Os MCQ

DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45
Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)
Unit 1 Introduction to OS
1. What is operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) link to interface the hardware and application programs
d) all of the mentioned
2. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the ___________
a) System calls
b) API
c) Library
d) Assembly instructions
3. Which one of the following is not true?
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
b) kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting
c) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system
d) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
4. Which one of the following error will be handle by the operating system?
a) power failure
b) lack of paper in printer
c) connection failure in the network
5. What is the main function of the command interpreter?
a) to get and execute the next user-specified command
b) to provide the interface between the API and application program
c) to handle the files in operating system
d) none of the mentioned
6. By operating system, the resource management can be done via __________
a) time division multiplexing
b) space division multiplexing
c) time and space division multiplexing
7. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a ______
a) log file
b) another running process
c) new file
Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Unit 2 : System Structure

8. Which facility dynamically adds probes to a running system, both in user processes and in the kernel?
a) DTrace
b) DLocate
c) DMap
d) DAdd
9. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
a) VxWorks
b) Windows CE
c) RTLinux
d) Palm OS
10. The OS X has ____________
a) monolithic kernel
b) hybrid kernel
c) microkernel
d) monolithic kernel with modules
11. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called __________
a) uniprogramming systems
b) uniprocessing systems
c) unitasking systems
12. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called __________
13. In operating system, each process has its own __________
a) address space and global variables
b) open files
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
14. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?
a) fork
b) create
c) new

Unit 3 : Process Management

15. A process can be terminated due to __________
a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
16. What is the ready state of a process?
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
17. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
18. A set of processes is deadlock if __________
a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
19. A process stack does not contain __________
a) Function parameters
b) Local variables
c) Return addresses
d) PID of child process
20. Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated child?
a) wait
b) exit
c) fork
d) get
21. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the __________
a) CPU registers
b) Program counter
c) Process stack
d) Pipe

22. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following?
a) Code
b) Stack
c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
23. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
24. The state of a process is defined by __________
a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
25. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running
26. What is a Process Control Block?
a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) A secondary storage section
d) A Block in memory
27. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in __________
a) Process Register
b) Program Counter
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit
28. What is the degree of multiprogramming?
a) the number of processes executed per unit time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) the number of processes in memory
29. A single thread of control allows the process to perform __________
a) only one task at a time
b) multiple tasks at a time

c) only two tasks at a time

Unit : Process Synchronization
30. What is the objective of multiprogramming?

a) Have some process running at all times
b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
c) To minimize CPU utilization
d) None of the mentioned
31. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes?
a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
32. When the process issues an I/O request __________
a) It is placed in an I/O queue
b) It is placed in a waiting queue
c) It is placed in the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue
33. What will happen when a process terminates?
a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated
34. What is a long-term scheduler?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
35. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______ and the Short term Scheduler
will have a ______ to do.
a) full, little
b) full, lot
c) empty, little
d) empty, lot

36. What is a medium-term scheduler?

37. What is a short-term scheduler?
38. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is __________
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
39. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is __________
a) block
b) wakeup
c) dispatch
40. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the process goes
from the running state to the __________
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
41. In a multiprogramming environment __________
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time
42. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is completed,
it goes to the __________
a) Running state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state

43. The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain __________
a) the value of the CPU registers
b) the process state
c) memory-management information
d) context switch time
44. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between processes?
a) General purpose registers
b) Translation lookaside buffer
c) Program counter
d) All of the mentioned
45. Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?
a) A device
b) Timer
c) Scheduler process
d) Power failure
46. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?
a) cooperating process
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process
47. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on
the particular order in which the access takes place, is called?
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition
48. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in their critical
section. This condition is called?
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
49. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) thread
b) pipe
c) semaphore
d) socket

50. A semaphore is a shared integer variable __________

a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one
d) that can not be more than one
51. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the __________

a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores
52. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively inverting the relative
priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called __________
a) priority inversion
b) priority removal
c) priority exchange
d) priority modification
53. Process synchronization can be done on __________

a) hardware level
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level
54. A monitor is a module that encapsulates __________

a) shared data structures
b) procedures that operate on shared data structure
c) synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
55. To enable a process to wait within the monitor __________

a) a condition variable must be declared as condition
b) condition variables must be used as boolean objects
c) semaphore must be used
56. Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent’s resources prevents any process from __________
a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary storage
b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization
c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources

57. A parent process calling _____ system call will be suspended until children processes terminate.
a) wait
b) fork
c) exit
d) exec
58. Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes before the parent terminates ______
a) Normally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally
59. With _____________ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are waiting for
the processor. With ______________ more than one process can be running simultaneously each on a
different processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing
60. In UNIX, each process is identified by its __________

a) Process Control Block
b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier
61. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is _____ for the child process and _____ for the parent
process.
a) A Negative integer, Zero
b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer
d) A nonzero integer, Zero
62. The child process can __________

a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it
63. The child process completes execution, but the parent keeps executing, then the child process is known as
__________
a) Orphan
b) Zombie

c) Body
d) Dead
64. What is Inter process communication?

a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same address space
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the same address space
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
65. Message passing system allows processes to __________

a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
66. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message
67. Messages sent by a process __________

a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
68. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called __________
a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
69. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?

a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max. number of processes
supported by system)
b) A communication link can be associated with exactly two processes
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of processes supported by
system)
d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes
70. In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________

a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q

b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication

c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q
71. In the non blocking send __________

a) the sending process keeps sending until the message is received
b) the sending process sends the message and resumes operation
c) the sending process keeps sending until it receives a message
72. In the Zero capacity queue __________

a) the queue can store at least one message
b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message
c) the sender keeps sending and the messages don’t wait in the queue
73. The Zero Capacity queue __________

a) is referred to as a message system with buffering
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
c) is referred to as a link
74. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as __________
a) Programmed buffering
b) Automatic buffering
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering
75. Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________

a) for communication between two processes remotely different from each other on the same system
b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) for communication between two processes on separate systems
76. To differentiate the many network services a system supports ______ are used.
a) Variables
b) Sockets
c) Ports
d) Service names
77. RPC provides a(an) _____ on the client side, a separate one for each remote procedure.
a) stub
b) identifier

c) name
d) process identifier
78. What is stub?

a) transmits the message to the server where the server side stub receives the message and invokes
procedure on the server side
b) packs the parameters into a form transmittable over the network
c) locates the port on the server
79. To resolve the problem of data representation on different systems RPCs define _____________
a) machine dependent representation of data
b) machine representation of data
c) machine-independent representation of data
80. What is the full form of RMI?

a) Remote Memory Installation
b) Remote Memory Invocation
c) Remote Method Installation
d) Remote Method Invocation
81. The remote method invocation __________

a) allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object
b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
c) allows a thread to invoke memory on a remote object
d) allows a process to invoke a method on a remote object
82. A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can communicate
with other processes using message based communication, is called ________
a) Local Procedure Call
b) Inter Process Communication
c) Remote Procedure Call
d) Remote Machine Invocation
83. The initial program that is run when the computer is powered up is called __________
a) boot program
b) bootloader
c) initializer
d) bootstrap program
84. How does the software trigger an interrupt?

a) Sending signals to CPU through bus

b) Executing a special operation called system call

c) Executing a special program called system program
d) Executing a special program called interrupt trigger program
Unit : CPU Scheduling
85. What is a trap/exception?

a) hardware generated interrupt caused by an error
b) software generated interrupt caused by an error
c) user generated interrupt caused by an error
86. What is an ISR?

a) Information Service Request
b) Interrupt Service Request
c) Interrupt Service Routine
d) Information Service Routine
87. What is an interrupt vector?

a) It is an address that is indexed to an interrupt handler
b) It is a unique device number that is indexed by an address
c) It is a unique identity given to an interrupt
88. DMA is used for __________

a) High speed devices(disks and communications network)
b) Low speed devices
c) Utilizing CPU cycles
89. In a memory mapped input/output __________

a) the CPU uses polling to watch the control bit constantly, looping to see if a device is ready
b) the CPU writes one data byte to the data register and sets a bit in control register to show that a byte is
available
c) the CPU receives an interrupt when the device is ready for the next byte
d) the CPU runs a user written code and does accordingly
90. In a programmed input/output(PIO) __________

available

91. In an interrupt driven input/output __________

available
92. In the layered approach of Operating Systems __________

a) Bottom Layer(0) is the User interface
b) Highest Layer(N) is the User interface
c) Bottom Layer(N) is the hardware
d) Highest Layer(N) is the hardware
93. How does the Hardware trigger an interrupt?

a) Sending signals to CPU through a system bus
b) Executing a special program called interrupt program
d) Executing a special operation called system call
94. Which operation is performed by an interrupt handler?

a) Saving the current state of the system
b) Loading the interrupt handling code and executing it
c) Once done handling, bringing back the system to the original state it was before the interrupt occurred
95. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short-term scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
96. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on a list
called _____________
a) job queue
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue
97. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as
____________
a) waiting time

b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput
98. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
99. In priority scheduling algorithm ____________

a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
100. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is compared with
the priority of ____________
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process
101. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
102. Process are classified into different groups in ____________

103. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm ____________

a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
104. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread

c) process
105. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________

a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) larger memory sized systems
106. With multiprogramming ______ is used productively.

a) time
b) space
c) money
107. What are the two steps of a process execution?

a) I/O & OS Burst
b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) OS & Memory Burst
108. An I/O bound program will typically have ____________

a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts
109. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ________ scheduler, to be executed.
a) blocked, short term
b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term
d) ready, long term
110. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?

a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
111. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is called ____________
a) process switch
b) task switch
c) context switch

112. What is Dispatch latency?

a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping the CPU idle
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one
113. Scheduling is done so as to ____________

a) increase CPU utilization
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle

a) increase the throughput
b) decrease the throughput
c) increase the duration of a specific amount of work
115. What is Turnaround time?

a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
b) the total time spent in the ready queue
c) the total time spent in the running queue
d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process

a) increase the turnaround time
b) decrease the turnaround time
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
117. What is Waiting time?

a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues

a) increase the waiting time
b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time

119. What is Response time?

a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
120. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of ____________

a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned
121. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system ____________
a) using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
b) using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
c) using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm
122. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is concerned with
____________
a) assigning ready processes to CPU
b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c) assigning running processes to blocked queue
123. Complex scheduling algorithms ____________

a) are very appropriate for very large computers
b) use minimal resources
c) use many resources
124. What is FIFO algorithm?

a) first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b) first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c) first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
125. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is called
____________
a) Non preemptive scheduling
c) Shortest job first

d) First come First served
126. What is Scheduling?

a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
c) all of the mentioned
127. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an input event in
the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method. Which out of
the following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the processes have a short
runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?
a) tQ = 15ms
b) tQ = 40ms
c) tQ = 45ms
d) tQ = 50ms
128. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule sequences the jobs.
a) earliest due date
b) slack time remaining
c) first come, first served
d) critical ratio
129. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?
a) First come First served
b) Shortest Job First
c) Earliest Deadline First
d) Longest Job First
130. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually ________ and that for long jobs is
slightly ___________
a) Lengthened; Shortened
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged
131. Which of the following statements are true? (GATE 2010)

I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a) I only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III

132. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First
c) RR – Round Robin
133. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is ____________
a) it is too good an algorithm
b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) it is too complex to understand
134. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________

a) time sharing systems
b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems
135. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in milliseconds.
Process Burst time

P1 6
P2 8
P3 7
P4 3
Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm.
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms
136. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is sometimes called ____________

a) Fast SJF scheduling
b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response Ratio Next
d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining Time Next
137. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is ____________
a) the predicted next CPU burst
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c) the current CPU burst
d) anything the user wants

138. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?

a) it schedules in a very complex manner
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time
c) it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU
139. What is ‘Aging’?

a) keeping track of cache contents
b) keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
c) keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
140. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low – priority processes is ____________
a) Starvation
b) Wait queue
c) Ready queue
d) Aging
i) Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
ii) Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
iii) Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a) i only
b) i and iii only
c) ii and iii only
d) i, ii and iii
142. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority
143. Concurrent access to shared data may result in ____________

a) data consistency
b) data insecurity
c) data inconsistency

144. A situation where several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the outcome of
the execution depends on the particular order in which access takes place is called ____________
a) data consistency
b) race condition
c) aging
d) starvation
145. The segment of code in which the process may change common variables, update tables, write into files is
known as ____________
a) program
b) critical section
c) non – critical section
d) synchronizing
146. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to solve the critical section problem?
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Progress
c) Bounded Waiting
147. Mutual exclusion implies that ____________

a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be executing in their critical
sections
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be executing in their critical
sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system must be blocked until
it finishes execution
148. Bounded waiting implies that there exists a bound on the number of times a process is allowed to enter its
critical section ____________
a) after a process has made a request to enter its critical section and before the request is granted
b) when another process is in its critical section
c) before a process has made a request to enter its critical section
149. A minimum of _____ variable(s) is/are required to be shared between processes to solve the critical
section problem.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four

Unit : IO System
150. In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical section problem ____________
a) each process is put into a queue and picked up in an ordered manner
b) each process receives a number (may or may not be unique) and the one with the lowest number is
served next
c) each process gets a unique number and the one with the highest number is served next
d) each process gets a unique number and the one with the lowest number is served next
151. An un-interruptible unit is known as ____________

a) single
b) atomic
c) static
152. TestAndSet instruction is executed ____________

a) after a particular process
b) periodically
c) atomically
153. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical section problem.

a) hardware for a system
b) special program for a system
c) integer variable
154. What are the two atomic operations permissible on semaphores?

a) wait
b) stop
c) hold
155. What are Spinlocks?

a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs
b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
156. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?

a) they are not sufficient for many process
b) they require busy waiting

c) they are unreliable sometimes

d) they are too complex for programmers
157. The wait operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) stop()
b) block()
c) hold()
d) wait()
158. The signal operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) continue()
b) wakeup()
c) getup()
d) start()
159. If the semaphore value is negative ____________

a) its magnitude is the number of processes waiting on that semaphore
b) it is invalid
c) no operation can be further performed on it until the signal operation is performed on it
160. The code that changes the value of the semaphore is ____________
a) remainder section code
b) non – critical section code
c) critical section code
161. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex is locked more than once?
a) Starvation
b) Deadlock
c) Aging
d) Signaling
162. What is a semaphore?

a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
163. What are the two kinds of semaphores?

a) mutex & counting
b) binary & counting
c) counting & decimal

d) decimal & binary
164. What is a mutex?

165. At a particular time of computation the value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 P operations and 15 V
operations were completed on this semaphore. The resulting value of the semaphore is? (GATE 1987)
a) 42
b) 2
c) 7
d) 12
166. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer values ____________

a) 1
b) -1
c) 0.8
d) 0.5
167. Semaphores are mostly used to implement ____________

a) System calls
b) IPC mechanisms
c) System protection
168. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only.

a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Bounded Waiting
c) Aging
d) Progress
169. The bounded buffer problem is also known as ____________

a) Readers – Writers problem
b) Dining – Philosophers problem
c) Producer – Consumer problem
170. In the bounded buffer problem, there are the empty and full semaphores that ____________
a) count the number of empty and full buffers
b) count the number of empty and full memory spaces

c) count the number of empty and full queues

Unit : Memory Management

171. In the bounded buffer problem ____________
a) there is only one buffer
b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite)
c) there are infinite buffers
d) the buffer size is bounded
172. To ensure difficulties do not arise in the readers – writers problem _______ are given exclusive access to
the shared object.
a) readers
b) writers
c) readers and writers
173. The dining – philosophers problem will occur in case of ____________

a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
174. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosophers problem ____________

a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation
b) does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of starvation
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem further
175. A monitor is a type of ____________

a) semaphore
b) low level synchronization construct
c) high level synchronization construct
176. A monitor is characterized by ____________

a) a set of programmer defined operators
b) an identifier
c) the number of variables in it

Unit : File System

177. A procedure defined within a ________ can access only those variables declared locally within the
_______ and its formal parameters.
a) process, semaphore
b) process, monitor
c) semaphore, semaphore
d) monitor, monitor
178. The monitor construct ensures that ____________

a) only one process can be active at a time within the monitor
b) n number of processes can be active at a time within the monitor (n being greater than 1)
c) the queue has only one process in it at a time
179. What are the operations that can be invoked on a condition variable?
a) wait & signal
b) hold & wait
c) signal & hold
d) continue & signal
180. Which is the process of invoking the wait operation?

a) suspended until another process invokes the signal operation
b) waiting for another process to complete before it can itself call the signal operation
c) stopped until the next process in the queue finishes execution
181. If no process is suspended, the signal operation ____________

a) puts the system into a deadlock state
b) suspends some default process execution
c) nothing happens
d) the output is unpredictable
182. A collection of instructions that performs a single logical function is called ____________
a) transaction
b) operation
c) function
183. A terminated transaction that has completed its execution successfully is ____________ otherwise it is
__________
a) committed, destroyed
b) aborted, destroyed

c) committed, aborted
184. The state of the data accessed by an aborted transaction must be restored to what it was just before the
transaction started executing. This restoration is known as ________ of transaction.
a) safety
b) protection
c) roll – back
d) revert – back
185. Write ahead logging is a way ____________

a) to ensure atomicity
b) to keep data consistent
c) that records data on stable storage
186. In the write ahead logging a _____________ is maintained.

a) a memory
b) a system
c) a disk
d) a log record
187. An actual update is not allowed to a data item ____________

a) before the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage
b) after the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage
c) until the whole log record has been checked for inconsistencies
188. The undo and redo operations must be _________ to guarantee correct behaviour, even if a failure occurs
during recovery process.
a) idempotent
b) easy
c) protected
189. The system periodically performs checkpoints that consists of the following operation(s) ____________
a) Putting all the log records currently in main memory onto stable storage
b) putting all modified data residing in main memory onto stable storage
c) putting a log record onto stable storage
190. Consider a transaction T1 that committed prior to checkpoint. The <T1 commits> record appears in the
log before the <checkpoint> record. Any modifications made by T1 must have been written to the stable
storage either with the checkpoint or prior to it. Thus at recovery time ____________

a) There is a need to perform an undo operation on T1

b) There is a need to perform a redo operation on T1
c) There is no need to perform an undo and redo operation on T1
191. Serializable schedules are ones where ____________

a) concurrent execution of transactions is equivalent to the transactions executed serially
b) the transactions can be carried out one after the other
c) a valid result occurs after execution transactions
192. A locking protocol is one that ____________

a) governs how locks are acquired
b) governs how locks are released
c) governs how locks are acquired and released
193. The two phase locking protocol consists of ____________

a) growing & shrinking phase
b) shrinking & creation phase
c) creation & growing phase
d) destruction & creation phase
194. The growing phase is a phase in which?

a) A transaction may obtain locks, but does not release any
b) A transaction may obtain locks, and releases a few or all of them
c) A transaction may release locks, but does not obtain any new locks
d) A transaction may release locks, and does obtain new locks
195. The shrinking phase is a phase in which?


Unit : Dead Lock

196. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both conflict serializability and freedom
from deadlock?
I) 2-phase locking
II) Timestamp ordering
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
197. What is a reusable resource?

a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
198. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?

a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
199. A system is in the safe state if ____________

a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
200. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________

a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
b) using thread
c) using pipes
201. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?

a) banker’s algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn’s algorithm
202. 6. What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?

a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need

b) the number of processes changes as time progresses

c) resource once available can disappear
203. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?

a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
204. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied necessary resources is called
____________
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging
205. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the deadlock occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
206. To avoid deadlock ____________

a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
b) resource allocation must be done only once
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) inversion technique can be used
Answers :
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d a c d a c a a d C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b b d a d a b a d A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b c b d b b c d a A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b a a a c c b c a B

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
c b d b c a b a c A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
c a c d a c a a d C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
c a b b a d c a b C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
b b b b c c a d c D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
b c d b b c a a b A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
c b a d a b b a a B
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 100
b d a b b a b c c B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
d c a a d b b c b B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
a a a b b a a c b B
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
d b b b a d a c d D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
d b c b d d a a b B
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
b c c a d b b b a C
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
d c b b b a b b c A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
b b a b c a d a a A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
c a c c d d a a d C
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
a c a a c b a d a A
201 202 203 204 205 206
a d c b a a

SMBST ARTS ,SCIENCE AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, SANGAMNER
Subject : Operating System Concept Class : S.Y.B.C.A/S.Y.BBA(CA)
Unit 1
Introduction to OS
1. What is operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) link to interface the hardware and application programs
2. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the
a) System calls
b) API
c) Library
d) Assembly instructions
3. Which one of the following is not true?
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
b) kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting
c) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system
d) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
4. Which one of the following error will be handle by the operating system?
a) power failure
b) lack of paper in printer
c) connection failure in the network
5. What is the main function of the command interpreter?
a) to get and execute the next user-specified command
b) to provide the interface between the API and application program
c) to handle the files in operating system
6. By operating system, the resource management can be done via
a) time division multiplexing
b) space division multiplexing
c) time and space division multiplexing
7. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a
a) log file
b) another running process
c) new file
Prof. Dhage H.Y. 9552323706 Page 1

Unit 2 : System Structure
8. Which facility dynamically adds probes to a running system, both in user processes and in the kernel?
a) DTrace
b) DLocate
c) DMap
d) DAdd
9. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
a) VxWorks
b) Windows CE
c) RTLinux
d) Palm OS
10. The OS X has
a) monolithic kernel
b) hybrid kernel
c) microkernel
d) monolithic kernel with modules
11. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called
12. The systems which allow only one process execution at a time, are called
13. In operating system, each process has its own
a) address space and global variables
b) open files
c) pending alarms, signals and signal handlers
14. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?
a) fork
b) create
c) new
Unit 3 : Process Management

15. A process can be terminated due to

a) normal exit
b) fatal error
c) killed by another process
16. What is the ready state of a process?
a) when process is scheduled to run after some execution
b) when process is unable to run until some task has been completed
c) when process is using the CPU
17. What is interprocess communication?
a) communication within the process
b) communication between two process
c) communication between two threads of same process
18. A set of processes is deadlock if
a) each process is blocked and will remain so forever
b) each process is terminated
c) all processes are trying to kill each other
19. A process stack does not contain
a) Function parameters
b) Local variables
c) Return addresses
d) PID of child process
20. Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated child?
a) wait
b) exit
c) fork
d) get
21. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the
a) CPU registers
b) Program counter
c) Process stack
d) Pipe
22. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following?
a) Code
b) Stack

c) Bootstrap program
d) Data
23. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity
24. The state of a process is defined by
a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process
25. Which of the following is not the state of a process?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running
26. What is a Process Control Block?
a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) A secondary storage section
d) A Block in memory
27. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in
a) Process Register
b) Program Counter
c) Process Table
d) Process Unit
28. What is the degree of multiprogramming?
a) the number of processes executed per unit time
b) the number of processes in the ready queue
c) the number of processes in the I/O queue
d) the number of processes in memory
29. A single thread of control allows the process to perform
a) only one task at a time
b) multiple tasks at a time
c) only two tasks at a time

Unit : Process Synchronization

30. What is the objective of multiprogramming?

a) Have some process running at all times
b) Have multiple programs waiting in a queue ready to run
c) To minimize CPU utilization
31. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes?
a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
32. When the process issues an I/O request
a) It is placed in an I/O queue
b) It is placed in a waiting queue
c) It is placed in the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue
33. What will happen when a process terminates?
a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated
34. What is a long-term scheduler?
35. If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be and the Short term Scheduler
will have a to do.
a) full, little
b) full, lot
c) empty, little
d) empty, lot

36. What is a medium-term scheduler?
37. What is a short-term scheduler?
38. The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is
a) The length of their queues
b) The type of processes they schedule
c) The frequency of their execution
39. The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is
a) block
b) wakeup
c) dispatch
40. In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the process goes
from the running state to the
a) Blocked state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
41. In a multiprogramming environment
a) the processor executes more than one process at a time
b) the programs are developed by more than one person
c) more than one process resides in the memory
d) a single user can execute many programs at the same time
42. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is completed,
it goes to the
a) Running state
b) Ready state
c) Suspended state
d) Terminated state
43. The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain
a) the value of the CPU registers
b) the process state
c) memory-management information
d) context switch time
44. Which of the following need not necessarily be saved on a context switch between processes?
a) General purpose registers
b) Translation lookaside buffer
c) Program counter
45. Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?
a) A device
b) Timer
c) Scheduler process
d) Power failure
46. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?
a) cooperating process
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process
47. When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on
the particular order in which the access takes place, is called?
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition
48. If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in their critical
section. This condition is called?
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
49. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) thread
b) pipe

c) semaphore
d) socket
50. A semaphore is a shared integer variable

a) that can not drop below zero
b) that can not be more than zero
c) that can not drop below one
d) that can not be more than one
51. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the

a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores
52. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively inverting the rela tive
priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called
a) priority inversion
b) priority removal
c) priority exchange
d) priority modification
53. Process synchronization can be done on

a) hardware level
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level
54. A monitor is a module that encapsulates

a) shared data structures
b) procedures that operate on shared data structure
c) synchronization between concurrent procedure invocation
55. To enable a process to wait within the monitor

a) a condition variable must be declared as condition
b) condition variables must be used as boolean objects
c) semaphore must be used
56. Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent‟s resources prevents any process from
a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary storage
b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization
c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources
57. A parent process calling system call will be suspended until children processes terminate.
a) wait
b) fork
c) exit
d) exec
58. Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes before the parent terminates
a) Normally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally
59. With only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are waiting for
the processor. With more than one process can be running simultaneously each on a
different processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing
60. In UNIX, each process is identified by its

a) Process Control Block
b) Device Queue
c) Process Identifier
61. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is for the child process and for the parent
process.
a) A Negative integer, Zero
b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer
d) A nonzero integer, Zero
62. The child process can

a) be a duplicate of the parent process
b) never be a duplicate of the parent process
c) cannot have another program loaded into it
d) never have another program loaded into it
63. The child process completes execution, but the parent keeps executing, then the child process is known as
a) Orphan
b) Zombie

c) Body
d) Dead
64. What is Inter process communication?

a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same address space
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the same address space
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
65. Message passing system allows processes to

a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
66. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message
67. Messages sent by a process

a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized
68. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called
a) communication link
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
69. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?

a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max. number of processes
supported by system)
b) A communication link can be associated with exactly two processes
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of processes supported by
system)
d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes
70. In indirect communication between processes P and Q

a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q
b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication

c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q
71. In the non blocking send

a) the sending process keeps sending until the message is received
b) the sending process sends the message and resumes operation
c) the sending process keeps sending until it receives a message
72. In the Zero capacity queue

a) the queue can store at least one message
b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message
c) the sender keeps sending and the messages don‟t wait in the queue
73. The Zero Capacity queue

a) is referred to as a message system with buffering
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering
c) is referred to as a link
74. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as

a) Programmed buffering
b) Automatic buffering
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering
75. Remote Procedure Calls are used

a) for communication between two processes remotely different from each other on the same system
b) for communication between two processes on the same system
c) for communication between two processes on separate systems
76. To differentiate the many network services a system supports are used.
a) Variables
b) Sockets
c) Ports
d) Service names
77. RPC provides a(an) on the client side, a separate one for each remote procedure.
a) stub
b) identifier
c) name
d) process identifier
78. What is stub?

a) transmits the message to the server where the server side stub receives the message and invokes
procedure on the server side
b) packs the parameters into a form transmittable over the network
c) locates the port on the server
79. To resolve the problem of data representation on different systems RPCs define
a) machine dependent representation of data
b) machine representation of data
c) machine-independent representation of data
80. What is the full form of RMI?

a) Remote Memory Installation
b) Remote Memory Invocation
c) Remote Method Installation
d) Remote Method Invocation
81. The remote method invocation

a) allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object
b) allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
c) allows a thread to invoke memory on a remote object
d) allows a process to invoke a method on a remote object
82. A process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can communicate
with other processes using message based communication, is called
a) Local Procedure Call
b) Inter Process Communication
c) Remote Procedure Call
d) Remote Machine Invocation
83. The initial program that is run when the computer is powered up is called
a) boot program
b) bootloader
c) initializer

d) bootstrap program
84. How does the software trigger an interrupt?

a) Sending signals to CPU through bus
b) Executing a special operation called system call
d) Executing a special program called interrupt trigger program
Unit : CPU Scheduling

85. What is a trap/exception?
a) hardware generated interrupt caused by an error
b) software generated interrupt caused by an error
c) user generated interrupt caused by an error
86. What is an ISR?

a) Information Service Request
b) Interrupt Service Request
c) Interrupt Service Routine
d) Information Service Routine
87. What is an interrupt vector?

a) It is an address that is indexed to an interrupt handler
b) It is a unique device number that is indexed by an address
c) It is a unique identity given to an interrupt
88. DMA is used for

a) High speed devices(disks and communications network)
b) Low speed devices
c) Utilizing CPU cycles
89. In a memory mapped input/output

available
90. In a programmed input/output(PIO)

available
91. In an interrupt driven input/output

available
92. In the layered approach of Operating Systems

a) Bottom Layer(0) is the User interface
b) Highest Layer(N) is the User interface
c) Bottom Layer(N) is the hardware
d) Highest Layer(N) is the hardware
93. How does the Hardware trigger an interrupt?

a) Sending signals to CPU through a system bus
b) Executing a special program called interrupt program
d) Executing a special operation called system call
94. Which operation is performed by an interrupt handler?

a) Saving the current state of the system
b) Loading the interrupt handling code and executing it
c) Once done handling, bringing back the system to the original state it was befo re the interrupt occurred
95. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the short -term scheduler?
a) dispatcher
b) interrupt
c) scheduler
96. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on a list
called
a) job queue
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue
97. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as
a) waiting time

b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput
98. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
99. In priority scheduling algorithm

a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) Equal priority processes can not be scheduled
100. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready queue, its priority is compared with
the priority of
a) all process
b) currently running process
c) parent process
d) init process
101. Which algorithm is defined in Time quantum?

102. Process are classified into different groups in

103. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm

a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
b) classification of ready queue is permanent
c) processes are not classified into groups
104. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
a) kernel level thread
b) user level thread
c) process
105. CPU scheduling is the basis of _

a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) larger memory sized systems
106. With multiprogramming is used productively.

a) time
b) space
c) money
107. What are the two steps of a process execution?

a) I/O & OS Burst
b) CPU & I/O Burst
c) Memory & I/O Burst
d) OS & Memory Burst
108. An I/O bound program will typically have

a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts
109. A process is selected from the queue by the scheduler, to be executed.

a) blocked, short term
b) wait, long term
c) ready, short term
d) ready, long term
110. In the following cases non – preemptive scheduling occurs?

a) When a process switches from the running state to the ready state
b) When a process goes from the running state to the waiting state
c) When a process switches from the waiting state to the ready state
111. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is called
a) process switch
b) task switch

c) context switch
112. What is Dispatch latency?

a) the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
b) the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and keeping the CPU idle
c) the time to stop one process and start running another one
113. Scheduling is done so as to

a) increase CPU utilization
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle

a) increase the throughput
b) decrease the throughput
c) increase the duration of a specific amount of work
115. What is Turnaround time?

a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution

a) increase the turnaround time
b) decrease the turnaround time
c) keep the turnaround time same
d) there is no relation between scheduling and turnaround time
117. What is Waiting time?

a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues

a) increase the waiting time
b) keep the waiting time the same
c) decrease the waiting time
119. What is Response time?

a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
120. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of

a) Non-preemptive scheduling
c) All of the mentioned
121. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system

a) using very large time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
b) using very small time slices converts it into First come First served scheduling algorithm
c) using extremely small time slices increases performance
d) using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm
122. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is concerned with
a) assigning ready processes to CPU

b) assigning ready processes to waiting queue
c) assigning running processes to blocked queue
123. Complex scheduling algorithms

a) are very appropriate for very large computers
b) use minimal resources
c) use many resources
124. What is FIFO algorithm?

a) first executes the job that came in last in the queue
b) first executes the job that came in first in the queue
c) first executes the job that needs minimal processor
d) first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
125. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be temporarily suspended is called
a) Non preemptive scheduling

c) Shortest job first
d) First come First served
126. What is Scheduling?

a) allowing a job to use the processor
b) making proper use of processor
127. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle processes are waiting for an input event in
the input queue. Busy processes are scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method. Which out of
the following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the processes have a short
runtime, e.g. less than 10ms?
a) tQ = 15ms
b) tQ = 40ms
c) tQ = 45ms
d) tQ = 50ms
128. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if rule sequences the jobs.
a) earliest due date
b) slack time remaining
c) first come, first served
d) critical ratio
129. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow time?
a) First come First served
b) Shortest Job First
c) Earliest Deadline First
d) Longest Job First
130. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually and that for long jobs is
slightly
a) Lengthened; Shortened
b) Shortened; Lengthened
c) Shortened; Shortened
d) Shortened; Unchanged

I. Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
II. Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
III. Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a) I only
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III
132. Which is the most optimal scheduling algorithm?

a) FCFS – First come First served
b) SJF – Shortest Job First
c) RR – Round Robin
133. The real difficulty with SJF in short term scheduling is

a) it is too good an algorithm

b) knowing the length of the next CPU request
c) it is too complex to understand
134. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for

a) time sharing systems
b) multiprogramming systems
c) multiprocessor systems
d) operating systems
135. Consider the following set of processes, the length of the CPU burst time given in milliseconds.
Process Burst time

P1 6
P2 8
P3 7
P4 3
Assuming the above process being scheduled with the SJF scheduling algorithm.
a) The waiting time for process P1 is 3ms
b) The waiting time for process P1 is 0ms
c) The waiting time for process P1 is 16ms
d) The waiting time for process P1 is 9ms
136. Preemptive Shortest Job First scheduling is sometimes called

a) Fast SJF scheduling
b) EDF scheduling – Earliest Deadline First
c) HRRN scheduling – Highest Response Ratio Next
d) SRTN scheduling – Shortest Remaining Time Next
137. An SJF algorithm is simply a priority algorithm where the priority is

a) the predicted next CPU burst
b) the inverse of the predicted next CPU burst
c) the current CPU burst
d) anything the user wants

138. Choose one of the disadvantages of the priority scheduling algorithm?
a) it schedules in a very complex manner
b) its scheduling takes up a lot of time
c) it can lead to some low priority process waiting indefinitely for the CPU
139. What is „Aging‟?

a) keeping track of cache contents
b) keeping track of what pages are currently residing in memory
c) keeping track of how many times a given page is referenced
d) increasing the priority of jobs to ensure termination in a finite time
140. A solution to the problem of indefinite blockage of low – priority processes is

a) Starvation
b) Wait queue
c) Ready queue
d) Aging
i) Shortest remaining time first scheduling may cause starvation
ii) Preemptive scheduling may cause starvation
iii) Round robin is better than FCFS in terms of response time
a) i only
b) i and iii only
c) ii and iii only
d) i, ii and iii
142. Which of the following scheduling algorithms gives minimum average waiting time?
a) FCFS
b) SJF
c) Round – robin
d) Priority
143. Concurrent access to shared data may result in

a) data consistency
b) data insecurity
c) data inconsistency
144. A situation where several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the outcome of
the execution depends on the particular order in which access takes place is called
a) data consistency
b) race condition
c) aging
d) starvation
145. The segment of code in which the process may change common variables, update tables, write into files is
known as
a) program
b) critical section
c) non – critical section
d) synchronizing
146. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to solve the critical section problem?
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Progress
c) Bounded Waiting
147. Mutual exclusion implies that

a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be executing in their critical
sections
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be executing in their critical
sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system must be blocked until
it finishes execution
148. Bounded waiting implies that there exists a bound on the number of times a process is allowed to enter its
critical section
a) after a process has made a request to enter its critical section and before the request is granted
b) when another process is in its critical section
c) before a process has made a request to enter its critical section
149. A minimum of variable(s) is/are required to be shared between processes to solve the critical
section problem.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four

Unit : IO System
150. In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical section problem
a) each process is put into a queue and picked up in an ordered manner
b) each process receives a number (may or may not be unique) and the one with the lowest number is
served next
c) each process gets a unique number and the one with the highest number is served next
d) each process gets a unique number and the one with the lowest number is served next
151. An un-interruptible unit is known as _ _

a) single
b) atomic
c) static
152. TestAndSet instruction is executed

a) after a particular process
b) periodically
c) atomically
153. Semaphore is a/an to solve the critical section problem.

a) hardware for a system
b) special program for a system
c) integer variable
154. What are the two atomic operations permissible on semaphores?

a) wait
b) stop
c) hold
155. What are Spinlocks?

a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs
b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
156. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?

a) they are not sufficient for many process
b) they require busy waiting
c) they are unreliable sometimes
d) they are too complex for programmers
157. The wait operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic system call.
a) stop()
b) block()
c) hold()
d) wait()
158. The signal operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic system call.
a) continue()
b) wakeup()
c) getup()
d) start()
159. If the semaphore value is negative

a) its magnitude is the number of processes waiting on that semaphore
b) it is invalid
c) no operation can be further performed on it until the signal operation is performed on it
160. The code that changes the value of the semaphore is

a) remainder section code
b) non – critical section code
c) critical section code
161. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex is locked more than once?
a) Starvation
b) Deadlock
c) Aging
d) Signaling
162. What is a semaphore?

163. What are the two kinds of semaphores?

a) mutex & counting
b) binary & counting
c) counting & decimal
d) decimal & binary
164. What is a mutex?

c) can be accessed from multiple
processes d) none of the mentioned
165. At a particular time of computation the value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 P operations and 15 V

operations were completed on this semaphore. The resulting value of the semaphore is? (GATE 1987)
a)
42
b) 2
c) 7
d)
12
166. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer values

a) 1
b) -1
c)
0.8
d)
0.5
167. Semaphores are mostly used to implement

a) System calls
b) IPC mechanisms
c) System
protection
168. Spinlocks are intended to provide only.

a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Bounded
Waiting c) Aging
d) Progress
169. The bounded buffer problem is also known as

a) Readers – Writers problem
b) Dining – Philosophers problem
c) Producer – Consumer
problem d) None of the
mentioned
170. In the bounded buffer problem, there are the empty and full semaphores that
a) count the number of empty and full buffers
b) count the number of empty and full memory spaces
c) count the number of empty and full queues

Unit : Memory Management

171. In the bounded buffer problem
a) there is only one buffer
b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite)
c) there are infinite buffers
d) the buffer size is bounded
172. To ensure difficulties do not arise in the readers – writers problem are given exclusive access to
the shared object.
a) readers
b) writers
c) readers and writers
173. The dining – philosophers problem will occur in case of

a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
174. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosophers problem

a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation
b) does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of starvation
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem further
175. A monitor is a type of

a) semaphore
b) low level synchronization construct
c) high level synchronization construct
176. A monitor is characterized by

a) a set of programmer defined operators
b) an identifier
c) the number of variables in it

Unit : File System
177. A procedure defined within a can access only those variables declared locally within the
and its formal parameters.
a) process, semaphore
b) process, monitor
c) semaphore, semaphore
d) monitor, monitor
178. The monitor construct ensures that

a) only one process can be active at a time within the monitor
b) n number of processes can be active at a time within the monitor (n being greater than 1)
c) the queue has only one process in it at a time
179. What are the operations that can be invoked on a condition variable?
a) wait & signal
b) hold & wait
c) signal & hold
d) continue & signal
180. Which is the process of invoking the wait operation?

a) suspended until another process invokes the signal operation
b) waiting for another process to complete before it can itself call the signal operation
c) stopped until the next process in the queue finishes execution
181. If no process is suspended, the signal operation

a) puts the system into a deadlock state
b) suspends some default process execution
c) nothing happens
d) the output is unpredictable
182. A collection of instructions that performs a single logical function is called

a) transaction
b) operation
c) function
183. A terminated transaction that has completed its execution successfully is otherwise it is
a) committed, destroyed
b) aborted, destroyed
c) committed, aborted
184. The state of the data accessed by an aborted transaction must be restored to what it was just before the
transaction started executing. This restoration is known as of transaction.
a) safety
b) protection
c) roll – back
d) revert – back
185. Write ahead logging is a way

a) to ensure atomicity
b) to keep data consistent
c) that records data on stable storage
186. In the write ahead logging a is maintained.

a) a memory
b) a system
c) a disk
d) a log record
187. An actual update is not allowed to a data item

a) before the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage
b) after the corresponding log record is written out to stable storage
c) until the whole log record has been checked for inconsistencies
188. The undo and redo operations must be to guarantee correct behaviour, even if a failure occurs
during recovery process.
a) idempotent
b) easy
c) protected
189. The system periodically performs checkpoints that consists of the following operation(s)
a) Putting all the log records currently in main memory onto stable storage
b) putting all modified data residing in main memory onto stable storage
c) putting a log record onto stable storage
190. Consider a transaction T1 that committed prior to checkpoint. The <T1 commits> record appears in the
log before the <checkpoint> record. Any modifications made by T1 must have been written to the stable
storage either with the checkpoint or prior to it. Thus at recovery time
a) There is a need to perform an undo operation on T1
b) There is a need to perform a redo operation on T1
c) There is no need to perform an undo and redo operation on T1
191. Serializable schedules are ones where

a) concurrent execution of transactions is equivalent to the transactions executed serially
b) the transactions can be carried out one after the other
c) a valid result occurs after execution transactions
192. A locking protocol is one that

a) governs how locks are acquired
b) governs how locks are released
c) governs how locks are acquired and released
193. The two phase locking protocol consists of

a) growing & shrinking phase
b) shrinking & creation phase
c) creation & growing phase
d) destruction & creation phase
194. The growing phase is a phase in which?

195. The shrinking phase is a phase in which?

196. Which of the following concurrency control protocols ensure both conflict serializability and freedom
from deadlock?
I) 2-phase locking
II) Timestamp ordering
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
197. What is a reusable resource?

a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
198. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be possible?

a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
199. A system is in the safe state if

a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still avoid a deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
200. The circular wait condition can be prevented by

a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
b) using thread
c) using pipes
201. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?

a) banker‟s algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn‟s algorithm
202. 6. What is the drawback of banker‟s algorithm?

a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
203. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?

a) every time a resource request is made
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
204. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually denied necessary resources is called
a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging
205. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine the deadlock occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
206. To avoid deadlock

a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
b) resource allocation must be done only once
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) inversion technique can be used
Answers :
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d a c d a c a a d C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b b d a d a b a d A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b c b d b b c d a A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
b a a a c c b c a B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
c b d b c a b a c A
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
c a c d a c a a d C
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
c a b b a d c a b C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
b b b b c c a d c D
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
b c d b b c a a b A
91 92 93 94 5 96 97 98 99 100
c b a d a b b a a B
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 100
b d a b b a b c c B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
d c a a d b b c b B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
a a a b b a a c b B
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
d b b b a d a c d D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
d b c b d d a a b B
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
b c c a d b b b a C
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
d c b b b a b b c A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
b b a b c a d a a A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
c a c c d d a a d C
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
a c a a c b a d a A
201 202 203 204 205 206
a d c b a a

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DNYANSAGAR ARTS AND COMMERCE COLLEGE, BALEWADI, PUNE – 45

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

Unit 2 : System Structure

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

Unit 3 : Process Management

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

c) only two tasks at a time

Unit : Process Synchronization

30. What is the objective of multiprogramming?

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

36. What is a medium-term scheduler?

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

50. A semaphore is a shared integer variable __________

51. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the __________

53. Process synchronization can be done on __________

54. A monitor is a module that encapsulates __________

55. To enable a process to wait within the monitor __________

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

60. In UNIX, each process is identified by its __________

62. The child process can __________

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

64. What is Inter process communication?

65. Message passing system allows processes to __________

67. Messages sent by a process __________

69. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?

70. In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication

71. In the non blocking send __________

72. In the Zero capacity queue __________

73. The Zero Capacity queue __________

75. Remote Procedure Calls are used ____________

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

78. What is stub?

80. What is the full form of RMI?

81. The remote method invocation __________

84. How does the software trigger an interrupt?

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in

Subject : Operating System Class : S.Y. BBA(CA)

b) Executing a special operation called system call

Unit : CPU Scheduling

85. What is a trap/exception?

86. What is an ISR?

87. What is an interrupt vector?

88. DMA is used for __________

89. In a memory mapped input/output __________

90. In a programmed input/output(PIO) __________

Prof . S. B. Potadar www.dacc.edu.in