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Question Bank East Coast Railway

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QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway

Objective Type Question S&T Department

Sno True Or False

1. Indications for caution aspect is proceed and be prepared to pass next stop signal
at restricted speed.

2. OFF aspect of a Warner signal is attention.

3. Normal aspect of distant signal in double distance territory is caution.

4. Normal aspect of automatic stop signal is proceed.

5. Name of aspect and indication of UQMA signal and MACL signal are not same

6. UQ distant signal cannot combine with a stop signal.

7. Combining of signal shall be done under approved special instruction.

8. Simultaneous reception and despatch shall be done under special instruction.

9. Function of passenger and goods warning board is same.

10. A Warner signal and a distant signal perform same function.

11. Shunting can be performed in face of approaching train at class “A” station.

12. The block overlap and signal overlap in two aspect signalling and multi-aspect
signalling is 180 Mts.

13. A Warner signal(semaphore) is permissive signal and provided with a “P” marker.

14. Passenger warning board shall be placed at distance of 1KMts in rear of first stop
signal in a station with multi-aspect colour light signalling.

15. The block overlap in multi aspect signalling is more than L.Q. signal.

16. When distant signal display green aspect then it indicates run though condition.

17. Shunt signal can be placed below first stop signal.

18. Calling On signal can be placed on last stop signal.

19. The signal overlap in two aspect signalling is 120 Mts.

20. Goods warning board shall be placed at distance of 1.4 KMts in rear of first stop
signal.

Page 1 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

21. Warner signal at OFF indicate run through condition on Loop Line.

22. On single line station signal overlap is reckoned form outer most point of station.

23. Location of shunting limit board & Last stop signal is same.

24. Isolation is not required in standard III interlocking.

25. Block section limit board shall be provided at class B station on double line where
first point is a trailing point OR no point with lower quadrant signalling.

26. Visibility of Warner signal shall be 1.2 KMts for speed more than 100 KMPH.

27. Lock detection is not required in revised standard II interlocking.

28. If LC Gate is interlocked with advance starter then a G maker shall be provided
below advance starter.

29. Visibility of a pre-warned signal 200 Mt.

30. Shunting limit board shall be placed at a distance of signal overlap from outer most
point on double line.

31. Block overlap class C station is 400 Mts always.

32. Catch siding protect block section and slip siding protect station section.

33. If speed is more than 50 kmph then one goods line need not be isolated from other
goods line.

34. Purpose of repeating and co-acting signal is same.

35. More than one calling ON signal can be placed below a stop signal.

36. A “P” maker shall be provided below UQ distant signal.

37. First stop signal on signal line normally shall be placed at distance of signal
overlap plus block overlap from outer most point.

38. A “C ” marker shall be provided below a Semaphore miniature calling ON signal

39. Starter repeater and repeating signal are same signals.

40. Simultaneous reception of trains is allowed under approved special instruction.

Page 2 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

41. If speed is less than 50 KMPH, then isolation of a passenger line from other
connecting passenger line is not required.

42. Under special instruction means approval from commissioner of railway safety.

43. Swinger/top piece can not be used in the first & last channels

44. Reverse swinger can not be used in the second channel

45. Normal swinger can not be used in the last but one channel

46. Swinger shall not be used in the adjacent channel on the same tappet

47. Fouling of notches can not be over looked

48. The total nos.of bridle bars at any given place of a channel 2 top bridle bar +2
bottom bridle bar in catch handle lever frame.
49. If the distance from the signal & 1st facing point or from one facing point to next
facing point is more than 180 Mts. then one holding bar to be provided.
50. If the distance from the signal & 1st facing point or from one facing point to next
facing point is more than 180 mtr then lock retaining bar to be provided

51. Dummy Lock need to be provided if an unconnected length of a bridle bar exceeds
more than 10 levers.
52. Use of top pieces shall be a last alternative for avoiding fouling notches

53. Warner is not released by any one of the Home Signal

54. Signaling plan is prepared based on Type of Signaling, the class of Station

55. Size of Catch handle type lever frame will be in combination or multiples of 8 and
10
56. “Direct” type lever frame size will be in combination or multiple of 5 and 7

57. Outer is released by any one of the Home Signal

58. Width of the tappet is 41 mm in direct lever frame

59. Width of the channel 40 mm in catch handle lever frame

60. Clearence between the two tappets is 59 mm in Catch handle lever frame

61. The lock dog should be riveted with the only one bridle bar

Page 3 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

62. Length of swinger is 79 mm

63. In SWCH type lever frame (SA1101/M) the pitch of the channel is 100 mm

64. In SWCH type lever frame (SA1101/M) the stroke of the tappet is 65 mm

65. Fouling of notches can be avoided by using top pieces

66. The locking diagram is to be prepared based on approved locking table

67. The factor by which the route holding is achieved by interlocking between the
successive lock bars
68. The factor by which the route holding is the distance from the signal and first
facing point by limiting to 180 Mts.
69. The factor by which the route holding is achieved by the existence of lock bar

70. Size of bridle bar is 16 mm X 12 mm.

71. Locking tray should be graphited periodically.

72. Graphite should be mixed along with axle oil.

73. Any swinger/top piece can not be used in the first and the last channels.

74. Reverse swinger can be used in the second channel

75. Normal swinger can be used in the last but one channel.

76. Swinger always shall be used in the adjacent channel on the same tappet.

77. Fouling of notches can be over looked.

78. The numbering of bridle bar at any given place of a channel may be more than four
if required
79. Dummy Lock need not be provided if an unconnected length of a bridle bar to a
distance of more than 10 levers
80. Use of top pieces shall not be a last alternative for avoiding fouling notches.

81. Warner is released by Outer & Main Line Home

82. Outer is released by Adv. Starter

83. Signal in advance locking the trailing points both ways is an arrangement of route
holding.
Page 4 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

84. The converse of locks normal is locks released by.

85. Released by relation can also be expressed as locks both ways.

86. The lock retaining bar is used in centralized MAUQ signalling for holding the route.

87. Route lever is also a means of route holding.

88. Conflicting points shall lock each other.

89. A facing lock bar is released by another trailing lock bar in the route of a train, is
called as successive lock bar locking.
90. Route method is normally adopted to prepare a locking table

91. An intermediate stanchion is required for a double wire LF having a capacity of


more than 18 levers.
92. Loose and tight locking are a special feature of D.W. lever frame.

93. A swinger is required for a conditional locking.

94. A swinger should be placed similar to condition on a conditional lever.

95. Number of bridle bars in a conditional locking is equal to number of swingers plus
one
96. Testing of converse locking in locks normal is not necessary.

97. Spare levers are catered in the middle while numbering a layout with geographical
cum group method of numbering.
98. The signalling plan is prepared based on the engineering plan.

99. While deciding the size of the lever frame is in multiples of 8 and / or 10 in catch
handle type lever frames.
100. Level crossing gate numbering is done at the end of all groups while numbering
the yard with geographical-cum-group method.

101. Principles of interlocking are applicable only for lower quadrant signalling and not
for other types of signalling.

102. Separate arrangements of route holding are not necessary as principles of


interlocking are covering the route holding.

103. Signals are released by level crossing gates in the route


Page 5 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

104. By tripping of one lever if the other lever is not locked it is called as loose locking

105. The loose locking is used for flexibility in the yard.


When the clutch lever trips in the normal position the locking plunger moves by 12 mm upwards
106.

107. Slots lock each other directly having separate overlap.

108. Additional arrangement of route holding is necessary when a signal is placed at a


distance of greater than 180M from the point it controls.
109. Successive point locking is one of the arrangements of route holding.

110. In a central cabin operated double wire signalling yard, the route holding is
achieved by clutch levers.
111. Normally geographical method is adopted for numbering the signals in a yard

112. Dummy dog to be used when the bridle bar is un supported for eight plungers

113. Any swinger should not used in the last channel.

114. A signal is locking normal points if required in reverse

115. While numbering a signalling yard normally group cum geographical method is
not adopted.
116. An additional lock bar to be provided when the distance between the two
successive lock bars is more than 500 Mts
117. More important point released by less important point

118. Signals are released by the first point

119. In a conditional locking when the swinger is placed on a locking lever it is always
reverse swinger.
120. In a conditional locking number of swingers are equal to no. of locking levers

121. Shunt signal should lock slot in opposite direction through a condition having
separate overlap
122. The trap point releases the lock bar.

123. Outer Signal releases Home Signals

124. Loop Home Signal releases Warner Signals

Page 6 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

125. Main line Home Signal Locks Loop lines slot having separate overlap.

126. A Running Signal released by shunt Signal below it (in same post).

127. A slot having separate overlap must not lock all others Slots

128. Width of tappet is 1980 mm

129. Size or width of Channel is 65 mm in SWCH lever frame

130. Section of Bridle Bar is 16 mm X 12 mm

131. Space between two Tappet is 346 mm in double wire lever frame

132. A Signal shall lock the point for isolation though it may not be in the route and
negotiated by the train
133. Any swinger/top piece can be used in the first and the last channels.

134. Reverse swinger can be used in the second channel

135. Normal swinger can be used in the last but one channel .

136. Swinger shall be used in the adjacent channel on the same tappet.

137. Fouling of notches may be over looked

138. The numbering of bridle bar at any given place of a channel may exceed four in
double wire lever frame.
139. Dummy Lock need to be provided if an unconnected length of a bridle bar to a
distance of more than 12 levers .
140. Use of top pieces need not be a last alternative for avoiding fouling notches.

141. Warner is released by Outer & Loop Line Home

142. Outer is not released by Adv. Starter

143. In Direct lever, Lever shoes are common and interchangeable

144. For each standard, one baring cap is provided.

145. Direct lever frame is available in bays of 5 levers and 7 levers.

146. Shaft collars are provided to maintain lever pitch in catch handle lever frame
Page 7 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

147. Front tails are available as different strokes.

148. In Direct lever Back tail is meant for carrying a 25kg weight for long distance
signals.

149. In Direct lever Quadrants are fixed on T-section quadrant supporting bars.

150. Quadrants to hold the lever in Normal & Reverse positions.

151. Quadrants to guide the lever during operation.

152. Quadrants to maintain the lever pitch.

153. Direct lever poses the problems of conflicting notches.

154. In Direct lever locking box to attend maintenance and to attend failure.

155. Conflicting of notches are almost completely avoided

156. SA1101 is More mechanical advantages than SA530.

157. D.W. Levers can be inserted on catch handle type to facilitate Outer, Warner &
LSS operations.

158. The locking will start to actuate by pressing the catch handle in ‘N & R’

159. Mechanical advantage in catch handle lever is 5.6

160. Mechanical advantage in direct handle lever is 5.6

161. Pressing releasing the catch handle in catch handle lever frame tappet will move
31mm

162. Clearance between catch block bottom and quadrant is 3mm

163. Quadrants are fixed on rectangular quadrant supporting bar in catch handle lever
frame

164. Interlocking bar having the size of 16 x 12 mm

165. To divert the rod run up to 20° Relief crank is used

166. Crank arm length 300mm x 300mm (12” x 12”)

167. One of the arm is CURVED in Accommodating crank to facilitate connection & to
Page 8 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False
accommodate cranks placed adjacent to it.

168. Accommodating crank used in Outside lead out

169. Accommodating crank 300mm x 300mm (12” x 12”) is used for lever pitch is
100mm(4”)

170. Accommodating crank 350mm x 350mm (14” x 14”) is used for lever pitch is
125mm(4”)

171. Accommodating crank arm sizes are 300mm x 300mm (12” x 12”) & 300mm x
400mm

172. Changing the alignment of rodding run.i.e., 500mm or 600mm Straight Arm Crank
is used

173. In adjustable crank both the arms are equal.

174. In adjustable crank length of the arms are 300mm x 450mm

175. Signal crank is fixed at the base of signal

176. Signal crank arm length are 225 mm x 300 mm

177. Rod Joints are used for connecting levers, crank, points,etc.,

178. Flush Joint is used at vertical crank towards out side leadout.

179. Screw Joint single end is used at lock plunger and lifting barried boom locking.

180. Screw Joint double end used for balancing of stroke at throw rod of point and lock
bar.

181. Eye Joint is used at radial guide, signal arm and circuit controllers

182. Wide Joint is used where two rod joints required at one place.

183. Lug Eye joint is use where two functions are operated from one lever.

184. Swan Neck & Goose Neck joints are used for point detection rods.

185. With turning of buckle in point adjusting screw we can shortening or lengthening of
rodding. ( T )

186. Tubular rod length is 33.5 to 34.5mm

Page 9 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

187. Tubular rod available in length 18’

188. Tubular weight is 2 lb/ft

189. The rodding is supported on bottom rollers A small


roller (top roller) is provided above the rods to prevent any undue distortion in
vertical plane

190. The height of the trestles is 38mm

191. Point rodding shall be solid and shall be in accordance with IRS Spec.no.S5

192. Point rodding shall be straight before being laid.

193. With lever in the middle position joints and lug eyes must not be located less than
300mm from roller stand.

194. Cranks and compensators should be so located in the main run that it leaves field
side clear for additional rodding run.

195. Cranks and compensators must not be fixed nearer a point rod roller than 900mm.

196. When rodding running under tracks must be arranged to permit the standard
spacing and packing of the sleepers.

197. The top of the rodding should not be less than 25mm below the bottom of the rails.

198. Whenever possible, the running of rods under rail joints should be avoided

199. Where a series of crossings have to be made each group must not be less than
two sleepers apart.

200. Rodding under L.C.Gates should preferably be run through standard reinforced
concrete channels having mild steel cover plates at the road level.

201. Where diversion in rodding run up to 20 degrees relief crank must be used.

202. The top of roller standards adjacent to tracks shall not be fixed more than 64mm
above rail level.

203. The distance from the nearest rod to the center of the track shall not be less than
1905mm on BG lines.

204. The distance from the nearest rod to the center of the track shall not be less than

Page 10 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False
1370mm on MG lines.

205. Off-sets in the rodding should be limited 90mm

206. Minimum length of the off-set should not be less than twice the amount of the off-
set.

207. Where more than one off-set is necessary, a guide should be provided.

208. Joints in the rod run should be laid flat.

209. Two bolts at joints preferable to provide one bolt with head on top and the other
with head underneath.

210. Welding of 35mm joints into rodding should be avoided.

211. It is a rod used for connecting an interlocking lever to a vertical crank.

212. Down rod length is more than 2M must be supported by a guide or guides in
order to prevent buckling.

213. Vertical crank is used in inside lead out

214. Accommodating crank is used in out side lead out

215. The rod compensator is installed to compensate the linear motion of rods
(solid/tubular) due to temperature changes.

216. A reverse crank used as compensator up to 120M transmission.

217. The length of crank arm i.e, 300 mm (12”) is capable to take of up the
expansion/contraction of 60M (200 ft) of rodding connected to it.

218. This compensation range is limited to 22 ½° on either side of its means position as
a safe margin.

219. Compensator is able to convert pull motion into push and vice versa without
alteration of stroke

220. The initial setting of the crank arms should corresponds with prevailing
temperature.

221. The compensator should transmit working stroke unchanged although it


must reverse the direction.

Page 11 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

222. Where the normal crank is used the length of the shorter rod must be added to
the length of the longer rod to find out the total length of straight line/trans.

223. Where the reverse crank is used the length of the shorter rod must be
subtracted from the length of the longer rod.

224. There is no compensator in single wire transmission.

225. Approximate linear expansion of rods 0.24” /100 Yds/10 F rise in temperature

226. For crossover point one compensator should be provided between cabin and
near end point and near end point to far end point one more compensator
should be provided

227. In rodding transmission there will be (2) Neutral points one at lever and other at
function.

228. The compensator is to provide exactly at centre of the two neutral points.

229. Points are said to be facing when a vehicle or a train moving over them can be
diverted from one track to the other

230. In loose heel switch the front bolts of the fish plate at heel joint are to be kept
sufficiently loose to allow for the easy movement of the switch.

231. In fixed heel switch the force required for the operation of point is increased.

232. In over ridding switches the tongue rail slides over the foot of the stock rail.

233. The length of tongue rail in BG in 1:8 1/2 turnout is 4722mm(Straight Switch)

234. The length of tongue rail in BG in 1:8 1/2 turnout is 7620 mm (Curved switch)

235. The length of tongue rail in BG in 1:12 turnout is 7620mm (Straight Switch)

236. The length of tongue rail in BG in 1:12 turnout is 9020mm (Curved Switch)

237. The length of tongue rail in BG in 1:16 turnout (90R) is 11000mm (Curved Switch)

238. The length of tongue rail in BG in 1:16 turnout (52Kg) is 13000mm (Curved Switch)

239. points in the two tonque rails to move in union the tonque rails are tied through
structure bars

240. Leading stretcher bar having the size on BG is 6’ x 3” x ½”.


Page 12 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

241. Leading stretcher bar having the size on MG is 4’ x 2 1/2” x 3/8”.

242. Leading stretcher bar should be fixed on BG at a distance of 13” from the toe of
the switch rail.

243. Leading stretcher bar should be fixed on MG at a distance of 15” from the toe of
the switch rail.

244. Following stretcher bar having the size on MG is 2’9” x 2 1/2” x 3/8”

245. Following stretcher bar having the size on BG is 4’8” x 3” x 1/2”.

246. The following stretcher bar should be fixed on BG at a distance of 55” from the toe
of the switch rail.

247. The following stretcher bar should be fixed on MG at a distance of 54” from the toe
of the switch rail.

248. In point zone the track should be correct level and alignment

249. In loose heel switch they can be thrown both ways with ease and can be housed
against the stock rail by hand and remain there when the pressure is removed.

250. In fixed heel switch they normally lie in the mid-position and flex equally in the
normal and reverse positions.

251. Tongue rail is chipped/cracked over a small length aggregating to 200mm with in
the distance of 1000mm from its toe.

252. The lock bar & the Plunger is provided to prevent the unlocking of points while the
train is moving over it.

253. Lock bar driving attachment to be fixed at 14” (350 mm) from the toe of lock bar.

254. Three(3) lock bar stop are provided to ensure a fixed clearance below the rail level
by 38 mm (1 ½ “)

255. Each section of lock bar one stop to be provided.

256. When the lock bar is normal, the FPL plunger should be clear by 12mm (1/2”)
from the split stretcher bar.

257. The clearance between stretcher notches and lock plunger shall not be more than
1.5 mm

Page 13 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

258. Detector is necessary to provide to detect the position of points and locks.

259. The function of Detector is to prove the correct normal or reverse setting and
correct locking of the point.

260. 2-Aspect lower quadrant semaphore signals are generally worked by single wire
transmission.

261. Day aspect of signal is Arm position horizontal is ‘ON’ and 45 to 60 degrees below
horizontal is ‘OFF’ position.

262. In Mechanical signals spectacle arm is connected to the down rod

263. The counter weight balance lever itself is fitted below on the post at a min.
distance of 4 feet from the fulcrum of spectacle.

264. A signal post consists of two tubes of section ‘140mm’ and ‘168mm’ outer diameter
having each thickness of ‘7-9mm’.

265. In tubular signal post the maximum height being only ’10.5M’.

266. Where two or more lines diverge to the signals must be fixed on a bracket post.

267. Dolls available in 4.9M,3.9M,2.9M,1.9M.

268. Ladder on the signal post fixed at ‘225mm’ from the top of the post.

269. B-Type spectical is commonly used on the Indian railways

270. B-Type spectical is Much heavier than A-Type spectical

271. In counter weight balance lever 92mm hole is connected to shunt signal.

272. In counter weight balance lever 118mm hole is connected to ‘B’ type spectacle to
get 90mm stroke for 45 degrees.

273. In counter weight balance lever 154mm hole connected to ‘A’ type spectacle to get
130mm stroke for 50 degrees.

274. The lowest transmission wire should be about 150mm clear from the ground.

275. For running wire under level crossings, trenches are made along the level
crossings, the top being covered with mild steel plates of suitable size and the
inside surface of trench being plastered with cement.

Page 14 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

276. Sometimes wire run under L.C. Gates are made through pipes provided in the
level crossings.

277. Facile stroke lever may be employed at a distance of 60 to 80M from the signal.

278. D –Class L.C.Gates provided for cattle crossing

279. L.C.Gate Census will be taken once in three years

280. Swing type gates are open either towards or away from the track.

281. Mechanical lifting barrier type gates are operated by vertically

282. The booms are provided according to the width of the road

283. Lifting barrier drum is connected by D.W. transmission with gear on the winch.

284. The movement of the lock wheel in lifting barrier winch is made less than one
complete revolution.

285. ‘E’ type key can be extracted only when the gate is closed

286. A light fringe is usually fitted to provide a barrier between the boom and road
surface , so that smaller animals of children may not pass through.

287. Lifting barrier boom height from road surface should be maintained between 0.8M
and 1M.

288. The boom shall be either painted with 300mm bands of alternate black and yellow
color or provided with approved type of retro-reflective strips.(

289. It shall be ensured that Boom locking is effective and it is not possible to lift the
boom by more than 10 degree from closed position.

290. Rope drum (fixed on pedestal) not inter changeable for assembly from RH to LH
and vice-versa.

291. Tunion Brackets not inter changeable for assembly from RH to LH and vice-versa.

292. Link assembly for bell not inter changeable for assembly from RH to LH and vice-
versa.

293. Pedestal on winch rope drum is mounted not inter changeable for assembly from
RH to LH and vice-versa.

Page 15 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

294. The approach road should be in level.

295. The gate equipments should be there as prescribed in the working rule

296. The Whistle Board are provided on track while approaching L.C.Gate.

297. The view for road users and the gateman of an approaching train is not obstructed.

298. The telephone communication is in proper working order in gate lordge.

299. The working instructions of the L.C.Gate is in the local language besides Hindi and
English.

300. At the time of taking cences Train, Motor vehicle, bullock carts&tongues taken as 1
unit

301. At the time of taking cences Cycle rickshaw & auto rickshaw taken as ½ unit

302. Visibility of manned gate is 5M.

303. Fencing parallel to the track in L.C.Gate to be provided both side of track on either
side of road is 15M

304. Gate lodge to be provided at 6M from center of track

305. Speed Breakers are provided at 20M from center of track on both sides

306. Height gauge to be provided at 8M from center of track

307. Gate post be provided at 3M from center of track

308. TVU is more than 6000 or L.C.Gate visibility is poor –Un manned gate is converted
into Manned gate.

309. Standard size of Key lock (E-type) –155X95X65mm

310. E-type Key locks used for interlocking different functions

311. E-type Key locks used for locking points

312. E-type Key locks used for locking boom locking levers

313. E-type Key locks used for locking levers

314. E-type Key locks used for block instruments locking


Page 16 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

315. The stroke of the E-type lock is 25mm.

316. The no. of wards in the key is 3

317. A small hole is provided on center stud for sealing purpose.

318. The function of the ward is to actuate the tumbler.

319. The function of Lug & Feather is to operate the operating piece and to prevent the
insertion of wrong key .

320. Key turned clockwise lock bolt goes inside and key is locked.

321. Key turned anti clockwise lock bolt comes out and key is came out.

322. Material used for the tumblers is brass.

323. Length of each key ward –6mm

324. Length of each lug & feather –18mm.

325. No.of locks available is 42

326. No.of ward combination is 24

327. Double wire levers can be replaced without disturbing other levers.
0
328. Double wire levers rotate through 180 , when operated from normal to reverse.

329. The stroke transmitted to the tappet is 40mm when a lever is operated from normal
to reverse.
330. Locking tappet stroke of a clutch lever is 12 mm upwards when tripped at Normal.

331. Locking tappet stroke of a clutch lever is 12 mm downwards when tripped at


Reverse.
332. Locking tappet stroke of direct lever is 40 mm upwards while operating from
Normal to Reverse.
333. Locking tappet stroke of direct lever is 40 mm downwards while operating from
Reverse to Normal.
334. Locking tappet stroke of clutch lever is 40 mm upwards while operating from
Normal to Reverse.
335. Locking tappet stroke of clutch lever is 40 mm downwards while operating from
Reverse to Normal.

Page 17 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

336. Locking tappet stroke of Rack & Pinion lever is 40 mm upwards while operating
from Normal to Reverse.
337. Locking tappet stroke of Rack & Pinion is 40 mm downwards while operating from
Reverse to Normal.
338. Locking tappet stroke is 20 mm upwards while operating from Normal to Pull of the
miniature lever.
339. Locking tappet stroke is 20 mm downwards while operating from Normal to Push
of the miniature lever.
340. 500 mm stroke Direct lever operates the signal without detector up to 1200 Mts.

341. 600 mm stroke Direct lever operates the signal without detector greater than 1200
Mts.
342. 500 mm stroke Clutch lever operates the Points up to 500 Mts.

343. 600 mm stroke Clutch lever operates the Point up to 730 Mts.

344. 500 mm stroke Clutch lever operates the Detector up to 600 Mts.

345. 600 mm stroke Clutch lever operates the Detector up to 730 Mts.

346. 500 mm stroke Clutch lever operates the Signal with Detector up to 600 Mts.

347. 600 mm stroke Clutch lever operates the Signal with Detector up to 730 Mts.

348. The stroke of the Rack& Pinion lever is 200 mm

349. Rack& Pinion lever can operate the single end points up to 460 Mts.

350. Rack& Pinion lever can operate the single end points up to 460 Mts.

351. The Rack& Pinion lever can operate the double end points up to 275 Mts.

352. The rope drum and the lever handle are rigidly fixed in the Direct lever.

353. Conflicting functions can be operated through 3-position miniature lever.

354. Rope drum and the lever handle are connected through a spring loaded clutch

355. Rope drum can rotate independent of the lever handle in clutch lever

356. 85 Kgs tension difference in the transmission should not cause the clutch lever to
trip
357. Coupling of levers economizes cost of material of one transmission.

Page 18 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

358. Coupling of levers economizes cost of installation of one transmission.

359. Coupling of levers economizes cost of maintenance of one transmission.

360. Coupling of levers economizes cost of one compensator.

361. Coupling of levers economizes cost of one signal mechanism when located on the
same signal post.

362. Coupling of levers economizes cost of installation and maintenance of a signal


mechanism. (T)

363. The two levers should be adjacent in the lever frame for coupling.

364. The two levers should bear consecutive numbers for coupling.

365. Length of transmission between the two coupled functions should not be greater
than 73 Mts. (T)

366. Push-Pull coupling to be adopted for the conflicting functions.

367. Pull-Pull coupling to be adopted for the successive operated functions.

368. Pull wires of both the coupling device levers are connected to the coupling device
levers in Push-Pull coupling.

369. Return wire of first operated lever and Pull wire of second operated lever are
connected are connected to the coupling device levers in Pull-Pull coupling.

(T)

370. L.Q. Main and Loop Line home signals are connected in Push-Pull coupling.

371. L.Q. or U.Q. Ist loop and 2nd loop home signals are connected in Push-Pull
coupling. (T)

372. A starter and a shunt below starter are connected in Push-Pull coupling.

373. Two shunt signals one below the other are connected in Push-Pull coupling.

374. A Home Signal and a Calling on signal below Home signal are connected in Push-
Pull coupling. (T)

375. Normal and Reverse detectors are connected in Push-Pull coupling.

Page 19 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

376. Main line Home signal on a multiple aspect signalling territory are connected in
Pull-Pull coupling. (T)

377. Outer and Warner Signals located on the same post are connected in Pull-Pull
coupling. (T)

378. Hook lock is adopted to prevent the tripping of a coupled clutch lever.

379. The rack movement during unlocking of point is 51 mm.

380. The rack movement during Point setting stroke 107mm. (


T)

381. The rack movement during unlocking of point is 42 mm. (


T)

382. The point mechanism movement during unlocking of point is 127 mm.

383. The point mechanism movement during Point setting stroke 268mm. (
T)

384. The point mechanism movement during unlocking of point is105 mm. (
T)

385. The total movement of rack during its lever operation is 200 mm.

386. Broken wire lock is adopted to prevent the operation of points when the last pull
wire is broken

387. Broken wire lock pawls must be tested once in every quarter.

388. The width of the lock plunger on EFPL is 49.8 mm.

389. The width of the locks on the EFPL is 38 mm independently for N and R___

390. The two locks on the EFPL are staggered by 12 mm.

391. The two locks on the EFPL are separated by the distance by 158 mm.

392. Separation of locks on EFPL facilitates economy in operation of point and lock.

393. EFPL to be connected by the thumb rule “left in right out”

394. The pitch of the notches on split lock stretchers with EFPL is 127 mm in BG

Page 20 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

395. The movement of cross slide when unlocked in EFPL is 16 mm.

396. The movement of cross slide when relocked in EFPL is 16 mm.

397. The movement of cross slide during point operation in EFPL is zero mm.

398. PWI must bring the track on either side of the point to correct alignment.

399. PWI must ease off rail joints on either side of points to be interlocked

400. PWI must close the stock rail joints associated with lock bars.

401. PWI must provide ballast fully and pack all points which are to be interlocked.

402. PWI must take adequate measures to prevent creep in the vicinity points.

403. PWI must provide creep and level pillars to prevent creep in the vicinity points.

404. PWI must arrange the sleepers on adjacent track to facilitate rod/wire transmission
to cross.

405. PWI must provide and fix special timbers where required

406. PWI must provide gauge tie plate correctly PWI must adjuste loose heel switches
so that they can be thrown both way with ease

407. Loose heel switches can be housed against the stock rail by hand and remain
there when the pressure is removed.

408. The planed surface of the switch rail should fully house against the stock rails for a
sufficient length.

409. Fixed heel switches lie in the mid-position and flex equally in the normal and
Reversed positions. .

410. Point should be fitted with fitted flexible stretchers so that they flex equally in the
normal and reverse Positions

411. Point should be fitted provided with a stop for the open position of a single switch
layout.

412. Facing point lock is fixed at 500mm from the gauge face in B.G.

413. Signal mechanism should prevent inaccuracies in the transmission of lever strokes
helps display of correct signal aspects.
Page 21 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

414. Signal mechanism should provide broken wire protection

415. Signal mechanism should co-relate the down rod movement with that of the
mechanism drum.

416. Signal mechanism should make the maximum torque required for signal operation

417. Signal mechanism should increase the range of signal operation & ease of lever
operation.

418. A single signal mechanism has one stop

419. A coupled signal mechanism has two stops

420. The cam paths are identical in the Universal signal mechanism

421. Concentric path of Signal mechanism provides stability to the 'ON' and 'OFF'
aspects of the Signal arm

422. 0 - 450 - 900 Signal Mechanism is used for working 3 aspects main line Home
used for working 3 aspects main line Home

423. 450 - 0 - 900 Signal Mechanism is used for working the distant signal.

424. Detector is used to prove the position of the points

425. Detector should be capable of being used in a signal transmission

426. Detector is used to ensure the correct setting of the route.

427. Length of Bottom rim 176 mm.

428. Length of Detecting rim 869 mm.

429. Length of Control rim 75 mm.

430. Length of Locking rim 30 mm.

431. Height of Bottom rim 10 mm.

432. Height of Control rim 25 mm.

433. Height of Detecting rim 10 mm.

434. Height of Locking rim 10 mm.


Page 22 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

435. Detector detects the correct relation between switch and stock rails.

436. Detector locks the points in the last operated position when the detector is
operated.

437. Detector locks the points in the last operated position if the detector transmission
wire opposite this rim breaks.

438. Detector permits the detector to be installed in a signal transmission.

439. Locking Rim establishes correct relation between switch and stock rails.

440. Locking Rim locks the points in the last operated position when the wire opposite
this rim breaks.

441. Control Rim proves the route

442. Control Rim acts as a limiting stop in the event of wire breakage

443. Control Rim helps the locking to lock the points in the last operated position in the
event of wire breakage

444. Control Rim helps the Locking rim to lock the points in the last operated position in
the event of wire breakage.

445. Control Rim helps the Detecting rim to lock the points in the last operated position
in the event of wire breakage.

446. Control Rim ensures the tripping of clutch lever.

447. Double wire compensator introduces initial tension 68 kgs. in the transmission
wires with the transmission at rest.

448. The compensator levers should be locked during operation of the lever.

449. Stretch in the intact wire incase of point transmission is 100 mm

450. Wire breakage mark is indicated by 6 mm counter sunk depression

451. Compensator locking stroke should not be greater than 25 mm

452. Compensator levers are free to oscillate when the transmission is at rest

453. Single compensator will have 3 pairs of wheels.

Page 23 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

454. Coupled compensator will have 4 pairs of wheels.

455. Double Wire transmission should be laid straight alignment.

456. Inter distance between two pulleys stakes should not be greater than 20 Mts in
case of Signals.

457. Inter distance between two pulleys stakes should not be greater than 15 Mts in
case of Points.

458. Inter distance between two pulley stakes should not be greater than 15 Mts in case
of Detectors.

459. Inter distance between two pulleys stakes should not be greater than 15 Mts in
case of Signals with Detectors.

460. Pulley Stakes should be properly leveled.

461. Pulley Stakes should be rigidly fixed in the ground.

462. Bottom most pulley should be 300 mm clear of ground in the D.W transmission.

463. Fixing of Pulley stakes in the side drains should be avoided

464. Wires and ropes must not scrap against walls protecting covers platform ramps,
rails and sleepers.

465. At level crossing gate transmission should run in RCC troughs and steel cover
plates.

466. Transmission running in the diversion from straight up to 10 0 should run through
diversion pulley.

467. Transmission running in the diversion from 10 0 up to 30 0 should run through


horizontal diversion wheel of dia 195 mm.

468. Transmission running in the diversion greater than should run through horizontal
diversion wheel of dia 225 mm.

469. For rod running under the track, the top of the rod shall not be less Than 40 mm
below the bottom of the rail.
470. The distance between any OHE mast and the point rod shall not be less than 40
mm.
471. Each rod shall be provided with an insulator immediately outside the cabin in the
lead-out as close to the cabin as possible.
Page 24 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

472. An additional insulator shall be provided between the last adjustable crank and
the point/lock bar
473. If the rod transmission is more than 400 metres, additional insulators shall be
provided on each rod at every 400metres
474. The distance between two consecutive insulators on the same rod should be
lesser than 300 metres.
475. The wire insulator shall conform to IRS Spec. No. S47-74.

476. An insulator shall be provided in each wire near the gear of operation

477. A wire insulator to be provided at every 300mts of wire transmission

478. The horizontal distance between two wires shall not be less than 60 mm

479. The vertical distance between two wires shall not be less than 200 mm.

480. The lever frame and other metallic frames of the cabin shall be connected together
to a separate earthing.
481. The earthing shall not be provided at every location box where cable terminate.

482. Earth connected for lightening discharger should not be more than 10 Ohms

483. Earth connected for equipment should not be less than 10 Ohms.

484. Earth connected Axle counter cable (screened) in ac electrified area should not be
more than 1 Ohm.
485. Where more than one earthing arrangements are employed, the distance between
earthing electrodes shall not be less than 6metres.
486. The clearance of equipment earths from system earths provided by the Electrical
Dept. of Railways or any other administration shall not be less than 30 meters
487. The cables laid parallel to the track buried at a depth of 2 m minimum.

488. The depth of tail cables shall not be less than 1 m.

489. If cable is laid one meter from the RE mast its trench depth shall not be more than
0.5m.
490. If cable is laid in concrete/HDPE pipes up to 3 meters on either side of mast, the
distance between the mast and trench can be reduced to 0.5 meters
491. If the cable is laid at more than 0.5 meters depth the distance between trench and
mast shall not be less not be less than 3 meters.
492. In the vicinity of traction sub station the cables shall be laid on the side of the track
opposite to the sub-station side

Page 25 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

493. Cables shall be laid at least 10 meters away from the switching station earthing

494. During track crossings, the cables should cross the track at right angles

495. During track crossings, the cables can cross the track under points and crossings

496. During track crossings, the cables are to be laid in concrete pipes while crossing
the track.
497. During track crossings, the cables shall be buried at a depth of 1.0 metre below the
bottom of the rail.
498. At out side of station limits, the cable shall be laid 5 to 6 meters from the nearest
centre line of the track.
499. At with in station limits, the cable shall be laid not less than 5.5 meters from the
nearest centre line of the track
500. Stray voltage in a track circuit shall not be more than 100mV.

501. The total stray current shall not exceed 10mA for a track circuit length less
than100m
502. The total stray current shall not exceed 10mA for a track circuit length more
than100m
503. Only 09 ohms track relay should be used in AC RE area

504. Only single rail DC track circuit should be used in AC RE area.

505. In DC single rail track circuit feed end is protected by “B type” choke.

506. Maximum length of DC track circuit with wooden sleepers is 250m.

507. Maximum length of DC track circuit with PSC sleepers is 350m.

508. Maximum length of DC track circuit with QBAT relay and choke at feed-end is
450m
509. Electro static effects in signalling circuit can be nullified by transferring the circuits
in to Under ground cables.
510. Electro static effects in signalling circuit directly proportional to Length of
parallelism.
511. Electro static effects in signalling cable inversely proportional to distance of
separation between catenary and cable.
512. If whole of the return current passing the rails, then the voltage induced in a
signalling cable which laid equal-distance from catenary & rail is 35v/km
513. In screened cable by earthing of metallic sheath voltage induced in cable is
reduced.

Page 26 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

514. Catenary current in old design is 600A D/L, 300A in single line.

515. Short circuit current in old design is 4500A.

516. Rail impedance in old design is 0.6 ohms.

517. Rail reduction factor in old design is 0.56 for S/L 0.4 for D/L.

518. Cable screening factor in old design is 9.6

519. A common design was adopted for single and double/multiple track electrified
sections in old design
520. Due to electro-magnetic induction the voltage induced in signalling scrneed cable
in old design is 35V/KM.
521. Due to electro-magnetic induction the voltage induced in signalling un-scrneed
cable in old design is 95V/KM.
522. Max. Length of a circuit parallelism with screened cable is 3.5 km in old design.

523. Max. Length of a circuit parallelism with un-screened cable is 1.9 km in old design.

524. Glow voltage of 12v signal bulb on primary of signal transformer (110/12) is 21V.

525. Glow voltage of 12v signal bulb on secondary of signal transformer (110/12) is 5V.

526. Direct feeding range of signals with scrneed cable is 600m.

527. Direct feeding range of signals with un- scrneed cable in old design is 330m

528. Shelf type line relays tested under BSS 1659, RE.Spec. 187/11, are only AC
immunised
529. In case of track relays Copper slugs & a magnetic shunt is used to make the relay
to AC immunised.
530. In case of Shelf type line relays no extra materials used to make relay AC
immunised.
531. AC. immunized Shelf type track relay is immune to 65VAC

532. QAT2 track relay is immune up to 50V AC.

533. Factor of safety in old design is 2.5.

534. QBAT track relay is immune up to 8OV AC

535. Shelf type line relays are immune up to 250V AC.

Page 27 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

536. In case of siemens relays K-50B type relays only AC immunized.

537. Safe handling voltage in old design is 100V.

538. Remote feeding method is just extension of direct feeding.

539. Screening factor of Tele. Com cable is 0.1. .

540. Catenary current in new design is 1000A D/L, 800A in single line.

541. Short circuit current in new design on D/L 10000A.

542. Short circuit current in new design on S/L 6000A.

543. Rail impedance in new design is 0.701 Single Line

544. Rail impedance in new design is 0.561 Double Line

545. Rail Reduction Factor in new design for 0.3926 Single Line.

546. Rail Reduction Factor in new design for 0.566 Single Line.

547. Using of screened cable discontinued since we are unable to maintain earth
resistance as 0.2ohams to get 0.4 screening factor.
548. New screening factor is 0.91.

549. Due to electro-magnetic induction the voltage induced in signalling cable in new
design on D/L is 95V/KM
550. Due to electro-magnetic induction the voltage induced in signalling cable in new
design on S/L is 120 V/KM
551. Direct feeding range of signals on D/L in new design is 226m.

552. Direct feeding range of signals on S/L in new design is 180m.

553. Safe handling voltage in new design is 400V

554. Max. Length of a circuit parallelism on D/L in new design is 2.3 KM

555. Max. Length of a circuit parallelism on S/L in new design is 2.1KM

556. Factor of safety in new design is 3.5

557. AC. Immunity level of GRS 5E point machine is 90V

558. Maximum permissible separation between Point Contractor and GRS 5E Point
Page 28 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False
Machine on single line is 400m
559. Maximum permissible separation between Point Contractor and GRS 5E Point
Machine on double line is 630m
560. AC. Immunity level of IRS-24 point machine is 90V

561. Maximum permissible separation between Point Contractor and IRS-24 Point
Machine on single line is 910m
562. Maximum permissible separation between Point Contractor and IRS-24 Point
Machine on double line is 2.1KM.
563. Maximum permissible separation between Point Contractor and SIEMENS IA type
Point Machine on double line is 1.1KM.
564. Maximum permissible separation between Point Contractor and SIEMENS IB type
Point Machine on double line is 2.1KM.
565. Maximum permissible separation between Point Contractor and SIEMENS IB type
Point Machine on single line is 1650M.
566. Maximum permissible separation between Point Contractor and SIEMENS IC type
Point Machine on double line is 1850M.
567. Maximum permissible separation between Point Contractor and SIEMENS IC type
Point Machine on single line is 2.2 KM.
568. AC. Immunity level of SIEMENS IB type Point machine is 300V

569. AC. Immunity level of SIEMENS IC type Point machine is 500V

570. As per RDSO specification No.S24/90 - for Electrical Point Machine non-trailable type,
specifies the A.C. immunity level of Electrical Point Machine shall not be less than
160V RMS at 50 Hz
571. If the load current is 8A and backup time required is 10Hrs then recommended
capacity of Lead Acid Cell is 80AH

572. During the preparation of electrolyte always add acid to distilled water only, but not
water to acid.

573. In Lead Acid cells, electrolyte level should be maintained at 12mm to 15mm above
the plates.

574. If the Lead acid cells are continuously used in “FLOAT Charging” then equalising
charge must be given once in 3 months.

575. In Lead Acid cells, Boost charging current must given at the rate of C/10 Amp

576. LMLA cells are preferred over VRLA cells for signalling application.

577. 60V battery charger is having the provision for charging the 30 or 31 or 32 no. of
cells.

Page 29 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

578. Battery charger can able to give the constant output voltage with the input
Voltage variation of 160VAC to 270VAC.

579. 110V battery charger is having the provision for charging maximum 55 no. of cells.

580. In IRS: 86/2000 Battery charger the boost charging current control & float voltage
adjustment is possible only in Auto mode.

581. Blanking of signals due to power supply failure can be effectively and economically
prevented by using IPS.
582. In IPS system, inverters are configured with (1+1) configuration.

583. All the DC-DC converters except for Relays (internal) of IPS system are used in
(N+1) load sharing configuration.
584. In IPS system, Inverter output is used for the load of DC Track circuits.

585. In case of IPS system, normally only one Battery bank is used.

586. An inverter is used in IPS system to convert the A.C. power into D.C. power.

587. DC-DC converters of IPS system for Relays (internal) are used in (N+1) load
sharing configuration.
588. SMRs of IPS system are provided with in (N+2) load configuration.

589. In IPS system Inverter-2 will be automatically connected to the load, when Inverter-
1 output is failed.
590. In IPS system CVT or AVR will be automatically connected to the load, when
Inverter-1 and Inverter-2 output is failed.
591. With IPS System, DG set is not required

592. Class B and Class C arresters are used in IPS for stage1 and stage2 protection

593. IPS system generates Start D.G set audio-visual alarm with 50% depth of
discharge of Battery bank.
594. IPS system generates Stop D.G set audio-visual alarm whenever FRBC / SMR
change over to float mode from boost mode.
595. Hexagonal shape of a solar cell provides more utilization area

596. Solar cell converts “Electrical energy” into “Solar energy”

597. Solar panel is a combination of solar cells

598. Voltage of each solar cell is 1.2 V

Page 30 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

599. Solar cells are made from semiconductor materials

600. The semiconductor material used for solar cell is Aluminium

601. Solar cell produces pollution

602. Efficiency of a Solar cell is very high

603. Solar system is having longer life

604. Conventional Lead Acid Cells are suitable for Solar panel

605. In Off-Line UPS the inverter is always in ‘ON’ condition

606. In ON-Line UPS there is no change over time

607. In put to UPS is A.C

608. In OFF-Line UPS the relay will be OFF condition when AC input is present

609. UPS backup time can be increase by increasing the capacity of the battery

610. Only a single transformer is sufficient in ON-Line UPS

611. In OFF-Line UPS the battery will be charge only when the inverter is ON

612. For UPS with rating higher than 2KVA IGBT device is used in power amplifier
stage
613. The grids and separators will be effected if the specific gravity of electrolyte is
below 1.240
614. The internal resistance is minimum at specific gravity 1.240 in Lead Acid cell

615. Capacity of a Lead Acid cell is directly proportional to its length of service

616. The Initial charging current is less than normal charging current

617. Electrolyte can be prepared by adding distilled water to Sulphuric Acid

618. During Initial charging add only distilled water

619. The battery which is kept continuously under “Float charging” should be given “
Equivalising charge” to compensate low or uneven Sp. Gravities of cells
620. Buckling is one of the causes for internal short circuit

621. The internally short circuited cell gasses freely


Page 31 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

622. Buckling of cell plates takes place due to excessive charging or discharging

623. Shedding means falling of active material from the plates

624. Do not allow the batteries to get fully discharged

625. Boost charging charges the battery quickly

626. The internally short leads to reverse polarity of the cell

627. Formation of lead corrosion at cell terminals causes high resistance

628. Rate of Trickle charging is 100 mA/AH capacity.

629. Distilled water to be added in MFB

630. Initial charging is a constant potential type of charging

631. Gas recombination principle is used in maintaince free sealed L.A. battery

632. Constant potential method is used to charge VRLA battery

633. Voltage of a fully charged Ni-Cd cell is 2.1 V

634. Distilled water to be added during initial charging to maintain the level

635. Initial charging can be stopped before 50% of charging is completed

636. Trickle charging is given to a fully discharged battery

637. Boost charging is a constant potential type of charging

638. The nominal cell voltage of a MFB lead acid battery is 2V

639. Calcium alloy is having lower self discharge and increased conductivity

640. Maximum electrolyte temperature allowed during charging is 100ºC

641. The active material on the positive plates in Lead Acid cell is Spongy Lead

642. Con. Sulphuric Acid is used as electrolyte in Lead Acid Cell

643. Secondary cell voltage depends on the number of plates

644. Ampere-Hour efficiency can be increaswd by controlling thje charging current

Page 32 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

645. Efficiency of a secondary battery is defind as the ratio of input divided by output

646. Spark ignition system is required in diesel engine

647. Fuel tank in diesel engine should be cleaned for every 250 hours of working

648. Excessive fuel consumption is due to incorrect value of fuel timing

649. The exhaust valve opens during power stroke

650. Governor throttle regulates the amount of fuel supplied to the engine

651. The diesel engine is to be overhauled for every 500 Hours

652. The power is transmitted to alternator by camshaft in diesel engine

653. The valves are opened by livers in diesel engine

654. The 3 pins of CLS lamp are provided to prevent lamp theft

655. LED signal works on 110 volts AC only

656. All type ECR can be used with LED signal

657. 1SL 18 lamp and SL 35 A lamp can not used in cascaded off aspect.

658. LED signal unit and SL 35 A lamp can not used in cascaded off aspect.

659. Siemens ON ECR can be used in aspect control circuit with LED signal.

660. No load current of signal transformer shall not be more than 15 Milli Amps.

661. Normally No load current of signal transformer shall be measured on secondary


side of transform.
662. Terminal voltage of signal lamp shall not be more than 90% of ratted voltage of
lamp.
663. Purpose cascading is to protect blank signal and red lamp protection is prevent
blanking of signal respectively
664. Purpose red lamp protection is prevent blanking of signal in case of OFF aspect
lamp fuses.
665. One aspect of CLS unit contains two lenses, inner clear lens and outer colour lens.

666. Auxiliary filament of triple pole lamp will also burn while main filament is burning.

Page 33 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

667. Proceed aspect of Distant Signal in single distant territory indicate run-through
condition always.
668. The Distant Signal in double distant territory has total three aspects.

669. Home signal is always a slotted signal.

670. Track locking is made effective A&E positions on point lever.

671. Dead Approach to be provided where the sufficient length of Approach Track
circuit cannot be provided.
672. Indication locking is to be provided where there is no rigid connection between the
lever and its function.
673. The back locking on a signal lever will be effective at B position.

674. The purpose of UYR1 and UYR2 circuits is to release the after the train is
received signals.
675. The purpose of ‘NA’ band contact across HR relay is to achieve cross
protection to HR relay .
676. The purpose of GECR contact in HR circuit is to avoid the bobbing of the signal
when the signal ahead is changing its aspects.
677. The purpose of JR back contact in HR circuit is to cancellation is not in progress
when the signal is being initiated.
678. To perform the function of lock bar, in power signalling track circuit & lever lock ll
be provided.
679. When a stop signal is taken off, the crank handle must be in locked condition.

680. In junction type route indicator, the maximum number of routes can be displayed
is seven .
681. In junction type route indicator, to energize UECR minimum three
nos. of route lamps must be in lit condition.
682. The maximum number of routes which can be indicated by using
stencil type route indicator is four.
683. Approach locking is provided for the goods loop starter.

684. Indication locking on signals will be effective at B position of signal


lever.
685. The berthing track circuit shall be proved in HR circuit of shunt
signal.
686. The approach locking is provided to prevent manipulation of the route when train
cross the signal.
687. All the track circuit in the route shall be proved in the back locking.

Page 34 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

688. Indication locking on signal lever is effective on ‘B’ &’D’ position.

689. TSR circuit achieves one signal one-train principle.

690. Point in isolation must be proved in shunt signal control.

691. Track locking performs the function of lock bar.

692. UYR relays provided to prevent premature route release.

693. In home signal HR circuit points in the route must be proved.

694. In home signal HR circuit points in the over lap must be proved.

695. In home signal HR circuit points in the isolation must be proved.

696. In home signal HR circuit track circuit in the route must be proved.

697. In home signal HR circuit track circuit in the berthing portion must be proved.

698. In home signal HR circuit track circuit in the over lap must be proved.

699. In home signal HR circuit crank handle in and locked must be proved.

700. In home signal HR circuit route release relays dropped position must be proved

701. In home signal HR circuit route cancellation relays dropped position must be
proved.
702. In home signal HR circuit calling on signal below home signal not operated position
must be proved
703. In home signal HR circuit one signal one train feature must be proved.

704. In home signal HR circuit route lamps lit for diverging line must be proved.

705. In home signal HR circuit route lamps not lit for straight line must be proved.

706. In home signal HR circuit LC gate closed and locked condition must be proved.

707. In home signal HR circuit siding control normal position must be


Proved.
708. In home signal HR circuit its control operated position in both positive and
negative limbs must be proved.
709. In home signal HR circuit cross protection across HR must be proved.

Page 35 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

710. To ensure the signal ahead is not blank in the HR circuit of home, only Main line
starter HECR & DECR in parallel are proved.
711. The points in isolation must be proved in HR circuit of calling on signal.

712. All tracks in the route overlap and berthing shall be proved in home signal HR.

713. For shunt signal, the route locking is up to berthing track included.

714. For approach locking of loop line starter, the berthing track alone is proved.

715. Calling signal detects all the points, which the main signal above it detects
excluding the overlap points.
716. Generally Dead Approach locking is provided for a home signal of wayside station.

717. The CO signal will have that many numbers of routes as many overlaps available.

718. The CO signal locks the starter ahead and vice versa.

719. The shunt signal is provided with approach locking.

720. In panel interlocking, the CO signal cancellation period is 240 seconds.

721. In panel interlocking, all signals except CO signal will have cancellation period of
120 seconds.
722. In panel interlocking for way side stations, the starter signal is provided with
cancellation period of 240 seconds.
723. It shall not be possible to insert the crank handle extracted from one group of
points in the point machine of any other group of points.
724. For cross protection of HR relay, UCR front contact is used.

725. On complete arrival of the train, SM normalized the signal knob but route not
released due to one of the back lock track failed, but SM reversed the gate control
knob and slot was sent to gate lodge with a time delay 120 seconds to open the
gate.
726. For home signal DR to pick up, it is sufficient that main line starter DR is in pick up
condition.
727. When economizer pushbutton is pressed to extract the crank handle, the lock coil
is energized only after dropping of CHLR.
728. When SM’s key is taken out, still it is possible to take off a signal from the panel.

729. In route setting type interlocking, when signal knob is reversed, the route setting
relay LR is energized to operate points to required position.
730. In RRI, point knob has to be kept in ‘C’ position, for automatic operation of points.
Page 36 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

731. In route setting panel interlocking with domino type panel with all buttons, two
common point group buttons are provided i.e. one for normal and other for reverse.
732. OVSR relay picks up automatically when run through signals are given and train
cleared berthing track.
733. LC gate opening is possible without any time delay, after complete arrival of train
but route not released.
734. In all buttons route setting type panel, the NNR drops the moment NRR picks up.

735. One signal one train movement is achieved through TSR circuit.

736. When SM locks the panel, RR dropping is prevented by SMCR front contact
bridging the knob reverse contact.
737. When signal is taken off the CHFR relay drops , thereby Crank handle is locked in
the EKT can not be taken out.
738. In ASR circuit indication, back & approach locking were proved.

739. For cancellation of a signal, JSLR picks up through its own ASR drop contact only
after the signal knob is normalized.
740. The track locking is proved in WLR circuit of a point.

741. With the help of one front contact maximum three repeater relays can be
energized.
742. OVSR relay picks immediately when the train clears the back lock tracks ,
occupies berthing track and stops at the foot of the starter.
743. UYRs are made slow to release because ASR picks up through UYRs up and
UYRs pick up through ASR back contact.
744. UCR front contact is proved in ASR so that ASR drops the moment route checking
is completed.
745. When the train arrives on the berthing track and stops at the foot of the starter, the
overlap cancellation takes place automatically and OVSR picks up after 2 minutes
time delay.
746. The calling signal locks the main signal above it.

747. when the signal is in taken off condition, if the SM turns LC gate controlling knob to
reverse, then the gate man can extract the LC gate key for the opening the gate.
748. In route setting panel interlocking, NNR picks up through the back contact of NRR,
the moment ALSR picks up.
749. When the ASR (proved in point WLR cct) drops, the WLR still can pick up and
point can be operated.
750. The GECR relay remains in pickup when any one of the aspects is burning in the
signal.

Page 37 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

751. Conflicting signal-to-signal locking is proved in at least two stages.

752. In relay interlocking, the interlocking is checked at UCR, ASR & HR stages.

753. The two types of relay interlocking are Non route setting type and Route setting
type.
754. The two types of relay interlocking are panel interlocking and RRI.

755. The two types of interlocking are Non route setting type interlocking & panel
interlocking.
756. The two types of interlocking are route setting type interlocking and RRI

757. Track indications on the panel when track is clear and route set and locked is white
strip lights.
758. Track indication on the panel when track is occupied or failed is red

759. Track indications on the panel when the track is clear and route set locked is
yellow strip lights (LEDs)
760. Track indications on the panel when the track is clear and route set & locked is
green strip lights (LEDs).
761. when no route is set and no track failed the indications on the panel for tracks is
blank.
762. Point knobs used in RRI are of 3 position type.

763. In route setting type inter locking points are to be operated to correct position
before signal is taken off.
764. Non route setting type / panel interlocking the points are to be operated manually
before clearing the signal.
765. When UCR picks up , ASR concerned will be dropped either in PI or in RRI.

766. The points will be set automatically in RRI when signal button and route button are
pressed simultaneously.
767. In panel interlocking LR relay sets all the relevant points to the correct position
automatically.
768. The point switches used in route setting type inter locking will have three positions
i.e. N, C and R.
769. For automatic operation of points in RRI , the point knob has to be set to centre (
C ) position.
770. When the point switch 3 positions is kept in the centre ( C) position then both NC &
RC switch contacts are made to facilitate automatic point operation.
771. In case of Electronic Interlocking System, Non-Interlocking period is less

Page 38 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

772. In case of Electronic Interlocking System, Standard of safety and reliability is


higher as compared with existing relay interlocking systems.

773. Datalogger / Event logger is not an integral part of EI.

774. Electronic Interlocking System is provided with self-diagnostic in feature.

775. By using Object Controllers Main signalling cables between Equipment Room
(Relay Room) and Location Box of field functions can be eliminated.

776. Microlok-II is a Dual hardware with software diversity system.

777. SIMIS S Electronic interlocking system is a 2 out of 3 system.

778. In Electronic interlocking system, executive software is common to all EI’s of same
company manufacturing the same model.

779. In Electronic interlocking system, executive software cuts off vital supply voltage to
output relays, in case of unsafe failures.

780. In Electronic interlocking system, application software is specific to each station.

781. Microlok -II is a 2 out of 3 system.

782. In MICROLOK-II, Application software is common for all stations.

783. In MICROLOK-II, Executive software is common for all stations.

784. Microlok-II system is limited to 4-road station only.

785. In Microlok II, each card file capacity is 20 slots.

786. Non-Vital I/O cards are required in Microlok-II system only when the system is
required to be interface with conventional Control cum Indication Panel.

787. In Microlok-II system RS-485 ports are used for vital interface.

788. In Microlok-II system RS-232 ports are used for Non-Vital data interface.

789. In Microlok-II card file, maximum 20 nos. of Input / Output interface cards can be
accommodated.

790. In Microlok-II card file, CPU card occupies the space of 2 slots.

791. In Microlok-II card file, Power supply card occupies the space of 1 slot.
Page 39 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

792. In Microlok-II CPU card is provided with FLASH ROMs / EEPROMs for storing the
executive and application software.

793. In Microlok-II, each address select PCB consists of 8 nos. of Jumpers.

794. In Microlok-II, each address select PCB jumper settings are unique and shall
match with the definition of cards in application program.

795. In Microlok-II card file, keying plugs prevents plugging of wrong type of card.

796. In Microlok-II, address select PCB is used to address particular slot of the card

797. The EEPROM PCB is placed on the 48 Pin connector of the CPU card to store
Site-specific configuration data.

798. Microlok II can be used as a Distributed Interlocking System.

799. Main Signalling Cable can be totally eliminated with Microlok-II as a Distributed
Interlocking System.

800. For a 4-road station with Microlok-II as a Distributed Interlocking is costlier over
Microlok-II as a Centralised Interlocking system.

801. The SIMIS S basic system meets the Generic CENELEC SIL3 safety standards.

802. The SIMIS-S is following the coded mono processing as TWO 1-out-of-1
processors in standby configuration.

803. In SIMIS S System, Reaction time of less than 1.5 seconds for showing a
restrictive aspect after a hazardous event occurs.

804. SIMIS S System behavior is Fail-safe, if failures occur within the system or the
operating modules

805. In SIMIS S System, RS-232 protocol is used.

806. PROFIBUS Protocol means Process Field Bus Protocol.

807. PROFIBUS protocol includes fault detection, because of safety reasons no


correction procedure is implemented.

808. In PROFIBUS protocol, if a telegram is detected as false this telegram is send


again.

Page 40 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

809. In SIMIS S System, Digital Input Modules (Vital) and Digital output Modules (Vital)
are provided with hot swapping feature.

810. In SIMIS S System, Provides Interface between the profibus and I/O modules in an
Electronic Terminal station.

811. Electric lever lock is used where mechanical control on a electrical equipment is
required.
812. Maximum THREE slides can be placed in the EPD.

813. C and D detection slides of EPD are not inter-changeable where as siemens point
machine are inter-changeable.
814. When in and out type of FPL is used then A type lock slid shall be used in EPD.

815. When in and out type of FPL is used then B type lock slid shall be used in EPD.

816. When RKT key is to be transmitted then 1,2 & 3,5 contacts are in make
condition.
817. When point is set and lock in reveres then RC & RD contact will makes.

818. When point is not set and lock in normal then RC & NC contact will makes.

819. When point machine switching unit is taken out then RD & ND contact will makes.

820. Economizer contact in lever lock is for power saving.

821. H contact in signal machine is used to control feed to motor

822. Stroke of Siemens, IRS and GRS 5E point machine is equal.

823. Function of top roller and bottom roller of Siemens point machine switching
assembly is detect setting of switches and locking of switches respectively.
824. IRS point machine contains total four detection and control contacts.

825. Snubbing in Siemens point machine is electrical type.

826. Siemens point machine friction clutch adjustment should be done at site.

827. When point is in mid position all control and detection contacts are in made
position in Point machine.
828. The normal condition of “K” and “H” contacts in Signal machine circuit is open.

829. In Electric detector, NWKR is wired across Normal Shunt contact

Page 41 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

830. Maximum cores available in underground signalling cables are 37 cores

831. The motor of IRS and Siemens point machine are interchangeable

832. Electrical parameter of The motor of IRS and Siemens point machine are same

833. Thrust of The of IRS and Siemens point machine are same

834. Adequate Distance is the distance given as120mts to ensure safety

835. Block back is a message given to the driver to enter into block section

836. The wring of Normal & Reverse polarity instrument are Identical in Neal’s Token
Instrument
837. Double line Block instrument should have 2 indicator only

838. Double line Block instrument can be used for single line working

839. PR in NBT does not require P.O.H

840. In DLBI all the Block operation are done at sending end.

841. Authority to proceed is given to the Guard of a special train

842. Premature TOL is done in S/L Token Block Instrument

843. Rest contact Breaks isolates PR with line Circuit

844. Rest contact is dynamic is nature

845. The object of providing Block Instrument is to prevent more than one train in a
block section at a time
846. Absolute Block working is to maintain space internal between two trains

847. The Driver is a Absolute Block working should not enter into the Block section
without proper Authority
848. Token is handed over to the driver of a train as an authority to proceed

849. At a time max no of tokens extracted from a pair of Block instruments are 2 No s

850. To connect pair of NBT instrument we require 2 lines wire and earth return

851. On a single line where trains work under absolute Block system every train in its
progress from one block station to next shall be signalled over the block
instruments
Page 42 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

852. Inserting the token into the block instrument indicate that the train is in his
custody/train reached safely by the S.M
853. I R S Drg No for Neal’s ball token instruments is SA 20701/M

854. Solid balls are used as tokens in NBT Instrument

855. The groove cut in Balls of NBT Instrument is to easy carry

856. Different hole configurations are provided to distinguish the token belonging to
block instruments of different block section
857. SM’s key when ‘out’ in NBT will mechanically lock the bottom (operating) handle
and Top Handle only
858. Top handle can only be locked in its position at 85 from the vertical

859. SM’s key removed no incoming or out going bell beats

860. We can turn the top handle upto a maximum of 180 when token is not inserted

861. Top indicator is having only one indication i.e green

862. LSS control key can extract only in TGT Position of B/H

863. When tokens are available in the instrument it is possible to turn the block handle
to TCF
864. When tokens are available in the instrument it is possible to turn the block handle
to TGT
865. Safety catch allows declutching of commentator shaft from spring clutch shaft
while turning the handle from line close to TCF/TGT
866. Lubrication is done with Axle oil medium grade to IS: 1628

867. Checking the polarity of NBT instruments is done by not less then superior grade
(JE)
868. Adequate Distance is the distance sufficient to ensure safety

869. 6 types no: of types of block workings are existing in Indian railways

870. Resistance of PR relay is 77 ohms

871. Resistance of Galvo relay is 150 ohms

872. Current required to pick up Galvo relay is 20 ma

873. Capacity of Tablet token block instrument is 36 no:

Page 43 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

874. Commutater has three positions ( Normal,Reverse & center )

875. In normal position of commutater if plunger is pressed 1 &3 commutater spring


contacts make
876. For shunting in the Block section Block handle should be kept in TOL condition
where shunting is in progress
877. Block handle cannot be turned to TGT when there is no tokens in the Block
instrument
878. Galvanoscope Indicates incoming and outgoing DC currents.

879. Galvanoscope Indicates only outgoing DC current in FM instrument

880. Time Release Indicator operated during cancellation of line clear

881. Time Release Indicator operated during push back normalisation of the Block
Instrument
882. Time Release indicator displays green with locked and changes to white with free
when operated.
883. Switch S2 is used for cancellation of line clear

884. Switch S1 is used for push back normalization of the Instrument

885. Switch S2 is used for push back normalization of the Instrument

886. The modulating frequencies are common for all Instruments

887. TOL indicator normally displays a white indication

888. TOL indicator displays red indication with ‘train on line’ before the train enter into
block section
889. PB1 used to transmit DC Pulses for exchanging bell code signals

890. PB2 is a push button used in conjunction with PB1 to transmit frequency
modulated code
891. Movement of the handle to TCF, TGT and back to normal position from TCF or
TGT is controlled by a electrical lock
892. For turning the handle to TGT the lock is initially energises at X position but gets
force dropped before X’ and it attracts at X’ position for further movement to TGT
893. Check locking is provided to ensure the conscious co-operation of the operator at
the other end
894. Check locking is effective while turning the handle from
TGT to Normal

Page 44 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

895. Block handle assembly consist of 24 sets of spring contacts actuated during the
cause of handle operation
896. Buzzer BZ1 operates when in a train enters block section

897. Buzzer BZ1 operates when a train clears the block section

898. BZ2 operated when a train clears the block section

899. BZ2 operated when a train enter the block section

900. SM’s key when removed the Instrument is inoperative for all functions

901. SM’s key when removed it is possible for the reception of bell code signal or
reception of transmission of TOL code
902. Shunt key can be removed only in line closed or TGT position

903. Shunt key can be removed in TCF position

904. Shunt key cannot be removed in TCF position

905. If the shunt key is removed the Instrument handle in locked mechanically

906. If the shunt key is removed the instrument handle is locked electrically

907. Insertion and extraction of shunt key can be done with out SM’s key in the
Instrument
908. Transmitter gives a FM output when the DC feed us connected to
it by different selection
909. The modulating frequency is selected by the transmitter according to the condition
of the Block Instrument
910. Receiver gives DC output for energising either CR1 or CR2 irrespective of the
modulating frequency of the code received
911. The receiver is switched on when the DC feed is connected through the relevant
selections
912. Level adjustment switch is a three position switch associates with the Receiver

913. The level of the signal output of the transmitter can be adjusted by level
adjustment switch
914. Attenuator associates with the transmitter

915. Attenuator can be set to introduce the required db loss on the received signal

916. PBPR energised only when PB2 are pressed

Page 45 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

917. PBPR energised when PB1 is pressed when TOLR relay is energised
with Block handle in ‘R’ position
918. PBPR when energised connects to line battery –ve & +ve on L1 & L2
Respectively
919. PBPR when dropped connects NR relay to line

920. PBPR when dropped connects 24v to the transmitter

921. NR is a DC polar line Relay

922. NR energises when –ve is received on L1 and +ve to transmitter

923. BLR is a DC Neutral line Relay

924. BLR energises when –ve is received is L1 and +ve on L2

925. TEPR is a DC polar Relay

926. TELR is energised when the pressed switch of hand micro telephone is pressed

927. TELR connects to telephone current to the line through its back contact

928. TELR isolates transmitter and receiver from lines as they are connectedto lines
through its back contact
929. 3R is line clear cancellation Relay

930. 3R picks up after about 120 seconds on operating switch S1 during cancellation of
line clear
931. TRSR sticks in the LX’ position of the operating handle

932. TRSR release when the train passes last vehicle Track circuit

933. TOLR picks up only before CR2 picks up at train receiving station

934. TOLR operated when the train occupies the first vehicle track circuit when the
operating handle is in TGT position.
935. TER operates when switch S1 is operated

936. TER operates when switch S1 is operated and LSS controls Normalised

937. CR1 picks up when a code of 1800HZ or 2700HZ modulated by


85HZ is received from the distant station
938. CR2 pick up when a code of 1800HZ or 2700HZ Modulated by 65HZ is received
from the distant station
Page 46 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

939. CR2 energises TOLR in the other end instrument during TOL code Transmission

940. TOLR indicator is of magnetic stick type

941. The Normal coil of TOLK is energised through back contact of TOLR

942. To Release coil of TOLK is energised through XX’ and YY’ contact
of Block handle
943. ASR and HSR are conflicting Relays in FM Instrument

944. ASR picks up when block handle is in TCF position with TRSR energised

945. The front contact of ASR controls the feed to the LSS
(True/False)
946. To pick up ASR, TRSR front contact is required

947. Bell circuit is having two parallel path one with BLR front contact
another with NR Back contact
948. Back contacts of CR1 and CR2 relays have been proved to
ensure that ‘PBPR’ relay will not be energised while receiving
modulated frequencies

949. To Ensure that relays NR and BLR are not picked up simultaneously front contact
of NR relay is proved in BLR circuit
950. Back contact of ‘PBPR’ and front contact of PBPR are proved in
DC feed circuit of TX and RX respectively
951. Front contacts of CR1 & CR2 have been proved into DC feed circuit for transmit to
ensure that no code except the code of bell signals can be generated unless the
code relays are de-energised
952. Since TOL to be transmitted automatically, front contact of PBPR is not provided
in DC feed circuit to the Transmitter
953. Receiver to be in readiness to receive the TOL code the DC feed circuit is taken
via 2R relay block contact with the block handle at R position
954. Press contact of the PB2 in the DC feed circuit of the transmitter prevent DC feed
to TX while acknowledging TOL code
955. Block handle contact BX and DY are included in the DC feed circuit to the receiver
minimises the battery consumptions
956. SM’s key contact has not been proved in the DC feed circuit of
Transmitter to ensure that the TOL indicator will display immediately to block
section is occupies irrespective of the position of SM’s key
957. Cross protector to the lock magnet coil is given through CR1 and
CR2 front contact

Page 47 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

958. TX and RX are connected to line through the back contact of ‘TELR to ensure
that during conversation on telephone no code in transmitted or received by the TX
& RX respectively at either end
959. The telephone set is connected to the lines through to front contact of TELR

960. The TELR feed is taken through to back contact of CR1 & CR2 andTOLR to
ensure that during transmission and reception of TOL code to telephone is
disconnected
961. The front contact of TOLR is included in the TELR pick up circuit to ensure that
the telephone circuit is disconnected the movement
TOLR picks up to transmitter or receive TOL code
962. TOLR is made slow to release since its energising circuit is through the front
contact of TRSR and stick circuit is through back contact of
963. TRSR is made slow to release to provide the conditions required for the energises
circuit of TOLR in which the front contact of TRSR and back contact of FVTPR
included
964. Switch S1 Reverse contact has been included in the ASR circuit

965. In Non RE area FM signal super imposed on to same pair of line


wires of DC circuit
966. In RE area it is worded on a pair of conductor of pet quad of main
telecom cable and to Dc circuit workers on two phantoms derived from the pet
quad
967. In AC RE area since a physical pair is used for FM signal and a derived
phantoms is used for DC the choke CH1 is very essential
968. To obtain the full advantage of Tokenless block working push
button type have been evolved
969. A pair of push button instrument are connected with four line wires

970. Push button instruments are purely relay interlocked

971. Push button instruments are electro mechanical Instruments

972. Pressing TGB and BCB at train sending station transmits ‘Train going to ‘ to the
instrument at the other end
973. After the Instrument at the receiving end in set to TCF & TGT code is transmitted
back to train sending end
974. When train arrives operation of push button BCB & TCB simultaneously at the
receiving end reraly in transmission of the Line closed code to the train sending
end instrument
975. The user had to provide EKT instruments for shunt key and stop/catch siding
control key where required
Page 48 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

976. TOL or Free indication lit on establishment without the requirement of BCB or
panel lamp Button pressed
977. The Non co-operative feature is destroyed by locking up of the instrument

978. First step of operational code station with +ve in PB

979. Code for bell is +ve in PB Instrument

980. To cancel ‘Train going to’ condition before the train enter the block
section BCB & LCB must be operated at both station concurrently
981. Set the Block instrument to line closed when the train pushes back to the
dispatching station BCB & LCB must be operated at sending station concurrently
982. All operational codes are transmitted only when LCB or TGB is presses with BCB
at the transmitting station
983. ‘Train on line’ Buzzer operates only at the receiving station

984. Train on line code is suppressed by the sending station by keeping the pressed
TGB
985. SNR proves the Normal position of all the signals and their control levers/knobs
pertaining to that block section
986. Picking up of SNR indirectly proves that shunt key and slip/catch
siding keys are out position
987. SNR picks up by pressing BCB along with TGB/LCB buttons

988. SNR picks up automatically on receipt of all 2nd functioned pulse


and drops at the end of 3rd pulse
989. Normal position of FVT & LVT are proved in SNR circuit

990. For all functioned SNR relay working is a must

991. Though feed to other relay from the external circuit is available it does not pick up
however SNR indication is available
992. TAR picks up through external battery

993. TAR de-latches to Normal through line battery once the instrument assumes to
line closed position
994. ASTR picks up once FVT is actuated

995. Dropping of ASTR in TGT position initiates transmission of Automatic TOL code

996. ASTR picks up and stock while initiating push back normalization

997. Non Energization of this relay will not permit the instrument to change to TGT
Page 49 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False
even on receipt of answer back TGT code
998. TCKR at transmitting and CRR relay at receiving end are in series through to line
with the line battery at the transmitting end
999. In the line circuit at the receiving end RCKR front contact is proves

1000. RCKR acts as a code pulse terminator

1001. Generator and transmission of a pulse is done at the transmitting end while the
terminator of a pulse are ordered by the circuit at the receiving end
1002. RCKR prepares the instrument for automatic answer back

1003. CTR by its state of energization or deenergization decides whether the instrument
is receiving or transmitting respectively
1004. CTR relay front contact the line battery to lien while its back contact connect
CRR(R)/CRR (R) to line
1005. LCCPR drops when line closed code is received from line

1006. Picking up to LCCPR enables to TGTR or TCFR to release and switches on CTR
for answer back when necessary
1007. LCCPR allows line closed code transmission as an automatic reply code
only when to enquiry code is line closed code and _____________
1008. PTR & NTR are used respectively to connect –ve /+ve of the line battery on line at
the transmitting instrument
1009. LR is the relay that is reacted on front by CRR(R) or TCKR while the instrument is
receiving or transmitting respectively
1010. Zener Diode is provided across the condenser of 3CR relay to have a contact time
delay irrespective of the voltage variation
1011. 1 CR os having toe branches one with TCKR and other with RDR respectively
effective during transmission and reception of code
1012. PZR & NZR _____ the polarity of the front pulse of code that is received

1013. When the SM acknowledges the TOL code by pressing BCB to transmit a bell
code to TOLAR at the sending station __________ and causes
TOLTR drop to stop the transmission of TOL codes
1014. PCR picks up at the end that initiates line closed operation

1015. TGTR picks up on successful reception of TCF code and releases when line
closed code is received
1016. TCFR picks up when TCF code is received and releases on reception of line
closed code
1017. ASCR picks up and locks the signal when cancellation is initiated

Page 50 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

1018. Front contact of ASR

1019. Train shunt Resistance (TSR) is directly proportional to the Relay voltage.

1020. Ballast resistance (RB) is directly proportional to the length of the Track circuit.

1021. Dead section on the point zone shall not be more than 1.8 m (6’) for B.G.

1022. The value of the regulating resistance used in the D.C track circuit in AC RE area
is 0-30Ω (adjustable)

1023. Minimum permissible Ballast resistance of a D.C track circuit in Block section shall
be 2 Ω/ K.M

1024. Minimum permissible value of TSR for a D.C track circuit shall be 0.5 ohms.

1025. Maximum length of DC Track Circuit in AC RE area using QBAT is 750 m with B
type choke at both ends.

1026. The maximum limit of voltage drop across DC track relay of QTA2 is up to 300% of
its pick up value.

1027. The total stray current as measured, shall not exceed 10 milliamps if the length of
the track circuit is less than 100metres.

1028. The total stray current as measured, shall not exceed 100 milliamps if the length of
the track circuit is more than or equal to 100metres.

1029. Stray voltage shall not be more than 100mv irrespective of length of track circuit.

1030. The insert to insert resistance of a sleeper should not be less than 500 ohms

1031. B type choke has impedance Z=120Ω and resistance = 3Ω.

1032. Insulation Resistance Testing of Glued Joints is done with 100V DC Megger.

1033. Insulation Resistance of a glued joint in Dry condition shall not be less than 25 MΩ
when a meggering voltage of 100V DC is applied across the joint.

1034. Insulation Resistance of a glued joint in wet condition shall not be less than 3 KΩ.

1035. The measured TSR value of a track circuit should be always higher than the
minimum TSR of 0.5 ohms.

Page 51 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

1036. Minimum permissible ballast resistance in station yard is 2 Ω/Km

1037. Minimum permissible ballast resistance out side station yard is 1 Ω/Km

1038. Track Relay used for track circuit length up to 100 m is 2.25 Ω

1039. Track Relay used for Track Circuit length more than 100 m is 2.25 Ω

1040. The minimum length of a DC track circuit is 2 rail lengths (26m)

1041. Regulating resistance (Round Type) used in DC track circuit of Non-RE area is 0-
15 Ω.

1042. The DC Track Circuit Regulating Resistance can be made zero

1043. Ballast Resistance is inversely proportional to Length of Track Circuit.

1044. When TPR drops, it indicates that the Closed Track Circuit is not occupied by the
train.

1045. Transverse Bonds are provided between Positive Rails in DC Single Rail Track
Circuit.

1046. Transverse Bonds are provided between Negative Rails of adjacent DC single rail
track circuits.

1047. Rail Resistance is directly proportional to the length of The Track Circuit.

1048. Rail Resistance shall not exceed 0.5 Ω/Km., if Track Circuit Length is more than
700 m.

1049. Rail Resistance shall not exceed 1.5 Ω/Km., if Track Circuit Length is less than
700 m.

1050. Under minimum Ballast Resistance condition, for the QBAT Track Relay, voltage
across the track relay shall not be less than 125% of its Rated Pick UP Value.

1051. Under minimum Ballast Resistance condition, voltage across the track relay shall
not be less than 125% of its Rated Pick UP Value except for QBAT.

1052. The insert-to-insert resistance of a PSC sleeper should be more than 500Ω for use
in D.C track circuit.

1053. When drop shunt test is done with 0.5ohm resistance the relay voltage should not

Page 52 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False
be more than 85% of drop away voltage.

1054. As per SEM the availability of GFN liners should be ensured up to 97% for proper
working of DC track circuit.

1055. Where Ballast conditions are poor, AFTC of more than 450m length should be of
the centre fed version.

1056. Where Ballast conditions are poor, AFTC of less than 450m length shall be of the
end fed version.

1057. Siemens FTGS track circuits are not coded track circuits.

1058. ‘S’ bonds are used where Siemens AFTC is followed by ALSTOM AFTC.

1059. If ALSTOM AFTC is followed by ALSTOM AFTC, ‘S’ bonds can be used.

1060. In SIEMENS AFTC, 12 different types of carrier frequencies are used.

1061. In SIEMENS AFTC, data signal (modulating signal) is 8-bit pattern

1062. In SIEMENS AFTC, 8 different types of data signals are available for each carrier
frequency.

1063. In SIEMENS AFTC, receiver-I card checks received signal amplitude and
frequency

1064. Receiver-I card of SIEMENS AFTC is a universal card.

1065. Transmitter card of SIEMENS AFTC is a frequency dependent card i.e. separate
card is required for each frequency.

1066. Receiver-II card of SIEMENS AFTC is a universal card.

1067. Demodulator card of SIEMENS AFTC is a universal card.

1068. In SIEMENS AFTC, data verification is done by Receiver-II card

1069. In SIEMENS AFTC, amplitude assessment is done in amplifier card.

1070. FTGS-46 is suitable for short length track circuits.

1071. FTGS-917 is suitable for long length track circuits.

1072. FTGS-917 is suitable for short length Track circuits

Page 53 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

1073. SIEMENS AFTC worked on MSK Principle

1074. ‘TSR value in the track circuited portion of AFTC is 0.5Ώ

1075. TSR value in the tuned zone portion of AFTC is 0.15 Ώ

1076. Audio Frequency Track Circuit can be a Joint Less Track Circuit except in Point
Zone Track Circuit.

1077. Z’ bonds are used in the turned zone of SIEMENS AFTC.

1078. ALSTOM AFTC worked on FSK principle

1079. In ALSTOM AFTC, only three different types of data signal are available for each
carrier frequency.
1080. DTC-24 is suitable for long length track circuits

1081. Train shunt Resistance (TSR) is directly proportional to the Relay voltage.

1082. Ballast resistance (RB) is directly proportional to the length of the Track circuit.

1083. Dead section on the points zone shall not be more than 1.8 m (6’) for B.G.

1084. The value of the regulating resistance used in the D.C track circuit in AC RE area
is 0-30Ω (adjustable)
1085. Minimum permissible Ballast resistance of a D.C track circuit in Block section shall
be 2 ohms per k.m.
1086. Minimum permissible value of TSR for a D.C track circuit shall be 0.5 ohms.

1087. The distance between two cross bonds shall not be more than 100m, used in D.C.
track circuit used in AC RE area.
1088. The minimum length of a D.C track circuit is 26 meters (2 rail lengths) normally.

1089. Insulation resistance of a glued joint shall not be less than 3k ohms in wet
condition When meggered with 100 V D.C Megger.
1090. Transverse Bonds are provided between negative rail to negative rail, in continous
single rail D.C track circuit zone
1091. Maximum length of DCTC in RE using QBAT is 750 mtrs.

1092. Overhauling of a plug-in type track relay is to be done once in 15 years

1093. ‘B’ type choke is to be provided in DCTC is of 120 ohms impedance and 3 ohms
resistance.
Page 54 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

1094. Two sets of Tx / Rx coils are required at one detection point to establish the
direction of traffic.
1095. Transmitter coils are always connected inside the rail

1096. Preparatory reset prepares to reset the axle counter and ensures that the SM/ASM
pilot the train.
1097. In preparatory reset, after resetting, axle counter continues to show occupied until
one train movement in the section carries out correct balancing of track section.
1098. In UAC, both the Transmitter coils are connected in Series.

1099. In analog axle counter, the receiver output signal due to passage of train is an
amplitude modulated signal.
1100. In axle counter for each axle passing over detection point causes a ‘dip’ in the
receiver signal.
1101. In universal or multi entry axle counter evaluator consists of 8No.s of cards
including Power Supply card.
1102. Main purpose of trolley suppression track circuit is to prevent the conversion of
pulses from the dip caused by trolley wheel.
1103. In Universal Axle counter, the transmitter signal frequency is 5 KHz

1104. In Universal Axle counter, with one evaluator unit maximum 8 detection points can
be connected.
1105. Trolley suppression track circuit is provided in card no. 4 for ABCD channels.

1106. Trolley suppression track circuit is provided in card no. 5 for EFGH channels

1107. Logic card for ABCD channel is card no 5.

1108. Channel voltage after attenuator pads of card no 1 &2 is 105mv AC.

1109. SUPR & EVER are controlled through card no.9.

1110. Transmitter & Receiver cables should be put in HDPE pipe for safety and laid at a
depth of >1 meter from bottom of rail.
1111. Axle counter Transmitter cables and receiver cables of individual track devices can
be laid in same pipe.
1112. In CEL single section digital axle counters, event logger card is optional with each
set of axle counters used for monitoring the one track section.

1113. Phase reversal modulation technique is used in digital axle counters to avoid the
trolley suppression track circuit.
1114. In SSDAC of CEL make, SCC-1 generates the frequencies of 21KHz carrier
Page 55 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False
signals, which is transmitted to 1ST set of Tx coils.
1115. In SSDAC of CEL make, SCC-2 generates the frequencies of 21KHz carrier
signals, which is transmitted to 2nd set of Tx coils.

1116. In SSDAC of CEL make, when the train wheel passes over the axle detectors, the
Rx signal gets phase modulated.
1117. In SSDAC of CEL make, the SCC conditions the modulated signal and
demodulates it to generate valid train pulses.
1118. Amplitude modulation technique is used in digital axle counters to avoid the trolley
suppression track circuit.
1119. SSDAC- ELDYNE (AzLS) is containing 2 out of 2 micro-controllers to count the
axles, establish the track occupancy of a track section.
1120. The AzLS, consisting double rail contact Sk30H and an electronic unit.

1121. In AzLS, Analog card of Electronic Unit generates Tx signal, Amplifies Rx signal,
does phase sensitive rectification and also generates wheel pulse of MESSAB and
RADIMP.
1122. In AzLS, Digital card of Electronic Unit Counts wheel pulse, Determines RCD,
Supervises Rail Contact, Codes telegrams.
1123. AzLS can be configured as a single section axle counter with one Rail Contact
(RC) and Electronic Control Unit (EAK) combination at both ends of the section
and with a two-wire fault tolerant link (FTL) between the two.
1124. In AzLS, additional Digital PCB or evaluator card is not required to be used at the
common detection point (EAK).
1125. AzLS could be configured in a double section application including point zone
application.
1126. Axle detectors do not detect push trolley with 4 / 6 / 8 spokes.

1127. In CEL MSDAC, Each field unit is connected to Central Evaluator on half Quad
cable in Star Configuration.
1128. Supervisory Card in UAC identifies the direction of Train movement.

1129. Typical voltage at Receiver coil without wheel is 100 mV rms

1130. Duplicate In Counts & Out counts are Generated by Logic Card

1131. Counting in SSDAC is done by Event logger card

1132. In UAC , Logic card -2 used for 3/ 4 D points only.

1133. Interrogator generates pulse trains with 100 µphase difference

Page 56 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

1134. Interrogator is available in Logic card – 2 only for UAC

1135. Only one Pulse shaper card ( card 3 ) has Trolley suppression in UAC

1136. UAC’s EJB has event logger card.

1137. We can monitor the health of remote SSDAC unit with Event logger card.

1138. High pass filter is used in Pulse shaper card to filter Noise

1139. Ist unit of SSDAC sends power supply to second unit over PDCU

1140. EJB in UAC has pulse shaper card

1141. SSDAC can be used for a max of 4 detection points.

1142. PR relay is used in UAC.

1143. SUPR relay is used in SSDAC.

1144. Interrogator is used in SSDAC.

1145. If entry end of SSDAC has TX1, TX2 then exit end has TX2 TX1 in the direction of
travel.
1146. In preparatory reset, as soon as SM presses button signal can be taken off.

1147. In MSDAC, all EJBs can communicate with each other directly.

1148. Preparatory reset is applied, SUPR picks up immediately.

1149. SSDAC uses 5 KHZ for transmitter coils.

1150. SUPR is used for trolley suppression in UAC

1151. Trolley suppression disables Pulse generation.

1152. PDCU is used for UAC.

1153. UAC evaluator has 4 cards for 4 D system

1154. SSDAC fully loaded has 6 cards.

1155. SSDAC has a modem card.

1156. UAC Can be used up to 36 Detection points

Page 57 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

1157. MSDAC used 8-bit address for addressing EJB/EAK.

1158. 0.5 mm dia quad cable can be used up to 5 KM in UAC

1159. MSDAC EJB works on 24 V dc

1160. Supervisory Card in UAC identifies the direction of Train movement.

1161. Typical voltage at Receiver coil without wheel is 100 mV rms

1162. Duplicate In Counts & Out counts are Generated by Logic Card

1163. Communication between SSDAC units is 4 W

1164. Counting in SSDAC is done by Event logger card

1165. In UAC , Logic card -2 used for 3/ 4 D points only.

1166. Interrogator generates pulse trains with 100 µphase difference

1167. Interrogator is available in Logic card – 2 only for UAC

1168. Only one Pulse shaper card ( card 3 ) has Trolley suppression in UAC

1169. UAC’s EJB has event logger card.

1170. We can monitor the health of remote SSDAC unit with Event logger card.

1171. High pass filter is used in Pulse shaper card to filter Noise

1172. Ist unit of SSDAC sends power supply to second unit over PDCU

1173. EJB in UAC has pulse shaper card

1174. SSDAC can be used for a max of 4 detection points.

1175. MLB card is used in MSDAC.

1176. Pulse shaping is done in _____ card of SSDAC.

1177. 2 out of 2 logic is used in S.C.C card of SSDAC.

1178. 58% dip is adequate for wheel Detection in UAC.

1179. As speed increases, the distance between Block Joint to Detection point may be
decreased for trolley
Page 58 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

1180. 3.5KHz. Carrier is used for 4W communication,

1181. Which card is required for using 2Wire Ckt in EJB.

1182. ____ no of cards are used in EJB if 4W is used to feed evaluator?

1183. 90° phase modulation is adequate for wheel detection.

1184. PR relay is used in UAC.

1185. SUPR relay is used in SSDAC.

1186. Preparatory reset is applied at card No.____.

1187. Transmission between EJB & evaluator is 8-bit.

1188. Interrogator is used in SSDAC.

1189. If entry end of SSDAC has TX1, TX2 then exit end has TX2 TX1 in the direction of
travel.
1190. Incrementing / Decrementing is done in UAC.

1191. Each serial card of MSDAC can drive up to 4 detection points.

1192. Counting is done in _____ card of SSDAC.

1193. One section with SSDAC has ______ Nos of vital relay (s)

1194. A section with IBS, BPAC requires _______ SSDAC units.

1195. 2 ATS requires _______ parallel cards in MSDAC.

1196. Reset key is provided in serial card of DAC.

1197. RCD is required for UAC.

1198. In UAC, receiver is outside the rail at exit end.

1199. In preparatory reset, as soon as SM presses button signal can be taken off.

1200. 21, 23 KHz frequencies are used in UAC.

1201. In MSDAC, all EJBs can communicate with each other directly.

1202. Preparatory reset is applied, SUPR picks up immediately.

Page 59 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

1203. SUPR is used for trolley suppression in UAC

1204. Trolley suppression disables Pulse generation.

1205. PDCU is used for UAC.

1206. UAC evaluator has 4 cards for 4 D system

1207. SSDAC fully loaded has 8 cards.

1208. SSDAC has a modem card.

1209. UAC counting is through software.

1210. MSDAC used 8-bit address for address it EJB/EAK.

1211. 0.5 mm dia quad cable can be used up to 5 KM in UAC

1212. MSDAC EJB works on 24 V dc

1213. 4D UAC cannot be converted to 2D.

1214. Data logger records data of analog signals & digital signals.

1215. Data loggers cannot be connected on network

1216. For making reports, printing of data is possible locally as well as at centralized
place
1217. Relay data is stored with respective to date and time in the datalogger system,
only when there is a change in status of the relay.
1218. In networking of Dataloggers modems are required to be provided.

1219. In networking of Dataloggers, “ORG” Modem of one station can be connected to


“ORG” Modem of the adjacent station.
1220. In networking of Dataloggers, FEP is required at Centralised Place, where you
want to monitor the data of all the stations.
1221. In networking of Efftronics Dataloggers, Central Monitoring Unit is provided with
Nmdl, Fault entry, Reports and Track OFF software.
1222. Datalogger stores 10Lakhs events.

1223. In EFFTRONICS Datalogger, each ASU is provided with maximum of 4 no. of


analog input cards.
1224. Dataloggers are very much useful for accident analysis

Page 60 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno True Or False

1225. With the help of datalogger, Train Signal passing at Danger events may not be
analysed.
1226. With the help of datalogger, Speed of a Train can be analysed

1227. With the help of datalogger, Un-Signal Movement can be analysed.

1228. With the help of datalogger, power supply fluctuations can be analysed

1229. In AWS, opto coupler card senses the aspects information of signal and connects
the same to track magnet.

1230. In AWS, Engine Magnet transmits 50Hz and 100Hz frequencies to


Track Magnet.

1231. In AWS, Track magnet works on 24V DC.

1232. AWS applies brakes whenever Driver passed signal at Danger.

1233. AWS continuously monitors train speed and direction of movement.

1234. ACD prevents train collision in the mid section and station sections.

1235. ACD is having Door –Drishti of 3 Kms in all Weather conditions.

1236. ACDs are provided with Radio Modems for Inter-communication


between them.

1237. In ACD, UHF radio modem communication is used for tracking the train.

1238. ACD detects Train Parting.

1239. ACD alerts driver on 'Station Approach'.

1240. Alerting the driver and regulating the train speed to 25KMPH, when it detects
(through the Loco ACD of other train) that it has stopped in mid-section.
1241. TPWS facilitates to run the train at maximum permitted speed by providing the
indication to the driver 500 meters in advance of signal.

1242. TPWS facilitates to run the train at maximum permitted speed by providing the
indication to the driver 500 meters in advance of signal.

1243. TPWS facilitates normal operation of train in dense foggy condition where visibility
is near zero.

Page 61 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department

Sno Multiple Choice

1. The block overlaps and signal overlap in Multi aspect signal are _____________
& ____________ respectively.
a) 180 Mt b) 400 Mt c) 120 Mt d) 300 Mt

2. Semiautomatic signal is provided with


a) ‘A’ marker b) illuminated ‘A’ marker c) ‘AG’ marker
d) ‘P’ marker

3. A shunt signal can be placed


a) On post by it self b) below any stop signal c) Below any stop signal other
than first stop signal d) a &c

4. Shunting in the face of approaching train can be performed at ---------------


station/stations
a) Class ‘A’ b) Class ‘B’ c) Class ‘c’ d) all a,b &c

5. Attention aspect (double yellow) indicates that----------------


Page 62 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a) Two next signal ahead at OFF b) one next signal ahead at OFF c) Be
prepared to pass next signal with restricted speed. d) a &c

6. If distant signal in single distant territory display proceed aspect then it indicates-
----------
a) Run through on main line b) Run through on loop line
c) Train is going to be received on Main line d) all a,b &c

7. Adequate distance in automatic block system on double line is ---------------------


a) 180 Mt b) 400 Mt c) 120 Mt d) 300 Mt

8. Isolation is required for station with -------------------of interlocking


a) Standard I b) standard II c) standard III d) b&c

9. Normal aspect of automatic signal is -----------------------


a) ON. b) OFF. c) Proceed d) caution

10. The possible maximum numbers of aspect in LQ signal with combination of


signal is/ are ---------
a) Stop b) proceed with caution. c) Proceed d) all a,b,&c

11. A catch siding shall be provided if the gradient stepper than 1:80 in near vicinity
of station and falling --------------
a) Away from station. b) Towards station c) Towards block section d) all a,b
&c

12. A slip siding shall be provided if the gradient stepper than 1:100 in near vicinity of
station and falling --------------
a) Away from station b) to words station
c) To words block section d) all a,b &c

13. If a semiautomatic stop signal is protecting LC gate as well as point then ----------
- shall be provided on the post.
a) ‘A’ marker b) illuminated ‘A’ marker c) ‘AG’ marker d) b&c

14. When the shunt signal and calling on signal is provided below stop signal then
sequenced from top is ---------------------------------- signal.
a) First calling on then shunt b) first shunt and then calling on c) Not
possible d) any of a, &b
Page 63 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice

15. Aspects in distant signal in double distant signal territory is/ are
a) Attention b) a &c c) proceed d) caution

16. The passenger warning board shall be provided 1 Km in rear of ------------ signal.
a) Home b) first stop c) routed home d) nun of above

17. The section Gate under absolute block system shall be provided with -------
marker.
a) ‘G’ b) ‘AG’ c) ‘PG’ d) ‘A’

18. If two automatic block section and overlap ahead of an automatic signal is clear
of train then it will display --------------- aspect
a) Attention b) a OR d c) stop d) caution

19. The block overlap in class ‘C’ station provided with colour light signal is---------
a) 180Mt b) 400Mt c) 120Mt d) 580Mts

20. Repeating signal is provided when ----------------


a) Signal is not continuous visible b) signal is not visible at all c) Prescribed
visibility of signal is not available d) duplicate signal is to be provided.

21. If speed is less than 15 KMPH then ------------- type route indicator shall be
provided.
a) Directional b) stencil c) multi lamp d) any one of three
22. Single Wire lever frame classified as
(a) 3 types (b) 2 types (c) 4 types
23. Length of the direct lever (SA 530) is
(a) 1455mm (b) 2275mm (c) 1980mm
24. Pitch of the Direct lever is
(a) 100mm (b) 125mm (c) 150mm
25. Angular Through of the Direct lever is
(a) 33 deg. (b) 52 deg. (c) 27 deg.
26. Stroke of the Tappet in Direct lever is
(a) 346mm (b) 277mm (c) 65mm
27. Pitch of the Channel in Direct Lever (SA-530) frame
(a) 110mm (b) 70mm (c) 63.3mm
28. Width of the Channel in Direct Lever (SA-530) frame
(a) 55mm (b) 70mm (c) 40mm
29. Max.No.of interlocking Bar in Direct Lever (SA-530) frame
Page 64 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
(a) Top=3, Bottom=3 (b) Top=3, Bottom=2 (c) Top=2, Bottom=2
30. Max.No.of channels in Direct Lever (SA-530) frame
(a) 5&8 (b) no limit (c) 2 &4
31. Bay in Direct Lever (SA-530) frame
(a) 8 or 10 (b) 1,2,3,4,5, 6 (c) 5 or 7
32. Length of the Catch handle (SA 1101) is
(a) 1455mm (b) 2275mm (c) 1980mm
33. Pitch of the Catch handle (SA 1101)
(a) 150mm (b) 125mm (c) 100mm
34. Angular Through of the Catch handle (SA 1101) is
(a) 33 deg. (b) 52 deg. (c) 27 deg.
35. Stroke of the Tappet in Catch handle (SA 1101) is
(a) 346mm (b) 277mm (c) 65mm
36. Pitch of the Channel in Catch handle (SA 1101) frame
(a) 110mm (b) 70mm (c) 55mm
37. Width of the Channel in Catch handle (SA 1101) frame
(a) 55mm (b) 70mm (c) 40mm
38. Max.No.of interlocking Bar in Catch handle (SA 1101) frame
(a) Top=3, Bottom=3 (b) Top=3, Bottom=2 (c) Top=2, Bottom=2
39. Max.No.of channels in Catch handle (SA 1101) frame (a) 5&8 (b) 2&4
(c) no limit
40. Bay in Catch handle (SA 1101) frame
(a) 8 or 10 (b) 1,2,3,4,5, 6 (c) 5 or 7
41. Length of the Ground lever
(a) 1455mm (b) 2275mm (c) 1980mm
42. Pitch of the Ground lever
(a) 150mm (b) 125mm (c) 100mm
43. Angular Through of the Ground lever
(a) 33 deg. (b) 52 deg. (c) 27 deg.
44. Stroke of the Tappet in Ground lever
(a) 346mm (b) 277mm (c) 65mm
45. Pitch of the Channel in Ground lever frame
(a) 110mm (b) 63.3mm (c) 55mm
46. Width of the Channel in Ground lever frame
(a) 55mm (b) 70mm (c) 40mm
47. Max.No.of interlocking Bar in Ground lever frame
(a) Top=3, Bottom=3 (b) Top=3, Bottom=2 (c) Top=2, Bottom=2
48. Max.No.of channels in Ground lever frame
(a) 5&8 (b) 2&4 (c) no limit
49. Bay in Ground lever frame
(a) 8 or 10 (b) 1,2,3,4,5, 6 (c) 5 or 7
Page 65 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
50. To alter the stroke to the required magnitude
(a) Relief Crank (b) Adjustable Crank (c) Vertical Crank
51. It will convert vertical movement into horizontal movement.
(a) Accommodating Crank (b) Adjustable Crank (c) Vertical Crank
52. First crank used in a rod transmission (a)
Accommodating Crank (b) Horizontal Crank (c) Vertical Crank
53. Adjustable sleeve in Adjustable Crank can be shifted in steps of
(a) 10mm (b) 12mm (c) 15mm
54. Last crank used in rod transmission
(a) Adjustable Crank (b) Horizontal Crank (c) Vertical Crank
55. To adjust the required stroke ----- crank is used
(a) Accommodating Crank (b) Adjustable Crank (c) Vertical Crank
56. Solid rod dia.

(a) 25mm (b) 33mm (c) 55mm


57. Solid rod available in length
(a) 18’ (b) 15’ (c) 17’
58. Solid rod weight
(a) 4 lb/ft (b) 6 lb/ft (c) 2 lb/ft
59. The distance between two adjacent roller stands should not be more than ------in
solid rodding
(a) 2.2M (b) 3.3M (c) 1.89M
60. The distance between two adjacent roller stands should not be more than ------in
tubular rodding
(a) 2.2M (b) 3.3M (c) 1.85M
61. Trestles are supplied in
(a) 2-way & 4-way (b) 3-way & 4-way (c) 1-way &3-way
62. Bottom rollers required for 2-way roller stand
(a) 3 no. (b) 2 no. (c) 4 no.
63. Bottom rollers required for 4-way roller stand
(a) 3 no. (b) 2 no. (c) 4 no.
64. Top rollers required for 2-way roller stand
(a) 3 no. (b) 2 no. (c) 4 no.
65. Top rollers required for 4-way roller stand
(a) 3 no. (b) 2 no. (c) 4 no.
66. Top roller pins required for 2-way roller stand
(a) 3 no. (b) 2 no. (c) 4 no.
67. Top roller pins required for 4-way roller stand
(a) 3 no. (b) 2 no. (c) 4 no.
68. Split pins required for 2-way roller stand
(a) 3 no. (b) 6 no. (c) 5 no.
Page 66 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
69. Split pins required for 4-way roller stand
(a) 3 no. (b) 5 no. (c) 6 no.
70. Compensator need not be used for points operation up to the length of
(a) 12M (b) 13M (c) 18.5M
71. Compensator need not be used for lock bar operation up to the length of
(a) 12M (b) 13M (c) 18.5M
72. In compensator Acute /Obtuse angle crank arm sizes are
(a) 375 x 235mm (b) 406 x 253mm (c) 300 x 225mm
73. In compensator link rod size is
(a) 346mm (b) 275mm (c) 165mm
74. One compensator must be provided up the rod transmission
(a) 346M (b) 210M (c) 265M
75. Facing point lock plunger length in In and Out type of locking without cross slide
is
(a) 346mm (b) 755mm (c) 500mm
76. Facing point lock plunger length in In and Out type of locking with cross slide is
(a) 346mm (b) 755mm (c) 500mm
77. Facing point lock plunger length in straight through type of locking is
(a) 346mm (b) 755mm (c) 500mm
78. Facing point lock plunger thickness is
(a) 20mm (b) 38mm (c) 50mm
79. Facing point lock plunger width in
(a) 20mm (b) 38mm (c) 50mm
80. Facing point lock plunger width in straight through type of locking is
(a) 20mm (b) 38mm (c) 50mm
81. Notch width in split stretcher bar in In and Out type of locking is
(a) 23mm (b) 38mm (c) 53mm
82. Notch depth in split stretcher bar in In and Out type of locking is
(a) 23mm (b) 41mm (c) 53mm
83. Notch width in split stretcher bar in straight through type of locking is
(a) 41mm (b) 38mm (c) 53mm
84. Notch depth in split stretcher bar in straight through type type of locking is

(a) 23mm (b) 41mm (c) 53mm

85. The length of lock bar is


(a) 42 ft (b) 38ft (c) 53ft
86. Section of lock bar is
(a) 50 x 50 x 6mm (b) 50 x 40 x 6mm (c) 50 x 50 x 20mm
87. Inter distance between two lock bar clips shall not exceed
(a) 1040mm (b) 1220mm (c) 1250mm
Page 67 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
88. Total lift of lock bar is
(a) 35mm (b) 38mm (c) 44mm
89. The maximum spacing between the pulley stakes should not exceed.
a) 8M (b) 10M (c) 4M
90. The joints on the wire should be sufficiently clear of pulley stakes is about
a) 2M (b) 6M (c) 4M
91. SPL –Class L.C.Gates can be provided if the TVU is more than
a) 30,000 (b) 25,000 (c) 50,000
92. A –Class L.C.Gates can be provided if the TVU is more than
a) 30,000 (b) 25,000 (c) 50,000
93. B –Class L.C.Gates can be provided if the TVU is more than
a) 30,000 (b) 25,000 (c) 50,000
94. Range of operation for lifting barrier type is
a) 200M (b) 125M (c) 150M
95. The open position of the lifting barrier shall be with in ------------degrees from the
horizontal
a) 80 to 90 (b) 75 to 85 (c) 80 to 85
96. The closed position of the lifting barrier shall be within ----------degrees from the
horizontal.
a) 0 to 10 (b) -5 to +5 (c) 0 to 5
97. 25 KV AC 50 Hz single phase power supply for electric traction is derived from
a) State grid b) Central grid c) Railway grid d) None
98. OHE with automatic tensioning is called
a) Regulated OHE b) Un-regulated OHE c) Ire-regulated OHE d) None
99. The normal height of contact wire for regulated OHE above rail level is
a) 6.55m b) 7.59 m c) 5.55m d) None
100. Under bridges, the height of contact wire on BG is
a) 5.55m b) 4.5 m c) 4.65m d) None
101. On BG straight tracks, the catenary system is supported at maximum intervals
of
a) 82m b) 62m c) 72m d) None
102. Contact wire staggered on either side of centre line track on straight line tracks is
a) 200mm b) 300mm c) 29m d) None
103. Contact wire staggered on either side of centre line track on curved tracks is
a) 300mm b) 400mm c) 600m d) None
104. For 25 KV A.C vertical clearance between any live part of OHE and part of any
fixed structure to a moving dimension is
a) 300mm b) 400mm c) 320mm d) None
105. For 25 KV A.C vertical clearance between any live part of OHE and part of any
fixed structure to a stationary dimension is
Page 68 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a) 300mm b) 270mm c) 320mm d) None
106. For 25 KV A.C lateral clearance between any live part of OHE and part of any
fixed structure to a moving dimension is
a) 400mm b) 320mm c) 270mm d) None
107. For 25 KV A.C lateral clearance between any live part of OHE and part of any
fixed structure to stationary a dimension is
a) 400mm b) 320mm c) 220mm d) None
108. Normal implantation of RE mast from centre line of nearest track
a) 3.5m b) 4.5m c) 2.5 m d) None
109. The nearest part of the signal post from the centre line of track shall be
a) 3.5m b) 2.844 c) 2.5 m d) None
110. The distance between the signal and the mast in front of it shall not be less than
a) 40m b) 50m c) 30m d) None
111. The distance between the signal and the mast just in advance of signal
normally
a) 40m b) 50m c) 10m d) None
112. If the load current is 4A and backup time required is 10Hrs then recommended
capacity of Lead Acid Cell is ______
A) 40 AH B) 60 AH C) 80 AH D) 120 AH
113. Maximum permissible load on 120AH capacity Lead Acid cell is ________
A) 12 A B) 20 A C) 10 A D) 24 A
114. Voltage of the fully charged lead acid cell is ________ V

A) 2 V B) 2.2 V C) 2.3 V D) 2.4 V


115. End point voltage of the lead acid cell is _______ V
A) 1.8 V B) 1.9 V C) 2.0 V D) 2.2 V
116. Specific gravity of the discharged lead acid cell is ___________ in terms of
hydrometer reading.
A) 1180 B) 1200±5 C) 1210±5 or 1220 D) 1240±5

117. Specific gravity of the fully-charged Lead Acid cell is ________ in terms of
Hydrometer reading.
A) 1180 B) 1200±5 C) 1210±5 D) 1240±5
118.Automatic Battery charger of 24V can charge maximum ______ no. of cells in
manual Mode

Page 69 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
A) 24 B) 12 C) 13 D) 14
119.Recommended current rating of Battery charger for charging 120AH Lead Acid
cell is _______________.
A) 12 A B) 24 A C) 30 A D) 40 A
120.For charging of 200 AH cells _____________ amp capacity charger is required.
A) 20 A B) 24 A C) 30 A D) 40 A
121.Boost charging voltage of the lead acid cell is ______
A) 2.2 V B) 2.3 V C) 2.4 V D) 2.7 V
122.Initial charging voltage of the lead acid cell is _________
A) 2.2 V B) 2.3 V C) 2.4 V D) 2.7 V
123.Float charging voltage of the Automatic battery charger (IRS: 86/200) is
adjustable from ________ per cell.
A) 2.12 to 2.3 V B) 2.2 to 2.3 V C) 2.12 to 2.4 V D) 2.12 to 2.7 V
124.For Chargers used for Axle counter installations, the r.m.s ripple shall be less
than______.
A) 10mV B) 50mV C) 100mV D) 200mV
125.Chargers used for Axle counter installations, the peak to peak noise voltage shall
be less than 50mV.
A) 10mV B) 50mV C) 100mV D) 200mV
126.Battery charger working in manual mode, the charger output voltage shall be
_____ V per cell.
A) 2.2 V B) 2.25 V C) 2.3 V D) 2.4 V
127.Battery charger generates low battery alarm when the battery voltage falls to
______ V per cell.
A) 1.95 V B) 2.0 V C) 2.2 V D) 2.25 V
128.Battery charger generates start DG set non-resettable alarm when the battery
voltage falls to 1.90V/cell.
A) 1.9 V B) 2.0 V C) 2.2 V D) 2.25 V
129.Battery charger isolates battery from the load when the battery voltage falls to
________V per cell.
A) 2.0 V B) 2.15 V C) 2.2 V D) 1.8 V
130. When cascading is used in aspect control circuit them signal lamp to be used
Page 70 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
is/are--------
a) SL18 b) SL21
c) SL35 d) a&c both
131. The signal lamp to be used in directional route indicator is/are ------------------
a) SL33 b) SL13
c) SL35 d) SL25
132. Locking provided in siemens and IRS point machine is ---------------- type.
a) Rotary b) straight trough
c) in & out d) clamp type
133. The signal lamp to be used in multi-lamp route indicator is/are ------------------
a) SL33 b) SL13
c) SL35 d) SL25
134. The signal lamp to be used in shunt signal (parallel) is/are -----------------
a) SL33 b) SL13
c) SL35 d) SL25
135. When point is not set , not lock OR both then ------------------ makes.
a) RC contact b) NC contact
c) RD contact d) a&b both
136. The signal lamp to be used in shunt signal (series) is/are ------------------
a) SL65 (60 voilt/25 watts) b) SL13
c) SL35 d) SL25
137. The signal lamp terminal voltage shall not be more than ------------- of rated
voltage.
a) 90% b) 98 %
c) 80 % d) 12 %
138. The rating of SL 21 signal lamp is-----------------------.
a) 12 volts 24 watts & 12 volts 16 watts
b) 12 volts 33 watts & 12 volts 16 watts
c) 12 volts 24 watts & 12 volts 24 watts
d) 12 volts 16 watts & 12 volts 16 watts
139. The effective focal length of combination of inner colour lens and clear outer lens
is -----
a) 17 to 21mm b) 140mm
c) 100mm d) 5mm
140. Lamp to be used in ON aspect of signal is/are
a) SL21 b) SL35A
c) SL35B d) a&c
141. The rating of SL 18 signal lamp is-----------------------.
a) 12 volts 24 watts & 12 volts 16 watts
b) 12 volts 33 watts & 12 volts 33 watts
c) 12 volts 24 watts & 12 volts 24 watts
Page 71 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
d) 12 volts 24 watts
142. When Distant in single distant territory displays proceed aspect then indicates
-----------------
a) Run through on main line
b) run through on loop line
c) Train going to be received on main line band.
d) a&c
143. Red lamp protection provided to-----------------------
a) Protect blank signal
b) prevent blanking of signal
c) Replacement of signal to ON
d) a & b both
144. -----------------------------------ECR can be used for LED AC signal
a) Conventional ECR
b) LED AC ECR
c) LED DC ECR
d) a , b &
145. Normal working voltage of LED signal unit is / are -----------------
a) 110 volt AC b) 110 volt DC
c) 230 AC d) a&b
146. The insulation resistance of signalling cable shall not less than-------------------

147. The proceed aspect is displayed in four aspect automatic section when
________ automatic sections ahead and overlap are clear.
a) 4 b) 3 c) 5 d) 2
148. The rating of SL 35 A signal lamp is-----------------------.
a) 12 volts 24 watts & 12 volts 16 watts
b) 12 volts 33 watts & 12 volts 16 watts
c) 12 volts 24 watts & 12 volts 24 watts
d) 12 volts 16 watts & 12 volts 16 watts
149. The signal lamps are triple pin lamp to avoid----------------
a) Lamp theft
b) out of focus after replacement of lamp
c) use for domestic purpose
d) loose grip
150. The no load current of signal transformer shall not be more than -------------------

a) 5 mAmp b) 15 Amp
c) 40 mAmp d) 15 mAmp
151. The rating of SL 35 B signal lamp is-----------------------.
a) 12 volts 24 watts & 12 volts 16 watts
Page 72 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
b) 12 volts 33 watts & 12 volts 33 watts
c) 12 volts 24 watts & 12 volts 24 watts
d) 12 volts 16 watts & 12 volts 16 watts
152. The power ratting of signal transformer is -------------------
a) 400VA b) 40VA
c) 4KVA d) 40KVA
153. The tapping on secondary side of signal transformer is/are -------------------
a) 13 volt b) 14.5volt
c) 16 volt d) a,b &c
154. When MECR & Signal transformer are placed in side two aspect unit then
number of cable conductors required in tail cable (with double cutting) are----------
------------
a) 10 b) 8 c) 12 d) 6
155. When Distant in double distant territory displays proceed aspect then indicates -
----------------
a) Run through on main line
b) run through on loop line
c) Train going to be received on main line b.
d) a&c
156. When inner Distant in double distant territory displays proceed aspect then
indicates ----------------
a) Run through on main line
b) run through on loop line
c) Train going to be received on main line band.
d) a&b
157. When Distant in double distant territory displays proceed aspect then indicates -
----------------
a) Run through on main line
b) run through on loop line
c) Train going to be received on main line b.
d) a&c
158. When inner Distant in double distant territory displays proceed aspect then
indicates ----------------
a) Run through on main line
b) run through on loop line
c) Train going to be received on main line band.
d) a&b
159. Which is not a function of UCR
(a) Locking of Point
(b) Verification of Points in Route
(c) Proving of Signal Knob in Reverse
Page 73 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
(d) Crank Handles IN
160. In Pt. WLR Ckt , Track Ckts are by passed by ____contact
161. WLR Does not pick Up if Point Detection (to desired position) is already
available
162. ---- Relays of Point Ckt Picks up only if Normal / Reverse Detection is broken
(a) WLR
(b) RCR/NCR
(c) NWR/RWR
163. ------ Relay`s ---- contact is used for Cross Protection across NWR / RWR relay
164. Siemens relays other name is -------------
A) k-50 B) k-60 C) k-59 D) k-69 E) none
165. Siemens relays specification is
A) IRS S46-76 B) IRS S47-76 C) IRS S46-77 D) IRS S76-
46 E) None
166. Siemens relays are ------------------------- type
A) Dependant B) independent C) separate
D) twin E) none
167. Siemens relays are --------------------- typ A) double
make double break B)spring C)contact
D) welding E)none
168. In Siemens relays there is no---------------------------contact
A) Front B) back C) arm D) metal E) none
169. in Siemens relays -----------pins are provided to prevent invert plugging
A) wide B)side C)hide D) guide E)none
170. --------------- action in Siemens relays is self cleaning.
A) Ripping B) fast C) slow D) wiping E) none
171. Pick up time in Siemens relays is -------------------
A) 5ms B) 75-80ms C) 15-20ms D) 25-60ms
E) none
172. Drop away time in Siemens relays is ------------------
A) 2-5ms B) 5-6ms C) 7-15ms D) 25-60ms E)
none
173. In Siemens neutral type relays -------------combination is available
A) 12f/4b B) 6f/2b C) 8f/8b D) 2f/6b
E) none
174. 6f/2b,4f/4b combinations are available in Siemens -------------------
A) ACI type B) ECR type C) clock type D) D type
E)none
175. In Siemens ACI type only -------- type is available
Page 74 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
A) 6f/2b B)5f/3b C) 4f/4b D)8f/8b E)none
176. In interlocked Siemens relays -------------combinations art available
A) 6f/2b B) 4f/4b C) 5f/3b
D) all given in A, B, C option E) none
177. In interlocked relay –---no contact is used as economizer contact
A) 11 B) 12 C) 13 D) 14 E) none
178. In interlocked type ------------- arrangement is provided to keep relay in pick up
condition
A) Mechanical B) electrical C) electronic
D) dynamic E) none
179. Interlocked relay is used for -------------------- circuit.
A) Conflicting B) series C) parallel
D) indication E) none
180. in interlocked type relays ------------coil is energized condition normally
A) top B) side C) up D) bottom E) none
181. In interlocked type relays ------------coil is de energized condition normally
A) Normal B) side C) reverse D) bottom E) none
182. ON ECR is used for --------------aspect
A) yellow B) green C) red D)white E)none
183. OFF ECR is used for ----------------aspect.
A) Yellow B) red C) blue D) on E) none
184. ON ECR contact combination is ------------- A) 6f/2b
B)4f/4b C)5f/3b D)3f/3b E) none
185. OFF ECR contact combination is -----
A) 6f/2b B) 4f/4b C) 5f/3b D) 3f/3b E) none
186. UECR contact combination is ----- A) 6f/2b
B) 4f/4b C) 5f/1b D) 3f/3b E) none
187. UECR is used for --------------aspect
A) Yellow B) green C) red D) route E) none
188. -----------pin combination is provided in Siemens relays to prevent
plugging of wrong relays A) guide
B) non magnetic C) residual D)coding E) none
189. in 5f/3b contact combination ---is back contact A) 11
B) 12 C) 13 D)14 E)15
190. in 5f/3b contact combination ---is back contact
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E)11
191. in 5f/3b contact combination ---is back contact
A) 11 B) 12 C) 3 D)14 E)none
192. in 6f/2b contact combination ---is back contact
A) 11 B) 12 C) 13 D)14 E)15
193. In 6f/2b contact combination ---is back contact
Page 75 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
194. Size of domino available in Siemens concept are
A)63mmx38mm B)83mmx68mm C) 45mmx34mm
D) 54mmx38mm E) none
195. Compartments given in domino are ---------
A) 11 B) 12 C) 13 D)14 E)15
196. Terminals provided in domino are -------
A) 12 B)14 C)16 D)18 E) none
197. -------- terminal carries neg of indication ckt
A) 3&8 B)8&13 C)16 D)15 E) none
198. Common aluminum plate is connected to terminal-------
A) 3&8 B)8&13 C)16 D)15 E) none

199. Arrangement of common aluminum plate is such that -----------


Will definitely touches to common plate.
A) Indication bulb B) button assembly
C) cap of indication bul D) Neg E)
none
200. Button assembly can be provided in compartments-------&------
A) 3&8 B)6&7 C)7&8 D) 8&9 E)none
201. Point locking indication can be given in compartment-----
A) 3 B) 8 C) 13 D) 3&13 E) none
202. Track indication when TPR’s are in drop condition is given in---&----
A) 6&10 B)7&9 C)6&9 D)7&10 E)none
203. Track indication when TPR’s are in pick up condition is given in---&----
A) 6&10 B)7&9 C)6&9 D)7&10 E)none
204. top plate is combination of --------- plates
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E)none
205. upper plate of top plate is of -------------
A) copper B) brass C) steel D) aluminum E) none
206. Location of compartment is given by--------
A) CR B)CRC C)CCR D) CRR E)none
207. On panel desk, on track drawing ----&----- buttons are provided
A) GN&UN B)GN&WN C) WN&WWN D)SHGN&WN
E) NONE
208. Indication of ON aspect of any signal is given in -----or-------
Buttons
A) 3 or 13 B)3 or 8 C) 8 or 13 D) 3&8 E)none
209. colour of GN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue
D) blue with white dot E)grey
Page 76 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
210. colour of UN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D)
blue with white dot E)grey
211. colour of WN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue
with white dot E)grey
212. colour of WWN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D)
blue with white dot E)grey
213. colour of EGGN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D)
blue with white dot E)grey
214. colour of EUUYN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue
with white dot E)grey
215. colour of EUYN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue
with white dot E)grey
216. colour of SHGN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue
with white dot E)grey
217. colour of YYN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D)
blue with white dot E)grey
218. colour of YRN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue with
white dot E)grey
219. colour of OYN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue with
white dot E)grey
220. colour of CHYN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue with
white dot E)green
221. colour of LXN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue with
white dot E)grey
222. colour of WN button( with subroute cancellation facility) is ------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue with
white dot E)grey
223. colour of EWN button is -------
A) yellow B) red C) blue D) blue with
Page 77 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
white dot E)grey
224. Sealing arrangement is provided for --------------
A) EWN B) EUYYN C)EGGN D) OYN E)none
225. full route cancellation is done by-------
A) EWN B) EUYYN C)EGGN D) OYN E)none
226. sub route cancellation is done by-------
A) EWN B) EUYYN C)EGGN D) OYN E)EUYN
227. full route cancellation counter is -----------
A) EUYZ B)EUYYZ C)EUUYZ D)EEUYZ E)EWZ
228. Subroute cancellation counter is -----------
A) EUYZ B)EUYYZ C)EUUYZ D)EEUYZ E)EWZ
229. overlap cancellation counter is -----------
A) EUYZ B)EUYYZ C)EUUYZ D)OYZ E)EWZ
230. Calling on clearance counter is -----------
A) EUYZ B)EUYYZ C)EUUYZ D)COGGZ E)EWZ
231. Emergency point operation counter is -----------
A) EUYZ B)EUYYZ C)EUUYZ D)EEUYZ E)EWZ
232. Key interlocking is provided to -------------
A) EWN B) EUYYN C)EGGN D) OYN E)EUYN
233. EUYN operation can be done by---------
A) ESM III B)ESM II C)ESM I D)
Helper khalashi E) none
234. color of wire of Amphenol pin 1 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
235. color of wire of Amphenol pin 2is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
236. color of wire of Amphenol pin 3is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
237. color of wire of Amphenol pin 4 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
238. color of wire of Amphenol pin 11 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
239. color of wire of Amphenol pin 12 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
240. color of wire of Amphenol pin 13 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
241. color of wire of Amphenol pin 14 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
242. color of wire of Amphenol pin 21 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
243. color of wire of Amphenol pin 31 is-----
Page 78 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
244. color of wire of Amphenol pin 32 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
245. color of wire of Amphenol pin 33 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
246. color of wire of Amphenol pin 34 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
247. color of wire of Amphenol pin 41 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
248. color of wire of Amphenol pin 42 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
249. color of wire of Amphenol pin 43 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
250. color of wire of Amphenol pin 44 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
251. color of wire of Amphenol pin 51 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
252. color of wire of Amphenol pin 52 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
253. color of wire of Amphenol pin 53 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
254. color of wire of Amphenol pin 54 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
255. color of wire of Amphenol pin 22 is-----
A)blue B) red C)grey D)green E)none
256. color of wire of Amphenol pin 61 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
257. color of wire of Amphenol pin 62 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
258. color of wire of Amphenol pin 63 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
259. color of wire of Amphenol pin 64 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
260. color of wire of Amphenol pin 71 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
261. color of wire of Amphenol pin 72 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
262. color of wire of Amphenol pin 73is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
263. color of wire of Amphenol pin 74 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
Page 79 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
264. color of wire of Amphenol pin 81 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
265. color of wire of Amphenol pin 82 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
266. color of wire of Amphenol pin 83 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
267. color of wire of Amphenol pin 84 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
268. color of wire of Amphenol pin 91 is-----
A)brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
269. color of wire of Amphenol pin 92 is-----
A) brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
270. color of wire of Amphenol pin 93 is-----
A) brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
271. color of wire of Amphenol pin 94 is-----
A) brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
272. color of wire of Amphenol pin 23 is-----
A) brown B) black C)yellow D)white E)none
273. color of wire of Amphenol pin 24 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
274. color of wire of Amphenol pin 1 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
275. color of wire of Amphenol pin 2is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
276. color of wire of Amphenol pin 3is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
277. color of wire of Amphenol pin 4is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
278. color of wire of Amphenol pin 11is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
279. color of wire of Amphenol pin 12is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
280. color of wire of Amphenol pin 13is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
281. color of wire of Amphenol pin 14is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
282. color of wire of Amphenol pin 21is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
283. color of wire of Amphenol pin 22is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
284. color of wire of Amphenol pin 23is-----
Page 80 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
285. color of wire of Amphenol pin 24is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
286. color of wire of Amphenol pin 31is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
287. color of wire of Amphenol pin 32is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
288. color of wire of Amphenol pin 33is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
289. color of wire of Amphenol pin 34is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
290. color of wire of Amphenol pin 41is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
291. color of wire of Amphenol pin 42is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
292. color of wire of Amphenol pin 43is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
293. color of wire of Amphenol pin 44is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
294. color of wire of Amphenol pin 51is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
295. color of wire of Amphenol pin 52 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
296. color of wire of Amphenol pin 53 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
297. color of wire of Amphenol pin 54is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
298. color of wire of Amphenol pin 61 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
299. color of wire of Amphenol pin 62 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
300. color of wire of Amphenol pin 63 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
301. color of wire of Amphenol pin 64 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)white E)none
302. color of wire of Amphenol pin 71 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)blue E)none
303. color of wire of Amphenol pin 72 is-----
A) pink B) black C) purple D)blue E)none
304. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 11 &12
Page 81 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
A) 01.01 B) 02.01 C)03.01 D)04.01 E)none
305. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 21 &22
A) 01.01 B) 02.01 C)03.01 D)04.01 E)none
306. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 31 &32
A) 01.01 B) 02.01 C)03.01 D)04.01 E)none
307. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 41 &42
A) 01.01 B) 02.01 C)03.01 D)04.01 E)none
308. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 51 &52
A) 01.01 B) 02.01 C)03.01 D)04.01 E)none
309. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 61 &62
A) 05.02 B) 15.02 C)03.01 D)04.01 E)none
310. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 71 &72
A) 13.01 B) 14.01 C)03.01 D)04.01 E)none
311. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 81 &82
A) 13.01 B) 14.01 C)03.01 D)04.01 E)none
312. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 91 &92
A) 13.01 B) 14.01 C)03.01 D)11.02 E)none
313. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 13 &14
A) 01.01 B) 02.01 C)03.01 D)04.01 E)none
314. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 23 &24
A) 01.01 B) 02.01 C)03.02 D)04.01 E)none
315. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 33 &34
A) 01.01 B) 02.01 C)03.01 D)04.02 E)none
316. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 43 &44
A) 01.01 B) 05.02 C)03.02 D)04.02 E)none
317. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 53 &54
A) 15.02 B) 05.02 C)03.02 D)04.02 E)none
318. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
Page 82 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
terminal 63 & 64
A) 15.02 B) 14.02 C) 13..02 D) 11.02 E)none
319. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 73 & 74
A) 15.02 B) 14.02 C) 13..02 D) 11.02 E)none
320. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 83 & 84
A) 15.02 B) 14.02 C) 13..02 D) 11.02 E)none
321. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 93 & 94
A) 15.02 B) 14.02 C) 13..02 D) 11.02 E)none
322. in Siemens relay ,continuity of contact ------ is available in between Amphenol
terminal 93 & 94
A) 15.02 B) 14.02 C) 13..02 D) 11.01 E)none
323. VCOR Relay has _____ _____ contacts.
A) 8F/B B) 4F/B C) 6F/B D) 2F/B
324. VCOR Relay contact current rating is____ Amp
A) 1A B) 3A C) 5AD) 50mA
325. In Microlok-II CPU card is provided with ______________ processor.
A) 68000 B) 8086 C) 68332 D)Intel Pentium
326. In Microlok-II system, CPU card is provided with ______ no. of ports.
A)4 serial and 1 parallel
B) 5 serial
C) 4 parallel and 1 serial
D) 5 parallel.
327. In Microlok-II system, Input capacity of each Vital input card is_______
A) 8 input B) 16 input
C) 32 input D) None of the above
328. In Microlok-II system, each Vital output card drives _______no. of relays
A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32
329. In Microlok-II system, each Non-vital input- output card can be connected with
maximum _____ no. of inputs and _____ no. of outputs respectively.
A) 16 Inputs & 16 Outputs B) 8 Inputs & 8 Outputs
C) 16 Inputs & 32 Outputs D) 32 Inputs & 32 Outputs
330. Non-vital Inputs are
A) Control Panel Push Buttons & Key contacts
B) Track Circuits TPRs. Point Detection
C) VCOR indication
D) None the above
331. In the Card File the Power Supply Card is normally placed in the slot no. _____
A) 1 B) 15 C) 16 D) 20
Page 83 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
332. In Microlok-II system, PC / Lab top loaded with Maintenance tool software can to
connect to Port No._____ of CPU card.
A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
333. In Microlok-II, the 48 Pin Connector assembly is used for __________
A) Vital Input boards only B) Vital Output boards only
C) Vital Input and Output boards D) Non-vital I/O boards
334. In Microlok-II, the 96 Pin connector assembly is used for ___________
A) Vital Input boards only B) Vital Output boards only
C) Vital Input and Output boards D) Non-vital I/O boards
335. To start design of MLK II based Interlocking system, Inputs required are
________
A) Approved Signal Interlocking Plan & Front Plate Drawing
B) CT rack termination details.
C) Details of any additional interlocking equipment to be interfaced with MLKII.
D) All of these
336. In Microlok-II, each card file should be provided with __________
A) Power Supply Card B) CPU card
C) VCOR D) All of these
337. In Microlok-II, Application Program ‘ * ‘ symbol is used for _______
A) SERIES B) PARALLEL
C) BACK CONTACT D) BIT SEPERATION
338. In Microlok-II, Application Program ‘+ ‘ symbol is used for _______
A) SERIES B) PARALLEL
C) BACK CONTACT D) BIT SEPERATION
339. In Microlok-II, Application Program ‘ , ‘ symbol is used for _______
A) SERIES B) PARALLEL
C) BACK CONTACT D) BIT SEPERATION
340. In Microlok-II, Application Program ‘ ( ‘ symbol is used for _______
A) SERIES
B) PARALLEL
C) START OF PARALLEL PATH
D) END OF PARALLEL PATH
341. In Microlok-II, Application Program ‘ ) ‘ symbol is used for _______
A) SERIES B) PARALLEL
C) START OF PARALLEL PATH D) END OF PARALLEL PATH
342. In Microlok-II, Application Program ‘ ; ‘ symbol is used for _______
A) SERIES
B) PARALLEL
C) END OF PARALLEL PATH
D) END OF STATEMENT/ SECTION
343. In case of Distributed Interlocking system _________________ is / are required
Page 84 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
to be used in place of Main Signalling Copper Cable between Relay/Equipment
Room and Location Boxes/ Goomties.
A) Object Controllers B) Optical Fiber Cable
C) both A & B D) None of these
344. Maximum length, for which PROFIBUS with copper cable can be used, without
repeater is _____
A) 100m B) 200m C) 500m D)1000m
345. Maximum length of PROFIBUS with Optical Fiber Cable is _____
A) 1KM B) 5KM C) 10KM D)15KM
346. In SIMIS S System, the address switch is a _____position dipswitch to identify
the correct Input / output card by the processor. ( C )
A) 6 B) 8 C) 10 D)16
347. In SIMIS S System, Input capacity of each Digital Input Module (Vital) is
A) 16 B) 8 C) 4 D)32
348. In SIMIS S System, each Digital Output Module (Vital) drives _____ no. of
relays.
A) 32 B) 16 C) 8 D)4
349. In SIMIS S System, Rated input voltage of Digital Input Module (Vital) is _____
A) 12V DC B) 24V DC
C) 60V DC D)110V AC
350. In SIMIS S System, Rated output voltage of Digital output Module (Vital) is
_____
A) 12V DC B) 24V DC
C) 60V DC D)110V AC
351. In SIMIS S System, each Electronic Terminal Station shall be provided
with__________
A) Interface module
B) Power module
C) Digital Input and Output modules
D) all of these.
352. --------------------- megger (insulation tester) shall be used to test insulation of
signalling cable shall .

353. a) 500 Volt DC b) 500 Volt AC


c) 100 Volt DC d) 100 Volt AC
Page 85 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
354. __________ relay back contact shall be provided across DR back contact to
ensure cascading arrangement in 3- aspect signal circuit.
a) HECR b) DECR c) RECR d) HR
355. The insulation resistance of the new Signaling cables should not be less than
10M ohms/ KM
356. The alphabet U is used in signalling for indicating
(A) point (B) route (c) slot (D) track
357. The alphabet T is used in signalling for indicating
(A) track (B) signal (c)slot (D) train stop
358. Symbol indicates in signalling.
5 DR

(A)Attention aspect control relay of signal No.5 (B) caution aspect controlling
relay of sig.No.5 (c) clear aspect control relay of sig.No.5 (D) None
359. 5 HGE Symbol indicates in signalling.

(A)ON aspect lamp of signal No.5


(B) caution aspect lamp of signal No.5
(c) Attention aspect lamp of signal No.5
(D) clear aspect lamp of signal No.5
360.

~
Symbol indicates the relay.

(A) Slow to release ( B) Slow to pick up


(C) AC immunized (D) None
361. The Alphabet ‘C’ used in signalling for
(A) Checking (B) Clear (C) Caution (D) None
362. above line indicates
(A) Arm (B) Back (C) Front (D) None
363. Relays which are connected directly to track are called as :
(A) Line Relays (B) Track Relays
(C) Polarized Relays (D) None
364. The Relays which close same set of contacts when energized with normal
polarity or reverse polarity supply are known as :
(A) Polarized relays (B) DC Neutral relays
(C) None (D) Vital relays
365. The relays which have contacts with atleast one non-fusible contact
(A) None (B) Vital
(C) None proved type (D) Proved type
Page 86 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
366. An electromagnetic device which is used to convey information from one circuit
to
Another circuit through a set of contacts is known as:
(A) Economizer push button (B) Switch
(C) Relays (D) None
367. The relays which are used for controlling signal gears are known as:
(A)Shelf type (B)Line relays
(C) Vital relays (D) Non Vital relays
368. Metal to metal contact relays are known as :
(A) None Proved type (B) None Vital Type
(C) Proved Type (D) None
369. In shelf type relays contacts can be:
(A) Dependent (B) Independent (C) Dependent & Independent
(D) None
370. In a relay Copper/Brass pins provided on the armature facing the magnet poles
to maintain a small air-gap in its attracted position is known as :
(A) Yoke (B)Contact (C) Residual pin (D) None
371. Shelf type line works on :
(A) 24 V DC (B) 12 V DC (C) 110 V DC (D) 12 V
AC
372. Front contact of shelf type relay has contact resistance of
(A) 0.1 ohm (B) 0.5 ohm (C) 0.2 ohm (D) 10
ohm
373. To avoid damage to contacts during transportation,the item provided in shelf type
relays is known as :
(A) Transportation screw (B) Residual pin
(C) Coil terminal (D) None
374. Shelf type track relay can be energized maximum upto :
(A) 125% of P.U.V. (B) 300% of P.U.V
(C) 250% of P.U.V. (D) 335% of P.U.V
375. POH for track relays shelf type relay:
(A) 15 Years (B) Not required
(C) 10 Years (D) 20 Years
376. POH for shelf type line relays
(A) Not required (B) 10 Years
(C) 15 Years (D) None
377. AC immunization is achieved in shelf type AC immunized relays by
(A) Magnetic shunt
(B) Two copper slugs
(C) Magnetic shunt & two copper slugs
(D) None
Page 87 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
378. AC immunity of AC immunized shelf type line relay is
(A) 100 V (B) 300 V
(C) 50 V (D) None
379. AC immunity of AC immunized track relay is
(A) 100 V (B) 150 V
(C) 300 V (D) 50 V
380. The interchangeable contacts in Q-Series relays
A) A5,A6 B)B5,B6 C) D5,D6 D)None
381. Plug in type line relays have POH of
A)10yrs. B)No Overhauling C) 15 yrs. D) 10- 12 yrs.
382. How many Code pins are used at a time in ‘Q’ Series relays.
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
383. All the contacts in ‘Q’ Series relays are
A) Independent B) Dependent
C) Independent & Dependent D) None of these
384. The contacts used in ‘Q’ Series relays are
A) M to M B) M to C C) M to M & M to C D) None of these
385. QNN1 Consists of how many neutral relays.
A) Only One B) Two C) Three D) None
386. QNA1 relays are used in
A)Relay room internal circuits
B)All external circuits
C) All external circuits & internal relays in RR energized from external feed
D) None
387. QS3 relays have coil resistance of
A) 1000ohms B) 100 Ohms C) 10 Ohms D) 10000 Ohms
388. QS3 are used as
A) TPR’s
B) B) EVR & SUPR in Axle Counters
C) C)Double line Block Inst.
D) Single line Handle type Block Inst.
389. QB3 has a permanent magnet nearer
A)Heel piece side B) Armature Side C) In the Center D) None
390. QB3 relays are used in
A) Single line token less push button block inst.
B) Double line block inst
C) Diado Instrument
D) None
391. QBCAI relay heavy duty contact can carry current upto
A) 3A B) 30A C) 15A D) 20A
392. QBAI relays are used in
Page 88 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
A) Single line token inst.
B) Single line token less push button
C) Diado Single line block Instrument
D) Double line Block Inst.
393. QSPA1 relays are used in as
A) TR B) TPR C) WLR D) None
394. QSPA1 relays have pick up time of
A) 540 – 600 m sec. B) 220 m sec. C) 150 m sec. D) 300 m sec.
395. QBCA1 has a contact configuration of
A) 8F/4B B) 2F heavy duty/ 4B C) 4F/4B D) None
396. QL1 has a permanent magnet near to
A) Armature B) Heel piece side C) At the center D) None
397. How many coils are used in QL1 relay?
A) only One B) Two coils C) Three D) None of these
398. How many code pins used in K-50 relays
A) 4 Nos. B) 2 Nos. C) 1 No. D) None
399. How many maximum relays can be accommodated in a mini group
A) 30 Nos. B) 15 Nos. C) 2 Nos. D) 1 No.
400. in a Siemen’s interlocked relay, how the latching is achieved.
A) Magnetically B) Mechanically C) Electronically D) None
401. Siemen’s relays work with
A) 24 V DC B) 60 V DC C) 24 V AC D) 60 V AC
402. K-50 relays are classified as
A) K50-A, K50-B, K50-E type B) K50-C, K50-F
C) All same D) None
403. Siemen’s UECR relay contact configuration is
A) 3F/ 3B B) 6F/2B C) 5F/1B D) None
404. Siemen’s ON/ OFF ECR contact configuration is
A) 3F/ 3B B) 5F/1B C) 6F/2B D) 4F/4B
405. for wiring of 4 minigroups, the maximum tagblock required is
A) 100 Way B) 80 way C) 160 Way D) 200 Way
406. Siemen’s relay contacts are
A) Independent type B) Dependent type
C) Dependent type & Independent type D) None of these
407. How many guide pins are used in Siemen’s relays
A) 4 Nos. B) 3 Nos. C) 2 Nos. D) None
408. The purpose of ECR is
A) Providing Cascading arrangement
B) Red lamp protection & Signal aspect indication at the operating place.
C) Controlling the signal in accordance with the aspect displayed on signal in
advance.
Page 89 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
D) All A, B, C.
409. I type current transformer method is generally used for
A) Red lamp B) Yellow lamp C) Green Lamp D) None
410. For picking up of Siemen’s UECR, the minimum no.of Route lamps required to
glow is
A) 2 Nos. B) 4 Nos. C) 3 Nos. D) 5 Nos.
411. Siemen’s motorized clockwork timer relay works with
A) 24 V DC B) 110 V AC C) 24 V AC D) None
412. Siemen’s motorized clockwork timer relay has contact configuration of
A) One front & one back B) 2 front & 2 back C) 3front & 3 back D)
None
413. QJ1 is used for
A) Track relay B) TPR C) Timer D) None
414. QT 2 track relay is used in
A) Non RE B) RE
C) Non Re & RE D) None
415. QT 2 has contact configuration of
A) 2F/2B B) 2F/1B
C) 2F only D) 2B only
416. QTA2 &QBAT are used in
A) Non RE only B) Non RE
C) RE only D) None
417. QBAT has contact configuration of
A)2F only B) 2B only
C) 2F/2B D) None
418. The AC immunity of QBAT is
A) 50 V B) 80 V
C) 90 V D) None
419. The AC immunity of QTA2 is
A) 80 V B) 90 V
C) 50 V AC D) None
420. The repeater relay used in relay room when QTA2/QBAT is used as TR.
A) QB3 B) QNA1
C) QSPA1 D) QBCA1
421. Back contact available in QTA2/QT2 is used for
A) Cross Protection B) Double cutting
C) Cross Protection & Double cutting D) None
422. Siemens thermo flasher unit is used for
(A) To create flashing of indication lamps on panel when needed.
(B) (B) To take photos
(C) For arc wilding
Page 90 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
(D) (D) None
423. Siemens thermo flasher works with
(A)12 V DC/AC (B) 110 V AC
(C) 220 V AC (D) All A,B,C,D
424. What is flashing frequency of siemens thermo flasher unit ?
(A) 120/mnt (B) 60/mnt
(C)90/mnt (D) None
425. Slow to release arrangement in relays is created by
(A) Connecting a resistance across relay R1,R2.
(B) Connecting a condenser across relay R1,R2.
(C) A resistance & a condenser in series are connected across relay R1,R2.
(D) None.
426. When DC polarized relay is energized with normal polarity +Ve on R1 and –Ve
On R2, the contact made is
(A) No contact made (B) Front contact (C) Back contact (D)
Normal contact
427. When DC polarized relay is energized with reverse polarity i.e; -Ve on R1 and
+Ve on R2, the contact made is
(A) Normal contact (B) No contact (C) Back contact (D)
Reverse contact
428. When DC Polarized relay is in de-energized condition, the contact made is called
(A) Front contact (B) Back contact (C) No contact made (D) None
of these
429. Generally what cable is used for Q-series relay wiring
A) 16 Strand 0.2 mm flexible wire B) 0.6 mm Copper single strand C)
D)
430. Generally outdoor cables numbering starts with -----conductor as No.1 and ends
with ---------------conductor at each layer.
A) Yellow, Blue B) Blue, Yellow C) Red, Blue D) None
431. No spare conductors required to left in case total number of conductors used is
A) 12C B) 30C C) Three or less D)None
432. MDF means--------------
A)main distribution fuse B) main distant frame
C) main distribution frame D) main distant fuse
E) none
433. IDF means--------------
A) Intermediate distribution fuse B)
Intermediate distant frame
C) Intermediate distribution frame D) main
distribution frame
E) none
Page 91 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
434. MDF is provided in ----------
A) big yards B)small yards C)mid sections D) IBS
E) none
435. IDF is provided in ----------
A) big yards B)small yards C)mid sections D) IBS
E) none
436. In IDF tag block provided on one pillar are-------
A) 4 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10 E) none
437. wiring from domino to panel desk tag block is done with
A) 0.4mm dia indoor cable B)
0.4mm dia jumper wire
C) 0.6mm dia indoor cable D)
0.6mm dia jumper wire E) none
438. wiring from panel desk tag block to IDF is done with
A) 0.4mm dia indoor cable B)
0.4mm dia jumper wire
C) 0.6mm dia indoor cable D)
0.6mm dia jumper wire E) none
439. wiring from tag block IDF to relay base plate is done with
A) 0.4mm dia indoor cable B) 0.4mm dia jumper wire
C) 0.6mm dia indoor cable D) 0.6mm dia jumper wire
E) none
440. wiring from tag block IDF to tag block IDF is done with
A) 0.4mm dia indoor cable B)
0.4mm dia jumper wire
C) 0.6mm dia indoor cable D)
0.6mm dia jumper wire E) none
441. wiring from tag block IDF to CT -- rack is done with
A) 0.4mm dia indoor cable B) 0.4mm
dia jumper wire
C) 0.6mm dia indoor cable D) 0.6mm
dia jumper wire E) none
442. wiring from tag block IDF to CT - rack for point controlling ckt is done
with
A) 0.4mm dia indoor cable B)
0.4mm dia jumper wire
C) 0.6mm dia indoor cable D)
0.6mm dia jumper wire E) none
443. wiring from tag block IDF to CT - rack for sig lamp checking ckt is done
with
A) 0.4mm dia indoor cable B)
Page 92 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
0.4mm dia jumper wire
C) 0.6mm dia indoor cable D)
0.6mm dia jumper wire E) none
444. On one terminal of tag block soldering of --------wires are allowed.
A) 1 B)2 C) 3 D)4 E) none
445. Inter distance between two racks should not be less than ----------
A) 1m B) 2m C) 3m D) 4m E) none
446. distance between roof and top surface of rack should not be less than ---
A) 1m B) 1.25m C) 1.35m D) 1.5m E) none
447. distance between side wall and rack should not be less than ---
A) 1m B) 1.25m C) 1.35m D) 1.5m E) none
448. distance between parallel wall and relay row should not be less than ---
A) 1m B) 1.25m C) 1.35m D) 1.5m E) none
449. distance between IDF and relay rack should not be less than ---
A) 1m B) 1.25m C) 1.35m D) 1.5m E) none
450. in panel desk --------tag pin is used normally
A)69 B) 160 C) 96 D) 40 E) none
451. in k-50 relays ------is always front contact
A) 01 B) 11 C) 15 D) 02 E) none
452. in k-50 relays ------is always front contact
A) 01 B) 11 C) 12 D) 05 E) none
453. in k-50 relays ------is always back contact (except ECRs)
A) 01 B) 11 C) 12 D) 05 E) none
454. in k-50 relays ------is always back contact (except ECRs)
A) 01 B) 11 C) 12 D) 15 E) none
455. Power supply to point machine is control at----------------- level.
a) Circuit b) battery
c) machine d) a &c both
456. Crank handle contacts are provided to prevent simultaneous ----------------------
and -------------------- operation.
a) Power b) manual c)
hydraulic d) crowbar
457. Obstruction current shall not be more than -------------------- of normal working
current.
a) 2 times b) 0.5 times
c) 100 times d) 4 times
458. When electrical point detector is fixed on double slip then slides used is / are -----
--------.
a) Detector slid C&D b) Detector slid A&B
c) Detector slid C, D & lock slid A d) a&b
459. Detector slid C shall be connected to ------------------
Page 93 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a) Nearest switch rail b) farthest switch rail
c) Any one switch rail d) FPL
460. __________contact is connected across hold OFF coil of signal machine.
a) H b) K
c) 0° to 5° band. d) 0° to 45° band
461. “Authority to proceed” is given to -------------- to enter the block section with his
train
a) Guard b) Driver
c) SM d) none
462. Neales ball token Block Instrument is used for
a) Double line section b) Single line section
c) Automatic territory d) none of above
463. The POH of NBT Block instrument is
a) 10 years b) 7 years
c) 12 years d) 5 years
464. In double line Block working in Non- RE area we require
a) 2 Lines only b) 3 Lines only
c) 2 Line + separate Earth return d) 3 Lines + separate Earth return
465. The Resistance of door lock coil is _________ in SGE DLBI
a) 40 Ohms b) 50 Ohms
c) 80 Ohms d) 160 Ohms
466. Adequate distance means
a) 200 Mts b) 180 Mts
c) Distance given to ensure safety d) Breaking distance + sighting distance
467. TGT lock coils picks up _________ no s of times while turning the handle to TG
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
468. Tokens are classified into _____________________ no s of types
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
469. The POH of DLBI is
a) 7 year b) 12 years
c) 10 years d) when SSE found necessary
470. Bell spring Assembly has _________ no of terminals in DLBI to use in Non – R.E
AC
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
471. When Bell plunger pressed _________ no of springs will make in DLBI SGE type
Non – R.E AC
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
Page 94 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
472. When handle is turned to TOL the no of pairs of contacts that will make in DLBI
byculla make
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
473. TOL contact is DLBI will make in
a) only in TOL Position b)TOL &line clear
c) Line closed d) Only in Line clear
474. Minimum no of Track circuit required for block release circuit
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3
d) 4
475. Voltage required to pick up PR relay is ________
a)1.7 v b)2 v c)2.2 v
d)1.5 v
476. Resistance of TCF/TGT relay is ____ ohms
a)150ohms b)148 ohms c)200 ohms
d)136 oms
477. Voltage required to pick up TCF/TGT relay is
a)4.5 v b)5.5 v c)3.5 v
d)6 v
478. Current required to pick up TCF/TGT relay is
a) 160ma b) 120ma c) 110ma
d)100ma
479. No: of tokens that can be extracted at a time in NBT B/I
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2
d)1
480. In a block station the minimum no: of block Instruments provided are
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2
d)1
481. The following are the carrier frequencies in FM Instrument
a) 2700HZ or 1800HZ b) 65HZ or 85HZ
c) 2000HZ or 2500HZ c) All of the above
482. The codes required to turn the handle to TGT in FM Instrument
a) + Ve
b) Carrier modulated by 65HZ with +ve
c) Carried modulated by 65HZ
d) Carrier modulated by 85HZ with +ve
483. The codes required to turn to handle to TCF in FM Instrument
a) +Ve
b) Carrier modulated by 65HZ with +ve
c) Carrier modulated by 85HZ with +ve
d) Carried modulated by 65HZ
Page 95 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
484. The codes required to turn the handle to line closed position in FM Instrument
a) +Ve
b) Carrier modulated by 65HZ with +ve
c) Carried modulated by 65HZ
d) Carrier modulated by 85HZ with +ve
485. The code that Transmits during TOL code Transmission
a) +Ve
b) Carrier modulated by 65HZ
c) Carrier modulated by 85HZ with +ve
d) Carrier modulated by 65HZ with +ve
486. Time Release Indicator operated by the following relay in FM Instrument
a) 1R b) 2R c) 3R d) None
487. Normal cancellation performed with the following switch
a) S1 b) S2 c) PB1 d) PB2
488. To turn the handle to TGT the following relays are to be picked up apart from
other selections in FM instrument.
a) CR1 & CR2 b) CR2, NR & TRSR
c) CR2 & NR d) CR2 & BLR
489. Unauthorised operation is prevented by the following key.
a) Shunt Key b) Maintenance Key
c) SM’s Key d) None
490. ‘One Train one line clear’ principle complained by the following relay in FM
instrument.
a) 2R b) TRSR c) 3R d) PBPR
491. The following is the line relay in FM Instrument.
a) PBPR b) TOLR c) NR d) CR1
492. The following is the line relay in FM Instrument.
a) PBPR b) BLR c) TOLR d) CR2
493. 3R used for the following purpose in FM Instrument
a) rain complete arrival
b) Push back normalisation
c) To operate time release indicator
d) None of the above
494. Which of the following is telephone relay.
a) TER b) TEPR c) TELR d) TOLR
495. To pick up CR2 the following Frequency is required.
a) 65HZ b) 85HZ
c) None of the above d) All of the above
496. Which of the following is irrelevant to time release indicator in FM Instrument.
a) 3R b) Free c) S1 d) S2
497. CR1 not to be picked up for
Page 96 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a) Line closed to TCF
b) TCF to line closed
c) Line closed to TGT
d) TGT to line closed
498. CR2 to be picked up for
a) Line closed to TCF
b) TCF to line closed
c) Line closed to TGT
d) TGT to line closed
499. CR1 will not be help full in the following operation
a) N to R b) R to N c) N to L d) L to N
500. The following is not a power supply arrangement with regard to Block Instrument.
a) Line battery b) Local battery
c) External battery d) Internal battery
501. Which of the following is relevant regarding AC RE area with respect to Block
instrument
a) Block Filter unit b) Block Bell Equipment
c) Isolation Transformer d) All of the above
502. Which of the following is irrelevant to Time Release Indicator
a) 3R b) S1 c) Free d) S2
503. TRSR is
a) Slow to Pick up b) Slow to Release
c) None of the above d) All of the above
504. TOLR is
a) Slow to Pick up b) Slow to Release
c) None of the above d) All of the above
505. To turn the handle to TGT, which of the following frequencies are relevant
a) 65HZ b) 85HZ
c) None of the above d) All of the above
506. To set the Instrument to TGT the following Buttons are to be pressed at the train
sending station
a) TGB
b) BCB
c) BCB & TGB simultaneously
d) All the above
e)
507. One of the following is TCF Code
a) - + - b) - - +
c) - - - d) - + +
508. One of the following is TGT code
a)- + - b) - - +
Page 97 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
c)- - - d)- + +
509. One of the following is line closed code
a)- + - b) - - +
c)- - - d)- + +
510. Shunt key cannot be extracted in
a) TCF b) TG
c) Line closed d) TGT – TOL
511. One of the following is TOL code
a) - + - b) - - +
c)- - - d) - + +
512. When the PB instrument is locked by the SM the following is possible
a) To set the instrument to TGT
b) To initiate line closed code
c) To send bell code
d) To transmit receive the TOL code
513. When the PB instrument is locked by the SM the following is not possible
a) Transmit TGT code
a) TCF or line closed code
b) Transmit answer back line closed code
c) To initiate line closed code
514. The following is not an external circuit Relay
a) SNR
b) ASTR
c) TAR
d) RCKR
515. External circuit Relays will not monitor the following condition
a) Normal position of Reception and dispatch signals and their controls
b) Entry/Occupation of Block section by a train
c) Clearing of Block section by a train
d) Normalization of the Block Instrument
516. The following is irrelevant to TAR Relay in PB
a) External Battery
b) Local Battery
c) Line Battery
d) Magnetic latch
517. The following Relays are picked up by line Battery
a) TCKR
b) CRR
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
518. The following Relay energised by Local Battery
Page 98 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a) TCKR
b) SNR
c) CRR
d) RDR
519. The following Relay stores the first pulse of any code when it is –Ve
a) RCKR
b) CTR
c) RDR
d) CTPR
520. Picking up of CTR will not prove the following
a) All reception and dispatch signals pertaining to an Instrument are Normal
b) No shunting is being carried out in the face of a train
c) SM is Keeping the required button in the pressed condition
d) The conditions are not favourable for answering back
521. The following is not a coding Relays
a) 2 CR
b) PCR
c) 3CR
d) 1CR
522. The following Relays is not a magnetic latch Relay
a) TGTR
b) TCFT
c) TOLTR
d) TAR
523. . Picking up of SHKR is not a pre-requisite for activation of
a) CTR
b) TCFR
c) PCR
d) TGTR
524. The following is not a button Relay
a) TGTBR
b) SCKR
c) LCBR
d) BCBR
525. . The following power supplies is not required for PB Instrument
a) Local Battery
b) Internal Battery
c) Line Battery
d) External Battery
526. BPAC means
a) Block proving analog counter
Page 99 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
b) backlock proving and counter
c) block proving axle counter
d) none of the above
527. BPAC system is
a) with only block instrument
b) with block instrument and axle counter
c) none of the above
d) with only axle counter
528. Function of BPAC is to
529. a) Verify the complete arrival of train
b) verify the arrival of train
c) Verify train into block section
d) none of the above
530. ACBW means
a)axle counter not working
b) axle counter block working
c)block instrument not working
d) all of the above.
531. Function of ACBW is also to
a)verify the complete arrival of train by the system
b)verify the working of the block instrument.
c)verify the complete arrival of train by station master.
d)None of the above.
532. In BPAC or ACBW the axle counter used shall be
a)SSDAC
b)Any of the above
c)None of the above.
533. ACBW increases
a)the operating time
b)the section capacity
c)travel time of the train in the block section
d)all of the above
534. BPAC works with
a)Double line block instruments
b)FM Handle type token less block instruments
c)Push button token less block instruments
d)All of the above
535. ACBW works
a)With Mux. b)Without Mux.
c)Any of the above d)None of the above
536. ACBW with Mux requires Quad cable of diameter
Page 100 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a) 0.4 mm b) 0.6 mm c) 0.9 mm d) 1 mm.

537. ACBW with Mux requires


a) 1 Quad cable b) 1.5 Quad cable c) 2 Quad cable d) 2.5 Quad cable
538. ACBW can work on
a) Telecom Copper cable b) Optic fibre cable
c) any of the above d) None of the above
539. ACBW works on power supply of
a) 60V DC b) 24V AC c) 110V DC d) 24V DC
540. ACBW is
a) Co-operative type system
b) Non Co-operative type system
c) any of the above
d) None of the above
541. In ACBW system, the block panel is operated by
a) Dispatching end b) Receiving end
c) All of the above d) None of the above
542. In ACBW system, for operating block panel
a) SM Key is must at sending end
b) SM Key is must at receiving end
c) SM Key not required at any end
d) All of the above
543. In ACBW system for sending train
a) LCB Key is must at sending end
b) LCB Key is must at receiving end
c) LCB Key not required at any end
d) All of the above
544. In ACBW system for sending train
a) Only BCB button is pressed
b) Only TGT button is pressed
c) BCB & Reset button is pressed
d) BCB & TGT button is pressed
545. In ACBW with entry of train into block section on signal, TOL indication appears
a) At sending end b) At receiving end
c) At both ends d) None of the above
546. In ACBW system entry of train into block section on signal, audible buzzer rings
a) At Sending end b) At Receiving end
c) At Both ends d) None of the above
547. In ACBW system with complete arrival of the train, line closed indication appears
a) At both ends b) At sending end
c) At receiving end d) None of the above
Page 101 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
548. In ACBW system with complete arrival of the train, audible buzzer rings
a) At sending end b) At both ends
c) At receiving end d) None of the above
549. In ACBW system with a part arrival of the train, TOL indication disappears
a) At sending end b) At receiving end
c) At both ends d) None of the above
550. In ACBW system, the Multiplexer is
a) At sending end b) At receiving end
c) At both ends d) None of the above
551. In ACBW system, the Multiplexer consists of
a) Transmitter Mux. b) Receiver Mux.
c) Combiner-Converter d) All of the above
552. In ACBW system, normally there relays used for achieving interlocking are
a) 20 b) 24 c) 22 d) 36
553. In ACBW system, among the relays used, QNA1 are
a) 36 b) 24 c) 20 d) 22
554. In ACBW system, among the relays used, QNN1 are
a) 20 b) 2 c) 0 d) 24
555. In ACBW system, among the relays used, QL1 are
a) 0 b) 4 c) 22 d) 20
556. In ACBW system, resetting operation for axle counter failure is
a) With co-operation b) Without co-operation
c) Any of the above d) None of the above.
557. IBS means
a) Inter block section
b) Inter back signalling
c) Intermediate block signalling d) None of the above
558. IBS exists on
a) Single line
b) Double line
c) Multiple line
d) None of the above.
559. IBS is replacement to
a) A class station b)B class station
c) C class station d)D class station
560. At IBS
a) One Block instrument is required
b) Two Block instrument are required
c) Block instruments are not required
d) None of the above
561. At IBS
Page 102 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a) SM is required b) Gateman is required
c) SM is not required d) None of the above
562. In IBS block section, the maximum number of trains
possible on a line is
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
563. The number of sections in IBS is
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

564. In IBS the rear section is also called as


a)Axle counter section b) Advance section
c) Block section d) None of the above
565. In IBS the block overlap shall be
a) 180 metres b) 400 metres
c) 120 metres d) 25 metres
566. In IBS the rear section is controlled by
a) LSS signal b) IB Signal
c) Both LSS & IB signal d) None of the above
567. In IBS the LSS Signal is controlled by
a) Block instrument b) Axle counter
c) IB signal d) None of the above
568. In IBS, the IB signal is controlled by the
a) Rear station block instrument b) Advance station FSS
c) Rear station LSS d) None of the above
569. In IBS the advance section is controlled by
a) LSS signal b) IB Signal
c) Both LSS & IB signal d) None of the above
570. In IBS the IB Signal is taken ‘OFF’ by
a) SM of Rear station
b) SM of Advance station
c) Without SM of Rear or Advance station
d) None of the above
571. In IBS the axle counter used is of
a) 1D detection point b) 2D detection point
c) 3D detection point d) Multi-detection point
572. In IBS the axle counter evaluator is at
a) At sending end b) At receiving end
c) At both ends d) None of the above
573. In IBS the Telephone is provided on
a) LSS signal b) IB Signal
c) Both LSS & IB signal d) None of the above
574. In IBS the Telephone is connected to
Page 103 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a) Rear station b) Advance station
c) Both station d) None of the above
575. IBS panel consists of
a) Only indications b) Only Push buttons
c) Only counters d) All of the above
576. In IBS when train passes IB signal at ‘ON’
a) K1 indication appears b) K2 indication appears
c) K3 indication appears d) K4 indication appears
577. In IBS when train passes IB signal at ‘ON’
a) K1 indication appears at rear station
b) K2 indication appears at rear station
c) K3 indication appears at rear station
d) K4 indication appears at rear station
578. In IBS when train passes LSS signal & LSS signal
switch still in reverse position
a) K1 indication appears at rear station
b) K2 indication appears at rear station
c) K3 indication appears at rear station
d) K4 indication appears at rear station
579. In IBS when train passes IB signal & IB signal switch still in reverse position
a) K1 indication appears at rear station
b) K2 indication appears at rear station
c) K3 indication appears at rear station
d) K4 indication appears at rear station
580. In IBS when LSS signal bulb fails
c) K4 indication appears at rear station
d) None of the above
581. In IBS when IB signal bulb fails
a) K1 indication appears at rear station
b) K2 indication appears at rear station
c) K3 indication appears at rear station
d) K4 indication appears at rear station
582. Normally in IBS Panel the number of Push buttons involved in resetting or
normalizing the IBS working after the failures is
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
583. In IBS panel, the push button PB3 is for
a) Acknowledging IB signal failure
b) Acknowledging axle counter failure
c) Acknowledging signal bulb failure
d) Extending the co-operation
584. The push buttons involved during IB signal failure resetting are
Page 104 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a) PB1, PB2 & PB3 b) PB1 & PB2
c) PB2 & PB3 d) None of the above
585. The push buttons involved during axle counter failure resetting in IBS are
a) PB1, PB2 & PB3 b) PB1 & PB2
c) PB2 & PB3 d) None of the above
586. The audible buzzer for IBS signal failure is stopped by pressing
a) PB1 b) PB2 c) PB3 d) None of the above
587. The audible buzzer for axle counter failure in IBS is stopped by pressing
a) PB1 b) PB2 c) PB3 d) None of the above
588. The audible buzzer for IB Signal bulb failure is
stopped by pressing
a) PB1 b) PB2 c) PB3 d) Acknowledgement button
589. In IBS, the counter registers for the
a) LSS signal failure b) IB signal failure
c) IB Distant signal failure d) None of the above
590. In IBS, the counter registers the
a) LSS signal failure b) IB signal failure
c) IB Distant signal failure d) IB signal failure resetting
591. In IBS, the counter registers the
a) LSS signal failure
b) IB signal failure c) IB Distant signal failure
d) Axle counter failure resetting
592. In IBS panel the number of counters are
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
593. In IBS panel the indication provided are
a) IB signal indication
b) IB Distant signal indication
c) IB track indication
d) All of the above
594. Before resetting the number of trains working during IB Signal
failure are
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
595. Before resetting the number of trains working during axle counter failure are
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
596. In IBS working the complete arrival of train is verified by
a) System b) Station Master
c) Axle counter d) All of the above
597. With IBS working the section capacity is
a) Same b) Increased
c) Decreased d) All of the above
598. During IB signal failure but Telephone working, the train driver speaks to
Page 105 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
a)Rear Station Master b) Advance Station Master
c) Section Controller d) All of the above
599. During IB Signal failure & Telephone failure, by day for the first train, the driver
waits at IB signal for duration of
a) 1 minute b) 2 minute c) 5 minute d) 10 minute
600. During IB Signal failure & Telephone failure, by night for first train, the driver
waits at IB signal for duration of
a) 1 minute b) 2 minute c) 5 minute d) 10 minute
601. During IB Signal failure & Telephone failure, by day or night for the all trains i.e
other than the first train during failure, the driver waits at IB signal for duration of
a) 1 minute b) 2 minute
c) 5 minute d) None of the above

602. During IB Signal failure & Telephone failure, the driver of the first train after
waiting
a) At restricted speed b) Full speed
c) Intermediate speed d) None of the above
603. During IB Signal failure & Telephone failure, during Clear visibility the driver of
the first train after waiting proceeds at
a) 15 Kmph b) 8 Kmph
c) Normal speed d) None of the above
604. During IB Signal failure & Telephone failure, during Poor visibilitythe driver of the
first train after waiting proceeds at
a) 15 Kmph b) 8 Kmph
c) Normal speed d) None of the above

605. In IBS working the ACZR relay is


a) Normally Up b) Normally Down
c) Latched Normal d) Latched Reverse
606. In IBS working when train passes IB Signal at ‘OFF’, the ACZR relay
a) Picks up b) Drops
c) No change in its status d) None of the above

607. In IBS working when train passes IB Signal at ‘ON’, the ACZR relay
a) Picks up b) Drops
c) No change in its status d) None of the above
608. In UAC, input voltage to EJB and EV is ---------------
A) 12V & 24V DC respectively B) 110 V AC
C) 24V DC D) 12V DC
609. In UAC, DC-DC converter output voltages are ____, _____ & _______
+5 V, +12V, +12V(ISO) B) +5 V, -12V, +12V(ISO)
Page 106 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
C) +5 V, +10V, +10V(ISO) D) +5 V, -10V, +10V(ISO)
610. Preparatory reset can be used in case of the __________sections provided with
axle counters.
A) Main line
B) Section between Advance starter and IBS
C) Block Instrument and BPAC
D) all of these.
611. In Universal Axle counters, the minimum input channel voltage coming from EJB
required at Evaluator CTB is _____ mv AC.
A) 1000 B) 150 C) 175 D) 1500
612. In UAC, Oscillator card output voltage & frequency is _________
A) 60 VAC & 5KHz B) 30 VAC & 5KHz
C) 60VAC & 5Hz D) 30VAC & 5Hz
613. In UAC Receiver coil output voltage is __________
A) 0.7 to 1.0 V AC B) 60 VAC
C) 1.0 to 1.2 V DC D) 105 to 110mv AC
614. In UAC Transmitter coil current is ____________
A) 100 milli Amps B) 3 to 5 micro Amps
C) 420 milli Amps D) 420 micro Amps
615. In UAC Receiver card out put voltage is _______________
A) 1.2 to 1.5 V AC B) 60 VAC
C) 1.2 to 1.5 V DC D) 105 to 110mv AC
616. In UAC, Dip voltage measured at the Receiver output coil shall be not more than
------ of its normal value.
A ) 90% B) 10% C) 15% D) 85%
617. Minimum spacing between sleepers for fixing Tx / Rx is _______
A) 550 mm B) 200mm C) 800mm D) 400mm
618. Minimum length of Track circuit required for trolley protection on either side of a
detection point in single Line section is __________________ mtrs
A)5 Rail lengths B) 3 Rail lengths
C) 8 Rail lengths D) 9 Rail lengths
619. Relays used for EVR & SUPR are of ______________ neutral line relays
A) QS3 type & 12V DC B) QS3 type & 24V DC
C) QN1 type & 12V DC D) QNA1 type & 12V DC
620. For connecting the output of electronic junction box to evaluator, the following
cables are to be used depending upon the distance between the two and
whether to be used in R.E. or non R.E. Area.
A) 4 quad axle counter cable as per specification No. TC-30 for RE & TC-31 for
Non-RE
B) PET quad of main telecom cable as per specification No.TC-14/75
C)Polythene jelly filled telephone cable as per specification No.TC-41 /90.
Page 107 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
D) All of these
621. SSDAC used with block working, type of reset used is ________
A) Direct Hard Reset B) Conditional Hard Reset
C) Preparatory Reset D) Any one these can be used
622. In SSDAC of CEL make, card no 5 is _________
A) Modem Card.
B) Event Logger Card.
C) Micro controller Logic Board
D) Relay Driver Card.
623. In SSDAC of CEL make, card no 6 is _________
A) Modem Card.
B) Event Logger Card.
C) Micro controller Logic Board
D) Relay Driver Card.
624. In SSDAC of CEL make, card no 7 is _________
A) Modem Card.
B) Event Logger Card.
C) Micro controller Logic Board
D) Relay Driver Card.
625. In SSDAC of CEL make, card no 8 is ________
A) Modem Card.
B) Event Logger Card.
C) DC-DC Converter Card
D) Relay Driver Card.
626. In SSDAC of CEL make, card no 1&2 are _________
A) Modem Card.
B) Signal Conditioning Cards.
C) Micro controller Logic Boards
D) Relay Driver Card.
627. In SSDAC of CEL make, card no 3&4 are _________
A) Modem Card.
B) Signal Conditioning Cards.
C) Micro controller Logic Boards
D) Relay Driver Card.
628. In SSDAC of CEL make, _______ no. of conductors required for connecting two
SSDAC units.
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 10
629. Baud rate of modem card in SSDAC of CEL is --------------------------
A) 56KBPS B) 3000BPS
C) 300 BPS D) 9600BPS
630. In SSDAC of CEL make, the function of the Micro-controller Logic Board card is
Page 108 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice

A) Wheel detection
B) Train direction is checking and Wheel counting.
C) Receives the remote wheel count and computes the status of the section for
clear or occupied.
D) all of these
631. In SSDAC of CEL make, Input voltage of the DC-DC converter Card is
A) 12V DC B) 110V AC C) 24V DC D) 110V DC
632. In SSDAC of CEL make, output voltages of the DC-DC converter Card is
A) 5V DC & 12V DC B) 5V DC & 24V DC
C) Both A & B D) None of these
633. Baud rate in SSDAC of ELDYNE (AzLS) is ----------
A) 56KBPS B) 3000BPS
C) 300 BPS D) 9600BPS
634. In AzLS, EAK consists of ____________
A) Back plane B) Evaluator board
C) Analog board D) all of these
635. Multi-section Digital Axle Counter system consists of ______________
A) Detection Point
B) Central Evaluator Unit and Reset Unit
C) Relay Unit and Event logger and diagnostic terminal
D) All of these
636. In MSDAC, Central Evaluator unit drives _______ Vital Relay in order to give
Free and occupied indication of an axle counter track section.
A) 24VDC, 1000 ohms Plug-in type
B) 12VDC, 1000 ohms Shelf type
C) 110VAC, 1000 ohms Plug-in type
D) None of these.
637. In CEL MSDAC, each Digital Axle counter field unit _____________
A) is configured as one Detection point.
B) Detects wheels and store counts based on 2 out of 2 logic.
C)Transmits count and health information to Central Evaluator.
D) All of these
638. In EFFTRONICS Datalogger, capacity of each Digital input card is ____ inputs.
A) 16 B) 32 C) 64 D) 512
639. In EFFTRONICS Datalogger, capacity of each Analog input card is _________
no. of analog channels.
A) 16 B) 8 C) 4 D) 2
640. In EFFTRONICS Datalogger, all Digital inputs are scanned at the rate of ______
m. sec.

Page 109 of 123


QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
Sno Multiple Choice
A) 16 B) 32 C) 64 D) 512
641. In EFFTRONICS Dataloggers, all the Analog inputs are scanned at the rate of ---
---------.
A) 16 m.sec B) less than 1 sec.
C) 32 m.sec D) 1 minute
642. In EFFTRONICS Dataloggers, DSU is required only when the system is required
to be connected with more than ______ no. of relays.
A) 64 B) 128 C) 512 D) 1024

643. Digital input capacity of Datalogger system is ____________.


A) 512 B) 1024 C) 64 D) 4096

644. Analog input capacity of Datalogger system is ____________.


A) 24 B) 96 C) 64 D) 32

645. Minimum no. of Analog channels is required to be provided with datalogger


system is ___________
A) 16 B) 24 C) 32 D) 96
646. Minimum no. of Digital inputs are required to be provided with datalogger system
is ___________
A) 64 B) 256 C) 512 D) 4096
647. In EFFTRONICS Datalogger, each DSU is provided with maximum of
_________ no. of digital input cards.
A) 16 B) 8 C) 4 D) 2

FILL IN THE BLAKS

Sno Fill In The Blanks


1. I.S. Specification number of Battery graded Distilled water
is__________(IS1069)
2. I.S. Specification number of acid resistant paint is___________.
3. I.S. Specification number of Plante positive Lead acid cells __________.
4. I.S. Specification number of pasted plates Lead Acid cells __________.
5. I.S. Specification number of tubular positive Lead Acid cells __________.
6. I.S. Specification number of Dry Leclanche cell is ____________.
7. I.R.S. Specification number of Auto/Manual battery charger ___________.
8. I.S. Specification number of Ni- Cd rechargeable pocket plated batteries
is______________.
Page 110 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
9. I.R.S. Specification of Low maintaince lead acid batteries is__________.
10. I.R.S. Specification number of SMF lead acid batteries is_____________.
11. Voltage of a fully charged Lead Acid cell is______________.
12. Lead Acid cell can be discharged up to voltage of ____________.
13. Separators prevent ____________ between _______ & __________ plates in
Lead Acid cell.
14. The active materials in Lead acid cell are ___________, ________
&_____________.
15. A 400Ahcapacity Lead Acid cell can be charged with a maximum current of
___________.
16. Capacity of any Lead Acid cell is given in___________ with ________ Hrs
rating.
17. Electrolyte used in Lead Acid cell is _______ _____________.
18. Specific gravity of battery graded Con. Sulphuric Acid is ____________.
19. Initial charging current rate can be taken as _______% of its capacity in case of
L,A, cells if manufacturer’s rating is not available.
20. Maximum electrolyte temperature allowed during Initial charging of Lead Acid
Cell is__________ºC.
21. Electrolyte for lead acid cell can be prepared by adding _________ to
__________ in small quantities.
22. To avoid lead corrosion on battery connectors and terminals apply
______________ or _______________.
23. Per cell voltage in case of Float charging is_________.
24. Per cell voltage in case Boost charging is___________.
25. The rate of self discharge in case of Lead Acid cell can be taken as______ per
AH.
26. Specific gravity of electrolyte varies with temperature at the rate of ___________
per 1ºC.
27. The measuring instrument used for measuring Specific gravity is
_____________.
Sulphation can be identified by ____________ & ___________.
28. Sulphation in Lead Acid cell increases ___________________ in Lead Acid Cell.
29. In VRLA cell/battery the compensation of distilled water is by
_________________.
30. In VRLAB the pressure inside is regulated by ___________.
31. ____________ indicates the fully charged condition of Lead Acid cell.
32. Internal resistance is maximum at _________ Specific gravity.
33. If temperature increases the specific gravity _____________ in Lead Acid Cell.
34. After discharge, both the plates becomes ________ in Lead Acid Cell,
35. The level of electrolyte above the plates should be always_________.
36. Buckling of plates in Lead Acid cell is due to _________________ of plates.
37. During Initial charging, the charging can be stopped only after ____ % of AH
Page 111 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
input is fed.
38. The insulating pieces between positive and negative plates of a cell are called as
_____________.
39. The ratio of Acid to Distilled water to get 1200 Specific gravity electrolyte
is______: ________.
40. Voltage of a fully charged Nickle Cadmium cell is __________ .
41. Electrolyte used in Ni-Cd cell is _____________.
42. The active material on +ve plates in Ni-Cd cell is _________________.
43. The active material on –ve plates in Ni-Cd cell is _________________.
44. When Ni- Cd cell is discharged the Cadmium Hydroxide is reduced to
__________________.
45. In Ni-Cd cell, the Lithium hydroxide is added to electrolyte to
________________________.
46. In Ni-Cd cell the plate grids are made from _________ _______ ________
_______________.
47. Specification number of sealed cylindrical Ni-Cd cell is ______________.
48. Capacity range of pocket plated Ni-Cd cell is ________________.
49. The material used for separators in Ni-Cd cell is __________________.
50. In Automatic Battery charger the output controlling device is ______________.
51. Recommended current rating of charger for an 80AH battery with maximum
permissible load of 12 Amps is ___________ Amps.
52. Automatic battery charger under S-86/20000 specification can supply constant
output voltage for A.C. input variation from ________V to ______ V.
53. The rectifier circuit converts ___________ to ___________.
54. In case of Ferro resonant type automatic regulator for sudden changes of input
voltage or Load variation the response time is < ____________.
55. In case of Ferro resonant type automatic regulator short circuit protection is
achieved by__________________ winding.
56. Voltage of a Solar cell is ____________ .
57. Charging current should be reduced when the battery starts _____________.
58. Per cell voltage in case of Initial charging is_____________.
59. Per cell voltage in case of Boost charging is____________
60. Per cell voltage in case of Float charging is_____________.
61. In case of Ni-Cd cell/Battery , charge input during first charge should be
__________ capacity of C5 AH.
62. ____________ are formed on the plate surphase , when Sulphated.
63. Note down ___________ ____________ of each cell periodically.
64. The material used for grids in MFB is __________________.
65. Topping up with distilled water in case of HDP plante Lead Acid cells can be
done once in ________months.
66. Terminal voltage of a fully discharged Ni-Cd cell is____________.
67. When the Lead Acid cell is discharged completely, both the plates are converted
Page 112 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
into ____________ .
68. The material used for grid structure in Lead Acid cell is______________.
69. The insulation resistance of Mains transformer in battery charger should be more
than ____________ M Ohms.
70. In battery charger the current rating of Diodeds & SCR’s should be more than
____________ current flowing through them.
71. The resistors power rating, used in battery charger should be __________.
72. Voltage rating of capacitors used in chargers should be _______٪ above peak
value.
73. I.S. Specification number of HRC fuses is ______________.
74. Additional protection for chargers rated above 50 Amps shall be provided with
extra _____________ & ___________.
75. Ripple in D.C. output of battery charger should be less than_________٪
76. Psophometric noise voltage in the output of a battery charger should be less
than __________ Mv.
77. The charger works in ________________ condition, if battery draws current less
than 5% of its set value.
78. The charger switches to ____________ when the battery draws currewnt more
than 8-12% of the set current.
79. Power factor of an Automatic battery charger must be above _______ lagging in
all modes.
80. No load AC input current shall be __________ value in case of Automatic battery
charger.
81. In Automatic battery charger the gate pulses for SCR’s is generated by
____________ circuit.
82. In case of Automatic battery charger permitted variation in the output voltage
over the entire range of input AC supply variation is ___________.
83. The grid structure of Lead Acid cell is made from _________________ or
________________alloy.
84. Permissible raise in temperature above amient for Mains Transformer shall be
__________.
85. ON/OFF switch in battery charger shall be of _____________ pole type.
86. The range of voltage control potentio meter in a battery charger shall
be___________ to __________ V.
87. In chargers above 50Amps rating series fuses to be provided for
______________ & ____________ elements.
88. Specific gravity of electrolyte ____________ when temp decreases.
89. Specific gravity correction factor per 1ºC is___________.
90. Equavalising charging is necessary to a battery connected in ___________
charging .
91. Use of ballast resistance in a battery charger is_______________.
92. Check _________, __________, ________ for every 8Hours during initial
Page 113 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
charging
93. Voltage of a Secondary cell depends on ______________ & ______________
94. A 300 AH 10H battery can supply 20 Amps current for ___________ number of
hours.
95. IS Specification of a plante positive type cells is ________________ (IS-1652)
96. IS Specification of Tubular positive type cells is _____________. (IS-1651)
97. Specific gravity correction factor per 1ºC is _____________.
98. Negative plates are one more than the positive plates to provide
______________________.
99. Vent holes are provided in vent cap to for ____________ to ______________.
100. The level of electrolyte in Lead Acid Cell is indicated by
____________________.
101. The level of electrolyte inside the cell is always be _______ '' above the plates.
102. The current inside the cell is carried by _____________.
103. The separators used in VRLAB are made from _______________.
104. The grid in VRLAB are made from _______________ alloy.
105. The normal battery operating temperature is ________ºC.
106. SMF cells need much addition of distilled water due to _________________
principle.
107. The electronic device which converts AC to DC is called as _______________.
108. Inverter converts ____________ to ___________.
109. Efficiency range of an inverter should be within _________% to __________%,
110. Output frequency of inverter should be _____________
111. In case of solid state inverter no load current shall not exceed _______% of full
load current.
112. Inverters of 500VA and above shall be provided with __________& __________
indications.
113. The PWM IC number used in 500 Watts inverter is ______________.
114. SG2535A is an _______________________________ I.C.
115. EMI/RFI filter is connected on the ______________ side of the inverter.
116. The inverter automatically shuts off when battery voltage goes below
___________ volts.
117. The inverter will be in OFF condition when mains A.C. supply is ___________.
118. The Oscillator frequency inside the SG3525A I.C. is ________ Hz.
119. The power amplifier stage in inverter uses _______________ as power amplifier
device.
120. MCCB means____________ _______ __________ ___________.
121. The changeover time to inverter during Mains power failure is in ________
122. Shut- off input to IC SG3525A is given to pin No_______________.
123. The insulation resistance of the inverter shall not be less
than_________M Ohms under 40ºC.
124. Solar cells converts __________ energy to _________ energy.
Page 114 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
125. Solar panel is a combination of _________ connected in ___________ &
__________ fashion.
126. The solar cell is made from __________ & ______________ materials.
127. Generation of electricity from Sun light is called as________________
128. A typical Solar cell is nothing but __________________
129. Conversion efficiency of a Silicon solar cell is _________________.
130. Falling of dust, dirt and snow, decreases the Solar arrays ___________
131. A solar panel is installed inclined at an angle equal to the ____________of the
plane.
132. Surface of solar cell is coated with ________________ coating to increas
_____________.
133. Open circuit voltage of a solar cell is _______ V.
134. In Off-Line UPS the inverter is ON only when the mains supply __________.
135. Change over time in ON-line UPS is _____________ mS
136. ____________ of batteries are preferred in UPS.
137. Regulation of output voltage is done by using __________ principle in UPS
138. Normal PF rating of UPS is ________
139. In ON-Line UPS the battery will be always in ___________ condition.
140. __________ or __________ device are used in Power Amplifier stage of UPS.
141. The backup time in UPS depends on,
A) Load B) Voltage C) Batter capacity D) all the three
142. The type of UPS used in Medical side is,
A) ON-Line B) OFF-Line C) Line interactive D) Non of the above

143. Malfunctioning of UPS is avoided by incorporating,


A) Fuse B) EMI/RFI filter C) Only filter D) controlling device
144. 4) Input to an UPS is,
A) Battery B) AC mains voltage C) rectifier output D) non of above
145. The switching & controlling element in SMPS is ___________________.
146. The output voltage of SMPS is regulated by,
A) converter transformer B) pulse width of controlling pulses C) input rectifier
D) filter circuit
147. SMPS of 100 Amps rating requires 3 SMR modules of each rating ,
A) 50Amps B) 25 Amps C) 100 Amps d) any value
148. The switching device used in SMPS is ,
A) transistor B) IGBT C) MOSFET D) Diode
149. The switching device in SMPS operates at,
A) above 100KHz B) VF range C) 10-100 KHz D) 10-100MHz
150. The converter transformer in SMPS operates at low frequency
151. The switching device in SMPS will be in always On condition
152. SMPS is a modular type power supply
153. The D.G. Set converts _____________energy into ______________ energy.
Page 115 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
154. In Diesel engine the ___________ is compressed in the cylinder.
155. During ______________ stroke the power is transmitted to the crank shaft.
156. The liquid fuel is sprayed into the cylinder by ____________.
157. The out-put voltage of generator is controlled by controlling the ______________
of the shaft.
158. The speed of the Diesel engine is controlled by providing ________________ on
the engine shaft.
159. The fuel used in Diesel engine is __________ oil.
160. Maximum voltage of DC track relay(shelf type) should not exceed -------- of its
rated pick up voltage under maximum ballast resistance and maximum battery
voltage.
161. Maximum voltage of DC track relay shall not be less than - - - - - of its rated pick
up value under minimum ballast resistance and minimum battery voltage.
162. Maximum voltage of DC Q-Series track relay (QTA2/QT1)should not exceed -----
--- of its rated pick up voltage under maximum ballast resistance and maximum
battery voltage.
163. Voltage at track relay terminals with 0.5 ohm TSR should be less than 85% of its
- - - - - - -- - - - - value.
164. The size of continuity bond wire is - - - - - - .
165. Overhauling period of a shelf type track relay- - - - - - - .
166. The DC resistance of B type choke is - - - - - - - .
167. AC impudence of B type choke is - - - - - .
168. Block joints are to be changed as whole once in a - - - - - - - .
169. Polarity of the supply to the adjacent track circuit is to be - - - - - -- - .
170. Minimum permissible TSR for DC track circuits is - - - - - -
171. The recommended rail resistance per Kilometre is not more than - - - - - .
172. The recommended ballast resistance per kilometre in station section is - - - - - .
173. The recommended ballast resistance per kilometre in Block section is - - - - - .
174. The clearance between bottom of the rail and ballast is - - - - -
175. The insulation resistance of glued joint in dry condition when 100VDC applied
across the joint is- - - - - - - - .
176. The insulation resistance of glued joint in wet condition when 100VDC applied
across the joint is- - - - - - - - .
177. The coil resistance of QBAT relay is - - - - - - -
178. The percentage release of track relay is - - - - - - - .
179. The maximum excitation for DC Q series track relay (QTA2) should be less than
---
180. The maximum excitation for DC Q series track relay (QBAT) should be less than
---
181. The distance between track circuit termination and fouling mark shall not be less
than - - - -- - - meters.
182. The resistance offered by track circuit rails and continuity bonds is termed as - - -
Page 116 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
---.
183. The resistance offered by ballast and sleepers across the track circuit is called ---
------.
184. Minimum length of DC track circuits is - - - - - - meters.
185. Maximum length of DC track circuits in station section with PSC sleepers in RE
Area is - - -
186. Maximum permissible length of DC track circuits with QBAT relay in RE Area on
PSC sleepers is - - -
187. Maximum length of track circuit with wooden / psc sleepers in Block section of
Non RE Area is - - - - - - -
188. Maximum length of track circuit with wooden / psc sleepers in Station section of
Non RE Area is - - - - - - -
189. Maximum length of track circuit with wooden sleepers in the station section of RE
Area is - -- - - - - - - .
190. The AC immunity level of shelf type track relay is - - - - - - -.
191. The AC immunity level of QBAT relay is - - - - - - -.
192. QSPA1 relay shall be used as repeater relay for - - - - -type track relay.
193. The minimum resistance of concrete sleepers between insert to insert is - - - -
ohms
194. The rail resistance per kilometer shall not exceed -- -- - - ohms for track circuits
longer than 700meters.
195. The rail resistance of track per kilometer shall not exceed - - - - - ohms per track
circuits less than 700 meters.
196. Only - - - - - type clip shall be used in glued joint portion of track.
197. The minimum permissible ballast resistance per kilometre with in the station
section is - -- - -- - .
198. The minimum permissible ballast resistance per kilometre with in the Block
section is - -- - -- - .
199. Minimum visibility of colour light main line starter should be __________ metres.
200. Goods warning board is fixed at ______ metres from the home signal in MACLS
territory.
201. Plug in type Q-series track relay can be energized up to ________ % of pick up
value.
202. The length of lock bark in Broad Gauge point layout is _________ metres.
203. Adequate spare conductors to a minimum of __________% of the total
conductors used shall be provided for in each main cable up to the farthest point
zone, beyond this there should be a minimum of __________% spare
conductors of the total conductors used
204. The top of the rodding shall not be less than ________mm below the bottom of
the rails
205. Offset in rodding shall be limited to ________mm at single location.
206. Compensators need not be provided where the length of the rodding is less than
Page 117 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
______Mtr for point connections and _________Mtr for lock bar connections
207. Lock bars shall be so installed with the operating lever in normal; the top surface
of lock bar lies _______mm below the top of the rail.
The
208.end of the lock bar shall not be more than _______mm clear of the toe of the
switch, when the points are locked.
When
209. the L.C Gate is closed to road traffic, the clearance between the road surface
level and the boom shall be _______ to ________ Mtr.
210. Introduced voltage in signal cable on double line in 25 KV RE area is ______ V
per Km.
211. In 25 KV RE area length of parallelism permitted between point contractor and
the point machine of IRS type point machine is _______ Mtr in single line and
_________ Mtr in double line section.
212. In 25 KV RE area length of parallelism permitted for QNAI relays are ________
Km in single line and _________ Km in double line section.
Hindi
213. is Official Language of union of India as per article ____________ of Constitution
of India.
214. The state of Orissa belongs to region ___________.
215. The state of Maharashtra belongs to region ____________.
216. Notice boards for public railway stations are written in __________ languages.

217. Minimum ________% qualifying marks is required to be secured in Hindi


examination for getting the merit cash award
218. The name of the script of official Hindi language is _________.
219. Zonal railway official language committee meeting is held once in every _______
months.
220. The designation of HOD controlling Rajbhasa activities in a zonal railway is
_________.
221. Letters / representations received by a central Govt. office is required to be
replied to in _________ language.
Documents
222. specified under section 3(3) of Official Language Act, 1963 are required to
be issued in _________ languages
223. The minimum Ballast resistance per KM of track in station
yard is ________ ohms and in block section is ________ ohms.
224. When the gradient is steeper than _________, Slip siding is to be provided to
protect the Block section.
225. PSC sleeper shall have a minimum resistance of ________ Ohms between
insert to insert.
Maximum
226. length of track circuit permitted in RE area with PSC sleepers is _______ mtr.
227. QBAT relay can be used for a track circuit with a maximum length of _________
mtr
A228.
Calling on signal may be provided below any other stop signal except the ________
signal.
Page 118 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
229. The BSLB shall be located at ________ Mtr in advance of the Home signal and
protecting the Fouling Mark of the trailing points if any.
A230.
starter signal shall be placed at not less than ______ Mtr in advance of the Home
signal.
The
231.Block over lap in a Modified Lower quadrant signalling or Multi Aspect Colour light
signalling shall not be less than ______ Mtr.
When
232. driver finds an Automatic signal with ‘A’ marker at ‘ON’ he shall bring his train to a
stop in rear of that signal and wait there for ______ minute by Day and _______
minutes by Night and proceeds cautiously.
233. The signal unit shall be so fixed that the height of the center line of the Red
signal shall be _____Mtr above Rail level.
234. In 25 KV RE area Maximum lengths permitted for direcfeeding of signals with
110V feeding system on double line section with unscreened cable shall
be _______Mtr.
In235.
RE area the distance between the signal and the OHE mast in front of it must not be
less than _______ Mtr.
236. In RE area the distance between the signal and the OHE mast behind it shall not
be closer than _______ Mtr. This distance may be reduced to______ Mtr
provided the mast is not anchored.
237. Minimum distance from the center of the track to the nearest part of the signal
post is ____Mtr.
In238.
the vicinity of traction Sub station the cables shall be laid in concrete pipes or
enclosed brick channels for a length of _______ Mtr on either side of the Sub
station
239. When un-screened cables are used the maximum length of parallelism permitted
is ______ Km for safe handling by staff
240. The Glow voltage on the terminal of a 12V Signal lamp is _______ Volts, when
connected with 110/12V transformer
241. Insulation resistance of a Glued joint shall not be less than ___ ohm in Dry
condition and ________ Ohm in Wet condition when a meggering voltage of
100V is applied across the joint.
242. The distance between track circuit termination and Fouling Mark shall not be less
than

Page 119 of 123


QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
MATCH THE FOLLOWING
1

1 Signal overlap in LQ Signal a) 400Mt


2 Block overlap plus signal overlap in LQ b) 300Mt
Signal
3 Signal overlap in automatic Signal (DL) c) 120Mt

4 Block overlap plus signal overlap in UQ d) 580Mt


Signal
5 Block overlap in class ‘C’ station e) 180Mt

1 Sighting distance station limit


2 Block section limit board LQ signal station
3 Shunting limit board Class B station single line
4 Passenger warning board class B station MACLS double line
5 Distant signal goods warning board

1. Illuminated ‘A’ marker No ‘P’ marker


2. ‘G’ marker P marker
3. ‘AG’ marker LC Gate and point
4. Distant signal LC Gate in block section
5. Distant cum gate home signal LC Gate in automatic section

1. Injector low ESR filter capacitors


2. Piston stores mechanical energy
3. Radiator charge/discharge system
4. Fly wheel Cooling system
5. SMPS compress the air
6. Linear power supply spray liquid fuel
7. Micro wave station low efficiency
8. clean the air filter after 250 Hrs
9. change the air filter for every 50 hrs element
10. Clean the sump after 800 Hrs
Page 120 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department

1. SL-5 triple pole ON aspect


2. SL –18 triple pole OFF aspect
3. SL – 21 double pole ON aspect
4. SL – 35 A cascaded OFF aspect
5. SL – 35 B indication Lamp

1. colour inner lens 140mm yellow


2. Clear outer lens no lens
3. Route indicator lens 92mm
4. LED signal 213mm
5. Calling ON 140mm

1. Friction clutch siemens electrical snubbing


2. Friction clutch signal machine unauthorized operation
3. Force drop arrangement mechanical/ magnetic Stuck up
4. Normal locking signal machine shock less holding of signal arm atOFF
5. diode and resistance mechanical snubbing

1. LCPR DLBI
2. TCF & TGT Coil Resistance 148 Ohms
3. PR Relay 77 Ohms

4. DLBI Line curent 25mA

5. In coming trains Bottom Indicator


6. Neales Ball Token Instrument Spigot
7. SR1 & SR2 LSS Clearance circuit
8. Rest Contact Neales Token Instrument
9. Butter fly type contact DLBI SGE make
10. POH of neales token inst 10 years
11. POH of DLBI Podanur make 7 years
Page 121 of 123
QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department

1. Push Button colour Black


2. Train Going to Button colour Green
3. Line closed Button colour white
4. cancelled Button Red
5. Panel lamp Button Yellow
6. Shunt key Button Blue
7. No drain circuit feature SNR
8. ASTR Repeate of FVTR
9. CRR Polarised Relay
10. TCKR Transmission o f code checking Relay
11. RCKR Code reception checking Relay
12. N2R Second -ve pulse receiving relay
13. PCR Relay that changes pulse
14. CAR Cancellation Relay
15. ASCR LSS control Relay
16. SCKR Low voltage monitoring Relay
17. ASR Advanced station Relay
18. Q series Relay PBI 36 Relays
19. NV1 Relay PBI 4 Relays
20. Bell +Ve

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QUESTION BANK East Coast Railway
Objective Type Question S&T Department
General One Word/ Line Questsions

1 Expand the following abbreviations:


RVNL PREM RCF DMRC
COFMOW RITES IRCTC RCIL

2. Name the sixteen Zonal Railways and mention their Zonal Head quarters.

3. Name the Zonal Railway of the following divisions:


Agra Banglore Kota Malda
Firozpur Bhopal Guntkal Ranchi

4. Write names the following persons:


a. Any Two Present Members of Railway Board.
b. Any Two Present DRMs of East Coast Railway.

5. Calculate the amount of Security deposit for a Works Contract of value Rs. 2.25
Crores. What are the acceptable forms of Security deposit?

THE END

Version: 1.0

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