Part-0

1. If there are multiple recycle bin for a hard disk

a. you can setdifferent size for each recycle bin ( ANS )

b. you can choose which recycle bin to use to store your deleted files
c. You can make any one of them default recycle bin
d. None of above

2. Identify false statement

a. You can find deleted files in recycle bin

b. You can restore any files in recycle bin if you ever need
c. You can increase free spaceof disk by sending files in recycle bin ( ANS )
d. You can right click and choose Empty Recycle Bin to clean it at once

3. If the displayed system time and dateis wrong, you can reset it using

a. Write
b. Calendar
c. Write file
d. Control panel ( ANS )

4. You should save your computer from?

a. Viruses
b. Time bombs
c. Worms
d. All of the above ( ANS )

5. World Wide Web is being standard by

a. Worldwide corporation
b. W3C ( ANS )
c. World Wide Consortium
d.World Wide Web Standard

6. A co-processor

a. Is relatively easy to support in software ( ANS )

b. Causes all processor to function equally
c. Works with any application
d. Is quite common in modern computer

7. A Microsoft Windows is ..... a(n)

a. Operating system ( ANS )

b. Graphic program
c. Word Processing
d. Database program

8. Which of the following is program group?

a. Accessories ( ANS )
b. Paint
c. Word
d. All of above

9. Which is not application software?

a. Windows NT ( ANS )
b. Page Maker
c. WinWord XP
d. Photoshop

10. The...... program compresses large files into a smaller file

a. WinZip ( ANS )
b. WinShrink
c. WinStyle
d. None of above

11. Which of the following is an example of a real time operating system?

a. Lynx
b. MS DOS
c. Windows XP
d. Process Control ( ANS )

12. Which of the following operating system does not implement the multitasking truly?

a. Windows 98
b. Windows NT
c. Windows XP
d. MS DOS ( ANS )

13. Which of the following windows versionsupport64 bit processor?

a. Windows 98
b. Windows 2000
c. Windows XP ( ANS )
d. Windows 95

14. Which of the following Operating System does not implement multitasking truly?

a. Windows 98
b. Windows NT
c. Windows XP
d. MS DOS ( ANS )
15. What program runs first aftercomputer is booted and loading GUI?

a. Desktop Manager
b. File Manager
c. Windows Explorer
d. Authentication ( ANS )

16. Which of the following operating system do you choose to implement a client server
network?

a. MS DOS
b. Windows
c. Windows 98
d. Windows 2000 ( ANS )

17. Which of the following Operating systems is better for implementing a Client-Server
network

a. MS DOS
b. Windows 95
c. Windows 98
d. Windows 2000 ( ANS )

18. My Computer was introduced from

a. Windows 3.1
b. Windows 3.11
c. Windows 95 ( ANS )
d. Windows 98

19. Which of the following Windows do not have Start button

a. Windows Vista
b. Windows 7
c. Windows 8 ( ANS )
d. None of above

20. Which is the latest version of MS Windows?

a. Windows 2007
b. Windows 8.1 ( ANS )
c. Windows 2008
d. Windows 7

21. Which operating system doesn't support networking between computers?

a. Windows 3.1 ( ANS )

b. Windows 95
c. Windows 2000
d. Windows NT
22. Which Operating System doesn't support networking between computers?

a. Windows 3.1 ( ANS )

b. Windows 95
c. Windows 2000
d. Windows NT

23. Which of the following does not support more than one program at a time?

a. DOS ( ANS )
b. Linux
c. Windows
d. Unix

24. Which of the following is not an operating system?

a. DOS
b. Linux
c. Windows
d. Oracle ( ANS )

25. Linux isa(n) ... operating system

a. Open source ( ANS )

b. Microsoft
c. Windows
d. Mac

26. Which operating system can you give smallest file name?

a. Ps/2
b. Dos ( ANS )
c. Windows
d. Windows NT

27. Which one is notoperating system?

a. P11 ( ANS )
b. OS/2
c. Windows
d. Unix

28. Which of the following is not a multitasking operating system?

a. Windows
b. Linux
c. Win NT
d. DOS ( ANS )

29. You should choose Sleep option when

a. The computer is tired after working for the whole day
b. You are leaving for a very short time and want to resume you work shortly ( ANS )
c. Whencomputer gets hanged frequently. Let it sleep for some time
d. You finish working and going to bed

30. The ..... displays the name of every computer user on the computer

a. Wish list screen

b. Command screen
c.Welcome screen
( ANS )
d. None of the above

31. The category of software most appropriate for controlling the design and layout of
complex document like newsletters and brochure is:

a. Word processing
b. Computer aided design
c. Web page authoring
d. Desktop publishing ( ANS )

32. Which one is not a system tool?

a. Backup
b. Disk defragment
c. Virus scanning ( ANS )
d. All of the above

33. The memory which allocates space for DOS and application is called

a. Expanded memory
b. Cache memory
c. Virtual memory
d. Conventional memory ( ANS )

34. The operating system creates .... from the physical computer

a. Virtual space
b. Virtual computer ( ANS )
c. Virtual device
d. None

35. The operating system creates from the physical computer

a. Virtual space
b. Virtual computers ( ANS )
c. Virtual device
d. None

36. Which menu bar selection would you access to openfile?

a. Option
b. Help
c. View
d. None of above ( ANS )

37. Which mode loadsminimal set of drivers when starting Windows?

a. Safe Mode ( ANS )

b. Normal Mode
c. VGA Mode
d. Network Support Mode

38. Which of the following are loaded in safe mode?

a. Keyboard driver
b. Mouse driver
c. VGA drive
d. All of above ( ANS )

39. A ..... is a named location on a disk where files are stored

a. Folder ( ANS )
b. Pod
c. Version
d. None of the above

40. Which command is used to see the version of operating system?

a. Vol
b. Version
c. Ver ( ANS )
d. None of the above

41. Which type of command requires additional files to perform specific operations?

a. Internal commands
b. External commands ( ANS )
c. Valuable commands
d. Primary commands

42. Which of the following is system software?

a. Operating system
b. Compiler
c. Utilities
d. All of the above ( ANS )

43. A user-interface that is easy to use is considered to be

a. User-happy
b. User-simple
c. User-friendly ( ANS )
d. None of the above

44. A .... is a flash memory storage device that plugins into a USB port

a. USB snapdrive
b. USB flashdrive ( ANS )
c. USB memory makerdrive
d. None of above

45. The .... is the drive containing the files to be copied

a. Source drive ( ANS )

b. Destination drive
c. USB drive
d. None of the above

46. The number of character contained in primary name (DOS)?

a. Up to 8 characters ( ANS )
b. 3 characters
c. Up to 10 characters
d. None of the above

47. Which one of the following is not a multitasking operating system?

a. DOS ( ANS )
b. Windows
c. Unix
d. Linux

48. The most recent version of MAC OS is based on the .... operating system

a. Windows
b. Linux
c. Unix ( ANS )
d. CMOS

49. The ... operating system was initially created in the early 1970s at AT and T's Bell Labs

a. Linux
b. DOS
c. Unix ( ANS )
d. GNU

50. Which command is used to undelete a bunch of files withextension .doc that you have just
deleted?

a. Undelete
b. Undelete/all
c. Undelete *.doc ( ANS )
d. All of above

51. Which command is used to display the contents of the text file of DOS?

a. Copy con
b. Copy
c. Type ( ANS )
d. Dir

52. In Windows,start button is used to

a. Run applications
b. Device setting
c. Turn off the system
d. All of above ( ANS )

53. Which of the following is an essential file ofa MS-DOS boot disk?

a. COMMAND.COM ( ANS )
b. START.COM
c. TREE.COM
d. VER.COM

54. Which one is true for unconditional disk formatting?

a. Destroys every byte of data on a disk by overwriting itwith with blank spaces ( ANS )
b. Do not check/scan surface after format
c. Transfer system files after format
d. All of above

55. Oncetext has been cut to the clipboard, you can ..... that text into another document

a. Paste ( ANS )
b. Copy
c. Transfer
d. None of the above

56. What is the function ofradio button?

a. To select multiple option

b. To select single option ( ANS )
c. To select all option
d. All of above

57. The Banker's algorithm is used

a. to rectify deadlock
b. to detect deadlock
c. to prevent deadlock ( ANS )
d. to slove deadlock
58. The primary purpose of an operating system is:

a. To make the most efficient use of the computer hardware ( ANS )

b. To allow people to use the computer,
c. To keep systems programmers employed
d. To make computers easier to use

59. The primary purpose of an operating system is a ...

a. To make the most efficient use of computer hardware ( ANS )

b. To allow people to use the computer
c. To keep system programmer employed
d. To make computer easier to use

60. You can use print manage window

a. To checkstatus of files in the print queue

b. To cancel the print job
c. To interrupt printing
d. All of the above ( ANS )

61. Which of the following operating system reads and reacts in actual time?

a. Quick Response System

b. Real Time System ( ANS )
c. Time Sharing System
d. Batch Processing System

62. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT

a. Any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory ( ANS )

b. The setting for the amount of hard disk drive space to allocate virtual memory canbe manually
change
c. This temporary storage is called the swap file or page file
d. Virtual memory is the physical space o the hard drive

63. The essential difference between an operating system like Linux and one like Windows is
that

a. Windows can run with an Intel processor, whereas Linux cannot

b. Linux is a proprietary whereas Windows is not
c. There are multiple versions of Linux, but only one version of Windows
d. Any programmer can modify Linux code which is not permitted with Windows ( ANS )

64. What is dispatch latency?

a. The timetaken by the dispatcher to stop one process and start another ( ANS )
b. The timetaken by the processor to write a file into disk
c. The whole timetaken by all processor
d. None ofAbove
65. A page fault occurs when

a. the Deadlock happens

b. the Segmentation starts
c. the page is found in the memory
d. the page is not found in the memory ( ANS )

66. Whenever you move a directory from one location to another

a. All files inside the directory are moved

b. All the subdirectory inside that directoryare moved
c. The directory is moved the source file is not moved
d. Both a and b ( ANS )

67. The Basic Input Output System (BIOS) resides in

a. RAM
b. ROM ( ANS )
c. The CPU
d. Memory Cache

68. Which of the following does not occur during the power-on-self-test (POST)?

a. The scandisk utility begins to run ( ANS )

b. The video card and video memory are tested
c. The BIOS identification process occurs
d. Memory chipare checked to ensure that they are working properly

69. The maximum size of a write file is limited to only

a. Name of the file

b. Extension of the file
c. The amount of memory in your computer ( ANS )
d. All of above

70. Which of the following is drop down list?

a. List
b. Combo box ( ANS )
c. Text area
d. None

71. Recently deleted files are stored in

a. Recycle bin ( ANS )

b. Desktop
c. Taskbar
d. My computer

72. Which components appear in the initial Windows start up display?

a. Dialog boxes
b. Start menu
c. Taskbar ( ANS )
d. All of above

73. A small part of taskbar that has icons of background running applications is

a. Start button
b. Quick launch
c. Task bar
d. System tray ( ANS )

74. An operating system version designed for use with a media center PC
is Microsoft Windows XP

a. Home edition
b. Media center edition ( ANS )
c. Tablet PC edition
d. None of above

75. An operating system version designed for use with a tablet PC is Microsoft Windows XP

a. Home edition
b. Media center edition
c. Tablet PC edition ( ANS )
d. None of the above

76. The date and time displays on

a. Taskbar
b. Status bar
c. System tray ( ANS )
d. Launch pad

77. runs on a computer hardware and serves as a platform for other system to run on

a. Operating system ( ANS )

b. Application system
c. System software
d. All of above

78. Which runs on computer hardware and serve as platform for other software to run on?

a. Operating System ( ANS )

b. Application Software
c. System Software
d. All

79. is the program run on a computer when the computer boots up

a. System software
b. Operating system ( ANS )
c. System operations
d. None

80. Which is the first program run on a computer when the computer boots up?

a. System software
b. Operating system ( ANS )
c. System operations
d. None

81. The .... contains commands associated with the My Computer window

a. Standard menu
b. Start menu
c. System menu ( ANS )
d. None of the above

82. is the layer of a computer system between the hardware and the user program

a. Operating environment
b. Operating system ( ANS )
c. System environment
d. None of these

83. Which is the layer of a computer system between the hardware and the user program

a. Operating environment
b. Operating system ( ANS )
c. System environment
d. None

84. When you start up the computer the boot up storage at which the BIOS versions
manufacturer and data are displayed on the monitor is called

a. Bootstrap
b. Power on self test (POST) ( ANS )
c. System configuration
d. Kernel loading

85. The operating system is the most common type of ..... Software

a. Communication
b. Application
c. System ( ANS )
d. Word processing software

86. Which of the following is/are external commands?

a. Edit
b. Label
c. Sys
d. All of above ( ANS )

87. Which is not an external command?

a. Edit
b. XCOPY
c. Sys
d. None of the above ( ANS )

88. Which of the following is not essential to shut down your computer?

a. Save all opened files

b. Close all running applications
c. Switch off monitor ( ANS )
d. Cut off the power supply

89. What is Dr. Watson?

a. IT Expert
b. Diagnosis tool ( ANS )
c. Surgeon
d. None

90. The command allows you to create logical drive

a. Sort
b. Path
c. Subst ( ANS )
d. Batch

91. The command used to create logical drive for specific location of disk

a. Fdisk
b. Format
c. Subst ( ANS )
d. All of the above

92. You can move a window to a different position on your screen by dragging it by its

a. Move handle ( ANS )

b. Tail
c. Status bar
d. Title bar

93. A bar that inform you the available options in your computer, opened applications,
background running applications and can be used to switch between applications quickly is
a. Menu bar
b. Tool bar
c. Status bar
d. Task bar ( ANS )

94. Which components appear in the initial windows start up display?

a. Dialog box
b. Task bar ( ANS )
c. Start menu
d. All of the above

95. Taskbar is used for

a. Navigation program
b. Switching between program
c. Start a program
d. All of above ( ANS )

96. To install the new font

a. Start -> setting -> control panel -> font

b. Start -> setting -> control panel -> font -> install new font ( ANS )
c. Start -> control panel -> font -> install new font
d. Start -> setting -> font

97. When a peripheral device needs immediate attention from the operating system, it
generatesa(n)

a. Interrupt ( ANS )
b. Spool
c. Stack
d. Page file

98. Underlined text, such as text and folder names is referred to as

a. Hyperlink ( ANS )
b. Menu
c. Source drive
d. None of these

99. Which of the following is suitable after you install new drivers?

a. Shut Down
b. Restart ( ANS )
c. Sleep
d. Hibernate

100. Windows displays various options to shutdown. Which is suitable at the end ofday?
a. Shut Down ( ANS )
b. Restart
c. Sleep
d. Hibernate

Correct Answers
1–a 2–c 3–d 4–d 5–b 6–a 7–a 8–a 9–a 10 – a

11 – d 12 – d 13 – C 14 – d 15 – d 16 – d 17 – d 18 – c 19 – c 20 – b

21 – a 22 – a 23 – a 24 – d 25 – a 26 – b 27 – a 28 – d 29 – b 30 – c

31 – d 32 – c 33 – d 34 – b 35 – b 36 – d 37 – a 38 – d 39 – a 40 – c

41 – b 42 – d 43 – c 44 – b 45 – a 46 – a 47 – a 48 – c 49 – c 50 - c

51 – c 52 – d 53 – a 54 – a 55 – a 56 – b 57 – c 58 – a 59 – a 60 – d

61 – b 62 – a 63 – d 64 – a 65 – d 66 – d 67 – b 68 – a 69 – c 70 – b

71 – a 72 – c 73 – d 74 – b 75 – c 76 – c 77 – a 78 – a 79 – b 80 – b

81 – c 82 – b 83 – b 84 – b 85 – c 86 – d 87 – d 88 – c 89 – b 90 – c

91 – c 92 – a 93 – d 94 – b 95 – d 96 – b 97 – a 98 – a 99 – b 100 - a
Part-1

Q.1 Which of the following should be allowed only in kernel mode?

1. Changing mapping from virtual to physical address.
2. Mask and unmask interrupts
3. Disabling all interrups
4. Reading status of processor
5. Reading time of day
(a) 1, 2 and 3 ( ANS )
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) all of these
Q.2 An interrupt handler is a
(a) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts
(b) peripheral device
(c) utility program ( ANS )
(d) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request

Q.3 Executing more than one program concurrently

by one user on one computer is known as
(a) multiprogramming(b) time-sharing
(c) multitasking( ANS ) (d) multiprocessing
Q.4 The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple processors is
(a) multitasking
(b) multiprogramming
(c) time-sharing
(d) multiprocessing ( ANS )

0.5 Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?

(a) timer interrupts (b) device ( ANS )
(c) power failure (d) scheduling process
Q.6 System call is used to access
(a) I/O functionality (b) ( ANS )
(c) application functionality
(d) None of the above

Q.7 Swapping is performed by

(a) long term scheduler
(b) mid term scheduler ( ANS )
(c) short term scheduler
(d) dispatcher

Q.8 Choose the false statement

(a) static linking requires no support of OS
(b) dynamic linking requires no support of OS ( ANS )
(c) dynamic loading requires no support of OS
(d) none of the above

Q.9 Assume that the kernel mode is non-preemptive. What happens when an I/O interrupt comes
while a process `P,' is running in the kernel mode on the CPU?
(a) CPU is given to the process for which the I/ O has completed
(b) CPU is given to some other process based on the scheduling policy
 (c) P1 continues to execute on the CPU ( ANS )
(d) None of the above
Q.10 Overlay is
(a) a part of an operating system
(b) a specific memory location
(c) a single contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for running large programs by
swapping ( ANS )
(d) overloading the system with many user files
Q.11 When an interrupt occurs, an operating system
(a) ignores :he interrupt
(b) al,vays changes the stage of the interr,...cted access after processing the inte—_,c:
(c) ays resumes execution of the interrupted process after processing the interrupt
(d) may change the state of the interrupted process to "blocked" and schedule another
process ( ANS )
Q.12 Consider the following statements:
S1: The OS is designed to maximize the resource utilization.
S2: The control program manages the system programs.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) Si is true S2 is false ( ANS )
(b) S2 is true and S1 is false
(c) both Si and S2 are true
(d) both S1 and S2 are false
0.13 Bootstrap loader is always stored in
(a) cache (b) ROM ( ANS )
(c) RAM (d) disk
Q.14 Which of the following is true?
(a) Overlays are used to increase the size of physical memory.
(b) Overlays are used to increase the logical address space.
(c) When overlays are used, the size of a process is not limited to the size of physical
memory. ( ANS )
(d) Overlays are used whenever the physical address space is smaller than the logical
address space.
Answers Basic Concepts of OS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c)
10.(c)11.(d)12.(a)13.(b)14. (c)

Explanations Basic Concepts of OS

1. (a)
Only critical services must reside in the kernel. All services mentioned except reading
status of processors and reading time of the day are critical.
Hence option (a) is correct.
9 . ( c)
When the kernel is non-preemptive and any
process is running in a kernel mode, then process continues to run until either it completes
or it waits for some input/output.
11. (d)
When a interrupt occurs operating system decides the request on the fact that the
interrupt has higher priority or less priority. If less, the interrupted process is resumed and
only after
However if interrupt has higher priority the process is blocked and interrupt is entertained.
Hence an operating system may or may not change the state of the interrupted process to
"blocked" and schedule another process.
14 . ( c)
By using the overlays we can execute much
greater processes simultaneously which cannot be execute and reside in the memory at
the same time. In this the process to be executed process brought to memory only when it
is needed at the time of execution.
Part-2
1. What is an operating system?
a) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
b) system service provider to the application programs
c) interface between the hardware and application programs
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: An Operating System acts as an intermediary between user/user
applications/application programs and hardware. It is a program that manages hardware
resources. It provides services to application programs.
2. To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the
a) System calls
b) API
c) Library
d) Assembly instructions

Answer: a
Explanation: To access services of the Operating System an interface is provided by the System
Calls. Generally, these are functions written in C and C++. Open, Close, Read, Write are some of
most prominently used system calls.
3. Which one of the following is not true?
a) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
b) kernel is the first part of operating system to load into memory during booting
c) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system
d) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session

Answer: c
Explanation: Kernel is the first program which is loaded in memory when OS is loading as well as
it remains in memory till OS is running. Kernel is the core part of the OS which is responsible for
managing resources, allowing multiple processes to use the resources and provide services to
various processes. Kernel modules can be loaded and unloaded in run-time i.e. in running OS.
4. Which one of the following error will be handle by the operating system?
a) power failure
b) lack of paper in printer
c) connection failure in the network
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned errors are handled by OS. The OS is continuously monitoring all
of its resources. Also, the OS is constantly detecting and correcting errors.
5. What is the main function of the command interpreter?
a) to get and execute the next user-specified command
b) to provide the interface between the API and application program
c) to handle the files in operating system
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: The main function of command interpreter is to get and execute the next user-
specified command. Command Interpreter checks for valid command and then runs that
command else it will throw an error.

6. In Operating Systems, which of the following is/are CPU scheduling algorithms?

a) Round Robin
b) Shortest Job First
c) Priority
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: In Operating Systems, CPU scheduling algorithms are:
i) First Come First Served scheduling
ii) Shortest Job First scheduling
iii) Priority scheduling
iv) Round Robin scheduling
v) Multilevel Queue scheduling
vi) Multilevel Feedback Queue scheduling
All of these scheduling algorithms have their own advantages and disadvantages.
7. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a
a) log file
b) another running process
c) new file
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: If a process fails, most operating systems write the error information to a log file.
Log file is examined by the debugger, to find out what is the actual cause of that particular
problem. Log file is useful for system programmers for correcting errors.
8. Which facility dynamically adds probes to a running system, both in user processes and in the
kernel?
a) DTrace
b) DLocate
c) DMap
d) DAdd

Answer: a
Explanation: A facility that dynamically adds probes to a running system, both in user process
and in the kernel is called DTrace. This is very much useful in troubleshooting kernels in real-
time.
9. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
a) VxWorks
b) QNX
c) RTLinux
d) Palm OS

Answer: d
Explanation: VxWorks, QNX & RTLinux are real-time operating systems. Palm OS is a mobile
operating system. Palm OS is developed for Personal Digital Assistants (PDAs).
10. The OS X has
a) monolithic kernel
b) hybrid kernel
c) microkernel
d) monolithic kernel with modules

Answer: b
Explanation: OS X has a hybrid kernel. Hybrid kernel is a combination of two different kernels.
OS X is developed by Apple and originally it is known as Mac OS X.
Part-3
Q.1 The software that contains the core components of the operating system is called
(a) Controller (b) Root
( c ) K e r n e l ( ANS ) (d) None of the above
Q.2 When a computer is switched on, where is the operating system loaded?
(a) BIOS (b) ROM
(c) PO ST
( d ) R A M ( ANS )
Q.3 On which chip is the BIOS program permanently stored?
(a) RAM (b) ROM ( ANS )
(c) SIMBA (d) none of these
Q.4 Spooling helps because
(a) it is a more secure method of accessing data
(b) print jobs go more smoothly with less stop and go
(c) the computer is released to do other things while still printing ( ANS )
(d) None of the above

Q.5 When a computer is "swapping", it is

(a) moving data from hard drive to floppy drive
(b) moving data from memory to the swap file on the hard drive ( ANS )
(c) moving data between registers in memory
(d) None of the above

Q.6 The Operating System is responsible for

(a) controlling peripheral devices such as monitor, printers, disk drives
(b) provide an interface that allows users to choose programs to run/manipulate files
(c) manage users' files on disk
(d) All of the above ( ANS )

Q.7Which of the following does an operating system

do in a stand-alone computer system?
(a) manages the user's files
(b) provides the interface to allow the user to communicate with the computer
(c) controls the various peripherals
(d) All of the above ( ANS )

Q.8 Which of the following is true about a terminal on a time-sharing computer system?
(a) has its own CPU and some memory
(b) has no memory or CPU of its own ( ANS )
(c) has its own CPU but no memory
(d) has its own memory but no CPU
Q.9 The boot process happens in the order
(a) POST test, activate BIOS, check settings, load OS into RAM ( ANS )
 (b) Activate BIOS, POST test, load OS into RAM, check settings
(c) Check settings, load OS into RAM, activate BIOS, POST test
(d) Load OS into RAM, check settings, activate BIOS, POST test
Q.10 An interrupt handler is a
(a) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts
(b) peripheral device
(c) utility program ( ANS )
(d) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request

Q.11 Loading the OS into the memory of a PC is called

(a) thrashing (b) booting ( ANS )
( c ) for mattin g ( d ) sp ool i ng
Q.12 An operating system is
(a) application (b) supervisory program ( ANS )
(c) set of users (d) set of programs
Q.13 This part of the operating system manages the essential peripherals, such as the keyboard,
screen, disk drives, and parallel and serial ports.
(a) basic input/output system ( ANS )
(b) secondary input/output system
(c) peripheral input/output system
(d) marginal-input/output system

Q.14 Which of the following functions is not controlled by the operating system?
(a) managing memory
(b) managing programs and data
(c) managing input and output
(d) all of the above are controlled by the operating system ( ANS )
Q.15 Executing more than one program concurrently by one user on one computer is known
as
(a) multiprogramming
(b) time-sharing
(c) multitasking ( ANS )
(d) multiprocessing

Q.16 The simultaneous processing of two or more

programs by multiple processors is
(a) multitasking (b) multiprogramming
(c) time-sharing (d) multiprocessing ( ANS )
Q.17 This comprises the detailed machine language necessary to control a specific device
and is
controlled by the operating system.
(a) Driver ( ANS )
(b) utility program
(c) virtual memory
(d) peripheral device
 Q.18 Which of the following
controls the manner of interaction between the user and the operating system?
(a) language translator
(b) platform
(c) user interface ( ANS )
(d) none of the above is correct.

Q.19 Overlay is
(a) a part of an OS
(b) a specific memory location
(c) a single contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for running large
programs by swapping ( ANS )
(d) overloading the system with many user fills

Q.20 Which of the following is real time system?

(a) an on line railway reservation system
(b) aircraft control system ( ANS )
(c) payroll processing system
(d) All of the above.

Q.21 Where does the swap space residable?

(a) RAM (b) disk ( ANS )
(c) ROM d) on-chip cache

Q.22 What is not the major objective of an operating system?

(a) to act as a resource manager for multiple tasks running on the CPU, the memory and
disk resources
(b) to provide a programming interface to the user
(c) to act as an uniform abstract machine on top of a variety of different hardware platforms
(d) to enable loading and execution of binary code with minimum intervention by the user
( ANS )
Q.23 System call is used to access
(a) I/O functionality
(b) operating system functionality ( ANS )
(c) application functionality
(d) None of the above

Answer Key:

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b)

6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c)
16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b)
Part-4
1. Dual mode of operating system has
A. 1 mode
B. 2 modes
C. 3 modes
D. 4 modes
ANSWER: B
2. Multi-processor system gives a
A. small system
B. tightly coupled system
C. loosely coupled system
D. both a and b
Answer B
3. Logical extension of multiprogramming operating system is
A. time sharing
B. multi-tasking
C. single programing
D. both a and b
Answer D
4. Multiprocessor system have advantage of
A. Increased Throughput
B. Expensive hardware
C. operating system
D. both a and b
ANSWER: A
5. Scheduling of threads are done by
A. input
B. output
C. operating system
D. memory
ANSWER:C
6. Multiprogramming of computer system increases
A. memory
B. storage
C. CPU utilization
D. cost
ANSWER: C
7. Another type of multiple-CPU system is the
A. mini Computer
B. Super Computer
C. Clustered System
D. both a and b
ANSWER: C
8. Interrupt table of pointers having addresses for each interrupt is located at
A. high memory
B. low memory
C. mid memory
D. both a and b
ANSWER: B
9. Example of open source operating system is
A. UNIX
B. Linux
C. windows
D. both a and b
ANSWER: D
10. Main memory of computer system is also called
A. non volatile
B. volatile
C. reserved
D. large
ANSWER: B
11. Controller of computer system transfers data from device to
A. buffers
B. cache
C. registers
D. indexes
ANSWER: A
12. When many users accesses mainframes, this approach is called as
A. resource allocation
B. word processors
C. dedicated resources
D. interface
ANSWER: A
13. Accessing same data from storage of computer system is provided by
A. serial clusters
B. parallel clusters
C. Beowulf clusters
D. both a and b
ANSWER: B
14. To start an I/O operation device driver loads appropriate register into?
A. memory
B. Secondary storage
C. Device Controller
D. Arrays
ANSWER: C
15. Symmetric multiprocessing architecture of computer system uses shared
A. bus
B. memory
C. processors
D. both a and b
ANSWER: D
16. In asymmetric clustering other machines perform operations while one machine is in
A. hot standby mode
B. standby mode
C. reset mode
D. undefined mode
ANSWER: AAnswer A
17. Ability to continuously providing service proportional to level of surviving hardware
A. graceful upgradation
B. degradation
C. upgradation
D. graceful degradation
ANSWER: D
18. Secondary memory of computer system is also called
A. non volatile
B. volatile
C. reserved
D. small
ANSWER: A
19. Environment in which programs of computer system are executed is:
A. operating system
B. nodes
C. clustered system
D. both a and b
ANSWER: A
20. One word memory storage is collection of
A. 2 bytes
B. 4 bytes
C. 7 bytes
D. 8 bytes
ANSWER: B
21. Each user of computer system that uses computer services has at least
A. 1program
B. 2programs
C. 3programs
D. 4programs
ANSWER: A
22. Clusters of computer system can be used more efficiently using
A. serialization
B. parallelization
C. LAN
D. WAN
ANSWER: B
23. A properly designed operating system must ensure that an incorrect (or malicious) program
cannot
cause other programs to execute
A. incorrectly
B. Correctly
C. both a and b
D. None
ANSWER: A
24. Table of pointers for interrupt to be executed contains the
A. interrupts
B. programs
C. addresses
D. compilers
ANSWER: C
25. User view of system depends upon the
A. CPU
B. software
C. hardware
D. interface
ANSWER: D
26. Memories are normally classified according to their
A. speed
B. cost
C. indexes
D. both a and b
ANSWER: D
27. SCSI system is abbreviation of the
A. small common-system interface
B. small common-system interaction
C. small computer-system interface
D. small computer-system interaction
ANSWER: C
28. One megabyte memory storage in form of bytes is equal to
A. 1024 bytes
B. 1024² bytes
C. 1024³ bytes
D. 1024&sup4; bytes
ANSWER: B
29. Multi-processing systems of computer system are of
A. 2 types
B. 3 types
C. 4 types
D. 5 types
ANSWER: A
30. Clustered computer systems are normally linked via
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. PAN
D. TAN
ANSWER: A
31. Kernel mode of operating system runs when mode bit is
A. 1
B. 0
C. x
D. undefined
ANSWER: B
32. Kernel mode of operating system is also called
A. user mode
B. system mode
C. supervisor mode
D. both a and b
ANSWER: C
33. Multi-processor systems of computer system has advantage of
A. cost
B. reliability
C. uncertainty
D. scalability
ANSWER: B
34. Time sharing systems of computer system have
A. clusters
B. nodes
C. file system
D. both a and b
ANSWER:C
35. One megabyte memory storage in form of bytes is equal to
A. 1024 bytes
B. 1024 kilo bytes
C. 1056 bytes
D. 1058 kilo bytes
ANSWER: B
36. Privileged mode of operating system mode is a
A. user code
B. kernel mode
C. system mode
D. both b and c
ANSWER: B
37. Example of bug in one program of operating system effects others in
A. zero error
B. infinite loop
C. invalid memory access
D. both a and b
ANSWER: B
38. Master slave relationship in computer system is used by
A. symmetric multiprocessor
B. asymmetric multiprocessor
C. symmetric multiprocessing
D. asymmetric multiprocessing
ANSWER: D
39. Beowulf clusters of computer system uses
A. close source softwares
B. open source softwares
C. dedicated softwares
D. both a and b
ANSWER: B
40. In non-multiprogrammed system Central Processing Unit will
A. sit idle
B. perform well
C. cost high
D. cost low
ANSWER: B
 UNIT-2

MCQs
1. Concurrent access to shared data may result in ____________
a) data consistency
b) data insecurity
c) data inconsistency ( ANS)
d) none of the mentioned

2. A situation where several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the
outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which access takes place is called
____________
a) data consistency
b) race condition ( ANS)
c) aging
d) starvation

3. The segment of code in which the process may change common variables, update tables, write into
files is known as ____________
a) program
b) critical section ( ANS)
c) non – critical section
d) synchronizing

4. Which of the following conditions must be satisfied to solve the critical section problem?
a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Progress
c) Bounded Waiting
d) All of the mentioned ( ANS)

5. Mutual exclusion implies that ____________

a) if a process is executing in its critical section, then no other process must be executing in their
critical sections ( ANS)
b) if a process is executing in its critical section, then other processes must be executing in their
critical sections
c) if a process is executing in its critical section, then all the resources of the system must be blocked
until it finishes execution
d) none of the mentioned

6. Bounded waiting implies that there exists a bound on the number of times a process is allowed to
enter its critical section ____________
a) after a process has made a request to enter its critical section and before the request is granted
(ANS)
b) when another process is in its critical section
c) before a process has made a request to enter its critical section
d) none of the mentioned

7. A minimum of _____ variable(s) is/are required to be shared between processes to solve the critical
section problem.
a) one
b) two ( ANS)
c) three
d) four

8. In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical section problem ____________

a) each process is put into a queue and picked up in an ordered manner
b) each process receives a number (may or may not be unique) and the one with the lowest number is
served next ( ANS)
c) each process gets a unique number and the one with the highest number is served next
d) each process gets a unique number and the one with the lowest number is served next

9. An un-interruptible unit is known as ____________

a) single
b) atomic ( ANS)
c) static
d) none of the mentioned

10. TestAndSet instruction is executed ____________

a) after a particular process
b) periodically
c) atomically ( ANS)
d) none of the mentioned

11. Semaphore is a/an _______ to solve the critical section problem.

a) hardware for a system
b) special program for a system
c) integer variable ( ANS)
d) none of the mentioned

12. What are Spinlocks?

a) CPU cycles wasting locks over critical sections of programs
b) Locks that avoid time wastage in context switches
c) Locks that work better on multiprocessor systems
d) All of the mentioned ( ANS)

13. What is the main disadvantage of spinlocks?

a) they are not sufficient for many process
b) they require busy waiting ( ANS)
c) they are unreliable sometimes
d) they are too complex for programmers

14. The wait operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) stop()
b) block() ( ANS)
c) hold()
d) wait()

15. The signal operation of the semaphore basically works on the basic _______ system call.
a) continue()
b) wakeup() ( ANS)
c) getup()
d) start()

16. If the semaphore value is negative ____________

a) its magnitude is the number of processes waiting on that semaphore ( ANS)
b) it is invalid
c) no operation can be further performed on it until the signal operation is performed on it
d) none of the mentioned

17. The code that changes the value of the semaphore is ____________
a) remainder section code
b) non – critical section code
c) critical section code ( ANS)
d) none of the mentioned

18. What will happen if a non-recursive mutex is locked more than once?
a) Starvation
b) Deadlock ( ANS)
c) Aging
d) Signaling

19. What are the two kinds of semaphores?

a) mutex & counting
b) binary & counting ( ANS)
c) counting & decimal
d) decimal & binary

20. What is a mutex?

a) is a binary mutex
b) must be accessed from only one process ( ANS)
c) can be accessed from multiple processes
d) none of the mentioned

21. At a particular time of computation the value of a counting semaphore is 7.Then 20 P operations
and 15 V operations were completed on this semaphore. The resulting value of the semaphore is?
a) 42
b) 2 ( ANS)
c) 7
d) 12

22. Semaphores are mostly used to implement ____________

a) System calls
b) IPC mechanisms ( ANS)
c) System protection
d) None of the mentioned

23. A binary semaphore is a semaphore with integer values ____________

a) 1 ( ANS)
b) -1
c) 0.8
d) 0.5

24. Spinlocks are intended to provide __________ only.

a) Mutual Exclusion
b) Bounded Waiting ( ANS)
c) Aging
d) Progress

25. The bounded buffer problem is also known as ____________

a) Readers – Writers problem
b) Dining – Philosophers problem
c) Producer – Consumer problem ( ANS)
d) None of the mentioned

26. In the bounded buffer problem, there are the empty and full semaphores that ____________
a) count the number of empty and full buffers ( ANS)
b) count the number of empty and full memory spaces
c) count the number of empty and full queues
d) none of the mentioned

27. In the bounded buffer problem ____________

a) there is only one buffer
b) there are n buffers ( n being greater than one but finite) ( ANS)
c) there are infinite buffers
d) the buffer size is bounded

28. To ensure difficulties do not arise in the readers – writers problem _______ are given exclusive
access to the shared object.
a) readers
b) writers ( ANS)
c) readers and writers
d) none of the mentioned

29. The dining – philosophers problem will occur in case of ____________

a) 5 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
b) 4 philosophers and 5 chopsticks ( ANS)
c) 3 philosophers and 5 chopsticks
d) 6 philosophers and 5 chopsticks

30. A deadlock free solution to the dining philosophers problem ____________

a) necessarily eliminates the possibility of starvation
b) does not necessarily eliminate the possibility of starvation ( ANS)
c) eliminates any possibility of any kind of problem further
d) none of the mentioned

31. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must execute
wait(mutex) before entering the critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.
Suppose a process executes in the following manner.
signal(mutex);
.....
critical section
.....
wait(mutex);
In this situation :
a) a deadlock will occur
b) processes will starve to enter critical section
c) several processes maybe executing in their critical section ( ANS)
d) all of the mentioned

32. All processes share a semaphore variable mutex, initialized to 1. Each process must execute
wait(mutex) before entering the critical section and signal(mutex) afterward.
Suppose a process executes in the following manner.

wait(mutex);
.....
critical section
.....
wait(mutex);
In this situation :
a) a deadlock will occur ( ANS)
b) processes will starve to enter critical section
c) several processes maybe executing in their critical section
d) all of the mentioned

33. Consider the methods used by processes P1 and P2 for accessing their critical sections whenever
needed, as given below. The initial values of shared boolean variables S1 and S2 are randomly
assigned.
Method used by P1:
while(S1==S2);
Critical section
S1 = S2;

Method used by P2:

while(S1!=S2);
Critical section
S2 = not(S1);
Which of the following statements describes properties achieved?
a) Mutual exclusion but not progress
b) Progress but not mutual exclusion
c) Neither mutual exclusion nor progress
d) Both mutual exclusion and progress ( ANS)

34. Process synchronization can be done on __________

a) hardware level
b) software level
c) both hardware and software level ( ANS)
d) none of the mentioned

35. When high priority task is indirectly preempted by medium priority task effectively inverting the
relative priority of the two tasks, the scenario is called __________
a) priority inversion ( ANS)
b) priority removal
c) priority exchange
d) priority modification

36. Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?

a) thread
b) pipe
c) semaphore ( ANS)
d) socket

37. Mutual exclusion can be provided by the __________

a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both mutex locks and binary semaphores ( ANS)
d) none of the mentioned

38. Which process can be affected by other processes executing in the system?
a) cooperating process ( ANS)
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process

39. Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes if the parent process terminates
______
a) Normally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally ( ANS)
d) None of the mentioned

40. With _____________ only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are
waiting for the processor. With ______________ more than one process can be running
simultaneously each on a different processor.
a) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming
b) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing
c) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing
d) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing ( ANS)

41. In UNIX, the return value for the fork system call is _____ for the child process and _____ for the
parent process.
a) A Negative integer, Zero
b) Zero, A Negative integer
c) Zero, A nonzero integer ( ANS)
d) A nonzero integer, Zero

42. What is Interprocess communication?

a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same address space
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions ( ANS)
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
d) none of the mentioned

43. Message passing system allows processes to __________

a) communicate with each other without sharing the same address space ( ANS)
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
44. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?
a) write & delete message
b) delete & receive message
c) send & delete message
d) receive & send message ( ANS)

45. Messages sent by a process __________

a) have to be of a fixed size
b) have to be a variable size
c) can be fixed or variable sized ( ANS)
d) none of the mentioned

46. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called __________
a) communication link ( ANS)
b) message-passing link
c) synchronization link
d) all of the mentioned

47. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?

a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max. number of processes
supported by system)
b) A communication link is associated with exactly two processes ( ANS)
c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of processes supported by
system)
d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes

48. In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________

a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q
b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication
c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q ( ANS)
d) none of the mentioned

49. In the non blocking send __________

a) the sending process keeps sending until the message is received
b) the sending process sends the message and resumes operation ( ANS)
c) the sending process keeps sending until it receives a message
d) none of the mentioned

50. In the Zero capacity queue __________

a) the queue can store at least one message
b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message ( ANS)
c) the sender keeps sending and the messages don’t wait in the queue
d) none of the mentioned

51. The Zero Capacity queue __________

a) is referred to as a message system with buffering
b) is referred to as a message system with no buffering ( ANS)
c) is referred to as a link
d) none of the mentioned

52. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as __________
a) Programmed buffering
b) Automatic buffering ( ANS)
c) User defined buffering
d) No buffering
53. Which are two fundamental models of interprocess communication:
i) Shared Memory
ii) Message Passing
iii) Independent
iv) Cooperating
A. i, ii ( ANS)
B. ii, iii
C. iii, iv
D. i, iv

54. Under direct communication, when asymmetry in addressing scheme is employed, the send() and
receive() primitives are defined as follows:
1. send(P, message)- Send a message to process P
2. receive(Q, message)- Receive a message from process Q
3. receive(id, message)- Receive a message from any process
4. send(id, message)- Send a message to any process
A. 1, 3 ( ANS)
B. 2, 4
C. 3, 4
D. 1, 2

55. A preemptive kernel allows

A. a process to be pre-empted while it is not running in kernel mode
B. a process to be pre-empted while it is running in kernel mode ( ANS)
C. a process to be pre-empted while it is running in user mode
D. does not allow a process running in kernel mode to be preempted

56. A non-preemptive kernel allows

A. a process to be pre-empted while it is not running in kernel mode
B. a process to be pre-empted while it is running in kernel mode
C. a process to be pre-empted while it is running in user mode
D. does not allow a process running in kernel mode to be pre-empted ( ANS)

57. A non-preemptive kernel is essentially free from race conditions:

A. True ( ANS)
B. False

58. A preemptive kernel is essentially free from race conditions:

A. True
B. False ( ANS)

59. Peterson’s solution is restricted to ______ process that alternate execution between their critical
sections and remainder section.
A. One
B. Three
C. Two ( ANS)
D. Five

60. Select correct statements regarding mutex to prevent race conditions:

I. a process must acquire lock before entering a critical section
II. a process need not acquire lock before entering a critical section
III. it releases lock when it exits critical section
IV. a process must acquire lock when it exits critical section
A. 1, 3 ( ANS)
B. 2, 4
C. 3, 4
D. 1, 4

61. A classic _____ solution to the critical section problem known as Peterson’s Solution.
A. Hardware Based
B. Software Based ( ANS)
C. Hardware & Software Based
D. None of the above

62. A semaphore is an integer variable that apart from initialization is accessed only through two
standard atomic operations called_______
A. exec() and exit()
B. exec() and signal()
C. wait() and exit()
D. wait() and signal() ( ANS)

63. For semaphores and binary semaphores, a _________ is used to hold processes waiting on the
semaphore.
A) Stack
B) Queue ( ANS)
C) Tree
D) Graph

64. A semaphore whose definition includes the fairest policy First-in-First-Out (FIFO) is called ____
A) binary semaphore
B) strong semaphore ( ANS)
C) weak semaphore
D) multi semaphore

65. A semaphore that does not specify the order in which processes are removed from the queue is a
_______
A) binary semaphore
B) strong semaphore
C) weak semaphore ( ANS)
D) multi semaphore

66. Which of the following is/are the disadvantages of machine instruction approach to enforce
mutual exclusion.
i) Busy waiting employees
ii) hard to verify
iii) starvation is possible
iv) Deadlock is possible
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only ( ANS)
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

67. With the use of special machine instruction to enforce mutual exclusion has the following
advantages.
i) It is applicable to any number of processes on either a single processor or multiple
processors sharing main memory.
ii) It is simple therefore easy to verify
iii) It can be used to support multiple critical sections.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii ( ANS)

68. Which of the following facility or capacity are required to provide support for the mutual
exclusion?
i) A process that halts in its noncritical section must do so without interfering with other processes.
ii) The assumption should be made about relative process speeds or the number of processors.
iii) A process remains inside its critical section for a finite time only

A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only ( ANS)
D) All i, ii and iii

69. If the fork() system call fails, it returns ____

A) -1 ( ANS)
B) 1
C) 2
D) 0

70. The creating process is called a _____ process while the new processes are called the _____ of
that process.
A) Single, Zoombie
B) Child, Parent
C) Parent, Child ( ANS)
D) Single, Child

71. N-process critical section problem can be solved by using

A) The Bakery Algorithm ( ANS)
B) Deterministic Modelling
C) Dekker’s Solution
D) Analytic Evaluation

72. The critical section problem can be solved by the following except
A) Software Based Solution
B) Firmware Based Solution ( ANS)
C) Operating System Based Solution
D) Hardware Based Solution

73. In bounded buffer problem which of the following assumptions stands TRUE?
i) We assume that the pool consists of N buffers, each capable of holding one item.
ii) The mutex semaphore provides mutual exclusion for accesses to the buffer pool and is initialized to
1.
iii) The mutex semaphore provides mutual exclusion for accesses to the buffer pool and is initialized
to 0.
iv) The empty and full semaphores count the number of empty and full buffers. The semaphore
empty is initialized to the value N; the semaphore full is initialized to the value 0.
v) The empty and full semaphores count the number of empty and full buffers. The semaphore empty
is initialized to the value 0; the semaphore full is initialized to the value N.

A) 1, 3, 5
B) 1, 2, 4 ( ANS)
C) 1, 2, 5
D) 3, 4, 5
74. For how many processes which are sharing common data, the Dekker's algorithm implements
mutual exclusion?
A) 1
B) 2 ( ANS)
C) 3
D) 4

75. The drawbacks of Dekker’s algorithm for mutual exclusion is

A) Does not ensure progress
B) Does not guarantee mutual exclusion sometimes
C) Suffers from busy waiting ( ANS)
D) Does not ensure Bounded Waiting

76. Consider the methods used by processes P1 and P2 for accessing their critical sections whenever
needed, as given below. The initial values of shared boolean variables S1 and S2 are randomly
assigned.

Method used by P1 :
while(S1==S2);
Critical section
S1 = S2;

Method used by P2 :
while(S1!=S2);
Critical section
S2 = not(S1);

Which of the following statements describes properties achieved ?

A) Mutual exclusion but not progress
B) Progress but not mutual exclusion
C) Neither mutual exclusion nor progress
D) Both mutual exclusion and progress ( ANS)

77. In semaphores, two or more processors can cooperate by means of simple

A) Signals ( ANS)
B) Data
C) Registers
D) Buffers

78. During process interaction concurrent processes come into conflict with each other when they are
A) Executed
B) Completed ( ANS)
C) Decoded
D) Aborted

79. For a single processor system, implementation of semaphore is possible to inhibited through:
A) Deadlock
B) Lock Step
C) Paging
D) Interrupts ( ANS)

80. In addressing, many to one relationship is useful for

A) Client Interaction
B) Client/Server Interaction ( ANS)
C) Server Interaction
D) Master/Slave Interaction

81. In special machine instruction, compare and swap instruction to memory location against a
A) Configuration
B) Test
C) Test Value ( ANS)
D) Memory

82. A process executes the following segment of code:

For(i=1;i<=n;i++)
Fork();

The number of new processes created is:

A) n
B) ((n(n+1))/2)
C) 2n – 1 ( ANS)
D) 3n – 1

83. A process executes the code

fork();
fork();
fork();
The total number of child processes created is
A) 3
B) 4
C) 7 ( ANS)
D) 8

84. Which of the following does not interrupt a running process?

A) A device
B) Timer
C) Power Failure
D) Scheduler Process ( ANS)

85. The following two functions P1 and P2 that share a variable B with an initial value of 2 execute
concurrently.
P1()
{
C = B – 1;
B = 2*C;
}

P2()
{
D = 2 * B;
B = D - 1;
}
The number of distinct values that B can possibly take after the execution is
A) 3 ( ANS)
B) 2
C) 5
D) 4

86. What is the output of the following program?

main( )
{
int a = 10;
if ((fork ( ) == 0))
a++;
printf (“%dn”, a );
}
A) 10 and 11 ( ANS)
B) 10
C) 11
D) 11 and 11

87.

1. C 11. C 21. B 31. C 41. C 51. B 61. B 71. A 81. C 91.

2. B 12. D 22. B 32. A 42. B 52. B 62. D 72. B 82. C 92.
3. B 13. B 23. A 33. D 43. A 53. A 63. B 73. B 83. C 93.
4. D 14. B 24. B 34. C 44. D 54. A 64. B 74. B 84. D 94.
5. A 15. B 25. C 35. A 45. C 55. B 65. C 75. C 85. A 95.
6. A 16. A 26. A 36. C 46. A 56. D 66. C 76. D 86. A 96.
7. B 17. C 27. B 37. C 47. B 57. A 67. D 77. A 87. 97.
8. B 18. B 28. B 38. A 48. C 58. B 68. C 78. B 88. 98.
9. B 19. B 29. B 39. C 49. B 59. C 69. A 79. D 89. 99.
10. C 20. B 30. B 40. D 50. B 60. A 70. C 80. B 90. 100.
This set of Operating System Multiple Choice Questions & Answers
(MCQs) focuses on “Deadlock”.

1. What is a reusable resource?

a) that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by

that use
b) that can be used by more than one process at a time
c) that can be shared between various threads
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a

2. Which of the following condition is required for a deadlock to be

possible?

a) mutual exclusion
b) a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting
assignment of other resources
c) no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
3. A system is in the safe state if ____________

a) the system can allocate resources to each process in some order

and still avoid a deadlock
b) there exist a safe sequence
c) all of the mentioned
 d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
4. The circular wait condition can be prevented by ____________
a) defining a linear ordering of resource types
b) using thread
c) using pipes
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a
5. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?

a) banker’s algorithm
b) round-robin algorithm
c) elevator algorithm
d) karn’s algorithm

Answer: a
6.

What is the drawback of banker’s algorithm?

a) in advance processes rarely know how much resource they will need
b) the number of processes changes as time progresses
c) resource once available can disappear
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
7. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?

a) every time a resource request is made

b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

8. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually

denied necessary resources is called ____________

a) deadlock
b) starvation
c) inversion
d) aging

Answer: b

9. Which one of the following is a visual (mathematical) way to

determine the deadlock occurrence?
a) resource allocation graph
b) starvation graph
c) inversion graph
d) none of the mentioned

Answer:a
10. To avoid deadlock ____________

a) there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate

b) resource allocation must be done only once
c) all deadlocked processes must be aborted
d) inversion technique can be used

Answer: a
11. Which requested resources are granted with deadlock detection?
A. Resources
B. Processes
C. Programs
D. Users
E. Data
F. Both C &D

Answer: B

12. Prevention strategies of deadlock are very…?

A. Simple
B. Complex
C. Conservative
D. Straight
E. Difficult
F. Both A&B

Answer: C

13. Which thread management work done by a pure Kernel Level

Thread facility?
A. Kernel
B. Program
C. Application
D. Threads
E. Data
F. Information

Answer: A

14. Which labs initially developed by UNIX?

A. NASA
B. Microsoft
C. Kaspersky
D. Bell
E. Dell
F. Both A&B

Answer: D

15. The advantage of Multiprocessor system is …

A. Operating system
B. Expensive hardware
C. Microsoft
D. Data collection
E. Increased Throughput
F. Both A and B
Answer: E
Answer
16. Win32 application programming interfaces are for
A. Windows
B. UNIX
C. Linux
D. Microsoft
E. Solaris
F. Both B&C
Answer: A

17. ……….. that implies an unsafe state.

A. the existence of deadlock
B. that deadlock will eventually occur
C. the pages of deadlock
D. that some unfortunate sequence of events might lead to deadlock
E. none of these

Answer: D
18. Which one process cannot overwrite another’s a memory,
either inadvertently or maliciously.
A. sections
B. partitions
C. modules
D. regions
E. frames
F. both A&B
Answer: B
19. .……….. That can be loaded into adjacent “holes” in the main
memory.
A. segments
B. frames
C. partitions
D. pages
E. regions
F. None of these
Answer. A
20. System’s evaluate common schedule strategies.
A. throughput
B. means response time
C. variance of response time
D. all of the above
E. both A&B
F. no response time
Answer: D
21. How much time will spend when LRU replaces the page?
A. shortest time in memory
B. shortest time in memory without being referenced
C. longest time in memory
D. longest time in memory without being referenced
E. both A&B
F. both C&D
Answer: D
22. Why Spooling helps?
A. while printing when computer release to do other things
B. jobs go more smoothly with less stop
C. printing it is a more secure method of accessing data
D. none of the above
E. both B&C
F. both A&C
Answer: A
23. OS spends much of its time paging also instead of
executing applications software, it is called………..
A. spooling
B. formatting
C. thrashing
D. booting
E. scanning
F. both A&B
Answer: C
24. ………… is an interrupt handler.
A. memory location that keeps track
B. peripheral devices
C. operating device
D. numeric code that indicated the priority request
E. utility program
F. None of these
Answer: E
25. Running process does not interrupt by ……………
A. device
B. timer interrupts
C. power failure
D. scheduling process
E. both A&B
F. none of above
Answer: A
26. ………….. is an Overlay.
A. a part of an OS
B. a specific memory location
C. overloading the system with many users fills
D. a contiguous memory that was used in the olden days for
running
E. both A&B
 F. None of these
Answer: C

27. A ……………… is one that can be safely used by only one process
at a time and is not depleted by that use.
A) Reusable Resource
B) Single Process Resource
C) Consumable Resource
D) Produced Resource

Answer A) Reusable Resource

28. Processors, I/O channels, main and secondary memory devices, and
data structures such as files, databases, and semaphores are the examples
of ……..
A) Reusable Resources
B) Single Process Resources
C) Consumable Resources
D) Produced Resources

Answer A) Reusable Resource

29. ……………………. is one that can be created and destroyed.

A) Reusable Resource
B) Single Process Resource
C) Consumable Resource
D) Produced Resource

Answer C) Consumable Resource

30. Interrupts, signals, messages and information in I/O buffers are the
examples of ……………….
A) Reusable Resources
B) Single Process Resources
C) Consumable Resources
D) Produced Resources

Answer C) Consumable Resource

31. Which of the following are the conditions of policy must be present
for a deadlock to be possible.
i) If only one process may use a resource at a time
ii) If a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment
of others
iii) If no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

Answer All i, ii and iii

32. ……………….. is needed to ensure consistency of results and

integrity of a database.
A) Mutual Exclusion
B) Hold and Wait
C) Preemption
D) Circular Wait

Answer A) Mutual Exclusion

33. …………………… cannot be done arbitrary and especially when

data resources are involved, must be supported by a rollback recovery
mechanism.
A) Mutual Exclusion
B) Hold and Wait
C) Preemption
D) Circular Wait

Answer C) Preemption

34. ………………. is a closed chain of processes exists, such that each

process holds at least one resource needed by the next process in the
chain.
A) Mutual Exclusion
B) Hold and Wait
C) Preemption
D) Circular Wait

Answer D) Circular Wait

35. Which of the following is/are the schemes uses for the prevention of
deadlock.
i) Requesting all resources   ii) Preemption   iii) Resource Ordering  iv)
Manipulate to find at least one safe path
A) i, ii and iii only
B) ii, iii and iv only
C) i, iii and iv only
D) All i, ii, iii and iv

Answer A) i, ii and iii only

36. Invoking periodically to test for deadlock is one of the ways for
deadlock ………………..
A) Prevention
B) Avoidance
C) Detection
D) Deletion

Answer C) Detection
37.  Which of the following is/are the major advantages of requesting all
resources at once.
i) Works well for processes that perform a single burst of activity
ii) No preemption is necessary
iii) Feasible to enforce via compile-time checks
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

Answer A) i and ii only

38. The indirect method of …………………. is to prevent the

occurrence of one of the three necessary conditions: Mutual exclusion,
Hold and Wait and No preemption.
A) deadlock prevention
B) deadlock avoidance
C) deadlock detection
D) deadlock deletion

Answer A) deadlock prevention

39.  A direct method of deadlock prevention is to prevent the occurrence

of a …………………..
A) Mutual Exclusion
B) Hold and Wait
C) Preemption
D) Circular Wait

Answer D) Circular Wait

40. The condition can be prevented by requiring that a process request

all of its required resources at once time and blocking the process until
all requests can be granted simultaneously.
A) Mutual Exclusion
B) Hold and Wait
C) Preemption
D) Circular Wait

Answer B) Hold and Wait

41. The …………………. condition can be prevented by defining a

linear ordering of resource types.
A) Mutual Exclusion
B) Hold and Wait
C) Preemption
D) Circular Wait

Answer D) Circular Wait

42. With …………………. a decision is made dynamically whether the

current resource allocation request will, if granted potentially lead to
deadlock.
A) deadlock prevention
B) deadlock avoidance
C) deadlock detection
D) deadlock deletion

Answer B) deadlock avoidance

43. In order to ……………….. the deadlock do not grant an incremental

resource request to a process if this allocation might lead to deadlock.
A) Prevent
B) Avoid
C) Detect
D) Delete

Answer B) Avoid
44. In resource allocation denial, a ……………………….. is one in
which there is at least one sequence that does not result in a deadlock.
A) Safe state
B) Unsafe state
C) Safe allocation
D) Unsafe allocation

Answer A) Safe state

45. Which of the following is/are the restrictions on deadlock avoidance.

i) The maximum resource requirement for each process must be stated in
advance
ii) There must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
iii) No process may exit while holding resources.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iii only
D) All i, ii and iii

Answer D) All i, ii and iii

46. In ……………………. the processes under consideration must be

independent: that is, the order in which they execute must be
unconstrained by any synchronization requirements.
A) deadlock prevention
B) deadlock avoidance
C) deadlock detection
D) deadlock deletion

Answer B) deadlock avoidance 

 Meerut Institute of Engineering & Technology, Meerut

QUESTION BANK OF OPERATING SYSTEM

UNIT - 4
MEMORY MANAGEMENT

1. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of ____________
a) program counter
b) status register
c) instruction register
d) program status word
Ans :- a

2. A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called ____________

a) stack pointer
b) cache
c) accumulator
d) disk buffer
Ans :- b

3. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?

a) physical address
b) absolute address
c) logical address
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- c

4. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by ____________

a) Memory management unit
b) CPU
c) PCI
d) None of the mentioned
Ans :- a

5. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data from secondary storage
for use in main memory is called?
a) fragmentation
b) paging
c) mapping
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- b

6. The address of a page table in memory is pointed by ____________

a) stack pointer
b) page table base register
c) page register
d) program counter
Ans :- b

7. Program always deals with ____________

a) logical address
b) absolute address
c) physical address
d) relative address
Ans :- a
8. The page table contains ____________
a) base address of each page in physical memory
b) page offset
c) page size
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- a

9. What is compaction?
a) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error
Ans :- c

10. Operating System maintains the page table for ____________

a) each process
b) each thread
c) each instruction
d) each address
Ans :- a

11. The address loaded into the memory address register of the memory is referred to as
____________
a) Physical address
b) Logical address
c) Neither physical nor logical
d) None of the mentioned
Ans :- a

12. The run time mapping from virtual to physical addresses is done by a hardware device called the
____________
a) Virtual to physical mapper
b) Memory management unit
c) Memory mapping unit
d) None of the mentioned
Ans :- b

13. The base register is also known as the ____________

a) basic register
b) regular register
c) relocation register
d) delocation register
Ans :- c
14. The size of a process is limited to the size of ____________
a) physical memory
b) external storage
c) secondary storage
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- a

15. The _________ time in a swap out of a running process and swap in of a new process into the
memory is very high.
a) context – switch
b) waiting
c) execution
d) all of the mentioned
Ans :- a

16. Swap space is allocated ____________

a) as a chunk of disk
b) separate from a file system
c) into a file system
d) all of the mentioned
Ans :- a

17. In contiguous memory allocation ____________

a) each process is contained in a single contiguous section of memory
b) all processes are contained in a single contiguous section of memory
c) the memory space is contiguous
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- a

18. The relocation register helps in ____________

a) providing more address space to processes
b) a different address space to processes
c) to protect the address spaces of processes
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- c

19. With relocation and limit registers, each logical address must be _______ the limit register.
a) less than
b) equal to
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- a

20. With relocation and limit registers, each logical address must be _______ the limit register.
a) less than
b) equal to
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- a

21. In fixed size partition, the degree of multiprogramming is bounded by ___________

a) the number of partitions
b) the CPU utilization
c) the memory size
d) all of the mentioned
Ans :- a

22. The first fit, best fit and worst fit are strategies to select a ______
a) process from a queue to put in memory
b) processor to run the next process
c) free hole from a set of available holes
d) all of the mentioned
Ans :- c
23. What is true about memory management?

A. Memory management keeps track of each and every memory location

B. It decides which process will get memory at what time.
C. It tracks whenever some memory gets freed or unallocated and correspondingly it updates the
status.
D. All of the above
Ans :- d

24. What is compaction?

a. a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation

b. a paging technique

c. a technique for overcoming external fragmentation

c. a technique for overcoming fatal error

Ans :- c

25. Swapping is also known as a

A. technique for memory management

B. technique for memory compaction
C. technique for memory addresse
D. technique for dynamic linking
Ans :- b

26. How many types of Fragmentation are there?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Ans :- a

27. In which type of Fragmentation, Memory block assigned to process is bigger. Some portion of
memory is left unused, as it cannot be used by another process.

A. External fragmentation
B. Internal fragmentation
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
Ans :- b

28. __________ is a memory management technique in which process address space is broken into
blocks of the same size

A. Fragmentation
B. Frames
C. Paging
D. Address Translation

Ans :- c
29. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s anomaly?
a) FIFO
b) LRU
c) Optimal Page Replacement
d) Both LRU and FIFO
Ans :- a

30. What is the swap space in the disk used for?

a) Saving temporary html pages
b) Saving process data
c) Storing the super-block
d) Storing device drivers
Ans :- b

31. Physicalmemory is broken into fixed-sized blocks called ________

a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- a

32. Logical memory is broken into blocks of the same size called _________
a) frames
b) pages
c) backing store
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- b

33. Everyaddress generated by the CPU is divided into two parts. They are ____________
a) frame bit & page number
b) page number & page offset
c) page offset & frame bit
d) frame offset & page offset
Ans :- b

34. The__________ is used as an index into the page table.

a) frame bit
b) page number
c) page offset
d) frame offset
Ans :- b

35. The _____ table contains the base address of each page in physical memory.
a) process
b) memory
c) page
d) frame
Ans :- c

36. The size of a page is typically ____________

a) varied
b) power of 2
c) power of 4
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- b
37. Ifthe size of logical address space is 2 to the power of m, and a page size is 2 to the power of
n addressing units, then the high order _____ bits of a logical address designate the page number,
and the ____ low order bits designate the page offset.
a) m, n
b) n, m
c) m – n, m
d) m – n, n
Ans :- d

38. With paging there is no ________ fragmentation.

a) internal
b) external
c) either type of
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- b

39. The operating system maintains a ______ table that keeps track of how many frames have
been allocated, how many are there, and how many are available.
a) page
b) mapping
c) frame
d) memory
Ans :- c

40. Paging increases the ______ time.

a) waiting
b) execution
c) context – switch
d) all of the mentioned
Ans :- c

41. Smaller page tables are implemented as a set of _______

a) queues
b) stacks
c) counters
d) registers
Ans :- d

42. The page table registers should be built with _______

a) very low speed logic
b) very high speed logic
c) a large memory space
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- b

43. For larger page tables, they are kept in main memory and a __________ points to the page
table.
a) page table base register
b) page table base pointer
c) page table register pointer
d) page table base
Ans :- a

44. Forevery process there is a __________

a) page table
b) copy of page table
c) pointer to page table
d) all of the mentioned
Ans :- a

45. Time taken in memory access through PTBR is ____________

a) extended by a factor of 3
b) extended by a factor of 2
c) slowed by a factor of 3
d) slowed by a factor of 2
Ans :- d

46. Each entry in a translation lookaside buffer (TLB) consists of ____________

a) key
b) value
c) bit value
d) constant
Ans :- a

47. If
a page number is not found in the TLB, then it is known as a ____________
a) TLB miss
b) Buffer miss
c) TLB hit
d) All of the mentioned
Ans :- a

48. An ______ uniquely identifies processes and is used to provide address space protection for
that process.
a) address space locator
b) address space identifier
c) address process identifier
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- b

49. The percentage of times a page number is found in the TLB is known as ____________
a) miss ratio
b) hit ratio
c) miss percent
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- b

50. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by ____________

a) protection algorithm with each page
b) restricted access rights to users
c) restriction on page visibility
d) protection bit with each page

Ans :- d
51. Memory protection in a paged environment is accomplished by ____________
a) protection algorithm with each page
b) restricted access rights to users
c) restriction on page visibility
d) protection bit with each page
Ans :- d
52. When the valid – invalid bit is set to valid, it means that the associated page ____________
a) is in the TLB
b) has data in it
c) is in the process’s logical address space
d) is the system’s physical address space
Ans :- c

53. Illegaladdresses are trapped using the _____ bit.

a) error
b) protection
c) valid – invalid
d) access
Ans :- c

54. When there is a large logical address space, the best way of paging would be ____________
a) not to page
b) a two level paging algorithm
c) the page table itself
d) all of the mentioned
Ans :- b

55. Ina paged memory, the page hit ratio is 0.35. The required to access a page in secondary
memory is equal to 100 ns. The time required to access a page in primary memory is 10 ns. The
average time required to access a page is?
a) 3.0 ns
b) 68.0 ns
c) 68.5 ns
d) 78.5 ns
Ans :- c

56. To obtain better memory utilization, dynamic loading is used. With dynamic loading, a routine
is not loaded until it is called. For implementing dynamic loading ____________
a) special support from hardware is required
b) special support from operating system is essential
c) special support from both hardware and operating system is essential
d) user programs can implement dynamic loading without any special support from hardware or
operating system
Ans :- d

57. Inpaged memory systems, if the page size is increased, then the internal fragmentation
generally ____________
a) becomes less
b) becomes more
c) remains constant
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- b

58. Insegmentation, each address is specified by ____________

a) a segment number & offset
b) an offset & value
c) a value & segment number
d) a key & value
Ans :- a
59. Inpaging the user provides only ________ which is partitioned by the hardware into
________ and ______
a) one address, page number, offset
b) one offset, page number, address
c) page number, offset, address
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- a

60. Eachentry in a segment table has a ____________

a) segment base
b) segment peak
c) segment value
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- a

61. The segment base contains the ____________

a) starting logical address of the process
b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- b

62. The segment limit contains the ____________

a) starting logical address of the process
b) starting physical address of the segment in memory
c) segment length
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- c

63. The offset ‘d’ of the logical address must be ____________

a) greater than segment limit
b) between 0 and segment limit
c) between 0 and the segment number
d) greater than the segment number
Ans :- b

64. If the offset is legal ____________

a) it is used as a physical memory address itself
b) it is subtracted from the segment base to produce the physical memory address
c) it is added to the segment base to produce the physical memory address
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- a

65. When the entries in the segment tables of two different processes point to the same physical
location ____________
a) the segments are invalid
b) the processes get blocked
c) segments are shared
d) all of the mentioned
Ans :- c

66. The protection bit is 0/1 based on ____________

a) write only
b) read only
c) read – write
d) none of the mentioned
Ans :- c

67. If
there are 32 segments, each of size 1Kb, then the logical address should have ____________
a) 13 bits
b) 14 bits
c) 15 bits
d) 16 bits
Ans :- a

68. Consider a computer with 8 Mbytes of main memory and a 128K cache. The cache block size
is 4 K. It uses a direct mapping scheme for cache management. How many different main
memory blocks can map onto a given physical cache block?
a) 2048
b) 256
c) 64
d) 8
Ans :- c

69. A multilevel page table is preferred in comparison to a single level page table for translating
virtual address to physical address because ____________
a) it reduces the memory access time to read or write a memory location
b) it helps to reduce the size of page table needed to implement the virtual address space of a
process
c) it is required by the translation lookaside buffer
d) it helps to reduce the number of page faults in page replacement algorithms
Ans :- b

70. A computer system supports 32-bit virtual addresses as well as 32-bit physical addresses.
Since the virtual address space is of the same size as the physical address space, the operating
system designers decide to get rid of the virtual memory entirely. Which one of the following
is true?
a) Efficient implementation of multi-user support is no longer possible
b) The processor cache organization can be made more efficient now
c) Hardware support for memory management is no longer needed
d) CPU Scheduling can be made more efficient now
Ans :- c
 This set of MCQ questions on I/O management and disk scheduling in OS
includes the collections of MCQ questions related to I/O management in OS.
It includes MCQ questions for the fundamentals of I/O management, I/O
command, appropriate sequences of I/O instructions and rapid bursts of I/O.
1. Which of the following is/are the technique(s) for performing I/O
management function.

A) Programmed I/O

B) Interrupt driven I/O

C) Direct Memory Access

D) All of the above ( ANS)

2. In ................ , the processor issues an I/O command, on behalf of a process,

to an I/O module.

A) Programmed I/O ( ANS)

B) Interrupt driven I/O

C) Direct Memory Access

D) Virtual Memory Access

3. In ……………….The processor issues an I/O command on behalf of a process,

continues to execute subsequent instructions and is interrupted by the I/O
module when the latter has completed its work.

A) Programmed I/O

B) Interrupt driven I/O

( ANS)
C) Direct Memory Access

D) Virtual Memory Access

4. A ………………. module controls the exchange of data between main memory

and an I/O module.

A) Programmed I/O

B) Interrupt driven I/O

C) Direct Memory Access ( ANS)

D) Virtual Memory Access

5. The ……………… unit is capable of mimicking the processor and indeed of

taking over control of the system from the processor.

A) Programmed I/O

B) Interrupt driven I/O

C) Direct Memory Access ( ANS)

D) Virtual Memory Access

6. The ................... module deals with t he device as a logical resource and is not
concerned with the details of actually controlling the device.

A) Directory Management

B) Logical I/O ( ANS)

C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

7. In ……………………, the requested operations and data are converted into

appropriate sequences of I/O instructions, channel commands and controller
orders.

A) Directory Management

B) Logical I/O

C) Device I/O ( ANS)

D) Scheduling and control

8. At the layer of .................... , symbolic file names are

converted to identifiers that either reference the file directory or

indirectly through a file descriptor or index table.

A) Directory Management ( ANS)

B) Logical I/O

C) Device I/O

D) Scheduling and control

9. ………………. layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.

A) Physical organization

B) File system
( ANS)
C) Directory management

D) Scheduling and control

10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
bu"er in the system portion of main memory to the operation called …………..

A) Double bu"er

B) Single bu"er ( ANS)

C) Linear bu"er

D) Circular bu"er

11 ................ may be inadequate if the process performs rapid bursts of I/O.

A) Double bu"erring ( ANS)

B) Single bu"ering

C) Linear bu"ering

D) Circular bu"ering

12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the track
is known as …………

A) seek time ( ANS)

B) rotational delay

C) access time

D) Transfer time
13. The time disk controller takes for the beginning of the sector to reach the
head is known as ……………..

A) seek time

B) rotational delay ( ANS)

C) access time

D) Transfer time

14. The ……………….. consists of two key components: the initial startup time,
and the time taken to traverse the tracks that have to be crossed once the
access arm is up to speed.

A) seek time ( ANS)

B) rotational delay

C) access time

D) Transfer time

15. The ............... policy is to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position.

A) Last in first out

B) Shortest service time first ( ANS)

C) Priority by process

D) Random scheduling
16. In ………………. policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction,
the arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.

A) Last in first out

B) Shortest service time first

C) SCAN

D) Circular SCAN ( ANS)

17. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of RAID architecture.

i) RAID is set of physical disk drives viewed by the operating system as a single
logical drive

ii) Data are distributed across the physical drives of an array

iii) It is used to store parity information, which guarantees data recoverability

in case of disk failure.

A) i and ii only

B) ii and iii only

C) i and iii only

D) All i, ii and iii ( ANS)

18. …………….. is not a true member of RAID family, because it does not include
redundancy to improve performance.

A) RAID Level 0 ( ANS)

B) RAID Level 1
C) RAID Level 2

D) RAID Level 3

19 ............. would only be an e"ective choice in an environment in which many

disk errors occur.

A) RAID Level 0

B) RAID Level 1

C) RAID Level 2 ( ANS)

D) RAID Level 3

20. In the ................... scheme, two di"erent parity calculations are carried out
and stored in separate blocks on di"erent disks.

A) RAID Level 4

B) RAID Level 5

C) RAID Level 6 ( ANS)

D) RAID Level 3

Answers

1. D) All of the above

2. A) Programmed I/O

3. B) Interrupt driven I/O

4. C) Direct Memory Access

5. C) Direct Memory Access

6. B) Logical I/O

7. C) Device I/O

8. A) Directory Management

9. B) File system

10. B) Single bu"er

11. A) Double bu"ering

12. A) seek time

13. B) rotational delay

14. A) seek time

15. B) Shortest service time first

16. D) Circular SCAN

17. D) All i, ii and iii

18. A) RAID Level 0

19. C) RAID Level 2

20. C) RAID Level 6

This set of MCQ questions on file management in OS includes the collections of
frequently asked and important MCQ questions related to file management in
OS. It includes MCQ questions for the fundamentals of file management and
I/O management in OS.

1. A ……………….. is the basic element of data where individual field contains a

single value, such as an employee's last name, a data or the value of the sensor
reading.

A) field ( ANS)

B) record

C) file

D) database

2. A...................... is a collection of related fields that can be treated as a unit by

some application program.

A) field

B) record ( ANS)

C) file

D) database

3. …………………….. communicate directly with peripheral devices or their

controllers or channels.

A) Device drivers ( ANS)

B) Physical I/O
C) Basic I/O supervisor

D) Logical I/O

4. The ..................... is responsible for all file I/O initiation and termination.

A) Device drivers

B) Physical I/O

C) Basic I/O supervisor ( ANS)

D) Logical I/O

5. ……………………….. provides a general purpose record I/O capability and

maintains basic data about files.

A) Device drivers

B) Physical I/O

C) Basic I/O supervisor

D) Logical I/O ( ANS)

6. In the ……………………… file organization, data are collected in the order in

which they arrive where each record consists of one burst of data.

A) Pile ( ANS)

B) sequential

C) indexed sequential

D) indexed
7. In ....................... file organization, a fixed format is used for records where
all records are of the same length, consisting of the same number of fixed
length fields in a particular order.

A) pile

B) sequential ( ANS)

C) indexed sequential

D) indexed

8. The ……………………… maintains the key characteristic of the sequential file:

Records are organized in sequence based on a key field.

A) pile

B) sequential file

C) indexed sequential file ( ANS)

D) indexed file

9. The ……………………… retains one limitation of the sequential file: e"ective

processing is limited to that which is based on a single field of the file.

A) pile

B) sequential file

C) indexed sequential file ( ANS)

D) indexed file
10. …………………… are used mostly in applications where data are rarely
processed exhaustively.

A) pile

B) sequential file

C) indexed sequential file

D) indexed file ( ANS)

11. Airline reservation systems and inventory control system are the examples
of system.

A) pile

B) sequential file

C) indexed sequential file

D) indexed file ( ANS)

12. The .................... greatly reduced the time required to access a single record,
without sacrificing the sequential nature of the file.

A) pile

B) sequential file

C) indexed sequential file ( ANS)

D) indexed file
13. In free space management, ………………….. method has negligible space
overhead because there is no need for a disk allocation table, merely for a
pointer to the beginning of the chain and the length of the first portion.

A) Bit tables

B) Chained Free Portions ( ANS)

C) Indexing

D) Free Block List

14. In........................ method on free space management, each block is assigned

in a reserved portion of the disk.

A) Bit tables

B) Chained Free Portions

C) Indexing

D) Free Block List ( ANS)

15. A ………………… on free space management has the advantage that it is

relatively easy to find one or a contiguous group of free blocks.

A) Bit table ( ANS)

B) Chained Free Portion

C) Indexing

D) Free Block List

16. In the .......................... method, the file allocation table contains a separate
one level index for each file, the index has one entry for each portion allocated
to the file.

A) Chained allocation

B) Indexed allocation ( ANS)

C) Contiguous allocation

D) Variable allocation

17 ..................... is a pre allocation strategy, using variable size portions where

the file allocation table needs just a single entry for each file, showing the
starting block and the length of the file.

A) Chained allocation

B) Indexed allocation

C) Contiguous allocation ( ANS)

D) Variable allocation

18. Typically, ………………… is on an individual block basis where each block

contains a pointer to the next block in the chain.

A) Chained allocation ( ANS)

B) Indexed allocation

C) Contiguous allocation

D) Variable allocation
19. Which of the following is/are the types of operations that may be performed
on the directory.

i) Search ii) Create file iii) Create directory iv) List directory

A) i, ii and iii only

B) ii, iii and iv only

C) i, ii and iv only ( ANS)

D) All i, ii, iii and iv

20 .................... are often used where very rapid access is required, where fixed
length records are used, and where records are always accessed one at a time.

A) Indexed files

B) Direct files ( ANS)

C) Sequential files

D) Indexed Sequential files

21. An alternative is to organize the sequential file physically is a ……………..

A) List

B) Linked List ( ANS)

C) Queue

D) Stack
22. …………………… are typically used in batch applications and are generally
optimum for such applications if they involve the processing of all the records.

A) Indexed files

B) Direct files

C) Sequential files ( ANS)

D) Indexed Sequential files

23. Directories, pricing tables, schedules and name lists are the examples of
……………….

A) Indexed files

B) Direct files ( ANS)

C) Sequential files

D) Indexed Sequential files

24. An interactive user or a process associated with pathname is a current

directory which is often referred to as the …………………….

A) update directory

B) list directory

C) working directory ( ANS)

D) create directory

25. ……………………….. are small fixed portions which provide greater flexibility
which may require large tables or complex structures for their allocation.
A) Blocks ( ANS)

B) Columns

C) Segments

D) Partitions

Answers

1. A) field

2. B) record

3. A) Device drivers

4. C) Basic I/O supervisor

5. D) Logical I/O

6. A) pile

7. B) sequential

8. C) indexed sequential file

9. C) indexed sequential file

10. D) indexed file

11. D) indexed file

12. C) indexed sequential file

13. B) Chained Free Portions

14. D) Free Block List

15. A) Bit table

16. B) Indexed allocation

17. C) Contiguous allocation

18. A) Chained allocation

19. C) i, ii and iv only

20. B) Direct files

21. B) Linked List

22. C) Sequential files

23. B) Direct files

24. C) working directory

25. A) Blocks