) 894 M.m3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Using Khosla’s formula –
Q = P – 0.48 Tm where, Rainfall (P) = 99 cm and Mean annual temperature (Tm) =
20°C
Q = 99 – 0.48 x 20 = 89.4 cm = 0.894 m
The total yield produced from the given catchment = 0.894 x 1000 x 10 6 = 894 M.m3.
2. The reservoir capacity cannot exceed the catchment yield.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The reservoir capacity is fixed at a value which is lesser of the value of
–
i. The accessed gross storage required to meet the demand
ii. The accessed dependable yield for the reservoir site.
3. With the reduction in reservoir capacity over the passage of time, the trap
efficiency ___________
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains unaffected
d) may increase or decrease depending upon the reservoir characteristics
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the reservoir capacity reduces with constant inflow value, the trap
efficiency reduces. Hence, for small reservoirs having small capacity on large rivers
having large inflow rates, the trap efficiency is extremely low.
4. Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir is defined as the ratio of
___________________
a) total annual sediment inflow to the reservoir capacity
b) total sediment deposited in a given period to the total sediment inflow in that
period
c) total annual sediment deposited in the reservoir to the dead storage capacity of
the reservoir
d) reservoir capacity to the total annual sediment
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Trap efficiency of a storage reservoir is defined as the ratio of the total
sediment deposited in a given period to the total sediment inflow in that period. It can
be defined as the percentage of sediment deposited in the reservoir in spite of taking
precautionary control measures.
5. Capacity inflow ratio for a storage reservoir is defined as the ratio of
_______________________
a) reservoir capacity to the average annual flood inflow
b) reservoir capacity to the average annual sediment inflow
c) the dead storage capacity of the reservoir to the average annual sediment
deposited
d) total annual sediment inflow to the reservoir capacity
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity-inflow ratio can be defined as the ratio of the reservoir
capacity to the total inflow of water. The trap efficient is a function of the capacity-
inflow ratio which is represented by a graph between them.
6. The capacity-inflow ratio for a reservoir _________________
a) is a constant factor overtime
b) increases with time
c) decreases with time
d) may increase or decrease with time
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The silting rate in the reservoir will be more in the beginning as its
capacity reduces due to silting, the silting rate will also reduce. The trap efficiency is
a function of capacity. The capacity reduces when trap efficiency reduces and lesser
sediment is trapped.
7. A sequent peak algorithm is a plot between __________________
a) Accumulated flow v/s time
b) Discharge v/s time
c) (Cumulative Inflow – Cumulative Outflow) v/s time
d) Mass outflow v/s time
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: It is a plot between time on X-axis and cumulative net flow on Y-axis. It
is an excellent alternative to the mass-curve method of determining reservoir
capacity. The positive value of cumulative net flow indicates a surplus of inflow and a
negative value indicates a deficit of inflow.
8. A flow duration curve is a curve plotted between ________________
a) Accumulated flow v/s time
b) Discharge v/s time
c) (Cumulative Inflow – Cumulative Outflow) v/s time
d) Streamflow v/s Percent of time the flow is equaled or exceeded
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A flow-duration curve is a curve plotted between the streamflow and the
percent of the time the flow is equaled or exceeded. It is also called a discharge-
frequency curve and it represents the cumulative frequency distribution.
9. A steep slope of the flow duration curve indicates a stream with
_________________
a) highly variable discharge
b) small variability of flow
c) considerable base flow
d) large flood plains
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A steep slope represents a stream with highly variable discharge and a
flat slope represents a small variability of flow. The considerable base flow is
indicated by a flat portion on the lower end of the curve and the upper end of the
curve is of river basins having large flood plains.
10. The lowest portion of the capacity-elevation curve of a proposed irrigation
reservoir draining 20 km2 of catchment is represented by the following data:
i. The rate of silting for the catchment = 300 m3 / km2 / year
ii. Life of the reservoir = 50 years
iii. Dead storage = 30
iv. The FSD of the canal at the head = 80 cm
v. The crop water requirement = 250 ha.m
vi. Dependable yield of the catchment = 0.29 m
Calculate the gross capacity of the reservoir.
a) 287.5 ha.m
b) 317.5 ha.m
c) 580 ha.m
d) 37.5 ha.m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Net water demand = 250 ha.m and Reservoir losses = 15% x 250 =
37.5 ha.m
Live storage to meet the given demand = 250 + 37.5 = 287.5 ha.m
Gross storage required to meet the demand = live storage + dead storage = 287.5 +
30 = 317.5 ha.m
Dependable yield = 0.29 x 20 x 106 = 580 ha.m
The gross capacity is fixed at the lesser value of the gross storage and the
dependable yield. Hence, the reservoir capacity = 317.5 ha.m.

1. As the height of a proposed dam is increased, the cost per unit of storage initially
increases and then decreases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cost per unit storage of the dam initially decreases reaches to a
certain minimum value and then increases when the height of the dam is increased.
This lowest point on the curve gives the economical height for which the cost per unit
storage is minimum.
2. The economical height of a dam is that height for which the
____________________
a) cost per unit of storage is minimum
b) benefit-cost ratio is maximum
c) net benefits are maximum
d) benefit-cost ratio is minimum
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The height of the dam corresponding to which the cost of the dam per
unit storage is minimum is the economical height of the dam. The cost per unit
storage of the dam initially decreases reaches to a certain minimum value and then
increases when the height of the dam is increased.
3. If 20% of the reservoir capacity is earmarked for dead storage in a storage
reservoir of 30 M.cum and the average annual silt deposition in the reservoir is 0.1 M
cum, then the useful life of the reservoir will start reducing after ____________
a) 60 years
b) 120 years
c) 240 years
d) 300 years
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Given, Reservoir capacity = 30 M.cum
Dead storage is 20% of the reservoir capacity = 0.2 x 30 = 6 M.cum
Time during which 6 M cum is filled by sediment @0.1 M.cum/yr = 6/0.1 = 60 years.
4. According to the Central Water Commission, the average annual evaporation loss
is estimated to be _____________
a) 100 cm
b) 125 cm
c) 225 cm
d) 250 cm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Central Water Commission in 1990 has estimated the average
annual evaporation loss to be 225 cm on the basis of a review conducted on 130
sample reservoirs. The estimated total water loss from all the existing reservoirs to
be 27000 Mm3 per annum.
5. Windbreakers, Integrated operation of reservoirs and Use of underground storage
are all methods of ______________________
a) evaporation control
b) estimation of absorption losses
c) estimation of absorption losses
d) estimation of reservoir leakage
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The following are some of the methods of evaporation control such as
Windbreakers, Reduction in the exposed water surface, Use of underground storage
rather than surface storage, Integrated operation of reservoirs, and Use of chemical
for retarding the evaporation rate from the reservoir surface. Use of Water Evapo-
Retardants (WERs) is considered to be an only practical solution for the
conservation of freshwater in spite of its limitations and disadvantages.
6. Which of the following is not used as WERs?
a) Hexa decanol
b) Octa decanol
c) Docosanol
d) Cyclohexanol
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fatty alcohols like Cetyl alcohol (popularly known as Hexa decanol),
Stearyl alcohol (also called Octadecanol), and Behenyl alcohol (also called
docosanol) are found to be quite suitable. A mixture of these chemicals have also
been generally used and the chemicals should be 99% pure for getting the desired
properties of the monolayer.
7. Which of the following dam is situated in the seismologically inactive zone in
Peninsular India?
a) Koyna dam
b) Hirakud dam
c) Tehri dam
d) Idukki dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A very strange phenomenon has been observed in several dams of the
world, the reservoir basins which were seismologically inactive started showing
seismic activities when the reservoir was filled up with water. Koyna dam
(Maharashtra) is an important example of such a case.
8. Which of the following measure does not prevent or reduce the intensity of the
earthquake?
a) Filling the reservoir up to a limited safe level
b) Draining out water from weaker adjoining rocks
c) Active exploration of the dam site for the absence of inactive faults before
selecting the same
d) Increasing the pore pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Earthquakes occur due to increased pore-pressure in the adjoining
rocks which lowers their shearing strength resulting in the release of tectonic strain.
Draining out water from weaker adjoining rocks actually reduces pore pressure.
9. Which of the following guideline is incorrect for the selection of a suitable site for a
reservoir?
a) The geological formation should be such that it entails minimum leakage
b) The cost of the dam is a controlling factor
c) Too much silt-laden tributaries should be avoided as far as possible
d) The reservoir basin should have a shallow wide opening in the valley
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The site should be such that a deep reservoir is formed because of
lower land cost per unit of capacity, less evaporation loss, and less possibility of
weed growth as compared to shallow ones. The basin should have a narrow opening
so that the length of the dam is minimum.
1. The vertical component of the earthquake wave which produces adverse effects
on the stability of a dam when is acting in ____________________
a) upward direction
b) downward direction
c) both upward and downward direction
d) any direction
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the vertical acceleration is acting downward the foundation try to
move downward away from the dam body. This reduces the effective weight and the
stability of the dam. It is the worst case for design.
2. The horizontal component of an earthquake wave producing instability in a dam is
the one which acts __________________
a) towards the reservoir
b) towards the dam
c) away from the reservoir
d) away from the dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrodynamic pressure and horizontal inertia force are caused by the
horizontal acceleration of an earthquake wave acting towards the reservoir. As the
foundation and dam accelerate towards the reservoir there is an increase in the
water pressure which is resisted by water, the extra pressure is hydrodynamic
pressure.
3. The vertical downward earthquake acceleration av = 0.1g acting on a gravity dam
will ________________________
a) increase the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
b) decrease the resisting weight of the dam by 10%
c) increase the uplift by 10%
d) decrease the uplift by 10%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The net effective weight of the dam is given as W [1 – Kv] and vertical
acceleration av = Kv.g = 0.1.g i.e 10%
where W is the total weight of the dam and Kv is the fraction of gravity adopted for
vertical acceleration.
This is considered as the worst case for design as the foundation tries to move
downward away from the dam body when there is downward vertical acceleration.
This reduces the effective weight and the stability of the dam.
4. A gravity dam is subjected to hydrodynamic pressure caused by __________
a) the rising waves of the reservoir when a flood wave enters into it
b) the rising waves in the reservoir due to high winds
c) the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake
acting towards the reservoir
d) the increase in water pressure momentarily caused by the horizontal earthquake
acting towards the dam
View Answer
5. In a concrete gravity dam with a vertical upstream face the stabilising force is
provided by the ___________________
a) weight of the dam
b) the water supported against the upstream slope
c) uplift pressure
d) water pressure at the tail end
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The major resisting force is the weight of the dam body and its
foundation. A unit length of the dam is considered in the 2D analysis of a gravity
dam. The resultant of all the downward forces will represent the total weight of the
dam acting on it.
6. What is the value of horizontal destabilizing force caused by the formation of
waves in a storage reservoir having a fetch of 52 km due to high wind of 172 km/h?
a) 30 KN
b) 60 KN
c) 130 KN
d) 180 KN
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When F > 32 km, the wave height is given by h w = 0.032 (V.F)1/2
hw = 0.032 (172 x 52)1/2 = 3.02 m
The force caused by waves is given by the equation – Pw = 19.62 hw2 KN/m run of
the dam
Pw = 19.62 x 3.022 = 179.69 KN.
7. Calculate the value of free-board that should be provided for a reservoir having a
wind velocity of 92 km/h and it extends up to 18 km upstream.
a) 1.2 m
b) 1.6 m
c) 2.25 m
d) 2.5 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When F < 32 km, the wave height is given by – Hw = 0.032(V.F)1/2 +
0.763 – 0.271 F1/4
Hw = 0.032(92 x 18)1/2 + 0.763 – 0.271 (18)1/4 = 1.5 m
Free board is generally provided equal to 1.5 Hw = 1.5 x 1.5 = 2.25 m.
8. The upward acceleration of dam due to seismic activity will
________________________
a) increase the base pressure
b) decrease the base pressure
c) not affect the effective weight of the dam
d) increase the horizontal dynamic force
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertical acceleration can be resolved in two parts i.e. upward vertical
accelerations and downward vertical accelerations. The effective weight of the dam
increases when there is an upward vertical acceleration as it brings the foundation
closer to the dam. In downward acceleration, the effective weight reduces and is
considered as the worst design case.
9. What is the average value of acceleration that is sufficient for high dams in
seismic zones?
a) 0.1g to 0.15g
b) 0.05g to 0.1g
c) 0.3gs
d) 0.15g (where g is the acceleration due to gravity)
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An average value of acceleration equal to 0.1 to 0.15 g is sufficient for
high dams in seismic zones and for areas not subjected to extreme earthquake a h =
0.1 g and av = 0.05 g may be used. These forces are neglected in areas of no
earthquake or very less earthquake.
10. What is Von Karman’s formula for hydrodynamic force (Pe)?
a) Pe = 0.726 pe H
b) Pe = 0.424 pe H
c) Pe = 0.555 pe H
d) Pe = 0.555.Kh. Yw H2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to Von-Karman, the hydrodynamic force is given by –
Pe = 0.555. Kh. ϒw H2 where, ϒw is the unit weight of water, H is the depth of water
and Kh is a fraction of gravity adapted for horizontal acceleration which acts at the
height of 4H/3π above the base. In addition to this, an inertia force is also produced
by the horizontal acceleration into the body of the dam.

1. The factor of safety against overturning generally varies between ___________

a) 2 to 3
b) 1.5 to 2
c) 0.5 to 1.5
d) 1 to 2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Factor of safety against overturning can be determined by the ratio of
righting moments about the toe to the overturning moments about the toe. The value
generally varies between 2 to 3.
2. What is the maximum permissible tensile stress for high concrete gravity dam
under worst conditions?
a) 500 KN/m2
b) 500 kg/cm2
c) 5 kg/m2
d) 50 KN/m2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The masonry and concrete gravity dams are usually designed in such a
way that no tension is developed anywhere in the structure. The maximum
permissible tensile stress for high gravity dams is taken as 500 KN/m2 under worst
conditions. If subjected to such tensile stresses crack develops near the heel.
3. Which failure occurs when the net horizontal force above any plane in the dam or
at the base of the dam exceeds the frictional resistance developed at that level?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) BY development of tension
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Sliding should always be fully resisted. At any horizontal section of the
dam, the factor of safety against sliding is –
FOS = u Ph / Pv where u = coefficient of friction, Ph = Sum of horizontal forces
causing sliding and Pv = Algebraic sum of vertical forces.
4. Which failure occurs when the minimum stress exceeds the allowable
compressive stress of the dam material?
a) Overturning
b) Crushing
c) Sliding
d) By development of tension
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The compressive stress produced if exceeds the allowable stresses
then the dam material may get crushed, a dam may fail by the failure of its own
material. The allowable compressive stress of concrete is generally taken as 3000
KN/m2.
5. Tension cracks in the dam may sometimes lead to the failure of the structure by?
a) Sliding of the dam at the cracked section
b) Overturning about the toe
c) Crushing of concrete starting from the toe
d) Both overturning and crushing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When tension prevails, cracks develop near the heel and uplift pressure
increases, reducing the net salinizing force. This crack by itself does not fail the
structure but it leads to failure of the structure by producing excessive compressive
stresses.
6. The major principal stress at the toe of a gravity dam under full reservoir condition
neglecting the tailwater effect is given by ____________________
a) Pv
b) Pv tanQ2
c) Pv secQ2
d) Pv sinQ2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When there is no tailwater, the principal stress in such a case is
Pv secQ2 where Pv is the intensity of vertical pressure. This value of principal stress
should not be allowed to exceed the maximum allowable compressive stress of dam
material.
7. Which of the following criteria has to be satisfied for no tension at any point on a
gravity dam?
a) The resultant of all the forces must always pass through the mid-point of the base
of the dam
b) The resultant force for all conditions of loading must pass through the middle third
of the base
c) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the upstream extremity of the
middle third of the base
d) The resultant of all the forces must pass through the downstream extremity of the
middle third of the base
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The minimum vertical stress Pmin is equal to zero in order to ensure that
no tension is developed anywhere. If Pmin = 0, e = B/6 i.e. the maximum value of
eccentricity that can be permitted on either side of the center is equal to B/6. This
concludes the fact that the resultant of all forces must lie within the middle third of
the joint width.
8. The bottom portion of a concrete or a masonry gravity dam is usually stepped in
order to _______
a) increase the overturning resistance of the dam
b) increase the shear strength
c) decrease the shear strength
d) increase the frictional resistance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The foundation is stepped at the base to increase the shear strength at
the base and at other joints and measures is taken to ensure a better bond between
the dam and the rock foundation. By ensuring a better bond between the surfaces
the shear strength of these joints should be made as good as possible.
9. The governing compressive stress in a concrete gravity dam which should not be
allowed to exceed the permissible value of about 3000 KN/m 2 while analyzing full
reservoir case is ____________________
a) the vertical maximum stress at the toe
b) the major principal stress at toe
c) the shear stress at the toe
d) the principal stress at the heel
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In reservoir full case, the resultant is nearer to the toe and hence,
maximum compressive stress is produced at the toe. The vertical direct stress
distribution at the base is the sum of the direct stress and the bending stress and is
given by the equation –
Pmax = V/B [1 + 6e/B] where V is the total vertical force, e is the eccentricity of the
resultant force from the center of the base and B is the base width.
10. If the uplift increases and the net effective downward force reduces, the resultant
will shift towards the toe.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The resultant shifts towards the toe if the uplift increases and the net
effective downward force reduces. This further increases the compressive stress at
the toe and further lengthening the crack due to the development of tension. It finally
leads to the failure of the toe by direct compression

This set of Irrigation Engineering Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs)
focuses on “Gravity Method”.

1. When the reservoir is empty, the single force acting on it is the self-weight of the
dam which acts at a distance of ____________
a) B/2 from the heel
b) B/6 from the heel
c) B/3 from the heel
d) B/4 from the heel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The only single force on the dam when the reservoir is empty is the
self-weight of the dam acting at a distance of B/3 from the heel. It provides maximum
possible stabilizing moment about the toe without causing tension.
2. When the reservoir is empty, the maximum vertical stress equal to
________________
a) At heel = 2W/B and at toe = 0
b) At heel = 0 and at toe = 2W/B
c) At heel = toe = zero
d) At heel = toe = 2W/B
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The vertical stress distribution at the base when the reservoir is empty
is given as –
Pmax/min = V/B [1 + 6e/B] and V/B [1 – 6e/B] where e = B/6 and V = total vertical force
= weight W
Pmax = 2W/B and Pmin = 0.
The maximum vertical stress at the heel is equal to 2W/B and at the toe is zero.
3. The two-dimensional stability analysis of gravity dams proves better for U-shaped
valleys than for V-shaped valleys.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The transverse joints in the dam body are generally not grouted in U-
shaped valleys but are keyed together in V-shaped valleys. In V-shaped valleys, the
entire length of the dam acts monolithically as a single body. The assumption that
the dam is considered to made up of a number of cantilevers of unit width each may
involve errors here.
4. Calculate the value of minimum base width for an elementary triangular concrete
gravity dam supporting 72 m height of reservoir water and full uplift? (Take specific
gravity of concrete as 2.4 and coefficient of friction as 0.7)
a) 36.28 m
b) 39.77 m
c) 51.5 m
d) 73.5 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Using formula –
Case 1: B = H / (Sc – c)1/2 (For full uplift c = 1 and specific gravity of concrete = 2.4 )
= 72/ (2.4 – 1)1/2 = 60.85 m
Case 2: B = H/μ (S – 1) where μ = coefficient of friction taken as 0.7
B = 72 / 0.7 x 1.4 = 73.46 m
The highest among the two base width value is to be selected i.e. B = 73.46 m.
5. For usual values of permissible compressive stress and specific gravity of
concrete, a high concrete gravity is the one whose height exceeds ______________
a) 48 m
b) 70 m
c) 88 m
d) 98 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The limiting height is – Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) ϒw Permissible strength of
concrete = 3000 KN/m2, Sc = specific gravity of concrete = 2.4
Hmax = 3000/[(2.4 + 1) x 9.81] = 89.9 m.
6. For triangular dam section of height H for just no tension under the action of water
pressure, self-weight and uplift pressure, the minimum base width required is
_____________
a) H / (S-1)
b) H / S1/2
c) H / (S – 1)-1
d) H / (S-1)1/2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The minimum base width (B) of a gravity dam having an elementary
profile –
B = H / (S – 1)-1 where S is specific gravity of concrete and H is the height of water.
If uplift is not considered – B = H/S1/2.
7. If the eccentricity of the resultant falls outside the middle third, the ultimate failure
of the dam occurs by ______________
a) tension
b) crushing
c) sliding
d) overturning
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When eccentricity is greater than B/6 (eccentricity falls outside the
middle third), tension may develop. When tension prevails, cracks develop near the
heel and uplift pressure distribution increases reducing the net salinizing force.
8. What is the value of eccentricity for no tension condition in the dam?
a) e < B/6
b) e > B/6
c) e > B/3
d) e < B/3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The resultant of all the forces i.e hydrostatic water pressure, uplift
pressure and self-weight of the dam should always lie within the middle third of the
base for no tension. When e < B/6, the value of stress intensity at toe and heel are
positive i.e compression on both sides.
9. What is the formula for limiting height of a gravity dam?
a) Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) γw
b) Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw
c) Hmax = f / (Sc + C) γw
d) Hmax = f / (Sc – 1) γw
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The critical height or limiting height of a dam having elementary profile
is –
Hmax = f / (Sc + 1) γw where f = allowable stress of the dam material, Sc = Specific
gravity of concrete and γw = unit weight of water.
This limiting height draws a dividing line between a low gravity dam and a high
gravity dam.
10. Calculate the top width of the dam if the height of water stored is 84m.
a) 5 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 5.55 m
d) 7.75 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bligh has given an empirical formula for finding out the thickness of the
dam at top.
A = 0.522 H1/2 = 0.522 x 841/2 = 5.05 m.
As per Creager, the economical top width has been found to be equal to 14% of the
dam height without considering earthquake forces.
1. In high dams, the safety against sliding should be checked only for friction.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The safety against sliding should be checked only for friction in case of
low dams and in high dams, the shear strength of the joint (i.e. an additional shear
resistance) is also considered for economical design. The dam section is given an
extra slope or batter on the U/s or D/s side as per requirements for achieving
stability.
2. For full reservoir condition in a gravity dam, the critical combination of vertical and
horizontal earthquake accelerations to be considered for checking the stability is
________________________
a) vertically upward and horizontally downstream
b) vertically downward and horizontally downstream
c) vertically upward and horizontally upstream
d) vertically downward and horizontally upstream
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Horizontal inertia force should be considered to be acting at the center
of the gravity of the mass regardless of the shape of cross-section and it acts
horizontally downstream in worst cases under full reservoir case. This force would
produce the worst results is it is additive to the hydrostatic water pressure (acting
towards the downstream).
3. The base width of a solid gravity dam is 35 m and the specific gravity of dam
material is 2.45. What is the approximate allowable height of the dam having an
elementary profile without considering the uplift?
a) 64.68 m
b) 54.80 m
c) 164 m
d) 80 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The base width at bottom is given by B = H/Sc1/2 (c = 0 since uplift is not
considered).
B = 35 m and Sc = 2.45
Allowable height of the dam H = 35 x 2.451/2 = 54.8 m.
4. A low gravity dam of elementary profile made up of concrete of relative density
2.57 and safe allowable stress of foundation material 4.2 MPa. What is the maximum
height of the dam without considering the uplift force?
a) 120 m
b) 217 m
c) 279 m
d) 325 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum possible height of low gravity dam is H = f / ϒw (Sc + 1)
where f = allowable stress of dam material = 4.2 MPa, Sc = 2.57, and ϒw = 9.81
KN/m2.
H = [4.2 / (9.81 x 3.57)] x 1000 = 119.92 m.
5. The vertical stress at the toe was found to be 3.44 MPa at the base of the gravity
dam section. If the downstream face of the dam has a slope of 0.617 horizontal: 1
vertical, the maximum principal stress at the toe of the dam when there is no
tailwater is _______________
a) 1.7 MPa
b) 2.4 MPa
c) 3.6 MPa
d) 4.8 MPa
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The principal stress at the toe is given by Pat toe = Pv. secΦ2 (without
considering the tailwater) where Pv = 3.44 MPa and tan Φ = 0.617/1 i.e.Φ = 31.67°
Pat toe = 3.44 x sec(31.67°)2 = 4.74 MPa.
6. What is the recommended value of shear friction factor against sliding?
a) More than unity
b) Less than unity
c) More than 3 to 5
d) Less than 3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shear Friction Factor is given by –
SFF = sliding factor (SF) + B.q / ∑Ph where B = width of joint or section area = B x 1,
q is the shear strength of the joint, and Ph is the sum of horizontal force causing
sliding. SF must be greater than 1 and SFF must be greater than 3 to 5. This
analysis is carried out for a full reservoir case as well as an empty case.
7. The small openings made in the huge body of a concrete gravity dam such as
sluices and inspection galleries can be assumed to be causing only local effects
without any appreciable effect on the distribution of stresses as per the principle
of_____________________
a) Laplace
b) St. Venant
c) Reynold
d) St. Francis
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Small openings made in the dam only produce local effects as per St.
Venant’s principle. They do not affect the general distribution of stresses. This is one
of the most important assumptions made in the two-dimensional analysis of gravity
dams.
8. A concrete gravity dam having a maximum reservoir level at 200 m and the RL of
the bottom of the dam 100 m. The maximum allowable compressive stress in
concrete is 3000 KN/m2 and the specific gravity of concrete is 2.4. Calculate the
height of the dam and check whether it is a high dam or low dam.
a) H = 90 m High gravity dam
b) H = 90 m Low gravity dam
c) H = 214.2 m High gravity dam
d) H = 214.2 m Low gravity dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The limiting height of the dam is given by-
H = f / ϒw (Sc + 1) where f = allowable stress of dam material = 3000 KN/m 2, Sc =
2.4, and ϒw = 9.81 KN/m2.
H = 3000 / 9.81 x 3.4 = 89.9 m.
This value is more than the height of the dam so it is a high gravity dam.
9. The axis of a gravity dam is the ______________________
a) line of the crown of the dam on the downstream side
b) line of the crown of the dam on the upstream side
c) centre-line of the top width of the dam
d) line joining mid-points of the base
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The axis of the dam is taken as the reference line which is defined
separately in the plan and in the cross-section of the dam. In plan, it is the horizontal
trace of the U/s edge of the top of the dam. In the cross-section, the vertical line
passing through the U/s edge of the top of the dam is considered as the axis of the
dam.
10. Presence of tail-water in a gravity dam ____________________
a) increases the principal stress and decreases the shear stress
b) increases both the principal stress and the shear stress
c) decreases the principal stress and increases the shear stress
d) decreases both the principal stress and the shear stress
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The principal stress is given by the formula –
P = Pv sec(Φ)2 – p’ tan(Φ)2 where Pv is the intensity of vertical pressure and p’ is the
tail-water pressure
The shear stress on the horizontal plane near the toe is given by –
S = (Pv – p’) tan(Φ)
From both the equations, it is clear that the tail-water pressure is opposite in nature
and it reduces the value of principal stress and shear stress.

1. The provision of drainage gallery in a gravity dam helps in reducing

____________________
a) hydrostatic pressure
b) seepage pressure
c) silt pressure
d) both hydrostatic pressure and seepage pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An opening or passage left in the dam which runs longitudinally is
called the gallery. This is to provide space for drainage of water percolating through
the upstream face of the dam or seeping through the foundation. It is also used for
inspection purposes and for the mechanical equipment used in the operation of
gates in spillways.
2. Which of the following attempts are made to reduce the uplift in order to
economize on the provided section of a concrete gravity dam?
i. Providing drainage gallery to collect seepage water
ii. Constructing cut-off under upstream face
iii. Pressure grouting in dam foundation
iv. Provision of shear keys or keyways
a) i and ii
b) i, ii and iii
c) i, ii and iv
d) i, ii, iii and iv
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a gravity dam, the grout curtain is provided near the toe to reduce the
exit gradient. A drainage gallery with its drainage pipe system provided in gravity
dam reduces the uplift pressure at all levels below the upstream water level. Vertical
cut-off walls are the most effective to reduce seepage flow and uplift force.
3. Transverse joints in concrete gravity dams are the
___________________________
a) horizontal construction joints at each lift height
b) vertical construction joints of full height and width
c) diagonal construction joints for torsion
d) longitudinal construction joints of full width
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transverse joints are vertical joints that run through the entire height
and extend through the full width of the dam section. These joints are continuous
from the upstream face to the downstream face.
4. Leakage through the transverse joints in a gravity dam is prevented by
____________
a) shear keys
b) keyways
c) water stops
d) galleries
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Water bars or water stops are provided in the transverse as well as
horizontal joints in concrete adjacent to the upstream face of the dam. The openings
of the joints are sealed properly with water stops to avoid passage of seepage of
water through the body.
5. In order to reduce uplift on a gravity dam, the type of grouting done is
____________________
a) curtain grouting near the heel
b) consolidation grouting near the heel
c) curtain grouting near the toe
d) consolidation grouting near the toe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Curtain grouting helps in forming a principal barrier against the seepage
through the foundations and thus reduces the uplift pressure. This grouting can be
accomplished from the foundation gallery or from other galleries within the dam.
6. The general value of lift for concrete is taken as __________________
a) 1.5 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 3 m
d) 4 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The concrete is poured from a certain height in the first attempt and this
height is called a lift. Maximum height of single pour of concrete is usually about 1.5
m. If this is reduced, more horizontal joints will get developed.
7. The horizontal joints that extends through the entire width of the dam section and
are developed at each lift height is called as ___________________
a) transverse joints
b) longitudinal joints
c) construction joints
d) contraction joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The longitudinal joint is developed at each lift height and extends
through the entire width of the dam section. These joints shall run through the entire
length of the dam but are staggered between transverse joints.
8. Which of the following joints justifies the two-dimensional analysis of gravity
dams?
a) Longitudinal joints
b) Transverse joints
c) Construction joints
d) Contraction joints
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Transverse joints are vertical joints that divide the dam length into a
number of vertical cantilevers each of which is independent of the other. It runs
through the entire height and extends through the full width of the dam section.
Hence, it justifies the two-dimensional analysis of gravity dams.
9. The foundation pressure used in the pressure grouting is equal to
_________________
a) 2.0 D N/cm2
b) 2.5 D N/cm2
c) 5.0 D N/cm2
d) 3.0 D N/cm2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The grouting pressure is kept as high as possible without lifting the
foundation strata and the pressure used in this grouting is equal to 2.5D. It is carried
out only after some portion of the dam section is laid and is generally done in stages
of depth equal to 15 m or so.

1. Which of the following earth dam is suitable only on impervious foundation?

a) Zoned embankment type
b) Homogenous embankment type
c) Non-homogenous type
d) Diaphragm type
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Homogenous earth dam may be constructed of uniform and
homogenous material when locally available. The percolation of water is not checked
in such dams. It is suitable only on impervious foundations.
2. Which of the following zone in Zoned type embankment prevents piping through
cracks?
a) Central core
b) Transition zone
c) Outer zone
d) Core wall
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The outer zone is made of fairly pervious material like grit, gravel, and
murrum. The innermost zone is done with fairly impervious material. The central core
is covered by comparatively pervious transition zone which prevents piping through
the cracks which may develop in the core.
3. Which of the following soil material is most preferred for the central core material
of zoned embankment type dam?
a) Highly impervious clay
b) Sands or silty clays
c) Coarse sands
d) Gravels
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Clay shrinks and swells and is highly impervious is not suitable. It is
sometimes mixed with fine sand or fine gravel so as to make it a suitable material for
the impervious central core. Coarse sands and gravels are used in the outer shell.
4. Which embankment has the thickness of the diaphragm at an elevation less than
10 meters or the height of the embankment above the corresponding elevation?
a) Diaphragm type dam
b) Zoned type dam
c) Non-homogenous earth dam
d) Homogenous earth dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The thickness of the core differentiates the diaphragm embankment
from the zoned type embankment.

Embankment type The thickness of core or diaphragm

< 10 m or
1. Diaphragm-type embankment
< the height of embankment

2. Zoned-type embankment ≥ 10 m
5. The blanket in earth dam is provided ___________________
a) at the ground level on u/s side
b) at the ground level on the d/s side
c) at the ground level of the D/s side of the dam
d) on the D/s slope
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A blanket of relatively impervious material may be placed on the
upstream face. Since homogenous earth dam poses the problems of seepage, a
homogenous section is generally added with an internal drainage system. This
keeps the seepage line well within the body of the dam.
6. Which of the following statement is correct with reference to earthen dams?
a) These dams are very costly as compared to other types
b) Gravity dams are less susceptible to failure as compared to rigid dams
c) These dams are suitable for construction on almost every type of foundation
d) Highly skilled labor is generally not required
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Earthen dams are suitable for any type of foundation but there has to
be a separate provision for the spillway location. The mode of failure is sudden and
requires high maintenance and the overall life is not so long. It requires low to
moderately skilled labors and moderate capital cost.
7. During the construction of an earthen dam by hydraulic fill method, development
of pore pressure becomes important in the __________________
a) central impervious core
b) pervious outer shell
c) transition zone
d) both central core and outer shell
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this method, an embankment is created by water and earth slurry
which is discharged inwards to form a central pool at site. When water is pumped to
the site it spreads the coarser material drops out first and the finest at last. Thus the
core material settles within the central pool forming a zoned embankment and high
pore pressures develop in the core.
8. The process of laying and compacting earth in layers by power rollers under OMC
for construction of earthen dams is known as ______________________
a) Rolled fill method
b) Hydraulic fill method
c) OMC method
d) Compaction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the rolled-fill method, the embankment is constructed by placing
suitable soil materials in thin layers and compacting the layers with rollers. Power-
operated rollers are used for dams and ordinary road rollers can be used for low
embankments. The best compaction can be obtained at the optimum moisture
content (OMC).
9. The central core of the zoned embankment type earth dam
________________________
a) checks the seepage
b) prevents piping
c) gives stability to the central impervious fill
d) distribute the load over a large area
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The central core or hearting is done with fairly impervious material and
it checks the seepage. The transition zone of mediocre permeability prevents piping
through cracks. The outer zone gives stability to the central fill.
10. Which type of dam is suitable on shallow pervious foundations?
a) Zoned embankment type
b) Homogenous embankment type
c) Both Non-homogenous type and homogenous type
d) Diaphragm type
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Zoned earth dam is also called a non-homogenous or heterogeneous
earth dam and it is suitable on shallow pervious foundations. This dam is widely
constructed and the materials of the zone are selected depending upon the
availabilities.

1. What is the U.S.B.R recommended value for freeboard when the height of the
dam is more than 60 m?
a) 2 m to 3 m
b) 2.5 m above the top of gates
c) 3 m above the top of gates
d) More than 3 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For controlled spillway, if the height of the dam is less than 60 m, the
minimum recommended freeboard value is 2.5 m above the top of gates. If the
height of the dam is more than 60 m, the minimum freeboard value is 3 m.
2. What is the recommended formula for top width of a very low dam?
a) H + 3
b) 0.2H + 3
c) 0.2 H
d) H + 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The top width (A) is generally governed by minimum roadway width
requirements in case of small dams. The top width of the earth dam for very low
dams is given by –
A = H/5 + 3 where H is the height of the dam.
3. What is the Terzaghi’s recommended value of U/s side slope for earth dam of
height less than 15m of homogenous silty clay?
a) 2: 1
b) 2.5: 1
c) 3: 1
d) 3.5: 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For earth dams of homogenous silty clay of height less than 15 m, the
recommended u/s slope is 2.5: 1 and d/s slope is 2: 1. For height more than 15 m,
u/s slope value is 3: 1 and d/s slope is 2.5: 1.
4. If the height of the dam is 10 m, then the value of top width (A) according to
Strange’s recommendations is _________________
a) 1.85 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 3.0 m
d) 4.0 m
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the height of the dam is up to 7.5 m then the top width value
according to Strange’s recommendation is 1.85 and if the height is in between 7.5 to
15 m, then the recommended value is 2.5. If the height is in between 15 to 22.5 m
then the top width is 3.0 m.
5. When the height of the dam is in between 7.5 to 15, the Strange’s recommended
value for maximum freeboard of low earth dams is ______________
a) 1.2 to 1.5
b) 1.5 to 1.8
c) 1.85
d) 2.1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For the height of the dam up to 4.5 m, the maximum freeboard is 1.2 to
1.5 m and for the height range 4.5 to 7.5 m, the maximum freeboard is 1.5 to 1.8 m.
If the height of the dam is in between 7.5 to 15 m, the maximum value is 1.85 m.
6. Calculate the top width (A) of the earth dam of height 50 m.
a) 5.0 m
b) 4.75 m
c) 6.10 m
d) 3 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For dams higher than 30 m, the top width (A) is given by the following
formula-
A = 1.65 (H + 1.5)1/3 where H is the height of the dam.
A = 1.65 (50 + 1.5)1/3 = 6.13 m.
7. A phreatic line in seepage analysis is defined as the line on which pressure is
_______________
a) equal to the atmosphere
b) greater than atmosphere
c) lower than atmosphere
d) varying
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The line which joins the points in a dam section at which pressure is
equal to the atmospheric pressure is called phreatic line. It is also called as line of
seepage or saturation line. There is capillary fringe i.e zone of capillary which has
negative hydrostatic pressure above this line.
8. Provision of horizontal berms at suitable vertical intervals may be provided in the
downstream face of an earthen dam in order to _________________
a) allow the movement of cattle
b) allow the inspection of vehicles to move
c) reduce the erosion caused by the flowing rainwater
d) increase the erosion
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The provision of berms serves the following purposes –
1. It behaves like a good lining for reducing losses and leakage.
2. They provide protection against erosion and breaches due to wave action.
3. They help the channel to attain regime conditions as they help in providing
a wider waterway.
4. It can be used as borrow pits for excavating soil to be used for filling.
9. During seepage through an earthen mass, the direction of seepage is
________________ to the equipotential lines.
a) perpendicular
b) parallel
c) not defined
d) diagonal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The seepage through a pervious soil material for 2-D flow is given by
Laplacian equation and the graphical solution suggests that the flow through the soil
can be represented by flow-net. It consists of 2 sets of curves equipotential line and
streamlines which is mutually perpendicular to each other.
10. The upstream face of the earth dam is considered as _____________________
a) equipotential line
b) streamline
c) streak line
d) path line
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Equipotential lines are the lines of equal energy. Every point on the
upstream face of an earth dam will be under equal total energy, this line acts as an
equipotential line. Similarly, the upstream floor of a weir acts as an equipotential line.
10. The effects of capillary fringe are on the slightly safer side and are neglected.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When there is appreciable flow through the dam body below the
phreatic line, it reduces the effective weight of the soil and also the shear strength of
the soil due to pore pressure. The capillary tension in water leads to increased
intergranular pressure as the insignificant flow through the fringe leads to greater
shear strength. Hence, the effects are neglected.
11. Which of the following line acts as a dividing line between dry (or moist) and
submerged line?
a) Equipotential line
b) Path line
c) Seepage line
d) Streak line
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The soil above the phreatic line or seepage line will be taken as dry and
the soil below it shall be taken as submerged for computation of shear strength of
the soil. This helps in drawing the flow net.

1. Stone pitching or riprap is generally provided to avoid _______________

a) over-topping
b) erosion of U/s and d/s face
c) cracking due to frost action
d) gully formation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The waves developed near the top surface due to the winds notch out
the soil from the U/s face and the D/s toe of the dam may get eroded due to the
cross currents and due to tailwater. Stone pitching or riprap should be provided to
avoid such failures.
2. Provision of sufficient freeboard eliminates _______________

i. Over-topping failure

ii. Erosion of U/s face

iii. Erosion of D/s face

iv. Cracking due to frost action

v. Gully formation

Which of the following is/are correct?

a) i and v
b) ii and iii
c) iv and v
d) i and iv
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Over-topping of the dam generally occurs due to insufficient free-board,
inadequate spillway capacity, and clogging of the spillway, etc. Frost causes heaving
and cracking of the soil with seepage and consequent failure, an additional freeboard
allowance of about 1.5 m should be provided as an additional safety measure.
3. The collection and removal of water before it acquires high downward velocities is
ensured by provision of ____________________
a) berms
b) freeboard
c) burrow pits
d) spoil banks
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rainwater that acquires high downward velocities causes
consequent erosion which can be reduced by the provision of berms.
The provision of berms serves the following purposes –
• It behaves like a good lining for reducing losses and leakage
• They provide protection against erosion and breaches due to wave action
• They help the channel to attain regime conditions as they help in providing a wider
waterway
• It can be used as borrow pits for excavating soil to be used for filling.
4. In order to prevent the possibility of the cross-flow towards the earthen
embankments, it is necessary to provide _____________________
a) counter berms
b) sides walls of sufficient height and length
c) spoil banks
d) sufficient freeboard
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cross-currents that may come from the spillway buckets is one of
the reasons for the d/s toe erosion. To prevent the possibility of cross-flow towards
the earthen embankment, sidewalls of the spillway also called diaphragm walls of
sufficient height and length is provided.
5. Sloughing is the process of _________________
a) progressive erosion
b) subsequent removal of soil grains from within the dam
c) uncontrolled seepage through the dam body
d) progressive removal of soil from the D/s face
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The progressive erosion and the subsequent removal of soil grains from
within the dam or from the foundation is piping. The progressive removal of soil from
the d/s face is sloughing.
6. In foundation slide failure___________________________
a) top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming large
mud waves near the heel
b) top of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming large
mud waves near the heel
c) bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves outward forming
large mud waves near the heel
d) bottom of embankment gets cracked and lower slope moves inward forming large
mud waves near the heel
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The entire dam may slide or just one face slides over the foundation
when the foundation of earth dams is made of soft soils. Then the foundation bulges
out on the side of the movement. The top of the embankment gets cracked and
lower slope moves outward forming large mud waves near the heel.
7. What is the most critical condition of slide of the U/s slope?
a) The sudden drawdown of the reservoir
b) Reservoir full condition
c) Steady seepage condition
d) Sudden drawdown and reservoir full condition
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the upstream slope is steep and when the soil used in the
construction of the dam is poor and compaction is not adequate, the sudden
drawdown of water causes sliding of the upstream face. This failure seldom leads to
catastrophic failures.
8. When the reservoir is full, the slope which is most likely to slide is
_____________________
a) the upstream slope
b) the downstream slope
c) both upstream and downstream slope
d) no effect
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The D/s slope is most likely to slide when the reservoir is full. For
downstream face also, when the slope is steep and soil used is poor with inadequate
compaction, saturation and softening of soil due to rainfall and seepage causes
sliding of the downstream face.
9. In order to keep the saturation line in a canal embankment well within the toe, it is
necessary to provide _____________________
a) spoil bank
b) counter berm
c) freeboard
d) berm
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The saturation gradient line may cut the downstream end of the bank
even after providing sufficient section for bank embankment. By the provision of
counter-berms, the saturation line can be kept covered at least by 0.5 m.
10. Which of the following failures generally occur due to the development of
unaccounted pore pressures?
a) Hydraulic failures
b) Piping through the dam body
c) Sliding in embankments
d) Sloughing of the d/s toe
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Excessive pore pressure developed due to consideration of clay
embedded between sands or silts may reduce the shear strength of the soil. It
becomes incapable of resisting the induced shear stresses leading to the failure of
dam foundation without warning.

1. Which of the following method is also called as the Slices method?

a) Fellenius method
b) Swedish slip circle method
c) Bishop’s simplified method
d) Spencer’s method
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Swedish circle method is also called as the method of slices and
Fellenius method is a modified version of it. Swedish circle method assumes the
condition of plain strain with failure along a cylindrical arc. The location of the center
of possible failure arc is assumed and the earth mass is divided into slices.
2. In Fellenius method for small values of angle of internal friction of soil, the critical
arc passes ________________
a) through the toe of the slope
b) above the toe of the slope
c) below the toe of the slope
d) anywhere near the toe of the slope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The critical arc passes below the toe of the slope for small values of
angle of internal friction of the soil (0° to 15°) if the angle of inclination is less than
53°. For large values of internal friction angle, the critical arc passes through the
slope.
3. What is the correct expression of equivalent liquid unit weight?
a) ϒeq.tan2 [45 – Φ/2]
b) ϒeq.tan2 [45 + Φ/2]
c) ϒeq.tan [45 – Φ/2]
d) ϒeq.tan [45 + Φ/2]
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This term is used in the analysis of the stability of the foundation
against shear. It is based on the assumption that soil has an equivalent liquid unit
weight which would produce the same shear stress as the soil itself.
ϒeq.tan2 [45 – Φ/2]
where ϒeq = the equivalent unit weight of dry soil in foundation and dam and Φ = the
equivalent angle of internal friction.
4. Calculate the maximum shear-stress induced if the horizontal average shear
stress induced in u/s portion of the dam at the base is 36.45 kN/m 2.
a) 43.74 kN/m2
b) 47.38 kN/m2
c) 51.03 kN/m2
d) 54.67 kN/m2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: By Photoelastic studies, the maximum intensity of shear stress is equal
to 1.4 times the average shear intensity at a distance 0.6 B from the heel.
Ꞇmax = 1.4 Ꞇavg = 1.4 x 36.45 = 51.03 kN/m2.
5. Calculate the factor of safety at the point of maximum shear if unit shearing
resistance is 97.9 kN/m2 and the maximum shear-stress induced is 55.72 kN/m2.
Check whether the dam is safe or unsafe.
a) F.O.S = 1.93 and safe
b) F.O.S = 1.75 and unsafe
c) F.O.S = 0.569 and safe
d) F.O.S = 1.75 and safe
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: F.O.S will be the ratio of the unit shearing resistance to the maximum
shear stress developed.
F.O.S = 97.9 / 55.72 = 1.75
this value should be more than unity, hence safe.

1. The safety valve of a dam is its __________________

a) drainage gallery
b) inspection gallery
c) spillway
d) outlet sluices
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A spillway is essentially a safety valve for the dam and must be properly
designed. It should have adequate capacity to dispose off the entire surplus water
from upstream to downstream at the time of the arrival of the worst design flood.
2. An ungated spillway starts functioning as soon as the water level in the reservoir
crosses the __________________
a) maximum reservoir level
b) minimum reservoir level
c) maximum conservation level
d) full Supply level
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum conservation level is nothing but normal pool level which is
the maximum elevation to which the reservoir water surface will rise during normal
operating conditions. This is equivalent to the elevation of the spillway crest or the
top of the spillway gates, such uncontrolled spillways are only guided by the
available water head.
3. Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway and may be constructed on
small bunds or thin arch dams?
a) Straight drop spillway
b) Ogee spillway
c) Shaft spillway
d) Siphon spillway
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Straight drop weir or Overfall spillway is a low weir and simple vertical
fall type structure. It is the simplest type of spillway and can be constructed on small
bunds, thin arches, etc. The downstream face of the spillway may be kept vertical or
slightly inclined.
4. The spillway can be best built independently of the dam when there is
_________________________
a) deep narrow gorge with steep slopes
b) deep narrow gorge with gradual slopes
c) wide gorge with a gradual slope
d) wide valley with moderate slopes
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The spillway can be best built independently of the dam where there is
a deep narrow gorge with steep banks separated from a flank by a hillock with its
level above the top of the dam. A concrete or an earthen dam can be constructed
across the main valley and a spillway can be constructed independently into the
saddle under such circumstances.
5. Which of the following is a secondary safety arrangement?
a) Safety valves
b) Spillway gates
c) Subsidiary spillway
d) Energy dissipaters
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: If at the worst condition the water rises above the maximum reservoir
level it will overtop such an embankment. A secondary safety arrangement known as
subsidiary dam or emergency spillway or breaching section is generally provided on
large dams for the disposal of excess water, especially on earthen and rock-fill
dams.

1. Which of the following spillway is least suitable to earthen dams?

a) Ogee spillway
b) Chute spillway
c) Side-channel spillways
d) Shaft spillway
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is an improvement over the free over-fall spillway. It is mostly suitable
for concrete gravity dams especially when the spillway is located within the body of
the dam in the same valley.
2. If the operating head on an ogee spillway is more than the design head then
________________
a) the pressure on the crest will be zero
b) the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
c) the pressure on the crest will be positive
d) the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The lower nappe of the falling jet may leave the ogee profile when the
operating head of the spillway is more than the design head. This generates
negative pressure at the point of separation which leads to the formation of cavities
in the water resulting in cavitation.
3. In the functioning of an ogee spillway, the operating head
______________________
a) frequently exceeds the design head
b) rarely exceeds the design head
c) never exceeds the design head
d) has no connection with the design head
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An ogee spillway is designed for maximum head up to RL of maximum
reservoir level; there are almost no chances of operating head exceeding the design
head. Under rare emergency as in excessive floods, it may become necessary to
allow the reservoir level to go even above the MRL in such case the operating head
may exceed the design head.
4. Which of the following spillway is an improvement over free overflow spillway?
a) Straight drop spillway
b) Open channel spillway
c) Overflow spillway
d) Siphon spillway
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ogee spillway is an improvement over free overflow spillway and is
widely used with concrete, arch and buttress dam. The profile is made such that the
shape of the lower nappe of a freely falling jet over a duly ventilated sharp-crested
weir.
5. If the head of the water over the spillway is less than the design head, then
________________
a) the pressure on the crest will be zero
b) the pressure on the crest will be negative causing cavitation
c) the discharge coefficient of the spillway is increased
d) the discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the head of water over the spillway is less than the design head, the
falling jet would adhere to the crest of the ogee spillway. This causes positive
hydrostatic pressure and thereby reduces the discharge coefficient of the weir.
6. The spillway which can be called as an overflow spillway is essentially
___________________
a) an ogee spillway
b) a shaft spillway
c) a chute spillway
d) a syphon spillway
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ogee spillway is also called as overflow spillway and is an improvement
over straight drop spillway. In this spillway, the water jet falls clearly away from the
face of the spillway and the gap between the jet and the face is kept ventilated.
7. The W.E.S downstream profile of an ogee spillway can be represented by an
equation:
Xn = K Hd n-1. Y
Where x and y are the coordinates of the points on the crest profile and K and n for a
vertical upstream spillway would respectively be___________________
a) 2.0 and 1.85
b) 0.5 and 1.85
c) 2.0 and 0.85
d) 0.5 and 0.85
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The value of K and n depends on the upstream slope. For vertical u/s
face of the spillway, K is 2.0 and n is 1.85 and for slope 1H : 3V, K = 1.936 and n =
1.836. For slope 1H : 1 1/2V, K = 1.939 and n = 1.810.
8. According to US Army Corps, the u/s profile of ogee spillway extends up to
_______________
a) x = 1.27 Hd
b) x = -1.27 Hd
c) x = 0.431 Hd
d) x = -0.431 Hd
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The profile for an Ogee spillway having a vertical upstream face can be
determined on the basis of its WES profile. The upstream profile extends up to x = -
1.27 Hd Where Hd is the design head.
9. Which of the following plot is useful in determining the clearance for the spillway
deck bridge and the top levels of walls on the side of the spillway?
a) The coordinates of the lower nappe
b) The coordinates of the upper nappe
c) Both the coordinates of upper and lower nappe
d) The origin or apex of crest
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The crest profile is determined by the coordinates of the lower nappe.
The plotting of the upper nappe is useful in determining the clearance for the spillway
deck bridge and the top levels of the training walls on the side of the spillway.
10. What is the satisfactory radius for the reverse bottom curve which is provided at
the downstream end of the spillway?
a) One-fourth of the spillway height
b) Equal to the spillway height
c) Half the value of the spillway height
d) One-third of the spillway height
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A smooth gradual reverse curvature is provided at the bottom of the
downstream face after the plotting of the profile of the spillway. The curve turns the
flow into the discharge channel. The satisfactory radius of the curve is taken as one-
fourth of the spillway height.
11. What is Bazin’s profile?
a) Profile for the lower nappe of a free-falling jet
b) The profile obtained for the upper nappe of a free-falling jet
c) Crest profile
d) Profile of both upper and lower nappe
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The theoretical profile obtained for the lower nappe of a free-falling jet is
known as Bazin’s profile. Theoretically, this profile causes no negative pressure on
the crest under the designed head. But in practice, negative pressure on such a
profile seems inevitable.
12. If the upstream face of the spillway is kept vertical, the crest shape should also
confirm to the lower nappe of an inclined sharp-crested weir.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If the upstream face of the spillway is kept vertical, the crest shape
confirms to the lower nappe of a vertical sharp-crested weir under the maximum
head. But if u/s face is kept sloping the crest shape should also confirm to the lower
nappe obtained for an inclined sharp-crested weir.

1. The discharge passing over an ogee spillway per unit length of its apex line is
proportional ___________________
a) H
b) H2
c) H1/2
d) H3/2
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The discharge passing over the ogee spillway is given by the formula –
Q = C. Le. H3/2 where Le is the effective length of the spillway crest, C is the
coefficient of discharge and H is the total head over the crest including the velocity
head.
It is clear from the discharge equation that the discharge is proportional to H3/2.
2. When the crest of an ogee spillway is designed to be in accordance with the lower
nappe of a free-falling water jet over a duly ventilated sharp-crested weir then
theoretically
a) The pressure on the spillway crest will be zero at design head only
b) The pressure on the spillway crest will always be zero
c) The pressure on the spillway crest will always be negative
d) The pressure on the spillway crest will be always positive
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In actual practice development of negative pressure takes place
beneath the nappe due to the removal of air by the falling jet. This causes the danger
of cavitation and induces fluctuation and pulsation effects. To control this aeration
pipes may be provided along spillway face.
3. When the gated sluices are provided through the body of the dam spillway then
the ogee spillway structure shall normally be of Corbel type.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The extra concrete is required for thickening of the section at the d/s
end which can be saved by shifting the curve of the nappe in a backward direction
until it becomes tangential to the d/s face. It can be affected by providing a corbel on
u/s face.
4. The velocity of approach has found to be negligible effect upon discharge if
____________
a) the ratio H/Hd is more than 1.33
b) the ratio H/Hd is less than 1.33
c) the ratio H/Hd is equal to zero
d) the ratio H/Hd is more than 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The velocity of approach has been found to have a negligible effect
upon discharge when the height of the weir is more than 1.33 times the design head.
When this ratio is less than 1.33 as in low spillways, the velocity is having an
appreciable effect.
5. If a flood enters a dam reservoir at F.R.L, the efficiency of its ogee spillway will
______________
a) increase with the increasing head
b) reduce with the increasing head
c) remain constant with the increasing head
d) vary with the increasing head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The coefficient of discharge increases with the increasing head above
the full reservoir level till it becomes about 2.2 at full design head i.e. MRL. Since the
spillway starts working when the water level just crosses FRL, the coefficient of
discharge is about 77% at full design head. As the water level increases from F.R.L
to M.R.L, the efficiency increases from 77% to 100%.
6. The downstream apron of the ogee spillway is found to have a negligible effect on
the coefficient of discharge when the value of ________________
a) (Hd + d) / He is less than 1.7
b) (Hd + d) / He exceeds 1.7
c) (Hd + d) / He is equal to 1
d) (Hd + d) / He is less than 1.33
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The d/s apron is found to have a negligible effect on the coefficient of
discharge when the value of (Hd + d) / He exceeds 1.7. where d is the tailwater
depth, Hd is the design head and He is the Design head including the velocity head.
There can be a decrease in the coefficient due to tailwater submergence.
7. What is the value of the pier abutment coefficient for pointed nose piers?
a) 0.1
b) 0.02
c) 0.01
d) 0.0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The value of pier contraction coefficient depends upon the shape of the
piers.

S.NO. Pier Shape Contract

1 Square nosed piers without any rounding 0.1

2 Rounded nose piers and 900 cut water nosed piers 0.01

3 Pointed nose piers 0.0

8. What is the value of abutment contraction coefficient for square abutment with
headwall perpendicular to the direction of flow?
a) 0.2
b) 0.1
c) 0.02
d) 0.01
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For square abutment with headwall at 90° to the direction of the flow,
the abutment contraction coefficient is 0.2. For rounded abutment with headwall at
90° to the direction of flow, the value is taken as 0.1.
9. What is the assumption that is taken during the entire design of an overflow
spillway?
a) The upper and lower nappe is subjected to negative pressures
b) The upper and lower nappe is subjected to full atmospheric pressure
c) The upper and lower nappe is subjected to zero atmospheric pressure
d) The upper and lower nappe is subjected to both positive and negative pressure
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In actual practice, the development of negative pressure due to
insufficient aeration takes place beneath the nappe due to the removal of air by the
falling jet. But the entire design has been done with the assumption that the upper
and lower nappe is subjected to full atmospheric pressure.
10. The greater is the divergence from the streamline flow, greater is the contraction
coefficient.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The greater is the divergence, the greater is the contraction coefficient
and lesser is the effective length of the crest. A 90° cut water nose pier is generally
preferred as it has quite a low value of pier contraction coefficient and is most
efficient.
11. Calculate the effective length of the spillway which consists of 6 spans having a
clear width of 10 m each. The thickness of each pier may be taken as 2.5 m and the
total design head on the crest including velocity head is 16.3 m. Assuming 90° cut
water nose piers and rounded abutments.
a) 55 m
b) 60 m
c) 65 m
d) 75 m
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The effective length of the spillway is given by-
Le = L – 2[N.Kp + Ka].H
Where L = clear length of the spillway crest = 6 x 10 = 60, N = Number of piers = 5
and H = 16.3 m
For 90° cut water nose piers and rounded abutments; Ka = 0.1 and Kp = 0.01
Le = 60 – 2[5 x 0.01 + 0.1] x 16.3 = 55.1 m.

1. Which of the following is the simplest type of spillway which can be provided
independently and at low costs?
a) Ogee spillway
b) Trough spillway
c) Siphon spillway
d) Saddle spillway
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The trough or chute spillway is adaptable to any type of foundations
and is the simplest type of spillway. It can be easily provided independently at low
costs but it requires ample room adjacent to the dam.
2. If the spillway is constructed in continuation to the dam at one end, it may be
called as ________
a) saddle weir
b) flank weir
c) waste weir
d) temporary weir
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Saddle weir is the one when the spillway is constructed in a natural
saddle in a bank of the river separated from the main dam by a high ridge. Flank weir
is the one when the spillway is constructed in continuation to the dam at one end.
3. The spillway which can be adopted with ease on gravity as well as earthen dams
is _________________
a) ogee spillway
b) chute spillway
c) both ogee and chute spillway
d) straight drop spillway
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Straight drop spillway is a low weir and simple vertical fall type structure
which may be constructed on thin arch dams or small bunds etc. An ogee spillway is
most suitable for concrete gravity dams. Chute spillway can be provided easily on
earth and rock-fill dams.
4. The famous Bhakra dam of India is provided with ________________
a) trough spillway
b) ogee spillway
c) shaft spillway
d) siphon spillway
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam on the Sutlej River in Himachal
Pradesh of the total height of 226 m approximately. It forms the Gobindsagar
Reservoir with controlled overflow chute or trough spillway and four spillway gates
for an emergency.
5. The surplus reservoir water after spilling over the crest of the spillway flows on the
chute is __________________
a) parallel to the crest in a trough spillway
b) parallel to the crest in a side-channel spillway
c) perpendicular to the crest in a side-channel spillway
d) obliquely to the crest in a chute spillway
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In chute spillway, after crossing over the crest of the spillway water
flows at right angle shoots down a channel or a trough to meet the river channel
downstream of the dam. The water after spilling over the crest flows parallel to the
crest in a side-channel spillway.
6. Whenever the slope of chute changes from steeper to milder
____________________ curve shall be provided.
a) a concave vertical curve
b) a convex vertical curve
c) a hyperbolic curve
d) a parabolic curve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A concave vertical curve is provided whenever the slope changes from
steeper to milder. The radius of this curve should be less than 10 times the depth of
water (in meters).
7. The side slope of approach channel of chute spillway is ___________________
a) 1:1
b) 1:1 12
c) 1:3
d) 1:2.5
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: An entrance channel also called as an approach channel is trapezoidal
in shape with side slopes 1:1. It is constructed so as to lead the reservoir water up to
the control structure or low ogee weir.
8. The spillway which may sometimes be called as a waste weir is
______________________
a) an ogee spillway
b) a trough spillway
c) a shaft spillway
d) a siphon spillway
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A chute or trough spillway is sometimes called as a waste weir. It is
called as chute spillway because after crossing over the crest of the spillway water
flow shoots down a channel or trough to meet the river channel downstream of the
dam. The trough is taken straight from the crest to the river.
9. The portion of a chute spillway which is known as its control structure is
________________
a) low ogee weir
b) chute channel
c) approach channel leading the water from the reservoir to the ogee weir
d) silting basin at its bottom
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Low ogee weir is required as a control structure in the chute spillway.
The entire chute spillway is divided into the entrance channel, control structure,
Chute channel or discharge channel, and energy dissipation arrangements in the
form of silting basin at the bottom.
10. The type of spillway which is provided on narrow valleys where no side flanks are
available is ____________________
a) ogee spillway
b) chute spillway
c) side-channel spillway
d) straight drop spillway
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The side channel spillway is suitable when the valley is too narrow.
When there is no room for provision of chute spillway (as side flanks of sufficient
width are required), this type is adopted as it requires limited space. The situation
required for the chute spillway and side-channel spillway is mostly the same.
11. Which of the following curve is provided when the slope of the chute changes
from milder to steeper?
a) Concave vertical curve
b) Hyperbolic curve
c) Convex vertical curve
d) Straight plan
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A convex vertical curve shall have to be provided when the slope of the
chute changes from milder to steeper. The curvature should approximate to a
parabolic shape. A concave vertical curve is provided whenever the slope changes
from steeper to milder.
12. Calculate the freeboard for the top levels of the side walls if the mean velocity of
water in the chute reach is 3.5 m/s and the mean depth of water in the chute reach
under consideration is 4.7 m.
a) 0.60 m
b) 1 m
c) 0.85 m
d) 0.55 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The freeboard to be provided above the top nappe of side walls is
generally given by the equation:
F.B = 0.61 + 0.04 Vm. dm1/3 where ‘Vm‘ is the mean velocity of water in the chute
reach and ‘dm’ is the mean depth of water in the chute reach under consideration.
F.B = 0.61 + 0.04 x 3.5 x 4.71/3 = 0.84 m.
13. The minimum slope of the chute is governed by the condition that
_____________
a) the subcritical flow must be maintained
b) the supercritical flow must be maintained
c) a critical flow must be maintained
d) maybe supercritical or subcritical flow is possible
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The water flows through the chute channel after spilling over the control
structure and the minimum slope is governed by the condition that the supercritical
flow must be maintained. The slope should be sufficient to meet the flow requirement
from the crest without endangering the stability or heavy excavations.
14. What is the approximate percentage of light reinforcement that is provided in the
top of the reinforced concrete slabs at the base?
a) 0.50% of the concrete area
b) 0.45% of the concrete area
c) 0.30% of the concrete area
d) 0.25% of the concrete area
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The base of the channel is usually made of reinforced concrete slabs
25 to 50 cm thick and light reinforcement of about 0.25% of the concrete area is also
provided in both the directions. The chute is sometimes narrowed for the economy
and then widened near the end to reduce the discharging velocity.

1. A shaft spillway is located _______________________

a) inside the body of a gravity dam
b) inside the upstream reservoir
c) inside the downstream reservoir
d) on the side flanks of the main dam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The shape of the shaft spillway is just like a funnel. The lower end of
the funnel is turned at right angles and then taken out below the dam horizontally.
Water spills over the circular crest and then enters the vertical shaft and comes out
of the dam through the horizontal tunnel.
2. The siphons installed within a gravity dam to spill the surplus reservoir water are
known as ______________________
a) hooded type siphon spillway
b) tilted outlet type siphon spillway
c) both hooded and titled type siphon spillway
d) shaft spillway
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The siphon pipe is installed within the body of the dam and an air vent
may be connected with it. The outlet is submerged to avoid the entry of the air in the
siphon from the d/s end. When the air enters the siphon through the vent, siphoning
action cannot take place and the flow will stop.
3. The siphons installed over overflow dams constitute what are known as
__________________
a) hooded type siphon spillway
b) tilted outlet type siphon spillway
c) discharge carriers
d) baby siphons
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In hooded type spillway, a reinforced concrete hood is constructed over
an ordinary overflow section of a gravity dam. The inlet is kept submerged to prevent
the entry of debris, ice, etc. A small de-priming hood is kept above the main hood
and they are connected by an air vent.
4. The only spillway among the following through which the discharge does not
increase as fast as it increases in all others is _________________
a) chute spillway
b) side-channel spillway
c) ogee spillway
d) shaft spillway
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A shaft spillway is generally adopted when the possibility of an overflow
spillway and a trough spillway has been ruled out. The discharge does not increase
at such a high rate as in weir type spills. Hence, it may not prove as useful as a weir
type spills if unestimated high floods occur.
5. The only spillway among the following through which the discharge is almost at its
capacity rate even from the start of its functioning is ________________
a) chute spillway
b) side-channel spillway
c) ogee spillway
d) siphon spillway
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Since the change in the effective head is small as compared to the
corresponding change in head over an ogee spillway. When once the water level has
risen above the normal pool level, the discharge through the siphon is always at its
capacity. This makes it advantageous in disposing of sudden surges of water.
6. An air vent is provided at FRL to break the siphoning action at that level in a
___________________
a) hooded type of siphon spillway
b) tilted outlet type of siphon spillway
c) saddle siphon spillway
d) volute siphon spillway
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the water level falls to FRL an air vent is provided on the crown
to break the siphoning action. Air enters the lower limb through the air vent and
siphonic action is stopped.
7. Which of the following spillway is designed in India by Ganesh Iyer?
a) Saddle siphon spillway
b) Saddle spillway
c) Glory hole spillway
d) Volute Siphon spillway
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Volute siphon spillway consists of a vertical shaft circular in the section
provided with a cap covering. It has low priming depth and higher discharge
efficiency. It can be provided with an earth dam also.
8. The crest of a siphon spillway is fixed at ________________
a) full reservoir level
b) dead storage level
c) maximum water level
d) top of the dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The crest of a siphon spillway is fixed at FRL. When the water level in
the reservoir rises above FRL the sheet of water starts spilling over the crest. When
the waterfalls to FRL, air enters the vent and siphonic action is stopped.
9. A siphon spillway is sufficiently independent of the water surface elevation of the
reservoir.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The discharge through the siphon is given by the equation-
Q = Cd. A. (2gH)1/2 where Cd is the coefficient of discharge, A is the area of the
cross-section and H is the effective head i.e. the difference of the water level in the
reservoir and the tailwater level for a submerged outlet. The discharge through the
spillway is affected to a very less extent is the water surface in the reservoir rises.
10. The allowable maximum negative head on an average is equal to __________
a) 2.5 m or so
b) 5 m or so
c) 7.5 m or so
d) 10 m or so
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The vertical distance from the crown of the siphon down to the
discharging point or HGL should not exceed a value of 7.5 m under average
conditions. This is necessary to avoid cavitation.
Limiting vaccum pressure = Atmospheric pressure – Vapour pressure = 10 – 2.5 =
7.5 m.
11. The structure which is not used in a shaft spillway is ________________
a) tunnel
b) bridge
c) radial gates
d) radial piers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The radial gates consists of steel plates with struts which are pinned at
the center of the circular plate. When the water level rises above FRL the gates are
raised by hoisting arrangement to allow the flood water to discharge freely. Each
gate is separately housed between two piers constructed on the crest.
12. Morning glory is the _____________________________
a) special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a dam of very small height
b) special flared inlet of the shaft spillway of a large dam project
c) a horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway across the body of a gravity dam
to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river
d) a horizontal tunnel constructed in a shaft spillway of an earthen dam through its
foundation to carry surplus reservoir water to the d/s river
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In shaft spillway of large heights, RCC may be used and for smaller
heights, no special inlet design is necessary. A flared inlet called morning glory is
often used in large projects. The horizontal tunnel is either taken through the dam
body or below the foundations.
13. For a saddle siphon, the maximum operative head is 4.53 m. The width and
height of the throat of the siphon are 5 m and 2.25 m respectively. The coefficient of
discharge is 0.90. How many units are required to pass a flood of 350 cumecs?
(Assume g = 10 m/s2)
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The discharge through the siphon is given by the equation:
Q = Cd. A. (2gH)1/2 Where Cd = 0.9, H = 4.53 m and A = 5 x 2.25 = 11.25 m2
Q = 0.9 x 11.25 x (2 x 9.81 x 4.53)1/2 = 95.45 m3/sec
No. of units of saddle siphon = 350 / 95.45 = 3.66 units. = 4 units.
14. A siphon spillway in a concrete gravity dam is in the shape of
________________
a) U-shape
b) Inverted U-shape
c) Horizontal bend through the abutment
d) Any straight line
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A siphon spillway is a closed conduit of the shape of an inverted U-tube
with unequal legs and works on the principle of siphonic action. It consists of a
siphon pipe one end of which is in u/s side and the other end discharges water on
the d/s side.

1. The energy dissipation at the toe of the spillway is affected basically by the use of
hydraulic jump in _______________________
a) roller bucket
b) a ski-jump bucket
c) a sloping apron below the downstream river bed
d) both roller and ski-jump bucket
View Answer
2. The most ideal condition for energy dissipation in the design of spillways is the
one when the tail-water rating curve coincides with the jump rating curve at all
discharge.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The most ideal condition for jump formation is when TWC coincides
with JHC at all discharge. To ensure protection in the region of a hydraulic jump, a
simple concrete apron of apron length 5 (y2 – y1) is provided.
3. When the tail-water depths in the river downstream of a spillway are quite low
such that the tail-water curve at all discharges lies below the post jump depth curve,
then the energy dissipation can be affected best by ___________________
a) a roller bucket
b) a ski-jump bucket
c) either roller or ski-jump bucket
d) a sloping apron
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Energy dissipation bucket called ski-jump bucket is used when the tail-
water depth is insufficient or low at all discharge. It requires sound and rocky river
bed. Water may shoot up out of the bucket and fail harmlessly into the river at some
distance downstream of the bucket.
4. The device which does not help in energy dissipation at the bottom of a hydraulic
structure over which water spills is ________________
a) chute block
b) dentated sill
c) morning glory
d) baffle piers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A flared inlet called morning glory is often used in large projects. The
horizontal tunnel is either taken through the dam body or below the foundations.
Chute blocks, dentated sills and baffle piers are all auxiliary devices which help in
energy dissipation.
5. The formation of hydraulic jump at the foot of a spillway is one of the common
methods of energy dissipation because ______________________
a) it destroys more than 90% of total energy by the turbulence produced in the jump
b) it reduces the kinetic energy by increasing the depth of flow
c) its action is not understood
d) it reduces the kinetic energy by decreasing the depth of flow
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydraulic jump is generally accompanied by large scale turbulence
dissipating most of the kinetic energy of the super-critical flow. It is the most suitable
method because the energy is lost in the impact of the water against water. Most of
the kinetic energy is destroyed by creating a condition suitable for the hydraulic
jump.
6. A ski-jump bucket is also known as _____________________
a) flip bucket
b) solid roller bucket
c) slotted roller bucket
d) flexible bucket
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A ski-jump bucket is also called flip bucket is used for energy
dissipation when tail-water depth is insufficient or low at all discharge. A part of
energy dissipation takes place by impact and some of the energy is dissipated in the
air by diffusion or aeration.
7. The percentage of energy dissipation in a hydraulic jump increases with the
increase in the Froude number.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The energy dissipation in the jump depends upon the Froude number, if
this Froude number is higher, the greater energy dissipation can take place.

S NO. Froude number % loss in energy

1. 2.5 17

2. 4.5 45

3. 9.0 70
8. Which of the following stilling basin help in stabilizing the flow and improve the
jump performance?
a) dentated sills
b) chute blocks
c) baffle piers
d) friction blocks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Chute blocks are a row of small projections like teeth of saw and are
provided at the entrance of the silting basin. It produces a shorter length of jump and
stabilizes the flow. Hence, they improve jump performance.
9. What is the expected solution for the case when the T.W.C is lying above the
J.H.C curve at all discharges?
a) By providing a simple concrete apron of length 5(Y1 – Y2)
b) By providing a sloping apron above the river bed
c) By providing a sloping apron below the river bed
d) Provision of a ski-jump bucket
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the TWC is lying above the JHC at all discharges, the problem
can be solved by-
1) By constructing a sloping apron above the river bed
2) By providing a roller bucket type of energy dissipator.
In this case, the jump is formed at the toe will be drowned by the tail-water and little
energy will be dissipated.
10. A sloping apron is provided partly above the river bed and partly below the river
bed in case of ____________________________
a) when TWC coincides with the JHC at all discharges
b) when TWC lies above the JHC at all discharges
c) when TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges
d) when TWC lies above the JHC at low discharges and below the JHC at high
discharges
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At low discharges, the jump will be drowned and at high discharges tail-
water depth is insufficient. When TWC lies above the JHC at low discharges and
below the JHC at high discharges, the solution is the provision of sloping apron
partly above and partly below the river bed. The horizontal apron and end-sill are
also provided.
11. When the TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges, the problem can be solved
by which of the following provisions?
i. Constructing a sloping apron above the river bed
ii. Provision of roller bucket type of energy dissipator
iii. Provision of a ski-jump bucket
iv. A sloping apron below the river bed
v. Construction of a subsidiary dam
vi. A sloping apron partly above and partly below the river bed
a) i, iii and v
b) i, ii and vi
c) iii, iv and v
d) i, iii, iv and v
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When TWC lies below the JHC at all discharges, the expected solution
is –
i. Provision of a ski-jump bucket
ii. A sloping apron below the river bed of length 5 (y2 – y1)
iii. Construction of a subsidiary dam below the main dam.

1. A troublesome and oscillating hydraulic jump is normally met in cases of

_____________
a) weirs and barrages
b) overflow spillways of dams
c) weirs
d) large spillways
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When the Froude number lies in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is
troublesome and oscillating as in case of weirs and barrages. There is an oscillating
jet entering the jump bottom to the surface and back again which produces a large
wave of irregular period doing unlimited damage.
2. A very steady and stable hydraulic jump is usually formed in the flows involving
the approaching Froude number in the range of _____________________
a) less than 2.5
b) 2.5 to 4.5
c) 4.5 to 9.0
d) more than 9.0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the Froude number is in the range of 4.5 to 9.0, the jump
performs at its best and is called steady jump. The length of the jump is almost
constant and equal to 6 y2 where y2 is the post jump depth. The dissipation of energy
ranges from 45 to 70%.
3. Standard USBR stilling basin-II is useful for energy dissipation at the bottom of the
overflow structure, if the approaching Froude number is ________________
a) less than 4.5
b) more than 4.5
c) less than 2.5
d) more than 2.5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: USBR has standardized stilling basins for different Froude numbers.
USBR stilling basin- II is recommended for large structures when the Froude number
is more than 4.5. The dissipation of energy will be 45 to 85%.
4. When the Froude number is in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is
____________________
a) weak and energy loss is low
b) troublesome and oscillating
c) steady jump
d) strong jump
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When the Froude number is in the range of 2.5 to 4.5, the jump is
troublesome and oscillating. This gives rise to the heavy waves on the surface and
wave suppressors are needed in this range.
5. Which of the following stilling basin is applicable to only rectangular cross-
sections?
a) U.S.B.R stilling basin-II
b) U.S.B.R stilling basin-IV
c) U.S.B.R stilling basin-I
d) U.S.B.R stilling basin-III
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: USBR stilling basin-IV is used for Froude number varying between 2.5
and 4.5 which generally occurs in canal weirs, canal falls, diversion dams, etc. They
are tried to be controlled by providing large chute blocks since oscillating waves are
generated in this range. This is applicable only to rectangular cross-sections.
6. The Froude number of a hydraulic jump is 5.5. The jump can be classified as
____________
a) a weak jump
b) an oscillating jump
c) rough and choppy jump
d) steady jump
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: When the Froude number is in the range of 4.5 to 9.0, the jump is
steady. This is generally the case of dams and spillways. The oscillating jump occurs
between the range of 2.5 to 4.5 and when Froude number is less than 2.5, the jump
is weak and when it is more than 9.0, the jump is rough and choppy.
7. Standard stilling basin is provided at the toe of a dam spillway for energy
dissipation is usually provided with auxiliary devices like chute blocks and dentated
sills for the basic purpose of reducing the length of the stilling basin from about
________________
a) 6 y2 to 4 y2
b) 4 y2 to 2 y2
c) 6 y2 to 2 y2
d) 3 y2 to y2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the case of dams and spillways, the jump is steady and the length of
the jump is almost constant and is equal to 6 y2 where y2 is the post jump depth. The
length of the basin is related to Froude number as the economy in the length of the
basin up to about 35% i.e. 4.3 y2 is thus obtained for auxiliary devices.
8. In the case of dam spillways, the approaching Froude number usually lies in the
range of __________
a) less than 2.5 m
b) 2.5 – 4.5
c) 4.5 – 9.0
d) more than 9.0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Froude number varying between 2.5 and 4.5 generally occurs in canal
weirs, canal falls, diversion dams, etc. For dams and spillways, the Froude number is
in between 4.5 and 9.0 i.e. steady jump and the jump is well balanced.
9. _____________________ are suitable only for low spillways or weirs.
a) Chute blocks
b) Sloping aprons
c) Baffle wall or friction blocks
d) Roller buckets
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Baffle piers or walls are blocks placed within the basin across the basin
floor and they help in breaking the flow and dissipate the energy mostly by the
impact. They generally give away under high-velocity jets due to their cavitation
effects. It is unsuitable for large works.
10. Which of the following helps in dissipating the residual energy and to reduce the
length of the jump or the basin?
a) Dentated sills
b) Chute blocks
c) Roller bucket
d) Baffle piers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Chute blocks help in stabilizing the flow and thus improve the jump
performance. Baffle piers help in breaking the flow and dissipate energy mostly by
the impact. Dentated sills are generally provided at the end of the stilling basin and
diffuse the residual portion of high-velocity jet reaching the end of the basin.

1. In a fixed roller of a spillway gate, the rollers are attached to the

__________________
a) gate
b) groove gate
c) either gate or groove gate
d) guide grooves
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Rollers are generally attached to the gate and ride in tracks on the
downstream side of the groove guide. The openings between the upstream leaf plate
and the sides of the pier grooves are sealed using rubber seals.
2. In the vertical Stoney spillway gate, the rollers are placed between the
______________
a) gate and u/s groove guide
b) gate and the d/s groove guide
c) u/s and d/s groove guide
d) attached to the gate and groove guides
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A train of the roller is generally placed in between the gate and the d/s
guide. These rollers may be placed independent of the gate and the guide thus
eliminating the axle friction but rolls vertically between the two when the gate is
moved.
3. The spillway gate which when lowered cannot be seen from a distance is of the
type ______________________
a) Sliding gate
b) Roller gate
c) Tainter gate
d) USBR drum gate
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The system of drum gates consists of a segment of a cylinder which
may be raised or lowered into the recess made into the top of the spillway.
Whenever the drum is lowered, the surface becomes coincident with the designed
ogee shape of the crest.
4. An ogee spillway of a concrete gravity dam having FRL of 328 m and MWL of 340
m is provided with vertical gates between piers erected on the spillway. The effective
length of the spillway is 60 m. The discharge through the spillway when gates are
opened up to the actual reservoir level of 331.0 m will be_____________
a) 850 cumecs
b) 1700 cumecs
c) 2800 cumecs
d) 1000 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The discharge is given by the equation –
Q = Cd. A. (2gH)1/2
Where Cd is the coefficient of discharge through the orifice
A is the area of the opening = 60 x 6 =360 m2
H is the water head over the centre line of the opening = RL (331 – 328) = 3m
Q = 0.62 x 360 x (2 x 9.81 x 3)1/2 = 1700 cumecs.
5. The most common vertical lift gates in modern days is _________________
a) sliding gates
b) free-roller gates
c) stoney gates
d) fixed wheel gates
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The design and construction of free-roller gate are difficult as the rollers
are not attached to the gate and the guide. Therefore, the rollers are attached to the
gate. Large vertical lift gates are broken into two horizontal sections to reduce the
load on the hoisting mechanism.
6. The working of Reinold’s gate is automatic.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a rectangular gate fixed with rollers and it moves up and down
along the upstream vertical face of the spillway. The gate is suspended by means of
chains which pass over the pulleys and to the other end of the chains a
counterweight is attached.
7. Which of the following gate is also called flush boards?
a) Dropping shutters
b) Tainter gates
c) Drum gates
d) Vertical lift gates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dropping shutters are also called permanent flush boards. They are
generally used to raise the water level by 1 to 1.25 m. This type consists of shutters
or plates made of steel which are hinged at the bottom.
8. Which one of the following gate is not suitable for curved crests?
a) Flush boards
b) Tainter gates
c) Drum gates
d) Vertical lift gates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In flush boards, the shutters are hinged at the bottom and are
supported by struts. Whenever the water level rises above the top of the shutters
they dropdown. Hence they are not suitable for curved crests.
9. Which of the following gate works on the principle of counterweights against the
water pressure?
a) Dropping shutters
b) Stop logs and needles
c) Stoney roller gate
d) Drum gates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In dropping shutters, the shutters are hinged at the bottom and are
supported by struts and these shutters can be raised or lowered from an overhead
cableway or a bridge. They work on the principle of counterweights against the water
pressure.
10. ________________ are used only for very minor works.
a) Dropping gates
b) Stop logs and needles
c) Rectangular gates
d) Drum gates
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A Stop log consists of wooden beams and planks placed on to one
another and leakage between them is a big problem. Needles are wooden logs kept
side by side and it is very difficult to handle these logs at the time of flow. Hence they
are not used on any major works.
11. Which of the following gate is not suitable for smaller spillways?
a) Drum gates
b) Radial gates
c) Needles and stop logs
d) Fixed roller gates
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Drum gates are suitable for longer spans of the order of 40 m or so and
medium heights of 10 m or so. The drum is enclosed on all the three sides as well as
on the ends thus forming a water-tight vessel. It requires a large recess and is not
suitable for small spillways.

1. The bar screens used to cover the dam outlets to prevent entry of debris, or ice
into the spillway conduits are called __________________
a) gate controlled ports
b) projecting collars
c) trash racks
d) intakes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The trash racks are made from steel bars at a spacing of about 5 to 15
cm c/c in both the directions. The floating objects like debris, ice get collected on
these racks and can be removed by manual labor as well as automatic power-driven
system. The spacing depends upon the maximum size of debris required to be
excluded.
2. Projecting collars are provided on sides of a rectangular tunnel of length L made
through an earthen dam to increase the seepage path. Their projection length (X)
and numbers (N) are decided so as to provide increased seepage path equal to 2NX
where 2NX should generally be ______________________
a) greater than L/4
b) greater than L/3
c) greater than L/2
d) greater than L
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The seepage is reduced by increasing the length of the seepage path
by at least 25%. The increase in seepage path must generally be greater than L/4.
3. The outlet provided in a dam body to release water for the downstream water
demand is known as ______________________
a) spillway
b) sluiceway
c) under-sluice
d) waterway
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A sluiceway is a pipe or a tunnel that passes through the body of the
dam or through some hillside at one end of the dam and discharges into the stream
below. The sluiceways are preferred to place outside the limits of the embankments
in case of spillways.
4. A 2 m diameter sluiceway at RL 300 m is provided through a concrete overflow
dam section to release water to the downstream where tail water level is not more
than 275 m. The discharge through this outlet when the water level in the reservoir is
at FRL of 330 m is of the order of_________________
a) 20 cumecs
b) 40 cumecs
c) 50 cumecs
d) 80 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The discharge passing through the dam outlet is given by using the
equation-
Q = Cd. A. (2gHL)1/2 where Cd is the coefficient of discharge = 0.62 for free over-fall,
H = Water head over centre line of sluice = 330 – 300 = 30 m and A = π/4 x 4 = 3.14
m2
Q = 0.62 x 3.14 x (2 x 9.81 x 30)1/2 = 47.23 cumecs.
5. A 4 m diameter tunnel has been constructed through an earthen dam with a bell
mouth entry. The water levels on the U/s and D/s sides of the dam are at RL 226 m
and 210 m respectively. What will be the discharge through this outlet?
a) 64 cumecs
b) 104 cumecs
c) 165 cumecs
d) 216 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The discharge through the outlet is given by –
Q = Cd. A. (2gHL)1/2 where HL = 226 – 210 = 16 m
Q = 0.8 x (π/4 x 16) x (2 x 9.81 x 16) = 164 cumecs.
6. Which of the following entrance of the sluiceway is most superior?
a) A square-edged entrance
b) A Bell-mouthed entrance
c) A rectangular entrance
d) A circular entrance
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As compared to Bell-mouthed or other entrance, a square edge
entrance is likely to cause more separation of flow and more danger of consequent
cavitation. The shape of the bell-mouthed entrance is generally elliptical and the
extra cost involved I shaping this entrance is usually justified except for small
projects under low heads.
7. What is the correct Douma’s equation for rectangular tunnels or conduits?
a) X2 + 10.4 Y2 = d2
b) 4X2 + 10.4 Y2 = d2
c) 4X2 + 44.4 Y2 = d2
d) X2 – 10.4 Y2 = d2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Douma has suggested the following equation –
i. For circular conduits: 4X2 + 44.4 Y2 = d2 where d is the diameter of the circular
conduit
ii. For rectangular tunnels or conduits: X2 + 10.4 Y2 = d2 where d is the width or
height of the conduit depending on whether the sides or top and bottom curves are
being designed. Where X and Y are the coordinates of any point on the curve and d
is the width or height of the conduit.
8. What is the value of head loss for the fully open gate and butterfly valves?
a) 0.5 V2 / 2g
b) V2 / 2g
c) 0.2 V2 / 2g
d) 0.04 V2 / 2g
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The head loss depends upon the type of gate and valves. For fully open
gates and butterfly valves, a loss of about 0.2 V2 / 2g (where V is the flow velocity
through the conduit) may be taken and is taken as nil for ring follower gates.

1. River intakes is usually situated on ____________________

a) the convex side of the curve
b) the concave side of the curve
c) straight reach
d) the downstream side of a sewer outfall
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The structure may vary from a simple concrete block supporting the end
of the conduit pipe to huge concrete towers. It is constructed at the entrance of the
conduit. The basic function is to help in safely withdrawing water from the reservoir
over a predetermined range of pool levels.
2. Which of the following intake structure is widely used in small works?
a) Sluiceways
b) Simple submerged intakes
c) Wet intake towers
d) Dry intake towers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main disadvantage of simple submerged intakes is that they are
not easily accessible for repairing of their gates etc. But, these are economical and
do not obstruct navigation and are widely used in small works. These are particularly
suitable as water-supply intakes from small rivers.
3. A trash rack is not required at the entrance of a ____________________
a) siphon spillway
b) drum gate installation
c) morning glory spillway
d) high-head gate installation
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Drum gates can control the reservoir level upstream to precise levels
automatically and without the assistance of mechanical power. It is completely
enclosed on all three sides as well as on the ends forming a water-tight vessel and is
hinged at the upstream end.
4. Bar screens used to cover dam outlets to prevent entry of debris or ice into the
sluiceway conduits are called ______________
a) gate controlled ports
b) projecting collars
c) trash racks
d) outlets
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The trash rack is generally provided as a cover for the entrance to
intakes and dam outlets so as to prevent the entry of debris, ice, etc into the conduit.
These are bar screens made from steel bars spaced at 5 to 15 cm center to center in
both directions.
5. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) Water can be withdrawn from any selected level of the reservoir using dry intake
towers
b) Intake towers have to be designed for the worst combination of hydrostatic wind
earthquake and wave forces
c) Dry intake towers are lighter in construction as compared to wet intake towers
d) In dry intake tower, the water is directly drawn into the withdrawal conduit through
the gated entry ports
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The water through the entry ports with gates is directly drawn into the
withdrawal conduit in a dry intake tower. Dry intake towers is heavier in construction
as it is subjected to additional buoyant forces even if the gates are closed. There are
separate gate controlled openings for the conduit in a wet intake tower and openings
are also made into the shaft.

1. The flow through the penstocks and pressure conduits is generally

____________________
a) laminar
b) turbulent
c) both laminar and turbulent
d) unpredictable
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Penstocks are the huge diameter pipe which carries water under
pressure and the structural design is similar to that of pressure pipes. Since there is
a possibility of sudden load changes in penstocks which changes the pressure and
flow velocity which characterizes the turbulent flow in fluid dynamics.
2. The head loss in the flow of water through a penstock pipe of given length
____________
a) increases with the increase in flow velocity
b) decreases with the increase in flow velocity
c) decreases with the increase in the roughness of the pipe surface
d) decreases with time
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The head loss (HL) by pipe friction is given by Darcy-Weisbach equation
–
HL = f’. V2. L / 2gd where L is the length of pipe in meters, d is the diameter of the
pipe, V is the velocity of the pipe and f’ is the friction factor which depends on
Reynold’s number and the relative roughness of the pipe.
It is clear from the given equation that the head loss is directly proportional to the
length of the pipe hence the head loss increases with the increase in the length of
the pipe.
3. Hoop’s reinforcement is provided in cement concrete pressure pipes in order to
counteract the _________
a) water hammer pressure
b) internal hammer pressure
c) stresses caused by the external backfills
d) both water hammer pressure and internal hammer pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Hoop’s tension is the internal pressure exerted on the walls of the pipe
by flowing water and the circumferential tensile stress (T1) is given by –
T1 = p1 d/2t where p1 is the internal static pressure, d is the diameter of the pipe and t
is the thickness of the pipe shell.
Similarly, the circumferential tensile stress caused by water hammer pressure is
given by –
T2 = p2 d/2t where p2 is the maximum water hammer pressure developed in
pipelines.
4. The more rapid the closure of the valve, greater is the water hammer pressure
developed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When a liquid is flowing in a pipeline is abruptly stopped by the closing
of the valve, it destroys the momentum and retards the velocity of water column
behind. This exerts a thrust on the valve, an additional pressure on the pipe shell
and it may be so high as to cause bursting of the pipe shell. The more rapid is the
closure of the valve, the more rapid is the change in momentum and hence, greater
hammer pressure is developed.
5. Which of the following types of pressure conduits is preferably used for large
heads?
a) PCC pipes
b) Cast iron pipes
c) Pre-stressed concrete pipes
d) Asbestos pipes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pre-stressed concrete pipes have more strength than RCC pipes and
are more economical. The strength can be achieved by circumferential pre-stressing
so as to increase the tensile stress. The main advantage is that they offer a cost
advantage over other pipes for large diameter and higher pressures.
6. Which head loss formula is also applicable to turbulent flow in pressure conduits?
a) Darch-Weisbach equation
b) Manning’s formula
c) Hazen-Williams formula
d) Both Darch-Weisbach and Manning’s formula
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Manning’s formula is also applicable to the turbulent flow in pressure
conduits. It yields good results provided the roughness coefficient is accurately
determined. The head loss is expressed as –
HL = n2. V2. L / R4/3 where, n = manning’s rugosity coefficient, L is the length of pipe,
V is the flow velocity through pipe and R is the hydraulic mean depth of the pipe.
7. __________________ joint is often used for connecting cast iron pipes.
a) Flexible joint
b) Expansion joint
c) Collar joints
d) Bell and spigot joint
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The pipes which are to be joined are made in such a way that one end
is enlarged (also called socket or bell) and the other end is normal (i.e. spigot). The
spigot end is inserted into the bell and the remaining space is filled with molten lead
which gets solidified and thus making a water-tight joint.
8. Which of the following conduits is used when large diameter pipes of smaller wall
thickness are required?
a) Cast iron conduits
b) Galvanized steel pipes
c) Hume steel conduits
d) Centrifugal type RCC pipe
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Galvanised steel pipes (with circumferential corrugations) are much
stronger than ordinary steel pipes. These are usually manufactured in various sizes
varying from 20 cm to 2 meters in diameter. They are lighter and can be more easily
transported at distances and are widely used where large pipes of smaller wall
thickness are required.
9. A special flexible joint called simplex joint is generally used to join
_______________
a) vitrified clay conduits
b) galvanised iron pipes
c) asbestos conduits
d) hume steel conduits
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Asbestos conduits are highly flexible and may permit as much as 120
deflections in laying them around curves. Expansion joints are not required as the
coefficient of expansion is low and the joints are also flexible i.e. simplex joint. Its
assembly consists of pipe sleeve and two rubber rings which are compressed
between the pipe and the interior of the sleeve.
10. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) Steel conduits are lighter than cast iron pipes
b) RCC pipes are generally made from 1:2:4 cement concrete with a maximum size
of aggregates as 6 mm
c) RCC pipes and Hume steel conduits are heavy and difficult to handle
d) Riveted pipes are smoother and stronger than welded pipes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Steel is strong in tension and even large size diameter pipes can be
made of thin shells. They are therefore lighter than cast iron pipes. Welded pipes are
smoother and stronger than riveted pipes. But steel pipes get rusted easily and are
protected on the inside as well as outside by protective coatings.
11. Which of the following pipes is used for carrying hot water in the interior of the
building?
a) Wrought iron pipes
b) Copper pipes
c) Galvanised iron pipes
d) Plastic pipes
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Copper pipes are very costly but they are highly resistant to acidic as
well as alkaline waters. They can be bent easily and do not sag due to heat. Hence,
they are very useful in carrying hot waters.
12. Wrought iron pipes are heavier than cast iron pipes and cannot be easily
fabricated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Wrought iron pipes can be more easily cut threaded and worked but are
more costly. They are neat in appearance but are less durable and corrode quickly.
These are lighter than cast iron pipes and are generally protected by galvanizing with
zinc coatings.

1. A hydropower plant developed at the site of a drop in an irrigation canal is of the

type ________
a) runoff river plant
b) storage plant
c) pumped storage plant
d) tidal plant
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the Run-off river installation, power is generated on the basis of day
to day flow in the river. To maintain the water level at a pre-determined level, a weir
or a barrage across the river is sometimes constructed. The excess water during the
peak-off hours is temporarily stored on u/s side of the barrage.
2. A nuclear power development scheme is essentially a _____________________
a) thermal power scheme
b) hydropower scheme
c) both thermal and hydropower scheme
d) atomic power scheme
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nuclear power station is the one where atomic fuel is used to produce
steam. The steam is produced in water boilers in case of an ordinary thermal power
station and in atomic power station, the boiler is replaced by a nuclear reactor and
steam generator. This electric power generation scheme is called thermal power
scheme.
3. Fossil fuels are used in _____________________
a) a nuclear power plant
b) an ordinary thermal power plant
c) a hydropower plant
d) atomic power plant
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fossils fuels like coal, gas, oil, etc and atomic fuel are used to generate
steam. Thermal power station or ordinary thermal power station is the one where the
conventional type of fuels i.e. fossil fuels is used to produce steam for running the
turbine.
4. A runoff river plant for hydropower generation is essentially a
________________________
a) high head scheme
b) medium head scheme
c) low head scheme
d) any of the schemes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Run-off river plant is essentially a low head scheme. The plant installed
on main rivers or on diversion canals is usually provided with small storage to meet
the short term fluctuations of the water requirement of the plant.
5. A storage hydro plant essentially involves ________________
a) a barrage or a weir
b) a dam
c) either barrage or a dam
d) check dams
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A dam is constructed across the river and the powerhouse may be
located at the foot of the dam. The powerhouse may sometimes be located much
away from the dam at the end of the tunnels which carry water away from the
reservoir.
6. The natural high waterfalls may be used for generation of
____________________
a) hydro-power
b) water-power
c) both hydropower and water power
d) thermal power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydroelectricity can be generated from naturally existing waterfalls
while most hydroelectric plants generate water from human-made waterfalls. The
naturally available high falls can also be developed for generating electric power and
the common examples are Jog falls in India and Niagara falls in the USA.
7. Which among the following is an example of a tidal plant?
a) Rance power station in France
b) Ganguwal powerhouse located on Nangal hydel channel in India
c) Sarda powerhouse located on Sarda canal in UP in India
d) Mohammad Pur and Pathri powerhouses on Ganga Canal
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The water that runs back to the ocean during low tides is also utilized to
generate electric power and special turbines are provided for the same. Rance
power station is an example of such tidal plants. The tidal range is about 11 meters
and this powerhouse contains 9 units of 38,000 KW.
8. When the powerhouse is located near the dam as is done in the low head
installations, it is known as _________________
a) concentrated fall hydroelectric development
b) divided fall hydroelectric development
c) concentrated fall thermal power development
d) divided fall thermal power development
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Divided fall development is the one where the water is carried to the
powerhouse at a considerable distance from the dam through a canal. Concentrated
fall hydroelectric development is the one when powerhouse is located near the dam
as in low head installations.
9. Which of the following plants utilize the minimum flow in a river having no
appreciable pondage on its upstream side?
a) Storage plant
b) Run-off river plant
c) Pumped storage plants
d) Tidal plants
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Run-off river plants utilize the minimum flow in a river having no
appreciable pondage on its upstream side. The excess water is temporarily stored in
the pond on u/s side when the discharge at the site is more than the demand i.e.
peak-off hours. It is then utilized during peak hours.
10. Which among the following plant generates power during peak hours?
a) Storage plant
b) Run-off river plant
c) Pumped storage plants
d) Tidal plants
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: During off-peak hours, the water is pumped back from the tailwater pool
to the headwater pool for future use. The pumped storage plant is primarily meant for
assisting an existing thermal plant or some hydel plant. They generate power during
peak hours only.
11. Which of the following dam is not an example of High head scheme?
a) Bhakra dam in Punjab
b) Rihand dam In UP
c) Hoover Dam in the USA
d) Sarda canal
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: This scheme uses a water head of more than 60 m or so. The common
examples are Bhakra dam in Punjab, Rihand dam in UP and the Hoover Dam in the
USA. Sarda powerhouse on Sarda canal is under low to the medium head scheme.
12. Pondage in a hydropower station is _________________________________
a) pond level
b) temporary storage to meet peak demands
c) excess runoff to last for years
d) excess runoff for a few hours only
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The pondage takes care of the hour to hour fluctuations over a day or
occasionally day to day fluctuations over a weekly cycle. It ensures that the desired
instantaneous rate of flow into the turbines under day to day changing conditions of
power load as well as of inflow. It may also be provided for weekly demands.
13. In a low head scheme, a weir or barrage is constructed to raise the water level.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A weir or a barrage is constructed to raise the level and the
powerhouse is constructed either in the continuation or at some distance
downstream of the barrage. The water is taken through an intake canal called the
power canal or the diversion canal.
14. Which of the following plant uses a reversible turbine that can work at relatively
high efficiencies and helps in reducing the cost of such a plant?
a) Run-off river plant
b) Storage plant
c) Pumped storage plant
d) Tidal plant
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reversible turbine has been devised for heads varying between 15 to
90 m that can function both as a turbine as well as a pump. This provision helps
considerably in improving the load factor of the power system. They can work at
relatively high efficiencies and helps in cost reduction.

1. As per estimate made by the Central Electricity Authority, the potential of the
country is accessed at 84 GW at load factor value of _________________
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 20%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This equivalent to about 440 billion units + KWh of annual energy
generation at a power factor of 0.6. 60% load factor means that the installed
machines are run on an average to give output capacity equal to 60% of the station
capacity. Machines will not always work at the installed capacity but on an average
of 60% of this capacity.
2. The first power station of India was installed at _________________
a) Mysore
b) Bombay
c) Darjeeling
d) Bangalore
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The first hydropower station in India dates back to the year 1897 when
a small power station of 200 KW capacities was constructed in Darjeeling. Then it
was followed by a 50 MW Tata Electric project of Bombay in 1914.
3. What is the correct expansion of DAE?
a) The Department of Atomic Energy
b) The Discipline of Atomic Energy
c) The Division of Atomic Energy
d) The Domain of Atomic Energy
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: This department directly runs under the Prime Minister of India with
headquarters in Mumbai, Maharashtra. The main aim of the department is to
increase nuclear power production from 3% to 8% of the total electricity generation in
the next 15 years.
4. In India, the nuclear power generation is about ____________ of the total power
generation.
a) 3%
b) 4%
c) 5%
d) 6%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The nuclear power generation is only about 3% of the total power
generation including hydropower, thermal power, nuclear power, etc. The Indian
Department of Atomic Energy is planning to boost its generation in the next 15 years
from 3% to 8% of the total electricity generation.
5. Which one is the first nuclear power plant in India?
a) Tarapur atomic power station
b) Kaiga atomic power station
c) Rawatbhata Atomic power station
d) Narora atomic power station
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tarapur Atomic power station 320 MW is located in Tarapur,
Maharashtra and it was the first commercial nuclear power station. The construction
began in 1961 and went operational in 1969. It has two 160 MW water boiling
reactors.
6. Convert the hydropower potential of 84 GW at 60% load factor into Trillion watts
hour.
a) 441 TWh
b) 735 TWh
c) 553 TWh
d) 345 TWh
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 1 TW (Trillion watt) = 1000 GW (Giga watt)
84 GW is equivalent to = 84 x 365 x 24 = 735,840 GW hour
At 60 % load factor = 735,840 x 0.6 = 441,504 GW hour = 441 TWh or 441 b KWh.

1. The minimum power which a hydropower plant can generate throughout the year
is called as ________________
a) power plant capacity
b) power plant load
c) firm power
d) water power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The firm power is the net amount of power which is continuously
available from a plant without any break on a guaranteed basis. The consumers can
always be sure of getting this power and this power is available under the most
adverse hydraulic conditions.
2. If the peak load for a power plant equals the plant capacity then the ratio of the
capacity factor to load factor will be _________________
a) 1
b) 0
c) < 1
d) > 1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Load factor = Average load over a certain period / Peak load during that
period
Capacity factor = Average load over a given time period / Plant capacity
Since, Plant capacity = Peak load
Ratio of CF / LF = 1.
3. If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW during a
given week and the energy produced is 58, 80,000 kWh, the capacity factor for the
plant for the week will be ___________________
a) 35%
b) 50%
c) 70%
d) 65%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Capacity factor = Average load/ Plant capacity
Average load = Energy produced / Time (in hours) = 58,80,000 / 7 x 24 = 35000 kW
C.F = 35 MW / 100 MW = 0.35 (or 35%).
4. During a certain week a power plant turns out 84,00,000 kWh and the peak load
during the week is 100,000 kW. What is the load factor during the week?
a) 40%
b) 45%
c) 50%
d) 60%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Load factor can be defined as the ratio of average load to the peak load
over a given period.
Average load = 84,000,000 / (24 x 7) = 50,000 kW
L.F = Average load / Peak load = 50,000 / 100,000 = 0.5 or 50%.
5. A canal drop is 6 meters and discharges available through the turbine is 50
cumec. Find the electrical energy available.
a) 2352 KW
b) 2352 MW
c) 2.352 kW
d) 235.2 kW
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The electrical energy (in kW) = 7.84 Q H (using 80% efficiency) where
H is the design head in meters and Q is the design discharge in cumecs.
Electrical energy = 7.84 x 50 x 6 = 2352 kW.
6. The ratio of maximum power utilised to the maximum power available is
_____________
a) power factor
b) plant use factor
c) reserve capacity
d) capacity factor
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Plant use factor is nothing but utilization factor which can be defined as
the ratio of maximum power utilized to the maximum power available if the water
head is assumed to be constant. The value usually varies from 0.4 to 0.9 for a hydel
plant.
7. The net amount of power which is continuously available from a plant without any
break is known as _____________
a) firm power
b) secondary power
c) power factor
d) utilization factor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Secondary power is the excess power available over firm power during
peak-off hours. It is supplied to consumers as and when available basis. Power
factor is the ratio of actual power (in kW) to the apparent power (in kilo volt-ampere).
8. The value of power factor is generally _____________________
a) equal to unity
b) less than unity
c) greater than unity
d) equal to zero
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The value of power factor depends upon the relationship between the
inductance and resistance in the load and it can never be greater than unity. The
usual system load has a power factor varying from 0.8 to 0.9. But if various induction
motors are installed in the load, the value will be 0.5.
9. To ensure maximum overall plant efficiency, the rated head should be equal to
______________
a) the design head
b) the gross head
c) the operating head
d) effective head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Rated head is the head at which the turbine functioning at full gate
opening will produce a power output. It is nothing but the specified head that is in the
nameplate of the turbine. This is equal to the design head of the turbine so as to
ensure maximum overall plant efficiency.
10. The difference of head at the point of entry and exit of turbine is
_______________
a) design head
b) gross head
c) effective head
d) rated head
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Design head is the net head under which the turbine reaches peak
efficiency. The difference in the water level elevations at the point of diversion of
water for the hydel scheme and the point of return of water back to the river is called
a gross head. The rated head is the head that is specified in the name-plate of the
turbine.
11. The load on a hydel plant varies from a minimum of 10,000 kW to a maximum of
35,000 kW. Two turbo-generators of capacities 20,000 kW each have been installed.
Calculate Plant factor.
a) 50%
b) 51%
c) 56.2%
d) 59.7%
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Plant factor can be defined as the ratio of the energy actually produced
(Average load) to the maximum energy that can be produced at a particular time.
Since two turbo generators are installed, the total installed capacity = 40000 kW
P.F = [(10000 + 35000) / 2] / 40000 = 56%.
12. Calculate utilisation factor if the maximum power utilised is 40,000 kW and two
turbo generators installed each of capacity 23,000 kW.
a) 73%
b) 87%
c) 57.5%
d) 63%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Utilisation factor = Maximum power utilised / Maximum power available
U.F = 40,000 / (2 x 23000) = 86.9% (since two generators are installed).
13. If the peak load on a power plant having a capacity of 100 MW is 70 MW during
a given week. Calculate the utilization factor.
a) 0.35
b) 0.50
c) 0.70
d) 0.60
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The utilization factor is the ratio of the maximum power utilized to the
maximum power available.
U.F = Max power utilised/ Max power available = 70 / 100 = 0.7.
14. 400 cumecs of water are being released from dam storage to meet the
downstream demand through the turbines of the connected hydro plant. The
effective head of water acting on the turbines is 50 m. The efficiency of the hydro
plant is 0.8. The electrical power generated from this plant is __________________
a) 1,56,800 MW
b) 156.8 M kW
c) 156.8 MW
d) 156.8 kW
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Using 80% efficiency, Electrical energy = 7.84 QH where H is the
design head in meters and Q is the design discharge in cumecs.
Electrical energy = 7.84 x 400 x 50 = 1, 56,800 kW = 156.80 MW.
15. What is the highest elevation of water level that can be maintained in the
reservoir without any spillway discharge either with gated or non-gated spillway?
a) Normal Water level
b) Minimum Water level
c) Weighted average level
d) Operating head
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Minimum water level is that elevation of water level which produces
minimum net head on the power units i.e. 65% of the design head. The weighted
average level is the level above and below which equal amounts of power are
developed during an average year. Operating head is the difference of elevation of
entrance and the tail-race exit.

1. Which of the following is an example of an impulse turbine?

a) Pelton turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Propeller turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In the impulse turbine, all the potential energy or head is converted into
kinetic energy or velocity head by passing the water through a contracting nozzle or
by guide vanes before it strikes the buckets. Some types of impulse turbine are
Pelton wheel, Turgo impulse wheel, and Girard turbine.
2. Which of the following is turbine is used for medium heads ranging from 25 to 150
meters?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Kaplan turbine
c) Francis turbine
d) Propeller turbine
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For high heads over 150 meters, a low-speed turbine like Pelton wheel
is suitable. Francis turbine is used for medium heads varying from 25 to 150 meters
and for low heads, Kaplan and propeller turbines are used.
3. An impulse turbine is essentially a __________________
a) low-speed turbine and is used for high heads
b) low-speed turbine and is used for low heads
c) high-speed turbine and is used for high heads
d) high-speed turbine and is used for low heads
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a low-speed wheel and is relatively used for high heads over 150
meters. It works under high heads so comparatively less quantity of water is
required. Pelton’s turbine is an important example of an impulse type of turbine.
4. Kaplan turbines are found to be more versatile and costly in their initial cost as
compared to propeller turbines.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan turbines have an additional arrangement of adjusting the
inclination of the runner blades or vanes on the hub. This causes the Kaplan turbine
to give higher efficiency even under part-load conditions although both the turbines
look alike and behave hydraulically in a similar fashion.
5. An impulse turbine like a Pelton’s turbine is __________________________
a) an open body exposed to the atmosphere
b) a closed body not exposed to the atmosphere
c) a partially open and partially closed body
d) depends on the design requirements
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The water through a contacting nozzle or by guide vanes is made to
strike on a series of buckets. The wheel revolves free in the air and the water is in
contact with only a part of the wheel at a time and the pressure is atmospheric. A
casing is provided in order to prevent splashing and to guide the water discharged
from the buckets to the tail-race.
6. In a reaction turbine like a Francis turbine or a Kaplan turbine ______________
a) the potential head of water is totally changed into the kinetic head
b) the potential head of water is partially changed into the kinetic head
c) the potential head of water is not at all changed into the kinetic head
d) the change of potential head of water totally or partially depends on other factors
as well
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a reaction turbine, only part of the available potential energy is
converted into velocity head at the entrance to the runner. The balance portion
remains as a pressure head. In Francis turbine, there is an inward radial flow of
water and in Francis turbine, there is a mixed flow of water.
7. In a Francis turbine, the water flows through a closed draft tube.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In Francis turbine, the water enters radially inward but leaves in a
parallel direction to the shaft at the center, it is called mixed flow. In the case of a
reaction turbine like Francis turbine, a draft tube is used to connect the outlets of the
runner to the tailrace.
8. For a hydropower plant having 150 m head of stored water behind the dam. The
water in the reservoir is clear and load on the powerhouse is not likely to fluctuate
much. Which type of turbine will be suitable for the same?
a) Pelton turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Propeller turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Francis turbines are cheaper than Pelton’s turbine and there is no
special need for Pelton’s turbine because variable loads are not likely to come and
water is not sandy which may certainly need Pelton’s turbines. Hence, Francis
turbine will suffice to our needs.
9. For a hydropower plant working on 150 m head, the water is sandy and the load
on the plant is highly variable. Which type of turbine will generally be recommended?
a) Pelton Turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Propeller turbine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For variable loads (part loads) and sandy water, Pelton’s wheel is most
suitable. These are preferred where the available water source has a relatively high
head at low flow rates.
10. If two identical pumps each capable to deliver a discharge Q against a head H
are connected ___________________________
a) in parallel, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
b) in parallel, the resulting discharge is Q against a head of 2H
c) in series, the resulting discharge is 2Q against a head H
d) in series, the resulting discharge is Q against a head 2H
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Water pumps are installed in parallel as in the case of pumping water
from a sump well using more than one pump. The head remains constant and the
combined discharge of the two pumps is equal to the sum of the individual
discharges for a specific head.
11. If the specific speed in revolution per minute of a turbine is in between 60 to 300,
the type of the turbine is ________________
a) Pelton turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Propeller turbine
d) Kaplan turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The specific speed of a Pelton turbine ranges from 10 to 30. Francis
turbine has a specific speed between 60 to 300 and the specific speed of Kaplan and
propeller turbine lies in between 300 to 1000.
12. A draft tube is essentially required for impulse type turbines.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The entire flow from head race to tail race takes place in a closed
system as the water is under pressure. The wheels of the turbine are submerged
and water enters all around the periphery of the wheel. A closed conduit or casing
like the draft tube is absolutely necessary so as to prevent any access of
atmospheric air into the turbine.
13. Pick the correct choice of turbine required to generate 10,000 HP under a head
of 81 m while working at a speed of 500 rpm.
a) Pelton
b) Kaplan
c) Bulb
d) Francis
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The specific speed is given by the equation: Ns = N. Pt1/2 / H5/4
Where, N = the normal speed of turbine = 500 rpm
Pt = Turbine output in metric horsepower = 10,000 hp
H = effective head = 81 m
Ns = 500 x 100 / 815/4 = 205.76 rpm.
The turbine which is suitable for a head between 25 to 150 m and Ns of 60 – 300 is
Francis turbine i.e reaction type turbine.
14. Consider the following statements.

i. Runoff river plants can be located on any river

ii. Runaway speed of a turbine is generally 180% of normal speed

iii. Underground power stations are suited to areas susceptible to landslides

iv. Higher the specific speed, higher will be the discharge and the head

Which of these statements are correct?

a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) i and iv
d) ii and iv
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The specific speed is inversely proportional to the specific head, higher
the specific speed, lesser will be the head. Run-off river plants are suitable only on a
perennial river and are not suitable for the constant steady load.
15. The Pumps in series operation allow the head to increase and the pumps in
parallel operation increase the flow rate.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: When two or more pumps are connected in series, the same discharge
passes through all the stages. Each stage in pumping operation adds an additional
head to the flow. Thus the combined head is equal to the sum of individual heads for
a specific discharge. In parallel, the head remains constant and the combined
discharge is equal to the sum of individual discharges for a specific head.

1. Forebay provides temporary storage before the water goes to the turbine.
Following perform the function of forebay ____________________
a) river
b) tailrace channel
c) reservoir
d) approach channel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The reservoir itself acts as a forebay when it is constructed by building
a dam. The water is taken to the powerhouse directly from the reservoir through
penstocks. Following are some functions of forebay:
• To temporarily store water and to meet the instantaneous demand
• Absorbs the short interval variations and fluctuations.
2. The surge tank serves which of the following purposes?

i. It allows the sediment to settle down

ii. It prevents debris from entering powerhouse

iii. It controls pressure variations in pipelines

iv. It regulates flow in the pipelines

a) i and ii
b) ii and iii
c) iii and iv
d) i, ii and iii
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The cylindrical chamber which is connected to the penstocks and open
to the atmosphere is the simplest one. It serves the following functions i.e. to reduce
the pressure fluctuations in the pipe and helps in eliminating additional water
hammer pressure.
3. Identify the correct statement in regard to hydropower.
a) Hydropower stations are generally labour-oriented
b) The gestation period for hydro-power plant is usually small
c) The hydro generators give high efficiency over a wide range of load
d) In a hydropower scheme, the firm power is usually high as compared to tidal
power
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydroelectric power plants are the most efficient means of producing
energy and the efficiency of today’s hydroelectric plant is about 90%. Large
hydropower plants usually have a gestation period of about 7 years whereas for
smaller plants it is 2 to 5 years.
4. To avoid the possible damage to the wicket gates and turbine runners
_________________ is provided.
a) trash racks
b) surge chamber
c) floating boom
d) racks and trolley arrangement
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Intakes should be provided with trash racks so as to prevent the entry
of debris into the penstocks or to prevent choking up of the nozzles of the impulse
turbines. Trash racks are made up of thin flat steel bars placed 10 to 30 cm apart
and the permissible velocity of water entering these is 0.6 to 1.6 m/s.
5. In case of long penstocks, ___________________ is generally provided so as to
absorb water hammer pressure.
a) trash racks
b) surge chamber
c) floating boom
d) racks and trolley arrangement
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The surge tank is mostly employed in a water power plant or in a large
pumping plant to control the pressure variations resulting from rapid changes in the
flow. It is done by admitting a large mass of water in the surge tank otherwise it
would have flown out of the pipeline and returns to the tank due to closure of pipe
end.
6. Sharp bends must be avoided in penstocks while designing components of the
hydroelectric scheme.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sharp bends cause loss of head and requires special anchorages. It
may be buried under the ground or kept exposed. The penstock can be replaced by
constructing a tunnel through a hill if a considerable saving in length can be gained.
7. The retarding and accelerating heads are developed more promptly in
________________
a) simple surge tank
b) restricted orifice surge chamber
c) differential surge chamber
d) multi surge chamber
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The differential surge chamber has a central riser pipe in addition to the
main outer tank and the retarding and accelerating heads are developed more
promptly. The capacity of a different type of surge chamber may be less than that of
a simple elementary type for a given amount of stabilizing effect.
8. The correct sequence in the direction of the flow of water for installations in a
hydropower plant is _______________________
a) Reservoir, Surge tank, Turbine, Penstock
b) Reservoir, Penstock, Surge tank, Turbine
c) Reservoir, Penstock, Turbine, Surge tank
d) Reservoir, Surge tank, Penstock, Turbine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The main components of a hydropower plant is Forebay, intake
arrangement, Penstock, Surge tank, turbines and generators, powerhouse and
tailrace. The water is taken from a reservoir or forebay and is taken down to the
powerhouse by penstock. A surge tank is fitted at some opening made on a
penstock to receive the rejected flow when the pipe is suddenly closed.

1. What is the minimum depth of water required for safe and economical navigation?
a) 1 m
b) 2 m
c) 2.7 m
d) 4.2 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The availability of sufficient water depth in the waterway is the chief
requirement for navigations and for safe and economical navigation, a minimum
depth of 2.7 m is generally required. Lesser depth in the rivers completely eliminates
the possibility of towing the ships and causes an increase in the unit cost of transport
and a depth of 3.7 m is generally desired in the final development.
2. The transit time required by a barge tow moving upstream in a navigable river
increases if the flow velocity is more.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The flow velocities should be low as high velocity causes a substantial
reduction in the true speed for tows moving upstream. This increases the time of
transit and cost of transport per kilometer. The speed of the barge tows in still water
is almost 2.8 m/sec.
3. The belt conveyor forming an essential part of a ladder dredger used for
excavating river sand deposits is used for _______________________
a) excavation of sand
b) transporting excavated sand to the surface over small distances
c) transporting excavated sand to the surface over large distances
d) transporting excavated sand to the surface over all distances
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Ladder dredger has an endless chain of buckets for bringing the
excavated material up to the surface and the cuttings carried by buckets are
discharged on a belt conveyor. The material is then disposed of through a stacker
conveyor at the rear of the dredger which is limited in length to about 100 m or so.
4. The dredger which excavates sand deposits of a river and discharges the
excavated material with water over long distances is called a _________________
a) ladder dredger
b) suction dredger
c) dipper dredger
d) upper dredger
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Dipper dredgers are used on small projects and are merely floating
power shovels. Ladder dredger is used when the excavated materials are to be
discharged at a considerable distance from the dredge. The disadvantage of the
suction dredge is that it cannot operate in rocky or Shoulder River reaches.
5. Lock and dams constructions for creation of a series of slack-water pools along a
river for promoting its navigability is adopted only when
________________________
a) the river is perennial
b) the river carries heavy sediment load
c) the available water in the river is quite less
d) the available water in the river is quite large
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This arrangement is generally adopted where existing site conditions
are not favorable for adopting open channel methods. The water is required for
lockage, sanitary releases, evaporation, percolation, etc and the requirement is
much less than that of open channel procedures. Hence, it is adopted when the
water available is less.
6. Timber is generally transported in our country through ________________
a) rail routes
b) road routes
c) air routes
d) water routes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Very heavy items like cargo are also packed on wagon trains or trucks
is lifted and transported through water transport. Besides the fact that it is the
cheaper mode of transport, it is also used for recreational boating. The imports and
exports are done by means of water routes.
7. What is the oldest and cheapest mode of transporting cargo?
a) Rail routes
b) Road routes
c) Air routes
d) Water routes
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Water transport is cheaper because the coefficient of friction on the
water is small. On the water, one horsepower can pull 4 tonnes while on road and
rail, it can move approximately 0.15 tonne and 0.5 tonnes respectively.
9. Ships or steamers can pay to carry cargo in Indian waterways extending to about
____________________
a) 500 km
b) 2500 km
c) 10,000 km
d) 40,000 km
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: There is about 15,000 km length of navigable waterways in India and
most of them are in bad conditions due to poor silting and maintenance. Most of it is
fit only for boating and the streamers can ply only for about 2500 km length. For the
total navigable length of about 15,000 km, about 8000 km is on rivers and 7000 km
is on canals and backwaters.
10. The alignment of the waterway should be________________
a) straight
b) circular
c) parabola
d) irregular alignment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A highly irregular alignment increases the circuitry or length in excess pf
airline distance which the barge tow must travel. The existing channels generally
have a length of about 50% greater than the air-line distances. Hence, the alignment
should be as straight as possible.
10. The rivers carrying huge sediment load can be corrected with the help of sal-balli
spurs.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The rivers carrying little sediment load can be corrected by properly
placed impermeable spears or jetties. When the rivers carry heavy sediment load, it
can be corrected by permeable spurs called sal-Balli spurs driven at some suitable
distance center to center in rows across the river currents. This slows down the
current and promotes silting in the dyked area.
11. Which of the following dredger is not suitable for rocky or boulder river reaches?
a) Suction dredger
b) Ladder dredger
c) Dipper dredger
d) Both ladder and dipper dredger
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In suction dredgers, the suction head is provided with jets or rotating
blades so as to cut or loosen the bed material and the suction openings through
which the soil and the water mixture enters into the suction pipe. It cannot operate on
rocky or Boulder River reaches. These dredgers can make cuts of about 10 m width
through sand bars in order to achieve wider cuts.
12. The fuel consumption in water transport decreases as the depth of water
between the bottom of the ship and the bottom of the river increases.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The fuel consumption in water transport also depends on the available
draft. When the clear depth between the barge and the river reduces, an increased
drag force is developed which increases the consumption of fuel. If the clear space is
increased from 0.6 to 1.5 m or so the fuel consumption can be reduced by about
25%.

1. The depth of water stored in an irrigation tank rarely exceeds ______________

a) 4 m
b) 8 m
c) 12 m
d) 16 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Most of the existing tanks possess a maximum depth of 4.5 m, only a
few tanks are as deep as 7.5 to 9 m. Only in the exceptional cases, the depth
exceeds 11 m in depth. The tank is generally referred to as a reservoir when the
depth of the tank exceeds 12 m or so.
2. The storage created on the upstream side of a smaller stream by the construction
of low earthen bunds is technically known as _________________
a) a reservoir
b) a tank
c) a lake
d) a pond
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The storage irrigation scheme utilizes the stored water on the upstream
side of a smaller earth dam i.e. bund. These earthen bund reservoirs are called as
tanks. Such works are very common in South India but this terminology is limited to
India only.
3. The provision of suitable breaching sections becomes more important in irrigation
tanks which are isolated.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A breaching section is a length kept lower and weaker than the
remainder of the bound so as to localize a breach in that length only. A breach
occurring in a tank supplements the surplus power to a reasonable degree to the
greater security both of the tank itself and those below it in the group.
4. The cubic meters of water that can be stored in an irrigation tank between full tank
level and sill level of the lowest supply sluice is known as __________________
a) the gross capacity
b) effective capacity
c) the specific capacity
d) total capacity
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The cubic content of water stored in the tank up to F.T.L is called the
gross capacity of the tank. The cubic content of water stored between F.T.L and the
bottom or sill level of the lowest supply sluice is the effective capacity of the tank.
These capacities can be computed by using the contour plan of the area of the water
spread.
5. If A1 represents the area of a tank bed at bottom and A2 is the area of the tank at
F.T.L, then the storage capacity of the tank of height H is given as
________________________
a) H [A1 + A2 + A1.A2]
b) H/2 [A1 + A2 + A1.A2]
c) H/3 [A1 + A2 + A1.A2]
d) 2H [A1 + A2 + A1.A2]
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The effective cubic content of the tank may be computed as H/3 [A 1 +
A2 + A1.A2] where H is the height or difference in elevations between F.T.L and the
sill level of the lowest sluice. This is based on the assumption that the water stored is
in the shape of a frustum of a cone.
6. The top-level of a tank weir in a tank bund scheme is kept at ________
a) Maximum Water Level (M.W.L)
b) Full Tank Level (F.T.L)
c) Either M.W.L or F.T.L
d) Full Supply Level
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The top-level i.e. crest level of the tank weir is kept at F.T.L. The extra
water is discharged over the surplus escape weir when the tank is full up to F.T.L.
The design of the length or capacity of this surplus escape weir is such that the
water level in the tank never exceeds the M.W.L.
7. The usual arrangement made in a tank-bund scheme to spill the surplus excess
water is known as ________________________
a) tank spillway
b) tank sluice
c) tank weir
d) tank bunds
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: To avoid overtopping of the tank bund in case of all dam reservoir
projects, tanks are provided with arrangements for spilling the excess surplus water.
These arrangements may be in the form of a surplus escape weir provided in the
body or at one end of the tank bund. In the case of earth dam projects, some other
arrangements like a siphon spillway can be provided.
8. If A1 and A2 represent the areas enclosed between two successive contours, then
the cubic content between these contours is roughly taken as _________________
a) (A1 + A2) x h/2
b) A1.A2 x h/2
c) A1 x h/2
d) A2 x h/2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cubic content between two successive contours is computed as
(A1 + A2) x h/2. The required storage capacity of the tank is the summation of all
cubic contents between the successive contours.
9. The most adopted earthen section for tank bunds is of the type
___________________
a) homogeneous embankment type
b) zoned embankment type
c) diaphragm type
d) both diaphragm and zoned type embankment
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Homogeneous embankment has been constructed with the soils
excavated from pits in the immediate vicinity of each bund and carried by the head
load to the bund. Most of the tank bunds of South India belong to this type.
10. What is the approximate value of side slope of the bund for smaller tanks with
water depths not exceeding 2.5 m in favorable soils such as red and white gravel,
red and black loams?
a) 2 H : 1 V
b) 12 H : 1 V
c) 2 12 H : 1V
d) 1 12 H : 1 V
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For smaller tanks with water depths not exceeding 2.5 m in favorable
soils such as red and white gravel, red and black loams, the side slope may be taken
as 12 : 1 and 2 : 1 for larger ones up to 5 m in depth. The slopes may be kept in
between 2 : 1 and 2 12 : 1 in light sandy, black cotton or clayey soils.
1. The usual difference between F.T.L and M.T.L is rarely allowed to exceed
_____________
a) 0.3 m
b) 0.6 m
c) 0.9 m
d) 0.5 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This difference is fixed on a compromise basis in order to obtain the
overall economy and efficiency. It is kept from 0.3 to 0.6 m for small and medium-
sized tanks and is rarely allowed to exceed 0.9 m.
2. Which of the following type of tank weirs are provided with a number of vertical
steps instead of horizontal or sloping downstream apron?
a) Type A: Masonry weir with a vertical drop
b) Type B: Rock-fill weirs with a sloping apron
c) Type C: Masonry weirs with a glacis
d) Type D: Combination of Type A and Type C
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Weirs of Type-D are called as weirs with stepped aprons as they are
provided with a number of vertical steps as in case of a stepped fall instead of
providing a horizontal or sloping downstream apron. Type-A and Type-D weirs are
the most widely adopted.
3. The width of the horizontal floors of type A and D weirs from the foot of the drop
wall to the d/s edge of the floor should never be less than ________________
a) 5 (D + H)
b) 3 (D + H)
c) 2.5 (D + H)
d) 2 (D + H)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The width of the horizontal floor of Type-A and Type-D weirs should not
be less than 2(D + H) and in important works, the width can be increased to 3(D +
H). where D is the height of drop wall and H is the maximum head of water over the
wall. The rough stone apron forming a talus below the last curtain wall generally vary
from 2.5(D+ H) to 5(D + H) depending upon the nature of the soil and the velocity
and annual probable quantity and intensity of run-off.
4. Which among the following is a correct representation of Ryve’s formula?
a) Qp = C1. A2/3
b) Qp = C1. A1/3
c) Qp = C1. L A2/3
d) Qp = C1. A
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All tank weirs generally in South India are designed on the basis of
Ryve’s formula which is given by:
Qp = C1.A2/3 where Qp is the peak flood discharge, C1 is the Ryve’s coefficient, A is
the catchment area
The formula is directly applicable for free catchments in all isolated tanks.
5. The capacity of an irrigation tank is sometimes increased by installing a temporary
stone wall over the top of the tank weir. This fixture is known
as____________________
a) saddle
b) dam stone
c) breast wall
d) divide wall
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A common practice has been resorted to in South India is to fix dam
stones at the crest wall of the weir. The dam stones cause obstruction to the
discharge and if no dam stones or shutters are provided above F.T.L, the flood water
will start spilling over the surplus work immediately after the tank water level exceeds
F.T.L.
6. The discharge through the sluice of a small irrigation tank is usually controlled by
_______________
a) dam stone
b) plug
c) special balanced valves
d) shutters
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Flat shutters working in grooves and regulated by screw spears are
used in the case of large tanks where the quantity of water to be released is great.
Special balanced valves or shutters moving on rollers are generally installed for
heads over 9 m or so. A Dam stone causes obstruction to flow and is used
sometimes to increase the capacity.
7. What will the discharging capacity of a masonry waste weir of 55 m length and 1.5
m width provided in an earthen bund for passing a flood with 1.2 m water depth over
its crest?
a) 120 cumecs
b) 254 cumecs
c) 59.4 cumecs
d) 65.8 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The discharge over the weir without any velocity of approach is given
by –
Q = C.L H3/2 where C = 1.66 when the width of rectangular crest > 0.9 m, L is the
length of the weir and H is the head of water over the weir.
Q = 1.66 x 55 x 1.23/2 = 120 cumecs.
8. Pipe sluices are generally not adopted in tank bunds where the depth below F.T.L
exceeds ____________
a) 1.5 m
b) 1 m
c) 2.5 m
d) 5 m
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pipe sluices are earthenware or cement or cast iron pipes which may
be used in place of masonry culverts in case of very small slices. The earthenware
pipes may get fractured or leakage through their joints may take place resulting in a
breach. The pipes can neither be examined nor repaired easily without cutting open
the bund. They are not adopted when the depth below F.T.L exceeds 2.5 m or so.
9. Calculate peak discharge for a combined catchment of a tank forming a
constituent unit of a group with the following given data –

Combined catchment = 26 sq. km

Intercepted catchment = 20 sq. km
Ryve’s coefficient for combined catchment = 9.0
Ryve’s coefficient intercepted = 1.8
a) 66 cumecs
b) 59 cumecs
c) 50 cumecs
d) 69 cumecs
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Using Ryve’s equation –
Peak flood discharge Qp = C1A2/3 – c1a2/3 where C1 = 9.0, c1 = 1.8, A = 26 sq.km and
a = 20 sq.km
Qp = (9 x 262/3) – (1.8 x 202/3) = 65.9 cumecs.
10. What is the approximate value of Ryve’s coefficient for combined catchment
having limited areas near hills?
a) 6.5
b) 8.5
c) 10.2
d) Up to 40
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For areas within 80 km from the east coast, the value of constant is
taken as 6.5 and for areas within 80 to 160 km from the east coast; the value is
taken as 8.5. In the case of limited areas near hills, the value of the coefficient is
10.2 and the actual observed values are always up to 40.
1. An arch dam looks like a single arch in _________________
a) plan
b) front elevation
c) side elevation
d) both plan and front elevation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A solid wall curved in plan standing across the entire width of the river
valley in a single span is an arch dam. The dam body is usually made of cement
concrete. When multiple or number of arches are used supported between
intermediate piers, the dam is known as buttress dam.
2. A non-vertical arch dam is known as a _______________
a) buttress dam
b) double curvature arch dam
c) shell arch dam
d) both double curvature and shell arch dams
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The economy in dam thickness is further increased by making the dam
body not only curved in the plan but also in section. This non-vertical dam is known
as the double curvature arch dam or shell-arch dam. These dams are designed as
shell structures which are quite complex.
3. Greater is the wall curvature in an arch dam, greater will be the economy in the
dam thickness.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The curved wall will structurally behave as a cantilever retaining wall
standing up from its base and partly the load will be transferred to the two ends of
the arch span. The load on the cantilever wall reduces as it is distributed to the side
walls which in turn reduces the thickness.
4. Which of the following is the most economical type of arch dam?
a) Constant radius type
b) Variable radius type
c) Constant angle type
d) Variable angle type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A special type of variable radius arch dam in which the central angles of
the horizontal arch rings are of the same magnitude at all elevations is called a
constant angle arch dam. Such a dam proves to be economical as the design can be
made by adopting the best central angle of 133°-34′.
5. A constant angle arch dam when compared to constant radius arch dam utilizes
concrete quality of about ______________
a) 43%
b) 130%
c) 230%
d) 113%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The simplest in design as well as construction is a constant radius arch
dam but uses the maximum concrete. An intermediate choice is a variable radius
arch dam using around 58% of the concrete used by constant radius arch dam. A
constant angle arch dam uses about 43% of the concrete used by a constant radius
arch dam.
6. Which among the following type of dam section is expected to be the thinnest and
the most economical?
a) Constant angle arch dam
b) Shell-arch dam
c) Constant radius arch dam
d) Concrete gravity dam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Shell arch dams are much more economical than the constant angle
arch dams as their sections are quite thin. The Idduki dam in India is only 45 m thick
at its base even with 170.7 m height whereas the famous Hoover dam of the USA
which is a constant radius arch dam is 201m thick at its base with only 222 m in
height.
7. The most economical central angle of the arch rings of an arch dam can be
adopted only at one place preferably at mid-height in an arch dam is of the type
__________________
a) constant angle arch dam
b) constant radius arch dam
c) both constant angle and constant radius arch dam
d) variable radius arch dam
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most economical central angle is equal to 1330-34’ and such an
angle can be adopted only at one place in constant radius arch dam since as there is
considerable variation with height due to narrow V-shape of the valley. It is therefore
considered to keep the economical angle of 1330-34’ at about mid-height and the
angle at the top will be more than this value due to topographical conditions.
8. In an arch dam, the extrados curve refer to the arch rings corresponding to the
____________________
a) the upstream face of the dam
b) downstream face of the dam
c) side face of the dam
d) either upstream or downstream face of the dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The arch rings corresponding to the upstream face is called the
extrados curve. The arch rings corresponding to the downstream face are the
intrados curve.
9. A V-shaped valley with stronger foundations can suggest the choice of an arch
dam is of the type ___________________________
a) constant radius arch dam
b) variable radius arch dam
c) constant angle arch dam
d) variable angle arch dam
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The variable center arch dam is also preferred for V-shaped valleys as
compared to constant radius arch dams. The constant radius arch dam may be
preferred for comparatively wider U-shaped valleys.
10. A constant radius arch dam is also sometimes called as _______________
a) constant centre arch dam
b) constant angle arch dam
c) variable angle arch dam
d) variable centre arch dam
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a constant radius arch dam, the centres of extrados, intrados as well
as the centrelines of the horizontal arch rings lie on a straight vertical line at various
elevations that passes through the centre of the horizontal arch ring at the crest. The
centre of the arch rings is not at one point but lies along on vertical line at different
heights where in variable centre arch dam the centres do not lie on the same vertical
line.
11. The type of arch dam which generally requires overhangs at abutments is of
________________________
a) constant radius type
b) variable radius type
c) constant angle type
d) variable angle type
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The design of a constant angle dam usually involves providing
overhangs at abutments which requires stronger foundations. Hence, they are not
used if the foundations are weak. Such a dam proves to be most economical out of
all other dams.

1. Which of the following forces is the least important in the design of arch dams?
a) Reservoir water force
b) Uplift pressure
c) Temperature stresses
d) Ice load
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The uplift pressure in an arch dam is generally neglected because it is
small due to the narrow base width of its body. Ice load, Temperature stresses and
yield stresses are quite important in such dams and are thoroughly examined.
2. Which of the following theory is the most accurate method to design arch?
a) The thin cylinder theory
b) The theory of elastic arches
c) The trial load method
d) Creep theory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Thin cylinder theory can only be relied upon for rough estimation of
dimensions of the arches. The Elastic theory does not take into account the
thickness of arch rings and the restrictions at the abutments. The Trial load method
removes the above objections and leads to an accurate estimation of the stresses in
arches.
3. Which among the following is not an assumption of the ‘Trial Load Analysis’
method of design of arch dams?
a) Plane sections normal to the axis remain plane after flexure
b) Any horizontal arch ring is independent of the arch rings below and above
c) Modulus of elasticity of concrete and rock foundation is equal for compression and
tension
d) Stresses are proportional to strains
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In Trial load method, the dam is divided into two systems of elements
i.e. the horizontal arches and the vertical cantilevers. Each element is supposed to
take a percentage of the load due to silt and water pressure. The actual distribution
of the load between these elements is then arrived at by several trials.
4. The thin cylinder theory for designing arch dams is based only on
___________________
a) temperature stresses
b) ice pressures
c) yield stresses
d) hydrostatic water pressure
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In thin cylinder theory analysis, the design is based only on hydrostatic
water pressure. The theory does not take into account the shear and bending
stresses in the arch, temperature stresses, and ice pressures which are quite
important in arch dams.
5. The temperature stresses producing worst effects in the design of arch dams are
caused by ______________
a) rise in temperature
b) fall in temperature
c) both rise and fall
d) no effect in the design
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The dam moves upstream during the summer and downstream during
the winter due to the internal stresses caused by the temperature changes. In stress
analysis, the low temperature becomes quite important since these stresses act
additive to the reservoir water pressure.
6. The stresses due to rib-shortening become quite important in the case of
_____________
a) long thin arch dams
b) thick arch dams of small angle
c) both thin and thick arch dams
d) all types of arch dams
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In the case of an arch dam, the ends being fixed the distance between
them does not change and this restriction of the change in the span causes
additional stresses known as rib-shortening stresses. These stresses are small in a
long thin arch but in the case of a thick arch of small-angle, they are appreciable.
7. Which of the following is not the basis for the design of an arch dam?
a) Thin cylinder theory
b) Trial load theory
c) Unit column theory
d) Elastic theory
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Arch dams are designed on the basis of any one of the following three
methods–
• Thin cylinder theory
• Theory of Elastic arches
• Trial load method
Out of these methods, the trial load method is generally adopted nowadays and it
gives precise results.
8. According to thin cylinder theory, the volume of concrete required for an arch dam
would be minimum if the central angle is ____________
a) 130° 34’
b) 133° 34’
c) 143° 34’
d) 153° 34’
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The most economical central angle is equal to 133°-34’ and such an
angle can be adopted only at one place in constant radius arch dam as there is
considerable variation with height due to narrow V-shape of the valley. It is therefore
considered to keep the economical angle of 133°-34’ at about mid-height for a
minimum value of concrete.
9. The best design of an arch dam is when __________________
a) all horizontal water loads are transferred horizontally to the abutments
b) the dam is safe against sliding at various levels
c) the load is divided between the arches and cantilevers and the deflections at the
conjugal points being equal
d) the deflections of the cantilevers are equal at different points
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the trial load method, deflections for the arches are calculated at the
points where the cantilevers cross it in each trial. If the deflection calculated at these
points from cantilever elements is within reasonable limits and same, then the
assumed distribution of load is correct. If not, then the calculations are repeated
using a different set of load distribution until the condition is satisfied.
10. At a given elevation, the thickness of the arch ring is proportional to the radius of
the arch.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The thickness of the arch ring (t) under limits is given by –
t = ϒw . h. r / fc where r is the radius of the arch, h is depth, f c is the allowable
compressive stress for the arch material and ϒw is the unit weight of water.
It is clear from the above equation that the thickness of the arch is proportional to the
radius of the arch at a given elevation.