Air Law – Last Minute Facts

December 2014

AIR LAW
LAST MINUTE FACTS

This is intended to provide the student with a 'last minute' revision opportunity for Air
Law. It consists of 'one liners' and is focused on key facts that recur throughout the
examinations. It is not in itself an exhaustive reference document neither does it cover
the entire syllabus. It may also cover material not included in the Theoretical Training
manual for Air Law.

1. ICAO must be informed about differences from the Standards of the Annexes to the
Convention & these differences published in the national AIP.

2. Flight Levels are based upon magnetic tracks using the semi-circular rule.

3. According to ICAO Annex 8, a C of A shall be renewed or shall remain valid subject

to the laws of the State of Registry.

4. A redundant Danger, Prohibited or Restricted Area designator may not be re-used for
a period of 12 months.

5. A special parking area for hi-jacked aircraft must be 100m clear of any other aircraft
and not over telephone, electrical or power supplies.

6. For straight departure, the initial departure track must be within 15º of the alignment
of the runway centerline.

7. The Convention of Rome covers damage caused by aircraft to 3rd. parties on the
ground by foreign registered aircraft.

8. The factor that is most likely to dictate the design of an instrument departure
procedure is the terrain surrounding the airport.

9. Streamers attached to items dropped to survivors: Red – medical supplies and first aid
equipment, blue – food and water, yellow – blankets and protective clothing, black –
stoves, axes and miscellaneous equipment.

10. A precision approach is an instrument approach using azimuth and elevation

information usually using PAR or ILS.

11. The Freedoms of the Air are on a bi-lateral basis

12. The Sovereign body of ICAO is the Assembly and the Governing body is the Council.

13. A controlled flight is one that requires an ATC service and clearance

14. Runway end lights shall be fixed, unidirectional, showing red in the direction of the
runway.

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15. A controlled airfield is one that has ATC (or Control Tower)

16. A pilot who has attained the age of 65 may continue flying but not for commercial
purposes.

17. The validity of both a SNOWTAM and an ASHTAM is 24 hours

18. ICAO Annex 17 deals with security measures for passengers, cabin baggage, checked
baggage, cargo and other goods, together with access control.

19. The basic services provided in a FIR are FIS and the Alerting Service.

20. Under Annex 17, each State shall ensure the establishment of a security programme at
each airport.

21. SAR services shall be on a 24 hour basis within a State’s SAR Region

22. Documents required for entry and departure of aircraft are acceptable in handwritten
legible lettering in ink

23. QNH is passed to aircraft in taxi clearance.

24. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided, this marking shall commence,
300m (1000ft).

25. An aerodrome beacon for a civil land aerodrome is either white flashes or white and
green occulting (like a light house) flashes.

26. An identification beacon at a civil land aerodrome is green and flashes the aerodrome
two-letter identification in Morse code.

27. JAA-OPS require that the ground visibility is 3000m or more and flight visibility
1500m or more for a SVFR flight to commence.

28. An oral declaration is acceptable for passenger and crew baggage.

29. Missed Approach climb gradient is 2.5%.

30. In an off-set (Sector 2) entry into a holding pattern or racetrack procedure, the
maximum time on the 30º offset track is 1 minute 30 seconds above 14 000ft.

31. The optimum distance of an FAF from the threshold is 5 nms and the maximum is 10
nms.

32. During an instrument approach, the MOC in the initial approach segment primary
area is 300m (600m in mountainous terrain). On the intermediate approach segment
MOC decreases from 300m to 150m.

33. On a non-instrument approach, a straight-in approach is acceptable if the angle

between the final approach track and the runway centre-line is not more than 30º.

34. The apron safety line must be in a contrasting colour from other taxiway markings.

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35. The type of entry into a holding pattern is based on the aircraft magnetic heading.

36. Unless instructed by ATC, the reported airfield altimeter setting should be set when
passing the Transition Level.

37. Transition Altitude is set by the State and the Transition Level by ATC

38. An aircraft carrying a serviceable transponder shall operate it at all times during
flight, regardless of whether it is within or outside airspace where SSR is used for
ATC purposes.

39. The SSR setting for an unserviceable Mode C is A/0000

40. When acknowledging SSR mode/code instructions, the pilot shall read back the mode
and the code.

41. RNP is a containment value and represents a navigational accuracy on a containment

basis of 95%.

42. DH for Cat I is referenced to a pressure altimeter, and Cat II/III to radio altimeter.

43. ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to
ATC service and are separated from each other is classified as Class B.

44. The minimum VMC conditions for an aircraft flying in class G airspace above 3,000
ft MSL and at 700 AGL, is 5 kms visibility in sight of the ground and clear of cloud.

45. Radar wake turbulence separation for a light aircraft behind a heavy is 6 nms.

46. The definition of the Alert Phase is where apprehension exists as to the safety of an
aircraft and its occupants.

47. The obstacle clearance at 5 nms from the edge of the holding area is 0ft.

48. The PIC is responsible for terrain clearance with regards to an ATC clearance except
during radar vectoring or a PAR.

49. The conditions affecting a controlled aircraft cleared by ATC to maintain own VMC
separation during climb or descent are:
a. Daylight; only in VMC;
b. Below 10,000 ft;
c. Must be requested by the pilot;
d. ATC must issue alternative instructions in case of loss of VMC.

50. Significant changes in mean surface wind direction and speed passed by a controller
to an aircraft are defined as: Mean headwind component 10 kts; mean tail-wind
component 2 kts; mean crosswind component 5 kts.

51. A visual approach can be performed during IFR flights if the underlying terrain is in
sight and can be maintained in sight.

52. The ICAO criteria determining flight level occupancy by an aircraft with respect to

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SSR mode C is +/- 300ft.

53. Radar vectoring should not allow an intercept to the localizer of an ILS of more than
45º.

54. One of the methods of radar identification is to instruct the pilot to execute one or
more heading changes of 30º or more.

55. An aircraft subject to unlawful seizure may not be refused: permission to land, ATC
or the provision of navigational aids.

56. Aerodrome control service will give landing clearance to an aircraft that has entered
the traffic circuit without permission, if this is expedient.

57. Clearance to land, or any alternative clearance, received from the non-radar controller
should normally be passed to an aircraft not closer than 2 nms from touchdown.

58. The State of Registration is responsible for the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft
with regard to the C of A.

59. The phrase “resume own navigation” used by a radar controller after an aircraft
intercepts the assigned radial and joins an airway means that the pilot must assume
responsibility for his/her own navigation. (i.e. resume position reporting).

60. The JAA is an associated member of ECAC.

61. The speed limit is not applicable to both IFR and VFR flights inside class B ATS
airspace when flying below 3050m (10,000ft) AMSL.

62. MAYDAY is a distress call and PAN PAN is an urgency call

63. When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering the Alert Phase is the
responsibility of ATC and the FIR.

64. The Warsaw Convention deals with the right of passengers to claim compensation
from the carrier, or the agent, in the event of injury, delay or loss of luggage.

65. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with
AIRAC procedures.

66. AIRAC is the acronym for Aeronautical Regulation and Control.

67. AIRAC is an amendment method based on a common system of 28 days intervals

68. The list of ICAO location indicators (e.g. EGLL) are found in the GEN section of the
AIP.

69. The airworthiness standards are applied to aircraft over 5,700 kgs maximum certified
take-off mass with at least 2 engines intended for the carriage of passengers, mail or
cargo in international air transport.

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70. According to the Aerodrome Reference Code, the Code 4 shall identify an aircraft
reference field length of 1,800 meters or more.

71. The International Telecommunications Union informs ICAO as to the common mark
of an aircraft

72. In a precision approach category 1 lighting system, the single, two and three light
point source segments on the centre line, each have a length of 300m.

73. The following combinations of letters are not permitted for use as part of registration
marks: SOS, PAN, XXX, TTT, also combinations starting with Q code, and 5 letter
combinations used in the international Code of Signals.

74. One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly tracks
diverging immediately after take-off by at least 45º.

75. Normal residency is defined as the place a licence holder lives for at least 185 days a
year.

76. A braking action given by ATC of 0.25 and below is ' breaking action poor'.

77. When identified by radar and when radar service is terminated, the aircraft position
will be passed to the pilot.

78. When an ATCO reports “radar contact” it means that radar position of the aircraft has
been established.

79. A passport is the primary document for identification purposes however the Crew
Members’ Certificate is also regarded as such. A flight crew license is certainly not.

80. If an aircraft experiences a communications failure having received an instruction

from a radar controller to “Turn immediately and continue heading on 050º until
further advised”, the pilot must return to the flight-planned track by the shortest
practicable route and no later than the next significant point.

81. You must report a prolonged period of illness to the Authority at the end of the 21 day
period.

82. The lower limit of a Control area shall be established at a height above the ground or
water of not less that 200m (700ft).

83. The upper limit of an FIR is always a VFR flight level. The same applies to the top of
a CTA when expressed as a FL (including the base of an airway).

84. Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that
the missed approach tracks diverge by at least 30º.

85. You must tell the Authorities immediately if you have been in hospital or clinic for
more than 12 hours.

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86. The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft at the same cruising level when
navigational aids permit frequent up-dates of position a speed and the preceding
aircraft has filed a FP speed 40kts (TAS)or more faster that the second aircraft, is 3
minutes.

87. If you see the white light of an aircraft ahead of you and it is getting closer, you are in
the over-taking position.

88. The vertical separation minima applied by ATC within controlled airspace below
FL290, is 1000 ft (300m).

89. IVY (I to V = Y) and VIZ (V to I = Z)

90. An EAT will be transmitted to the pilot when joining a holding pattern if the delay
expected is more than 20 minutes, and it will be revised in steps of 5 minutes.

91. Longitudinal separation based on DME for aircraft at the same level and track
(provide each aircraft utilizes “on track” DME and separation is checked by ATC
using simultaneous DME readings) is 20 nms.

92. You must inform ATC if your average TAS between reporting points varies or is
expected to vary by ±5% of the flight-planned TAS or if the estimate for the next
reporting point, FIR boundary or destination varies by more than 3 minutes.

93. The standard PAPI consists of a wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired
units equally spaced.

94. VFR flight over FL200 is only permitted with ATC permission.

95. The ICAO Annex 9 deals with entry and departure of persons and their baggage on
international flights.

96. The highest VFR flight level in areas where RVSM is applied, is FL 285

97. The aerodrome category for rescue and fire-fighting is based on the overall length of
the longest aeroplane regularly using the aerodrome and its fuselage width.

98. During an approach (unless otherwise directed by ATC), the reporting airfield
altimeter setting (QNH) is to be set when passing through the transition level.

99. The Integrated Aeronautical Information Package consists of NOTAMs and PIBs,
AIP including amendments and supplements, AICs plus checklists and summaries.

100. If a hi-jacked aircraft is forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level
without being able to communicate with ATC, the pilot should continue at an altitude
that differs from the semi-circular rule by 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet
when lower than FL 290.

101. If a Volcanic ash plume is, or is expected to be, above FL 250 the ASHTAM code
state is RED.

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102. A non-radio aircraft in a traffic pattern which wishes to indicate it has difficulties
which compel it to land without requiring immediate assistance, should do so by the
repeated switching on and off of the landing lights.

103. Where a State has not established a minimum IFR altitude, the minimum height of an
IFR flight is to be at least 1,000 ft (2,000 ft in mountainous terrain) above the highest
obstacle within 8 kilometres (5nm) of the aircraft planned position.

104. The State establishes the OCA/H for an approach procedure.

105. Type ratings shall be established for any type of aircraft whenever considered
necessary by the relevant Authority.

106. DEE-SEND = descend for landing. YOU-LAAND = Land at this aerodrome.

107. When a state renders valid a license issued by another contracting state, the validity of
the authorization shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the original license.

108. A CPL (A) holder can act as PIC in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than
commercial air transportation. (Remember he/she can be PIC of single pilot
aeroplanes in commercial operations).

109. Aircraft A with ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area.
Aircraft B, without ATC clearance, is approaching at approximately the same altitude
and on a converging course. Aircraft B has right of way if aircraft A is on its left.

110. Runway end lighting is fixed, unidirectional showing red in the direction of the
runway.

111. SIGMET information is found in the GEN section of the AIP

112. ICAO maintains 7 Regional Offices and 9 regions.

113. The first and second Freedoms of the Air are known as the Technical Freedoms, and
the third, fourth and fifth freedoms are known as the Commercial Freedoms.

114. The Central Flow Movement Unit (CFMU) is part of Eurocontrol.

115. The Warsaw Convention concerns itself with the right of passengers to claim
compensation from the Operator or Agent in the event of injury or loss of life.

116. A pilot is permitted to switch off or reduce the intensity of any flashing lights if they
are likely to adversely affect the performance of duties or subject an outside observer
to harmful dazzle.

117. Simulated IMC. Must have: dual controls, safety pilot and/or competent observer in
communication with the safety pilot who can augment the field of vision of the safety
pilot if necessary.

118. An aircraft in the vicinity of an aerodrome must observe the rules applicable to that
aerodrome.

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119. Filing of Flight Plans: Normal: = a minimum of 1 hour before departure. In

accordance with ATFM or into an OCA = 3 hours prior to departure. Non scheduled,
landing for technical reasons = 2 hours before arrival
state.

120. Communications failure (IFR in IMC) in an area where radar is used for ATC,
squawk 7600 and maintain last assigned FL/route for 7 minutes and then proceed as
per filed Flight Plan.

121. VFR flights are not permitted to take-off from an aerodrome within a Control Zone,
when cloud ceiling is less than 1,500 ft or ground visibility less than 5 kms.
122. To contact an intercepting aircraft, make a general call on 121.5 MHz. Interceptor
will position high and left of the intercepted aircraft.

123. The absence of a signal square means that non-radio traffic is not accepted at the
aerodrome.

124. The standard traffic pattern is left hand, and the standard holding pattern is right hand.

125. A pattern 'A' holding point is always the closest to the runway.

126. Straight departure = track within 15º of runway. Turning departure requires a turn of
more than 15º

127. Straight departure = track guidance attained within 20 kms (10.8nms) of the DER.
Turning departures = track guidance attained within 10 kms (5.4nms) after the
completion of the turn

128. Omni directional departure = no track guidance. Procedure is: climb on extended
centre line to 120m and at least 90m obstacle clearance required before turns of more
than 15º can be commenced.

129. A minimum of 2 VOR/NAV boxes and 1 ADF are required to do a SID

130. RNAV procedures are based upon VOR/DME or GNSS.

131. Categories of aircraft are based upon Vat = 1.3 x stalling speed in the landing
configuration (Vso) or 1.23 x Vs1g.

132. There are 5 segments to an instrument approach (Arrival, Initial, Intermediate, Final
and Missed Approach).

133. For non-precision approaches, MOC in the final segment is 90m without FAF and
75m with an FAF.

134. Maximum permissible instrument approach gradient = 6.5% (3.5°)

135. The turn associated with instrument approaches where tracks flown are reciprocated is
called a procedure turn (2 types: 45º/180º and 80º/260º - the latter taking approx 2
minutes in still air). The generic term for base turns and procedure turns is track reversals

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136. Aerodrome Reference Codes are based upon 2 elements. Element 1 (a letter) is
aeroplane reference field length. Element 2 (a number) is wingspan and outer main
gear span.

137. Timing for the 45º leg of a procedure turn is 1min for categories A & B and 1 minute
15 seconds for categories C, D and E.

138. On the DR segment of the initial segment, the DR track will intersect the intermediate
segment track at 45º and the DR leg will not exceed 10 nms in length.

139. The end of the intermediate segment of a missed approach is when a minimum of
50m obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained. The end of the initial
segment is where the aircraft is established in the climb.

140. Missed approach while circling to land requires a climbing turn towards the landing
runway and to join the missed approach procedure for the instrument runway.

141. You can use FMS for an instrument approach as long as raw data is monitored.

142. Holding speeds in normal conditions = 230 kts up to and inclusive of 14,000ft. (170 kts for A & B
aircraft) – Over 14,000ft = 240 kts. (Turbulent conditions = 280 kts).

143. Parallel runways. Mode 1 = Independent (radar separation between 2 aircraft using
adjacent ILS is NOT applied. Mode 2 = Dependent (radar separation between 2
aircraft using adjacent ILS is applied also between aircraft on the same localiser).

144. The NTZ extends from nearer runaway threshold to point where 1,000ft vertical
separation is reduced.

145. ATC routes comprise of: 1. airways. 2. Upper air routes. 3: SID’s and STAR’s.
4. Low level helicopter routes.

146. CTR’s and CTA’s are airspace in which an air traffic service is provided for IFR and
controlled VFR traffic.

147. A strayed aircraft is one that has deviated significantly from its intended track or
which has reported that it is lost.

148. An unidentified aircraft is one whose existence is known to ATC but whose identity
has not been established.

149. Prefixes to basic route designators = K (helicopter low level route), U (upper
airspace), S (route exclusively for supersonic flight).

150. ICAO flight level occupancy based on SSR mode C is ± 300 feet.
151. A vehicle obstacle lighting is low intensity flashing yellow
152. Emergency vehicles proceeding to the assistance of an aircraft in distress shall be
given priority over all other surface movements.

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153. ATIS transmissions shall not be put on the voice channel of an ILS system. A VOR
may be used as long as its range is not affected and the readability of the
identification is not impaired.

154. SNOCLO is added to a METAR to indicates that the aerodrome is closed for snow
clearance operations.

155. Alerting Service phases are INCERFA (uncertainty), ALERFA (alert) and
DISTRESFA (distress).

156. Only answer to “cancelling my IFR flight” by ATC is “IFR Flight cancelled at
………………(time)”.

157. The word “Heavy” is put immediately after the aircraft’s callsign and transmitted in
the initial contact with ATC to indicate that the aircraft is in the heavy wake-
turbulence category. (H in item 9 of the Flight Plan).

158. The 3 parts of an AIRREP are: Position information, Operational information and
Meteorological information. (Operational information consists of ETA and
Endurance).

159. The basis from which MDA/MDH is calculated for Circling Approach procedures is
the dominant obstacle in the circling area.

160. Essential traffic is defined as traffic to which provision of separation by ATC is

applicable but which, in relation to a particular controlled flight, is not separated by
the defined minima.

161. Communication failure in VMC: continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest
aerodrome and report to ATC.

162. Communication failure in IMC in an area where radar is not provided: follow last
clearance for 20 minutes after the pilot knows that ATC is aware of the failure, and
then revert to flight plan as filed. Start the approach as close to ETA as possible, land
within 30 minutes and report to ATC after landing.

163. Ground Control is part of Aerodrome Control.

164. “Long Finals” call is made at 8nms from the threshold for straight-in approach and
between 8 and 4 nms when joining to final.

165. “Land after” procedure is only allowed: in daylight, where the runway is long enough,
where runway braking is not adversely affected, where the controller can see the
preceding aircraft until it clear of the runway and the pilot of the following aircraft is
warned.

166. Wake turbulence categories: Heavy 136 000kgs or more; medium less than 136 000
but more than 7000kgs, and light less than 7000kgs.

167. After the termination of radar vectoring (“resume your own navigation”) the pilot is
responsible for position reporting.

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168. The PIC is responsible for terrain clearance in all situations except during Radar
vectoring.

169. Radar will pass the aircraft’s position on both initial identification and on termination
of radar services.

170. A pilot may only cease reporting over compulsory reporting points when told to
“cease position reports” by ATC.

171. Mode C tolerance is ± 300ft. for level occupancy.

172. Radar controllers shall not vector an aircraft within 2.5 nms of the edge of the radar
vectoring areas.

173. Radar controllers shall not vector an aircraft into non-controlled airspace except in an
emergency or to avoid severe weather.

174. The normal RTR for an SRA is 2 nms. (RTR = Radar terminating Range).

175. If the radar controller on a radar approach has not received clearance to land from
Tower by the time the aircraft reaches 2 nms from touchdown, the aircraft must be
told to carry out the missed approach procedure.

176. SMR = Surface Movement Radar (surveillance of taxiing aircraft and vehicles on the
manoeuvring area).

177. IFR flights must flight plan into Class F airspace even if the service is not required.

178. No clearance will be given for IFR flights in class F airspace.

179. The Integrated Aeronautical Information Package consists of: NOTAMS + PIBs, AIP
including amendments and supplements; AICs and Checklists and Summaries.

180. The AIP consists of GEN, ENR and AD

181. Met information (including SIGMET) is found in the AIP GEN.

182. AIRAC = Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control. This is a method of

distribution of operationally significant material based on a common system of 28
days.

183. AIP Supplements contain changes of long duration (3 months or longer) and
information of short term duration that contain extensive text or graphics.

184. AIP Supplements should be coloured – preferably yellow.

185. A checklist of AIP Supplements is produced at intervals of not more than one month.

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186. NOTAMs are issued for information of:

a. temporary nature and of short-termed duration.
b. permanent and operationally significant nature.
c. temporary changes of long duration are made at short notice – except when
extensive text and/or graphics are used (in which it comes out as an AIP
Supplement).

187. NOTAM are distributed ordinarily by AFTN (teleprinter).

188. Information distributed through the AIRAC system is sent out every 28 days.

189. AICs are used for long-term forecast of major changes in legislation, regulations,
procedures etc or information of a purely explanatory/advisory nature.

190. AICs are coloured and are published every 28 days. (Pink – Safety, Yellow –
Operational matters, White – Administration, Mauve/Purple – UK. Airspace, Green –
Maps and Charts).

191. Runway breaking action friction measurement is made on each third of the runway.

192. In multiple RVR reports the first figure is always the RVR at the threshold. The
second figure is at the mid-point and the third figure is the RVR at the stop end of the
runway.

193. Runway friction coefficients are: 5 – Good (0.4 and above); 4- Medium/good; 3 –
Medium; 2 – medium/poor; 1 – poor (0.24 and below); 9 – Unreliable.

194. Presence of water on runway is reported as: Damp – surface shows a change in
colour due to moisture. Wet – the surface is soaked but no significant patches of
standing water. Water patches – significant patches of standing water (also used
when at least 25% of the runway length is covered with standing water), Flooded –
extensive standing water.

195. The separation of 2 aircraft on the same track in non-RVSM below FL 290 is 2,000
feet. Above FL290 in non RVSM it is 4000ft

196. ASHTAM: Colour Alert Red = volcano erupting and ash plume expected to rise to
above FL 250, Orange = volcano erupting and ash plume expected not to reach FL
250, Orange – volcano active from time to time, not dangerous but caution should be
exercised, Green – volcano reverted to normal state.

197. Changes to ASHTAM always sent with trend indication ie “Red following Orange” or
“Yellow – following Orange”.

198. The Movement area includes the apron; the taxiways and grass used for taxiing;the
runways, and the technical area.

199. Then manoeuvring area does not include the technical area or the apron.

200. The landing area includes the runways and the grass areas used for landing.

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201. Airside (the secure areas of the aerodrome) is called the aeronautical part.

202. RVR is always either equal to, or more than, reported met visibility.

203. RESA = Runway End Safety Area (intended to reduce the risk of damage to an
aircraft undershooting or over-running a runway).

204. CAT I: DH = > 200ft and with either ground vis > 800m or RVR > 550m ; CAT II:
DH lower than 200ft. but not lower than 100ft. and RVR> 350m. CAT IIIA:DH
lower than 100ft. or zero and RVR => 200m. CAT IIIB:DH lower than 50ft. or zero
and RVR = > 50m; CAT IIIC: DH = zero and an RVR = 0m

205. The normal length of the Radio Altimeter Operating Area is at least 300m.

206. Max angle of Rapid exit taxiway from runway is 45º. Preferably it should be 30º.

207. Road Holding Position is a point where vehicles may be required to hold.

208. Don’t forget to learn the different light signals between the Tower and the aircraft.

209. The Signal Area of an aerodrome should be visible from the air only.

210. Runway markings are white. Taxiway makings are yellow.

211. The threshold marking on a runway of a width of 60m or more consists of 16 stripes.

212. The threshold of a displaced runway is indicated by a transverse stripe.

213. The Aiming Point consists of 2 conspicuous stripes.

214. The distance of the aiming point markings from the threshold of a runway with a
length of 2,400m or more, is 400m.

215. The Touchdown Zone Markings are arranged in sets of pairs or pairs each separated
by 150m.

216. Yellow chevron markings on the pre-threshold area indicate that the area is fit to use
as a stopway but not for normal movement of aircraft.

217. Pattern ‘A’ is closest holding point marking to the runway and is the visual runway
holding position.

218. Apron Safety Line markings (behind which ground servicing vehicles and equipment must
park) should be in a colour to distinguish them from taxiway or apron
markings.

219. Mandatory markings have white lettering on a red background.

220. The following lights are variable intensity: 1. Approach lights. 2. Runway edge lights.
3. Runway threshold lights. 4. Runway End light. 5. Runway centerline lights. 6.
Runway touchdown zone lights. 7. Taxiway centerline lights.

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221. Aeronautical beacons for civil land aerodromes show either, flashing white only or
alternate flashing white and green.

222. Identification beacons for civil land aerodromes show flashing green in Morse code.

223. Barrettes are 3 or more single lights placed close together to appear as a bar at
distance.

224. Approach lights for a simple runway consist of a centreline extending 420m from the
threshold and one crossbar at 300m from the threshold.

225. The Calvert 5 bar and centerline system is the basis for Cat I, II and III approach light
systems. (5 crossbars 150m apart. Approach centerline consists of single point source
for the first 300m from the threshold, double for the next 300m and triple for the outer
300m).

226. A CAT1 runway caution zone is marked by yellow edge lights.

227. The additional features of a CAT II / III lighting system over a CAT I lighting system
are: 1. Touchdown Zone lights (barrettes) 2. Supplementary Approach lights
(barrettes) 3. Colour coded (red and white) runway centerline lights caution zone
extending 900m at the end of the runway.

228. When the pilot sees 2 red lights nearest the runway and 2 outer white lights of a PAPI,
the aircraft is on the visual glide slope.

229. Runway edge lights are white. However along either edge of the pre-threshold of a
displaced threshold they are red. For a Cat I runway with no centre line there is a
caution area towards the end of the runway and – in this section – the side lights over
the last 300m are yellow.

230. Runway edge lights are usually show in all angles necessary to provide guidance to a
pilot taking off or landing in either direction.. However, should the runway be used
for visual manoeuvring circling to land, runway edge lights are omni-directional.

231. Runway Lead-in lights and Circling Guidance lights are flashing white.

232. Runway Guard lights are flashing yellow and merely warns the pilot that he/she is
approaching a runway.

233. Road holding lights are either flashing red or “traffic lights” of red and green (no
yellow). They are controlled by ATC.

234. Taxiway centerline lights are normally green. However on rapid exit taxiways and
within the protected area of ILS operations they are alternate green and yellow.

235. A location sign has yellow lettering on a black background,

236. Obstacle lights: HI = Flashing white. MI = normally flashing red (unless used in
combination with a HI – in which case it is flashing white). LI = Steady red or white.
Vehicles = low intensity flashing yellow. Slow moving mobile objects = steady red.
Emergency vehicle whilst on emergency duties: flashing blue.

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237. Vehicle and mobile objects should be painted in a single conspicuously colour
preferably red or yellowish/green.

238. Wires/cables are marked by coloured spheres.

239. An Aerodrome obstacle is an obstacle that extends above the OIS within 15 kms of
the aerodrome. Any object over 15 kms away from an aerodrome is an En-route
obstacle and is only lit if 150m or over high.

240. There are 10 categories of crash/rescue protection provided at an aerodrome based on

the aircraft overall length and width of the fuselage of the largest aeroplane regularly
using that aerodrome.

241. Response time is the time between the initial call-out to the fire-fight & rescue services and
the time when the first vehicle is in position to apply foam. Should not exceed 3 minutes.

242. A fire station may be located off an aerodrome only if it can meet the Response time.

243. An oral declaration is acceptable concerning the content of crew and pax baggage.
244. Legible handwriting in ink or indelible pencil is acceptable when completing
facilitation documentation.

245. Outbound/departing: No more than 3 x copies of General Declaration; 3 x copies of Cargo Manifest;
3 x copies of a simple Stores List are to be delivered to the authority of the state of
departure. Inbound/arriving: No more than 3 x copies of General Declaration; 3 x copies of Cargo
Manifest; 3 x copies of a simple Stores List are to be delivered to the authority of the
state of arrival.

246. The PIC must be informed of the carriage of and seat location of any: PRM,
Deportee, Person in Custody or Law Enforcement Officers who are carrying
weapons.

247. Make sure you know what defines the Uncertainty Phase, Alert Phase and Distress
Phase of the Alerting Service.

248. The alert phase would be declared if an aircraft which is cleared to land fails to do so
within 5 minutes.

249. The first aircraft on the scene of an accident must remain over the area and assumes
responsibility until the arrival of the SAR aircraft. Should this prove not possible
(lack of fuel or unable to maintain comms with ATC or RCC), aircraft must hand over
responsibility to a second aircraft which must remain within the area until the arrival
of the SAR aircraft.

250. Check that you know all the ground/air signals for survivors and search parties.

251. Rocking the wings indicates to survivors that their signal is understood. A lack of
such a response indicates that they signal has not been understood.

252. 2182 kHz; 121.5 MHz; 243 MHz and 406 MHz are the emergency frequencies.

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253. The aim of aviation security is to safeguard civil aviation (Note : NOT international civil aviation)
operations, including passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general public against acts of
unlawful interference.

254. If mixing of passengers occurs between passengers who have been security screened
and those who haven't, the screened passengers and their baggage must be re-screened
before boarding an aircraft.

255. A hi-jacked aircraft (in the absence of local regulations) which is unable to
communicate with ATC and that has had to deviate from its assigned track, should fly
at a level which differs from the normal IFR cruising levels normally used by 300m
(1,000ft) if above FL 290 or by 150m (500ft) if below FL 290.

256. Transponder codes: 7700 = Distress; 7600 = comms failure; 7500 = Unlawful
Interference; 7000 = Conspicuity Code; 0000 = Mode “C” unserviceable.

257. A copy of the final report of an Accident Investigation should be sent to ICAO in one
of its official languages. The draft report should be sent to ICAO in code!

258. An accident is an occurrence which takes place between the times any person boards
and aircraft with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have
disembarked.

259. An accident would have occurred if the aircraft suffered damage that necessitated
replacement of major parts.

260. An accident would have occurred if a passenger suffered serious injury.

261. The State of Occurrence (where it happened!) of an Accident must initiate the
Investigation and is responsible for the safeguarding of the aircraft, its content and
any material evidence.

262. The State of Occurrence must inform the following ASAP after an accident: 1. State
of Registry; 2. State of the Operator; 3. State of Design; 4. State of Manufacture; 5.
ICAO.

263. The following have the right to be members of the accident investigation Committee:
1. State of Registry, 2. State of the Operator. 3. State of Design, 4. State of
Manufacture, 5. Any that that has provided experts of facilities.

264. The objective of an Accident Investigation is the prevention of accidents and

incidents and not to apportion blame or liability.

265. Inadmissible passengers must be returned at the operator’s expense to either where
the person commenced his/her journey or to a place where he/she is admissible. This
does not preclude the Operator recovering these expenses from the inadmissible
passenger.

266. Cabotage refers to domestic air services. It permits a state to limit domestic air
services in that state to operators and aircraft registered in that state.

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267. During a visual approach in controlled airspace ATC will apply separation with
other traffic

268. Where ICAO medical examination facilities do not exist, Annex 1 medicals can be
deferred for a maximum of 2 consecutive periods of 3 months for aircrew engaged
in commercial aviation. (Note: This is ICAO ONLY -it does not apply to JAA
medicals.)

269. When a Contracting State renders valid a licence issued by another Contracting
State, the period of validity of the authorisation shall not extend beyond the period
of validity of the original licence.

270. When ATC reports “radar contact”, this means the radar position of the aircraft has
been established.

271. A SVFR flight is a flight in accordance with an ATC clearance in which the
aircraft is flown in conditions less than VMC but not in compliance with IFR.
Carriage of a radio is mandatory.

272. SVFR is only applicable to flights into, out of, or within a CTR.

273. The Air Navigation Commission is responsible for finalizing SARPS for adoption..

274. If your transponder goes unserviceable prior to take-off you may be permitted by
the authority of the state, to depart to the nearest suitable aerodrome where it can
be repaired. “N” must be entered in item 10 of the Flight Plan.

275. The State establishes OCA/H for an approach procedure.

276. The separation method whereby a mixture of both vertical and horizontal
separation (not less than half of either) is applied is called Composite separation.

277. The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 200m (700 ft.)

278. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with
AIRAC procedures and shall be clearly identified by the acronym – AIRAC

279. The closure of a runway for a year due to maintenance would be published by
NOTAM, in the AIP and in an AIP Supplement.

280. The Alerting Service and FIS are often provided by the same ATS unit.

281. In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment commences at the FAP.

282. The initial approach segment of an instrument approach starts at the IAF

283. Location Indicators (e.g. EGLL for Heathrow) are found in the GEN section of the
AIP

284. A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights only when operating
in Class B airspace.

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285. If radar identification is lost or the aircraft is not visible to the radar controller
within the last 2 nms of an approach, the aircraft will be instructed to fly the
missed approach procedure.

286. If serviceable, SSR Mode C shall be continuously operated unless otherwise

directed by ATC. The IDENT facility will only be operated on instruction from
ATC.

287. A CPL the applicant must have 200 hrs of flight time or 150 hrs if completed
during an approved course.

288. Type ratings shall be established for any type of aircraft as considered necessary by
the Authority.

289. A national civil aviation security programme shall be established by each ICAO
contracting State.

290. Each Contracting State shall inform ICAO as to the identity of the national
authority which is responsible for security within that State.

291. Except in some special cases, establishment of change-over points for VOR
navigation are limited to route segments of 60 nms or more.

292. Information issued by a Met Office concerning the occurrence of en-route weather
which may affect the safety of low-level aircraft operations and is not included in
forecasts is AIRMET information (applicable below 10,000ft).

293. ATIS shall be up-dated immediately upon any significant change and a new
sequential identification code letter used.

294. The suffix used to indicate that an RNP 1 ATS route at and above FL200 in
which all turns are within the allowable tangential arc between the straight leg
segment defined with a radius of 22.5 nms between 30° and 90°, is Y.

295. The suffix used to indicate that an RNP 1 ATS route at and below FL190 in
which all turns are within the allowable tangential arc between the straight leg
segment defined with a radius of 15 nms between 30° and 90° is Z.

296. Potentially disruptive passengers are normally boarded prior to all other
passengers. The PIC must be informed by the operator when such passengers are
carried.

297. Contracting States must have specific procedures concerning Deportees,

inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody.

298. Details of cloud below 1,500m (5,000ft) or below the highest MSA, whichever is
the greater and Cumulonimbus are included in METARS broadcast on ATIS and
VOLMET.

299. The responsibility for preparing and disseminating ATIS is that of Air Traffic
Services. ATIS is broadcast by voice (V-ATIS) or by data (D-ATIS).

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300. Foreign States wishing to have armed personnel on aircraft and to enter another
State must notify the authority of that State, the authority of the destination
aerodrome, and the authorities of all en-route states, as to its intentions, and to
confirm that the Captain of the aircraft has been informed of the situation and
location of such personnel on the aeroplane.

301. Information concerning charges for aerodromes / heliports and Air Navigation
Services is found in the AIP under GEN.

302. Unaccompanied baggage shall be cleared under the procedure for accompanied
baggage or under simplified air cargo procedures.

303. Operationally significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance to

AIRAC procedures

304. To avoid confusion, redundant identification numbers of Prohibited, Danger and

Restricted areas shall not be re-used for a period of at least 1 year after cancellation
of the area to which they refer.

305. When the PIC has reasonable grounds to believe an offence against the penal law
has been – or is about to be committed – he/she may divert the aircraft from the
scheduled route to deliver the person to the competent authorities.

306. The Tokyo Convention specifies whose penal law is applicable in an aeroplane
engaged in International Commercial Aviation.

307. The Hague convention dealt with acts of unlawful interference in the air. The
Montreal convention dealt with terrorism at airports.

308. RNP is prescribed by States on the basis of regional air navigation agreements. It is
navigation accuracy requirement based on a containment factor of 95%.

309. ATC unit may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reason
(risk of confusion between similar call signs).

310. FIS does not provide ATC.

311. The width of the area either side of a specified ATS route for the determination of
OCA/H is 5 nms.

312. During the arrival procedure under IFR in VMC the Commander is responsible for
collision avoidance.

313. During a missed approach, the MOC in the intermediate phase is 30m and in the
Final phase is 50m.

314. Loading limitations include: 1. all limiting mass. 2. C of G position. 3. Mass

distribution 4. Floor loadings.

315. The State of Design shall ensure that there is a programme of structural integrity
including details of corrosion control for all aircraft over 5,700kgs.

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316. An incident is an occurrence other than an accident. A serious incident is nearly an

accident!

317. Land-after procedure may be used if the aerodrome controller can see the entire
length of the runway; the runway is dry (breaking action good); it is daylight;
runway occupancy is limited to 50 secs, and the pilot of the 'landing after' aircraft
is warned.

318. For an IR rating a candidate must demonstrate the ability to fly in IMC under IFR
in a multi-engined aircraft including engine-out conditions.

319. The highest code number for Element 1 (Aerodrome Reference Code) is 4 and the
highest code letter for Element 2 is F.

320. The pilot of an aircraft subject to unlawful interference should squawk 7500 unless
7700 is more appropriate.

321. If you cannot comply with a standard holding pattern you must inform ATC
immediately and request a revised clearance.

322. You must not pass an SDF (step-down fix) below the specified crossing altitude.

323. An IFR aircraft in an ADR not wishing to use the air traffic advisory service must
nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify of any changes to the flight plan.

324. Each Contracting State shall provide AIS in the form of the Integrated
Aeronautical Package.

325. The width of a Code 4 runway is 45m

326. JAR FCL requires 500 hours multipilot operation as part of the 1500 hours to
unfreeze the ATPL(A). Annex 2 (ICAO) does not.

327. Single-engined class ratings are valid for 2 years and multi-engined ratings for 1
year (both from date of issue).

328. Self-sustaining (i.e. motorized gliders) need a Class Rating according to JAR FCL.

329. The system notifying important changes to the AIP based on a system of common
effective dates is known as AIRAC.

330. Whether or not aircraft have ATC clearance, the normal Rules of the Air apply for
collision avoidance.

331. An aircraft may not take off in the opposite direction once an approaching aircraft
is:
a. within the last 5 minutes of the approach
b. started a procedure turn.

332. All speed limits are IAS. All tracks are magnetic.

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333. Aerodrome lights may be turned off on condition that they can be turned on at least
1 hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft.

334. Information concerning re-fueling facilities and limitations on re-fueling services is

found in the AD section of the AIP

335. Above FL290 the vertical separation between 2 aircraft on the same track is
4,000ft. (Take it as non-RVSM unless they say otherwise).

336. All turns, when under radar control, are made at rate 1 (or 25 degrees bank angle -
whatever is less) unless otherwise instructed.

337. The PIC is responsible for ensuring that an accepted ATC Clearance is safe with
regards to terrain clearance.

338. Essential Traffic relates to all IFR flights in controlled airspace and controlled VFR
flights.

339. A Timed Approach is one where aircraft pass a specific point inbound at a notified
time.
340. FIS is provided to all traffic provided with ATC and all those otherwise known to
ATC.

341. Aerodrome traffic is all aircraft moving on the Manoeuvring Area and flying the
vicinity of the aerodrome.

342. If an intercepted aircraft cannot comply with an instruction issued by the

interceptor and there is no common language the words “CAN NOT” must be
used.

343. A double white cross in the signals square means glider operations are in force.

344. When required de-insecting and/or disinfecting must take place prior to landing.

345. Approach Control is a control service provided for departing and arriving
controlled flights.

346. ATC is provided for the purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft:
a. in the air
b. on the manoeuvring area
c. and obstructions on the manoeuvring area.

347. The rules and regulations applicable in the UIR do not have to be identical to those
in the FIR below.

348. One minute separation between aircraft taking off can be achieved when the
subsequent aircraft track after takeoff diverges from the previous by 45 degrees or
more.

349. OIS stands for Obstacle Identification Surface.

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350. Gliders, airships, aeroplanes and balloons are all aircraft.

351. Aircraft approaching head on are required to give way to each other.

352. Separation consists of three types: Vertical; horizontal and composite.

353. IFR flights approaching an aerodrome visually will be separated from other IFR
traffic.

354. The provision of PAR is a function of a radar control unit.

355. An ATC clearance must be read back.

356. The vertical separation standard in the hold is 1000 ft. (300m)

357. A passenger in transit but delayed in a state may remain for a period of 2 days
without further immigration process.

358. The height of the registration markings on a vertical surface is 30cm.

359. After the age of 40, the holder of an ATPL(A) requires an annual medical every 6
months.

360. The privileges of an ATPL(A) can be exercised between the ages of 21 and 59 on
an unrestricted basis.

361. If the holder of an ATPL(A) has reached the age of 60 he/she must be the only
pilot on the flight crew over the age of 60.

362. A co-pilot acting as PIC under supervision may log all the hours towards the
higher grade of licence.

363. A CPL(A) night qualification requires 5 hours night experience and 5 take-offs and
landings at night.

364. The JAA medical requirements are in JAR FCL-3.

365. A red pyrotechnic (flare) fired from the tower to an approaching aircraft means
"notwithstanding any previous instruction, do not land for the time being."

366. A flashing white light from the tower to an aircraft on the ground means 'return to
the start point.'

367. VMC criteria in class B airspace is the same as the VMC criteria in class D.

368. An intercepted aircraft should squawk 7700.

369. Vertical position at or above the transition level is reported as a Flight Level.

370. A variation of +/- 5% in TAS from that in the FP must be reported to ATC.

371. A pilot may depart from the rules of the air in the interests of flight safety

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372. A marshaller with his hands raised vertically over his head is indicating that 'this is
your parking bay.'

373. If an emergency occurs when identified by radar, maintain the allocated SSR
squawk.

374. MOC at the end of the intermediate segment of an instrument approach is 150m.

375. The buffer area of a holding area extends from the edge of the holding area for
5nm.

376. OCH at the extremity of the holding pattern buffer area is nil.

377. Initial missed approach segment begins at DH or the MAPt.

378. 90m of MOC is required before a turn can be made for a turning departure.

379. The maximum intercept angle between the initial track and the intermediate track
for a precision approach is 90degrees. It is 120 degrees for a non precision
approach.

380. The normal intercept angle to the localiser is 45°. For parallel runway ops it is 30°.

381. An NDB(L) is a low powered NDB used as part of an instrument approach

procedure.

382. Turns in a standard holding pattern are right hand.

383. The centre line of a CATI approach lighting system must be 900m long.

384. The climb gradient for the intermediate segment of a missed approach is 2.5%.

385. Obstacle clearance at DER is zero.

386. The zone of flexibility for the boundaries of holding pattern entry sectors is 5°
either side of the boundary.

387. Aerodrome QHN should be set at transition level on an approach.

388. Where two aircraft are established on the same ILS localiser within 10 nm of
touchdown, the radar separation may be reduced to 2.5nm.

389. The transition level is the lowest available FL above the transition altitude.

390. An aircraft will report 'established' when within +/- 5° of the required QDM for an
NDB approach procedure.

391. CATII/III ILS required radio altimeter datum for DH.

392. The reference datum for a non precision approach for MDA/H is the aerodrome
elevation or the threshold of the landing runway if more than 2m (7ft) below the
aerodrome elevation.

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393. The reference datum for a precision approach is always the threshold of the landing
runway.

394. If severe turbulence exists, a descending aircraft must report at least 1000ft below
the level to which another aircraft has been cleared.

395. RAS and RIS are UK only and not examinable in the JAA exams.

396. IFR flights outside of CAS are advised to fly in accordance with the semi-circular
rule.

397. VFR flights are not permitted to fly below 500ft unless in the process of landing
and taking off from an aerodrome.

398. VFR is not permitted above FL200 without ATC clearance.

399. Flight plans for controlled flights (or for flights for which ATC considers it
advisable to file a FP) are to be filed not less than 1 hour before departure.

400. Repetitive flight plans (RPL) may be filed for flights operated on the same day of consecutive
weeks & on at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of a t least 10 consecutive days.

401. Transfer of ATC control from one ATCU to another is only done with the
agreement of the receiving unit.

402. When taking up a hold on a non standard fix (eg when en-route), you must turn right.

403. When a Contracting State first enters an aircraft on its Register and issues a C of A, it must inform the
State of Design

404. Unaccompanied baggage is treated as cargo but is cleared under simplified arrangements.

405. The registration mark is assigned by the State of Registry or the Common Mark Registering
Authority.

406. With regards to AIP Supplements, “temporary changes of long duration” are defined as three month
or longer.

407. Runway Lead-in lights, Circling Guidance lights & Threshold Identification lights are all flashing
white.

408. Annex 14 concerns itself with Aerodrome Design and Operations.

409. A stabilized approach must be established by 300m above the threshold in IMC.

410. The first 2 Freedoms of the Air are known as the Technical Freedoms and Freedoms 3, 4 & 5 are
known as the Commercial Freedoms.

411. The speed limit for airspaces classes A, B & C (IFR) is non-applicable.

412. The speed limit for airspaces classes C (VFR), D, E, F & G is 250kts IAS below 10,000ft.

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414. Delays in excess of 30 mins of EOBT for a controlled flight and in excess of 1 hour for an
uncontrolled flight, the flight plan shall be amended or cancelled and a new FL submitted.

415. EU Directive 94/56 is the equivalent of ICAO Annex 13.

416. EU Directive 2003/42 is concerned with the reporting of occurrences.

417. Runway Threshold Identification lights are used on a non-precision runway and are unidirectional
flashing white showing in the direction of the runway.

418. VASIS consist of 2 sets of 3 lights positioned as wing bars (first set shows white and second shows
red when on the glidepath).

419. Intermediate holding position marking is a single broken yellow line and the lighting is 3 fixed
unidirectional yellow lights showing in the direction of approach of the aircraft.

420. Road holding position lights are either a controllable red (stop) or green (go) or it can be a flashing
red light.

421. The definition of a “Heavier-than-air-aircraft” is : any aircraft deriving its lift in flight chiefly from
aerodynamic forces.

422. Visual approaches are part of an instrument approach. It is finishing an instrument approach visually.

423. Separation during a visual approach is the responsibility of ATC.

424. During a radar approach, the Radar Approach Controller is responsible for obtaining clearance to land
from the Aerodrome Controller and forwarding this clearance on to the aircraft.

425. The State of Registration is that State with which the aircraft is currently registered.

426. For a delay of 30 minutes for a controlled flight or 1 hour for an uncontrolled flight in excess of
EOBT, the flight plan must be amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted.

427. When a State first enters an aircraft on its registry, it must inform the State of Design that it has done
so.

428. Whereas the validity of a Medical certificate is from the date of initial issue of the Certificate, the
validity of a Type and Class Rating is from the date of issue.

429. The weight of the aircraft is not included in the C of A form.

430. ATS must inform the RCC immediately the Emergency Phase is activated. (The Emergency Phase is
a generic term meaning the Uncertainty Phase, The Alert Phase or the Distress Phase as the case may
be).

431. The Rules of the Air may only be broken only if absolutely necessary in the interests of flight safety.

432. Deportees and persons in custody are not embarked before the rest of the passengers.

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432. A pilot is not to operate an aircraft in CAT or carry passengers :

As PIC or Co-pilot
Unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take-offs, approaches and landings
in an aircraft of the same type or an FFS representing that type or class
As PIC at night
Unless he/she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 1 take-off, approach and landing at
night in an aircraft of the same type or an FFS representing that type or class
or
holds an Instrument Rating

Notable Distances :

6m Max distance from GP Ae to wheel for A & B aircraft

7m Max distance from GP Ae to wheel for C & D aircraft

30m MOC in the intermediate segment of a Missed Approach

45m Height above which medium intensity obstacle lights required

50m MOC which defines the start of the final segment of a Missed Approach

75m MOC in final segment for non precision approach with a FAF
Distance from runway centreline to visual holding point for a code 4 runway

90m MOC in final segment for non precision approach without a FAF
Distance from runway centreline to CAT I/II/III holding point for a code 4 runway

120m Height to which a departing aircraft on a straight departure must climb before turning

150m MOC at end of intermediate segment of an instrument approach.

Width of Code 4 runway cleared strip
Distance between bars of a 5 bar and centreline approach lighting system.
The spacing between elements of the touchdown zone markings.
Minimum MDH for VM(C) for a Cat B aircraft
Height above which high intensity obstacle lights required
Height above which en route obstacles must be lit

300m Vertical separation standard below FL290 or FL410 in RVSM

MOC in normal terrain and at the lowest holding altitude (LHA)
Length of a segment of approach lighting
Spacing between fixed distance (distance to go) markers.
Distance from threshold to aiming point (runway less than 2400m).
Length of Rad Alt operating area

400m Distance from threshold to aiming point (runway 2400m or more).

600m MOC in mountainous terrain

610m Minimum width of NTZ

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760m Spacing of runways for wake turbulence considerations

900m Length of a CAT I approach lighting centreline

Length of the touchdown zone

915m Spacing between the centrelines of runways for Mode 2 parallel ops

1035m Spacing between the centrelines of runways for Mode 1 parallel ops

1500m Ground visibility to start a flight under SVFR (3000m for JAR OPS)
Ground visibility for start of RVR reporting

15km Radius from ARP for aerodrome obstacle assessment

10km Max length of DR segment of track from IAF to IF

Track guidance must be obtained within for turning departure

20km Track guidance must be obtained within for straight departure

Notable Distances :

7ft (2m) Difference from Aerodrome Elevation at which non precision approach referenced
to threshold elevation

1nm Distance at which SRA terminates RTR1

Distance at which aircraft must be identified by radar for mode 3 parallel
departures
'Straight and level' leg prior to localiser interception Mode 1, 2 and 4 parallel ops

2nm Reduced radar separation between aircraft on adjacent localisers (mode 2)

Distance at which 'go around' commenced if no landing clearance given
Distance at which SRA normally terminates (RTR2)
'Straight and level' leg on localiser before descent
Distance from threshold at which an aircraft must missed approach should clearance
to land not received from Approach Radar or radar contact is lost

2.5nm Reduced radar separation between aircraft on same localiser within 10nm of
touchdown

3nm Reduced radar separation between aircraft on same localiser

Reduced radar separation between aircraft within 40nm of radar head

4nm Radar wake turbulence separation H behind H

Distance from touchdown after which speed control not applied

5nm Radar separation standard

Radar wake turbulence separation M behind H or L behind M
Optimum distance from FAF from the threshold

6nm Radar wake turbulence separation L behind H

8nm When to call “long finals”

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10nm Longitudinal separation using DME when first aircraft is 20kts faster
Max distance of the DR segment
Maximum distance of the FAF from the threshold

20nm Minimum or standard longitudinal DME separation

25nm Radius from VOR (or ARP) for MSA assessment

Range from IAF beyond which STAR required

50nm Longitudinal separation using RNAV where RNP 10 specified

60nm VOR change-over points

80nm Normal RNAV longitudinal separation

Notable Angles and percentages:

Rate 1 3° per second turn rate (180° = 1 minute)

3° Optimum glide path angle (CAT I can be 2.5° to 3.5°). For CAT II/III must be 3°
(5% = 3°; 3° = 318ft per nm descent rate)

3.3% PDG for departure procedures

5.2% Optimum gradient for approaches

6.5% Maximum gradient for approaches without Authority special approval

5° Accuracy of VOR Radial

Closing angle to be “established” for an NDB approach

15° Max course deviation for straight departure

Max course deviation in intermediate segment of a missed approach

30° Definition of an straight-in approach for a non-precision approach

Intercept angle to localiser course for parallel runway ops – Modes 2 & 3
Offset angle for sector 2 join to a hold
Missed approach track divergence for parallel ops

45° Intercept angle to final approach track under radar vectoring

Turn away from outbound course for 45/180 procedure turn
Track divergence for 1 minute departures from same runway
Intercept angle with the FAT for the DR segment
Divergence of departures for Mode 3 parallel operations
Intercept angle onto the FAT for Mode 4 parallel operations

70° Arc through which white lights show either side of tail
Arc of sector 2 of a holding pattern joining procedure

80° First turn in an 80/260 procedure turn

90° Max intercept angle from IAF to IF for precision approach

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Air Law – Last Minute Facts
December 2014

110° Arc through which navigation lights show

Arc of sector 1 of a holding pattern for joining procedure

120° Max intercept angle from IAF to IF for non precision approach

Notable Times :

50 secs Runway occupancy time for 'land after' procedure

1 minute Length of 45° leg of a 45/180 procedure turn in a CAT A or B aircraft

Length of outbound leg in a hold at 14 000ft and below
Min spacing between departing aircraft where tracks diverge by 45°

1m 15s Length of 45° leg of a 45/180 procedure turn in a CAT C; D or E aircraft

2 minutes Separation between departing aircraft using same runway where first is
40kts faster
Normal wake turbulence separation M behind H

3 minutes Longitudinal separation between aircraft where fist is 40 kts faster

Wake turbulence separation between L/M from intermediate part of
runway after H from full runway
Normal wake turbulence separation L behind H
Max Response Time for Rescue and fire-fighting

5 minutes Longitudinal separation between aircraft where fist is 20 kts faster

Normal departure spacing between aircraft using same runway

10 minutes Longitudinal separation between aircraft where navigation aids permit

frequent update of speed and position
Separation between aircraft flying the same mach number

15 minutes Longitudinal separation between aircraft where navigation aids do not

permit frequent update of speed and position

2 days Maximum stay for a transit passenger to remain in the airport

12 hours Over 12 hours in a hospital or clinic by a pilot must be reported

48 hours Over 48 hours hospitalisation warrants a “serious injury”

185 days Definition of “Residency” with regards to licencing.

In a healthy human, low saturated blood can be found in the Pulmonary Artery.
Two pilots having an argument is where in Maslow's Hierarchy of needs? Answer; Self-
esteem needs.

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