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Excellence in Assessment

Jawaharlal Nehru University

Entrance Examination
2021-22

Information Bulletin
 INDEX
Chapter Description Page No.
Important Information at a Glance

1 Introduction 1-2
1.1 About NTA
1.2 About JNU
1.3 About JNUEE
2 General Information 3-8
2.1 Major Subject groups and Sub-subjects for Degree Programmes
2.2 Schedule of Examination
2.3 Scheme of Examination
2.4 Syllabus for the Test
2.5 Reservation Policy
2.6 Relaxation for Admission
2.7 Cities for Examination Centres
3 Eligibility Criteria and Qualifications 9
3.1 General Criteria and subject wise qualifications for admission
3.2 Age Limit
4 Registration and Application Process 10-18
4.1 Instructions for Filling Online Application Form
4.2 Replica of Application Form
4.3 Steps to Complete Application Process
4.4 Application Fee
4.5 Method of Fee Payment
4.6 Admit Card
5 Conduct of the Examination 19-21
5.1 Important Instructions for Candidates
5.2 Prohibited Materials
5.3 Code of Conduct for the Candidates of JNUEE 2021
6 Procedure of Declaration of Result 22-23
6.1 Display of attempted question paper and provisional answer key
for challenge
6.2 Re-evaluation/re-checking of result
6.3 Percentile and Normalization procedure
7. Procedure for Appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT) 24-27
8. Miscellaneous Provisions 28-29
8.1 Common Services Centres/Facilitation Centres
8.2 Test Practice Centres (TPCs)
8.3 Query Redressal System
8.4 Correspondence with NTA
8.5 Weeding Out Rules
8.6 Legal Jurisdiction
 ANNEXURE
I. LIST OF STATES AND CITIES FOR JNUEE 2021 EXAMINATION 30-31
II. MAJOR SUBJECT GROUP AND SUB-SUBJECTS FOR DEGREE 32
PROGRAMMES
III. SCHEDULE OF EXAMINATION OF JNUEE 2021 33-40
IV. FORM OF CASTE CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES 41
BELONGING TO SC/ST CATEGORIES
V. FORM OF CERTIFICTE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD 42-43
CLASSES NCL)
VI. CERTIFICATE OF DISABILITY 44-46
(A-C)
VII. CERTIFICATE REGARDING PHYSICAL LIMITATION IN AN EXAMINEE TO 47
WRITE
VIII. LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE 48
IX. INCOME & ASSEST CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY 49
ECONOMICALLY WEAKER SECTION
X. COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 50-56
XI. NTA: TEST PRACTICE CENTRES (TPCs) 57
XII. REPLICA OF APPLICATION FORM 58-84
XIII. PROCEDURE TO BE ADOPTED FOR COMPILATION OF NTA SCORES 85-88
FOR MULTI SESSION PAPERS
XIV. Eligibility Criteria and Subject wise Qualifications for admission 89
 IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
(Please refer to Information Bulletin for details)

1. FEE DETAILS AND IMPORTANT DATES:

Online Submission of Application Form 27 Jul to 27 Aug, 2021 (upto 5:00 pm)
Last Date of Successful Transaction of Fee through 27 Aug, 2021 ( upto 11:50 pm)
Credit/Debit Card/Net-Banking/UPI

Fee Payable by candidates (JNUEE) in INR

BA (Hons.) 1st Year, B.Sc.-M.Sc.
Ph.D, M.Tech., MPH
integrated and all part time
MA, M.Sc., MCA, PGD
No. of programmes Foreign
Choices General SC/ST/Pw General Nationals
SC/ST/PwD
Category/E D& BPL Category/ BPL
& OBC**
WS*** OBC** EWS***
For 1
Rs.530/- * Rs.310/- * Rs.110/-* Rs.400/-* Rs. 265/-* Rs. 65/-* Rs. 2567/-*
Choice
For 2
Rs.800/-* Rs.415/- * Rs. 215/-* Rs. 575/-* Rs. 325/-* Rs. 125/-* Rs. 5501/-*
Choices
For 3
Rs.1000/-* Rs.500/- * Rs. 300/-* Rs. 750/-* Rs. 380/-* Rs. 180/-* Rs. 7335/-*
Choices
* Plus service charges of the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway Integrator, as applicable.

Correction in Particulars of Application Form on 1-Sep-2021 to 3-Sep-2021

Website only
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website 08 Sep, 2021

Dates of Examination 20, 21, 22, 23 Sep 2021

Duration of Examination 03 Hours (180 minutes)

First Session: 09:30 am to 12:30 pm
Timing of Examination
Second Session: 02:30 pm to 05:30 pm
Centre, Date and Shift of Examination As indicated on the Admit Card
Display of Recorded Responses and Answer Keys To be announced later
Website https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in, www.jnu.ac.in
**Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the
candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not
in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2020-U1 dated 17.01.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher
Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in
Central Educational Institutions.

2. Candidates can apply for JNUEE 2021 “Online” only on the website https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in .
3. Online Application Form may be submitted by accessing NTA website
https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in. The Application Form other than online mode will not be accepted,
in any case.
4. (i) Applicants can opt for maximum of three fields of study of their choice for the same level
of Programme for appearing in the Entrance Examination. Single Application Form should
indicate order of preference of fields of study for admission.

(ii) While selecting the Field of Study candidate should consult the schedule of examination
which appears at Annexure-III before indicating the preference with a view to ensure that
there is no clash in the entrance examination schedule. The University assumes no
responsibility if the candidate, despite caution, have opted for more than one field of study for
which the examinations have been scheduled simultaneously.

(iii) Option(s) once exercised shall be final and no change of option(s) shall be allowed. The
preference wise option given by the candidate in Online Application will be considered as final
e.g. a candidate who has been selected for a discipline falling under higher preference will have
no claim for other preferences of the same level of Programme. In other words, if a candidate
gets selected in disciplines of higher preference, he/she will be offered admission only in that.

(iv) If a candidate submits more than one Application Form for the same level of Programme,
all his/her Application Form shall summarily be rejected.

(v) A candidate who successfully completes a programme in one particular language/subject

may not be entitled for admission to same level of programme (language/subject) again. The
candidate may be allowed one more chance to get admission in other language/ subject.
Further, the candidate who fails to complete the programme successfully in the first two
chances will not be given admission third time in the same language/ subject under any
circumstances. This will be applicable to all programmes of study being offered by the
University.

Reverse admission in a lower program of study after completing a higher program of study in
the same subject would not be permitted.

5. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin and on NTA
website https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in, www.nta.ac.in. Candidates not complying with the
instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
6. Candidates must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online
Application Form are their own as all information/ communication will be sent by NTA through
e-mail on the given e-mail address or SMS on given mobile number only.
7. Instructions for filling Online Application Form:
❖ Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read these carefully to
ensure your eligibility.
❖ Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:
 Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No.
Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated
Application No.
Step-3: Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb - 200 kb) and
Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4kb - 30kb) in JPG/JPEG format.
Step-4: Pay fee using SBI/Canara Bank/Paytm Payment Gateway through Debit
Card/Credit Card/Net Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the
Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is
cancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the
candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not
generated.
8. The candidates invited for viva-voce/those finally selected for admission will be intimated on
their e-mail id. Alternatively, candidates can access the intimation on the JNU website
www.jnu.ac.in. They are advised to make timely arrangements to appear for the viva-voce and
for joining the Programme, as the case may be. The University will not issue any paper
intimation to the candidates.
9. Candidates are advised to check JNU admission link regularly on website www.jnu.ac.in.
10. It will be in the interest of candidates selected for admission to report for registration and join
the Programme of study immediately after the commencement of registration process.

Note:
1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and step-4 are not
complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any
circumstances.
3. The entire application process of JNUEE 2021 is online, including uploading of scanned images,
Payment of Fees, and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not required to
send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA through Post/ Fax/ by Hand.
4. Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website regularly for latest examination related
updates and to check their e-mails.

Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instrument/ Geometry/ Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of
Paper/ Stationery/ Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables and Water (loose or packed),
Mobile Phone/ Ear Phone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape
Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices
in the Examination Hall/Room.
Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/ orange) and
transparent water bottle to the Examination Hall. However, they will not be allowed to carry packed foods
like chocolates/candy/sandwich etc.
 DISCLAIMER
1. Candidates are advised to read the Information Bulletin carefully and go through the instructions
regarding filling of Online Application Form given on JNUEE 2021 website https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in,
www.nta.ac.in before starting online registration.
2. Candidate should ensure that all information entered during the online registration process is correct.
3. Online information provided by candidates like name of candidate, gender, contact/ address details,
category, PwD status, educational qualification details, date of birth, etc during online registration for
JNUEE2021 will be treated as correct/final and NTA will not entertain, under any circumstances, any
request for change in information provided by the candidates.
4. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by the
candidate(s) during online registration process.
5. NTA does not edit /modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after completion of
registration process under any circumstances. Any request for change in information thereafter will not
be entertained. Therefore, aspirants are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling up correct details
in registration system.
Usage of Data and Information:
NTA can use the data provided by the End User (test taker in this case) for internal purpose(s) including training,
research and development, analysis and other permissible purpose(s)
 CHAPTER – 1
INTRODUCTION

1.1 ABOUT NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY (NTA)

The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), which is now known as Ministry of
Education (MOE), Government of India (GOI) has established National Testing Agency (NTA)
as an independent autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization under
Society Registration Act, 1860 for conducting efficient, transparent and international
standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier
higher education institutions.

The objectives of NTA, inter-alia, include:

i. To conduct efficient, transparent and international standard tests in order to assess the
competency of candidates for admission.
ii. To undertake research on educational, professional and testing system to identify gaps
in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
iii. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional
development standards.

The National Testing Agency (NTA) has been entrusted with the conduct of Jawaharlal Nehru
University Entrance Examination (JNUEE) since 2019 onwards.

1.2 JAWAHARLAL NEHRU UNIVERSITY (JNU)

The Jawaharlal Nehru University, constituted under the Jawaharlal Nehru University Act 1966
(53 of 1966) came into existence in 1969. The approach of the University has been to evolve
policies and programmes which will make JNU a distinct addition to the national resources in
higher education.

The University has the following Schools of inter-disciplinary research and teaching besides
some Special Centres of Study:

(i) School of International Studies (xi) School of Sanskrit and Indic Studies
(ii) School of Language, Literature and (xii) School of Engineering
Culture Studies (xiii) Atal Bihari Vajpayee School of
(iii) School of Social Sciences Management and Entrepreneurship
(iv) School of Arts and Aesthetics (xiv) Special Centre for E-Learning
(v) School of Life Sciences (xv) Special Centre for Molecular Medicine
(vi) School of Environmental Sciences (xvi) Special Centre for the Study of Law and
(vii) School of Computer and Systems Governance
Sciences (xvii) Special Centre for Nano Sciences
(viii) School of Physical Sciences (xviii) Special Centre for Disaster Research

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 (ix) School of Computational and (xix) Special Centre for the Study of North
Integrative Sciences East India
(x) School of Biotechnology (xx) Special Centre for National Security
Studies
(xxi) Special Centre for Systems Medicine

1.3 ABOUT JNUEE (JNU ENTRANCE EXAMINATION)

Admission to JNU is based on the performance of candidates in the All India Level Entrance
Examination, which is known as the Jawaharlal Nehru University Entrance Examination
(JNUEE). The final selection is based upon the performance of candidates in the CBT for all
programmes of study (except Ph.D.). For Selection in Ph.D. through Computer Based Test
(CBT) mode, candidates are called for viva voce and final merit list is made with 70%
weightage to CBT score and 30% weightage to Viva. For details, JNU e-Prospectus 2021-22
available on JNU website: https://www.jnu.ac.in/sites/default/files/admission/e-Prospectus-
2021-22.pdf may be referred to.

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 CHAPTER - 2
GENERAL INFORMATION

2.1 MAJOR SUBJECT GROUPS AND SUB-SUBJECTS FOR DEGREE PROGRAMMES

Bachelor, Master and Doctoral degrees as well as certain Diploma Certificates are awarded by
Schools & Special Centres of JNU mentioned at Annexure-II.

2.2 SCHEDULE OF EXAMINATION

Schedule for important examination related activities has been given in the following table.
However, candidates are requested to keep themselves updated about the schedule through
NTA and JNU websites https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in, www.jnu.ac.in.

Schedule of Examination

Online Submission of Application Form 27 Jul to 27 Aug, 2021 (upto 5:00 pm)
Last Date of Successful Transaction of Fee
27 Aug, 2021 (upto 11:50 pm)
through Credit/Debit Card/Net-Banking/UPI
Correction in Particulars of Application Form on
1-Sep-2021 to 3-Sep-2021
Website only
Downloading of Admit Cards from NTA website 08 Sep, 2021

Dates of Examination 20, 21, 22, 23 Sep 2021

Duration of Examination 03 Hours (180 minutes)

First Session: 09:30 am to 12:30 pm

Timing of Examination
Second Session: 02:30 pm to 05:30 pm

Centre, Date and Shift of Examination As indicated on the Admit Card

Display of Recorded Responses and Answer Keys To be announced later

https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in,
Website
www.jnu.ac.in
Note: The detailed schedule of examination is given at Annexure-III.

2.3 SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

Mode of Examination LAN Based CBT (Computer Based Test)

Duration 3 Hours
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Question
Number of Questions* 100
Marks per question* 1 (one) for each correct response
Scoring No negative marking for incorrect response
Medium of Paper English only (Language courses may have
exception)
(*may vary in certain subjects depending upon the nature of the subject)

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2.4 SYLLABUS FOR THE TEST

The Question Papers for the test (JNUEE 2021) shall be based on the syllabus prescribed by
the JNU which is available at website https://www.jnu.ac.in/sites/default/files/admission/e-
Prospectus-2021-22.pdf and https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in.

2.5 RESERVATION POLICY

The admissions will be given as per the reservation policy of the Government of India.

Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes (SC)/Scheduled Tribes (ST) applicants as

mentioned at Annexure -IV.

• 15% of the total numbers of seats are reserved for applicants belonging to Scheduled
Caste and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribes.
• Applicant must note that caste Certificate from any person/ authority, other than the
Competent Authority empowered to issue such certificate, shall not be accepted in any
case.
• The Caste Certificate should clearly state:

(a) Name of caste/ tribe of the candidate,

(b) whether the applicant belongs to SC or ST,
(c) District and the State or Union Territory of applicant’s usual place of residence and
(d) The appropriate Govt. of India schedule under which the candidate’s caste/ tribe is
approved as SC or ST.

• If applicants do not have the SC or ST certificate at the time of final registration after the
selection, the applicant may upload the acknowledgement slip of the SC or ST
caste/tribe certificate application. However, at the time of admission, the applicant will
have to produce the valid SC or ST caste/tribe certificate. If an SC or ST applicant seeks
admission under general/unreserved category, the applicant should satisfy the minimum
eligibility requirement for that category.
• SC/ST students who get admission under open merit (unreserved) will not be included in
the reserved quota, i.e. (15% + 7.5%)

Reservation of seats for Other Backward Classes (Non-creamy Layer, (Central list) applicants
as mentioned at Annexure -V.

• 27% seats will be reserved for the applicants belonging to Other Backward Classes
(OBCs)-non-creamy layer (Central list).
• At the time of admission of an OBC applicant, the University will verify that the caste of
the candidate is included in the Central List of OBC. The OBC status is to be determined
on the basis of the Central List of OBCs notified by the Ministry of Social Justice and

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 Empowerment on the recommendations of the National Commission for Backward
Classes available on the following website: http://ncbc.nic.in/home.aspx
• The certificate must mention non-creamy layer status of the applicant (Non-creamy
layer status issued by an authority mentioned in DOPT Office Memorandum No.
36012/22/93-Estt. (SCT) dated 15.11.1993).
• The OBC applicants who belong to the ‘Non-Creamy Layer’ and whose caste appears in
the Central List of the OBCs only, shall be eligible to be considered for admission under
the OBC category (Validity period of OBC certificate in respect of ‘creamy layer’ status of
the applicants as per DOPT Office Memorandum No.36036/2/2013-Estt. (Res-I) dated 31
March 2017 or as amended from time to time). The validity of the non-creamy layer
certificate shall be for the financial year 2020-21.
• If the applicant does not have the latest OBC non-creamy layer certificate at the time of
upload, the applicant may upload old OBC non-creamy layer certificate or latest
acknowledgement slip of OBC non-creamy layer certificate application. However, at the
time of admission, the applicant will have to invariably produce the latest OBC non-
creamy layer certificate.

The following are authorised to issue the SC/ST/OBC-NCL certificate:

(a) District Magistrate/ Additional District Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/

Addl. Deputy Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/ 1st class Stipendiary Magistrate/ City
Magistrate/ Sub-Divisional Magistrate/ Taluka Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra
Assistant Commissioner
(b) Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Addl. Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate
(c) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar
(d) Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the Applicant and/ or his family normally
resides
(e) Administrator/ Secretary to the Administrator/ Development Officer (Lakshadweep
Islands)

Reservation of seats for Persons with Disabilities (PwD)

As per the provisions of Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016, not less than five
percent (5%) seats are reserved in admission for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities, where
“person with benchmark disability” means a person with not less than forty percent (40%) of
a specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and
includes a person with disability, as certified by the certifying authority.

Reservation of 5% seats in respect of PWD candidates shall be done horizontally, as per the
Government of India Guidelines/Policy.

Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016 states the following:

Persons with benchmark disabilities (PwD) means a person with not less than forty percent
(40%) of a specified disability where specified disability has not been defined in measurable

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terms and includes a person with disability where specified disability has been defined in
measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.

“Specified Disability” means the disabilities as specified in the Schedule of the RPwD Act 2016.
The categories of disabilities are:

(i) Blindness and low vision

(ii) Deaf and hard of hearing
(iii) Locomotor disability including cerebral palsy, leprosy cured, dwarfism, acid attack
victims and muscular dystrophy
(iv) Autism, intellectual disability, specified learning disability and mental illness, and
(v) Multiple disabilities from amongst persons under clauses (i) to (iv)
(vi) Other ‘specified disabilities’ mentioned in the Schedule of the RPwD Act 2016.

Please refer to Office Memorandum issued by Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
dated 29 August 2018 (F.No.34-02/2015-DD-III), Guideline IV, second paragraph.

The facility of Scribe/Reader/Lab Assistant should be allowed to any person with

benchmark disability as defined under section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016 and has limitation
in writing including that of speed if so desired by him/her.

In case of persons with benchmark disabilities in the category of blindness, Locomotor

disability (both arms affected- BA) and cerebral palsy, the facility of scribe/reader/lab
assistant shall be given, if so desired by the person.

In case of other category of persons with benchmark disabilities, the provision of

scribe/reader/lab assistant can be allowed on production of a certificate to the effect that the
person concerned has physical limitation to write, and scribe is essential to write examination
on his behalf, from the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon Medical Superintendent of a
Government health care institution.

The order further allows the candidate to opt for their own scribe/reader provided the
qualification of the scribe is one step below the qualification of the candidate taking the
examination. The candidate with bench-mark disabilities opting for their own scribe/reader
should submit details of their own scribe.

Twenty minutes per hour compensatory time for duration of examination will also be allowed
to the candidates who are availing the facility of scribe/reader/lab assistant.

Important Note: No change in the candidates’ category will be allowed after the last
date specified by NTA for JNUEE -2021 Application (and no subsequent changes will
be effective after release of NTA JNUEE Score 2021).

Reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for admission to various programmes
of studies mentioned at Annexure IX.

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 In accordance with the provisions of the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment)
Act 2019, and with reference to OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated 17 January, 2019 of
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, provision of reservation for the economically
weaker Section (EWS) who are not covered under the existing scheme of reservation for the
Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes
in Admission will be ensured. Reservation shall be extended to EWS category candidates in
all programmes. Guidelines issued by Government of India from time to time regarding
criteria for Income and Assets, issuing authority/verification of certificate shall be followed by
the University for implementing EWS reservation.

Quantum of Reservation

The persons belonging to EWS who are not covered under the scheme of reservation for SC,
ST and OBC-NCL shall get 10% reservation in Admission to various programmes of study.

Criteria of Income & Assets

Persons who are not covered under the existing scheme of reservations for the Scheduled
Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes and whose
family has gross annual income below Rs. 8.00 lakh (Rupees eight lakh only) are to be
identified as EWS for the benefit of reservation. Family for this purpose will include the
person who seeks benefit of reservation, his/her parents and siblings below the age of 18
years as also his/her spouse and children below the age of 18 years. The income shall include
income from all sources i.e. salary, agriculture, business, profession etc. and it will be income
for the financial year prior to the year of application, also persons whose family owns or
possesses any of the following assets shall be excluded from being identified as EWS,
irrespective of the family income:

i. 5 acres of Agricultural Land and above;

ii. Residential flat of 1000 sq. ft. and above;
iii. Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities;
iv. Residential plot of 210 sq. yards and above in areas other than the notified
municipalities.

Income and Asset Certificate issuing Authority

The income and assets of the families as mentioned in criteria of Income & Assets would be
required to be certified by an officer not below the rank of Tehsildar in the States/UTs in the
prescribed format as given in Annexure-IX.

2.6 RELAXATION FOR ADMISSION

Relaxation for admission to M. Tech, MPH, Post Graduate, PG Diploma, Under Graduate
and Part-Time programmes: All OBC category (Non Creamy Layer) candidates are eligible to
10% relaxation in the percentage of marks in the qualifying examination in relation to open

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 category. The SC/ST and Person with Disability (PWD) candidates who have passed the
qualifying examination irrespective of their percentage of marks are eligible to appear in the
Entrance Examination.

Relaxation for admission to Ph.D programmes

A relaxation of 5% marks from 55% to 50%, or an equivalent relaxation of grade may be

allowed for those belonging to SC/ST /OBC (non-creamy layer)/ PWD as per the decision of
the UGC from time to time.

All SC/ST /OBC and PWD candidates are required to submit certificate in respect of their
claims from the authorized officers as notified by the Government of India for the purpose
from time to time.

2.7 CITIES FOR EXAMINATION CENTRES

• A State-wise Cities for Exam Centres for JNUEE 2021 Examination is given in Annexure–I.
• While applying, candidates must select four Examination City Centres in order of their
preference. Since the seating capacity at each centre is limited, the allotment of the
examination city centres would be based upon first come-first serve basis.
• NTA may change/shift the examination city opted by the candidate to another nearby
centre due to administrative/ logistics reason.
• The Examination City, once opted, shall not be changed. The Admit Card will be
uploaded on NTA website https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in, www.jnu.ac.in. Candidate must
check their admit card carefully for Name, Subject Group, Date of Birth, Gender,
Examination Centre Name, City, and Category, etc. In case of any problem related to
Admit Card, they may contact at the given helpline numbers between 10:00 am and
5:00 pm.

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 CHAPTER - 3
ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA AND QUALIFICATIONS

3.1 GENERAL CRITERIA AND SUBJECT WISE QUALIFICATIONS FOR ADMISSION

The eligibility Criteria and Subject wise Qualifications for admission are given in Annexure-
XIV.

3.2 AGE LIMIT

The Minimum Age limit for B.A. (Hons.) Programme is 17 years as on 1st October 2021. There
is no age bar for any other programme.

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 CHAPTER - 4
REGISTRATION AND APPLICATION PROCESS

4.1 INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATION FORM

Candidates may apply for JNUEE 2021 in “Online” Mode ONLY by accessing the website
https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in, www.jnu.ac.in. The Application Form in other than online mode
would not be accepted, in any case. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate
for the same level of programme. More than one application i.e. Multiple application
forms submitted by a candidate will be summarily rejected.

In order to appear in JNUEE 2021, the candidates are required to apply online as per
procedure detailed below. Before filling and submitting the online form, candidates should
download the Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form; and read them
carefully. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as given in the Information Bulletin
on NTA website. Application Forms not complying with the instructions are liable to be
rejected.

Candidates must keep following information ready before filling online Application Form:-

▪ Govt Identity Details like Aadhaar Number (last 4 digits)/Election Card (EPIC
No.)/Passport number/Ration Card Number/ Bank Account Number/PAN Number/
Other valid Govt Ids.
▪ Address for communication, Mobile Number, email id, etc.
▪ Scanned images of latest Photograph (size of 10 kb to 200 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
▪ Scanned image of Signature (size of 4 kb to 30 kb) in JPG/ JPEG format only
▪ Bank Account details for payment of Fee, for uploading as part of submission of online
application.

To avoid any kind of inconvenience or last minute rush or unforeseen difficulties,

candidates are advised to submit Online Application Form without waiting for the last date.
NTA will not be responsible for network problems or any other problem of this nature in
submission of online application during the last day.

(a) Particulars to be filled in the Online Application Form:

Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, please keep the
following information ready with you:

❖ Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name,

Father’s Name and Date of Birth
❖ Type of Identification – Bank A/c Number/ Passport Number/ Ration Card/
Aadhar Card/Election ID/Other Govt ID
❖ Qualifying Degree Certificate or last semester marksheet

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❖ Your Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address with Pin Code.
❖ Four cities for Centres of your choice (Refer Annexure-I for Codes)
❖ Category Certificate, if applicable
❖ Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Certificate, if applicable
❖ Person with Disability (PwD) Certificate, if applicable
❖ e-mail address and Mobile Number of candidates
❖ Scanned images in JPG/JPEG format only:

Candidate’s scanned Photograph File size must be between 10 kb and 200 kb.

Candidate’s scanned Signature in File size must be between 4 kb and 30 kb.

running hand

Part I: Registration
Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application No.

(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name:

Provide Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name, Father’s Name as given in the
Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University Certificate in
capital letters

(ii) Date of Birth: dd/mm/yyyy

Provide Candidate’s date of birth as recorded in Secondary School
Examination or equivalent Board/ University certificate.

(iii) Mobile Number and e-mail Address :

Candidates must provide own Mobile Number and e-mail address.

Note: Only one e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for one application

PART II: Complete the Application Form

Fill in the complete Application Form
(i) Other Backward Classes (OBC)-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of
Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward
Classes (NCBC), Government of India website (www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the
candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State
list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose
General.
(ii) Economically Weaker Section (EWS) - As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II
dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the
Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and
15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding
implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for
admission in Central Educational Institutions.

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(iii) Provide complete postal address with PIN Code (Mailing Address as well as
Permanent Address) for further correspondence. PIN code of Correspondence
Address should be given in the space provided for this purpose.

Note: The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay/loss in postal transit or for an
incorrect Correspondence address given by the Applicant in the Application Form.

(iv) Choice of Cities for Examination Centres: The candidate should select any
four cities of their choice for examination of JNUEE 2021 given at Annexure-I.
(v) Under no circumstances the choice of cities for Centre and JNUEE subject
filled in the Application Form shall be changed by the NTA.

PART III: Uploading of scanned photograph and signature

(i) Candidate’s Photograph
• The photograph must be taken recently. Photograph should not be with cap
or goggles. 80% of the face should be clearly visible, with a white
background.
• Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
• Polaroid and Computer-generated photos are not acceptable.
• Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear
photographs are liable to be rejected.
• Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is
fabricated i.e. de-shaped or seems to be hand-made or computer made,
the form of the candidate will be rejected and the same would be
considered as using unfair means and the candidate would be dealt with
accordingly.
• Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph needs
not be attested.
• Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size coloured photographs
with white background.
• Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application
Form and also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the examination centre.
• The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for uploading.
File size must be between 10 kb and 200 kb.

(ii) Candidate’s Signature

The candidates are required to upload their full signature in running

handwriting in the appropriate box given in the Online Application Form.
Writing full name in the Box in Capital letters would not be accepted as
signature and the Application Form be rejected. Further, unsigned Online
Application Forms will also be rejected.

• The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Black Ink

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 pen and scan for uploading.
• File size must be between 4 kb and 30 kb.

Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper.

PART IV: Fee payment

Fee Payable by candidates (JNUEE) in INR

Ph.D, M.Tech., MPH BA (Hons.) 1st Year B.Sc.-M.Sc. integrated
MA, MSc., MCA, PGD and all part time programmes
No. of Foreign
General General
Choices SC/ST/PwD SC/ST/PwD Nationals
Category/ BPL Category/ BPL
& OBC** & OBC**
EWS*** EWS***
For 1
Rs.530/- * Rs.310/- * Rs.110/-* Rs.400/-* Rs. 265/-* Rs. 65/-* Rs. 2567/-*
Choice
For 2 Rs. 125/-
Rs.800/-* Rs.415/- * Rs. 215/-* Rs. 575/-* Rs. 325/-* Rs. 5501/-*
Choices *
For 3 Rs. 180/-
Rs.1000/-* Rs.500/- * Rs. 300/-* Rs. 750/-* Rs. 380/-* Rs. 7335/-*
Choices *
*Plus service charges of the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway Integrator, as applicable.

(b) Check List for filling the Online Application Form:

The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the Online
Application Form:

(i) Whether they fulfill the eligibility conditions for the Test as prescribed under the
heading ‘Conditions of Eligibility’ and ‘Age Limit’.
(ii) That they have filled their category viz General/OBC (Non-Creamy
Layer)/SC/ST/EWS/PwD/ Transgender, in the relevant column correctly.
(iii) That they have filled their Subject and City of examination and code in the
relevant column correctly.
(iv) That the Person with Disability (PwD) candidate has filled the relevant column in
the Online Application Form. Only PwD candidates have to fill this column and
the others have to leave it blank.
(v) Whether they have downloaded and kept a Printout of Application Form
(confirmation page) for their own record.

(c) Important Points to Note:

(i) The candidates, before submitting the Online Application Form, shall ensure their
eligibility to appear in the test.
(ii) The Candidates should fill their complete postal address with PIN Code for further
correspondence. The NTA shall not be held responsible for any loss due to
incorrect address given by the applicant in the Online Application Form.
(iii) The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in
the Online Application Form are their own (which cannot be changed later) as
communication may be sent by NTA through e-mail or SMS.
(iv) The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-mail ID of

Page | 13
 Coaching Centre in the Online Application Form.
In order to appear in JNUEE-2021, the candidates are required to apply ‘online’.
The Application Form other than online mode shall not be accepted. No change
will be accepted through offline mode i.e. through fax/application including e-
mail etc.
(v) Online submission of application may be done by accessing the NTA official
website: https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in.
(vi) Online Application Form cannot be withdrawn once it is submitted successfully.
(vii) Application Form of candidates who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria shall be
rejected.
(viii) A candidate is allowed to submit only one Application Form. If a candidate
submits more than one Application Form, the candidature is likely to be
cancelled.
(ix) Request for change in any particular in the Application Form shall not be
entertained under any circumstances.

Note: However, a chance may be given to the candidates to correct/modify/edit some of

the particular(s) of the application form online only during correction period.

(x) The Centres (Cities) indicated for the entrance examination by a candidate is only
an option. The actual Centre and shift shall be allotted by NTA and it shall be
final. No correspondence in this regard shall be entertained. It is mandatory for
candidates to fill all four choices as options.
(xi) Selection of a candidate in the test is provisional subject to being found otherwise
eligible for admission/appointment.
(xii) In case a candidate is found providing incorrect information or the identity is
proved to be false at any time in the future, the candidate shall face penal action
as per the law.
(xiii) The Candidates are not required to send/ submit the Confirmation Page of Online
Application Form to the NTA. However, he/she is advised to retain the following
documents with them as reference for future correspondence:

❖ Copy of the Confirmation Page of Online Application Form

❖ Proof of fee paid
❖ Photographs (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) – 6 to 8
passport size photographs need to be kept aside

(xiv) The name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown on
the Admit Card. If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage,
candidate must show the relevant document at the time of exam. Marriage
Certificate/Divorce/Degree/Legal Name Change Document

(xv) In case of any technical issue or due to a natural disaster, if an exam in a

particular shift/subject has to be rescheduled, NTA may follow the process of
normalization of the two test forms as per policy (Annexure-XIII).

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 (d) Provision of Aadhaar:

The Aadhaar number is only one of the types of identification and is not mandatory.
Candidates may also enter Passport number, Ration Card number, Bank Account
number or any other valid Government identity number.

4.2 REPLICA OF APPLICATION FORM

The Replica of the JNUEE-2021 Application Format is available at Annexure-XII.

4.3 STEPS TO COMPLETE THE APPLICATION PROCESS

Application Form may be submitted in four simple steps:

❖ Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:

Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No.
Step-2: Fill in the complete Application Form
Step-3: Uploading of scanned photo and signature
Step-4: Pay fee using SBI/ Canara Bank/ Paytm Payment Gateway through Debit
Card/Credit Card/Net Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the Confirmation
Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is cancelled, and
amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the candidate has to
make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not generated.
❖ Download, save and print copies of Confirmation Page after successful remittance of fee
and keep copies safely for future reference.
❖ All the 4 Steps can be done together or at separate times.

Step 1 Apply for Online Registration using unique Email Id and Mobile No.
Step 2 Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated
Application No.
Step 3 Upload scanned images of Candidate’s Photograph (file size: 10 kb - 200 kb) and
Candidate’s Signature (file size: 4kb - 30kb) in JPG/JPEG format.
Step 4 Pay fee using SBI/ Canara Bank/ Paytm Payment Gateway through Debit
Card/Credit Card/Net Banking/UPI and keep proof of fee paid. In case the
Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee then the transaction is
cancelled, and amount will be refunded to the candidate’s account. However, the
candidate has to make another transaction, in case the Confirmation Page is not
generated.

Page | 15
 Note:
1. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-3 and step-4
are not complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will
be entertained.
2. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under
any circumstances.
3. The entire application process of JNUEE 2021 is online, including uploading of scanned
images, Payment of Fees, and Printing of Confirmation Page. Therefore, candidates are not
required to send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation Page to NTA through
Post/ Fax/ by Hand/E-mails.

4.4 APPLICATION FEE

Application Fee Payable by the Candidates of Various Categories:

Fee Payable by candidates (JNUEE) 2021 in INR

BA (Hons.) 1st Year B.Sc.-M.Sc.
Ph.D, M.Tech., MPH
integrated and all part time
MA, MSc., MCA, PGD
No. of programmes Foreign
Choices General General Nationals
SC/ST/Pw SC/ST/Pw
Category/ BPL Category/ BPL
D & OBC** D & OBC**
EWS*** EWS***
For 1
Rs.530/- * Rs.310/- * Rs.110/-* Rs.400/-* Rs. 265/-* Rs. 65/-* Rs. 2567/-*
Choice
For 2
Rs.800/-* Rs.415/- * Rs. 215/-* Rs. 575/-* Rs. 325/-* Rs. 125/-* Rs. 5501/-*
Choices
For 3
Rs.1000/-* Rs.500/- * Rs. 300/-* Rs. 750/-* Rs. 380/-* Rs. 180/-* Rs. 7335/-*
Choices
*Plus service charges of the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway Integrator, as applicable.
**Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available
on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in.
Only the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates
who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General/Unreserved.
***As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 of MHRD Department of
Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for
admission in Central Educational Institutions.

4.5 METHOD OF FEE PAYMENT

After completing Step 3 of online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination
fee (Step 4) by choosing the following options:

1. Through Debit/Credit card – Candidates need to check the validity of the Debit/Credit
Card, while logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should
enter the information asked for and make the required payment through Debit/Credit
Card.

Page | 16
 2. Through Net Banking - Check the balance in account and keep all credentials ready while
logging on to website for submitting Application Form. Candidate should Login with
his/her credentials of net banking and make payment through Net Banking.

3. Through UPI/ Paytm Services

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:

• If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is
cancelled. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee
status.
• For cancelled transactions, the amount may automatically get refunded to credit/debit card of
the Candidate as per the norms of the concerned bank.
• Generation of Confirmation Page confirms the final submission of Application Form. If
Confirmation Page has not been generated, this means that Application Form has not been
submitted successfully.

4.6 ADMIT CARD FOR JNUEE 2021

The Admit Card is issued provisionally to the candidates, subject to their satisfying the
eligibility conditions.

The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website and appear for the
Examination at the given Centre on the Date and Shift (Timing) as indicated in his/her Admit
Card.

No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination centre, on Date and Timings
other than that allotted to them in their Admit card.

In case a candidate is unable to download Admit Card from the website, he/ she may
approach the Help Line between 10:00 am and 5:00 pm.

In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and
signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately
approach the Help Line between 10:00 am and 5:00 pm. In such cases, candidates would
appear in the examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will
take necessary action to make correction in the record later.

The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and follow
them during the conduct of the examination.

Page | 17
Note:

a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for JNUEE 2021 would be issued at the
Examination Centres.
c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future
reference.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be
incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned
Applications) or who do not fulfil the eligibility criteria for the examination.
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility
which shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process

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 CHAPTER - 5
CONDUCT OF EXAMINATION

5.1 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

(Candidates are advised to go through Instructions printed on Admit Card carefully before
going for the Examination)

1. Candidates MUST bring the following documents on the day of examination at the test
centre. Candidates who will not bring these will not be allowed to appear in the
examination.

A. Print copy of Admit Card downloaded from NTA website

B. One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form)
for pasting on the specific space in the attendance sheet at the Centre during the
Examination
C. Any one of the authorized Govt. photo IDs (original, valid and non-expired), viz.
PAN card/ Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/
Aadhaar Enrolment No/ Ration Card
D. PwD certificate issued by the Competent Authority, if claiming the relaxation under
PwD category

Note:
1. The name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown on
the Admit Card.
2. If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must
show the relevant document at the time of exam. Marriage
Certificate/Divorce/Decree/Legal Name Change Document.

2. The candidates shall report at the Examination Centre two hours before the
commencement of the examination so as to complete the frisking and registration
formalities well before the time.
3. Registration desk will close 60 minutes prior to the examination. Candidates shall not
be permitted to enter in the Examination Centre after 08:30 am in first session and
after 01:30 pm in second session.
4. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the admit card carefully and
follow them during the conduct of the examination.
5. Candidates should take their seat immediately after opening of the examination hall. If
the candidates do not report in time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam, train/bus delay
etc., they are likely to miss some of the general instructions to be announced in the
Examination Rooms/Halls. The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay.
6. The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card for entry in the examination
room/hall. A candidate who does not possess the valid Admit Card shall not be allowed
to enter the examination centre.

Page | 19
 7. Candidates should find and sit on their allocated seat only. Any candidate found to have
changed room/hall or the seat on his/her own other than allotted would be considered
as a case of unfair means and the candidature shall be cancelled and no plea would be
accepted.
8. The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer is as
per the opted Subject Group indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject of
question paper is other than the opted paper, the same may be brought to the notice
of the Invigilator concerned.
9. Candidates are not allowed to carry any baggage inside the Examination Centre. NTA
will not be responsible for any belongings stolen or lost at the premises.
10. Candidate shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on Date and shift as indicated in
their Admit Card issued by the NTA. Under no circumstances the cities for centre and
shift provided in the Admit Card shall be changed.
11. No candidate, without the special permission of the Centre Superintendent or the
Invigilator concerned, will leave his/her seat or Examination Room/Hall until the full
duration of the paper is over. Candidates must follow the instructions strictly as
instructed by the Centre Superintendent/Invigilators. Candidates should not leave the
room/hall without handing over their rough sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall.
12. Candidates should not be in possession of any material listed in the list of prohibited
material.
13. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the
centre in the examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test, candidates must
hand over the rough sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
14. The candidates must sign and paste the photograph on the Attendance Sheet at the
appropriate place.
15. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the NTA with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
rules.
16. Candidate may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any
technical assistance, first aid emergency or any other information during the course of
examination.
17. For any queries or issues regarding Computer Based Test, the candidates may contact
the Help Desk contact no. : 011-40759000 and Email : jnu@nta.ac.in

IMPORTANT: For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of test for any
reason, re-test shall not be held by the NTA under any circumstances.

5.2 PROHIBITED MATERIALS

Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, Calculators, Docu Pen, Slide Rules,
Log Tables and Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written material,
bits of papers, mobile phone, Blue-tooth devices, pager or any other electronic gadget/
device etc.
• The candidates are prohibited to bring any kind of electronic gadgets/device in the

Page | 20
 examination room/hall.
• If any candidate is in possession of any of the above item, his/ her candidature will be
treated as unfair means and lead to cancellation of the current examination and also
debar the candidate for future examination(s) & the material will be seized.
• Smoking, chewing gutka, spitting etc. in the Examination Room/Hall is strictly
prohibited.
• Instrument/Geometry/Pencil box, Handbag, Purse or Any kind of Paper/ Stationery,
Eatables/snacks and Tea/coffee/cold drinks/Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Ear
Phone/Microphone/Pager, Calculator, Camera, Tape Recorder, any metallic item or
electronic gadgets etc. are NOT allowed in the examination Room/Hall.
Diabetic students will be allowed to carry eatables like sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/
apple/orange) and transparent water bottle to the examination hall. However, they will
not be allowed to carry packed foods like chocolate/candy/sandwich etc.

5.3 CODE OF CONDUCT FOR THE CANDIDATES OF JNUEE-2021

(Candidates are advised to go through instructions printed on Admit Card carefully before
going for the Examination)

The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the NTA with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per rules.

(i) If Candidates are found to be in possession of any of the following items, their
candidature will be treated as cancelled and the candidate will be debarred for future
examination(s). The items/material will be seized and the case treated as one of ‘unfair
means’.

Any textual material, Calculators, Docu Pen, Slide Rules, Log Tables and Electronic
Watches with facilities of calculator, printed or written material, bits of papers, mobile
phone, Blue-tooth devices, pager or any other electronic gadget/device etc.

(ii) Candidates shall maintain perfect silence and attend to their Question Paper only. Any
conversation or gesticulation or disturbance in the Examination Room/Hall shall be
deemed as misbehaviour.

(iii) Candidates must not obtain or attempt to obtain or give assistance of any kind during the
examination. This will entail expulsion and cancellation of candidature for the
examination.

(iv) If a candidate is found using unfair means or impersonating, his/her candidature shall be
cancelled and he/she will be liable to be debarred for taking examination either
permanently or for a specified period according to the nature of offence.

Page | 21
 CHAPTER-6
PROCEDURE OF DECLARATION OF RESULT

6.1 DISPLAY OF ATTEMPTED QUESTION PAPER AND PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY FOR
CHALLENGE

• The NTA will display Answer Key of the questions on the NTA website www.nta.ac.in,
https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in to provide an opportunity to the candidates to challenge the
Answer Key. The Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for two to three days.
• The Candidates will be given an opportunity to make a challenge online against the
Answer Key on payment of Rs. 200/- (non-refundable) per question challenged as
processing charges.
• The NTA will also display the question paper attempted by the candidate for all the
candidates on the NTA website prior to declaration of result. The recorded responses
are likely to be displayed for two to three days.
• The NTA’s decision on the challenges shall be final and the result will be declared on
the basis of final answer keys. No grievances/representation with regard to Answer
Key(s) after declaration of result will be entertained

Note:
If a question for any reason is found to be wrong, the benefit of marks will be given to only
those candidates who attempted the question. On examining of the representations by the
subject experts, if it is found that along with the original answer key one more option(s) is
correct, then marks will be awarded to all those candidates who have attempted any one of the
correct options.

6.2 RE-EVALUATION/RE-CHECKING OF RESULT

There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of result. No correspondence in this regard shall

be entertained.

6.3 PERCENTILE AND NORMALIZATION PROCEDURE:

(i) For multi-shift papers, raw marks obtained by the candidates in different shifts/sessions
will be converted to NTA Score (percentile).

(ii) The detailed procedure on NTA Score being adopted is available on Annexure-XIII under
Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score.

(iii) In case a subject test is conducted in multi-shifts, NTA Score will be calculated
corresponding to the raw marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA Score for
the Raw Marks for all the shifts/sessions will be merged for further processing for
deciding the allocation.

Page | 22
(iv) In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the
lowest will be the eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts). For
Example: In the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a
Percentile score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78
percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in General
Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other categories to determine
eligibility cut-offs. In case the examination is held in more number of shifts the same
principle shall apply.

Page | 23
 CHAPTER -7
PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)

7.1 PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) (ANNEXURE-X)

(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating Roll Number will be allocated to each candidate.
Candidates should find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found
to have changed room/hall or the computer on their own rather than the one allotted
would be liable to cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would be
entertained.

(b) The computer terminal allotted to the candidate will display Welcome login screen,
Candidate’s photograph and NET subject opted by the candidate. For login, the
candidate will have to enter login-ID and password.

(c) After logging in, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the
examination. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding
the type of questions and Marking Scheme. At the designated time of start of the
examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions on the
computer screen.

The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire
duration of the examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to
questions can either be entered by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric
or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by clicking the chosen option(s) using the
computer mouse.

Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime
during the entire duration of the examination.

In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the
test, the candidate will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time
lost due to this will be adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted
time.

(d) The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The
countdown timer in the top right side of computer screen will display the time
remaining (in minutes) available for the candidate to complete the examination. When
the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. Candidate will not be required
to end or submit the examination.

(e) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each
question using one of the following text/colour codes/symbols.

Page | 24
 You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question, but have marked the question for
review.
The question(s) “answered and marked for Review” will be considered for
evaluation.

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that
candidate would like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of
answering a question and simultaneously placing it under “Marked for Review”, these
answers will be considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked
for Review” for a question without answering it, the corresponding question ‘Marked for
Review’ without an answer will not be considered for evaluation. It may be noted that a
candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question any time during the examination
by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the Question Palette
of the corresponding section.

(f) Candidate can click on an arrow/symbol which appears to the left of question palette to
collapse the question palette thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the
question palette again, candidate can click on arrow/symbol which appears on the right side
of question window.

(g) Candidate can click to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question
area, without scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the
question viewing area for viewing the entire question.

(h) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of
the screen.

(i) Blank Sheets for doing rough work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The
Blanks Sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name
and Roll Number. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the Blank Sheets
provided at the Centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test,
candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

(j) Navigating to a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:

(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to
that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer
to the currently displayed question.

Page | 25
 (b) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer of any question. Clicking on “Save & Next”
will save the answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on
the candidate’s computer screen.
(c) Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it)
and proceed to the next question.

(k) Answering a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:

(i) Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:

(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or
click on the “Clear Response” button.
(c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for
Review & Next” button.

(l) Navigating through sections:

(a) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in
a section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which
candidate is currently viewing will be highlighted.
(b) After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
(c) Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections any time during
the examination as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.
(d) Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that
appears in every section above the question palette.

(m) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual key
board (numeric or otherwise):

(a) Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed
just below the question statement of these type of questions) and the attached
computer mouse to enter his/her answer in the space provided for answer.
(b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the
answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
(c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for
Review & Next” button.

Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any
question, anytime during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer
to a question that has already been answered, first select the corresponding

Page | 26
 question from the Question Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the
previously entered answer and subsequently follow the procedure for answering
that type of question.

(n) Rough Work:

All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the
Centre in the examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must
hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

Page | 27
 CHAPTER – 8
MISCELLANEOUS PROVISIONS

8.1 COMMON SERVICES CENTRES/FACILITATION CENTRES

Candidates who are not well conversant to submit the online application due to various
constraints, can use the services of Common Services Centre, Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology, Government of India under the Digital India initiatives of Hon’ble
Prime Minister. The Common Services Centre (CSC) scheme is a part of the ambitious national
e-Governance Plan (NeGP) of Government of India and is managed at each village panchayat
level by a Village level Entrepreneur (VLE).

There are more than 1.5 lakhs Common Services Centres (CSC) across the country which will
provide the desired support to candidates from urban as well as rural areas in online
submission of application form and payment of fee through e-wallet. The list of the Common
Services Centre is available on website: www.csc.gov.in.

8.2 TEST PRACTICE CENTRES (TPCs)

NTA has created a network of Test Practice Centres (TPC), for the candidates, especially in
remote and rural areas to enable them to practice the previous year question paper through
Mock Test and be comfortable in taking a Computer Based Test (CBT). This facility is
completely free of cost. Candidates can register online (on NTA website) where they are
provided a convenient TPC nearer to their location, to practice on a given computer node.

This facilitates and ease the process of being able to take a Computer Based Test (CBT). The
entire experience of using a computer is close to the actual experience of taking a CBT. Efforts
are made to provide practice tests and questions so that candidates can familiarize
themselves with logging into the system, go through the detailed instructions regarding the
test, use the mouse or numeric keyboard on screen (virtual) for attempting each question,
scroll down to the next question, navigate between questions, review and edit their options
and submit answers.

The TPCs are not functioning now due to the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the opening of
TPCs are subject to the improvement of Covid-19 situation.

8.3 QUERY REDRESSAL SYSTEM

National Testing Agency (NTA) has established a Query Redressal System (QRS), an online
web-enabled system developed by NTA.

• QRS is the platform based on web technology which primarily aims to enable submission
of queries/grievances by the Registered Candidate(s) of JNUEE - 2021 Examination with
(24x7) facility for speedy and favourable redressal of the queries/grievances.

Page | 28
 • A Unique Registration Number will be generated for tracking the status of the
queries/grievances.

The Registered Candidate(s) are advised to use the online facility for speedy and favourable
response before mailing their queries on the official email id of JNUEE i.e. jnu@nta.ac.in

8.4 CORRESPONDENCE WITH NTA

All the correspondence should preferably be addressed by e-mail. The email query shall be
addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name, postal address and contact
number of the sender. An email containing vague or general queries and other queries as
contained in the Information Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be
entertained from person claiming to be representatives, associates or officiates of the
applicant candidate. The following information shall not be revealed by phone or email:

a. Internal documentation/status.
b. Internal decision making process of NTA. Any claim/counter claim thereof.
c. Dates & venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which in the opinion of NTA cannot be revealed.

8.5 WEEDING OUT RULES

The record of JNUEE - 2021 Examination at NTA would be available up to 90 days from the
Date of Examination. The same would be weeded out thereafter.

8.6 LEGAL JURISDICTION

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of JNUEE-2021 Examination including Results shall fall
within the jurisdiction of Delhi only. Further, any legal question arising out of the Examination
shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration of result.

The Director (Administration) of the NTA shall be the official by whose designation the NTA
may sue or be sued.

Page | 29
 Annexure-I
List of States and Cities for JNUEE 2021 Examination

Sr. CITY Sr. CITY

STATE CITY STATE CITY
No. CODE No. CODE
1 KAKINADA AP09 36 DHANBAD JH02
2 NELLORE AP11 37 JHARKHAND JAMSHEDPUR JH03
3 ANDHRA RAJAHMUNDRY AP13 38 RANCHI JH04
4 PRADESH TIRUPATHI AP16 39 BENGALURU KK04
5 VIJAYAWADA AP17 DHARWAD/
40 KK10
HUBBALI(HUBLI)
6 VISAKHAPATNAM AP18
41 KARNATAKA GULBARGA KK08
ARUNACHAL ITANAGAR /
7 AL01 MANGALURU
PRADESH NAHARLAGUN 42 KK12
(MANGALORE)
8 GUWAHATI AM02
ASSAM 43 MYSURU(MYSORE) KK14
9 SILCHAR AM04
ALAPPUZHA/
10 AURANGABAD(BR) BR01 44 KL01
CHENGANNUR
11 BHAGALPUR BR02 ERNAKULAM/
45 ANGAMALY/ KL04
12 DARBHANGA BR04
BIHAR MOOVATTUPUZHA
13 GAYA BR05 46 KANNUR KL07
KERALA
14 PATNA BR07 47 KOLLAM KL09
15 PURNIA(PURNEA) BR08 48 KOTTAYAM KL11
CHANDIGAR CHANDIGARH/MO
16 CH01 49 KOZHIKODE KL12
H HALI/ PANCHKULA
THIRUVANANTHAP
17 CHHATTISG BILASPUR(CG) CG02 50 KL17
URAM
18 ARH RAIPUR CG03 51 LADAKH LEH LL01
19 DELHI DELHI/NEW DELHI DL01 52 BHOPAL MP03
20 GOA PANAJI/MADGAON GO01 53 GWALIOR MP06
AHMEDABAD/
21 GJ01 54 INDORE MP07
GANDHINAGAR MADHYA
22 RAJKOT GJ10 55 JABALPUR MP08
GUJARAT PRADESH
23 SURAT GJ11 56 SAGAR MP12

24 VADODARA GJ12 57 SATNA MP13

25 AMBALA HR01 58 UJJAIN MP15

26 FARIDABAD HR03 59 AMRAVATI MR03

AURANGABAD(MR
27 GURUGRAM HR04 60 MR04
)
28 HARYANA HISSAR HR05 MUMBAI/ NAVI
61 MR16
29 KARNAL HR06 MUMBAI
MAHARASH
30 KURUKSHETRA HR07 62 NAGPUR MR17
TRA
31 PANIPAT HR08 63 NANDED MR18

32 HAMIRPUR(HP) HP03 64 NASHIK MR19

HIMACHAL
33 PRADESH SHIMLA HP06 65 PUNE MR22

34 JAMMU JAMMU JK02 66 THANE MR28

AND 67 MANIPUR IMPHAL MN01
35 KASHMIR Srinagar (J&K) JK04
68 MEGHALAY SHILLONG MG01

Page | 30
Sr. CITY Sr. CITY
STATE CITY STATE CITY
No. CODE No. CODE
A HYDERABAD/
95 SECUNDERABAD/ TL01
69 MIZORAM AIZAWL MZ01 TELANGANA RANGA REDDY
70 NAGALAND DIMAPUR NL01 96 WARANGAL TL07
71 BALASORE OR02 97 TRIPURA AGARTALA TA01
72 BHUBANESWAR OR04 98 AGRA UP01
73 ODISHA CUTTACK OR05 99 ALIGARH UP02
74 ROURKELA OR08 ALLAHABAD/
100 UP03
75 SAMBALPUR OR09 PRAYAGRAJ
PUDUCHERR 101 BAREILLY UP04
76 PUDUCHERRY PO01
Y 102 GHAZIABAD UP07
77 AMRITSAR PB01 UTTAR
103 GORAKHPUR UP08
PRADESH
78 BHATINDA PB02 104 KANPUR UP11
79 PUNJAB JALANDHAR PB04 105 LUCKNOW UP12
80 LUDHIANA PB05 106 MEERUT UP14
PATIALA/FATEHGA NOIDA/ GREATER
81 PB08 107 UP09
RH SAHIB NOIDA
82 AJMER RJ01 108 VARANASI UP18
83 ALWAR RJ02 109 DEHRADUN UK01
84 BIKANER RJ05 UTTARAKHA
110 HALDWANI UK02
ND
85 JAIPUR RJ06 111 ROORKEE UK06
RAJASTHAN
86 JODHPUR RJ07 112 ASANSOL WB01
87 KOTA RJ08 113 HOOGHLY WB06
88 SIKAR RJ09 WEST
114 KALYANI WB08
BENGAL
89 UDAIPUR RJ11 115 KOLKATA WB10
90 SIKKIM GANGTOK SM01 116 SILIGURI WB11
91 CHENNAI TN01
92 TAMIL COIMBATORE TN02
93 NADU MADURAI TN08
94 TIRUCHIRAPPALLI TN14
* Subject to sufficient number of candidates available.
Note: The University reserves the right to change/cancel any Centre of Examination within India/abroad
without assigning any reason.

Page | 31
 Annexure -II
Major Subject groups and sub-subjects for Degree programmes

S.
Schools Subjects
No
M.A. Ph.D. M.Sc. MPH M. MCA PGD B.A. COP DOP/
Tech (Hons.)/ ADOP
B.Sc-M.Sc.
integrated
1 School of ✓ ✓
International Studies
2 School of Language, ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓
Literature & Cultural
Studies
3 School of Social ✓ ✓ ✓
Sciences
4 School of Arts & ✓ ✓
Aesthetics
5 School of Life ✓ ✓
Sciences
6 School of ✓ ✓
Environmental
Sciences
7 School of Computer ✓ ✓ ✓
& Systems Sciences
8 School of Physical ✓ ✓
Sciences
9 School of ✓ ✓ ✓
Computational &
Integrative Sciences
10 School of ✓
Biotechnology
11 School of Sanskrit & ✓ ✓ ✓ ✓
Indic Studies
12 Special Centre for ✓
Disaster Research
13 Special Centre For ✓ ✓
Molecular Medicine
14 Special Centre for ✓ ✓
Nano Sciences
15 ABV School of ✓
Management and
Entrepreneurship
16 Special Centre for the ✓
Study of North East
India
17 Special Centre for ✓
National Security
Studies

Page | 32
 Annexure – III
Schedule of Examination of JNUEE 2021

Session-I: 20th September, 2021 (9:30 A.M. to 12:30 P.M.)

Sl. Programme Programme code Field of study code Field of study School
No.

1 Ph.D. H WASH (844) West Asian Studies SIS

2 Ph.D. H TAMH (857) Tamil SL

3 Ph.D. H ECOH (865) Economics Studies & SSS

Planning

4 Ph.D. VSAH (900) Visual Studies SAA

H
5 Ph.D. CPTH (845) Comparative Politics & SIS
H
Political Theory

6 Ph.D. Environmental Sciences SES

H ONEH (885)/
FORH (888)
7 Ph.D. Social Exclusion and SSS
H SEIH (880)
Inclusive Policy

8 M.A. M LINM(214) Linguistics SL

9 M.A. M POLM(220) Political Science SSS

10 M.Sc. M SESM (223) Environmental Science SES

11 B.Sc.-M.Sc. U AYBU (411) Ayurveda Biology SSIS

integrated

Page | 33
 Session-II: 20th September, 2021 (2:30 P.M. to 5:30 P.M.)

Sl. Programme Programme Field of study Field of study School

No. code code

1 Ph.D. H DADH (838) Diplomacy and Disarmament SIS

2 Ph.D. H ORGH (837) International Organisation SIS

3 Ph.D. H NESH (882) North East India Studies CNES

4 Ph.D. H SMEH (914) Management ABVSME

5 MPH T MPHT (145) Master of Public Health SSS

6 M.Tech T MTCT Computer Science & Technology/ Data SCSS

(157)/MTIT Science
(192)

7 M.A. M HNDM(210) Hindi SL

8 M.A. M ENGM(215) English SL

9 M.A. M URDM(211) Urdu SL

10 M.A. M ECOM(216) Economics SSS

11 M.Sc. M CMMM(233) Molecular Medicine CMM

12 COP C PALC (705), Pali, Sanskrit Computational SSIS

SCLC (706), Linguistics, Yoga Philosophy, Vedic
YOPC(707), Culture, Sanskrit
VECC (708),
SANC(709)

Page | 34
 Session-III: 21st September, 2021 (9:30 A.M. to 12:30 P.M.)

Sl. Programme Programme Field of study Field of study School

No. code code

1 Ph.D. H SOCH (875) Social System SSS

2 Ph.D. H PERH(848) Persian SL

3 Ph.D. H ARBH (849) Arabic SL

4 Ph.D. H CHNH (852) Chinese SL

5 Ph.D. H RSNH (860) Russian SL

6 Ph.D. H FRNH (853) French SL

7 Ph.D. H GERH (854) German SL

8 Ph.D. H JAPH (850) Japanese SL

9 Ph.D. H SPNH (861) Spanish SL

10 Ph.D. H KORH (851) Korean SL

11 Ph.D. H INPH (835) International Politics SIS

12 Ph.D. H POGH (836) Political Geography SIS

13 Ph.D. H PUBH (874) Public Health SSS

14 Ph.D. H TPSH(901) Theatre and Performance Studies SAA

15 Ph.D. H PHYH (898) Physical Sciences SPS

16 M.C.A. M MCAM(224) Master of Computer Applications SCSS

17 M.A. M SPHM(229) Philosophy SSS

18 M.A. M DSSM (239) Disaster Studies CDR

19 PGD T PGDT (191) Post-Graduate Diploma in Big Data SCIS

Analytics

Page | 35
 Session-IV: 21st September, 2021 (2:30 P.M. to 5:30 P.M.)

Sl. Programme Programme Field of study code Field of study School

No. code

1 Ph.D. H CHIH (832)/ KOIH (834)/ JPIH Chinese, Korean and SIS
(833) Japanese Studies

2 Ph.D. H POLH (869) Political Studies SSS

3 Ph.D. H ECNH (872) Regional Development: SSS

Economics

4 Ph.D. H EUPH (829) European Studies SIS

5 Ph.D. H SBTH (904) Biotechnology SBT

6 Ph.D. H MATH (897) Mathematical Sciences SPS

7 Ph.D. H LINH (863) Linguistics SL

8 M.A. M ANCM(219)/ History (Ancient, Medieval SSS

MEDM(218)/MODM(217) & Modern)

9 M.Sc. M SLSM(225) Life Science SLS

10 M.A. M EILM(202) Economics (with SIS

specialization in World
Economy)

11 COP C PUSC (701), MONC(702), Pashto, Mongolian, Bahasa SL

BHAC (703), URDC(704), Indonesia, Urdu, Hebrew
HEBC (710)

Page | 36
 Session V: 22nd September, 2021 (9:30 A.M. to 12:30 P.M.)

Sl. Programme Programme Field of study Field of study School

No. code code

1 Ph.D. H MODH Historical Studies (Ancient, Medieval SSS

(866)/MEDH & Modern)
(867)/ ANCH
(868)

2 Ph.D. H SCSH Computer Sciences/Microsystems SCSS

(890)/MISH
(915)

3 Ph.D. H RCAH (839) Russian & Central Asian Studies SIS

4 Ph.D. H CMMH (905) Molecular Medicine CMM

5 Ph.D. H ESPH (847) Energy Studies Programme SIS

6 M.A. M SAAM(235) Arts and Aesthetics SAA

7 M.A. M IRAM (234) International Relations and Area SIS

Studies

8 B.A. (Hons.) U JAPU (403), Japanese, Korean, Chinese, French, SL

KORU(404), German, Russian, Spanish, Arabic,
CHNU(405), Persian and Pashto
FRNU (406),
GERU (407),
RSNU (408),
SPNU (409),
ARBU (402),
PERU (401),
PUSU (410)

Page | 37
 Session-VI: 22nd September, 2021 (2:30 P.M. to 5:30 P.M.)

Sl. Programme Programme Field of study Field of study School

No. code code

1 Ph.D. H SASH (840) South Asian Studies SIS

2 Ph.D. H IASH (842) Inner Asia Studies SIS

3 Ph.D. H EDUH (876) Educational Studies SSS

4 Ph.D. H SSPH (877) Studies in Science Policy SSS

5 Ph.D. H GONH (892), Life Sciences SLS

GTWH (893),
GFOH (895),
GFIH (896)
6 Ph.D. H NNSH (908) Nano Sciences CNS

7 M.Sc. M SPSM(226) Physics SPS

8 M.A. M GEOM(221) Geography SSS

9 M.A. M PISM(201) Politics (with specialization in International SIS

Studies)
10 Advanced A URDA(502) Urdu in Mass Media SL
Diploma

Page | 38
 Session-VII: 23rd September, 2021 (9:30 A.M. to 12:30 P.M.)

Sl. No. Programme Programme Field of study code Field of study School
code

1 Ph.D. H CNSH (902) Cinema Studies SAA

2 Ph.D. H SPHH (878) Philosophy SSS

3 Ph.D. H CSMH (873) Social Science in Health SSS

4 Ph.D. H NSSH (916) National Security Studies SCNSS

5 Ph.D. H USSH (827)/LAMH United States Studies/Latin American SIS

(828) Studies

6 Ph.D. H CHEH (899) Chemical Science SPS

7 Ph.D. H Track 1 – TROH Computational Biology & Bioinformatics SCIS

(903)/ Track 2 –
TRTH (909)/ Track
3 – TRDH (910)

8 M.A. M SANM(228) Sanskrit SSIS

9 M.A. M DLSM(231) Development and Labour Studies SSS

10 M.Sc. M MATM (237) Mathematics SPS

Page | 39
 Session-VIII: 23rd September, 2021 (2:30 P.M. to 5:30 P.M.)

Sl. No. Programme Programme Field of study Field of study School

code code

1 Ph.D. H GEOH (871) Regional Development: Geography SSS

2 Ph.D. H AFSH (843) African Studies SIS

3 Ph.D. H CMSH (881) Media Studies SSS

4 Ph.D. H SANH (906) Sanskrit Studies SSIS

5 Ph.D. H ISLH (884) Informal Sector & Labour Studies SSS

6 M.Tech T NNST(182), Nano Science/Nano Electronics CNS

NNET(190)

7 M.Sc. M CHEM(227) Chemistry SPS

8 M.A. M PERM(203) Persian SL

9 M.A. M ARBM(204) Arabic SL

10 M.A. M JAPM(205) Japanese SL

11 M.A. M FRNM(208) French and Francophone Studies SL

12 M.A. M GRLM(209)/ German Literature/German SL

GRTM(230) Translation/Translation & Interpretation

13 M.A. M RSNM(212) Russian SL

14 M.A. M SPNM(213) Spanish SL

15 M.A. M CHNM(207) Chinese SL

16 M.A. M SOCM(222) Sociology SSS

17 M.A. M KORM(206) Korean SL

18 M.A. M PUSM (236) Pushto SL

Page | 40
 Annexure -IV
FORM OF CASTE CERTIFICATE TO BE PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SC/ST
CATEGORIES
Form of Certificate as prescribed in M.H.A, O.M. NO.42/21/49-N.G.S., dated 28-1-1952 as revised in Dept. of Per.& A.R.,
Letter No.36012/6/76-Estt.(S.C.T.), dated 29-10-1977, to be produced by a candidate belonging to a Scheduled Caste or
Scheduled Tribe in support of his claim.

FORM OF CASTE CERTIFICATE

This is to certify that Shri/Shrimathi*/Kumari*______________________________________ Son/daughter*
of_____________________________ of village/town* ________________________ in District/ Division*
_____________________ of the State/ Union Territory*_______________ belongs to the _____________________

Caste/Tribe* which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste Scheduled Tribe* Under:

The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950.
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950.
*The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951.
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) (Union Territories) Order, 1951.
(As amended by the Scheduled Castes and Schedules Tribes Lists (Modification Order)1956, the Bombay Reorganization
Act, 1960, the Punjab Reorganization Act, 1966, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act, 1970, the North-Eastern Areas
(Reorganization) Act, 1971 and the Scheduled Castes and Schedules Tribes Orders(Amendment) Act, 1976.)
*The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Castes Order, 1956;
*The Constitution(Andaman and Nicobar Islands) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1959, as amended by the Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes Orders(Amendment)Act, 1976;
*The Constitution(Dadra and Nagar Haveli) Scheduled Castes Order, 1962; *The Constitution (Dadra and Nagar Haveli)
Scheduled Tribes Order, 1962; *The Constitution (Pondicherry) Scheduled Castes Order,1964;
*The Constitution (Uttar Pradesh, Scheduled Tribes Order, 1967;
*The Constitution (Goa, Daman and Diu) Scheduled Castes Order, 1968; *The Constitution (Goa,
Daman and Diu) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1968;] *The Constitution (Nagaland) Scheduled Tribes Order,1970; *The
Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Castes Order, 1978;
*The Constitution (Sikkim) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1978;
*The Constitution (Jammu and Kashmir) Scheduled Tribes Order, 1989. *The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order
(Amendment) Act, 1990. *The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Amendment Act, 1991.
*The Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order Second Amendment Act,1991.

2. **This Certificate is issued on the basis of the Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes Certificate issued to Shri/Shrimathi*
________________________ father / mother*of Shri/Shrimathi/Kumari*__________________________ of
village/town*_______________ in District/Division*__________________of the State/Union Territory*
__________________ who belong to the Caste/Tribe* which is recognized as a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe* in
the State/Union Territory* ________________ issued by the __________________ dated __________.

3. Shri/Shrimathi*/Kumari*_____________________________________and /or* his/her* family ordinarily reside(s) in

village/town*__________________________of _________________________District/Division* of the State/Union
Territory* of _________________________________
Signature__________________
Designation_________________
(With seal of office)
State/ Union Territory ______________
Place_______________
Date________________

Note: - The term “Ordinarily resides” used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the Representation of the
Peoples Act, 1950.
Please delete the words which are not applicable. Applicable in the case of SCs, STs persons who have migrated from one
State/UT.
The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificates are indicated below:
(i) District Magistrate / Additional Magistrate / Collector / Deputy Commissioner / Additional Deputy Commissioner/
Deputy Collector / Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate / Sub-Divisional Magistrate / Taluka Magistrate / Executive
Magistrate / Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of Ist Class Stipendiary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate / Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate / Presidency Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Officer not below the rank of Tehsildar, and Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and / or
his family resides.

Page | 41
 Annexure -V
OBC Non-Creamy Layer (NCL) Certificate Format

FORM OF CERTIFICTE TO BE PRODUCED BY OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES NCL) APPLYING FOR

ADMISSION TO CENTRAL EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS (CEIs), UNDER THE GOVERNMENT OF INDIA

This to certify that Shri/Smt./Kum* _____________________________ Son/ Daughter* of Shri/Smt.*

____________________________________ of Village/ Town*___________________ District/ Division*
________________________ in the State/Union Territory _________________ belongs to the
_________________________________ community that is recognized as a backward class under Government
of India**, Ministry of Social justice and Empowerment’s Resolution No. _________________________ dated
_______________________________***.

Shri/Smt./Kum.* ____________________________ and his/ her family ordinarily reside(s) in the

____________________________________ District/Division of the _______________________ State/
Union Territory. This is also to certify that he/she does NOT belong to the persons/ sections (Creamy Layer)
mentioned in Column 3 of the Schedule to the Government of India, Department of Personnel & Training O.M.
No. 36012/22/93 Estt. (SCT) dated 08/09/93 which is amended vide OM No. 36033/2004 Estt. (Res.) dated
09/03/2004, further amended vide OM No. 36036/2/2013 Estt. (Res.) dtd. 30/05/2014**** or as amended
from time to time.

Place: District Magistrate/Deputy Commissioner/

Dated: Any other Competent Authority
(With seal of the Office)

*- Please delete word(s) which are not applicable.

**- As listed in the Annexure (for FORM OBC NCL).
***- The authority issuing the certificate needs to mention the details of Resolution of Government of India, in
which the caste of the candidate is mentioned as OBC.
****- As amended from time to time.

Note:
(a) The term ‘Ordinarily resides’ used here will have the same meaning as in Section 20 of the
Representation of the people Act, 1950.
(b) The authorities competent to issue Caste Certificates are indicated below:
(i) District Magistrate/ Additional Magistrate/ Collector/ Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Deputy
Commissioner/ Deputy Collector/ 1st Class Magistrate/ Sub Divisional magistrate/ Taluka
Magistrate/ Executive Magistrate/ Extra Assistant Commissioner (not below the rank of 1 st Class
Stipendiary Magistrate).
(ii) Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/ Presidency Magistrate.
(iii) Revenue Office not below the rank of Tehsildar’ and
(iv) Sub Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or his family resides.

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 Declaration by the Candidate in Lieu of OBC-NCL Certificate

Name of the Candidate: ______________________________

Address: ______________________________

______________________________ Passport Size

Photo
______________________________

Mobile No: ______________________________

E mail: ______________________________

I understand that as per the new guidelines from the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and pensions,
GoI, I am required to submit OBC-NCL certificate issued on or after April 2020.

Since I have not been able to collect the said certificate on time, I may kindly be allowed to appear in JNUEE
2021-22 provisionally and I will upload the OBC-NCL certificate (issued on or after April 1, 2020) at the
University web portal at the earliest. I understand that failure to do so will lead to the withdrawal of OBC-NCL
benefit. I also understand that, if qualified, my category will be adjusted accordingly in the Common Rank list.

Signature of Father/ Mother Signature of Applicant:

Name: ________________ Date:

Date: ________________

Page | 43
 Annexure –VI (A)
Certificate of Disability
(In case of amputation or complete permanent paralysis of limbs or dwarfism and in case of blindness)
[See rule 18 (1)]
(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate)

Recent passport size

attested photograph

(Showing face only)

of the person with
disability.

Certificate No.______________ Date: _________________

This is to certify that I have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum._________________________

Son/wife/daughter of Shri _____________________ Date of birth (DD/MM/YY) ________________ Age
___________ Years, male/female _______________ registration No. ______________________ Permanent
resident of House No. __________________ Ward/Village/Street _________________ Post office
______________ District __________________ State ____________________, whose photograph is affixed
above, and am satisfied that:

(A) he/she is a case of:

• Locomotor disability
• dwarfism
• blindness
(Please tick as applicable)

(B) The diagnosis in his/her case is __________________.

(A) he/she has _________% (in figure) ______________________ percent (in words) permanent
locomotor disability/ dwarfism/ blindness in relation to his/her ____________ (Part of body) as per
guidelines (_______________ number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified).

2. The applicant has submitted the following documents as proof of residence: -

Nature of Document Date of Issue Details of authority issuing certificate

(Signature and Seal of Authorised Signatory of

notified Medical Authority)
Signature/thumb impression
of the person in whose favour
certificate of disability is
issued

Page | 44
 Annexure - VI (B)
Certificate of Disability
(In case of multiple disabilities)
[See rule 18 (1)] Recent passport size
attested photograph
(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate) (Showing face only)
of the person with
disability.

Certificate No. ________________ Date: _____________

This is to certify that we have carefully examined Shri/Smt./Kum. ______________________ Son/wife/daughter of Shri
__________________ Date of birth (DD/MM/YY) ____________ Age ____________Years, male/female _____________________.
Registration No. ______________ Permanent resident of House No. _______________Ward/Village/Street _______________
Post Office _______________ District _____________ State _____________ whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied
that:
(A) he/she is a case of Multiple Disability. His/her extent of permanent physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per
guidelines (____________ number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified) for the disabilities ticked below, and is
shown against the relevant disability in the table below:

Sl. No. Disability Affected part of body Diagnosis Permanent physical impairment/mental disability (in
%)
1. Locomotor disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy cured
4. Dwarfism
5. Cerebal Palsy
6. Acid attack Victim
7. Low vision #
8. Blindness #
9. Deaf £
10. Hard of Hearing £
11. Speech and Language disability
12. Intellectual Disability
13. Specific Learning Disability
14. Autism Spectrum Disorder
15. Mental Illness
16. Chronic Neurological Conditions
17. Multiple sclerosis
18. Parkinson’s disease
19. Haemophilia
20. Thalassemia
21. Sickle Cell disease

(B) In the light of the above, his/her over all permanent physical impairment as per guidelines ( ______________ number and date
of issue of the guidelines to be specified ), is as follows:-
In figure:- _________________________________ percent
In words:- _________________________________ percent
2. This condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/ not likely to improve.
3. Reassessment of disability is:
(i) Not necessary, or
(ii) is recommended/after ________ years ______ months, and therefore this certificate shall be valid till _____ _____ ____
(DD) (MM) (YY)
@ - e.g. Left/right/both arms/legs
# - e.g. Single eye
€ - e.g. Left/Right/both ears
4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-
Nature of document Date of issue Details of authority issuing certificate

5. Signature and seal of the Medical Authority.

Name and Seal of Member Name and Seal of Member Name and Seal of the Chairperson

Signature/thumb impression
of the person in whose favour
certificate of disability is
issued.
Page | 45
 Annexure - VI (C)

Certificate of Disability
(In case other than those mentioned in forms V and VI) Recent passport
size attested
(Name and Address of the Medical Authority issuing the Certificate)
photograph
[See rule 18 (1)]
(Showing face only)
Certificate No.___________________ Date: _________________ of the person with
disability.

This is to certify that we have carefully examined Shri/Smt/Kum.________________________ Son/wife/daughter of

Shri__________________ Date of birth (DD/MM/YY) _________ Age____ Years, male/female ____________ Registration No.
______________ Permanent resident of House No. __________ Ward/Village/Street ________________ post office
_________________ District ____________ State ______________, whose photograph is affixed above, and am satisfied that
he/she is a case of __________disability. His/her extent of percentage physical impairment/disability has been evaluated as per
guidelines (____________ number and date of issue of the guidelines to be specified) and is shown against the relevant disability
in the table below: -
Sl. No. Disability Affected part of body Diagnosis Permanent physical
impairment/mental disability (in %)
1. Locomotor disability @
2. Muscular Dystrophy
3. Leprosy cured
4. Cerebal Palsy
5. Acid attack Victim
6. Low vision #
7. Deaf £
8. Hard of Hearing £
9. Speech and Language
disability
10. Intellectual Disability
11. Specific Learning Disability
12. Autism Spectrum Disorder
13. Mental illness
14. Chronic Neurological
Conditions
15. Multiple sclerosis
16. Parkinson’s disease
17. Haemophilia
18. Thalassemia
19. Sickle Cell disease
(Please strike out the disabilities which are not applicable)
2. The above condition is progressive/non-progressive/likely to improve/ not likely to improve.
3. Reassessment of disability is:
(i) not necessary, or
(ii) is recommended/after _____________ years _____________ months, and therefore this certificate shall be valid till
(DD)/(MM)/(YY) _____ _____ ____
@ - e.g. Left/right/both arms/legs
# - e.g. Single eye/ both eyes
€ - e.g. Left/Right/both ears
4. The applicant has submitted the following document as proof of residence:-
Nature of document Date of issue Details of authority issuing certificate

Signature/thumb impression of (Authorised Signatory of notified Medical Authority)

the person in whose favour (Name and Seal)
certificate of disability is issued.
{Countersignature and seal of the
Chief Medical officer/medical superintendent/Head of Government hospital,
in case the Certificate is issued by a medical authority
who is Not a Government servant (with seal)}
Note: In case this certificate is issued by a medical authority who is not a Government servant, it shall be valid only if
countersigned by the Chief Medical Officer of the District

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 ANNEXURE VII

Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examinee to write

This is to certify that, I have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs ___________________________ (name of the candidate

with disability), a person with _________________________ (nature and percentage of disability as

mentioned in the certificate of disability), S / o / D / o ____________________________, a resident of

___________________________ (Village/District/State) and to state that he/she has physical limitation which

hampers his/her writing capabilities owing to his/her disability.

Signature
Chief Medical Officer/ Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a
Government health care institution

Name & Designation

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal
Place:
Date:

Note: Certificate should be given by a specialist of the relevant stream/disability (e.g. Visual impairment –
Ophthalmologist, Locomotor disability – Orthopaedic specialist/PMR).

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 ANNEXURE VIII

Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe

I ____________________________, a candidate with __________________ (name of the disability) appearing

for the _______________________ (name of the examination) bearing Roll No. ____________________ at

________________ (name of the centre) in the District _____________________________,

_______________________ (name of the State). My qualification is ________________________.

I do hereby state that __________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service of scribe/reader/lab

assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid examination.

I do hereby undertake that his qualification is _______________. In case, subsequently it is found that his

qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification, I shall forfeit my right to

admission and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate with Disability)

Place:

Date:

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 Annexure –IX

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 Annexure – X
Computer Based Test (CBT)

The major examinations being conducted by NTA will be Computer Based Test (CBT). A CBT requires
candidates to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their Roll number and Admit
card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the examinations.

At the designated time of start of examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions
on the computer screen using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to change / modify
answer options already entered any time during the examination.

Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT):

A computer terminal (node) indicating System Number will be allocated to each candidate. Candidates should
find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to have changed room/hall or the
computer on their own other than the one allotted would lead to cancellation of candidature and no plea in
this regard would be entertained.

• For First login, the candidate will have to enter Roll Number. The computer terminal allotted to the
candidate will display Candidate’s photograph and other details. Candidate need to verify before
proceeding to Exam Login will display welcome page.

Candidate First Login Page

• After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination. Candidates are
advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions and marking scheme. At
the designated time of start of the examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the
questions on the computer screen.

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Candidate Welcome Screen

Candidate Instruction Screen

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Candidate Login Page

After reading the instructions, candidate may proceed to Exam Login Page. Candidate can login by entering
Roll No., PIN and Password. The PIN format is your date of birth in format of YYYYMMDD.

The password for the candidate will be announced by the Invigilator.

Exam Start Screen

On clicking on ‘Login’ button, exam paper details will appear. On clicking the ‘Start Exam’ button candidate can
start the examination.

Exam Screen

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Functionality available on Exam Screen

• A radio button is provided against each answer option for a question. Select one answer by clicking on
the respective radio button.

• On Top right side on the test screen, you’ll find increase text font size options Font+, Font-.
A+ Zoom In: Increase the font Size
A- Zoom Out: Decrease the font size

• To answer a question, Click on the button against the chosen option among the given four options.
• To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option.
• To unselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the Clear
Response button

Click on Clear Response, will clear response against that respective question only.

• To save your answer, you MUST click on Next button

- To go to the next question.

• The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that
question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will
be considered in the evaluation

- To mark question to attempt review later.

• To remove Marked for review of the question, click on Unmark Review other it will be considered for
evaluation.

- To Unmark Review the question.

• The Question Palette displayed on the right side of the test screen will show the status of each
question using one of the following symbols:

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• The countdown timer in the top right corner of the Test screen will display the remaining time
available in hours, minutes and seconds (HH:MM:SS)for you to complete the Test. When the timer
reaches zero, automatically the test will end.

• Question Palette on the right hand side of the Test screen is meant for randomly choosing to question
for answering.

• Click on the Question number in the Question Palette to go to the question directly. Note that using
this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.

• Note that ONLY Questions for which answers are saved or marked for review after answering will be
considered for evaluation. The un-attempted questions will be considered as zero marks in the
evaluation.
• You can visit to any question anytime during the test as per your convenience only during the time
stipulated.

• Click on Exam Status to view the summary of the Test

• By clicking the ‘Exam Status’ button below status screen appear. Candidate can go back to the exam
screen by clicking the ‘Back’ button.

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 • Clicking on End Exam button will submit the entire test. You will not be able to revisit the test again or
the test will auto submit once the test duration is completed.

- To submit answers after completing the test.

• You will get two warning messages before the final submission of the exam

• You will see the Final screen with ‘Thank You’ message

General Instruction to Candidate:

The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the examination.
Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by clicking on the virtual
on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by clicking the chosen option(s)
using the computer mouse.

Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime during the entire duration
of the examination.

In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, he/she will be
immediately allotted another computer system and exam timer will be automatically stopped.

Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any question, anytime during the entire
duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that has already been answered, first select the

Page | 55
corresponding question from the Question Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously
entered answer and subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

Rough Work:

All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the centre in the examination
Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall.

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 Annexure – XI
NTA: Test Practice Centres (TPCs)

What is a Test Practice Centre (TPCs)?

The Ministry of Education has mandated the NTA to set up, establish and create a network of Test Practice
Centres for candidates, especially in remote and rural areas to enable them to practice and be comfortable in
taking a Computer Based Test (CBT). This facility is completely free of cost. Candidates can register online (on
NTA website) where they are provided a convenient TPC near to their location to practice on a given computer
node. This facilitates and eases the process of being able to take a Computer Based Test (CBT). The entire
experience of using a computer is close to the actual experience of taking a CBT. All efforts are made to
provide practice tests and questions so that candidates can familiarize themselves with logging into the
system, go through the detailed instructions regarding the test, use the mouse or numeric keyboard on screen
(virtual) for attempting each question, scroll down to the next question, navigate between questions, review
and edit their options and submit questions.

The objective of TPCs is primarily to organize test practice for the upcoming NTA examinations.

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 Annexure-XII
Replica of Application Form

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 Mode of Payment of Fee/ Service Provider / Service Charges

After completing Step-3 of Online Application Form, candidates may remit the examination fee (Step -4) by
choosing the following options : -

Online Mode i.e. Debit/ Credit card, Net Banking and Unified Payment Interface (UPI) :

▪ Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on to website for
submitting application form. Candidate should enter the information asked for and make payment
through Debit/ Credit Card.
▪ Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready with you while
logging on to website for submitting application form. Candidate should Login with his/her credentials of
net banking and make payment through Net Banking.

Please select any Mode of Payment/Service Provider : -

S. Mode of
CANARA BANK STATE BANK OF INDIA PAYTM
No Payment
Canara Bank NIL Charge SBI
1 Net Banking Other Rs Rs 4 +GST
Other Banks 5.00 + GST
Banks 5.00+GST

Only Rupay Only Rupay Card,

All Debit Canara Bank or Only Rupay Card, No
2 Card, No No charge.
Card Other Banks charge
charge

0.80% of
Domestic
0.80% of Fee Domestic Fee+ GST 0.4%+GST
Domestic (Minimum
+ GST (Minimum
Rs. 12)
Rs 11/-)
3 Credit Card
3.50% of
2.35% of International Fee+ GST 3.5%+GST
International International
Fee+ GST (Minimum
Rs 11/-)
Unified
NIL
Payment
4
Interface
(UPI)
PAYTM 1.1%+GST
Wallet
Charge

Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’ the candidates are advised as following:-

(i) If the fee is paid through credit/debit card and status is not OK, it means the transaction is cancelled.
Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.
(ii) For cancelled transactions, the amount will, automatically, be refunded by the concerned Bank to
concerned credit/debit card within 15 days of last date of submission of Application Form.

Page | 83
HELPLINE FOR PAYMENT RELATED QUERIES /GRIEVANCES:

(a) If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):

Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number

1 CMS Team merchant@sbi.co.in
2 Helpdesk1 dgmcs.cc@sbi.co.in 18004253800
3 Customer Care agmcustomer.Ihodel@sbi.co.in 1800112211
4 Helpdesk2 sbi.05222@sbi.co.in 08026599990/ 0120-
2497771
5 Through SMS UNHAPPY (add text) 8008202020

(b) If Paying through Canara Bank:

Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Helpdesk pgsupport@billdesk.com
Complaint
2 Management genadmnronoida@canarabank.com
9984021340
Services
3 Customer Care genadmnronoida@canarabank.com
4 Through SMS genadmnronoida@canarabank.com

(c) If Paying through PAYTM:

Sl. Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Helpdesk education.support@paytm.com 0120 4789525
2 Ankush education.support@paytm.com 0120 4789526

(d) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (in case the payment related issues are not resolved through the
above mentioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator):

Email: jnuee@nta.ac.in
Phone No.: 011-4075 9000

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 ANNEXURE XIII
National Testing Agency (NTA)

Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multi session Papers
(Normalization procedure based on PERCENTILE SCORE)
NTA will be conducting examinations on multiple dates, generally in two sessions per day. The candidates will
be given different sets of questions per session and it is quite possible that in spite of all efforts of maintaining
equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers administered in
different sessions may not be exactly the same. Some of the candidates may end up attempting a relatively
tougher set of questions when compared to other sets. The candidates who attempt the comparatively
tougher examination are likely to get lower marks as compared to those who attempt the easier one. In order
to overcome such a situation, “Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score” will be used for ensuring
that candidates are neither benefitted nor disadvantaged due to the difficulty level of the examination. With
the objective of ensuring that a candidate’s true merit is identified, and that a level playing field is created in
the above context, the Normalization Procedure, set out below shall be adopted, for compiling the NTA scores
for multi session papers.

The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores across multi session
papers and is similar to those being adopted in other large educational selection tests conducted in India.
For normalization across sections, NTA shall use the percentile equivalence.

Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who appear for
the examination. Basically the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each
session of examinees.

The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR BELOW (same or
lower raw scores) that particular Percentile in that examination. Therefore the topper (highest score) of each
session will get the same Percentile of 100 which is desirable. The marks obtained in between the highest
and lowest scores are also converted to appropriate Percentiles.

The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the examination (instead of the raw marks of the
candidate) and shall be used for preparation of the merit lists.

The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and reduce ties.

The Percentile score of a Candidate is calculated as follows:

100 X Number of candidates appeared in the ‘Session’ with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than the candidate
Total number of the candidates appeared in the ’Session’

Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of individual subject.
Percentile score is not the same as percentage of marks obtained.
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per details given below:-
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)

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(a) Distribution of candidates were as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2, Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and Session-4: Day-2 Shift-2

Session Day/Shift No of Candidates Marks

Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 335 -39
Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 346 -38
Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 331 -49
Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 332 -44
Total (Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 346 -49

In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw scores) will be the
100 Percentile indicating that 100% of candidates have scores equal to or lesser than the highest scorer/
topper for that session.

Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: All the highest raw scores will have normalized Percentile Score of
100 for their respective session.

Session Total Highest Candidates who Percentile Score Remarks

Candidates Raw Score scored EQUAL OR
Appeared LESS THAN Highest
Raw Score
28012 335 28012 100.0000000 i.e. all the highest
Session-1
[(28012/28012)*100] raw scores would
32541 346 32541 100.0000000 be normalized to
Session -2
[(32541/32541)*100] 100 Percentile
41326 331 41326 100.0000000 Score for their
Session -3
[(41326/41326)*100] respective session.
40603 332 40603 100.0000000
Session -4
[(40603/40603)*100]

Lowest Raw Score and Percentile Score: Percentile Score of all the lowest raw scores will depend on the
total number of candidates who have taken the examination for their respective session.

Session Total Lowest Candidates who Percentile Score Remarks

Candidates Raw Score scored EQUAL OR
Appeared LESS THAN Lowest
Raw Score
Session -1 28012 -39 1 0.0035699 i.e. Percentile Score
[(1/28012)*100] of all the lowest raw
Session -2 32541 -38 1 0.0030730 scores are different
[(1/32541)*100] i.e. Percentile Score
Session -3 41326 -49 1 0.0024198 depend on the total
[(1/41326)*100] number of
Session -4 40603 -44 1 0.0024629 candidates who have
[(1/40603)*100] taken the
examination for their
respective session.

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The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and Percentile Score in Session-
3 (Day-2 and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have taken the examination.

Candidate Percentile Score No of Raw Remark

Candidates Score
A 100.0000000 1 331 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 100% have
[(41326/41326)*100] scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the
candidate A (331 raw score).
It also indicates that no candidate has scored more
than the candidate A (331 raw score).
B 90.1224411 77 121 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
[(37244/41326)*100] 90.1224411% have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS
THAN the candidate B (121 raw score).
It also indicates that remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate B (121 raw score).
C 50.4549194 381 41 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
[(20851/41326)*100] 50.4549194% have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS
THAN the candidate C (41 raw score).
It also indicates that remaining those appeared have
scored more than candidate C (41 raw score).
D 31.7040120 789 25 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
[(13102/41326)*100] 31.7040120% have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS
THAN the candidate D (25 raw score)
It also indicates that remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate D (25 raw score).
E 1.1034216 100 -15 Indicates that amongst those appeared, 1.1034216%
[(456/41326)*100] have scored either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the
candidate E (-15 raw score)
It also indicates that remaining candidates have
scored more than candidate E (-15 raw score)

STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:

Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:

Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has approximately
equal number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:

Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2

In the event of more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates will be divided
accordingly.

This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the examination.
Further, with a large population of examinees spread over the entire country the possibility of such
bias becomes remote.

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Step-2: Preparation of Results for each Session:
The examination results for each session would be prepared in the form of
➢ Raw Scores
➢ Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores.
The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows:
Let TP1 be the Percentile Scores of Total Raw Score of that candidate.

No. of candidates appeared from the session with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than T1 score
Total Percentile (TP1):100 X
Total No. of candidates appeared in the session

Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:

The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2:
Day-1 Shift-2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and shall be called the NTA scores
which will then be used for compilation of result and further processing for deciding the allocation.

In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be the
eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In an the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile
score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile score
of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar method will be adopted
for the other categories to determine eligibility cut-offs.

In case the examination is held in more number of shifts the same principle shall apply.

Page | 88
 Annexure-XIV
The eligibility Criteria and Subject Wise Qualifications for admission

1. SCHOOL OF INTERNATIONAL STUDIES

ELIGIBILITY:
Master of Arts

Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

School Sub. Code
Number
1 School of Politics (with
International specialization
Studies in
International
Studies) –
Bachelor’s degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at least 50%
PISM (201)
marks.
2 International
Relations
and Area
Studies –
IRAM (234)
3 Economics (i) Bachelor’s degree (with 50% marks in aggregate) in the following subjects:
(with Economics (Honours) with Mathematics as a subsidiary subject; or Mathematics
specialization (Honours) with Economics as a subsidiary subject; or Statistics (Honours) with
in World Economics and Mathematics as subsidiary subjects.
Economy) – (ii) Any other Bachelor’s degree (with 60% marks in aggregate) with courses in
EILM (202) Microeconomics, Macroeconomics, Mathematical Economics and Statistics.

Ph.D.

Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

School Sub. Code
Number
1 School of Energy Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme who
International Studies have –
Studies (SIS) Programme – Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech in the field of Energy Studies, Political Science,
ESPH (847) International Relations, Economics, Defence/Strategic Studies or Area Studies with
55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a
point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil or equivalent degree with at least 55% marks of a
recognized University/Institution in the field of energy studies or allied areas (with
dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil degree with 55% marks in the field of
energy studies or allied areas with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in
Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Page | 89
Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility
Centre Sub. Code
Number

1 Centre for Latin Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme
Canadian, American who have –
US and Latin Studies – Master’s Degree in the field of Political Science, International Relations, Economics,
American LAMH (828) History, Sociology, Defence/Strategic Studies with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’
Studies in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
(CCUS&LAS) is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil or equivalent degree with at least 55% marks of a
recognized University/Institution in Political Science, International Relations,
Economics, History, Sociology or Defence/Strategic Studies (with
dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55% marks with additional one
year research experience of a recognized University/Institution and one publication
in the field of above subjects and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s Degree.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.
2 Centre for United States Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme
Canadian, Studies – who have –
US and Latin USSH (827) Master’s Degree in the field of Political Science, International Relations, Economics,
American History, Sociology, Defence/Strategic Studies with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’
Studies in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
(CCUS&LAS) is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil or equivalent degree with at least 55% marks of a
recognized University/Institution in Political Science, International Relations,
Economics, History, Sociology or Defence/Strategic Studies (with
dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55% marks with additional one
year research experience of a recognized University/Institution and one publication
in the field of above subjects and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s Degree..

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

Centre Sub. Code
Number

1 Centre for European Master’s Degree in the field of Political Science, International Relations, Economics,
European Studies – History, Sociology, Defence/Strategic Studies or MA in any of the language officially
Studies EUPH (829) recognised by the EU with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or
(CES) an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree in European Studies with at least 55% marks of a
recognized University/Institution (with dissertation/ seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil
in European Studies with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of
a recognized University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent
in Master’s Degree.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Page | 90
Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility
Centre Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Chinese Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme who
East Asian Studies – have –
Studies CHIH (832)
2 (CEAS) Japanese – Master’s Degree in Political Science, History, Economics, International Relations and
JPIH (833) Area Studies with at least 55% marks or Master Degree in Humanities and other
Social Science with 55% Marks.
3 Korean –
KOIH (834) OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree in relevant discipline (Chinese studies/Japanese

Studies/Korean Studies respectively) with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil in relevant
discipline (Chinese studies/Japanese Studies/Korean Studies respectively) with 55%
marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized
University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s
Degree/BE/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

Centre Sub. Code
Number
1 International Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme
Politics – INPH who have –
(835)
2 International Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
Centre for Organisation –
ORGH (837) followed).
International
3 Politics, Diplomacy and
OR
Organisation Disarmament –
and DADH (838)
Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
4 Disarmament Political
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with
(CIPOD) Geography – 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized
POGH (836) University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in
Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

Centre Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Russian & Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme who
Russian and Central Asian have –
Central Studies – Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point
Asian RCAH (839) scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).
Studies
(CR&CAS) OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55%
marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized
University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s
Degree/BE/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Page | 91
Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility
Centre Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for South Asian Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme who
South Asian Studies – have –
Studies SASH (840)
(CSAS) Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point
scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55%
marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized
University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s
Degree/BE/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

Centre Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Inner Asian Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme
Inner Asian Studies – who have –
Studies IASH (842)
(CIAS) Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point
scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55%
marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized
University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s
Degree/BE/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

Centre Sub. Code
Number

1 Centre for African Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme
African Studies – who have –
Studies AFSH (843)
(CAFS) Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point
scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55%
marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized
University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s
Degree/BE/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Page | 92
Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility
Centre Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for West Asian Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme who
West Asian Studies – have –
Studies WASH (844)
(CWAS) Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point
scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55%
marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized
University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s
Degree/BE/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

Centre Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Comparative Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. Programme who
Comparative Politics and have –
Politics and Political
Political Theory – Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech (with Research Methods Coursework) with minimum
Theory CPTH (845) 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7 -point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a
(CCPPT) point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil or equivalent degree with at least 55% marks from a
recognized University/Institution with compulsory coursework on Research Methods
in any disciplinary subject from Humanities, Social Science, or Liberal Arts; or One
year M.Phil Programme with 55% marks from recognized University/Institution with
compulsory coursework on Research Methods in Humanities, Social Science, or
Liberal Arts; and one publication in the field of research; or Master’s Degree with
Research Methods Coursework with 55% marks and one publication in the field of
research.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Page | 93
 2. SCHOOL OF LANGUAGE, LITERATURE AND CULTURE STUDIES

Part-time courses

The candidates who have obtained their qualification under the pattern of education other than
10+2 will be eligible for admission to the COP and DOP programmes of study if they have
successfully completed the first year of Bachelor's degree examination of a University with atleast a
minimum of 45% marks. Similarly, the candidates who have obtained their Bachelor's degree under
the pattern of education other than 10+2+3 will be considered for admission to Advanced Diploma
in Mass Media in Urdu if they have successfully completed the first year of Master's degree
programme or a bridge course in lieu thereof, wherever prescribed, from a recognised University
with atleast a minimum of 45% marks.

ELIGIBILITY:
CERTIFICATE OF PROFICIENCY

Sl. No. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Sub. Code Eligibility
Number
1 Centre for Korean Studies (CKS) COP-Mongolian – MONC
(702)
2 Centre for Chinese, South East COP-Bhasha Indonesia –
Asian Studies (CCSEAS) BHAC (703)
3 Centre for Indian Languages COP-Urdu – URDC (704) At least Senior School Certificate (10+2) or an
(CIL) examination recognized as equivalent thereto with a
4 Centre for Persian and Central COP in Pashto – PUSC minimum of 45% marks in aggregate.
Asian Studies (CPCAS) (701)
5 Centre for Arabic & African COP in Hebrew – HEBC
Studies (710)

ADVANCE DIPLOMA OF PROFICIENCY

Sl. No. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Sub. Code Number Eligibility
1 Centre for Indian Languages ADOP-Mass Media in Urdu – URDA A Bachelor’s Degree under 10+2+3 pattern of
(CIL) (502) education with a minimum of 45% marks in
aggregate with Urdu as one of the subjects at
High School or Intermediate or B.A. Level.

B.A. (Hons.) 1st year

Sl. No. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility

Code Number
1 Centre for Persian – PERU (i) Senior School Certificate (10+2) or equivalent examination with
Persian and (401) minimum of 45% marks. The candidates who are due to appear in
2 Central Asian Pashto – PUSU (410) Senior School Certificate (10+2) or equivalent examination are
Studies (CPCAS) eligible to apply.
3 Centre for Arabic – ARBU (402) (ii) Certificate of Alimiah with atleast 45% marks issued by any of the
Arabic and following Madrasas subject to the condition that the candidate has
African Studies passed English language at the level of Senior Secondary from a
(CA&AS)

Page | 94
Sl. No. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility
Code Number
4 Centre for Japanese – JAPU recognised Board/University or a three year course conducted by
Japanese Studies (403) Darul-Uloom Deoband.
(CJS) 1. Darul Uloom Deoband, U.P.
5 Centre for Korean – KORU 2. Mazahirul Uloom Saharanpur, U.P.
Korean Studies (404) 3. Darul Uloom Mau, U.P.
(CKS) 4. Miftahul Uloom, Mau, U.P.
6 Centre for Chinese – CHNU 5. Jamia Athria Darul Hadith Mau, U.P.
Chinese, South (405) 6. Jamia Faize Am Mau, U.P.
East Asian 7. Madrasa Alia Mau, U.P.
Studies (CCSEAS) 8. Madrasa Muhammadia, Mau, U.P.
7 Centre for French – FRNU (406) 9. Madrasa Faizanul Uloom Bahadurganj, Ghazipur, U.P.
French and 10. Madrasa Ihyaul Uloom Mubarkpur, Azamgarh, U.P.
Francophone 11. Tauhid Education Trust Ma’hadabad-Khagra Kishan Ganj, Bihar
Studies (CFFS) 12. Jamia Imam Ibn Taimiya, Madinatussalam, E. Champaran, Bihar
8 Centre for German – GERU (iii) (a) Certificate of Alimiah with atleast 45% marks issued by the
German Studies (407) following Madrasas
(CGS) 1. Nadwatul Ulema, Lucknow, U.P.
9 Centre for Russian – RSNU 2. Jamiatul Flah, Bilariaganj, Azamgarh, U.P.
Russian Studies (408) 3. Certificate of Fazilah from Madrasatul Islah, sarai Mir, Azamgarh,
(CRS) U.P.
10 Centre for Spanish – SPNU 4. Madrasa Jamia Islamia, Muzaffarpur, Azamgarh, U.P.
Spanish, (409) 5. Madrasa Eram Convent for Girls and Boys Indra Nagar, Lucknow,
Portuguese, U.P.
Italian and Latin 6. Jamial Muzahrul Uloom (Patna) (Degree of Fazilah)
American 7. Jamial Darul Huda al-Islamiyah (Certificate of al-Sanaviyah al-
Studies Ulia)
(CSPI&LAS) 8. Darul Uloom Alimia, Jamda Shahi, Basti, UP (Alimia Certificate)
9. Al-Jamia-Tus-Salafiah (Markazi Darul-Uloom) (Degree of Alemiat)
10. Al Jamia Al Islamiya Kerala India (V) ( Preparatoy course which is
of 2 years after senior school leaving certificate)
11. Al Jamiatul Ashrafia, Mubarak Pur, Azamgarh UP (Certificate of
Alimiat/Fazilat)
12. Jamia Syed Ahmad Shaheed, Vill. Ashmadabad (Katauli)
Malihabad, Lucknow UP (Alamiyat degree)
13. Jamiya Misbahul Uloom, Chaukonia Bharat Bhari, Siddharth
Nagar, UP ( Almiah degree)
14. Jamia Islamia Sanabil (Aaliya/Fadhil)
15. Al Jamiatul Islamiah Tilkahna, Siddarth Nagar, UP (Alimia)
16. Madrasa Arabia Islamia Wasiatul Uloom, Allahabad, UP (Alimia)
17. Mahad Aysha Al-siddiqa Qasimul Uloom Libanat, Darussalam
Abul Barakat, Deoband, UP (Almiyat).
(b) Certificate of Maulvi with atleast 45% marks issued by the Bihar
Board of Madrasa Education
(c) Certificate of Senior Secondary (Class 12) with atleast 45% marks
issued by the Urdu Education Board, New Delhi
(d) Certificate of Alima with atleast 45% marks issued by the Jamiat-
Ul-Mominath, Hyderabad
(iv) Candidates who have already pursued B.A./M.A., Language
programme in two or more Centres of the School during their entire
academic career are not eligible for admission.

Minimum Age: 17 years as on 1st October 2021.

NOTE:
1. 80% of the seats in the First Year of 3-year B.A.(Hons.) programme
in the School are earmarked for those who have either passed the
Senior School Certificate or equivalent examination in the year
2020 or are due to appear in 2021, and the remaining 20% are
open to all other candidates.

Page | 95
Sl. No. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility
Code Number
2. Candidates who have obtained their Higher Secondary Certificate
under the 10+1 pattern of education will be eligible for admission
to the First-Year of the three-year B.A. programme if they have
successfully completed the First-Year of Bachelor's degree
examination of a University under 10+1+3 pattern of education
with the prescribed percentage of marks.

Master of Arts

Candidates who have already pursued B.A. (Hons.)/M.A. Language programme in any two or more
Centres of study of the School during their entire academic career are not eligible for admission to
M.A. Language Programme.

Sl. No. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Sub. Code Eligibility
Number
1 Centre for Persian and Central Persian – PERM (203)
Asian Studies (CPCAS)
2 Pashto – PUSM (236)

3 Centre for Arabic and African Arabic – ARBM (204)

Studies (CA&AS)
4 Centre for Japanese Studies Japanese – JAPM (205) Bachelor’s degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern
(CJS) of education with at least 45% marks with adequate
5 Centre for Korean Studies Korean – KORM (206) proficiency in the concerned language.
(CKS)
6 Centre for Chinese, South East Chinese – CHNM (207)
Asian Studies (CCSEAS)
7 Centre for French and French and
Francophone Studies (CFFS) Francophone Studies –
FRNM (208)
8 Centre for German Studies German Literature –
(CGS) GRLM (209) Bachelor’s degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern
of education with at least 50% marks with adequate
9 German Translation – proficiency in German.
GRTM (230)
10 Centre for Indian Languages Hindi – HNDM (210)
(CIL)
11 Urdu – URDM (211)
Bachelor’s degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern
12 Centre for Russian Studies Russian – RSNM (212) of education with at least 45% marks with adequate
(CRS) proficiency in the concerned language.
13 Centre for Spanish, Spanish – SPNM (213)
Portuguese, Italian and Latin
American Studies (CSPI&LAS)
14 Centre for Linguistics (CL) Linguistics – LINM (214)
Bachelor’s degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern
15 Centre for English Studies English – ENGM (215) of education with at least 50% marks.
(CES)

Page | 96
 Ph.D.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Persian Persian – PERH Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
and Central Asian (848) Programme who have –
Studies (CPCAS)
Master’s Degree in Persian with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree in Persian with at least 55% marks of a
recognized University/Institution (with dissertation/ seminar/viva) or one year
M.Phil degree in Persian with 55% marks with additional one year research
experience of a recognized University/Institution, and one publication and 55%
marks or equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Arabic Arabic – ARBH Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
and African Studies (849) Programme in Arabic who have –
(CA&AS)
Master’s Degree in Arabic Language with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in
UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading
system is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree in Arabic Language and Literature with at
least 55% marks of a recognized University/Institution (with
dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil degree in Arabic Language and
Literature with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility Desirable

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Japanese – Only those candidates shall be eligible/considered for 1. Experience
Japanese Studies JAPH (850) admission to the Ph.D. Programme who have – of
(CJS) study/research
M.A. or equivalent degree in Japanese from a recognized in Japan
Indian or Foreign university with minimum 55% marks 2. Publication
in the proposed
OR field of study.

Obtained two years M.Phil in Japanese with at least 55%

marks of a recognized University/Institution (with
dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil in Japanese
with 55% marks with additional one year research experience

Page | 97
Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility Desirable
No. Sub. Code
Number
of a recognized University/Institution, and one publication
and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the

UGC Regulations 2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Korean Korean – Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
Studies (CKS) KORH (851) Programme who have –

Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-

point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil
degree with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Chinese, Chinese – Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
South East Asian CHNH (852) Programme who have –
Studies (CCSEAS)
Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil
degree with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Page | 98
Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for French French – FRNH Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
and Francophone (853) Programme who have –
Studies (CFFS)
Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil
degree with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for German German – Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
Studies (CGS) GERH (854) Programme who have –

Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-

point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil
degree with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Indian Tamil – TAMH Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
Languages (CIL) (857) Programme who have –

Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-

point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil
degree with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Page | 99
Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Sub. Code
Number
Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations
2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Russian Russian – Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
Studies (CRS) RSNH (860) Programme who have –

Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-

point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil
degree with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number

1 Centre for Spanish, Spanish – Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
Portuguese, Italian SPNH (861) Programme who have –
and Latin American
Studies (CSPI&LAS) Master’s Degree in Spanish with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree in Spanish with at least 55% marks of a
recognized University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year
M.Phil degree in Spanish with 55% marks with additional one year research
experience of a recognized University/Institution, and one publication and 55%
marks or equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Linguistics – Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D.
Linguistics (CLIN) LINH (863) Programme who have –

Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-

point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

Page | 100
Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Sub. Code
Number
OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil
degree with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Page | 101
 3. SCHOOL OF LIFE SCIENCES

ELIGIBILITY:
M.Sc.

Sl Name of School Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility

No. Code Number

1. School of Life Life Sciences –SLSM Bachelor’s (B.Sc. or B.Tech or equivalent) in Biological, Physical or
Sciences (SLS) (225) Agricultural Sciences or Biotechnology under the 10+2+3 pattern of
education with at least 55% marks.

Ph.D.

Sl Name of School Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility

No. Code Number

1. School of Life Life Sciences – Group- Master’s degree or equivalent with at least 55% marks or equivalent Grade
Sciences (SLS) I GONH (892) ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever
Grading system is followed) in Life Sciences/Biological, Physical, Chemical,
2. or Agricultural
Life Sciences Group-II
Sciences/Biotechnology/Botany/Zoology/Bioinformatics/Genetics/Microbio
– GTWH (893)
logy/ Systems Biology/ any other branch of biological sciences or MBBS with
55% marks or equivalent.
3. Life Sciences Group-IV
OR
– GFOH (895)
Master’s degree in the fields given above with 55% marks (or equivalent)
4. Life Sciences Group-V and obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks (or
– GFIH (896) equivalent) of a recognized University/Institution (with
dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55% marks (or
equivalent) with additional one year research experience of a recognized
University/Institution and one publication

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC

Regulations 2016.

Page | 102
 4. SCHOOL OF SOCIAL SCIENCES

ELIGIBILITY:
Master of Arts

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Economics- Bachelor's degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at
Economics ECOM (216) least 50% marks. Knowledge of Mathematics at 10+2 level is expected and will
studies and be tested for in the Entrance Examination.
Planning (CESP)
2 Centre for Modern History-
Historical Studies MODM (217)
(CHS)
3 Medieval Bachelor’s degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at
History – MEDM least 50% marks.
(218)
4 Ancient History
– ANCM (219)
5 Centre for Political Science Bachelor’s degree under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at least 50% marks
Political Studies – POLM (220) in Social sciences and 55% marks for those who have Bachelor’s Degree in
(CPS) science and technology disciplines.
6 Centre for the Geography- Bachelor’s degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at
Study of Regional GEOM (221) least 45% marks.
Development
(CSRD)
7 Centre for the Sociology- Bachelor’s degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at
Study of Social SOCM (222) least 45% marks.
Systems (CSSS)
8 Centre for Philosophy- Bachelor's degree under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at least 50% marks
Philosophy (CP) SPHM (229) in Social Sciences and Humanities and 55% marks in Science &
Technology disciplines.
9 Centre for Development Bachelor’s degree in any discipline under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at
Informal Sector and Labour least 50% marks.
and Labour Studies- DLSM
Studies (CIS&LS) (231)

MPH
Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre of Social Master of Public i. Bachelors level degree with minimum duration of four years in clinical
Medicine and Health - sciences viz. MBBS, AYUSH, BDS, BAMS, BUMS, BSMS, BHMS, BPT, BOT,
Community MPHT (145) B.Sc.(Nursing) and Allied Subjects/field with Minimum of 55% marks from
Health (CSMCH) a recognized University/Institution (or equivalent grade B in UGC 7-point
scale or equivalent grade in a point scale wherever grading system is
followed)

OR

ii. Masters level degree in Social Sciences, Humanities, Management,

Sciences, Technology and Allied Subjects/field with Minimum 50% marks
from a recognized University/Institution (or equivalent grade B in UGC 7-
point scale or equivalent grade in a point scale wherever grading system is
followed)

Page | 103
 Ph.D.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility Desirable

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Informal Sector Only those candidates shall be considered for In addition to (a) or (b)
Informal Sector & Labour admission to the Ph. D. Programme who have — students with
& Labour Studies- ISLH (a) Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or specialization in the
Studies (CISL) (884) equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an areas of informal sector
equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading and labour studies.
system is followed). Students from all
disciplines in Social
OR Sciences and Humanities
can apply and should
(b) Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least have 55% marks or
55% marks of a recognized University/Institution equivalent in Master’s
(with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one degree.
year M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one
year research experience of a recognized
University/ Institution, and one publication and
55% marks or equivalent in Master’s
degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD

as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Economics Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D.
Economics Studies & Programme who have —
studies and Planning - ECOH
Planning (CESP) (865) Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/ Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Modern History- Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D.
Historical MODH (866) Programme who have —
Studies (CHS)
2 Medieval History Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
– MEDH (867) point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
is followed).

Page | 104
Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Sub. Code
Number
3 Ancient History –
ANCH (868) OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/ Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Political Science Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D.
Political Studies – POLH (869) Programme who have —
(CPS)
Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/ Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility Desirable

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for the Geography- Only those candidates shall be considered for Candidates are admitted
Study of GEOH (871) admission to the Ph. D. Programme who have — to Ph.D. Programme with
Regional relevant
Development Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or eligibility/qualification in
(CSRD) equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an the field of Geography,
equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Economics, Population
2 Economics- Grading system is followed). Studies and allied/related
ECNH (872) disciplines/areas.
OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least

55% marks of a recognized University/Institution
(with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one
year M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one
year research experience of a recognized
University/ Institution, and one publication and
55% marks or equivalent in Master’s
degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD

as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Page | 105
Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre of Social Social Sciences in Social Sciences and other disciplines allied to public health; Masters degree/
Medicine and Health- CSMH M.Phil. in Social Sciences, Humanities Management, Sciences, Technology and
Community (873) allied subjects/fields with at least 55% marks from a recognized
Health (CSMCH) University/Institutions (or equivalent grade B in UGC 7-point scale or
equivalent grage in a point scale wherever grading system is followed).

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.
2 Public Health - MD/MPH/M.Sc. (Nursing)/M.Phil degree with minimum 55% marks from a
PUBH (874) recognized University/Institution (or equivalent grade B in UGC 7-point scale
or equivalent grade in a point scale wherever grading system is followed), for
candidates with, bachelors level degree with minimum duration of four years
in clinical sciences viz. MBBS, AYUSH, BDS, BAMS, BUMS, BSMS, BHMS, BPT,
BOT, B.Sc.(Nursing) and Allied Subjects/field with Minimum of 55% marks
from a recognized University/Institution (or equivalent grade B in UGC 7-point
scale or equivalent grade in a point scale wherever grading system is
followed)

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for the Social Systems - Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D.
Study of Social SOCH (875) Programme who have —
Systems (CSSS)
Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/ Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number

1 Zakir Husain Educational Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D.
Centre for Studies-EDUH Programme who have —
Education (876)
Studies (ZHCES) Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
is followed).

OR

Page | 106
Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Sub. Code
Number

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/ Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number

1 Centre for Studies in Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D.
Studies in Science Policy- Programme who have —
Science Policy SSPH (877)
(CSSP) Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/ Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for Philosophy-
Philosophy (CP) SPHH (878) Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D.
Programme who have —

Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-

point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/ Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Page | 107
Sl. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Sub. Code
Number
1 Centre for the Social Exclusion Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D.
Study of Social and Inclusive Programme who have —
Exclusion and Policy – SEIH
Inclusive Policy (880) Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system
is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/ Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility Desirable

No. Centre Sub. Code
Number

1 Centre for Media Studies- May have exposure in

Media Studies CMSH (881) Only those candidates shall be considered for Social
(CMS) admission to the Ph. D. Programme who have — Sciences/Humanities/Media
and Cultural Studies.
Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or
equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an
equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading
system is followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55%

marks of a recognized University/Institution (with
dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year
research experience of a recognized University/
Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as

per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Page | 108
 5. SCHOOL OF ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCES

ELIGIBILITY:
Master of Science

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility

No. School Code Number

1 School of Environmental B.Sc. degree or equivalent in any branch of basic or applied science under
Environmental Sciences – SESM (223) 10+2+3 pattern of education or B.E./B.Tech/MBBS with at least 55% marks.
Sciences (SES)

Ph.D.

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. School Sub. Code
Number
1 Research Area Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. programme who
I-ONEH (885) have:

M.Sc. in any branch of basic or applied sciences or BE/B.Tech/MBBS with 55% marks or
equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale
wherever Grading system is followed).
2 Research Area
School of
IV-FORH (888) OR
Environmental
Sciences (SES)
Obtained two years M.Phil in any branch of basic or applied sciences with 55% marks of
a recognized University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil in
any branch of basic or applied sciences with at least 55% marks with additional one year
research experience of a recognized University/Institutional, and one publication and
55% marks or equivalent in M.Sc.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

Page | 109
 6. SCHOOL OF COMPUTER & SYSTEMS SCIENCES

ELIGIBILITY:
MCA

Sl. Name of School Sub. Code & Sub. Code Eligibility

No. Number

1 School of Computer Master of Computer BCA/ Bachelor Degree in Computer Science Engineering or equivalent
& Systems Sciences Applications- MCAM Degree with at least 55% marks
(SC&SS) (224) OR
B.Sc./ B.Com./ B.A. with Mathematics at 10+2 Level or at Graduation
Level with at least 55% marks.

M.Tech. Programmes

Sl. Name of School Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Sub. Code
Number
1 School of Computer Master's degree in Computer Science/ Mathematics/ Statistics/ Operational
Computer & Science & Research/any branch of Science /Master of Computer Applications
Systems Sciences Technology – (MCA)/Bachelor’s degree in any branch of Engineering/ Technology with 55%
(SC&SS) MTCT (157) marks.
2 Data Science
- MTIT (192)

Ph.D.

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility

No. School Code
Number
1 School of (i) Computer The candidates interested in research in Cloud Computing, Computer Graphics,
Computer Sciences - Computer Network, Computer Vision, Databases, Data Mining, Data Warehousing,
& SCSH (890) Embedded Systems, Image Processing, Knowledge Engineering, Artificial
Systems Intelligence, Machine Learning, MEMS, Mobile Networks, Modelling and
Sciences Simulation, Natural Language Processing, Network Security, Optimization Theory,
(SC&SS) Parallel and Distributed Systems, Pattern Recognition, Programming Languages,
Software Engineering, VLSI, Web Mining and Wireless Network will be considered
for Admission to Ph.D. programme this year.

Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. programme
(ii) Microsystems who have
– MISH (915)
Master’s Degree in Computer Science or Mathematics or Statistics or Operational
Research or in any branch of Science or Master of Application (MCA) with 55%
marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7- point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a
point scale wherever Grading system is followed).
OR

Master’s Degree in Electronics or Electrical & Electronics Engineering or

Electronics & Communication Engineering or related areas with 55% marks or
equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7- point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale
wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

Page | 110
Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility
No. School Code
Number

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with Dissertation/Seminar/Viva), and with 55% marks or
equivalent Master’s degree;

OR

One year M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of
a recognized University/Institute, and one publication and with 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree;

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Page | 111
 7. SCHOOL OF PHYSICAL SCIENCES

ELIGIBILITY:
M.Sc. in Chemistry/Physics/Mathematics
Sl. Name of School Sub. Code & Sub. Code Eligibility
No. Number

1 School of Physics- SPSM (226) Bachelor’s degree (with Physics, Mathematics as main subjects) under the
Physical 10+2+3/4 pattern of education with 55% marks in the aggregate or in
Sciences (SPS) Physics Honours.
Applicants with B.E./B.Tech. in any of the Engineering disciplines with a
CGPA of at least 6.0 out of 10.0 (or equivalent percentage).
2 Chemistry – CHEM Bachelor’s degree (with Chemistry as one of the subjects) under the
(227) 10+2+3/4 pattern of education with 55% marks in the aggregate (or in
Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics combined), or in Chemistry Honours.
Applicants with B.Tech. degree (or equivalent) in
Chemical/Polymer/Petroleum Engineering with a CGPA of at least 6.0 out
of 10.0 (or equivalent percentage).
3 Mathematics – MATM Bachelor’s degree in Mathematics under the 10+2+3/4 system with at least
(237) 55% marks or equivalent, Or B.Tech. or B.E. in any of the Engineering
disciplines with a CGPA of at least 6.0 out of 10.0 (or equivalent
percentage).

Ph.D. in Chemical Sciences/Physical Sciences/Mathematical Sciences

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. School Sub. Code
Number
1 School of Mathematical Candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph.D. programme on the
Physical Sciences – MATH following basis:
Sciences (897)
(SPS) Candidates who have obtained M.Sc. degree (two years programme or five years
Integrated programme) from a recognized University/Institution in
2 Physical Sciences Mathematics/Physics/ Chemistry (for the corresponding subject) with at least 55%
– PHYH (898) marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a
point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

OR
3 Chemical Obtained two years M.Phil Degree for the corresponding subject with at least 55%
Sciences – CHEH marks of a recognized University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one
(899) year M.Phil with 55% marks with the corresponding subject with additional one
year research experience of a recognized University/Institution and one publication
and 55% marks or equivalent in M.Sc.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the latest UGC Regulation.

Page | 112
 8. SCHOOL OF COMPUTATIONAL AND INTEGRATIVE SCIENCES

ELIGIBILITY:
Post-Graduate Diploma in Big Data Analytics (PGD)

Sl. Name of School Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility

No. Code Number

1 Post-Graduate
Diploma in Big Data
School of
Analytics - PGDT M.Sc/B.Tech/B.E. in Physics/ Chemistry/ Mathematics/Computer Science/
Computational
(191) Statistics/ Operations research/Life Sciences/
and
Biotechnology/Bioinformatics/related disciplines in engineering, physical,
Integrative
and biological sciences. Minimum of 55% in the qualifying degree.
Sciences
(SC&IS)

Ph.D.

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility

No. School Code Number
1 Computational M.Sc/B.E./B.Tech in Physics/ Chemistry/ Mathematics/Computer Science/
Biology and Statistics/ Operations research/Life Sciences/
Bioinformatics - Biotechnology/Bioinformatics/engineering and related disciplines with
Track 1 – TROH minimum of 55% in the qualifying degree or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-
(903) point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).
OR
2 Computational
Biology and Candidates with Advanced Diploma (after M.Sc. degree with at least 55% marks)
Bioinformatics - in Bioinformatics are also eligible.
School of Track 2 – TRTH
Computational (909)
OR
and
3 Computational
Integrative
Biology and Obtained two years M.Phil. degree or equivalent with at least 55% marks in the
Sciences
Bioinformatics - related field like science, engineering, medical and pharmaceutical science from
(SC&IS)
Track 3 – TRDH a recognized University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) or one
(910) year M.Phil. degree with 55% marks in the related field like science,
engineering, medical and pharmaceutical science with additional one year
research experience of a recognized University/Institution, and one publication
and with minimum of 55% in the M.Sc./B.E./B.Tech in relevant field or
equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point
scale wherever Grading system is followed).

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016

Page | 113
 9. SCHOOL OF ARTS AND AESTHETICS

ELIGIBILITY:
Master of Arts
Sl. No. Name of School Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility
CodeNumber
1 School of Arts & Arts & Aesthetics- Bachelor’s degree under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at least
Aesthetics (SA&A) SAAM 50% marks.
(235)

Ph.D.
Sl. No. Name of School Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility
Code Number
1 Visual Studies – Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D.
VSAH (900) Programme who have —
Master’s Degree with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale
2 Theatre & (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).
Performance
Studies- TPSH OR
School of Arts (901)
3 & Cinema Studies- Obtained two years M.Phil degree with 55% marks of a recognized
Aesthetics CNSH (902) University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) or one year M.Phil.
(SA&A) degree with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution, and one publication and Master’s Degree
with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent
Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC regulations

2016.

Page | 114
 10. SCHOOL OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

ELIGIBILITY:
Ph.D.

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. School Sub. Code
Number
1 School of Biotechnology M.Sc. in Biotechnology, Biochemical Engineering, Biochemistry, Chemistry, Physics,
Biotechnology – SBTH (904) Mathematics or any branch of Physical or Biological or Engineering Sciences or
B.Tech/B.E. (Biotechnology/Bioengineering/Allied Areas)/MBBS with at least 55% marks
or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale
wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

M.Sc./B.Tech/B.E./MBBS with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or
an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).
OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55%
marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized
University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in
M.Sc./B.E/B.Tech./MBBS

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016

Page | 115
 11. SCHOOL OF SANSKRIT AND INDIC STUDIES

ELIGIBILITY:
B.Sc.-M.Sc. Integrated program in Ayurveda Biology

Sl. Name of School Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Code Number
1 School of Ayurveda At least Senior School Certificate (10+2) or an examination recognized as
Sanskrit and Biology - AYBU equivalent thereto with a minimum of 45% marks in aggregate.
Indic Studies ( (411)
SSIS)

Master of Arts
Sl. Name of School Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Code Number
1 School of Sanskrit – SANM Bachelor’s Degree in Sanskrit or in any other subject under (10+2+3) pattern of
Sanskrit and (228) education with at least 45% marks.
Indic Studies (
SSIS)

Ph.D.
Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. School Code
Number
1 School of Sanskrit Master's degree or equivalent in Sanskrit or in any allied subject with at least 55% marks
Sanskrit and Studies – or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale
Indic Studies SANH (906) wherever Grading system is followed).
( SSIS)
OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil with 55%
marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized
University/Institution and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s
degree.

Knowledge of Sanskrit is desirable.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.

II. Part-time Courses

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Code Eligibility

No. School Number
1 School of Pali – PALC (705)
2 Sanskrit and Sanskrit Computational
Indic Studies Linguistics – SCLC (706)
3 (SSIS) COP in Yoga Philosophy –
At least Senior School Certificate (10+2) or an examination recognized as
YOPC (707)
equivalent thereto with a minimum of 45% marks in aggregate.
4 COP in Vedic Culture –
VECC (708)
5 COP in Sanskrit – SANC
(709)

Page | 116
 12. ATAL BIHARI VAJPAYEE SCHOOL OF MANAGEMENT AND ENTREPRENEURSHIP
(ABVSME)

ELIGIBILITY:
Ph.D.
Sl. Name of School Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Code
Number
1 Atal Bihari Management Master’s Degree in Management or in a relevant discipline (such as Economics,
Vajpayee School – SMEH (914 Commerce, Statistics, Psychology, Operations Research and related areas) with at
of Management least 55% marks.
and
Entrepreneurship Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations 2016.
(ABVSME)

Page | 117
 13. SPECIAL CENTRE FOR THE STUDY OF NORTH EAST INDIA

ELIGIBILITY:

Ph.D.

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

No. Centre Sub. Code
Number

1 Special Centre North East

for the Study India Studies- Only those candidates shall be considered for admission to the Ph. D. Programme
of North East NESH (882) who have —
India
Master’s Degree/BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point
scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) is essential or one year
M.Phil. with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/ Institution, and one publication and 55% marks or
equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC Regulations

2016.

Page | 118
 14. SPECIAL CENTRE FOR MOLECULAR MEDICINE

ELIGIBILITY:
M.Sc. Programme

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Sub. Code Eligibility

No. Centre Number
1 Special Molecular Medicine- Bachelor’s degree in any branch of Basic or Applied Sciences (including
Centre for CMMM (233) MBBS/ BVSc./B.Pharm) from recognized Universities and Institutes with at
Molecular least 55% marks.
Medicine
(SCMM)

Ph.D. Programme

Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Sub. Code Eligibility

No. Centre Number

1 Special Molecular Medicine- Only those candidates shall be considered for Admission to the Ph.D.
Centre for CMMH (905) programme, who have either --
Molecular
Medicine Obtained masters degree or equivalent from recognized University
(SCMM) /institution in any branch of biological sciences /chemical sciences with at
least 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or an
equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).

OR

Obtained MBBS/M.Pharm./M.VSc/M D degree with at least 55% marks

(during 2014 or later) from a recognized University/Institution OR
Candidates with M.Tech. degree with at least 55% marks in
Biological/Chemical Sciences.

OR

Obtained two years M.Phil Degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/viva) or one year M.Phil
with 55% marks with additional one year research experience of a
recognized University/Institution and one publication and relevant
Master’s Degree with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point
scale (or an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is
followed).

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC

Regulations 2016.

Page | 119
 15. SPECIAL CENTRE FOR NANOSCIENCES

ELIGIBILITY:

M.Tech Programme in Nanoscience & Nanoelectronics

Sl. No. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility

Centre Sub. Code
Number

1 Nanoscience – Master’s degree in Science

NNST (182) or
B.E./B.Tech. in any branch of engineering and technology

with 55% marks of a recognized University/ Institution or equivalent grade ‘B’

in UGC 7-point scale or an equivalent grade in a point scale where grading
Special Centre
system is followed.
for Nano
2 Nanoelectonics – Master’s degree in Electronics
Sciences
NNET (190) or
B.E./B.Tech. in Electronics & Communications/ Electrical Engineering

with 55% marks of a recognized University/ Institution or equivalent grade ‘B’

in UGC 7-point scale or an equivalent grade in a point scale where grading
system is followed.

Ph.D.
Sl. Name of Sub. Code & Eligibility
No. Centre Sub. Code
Number
1 Special Nano Master’s degree in Science/ Engineering with 55% marks of a recognized University/
Centre for Sciences – Institution or equivalent grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale or an equivalent grade in a point
Nano NNSH (908) scale where grading system is followed.
Sciences
OR

Obtained two years M.Phil. degree with at least 55% marks of a recognized
University/Institution (with dissertation/seminar/Viva) or one year M.Phil. with 55%
marks with additional one year research experience of a recognized University/ Institution,
and one publication and 55% marks or equivalent in Master’s degree/B.E/B.Tech.

Relaxation to SC/ ST/ OBC (Non-creamy layer)/PWD as per the latest UGC regulations
implemented by JNU will be applicable.

Page | 120
 16. SPECIAL CENTRE FOR DISASTER RESEARCH

ELIGIBILITY:

Master’s Programme

Sl. No. Name of Centre Sub. Code & Sub. Eligibility

Code Number
1 Special Centre Disaster Studies - Bachelor's degree in any social sciences /natural sciences/ any other
For Disaster DSSM (239) professional stream with 55% marks from a recognized
Research (SCDR) University/Institution.

Page | 121
 17. SPECIAL CENTRE FOR NATIONAL SECURITY STUDIES (SCNSS)

ELIGIBILITY:

PhD Programme

Sl. No. Name of Centre Sub. Code Eligibility

& Sub.
Code
Number
1 Special Centre for National BE/B.Tech with 55% marks or equivalent Grade ‘B’ in UGC 7-point scale (or
National Security Security an equivalent Grade in a point scale wherever Grading system is followed).
Studies (SCNSS) Studies –
NSSH (916) OR

Master’s degree with at least 55% marks in social science or natural

science or Humanities.

Relaxation to SC/ST/OBC (Non creamy layer)/PWD as per the UGC

Regulations 2016.

Page | 122
 011-40759000

National
Testing
Agency
(An autonomous organization under the Department of
Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India)

Address for Correspondence :

First Floor, NSIC-MDBP Building,
Okhla Industrial Estate, New Delhi - 110020

Help Line: For Technical support, contact following

during working days between 10.00 a.m. and 5.00 p.m.

Email : jnu@nta.ac.in Website: www.nta.ac.in

https://jnuexams.nta.ac.in