Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry: Classification of Matter 1 3 Uncertainty in Measurement
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry: Classification of Matter 1 3 Uncertainty in Measurement
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry: Classification of Matter 1 3 Uncertainty in Measurement
1
Chapter
1 CLASSIFICATION OF MATTER 3 UNCERTAINTY IN MEASUREMENT
m Matter can exist in three physical states viz solid, liquid and gas m Scientific notation is exponential notation in which any number
m MATTER
represented in N × 10n, where n is exponent having positive or
MIXTURES PURE
SUBSTANCES
negative values and N is number between 1.000 … and 9.999
HETEROGENOUS HOMOGENOUS
.....
MIXTURES MIXTURES
m Significant figures are meaningful digits which are known
ELEMENTS COMPOUNDS with certainity plus one which is estimated or uncertain.
m A mixture contains particles of two or more pure substances in any ratio.
m Rules for determining the number of significant figures.
m Movement of air follow pressure gradient.
m In Homogeneous mixture, components completely mix with each other. m All non zero digits are significant.
m In Heterogeneous mixture, composition is not uniform.
m Zeros preceding to first non-zero digit are non significant.
m Constituent particles of pure substance have fixed composition.
m Compound is formed when two ore more atoms of different elements combine together in definite ratio. m Zeroes between two non-zero digits are significant.
m Quantitative measurement of physical properties represented by a number followed by units. m Precision refers to the closeness of various measurements for
m SI system has seven base units. the same quantity.
m Base physical quantities and their units.
Length (m) Mass (kg) m Accuracy is the agreement of a particular value to the true
Time (s) Electric current (A) value of the result.
Thermodynamic Amount of substance (mol)
m In addition and subtraction of significant figures the result
Temperature (K) Luminous intensity (cd)
cannot have more digits to the right of the decimal point than
SOME PREFIX USED IN SI SYSTEMS ARE
either of the original numbers.
10–12 (pico), 10–9 (nano), 10–6(micro) –3 –2
10 (milli), 10 (centi),
3 6
10 (kilo), 10 (mega) 109(giga) m In multiplication and division of significant figures the result
SOME COMMON UNITS must be reported with no more significant figures as are there
m 1 L = 1000 mL = 1000 cm3 = 1 dm3, °F = 9/5 (°C) + 32, K = °C + 273.15 in the measurement with the fewer significant figures.
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2 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry NCERT Maps
l If the rightmost digit is less than 5, the preceding number is not changed.
l If the rightmost digit is 5 then preceding number increased by 1 only if it is an odd number.
m Method used to interconversion of unit is known as dimensional analysis, unit factor method.
5 ATOMIC AND MOLECULAR MASS m Empirical formula represents the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
m One atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as a mass exactly equal to one-twelfth of the mass of one present in a compound, whereas, the molecular formula shows exact number of
C-12 atom, 1 amu = 1.66056 × 10–24 g. different types of atoms present in a molecule of a compound.
m At present amu has been replaced by unified mass (u)
m Average atomic mass can be computed when we take into account the existence of isotopes 7 STOICHIOMETRY AND STOICHIOMETRIC CALCULATIONS
and their relative abundance. m Stoichiometry deals with calculation of masses (sometime volume) of the
m Molecular mass is the sum of atomic masses of the elements present in a molecule. reactants and products involved in a chemical reaction.
m Formula mass is used instead of molecular mass for ionic solids as in solid state they do not m Reactant, which gets consumed first, limits the amount of product formed is
exist as a single entity. called limiting reagent.
m A majority of reactions are carried out in solutions. The concentration of a solution can
6 MOLE CONCEPT AND MOLAR MASSES be expressed in following ways.
m Mole (Symbol, mol) is seventh base quantity for amount of a substance. m Mass percent = Mass of solute × 100 / (Mass of solution)
m One mole contains exactly 6.02214076 × 1023 elementary entities. This number is the fixed m Mole fraction of solute = No. of moles of solute/No. of moles of solution
numerical value of the Avogadro's constant (NA). m Molarity (M) = No. of moles of solute / Volume of solution in litres
m The mass of one mole of a substance in grams is called its molar mass.
l For dilution of solutions, M1V1 = M2V2
m Mass% of an element = Mass of that element in the compound × 100 / Molar mass of the
m Molality (m) = No. of moles of solute/Mass of solvent in kg.
compound.
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NCERT Maps Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 3
1. Incorrect boiling point of water is 5. An element has two isotopes having atomic 11. Mass of one CO molecule in gram is
mass 10 and 15 u respectively. If the % [NCERT Pg. 18]
[NCERT Pg. 10] abundance of lighter isotope is 80% then the
(1) 4.65 × 10–23 (2) 1.66 × 10–24
(1) 373 K (2) 100°C average atomic mass of the element is
[NCERT Pg. 17] (3) 3 × 10–24 (4) 6.22 × 10–23
(3) 212°F (4) 98.6°F
(1) 9 u (2) 11 u 12. If 2 mol of N2 and 3 mol of H2 mixed together
2. Number of significant digits in 0.200 g is to produce NH3 then select the correct
(3) 12 u (4) 14 u
[NCERT Pg. 12] option. [NCERT Pg. 22]
6. Formula mass is used instead of molecular
(1) N2 is limiting reagent
(1) 1 (2) 2 mass in the case of [NCERT Pg. 17]
(2) 1 mole of NH3 will be formed
(3) 3 (4) 4 (1) H2O (2) NaCl
(3) He (4) H2 (3) H2 is limiting reagent
3. Law of multiple proportions is not valid for
7. 88 g of CO2 contains (NA = Avogadro’s No.) (4) N2 and H2 both are limiting reagents
the pair of [NCERT Pg. 15]
[NCERT Pg. 18] 13. The aqueous solution contains 2g of solute
(1) H2O and H2O2 in 18 g solution. The mass% of solute is
(1) NA molecules (2) 2NA molecules
(2) CO and CO2 (3) 0.5 NA molecules (4) 4NA molecules [NCERT Pg. 23]
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4 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry NCERT Maps
16. 2M, 2L aqueous HCl solution is mixed with 18. The density of 1 M solution of compound A (1) 1 (2) 0.5
3L H2O, the molarity of resultant solution is is 1.12 g mL–1. The molality of the solution is
1 1
[NCERT Pg. 23] (Molar mass of A = 120 g mol–1) (3) (4)
55.55 56.55
(1) 1.34 M (2) 0.4 M [NCERT Pg. 23]
20. 0.0014 can be written in scientific notation
(3) 0.8 M (4) 1 M (1) 0.55 m as [NCERT Pg. 11]
17. 58.5 g of NaCl is added in 2500 g of water. (2) 0.75 m
(1) 0.14 × 10–2
The molality of the solution formed is (3) 1 m
[NCERT Pg. 23] (2) 1.4 × 10–3
(4) 1.2 m
(1) 0.2 m (2) 0.4 m 19. Mole fraction of solute in 1 molal aqueous (3) 14 × 10–4
(3) 0.8 m (4) 1 m NaOH solution is [NCERT Pg. 28] (4) 140 × 10–3
1. _____ refers to the closeness of various 7. Empirical formula of CH3COOH is _____ 14. Counting the number of object has _____
measurements for the same quantity. [NCERT Pg. 19] significant figures. [NCERT Pg. 13]
[NCERT Pg. 13] 8. The reactant, which gets consumed first, 15. Volume of 56 g CO gas at STP is _____
2. According to law of definite proportions, a limits the amount of product formed is [NCERT Pg. 28]
given compound always contains same known as _____ [NCERT Pg. 21] 16. For a binary solution, mole fraction of solute
elements combined together in the same 9. Number of moles of _____ after and before is 0.2 then mole fraction of solvent is_____
proportion by _____ [NCERT Pg. 16] dilution remained the same. [NCERT Pg. 23]
3. 12C and 14C are _____ of carbon. [NCERT Pg. 24] 17. Concentration term which changes with
[NCERT Pg. 16] 10. 15 ppm means 15 g of solute in _____ g of temperature is _____ [NCERT Pg. 23]
solution. [NCERT Pg. 26] 18. 1 mol of C3H8 for complete combustion
4. 1 amu is defined as mass exactly equal to
_____ of the mass of one carbon-12 atom. 11. 12.7106 can be rounded up in three requires _____ mol of O2 [NCERT Pg. 21]
[NCERT Pg. 17] significant figures as _____ 19. Two volumes of hydrogen react with one
5. 6.022 × 1023 is known as _____ [NCERT Pg. 27] volume of oxygen to give _____ of water
12. 1 dm3 is equal _____ L. vapours. [NCERT Pg. 16]
[NCERT Pg. 18]
[NCERT Pg. 27] 20. For the multiplication of 3.7 and 1.384, the
6. 5 moles of H2SO4 contains_____ moles of
result should not have more than _____
atoms. [NCERT Pg. 18] 13. 1 micro is equal to _____
significant figures. [NCERT Pg. 13]
[NCERT Pg. 9]
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2
Structure of Atom Chapter
1 SUBATOMIC PARTICLES Atomic no. (Z) = Number of protons m Photoelectric effect: Ejection of electrons when certain
Name Discovery Charge Mass/kg Mass no. (A) = Number of protons and neutrons metals were exposed to beam of light.
–19 –31
Electron (e) Cathode rays –1.6 × 10 C 9.1 × 10 Isotopes = Same atomic number but different mass Observation of photoelectric effect
–19 –27 12 14
Proton (p) Anode rays +1.6 × 10 C 1.67 × 10 number e.g. 6C, 6C m No time lag between ejection of electrons from metal
–27
Neutron (n) a particles 0 1.67 × 10 Isobars = Atoms with same mass number but different surface and striking of light beam.
bombarded on
14 14
Be thin sheet atomic number e.g. C, N m Number of ejected electrons proportional to the intensity
6 7
or brightness of light.
2 ATOMIC MODELS
3 ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES m Minimum frequency required to eject electron is known as
m Thomson model (Plum pudding model)
The atom is of spherical shape in which positive charge is m Unlike sound wave, electromagnetic waves do not require threshold frequency (n0).
uniformly distributed and electrons are embedded in it.
medium and can move in vacuum. m Einstein photoelectric equation
m Rutherford's Nuclear Model
Electromagnetic waves are characterised by the properties, 1 m v2
a particle scattering experiment m hn = hn0 +
Gold foil
2 e
frequency (n) and wave length (l) and travel with speed of
8
4 ATOMIC SPECTRA
light i.e., c = 3 × 10 m/s
a m The spectrum of radiation emitted by a substance that has
rays c = nl
absorbed energy is called an emission spectrum.
angles n1 n1
(iii) A very few a-particles bounced back m Experiment supporting wave nature of electromagnetic where n is the wave number of spectral line in hydrogen spectrum.
m On the basis of Rutherford experiment most of the space in an radiation are interference & diffraction
Series n1 n2 Spectral Region
atom is empty, a centre of atom is occupied by the nucleus in m Experiment supporting particle nature of electromagnetic
which positive charge is concentrated in a very small volume. radiations are photoelectric effect and black body radiations. Lyman 1 2, 3... Ultraviolet
The nucleus is surrounded by electrons that move around the Planck's Quantum Law: Atoms and molecules could emit or Balmer 2 3, 4... Visible
nucleus with a very high speed in circular path called orbits absorb energy only in discrete quantities and not in continous
while electrostatic forces of attraction held nucleus and Paschen 3 4, 5... Infrared
manner known as quantum
electrons together. Brackett 4 5, 6... Infrared
m Draw back of Rutherford model E = hn
It cannot explain the stability of atom. E = energy of quantum Pfund 5 6, 7... Infrared
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6 Structure of Atom NCERT Maps
5 BOHR'S MODEL FOR HYDROGEN ATOM 7 QUANTUM MECHANICAL MODEL OF ATOM 9 SHAPES OF ATOMIC ORBITALS
Key points of Bohr's theory m Orbitals and quantum number m Shapes of p-orbital
2px 2py 2pz
m Electron in the hydrogen atom can move in circular path of (1) Principal quantum number 'n' determines the size and z z z
fixed radius and energy known as orbits. energy of orbital.
m The energy of orbit does not change with time. l Number of allowed orbital in a shell = n2
(2) Azimuthal quantum number 'l' defines the three- x x x
m Electron moves from a lower stationary state to higher state
when required amount of energy is absorbed by the electron. dimeinsional shape of orbital y y y
m Electron move from higher energy state to lower energy state l For a given n, possible value of l = 0, 1, 2 ... (n – 1)
leaving the extra energy in the form of electromagnetic l Value of l 0 1 2 3 4 5 m Shapes of d-orbitals
waves.
Notation of s p d f g h dxy dxz dyz
m Angular momentum of electron is quantized. subshell z z z
nh
mvr = (3) Magnetic orbital quantum number 'm l ' gives
2p
information about the spatial orientation of the orbital with
m Frequency of radiation absorbed or emitted respect to standard set of coordinate axis. x x y x
For any subshell, 2l + 1 values of ml are possible. y y
DE E2 – E1 l
n= h = h
l Subshell s p d f g h (a) (b) (c)
2 dx2 – y2 dz2
52.9 (n ) Number of 1 3 5 7 9 11
m rn = pm; radius of nth orbit z z
Z orbitals
2 (4) Two orientations of electrons are distinguished by the
m En = –2.18 × 10
–18 Z
2 J; energy of electron in nth orbit spin quantum numbers (ms) which can take value of
n
1 1 x
+ and – . x
2 2 y y
6 DUAL BEHAVIOUR OF MATTER
m de-Broglie relationship between wavelength (l) and 8 FILLING OF ORBITALS IN ATOM (d) (e)
momentum (P) of the material particle. m Aufbau Principle: In the ground state
of the atoms, the orbitals are filled in 1s
h h Total nodes = n – 1, angular nodes = l, radial nodes
l= = order of their increasing energies. m
P mv
m The maximum number of electrons in 2s 2p =n–1–l
m Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle 2
a shell = 2n 3d
Energies of Orbitals
It states that it is impossible to determine simultaneously, the 3s 3p
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NCERT Maps Structure of Atom 7
1. Isobars are atoms with same 5. The kinetic energy of photoelectron when a 8. Radius of first excited state of Be3+ ion is
radiation of 104 Hz frequency hit the metal is
[NCERT Pg. 35] [NCERT Pg. 48]
(ν0 = 103 Hz) [NCERT Pg. 43]
(1) Atomic number (1) 13.22 pm (2) 52.9 pm
(1) 2.14 × 10–18 J
(2) Mass number (3) 105.8 pm (4) 211.6 pm
(2) 6.73 × 10–24 J
(3) Number of protons 9. Energy required to excite the electron in a
(3) 5.96 × 10–30 J hydrogen atom from 2nd to 3rd orbit is
(4) Number of neutrons
(4) 7.12 × 10–34 J [NCERT Pg. 48]
2. Correct order of wavelength is
6. Minimum wavenumber possible for the (1) 3.63 × 10–19 J (2) 2.18 × 10–18 J
[NCERT Pg. 38] spectral line present in Balmer series is
(3) 3.00 × 10–19 J (4) 5.45 × 10–19 J
(1) IR > Visible > UV [NCERT Pg. 45]
10. de Broglie wavelength of 20 g ball moving
(2) UV > IR > Visible (1) 82257 cm–1 with a velocity of 50 ms–1 is [NCERT Pg. 50]
(3) Visible > IR > UV (2) 109677 cm–1 (1) 6.626 × 10–37 m–1
(4) Visible > UV > IR (3) 15233 cm–1 (2) 6.626 × 10–34 m–1
3. Wavenumber of radiation having wavelength (4) 18347 cm–1 (3) 1.5 × 10–36 m–1
λ = 5000 Å is [NCERT Pg. 40] 7. Angular momentum of electron in 5th (4) 2.26 × 10–34 m–1
stationary orbit of hydrogen atom is
(1) 2 × 106 cm–1 11. Correct expression for Heisenberg
[NCERT Pg. 46] uncertainty principle is [NCERT Pg. 51]
(2) 2 × 104 cm–1
h h
(3) 2 × 10–6 cm–1 (1) (1) ∆x × ∆Vx ≥
2π 4π
(4) 2 × 10–4 cm–1
h h
4. Energy of one mole of photons of radiation (2) (2) ∆x × ∆Vx ≥
5π 4π m
whose frequency is 2 × 1014 Hz is nearly
h h
[NCERT Pg. 43] (3) (3) ∆x × ∆Vx ≥
π 2π
(1) 80 kJ (2) 153 kJ
5h h
(4) (4) ∆x × ∆Vx ≥
(3) 247 kJ (4) 366 kJ 2π 2π m
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8 Structure of Atom NCERT Maps
12. Number of orbital present in L-shell is 15. xy plane is nodal plane for [NCERT Pg. 59] 19. Maximum number of unpaired electrons
(1) dxy present in chromium atom is
[NCERT Pg. 55]
(2) d [NCERT Pg. 66]
(1) 1 (2) 2 x2 − y2
(1) 2
(3) 4 (4) 9 (3) d
z2
(2) 3
13. Which of the following set of quantum (4) dxz
numbers is not possible? [NCERT Pg. 56] (3) 5
16. Energy of which orbital is maximum for
1 hydrogen atom? [NCERT Pg. 61]
(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = + (4) 6
2 (1) 6s (2) 5p
1 20. Which of orbital representation is following
(2) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = − (3) 4d (4) 5f Hund's rule? [NCERT Pg. 63]
2
17. According to Aufbau principle filling of which
1 orbital takes place just after 5s in a
(3) n = 2, l = –1, m = 0, s = + (1)
2 multielectron atom? [NCERT Pg. 62]
1 (1) 5p (2) 5d
(4) n = 5, l = 3, m = –2, s = −
2 (2)
(3) 4f (4) 4d
14. Total number of nodes present in 3d
18. Maximum number of electrons present in 4th
subshell is [NCERT Pg. 59] (3)
shell is [NCERT Pg.62]
(1) 0 (2) 1
(1) 2 (2) 8
(3) 2 (4) 3 (4)
(3) 16 (4) 32
1. The characteristics of cathode rays 4. Black-body radiations and photoelectric 7. Size of atomic orbital depends on _______
_______ depends upon the material of effect support _______ nature of quantum number. [NCERT Pg. 55]
electromagnetic radiations. [NCERT Pg. 39]
electrodes. [NCERT Pg. 31] 8. The region where the probability density
5. Paschen series belongs to _______ region. reduces to zero is called _______.
2. Most of the α-particles passed through the
[NCERT Pg. 45] [NCERT Pg. 57]
gold foil _______. [NCERT Pg. 34]
6. The effect of Heisenberg uncertainty 9. Energy of 2s orbital of hydrogen atom is
3. Protium and deuterium are _______ of each principle is significant only for motion of _______ than that of 2s orbital of lithium
other. [NCERT Pg. 35] _______ objects. [NCERT Pg. 51] atom. [NCERT Pg. 61]
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NCERT Maps Structure of Atom 9
10. Maximum number of electrons present in 'g' 14. The probability of finding an electron at a 17. Canal rays were used to discover _______.
subshell is _______. [NCERT Pg. 56] point within an atom is proportional to [NCERT Pg. 32]
11. Only two electrons may exist in the same _______. [NCERT Pg. 47] 18. In vacuum, all electromagnetic waves travel
orbital and these electrons must have
_______ spin. [NCERT Pg. 62] with _______. [NCERT Pg. 38]
15. Transition of electron from 4th shell to 1st
shell in an hydrogen atom belongs to 19. _______ quantum number has only two
12. Completely filled subshells are _______
stable than partially filled subshells. _______ series. [NCERT Pg. 47] possible values. [NCERT Pg. 56]
[NCERT Pg. 65]
20. Radius of orbit is directly proportional to
16. Electron microscope is based on _______
13. Energy of quantum of radiation is _______. [NCERT Pg. 48]
behaviour of electron. [NCERT Pg. 50]
proportional to its _______. [NCERT Pg. 41]
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Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
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NCERT Maps Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 11
m Covalent radius is half of the bond distance of valence electron from the nuclecus by
between two similar atoms. intervening core electrons
Electron Gain Enthalpy
m Metallic radius is half the inter nuclear m 2p electron of boron is more shielded from
distance separating the metal cores in the the nucleus than the 2s electron therefore
metallic crystal. ionization energy of boron is slightly less Ionization Enthalpy
m Atomic radius refer to both covalent or than that of beryllium.
metallic radius depending upon the element m In nitrogen atom, three 2p-electrons reside
is a non metal or a metal
Atomic Radius
Ionization Enthalpy
Atoms or ions which contains same number two of four 2p-electrons must occupy the
m
er
of electrons are called isoelectronic same 2p-orbital resulting in increased a ract
c Ch
talli
2– – +
species e.g. O , F , Na etc. repulsion therefore ionization enthalpy of N
-me
m Ionic radii can be estimated by measuring
is greater than that of O.
Non er
the distance between cations and anions m Electron Gain enthalpy is the enthalpy
a ract
change when an electron is added to a c Ch
m A cation is always smaller than its parent
gaseous neutral atom to convert it into a Me talli
atom while an anion is always bigger than its
parent atom. negative ion.
m Ionization enthalpy is the energy required m Deg H of O and F is less negative than that of
to remove an electron from an isolated succeeding element due to interelectronic
gaseous atom. repulsion. Atomic Radius
m Third ionization enthalpy is higher than m Electronegativity is a qualitative measure
second and so on. of the ability of an atom in a chemical bond to
m The effective nuclear charge experienced by attract shared electrons. Electronegativity
a valence electron in an atom will be less m F is the most electronegative element while
than the actual charge on the nucleus the electron gain enthalpy of Cl is most
because of the "shielding" or "screening" negative.
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12 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties NCERT Maps
1. Incorrect Dobereiner’s triad among the 8. Correct order of first ionization enthalpies is 15. Element having atomic number 15 belongs
following is [NCERT Pg. 75] [NCERT Pg. 88] to [NCERT Pg. 97]
(1) Li, Na and K (2) Ca, Sr and Ba (1) Li <Be<B<C (2) Li <B<Be<C (1) 15th group, 2nd period
(3) Cl, Br and I (4) C, N and O (3) Li <C<Be<B (4) Li <B<C<Be (2) 15th group, 3rd period
2. On the basis of Mendeleev, the properties of 9. Maximum negative electron gain enthalpy (3) 13th group, 2nd period
the elements are a periodic function of their among the following is of [NCERT Pg.90]
[NCERT Pg. 76] (4) 13th group, 3rd period
(1) F (2) O
(1) Atomic number 16. If ∆iH1 and ∆iH2 of an element are 419 and
(3) N (4) Cl
(2) Atomic weight 3051 kJ mol–1 respectively then element
10. On Pauling scale, electronegativity of C is belongs to [NCERT Pg. 98]
(3) Number of neutron
similar to [NCERT Pg. 91]
(4) Number of electrons (1) 1st group (2) 2nd group
(1) S (2) Si
3. Eka-aluminium is [NCERT Pg. 76] (3) 13th group (4) 15th group
(1) B (2) Si (3) P (4) N
17. Which of the following metal is a typical
(3) Ga (4) Ge 11. Valence of group 15 elements is
d-block element? [NCERT Pg.84]
4. Atomic number of the element having [NCERT Pg.92]
(1) Zn (2) Cr
syombal Uno is [NCERT Pg. 80] (1) 1 (2) 3
(3) Cd (4) Hg
(1) 108 (2) 107 (3) 5 (4) Both (2) and (3)
18. 4th period of periodic table contains
(3) 105 (4) 102 12. Maximum covalency of Al is
5. Element having atomic number 29 belongs [NCERT Pg.81]
[NCERT Pg. 94]
to [NCERT Pg. 87] (1) 1 (2) 3 (1) 8 elements (2) 18 elements
(1) 3d series (3) 6 (4) 8 (3) 32 elements (4) 58 elements
(2) 4d series 19. Minimum negative electron gain enthalpy
13. Amphoteric oxide among the following is
(3) 4f inner transition series [NCERT Pg.94] among the following is of [NCERT Pg.90]
(4) 5f inner transition series (1) O (2) S
(1) Al2O3 (2) N2O
6. General outer electronic configuration of d-
(3) Na2O (4) CO2 (3) Se (4) Te
block elements is [NCERT Pg. 84]
14. N3– and Na+ ions have same 20. Which of the following property generally
(1) nd (n-1)s
1-10 0-2 (2) (n-1)d1-10ns0-2
[NCERT Pg. 96] increases down the group? [NCERT Pg.91]
(3) nd1-10(n-1)s2 (4) (n-1)d10ns0-2
7. Minimum ionic radii among the following is (1) Atomic number (1) Atomic radius
of [NCERT Pg. 87] (2) Mass number (2) Ionization enthalpy
(1) Na + (2) Mg2+ (3) Number of electrons (3) Electronegativity
(3) Al3+ (4) F– (4) Same number of neutorns (4) Electron gain enthalpy
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NCERT Maps Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties 13
1. According to Law of octaves, on arranging 7. Elements which show properties that are 14. Hydrogen resembles with both _______ and
the elements in increasing order of their characteristic of both metals and non-metals _______. [NCERT Pg. 82]
atomic weights, every _______ element had are called _______. [NCERT Pg. 85]
properties similar to the first element. 15. 5f inner transition series is also known as
8. Plot of 1st ionization enthalpy vs atomic
[NCERT Pg. 75] _______ series. [NCERT Pg. 82]
number, the minima occur at the _______.
2. According to Modern periodic law, the [NCERT Pg. 88] 16. Atomic radius generally _______ across a
physical and chemical properties of period from left to right. [NCERT Pg. 86]
9. Be is diagonally related to ______ .
elements are periodic functions of their
_______. [NCERT Pg. 78] [NCERT Pg. 93] 17. Radii of noble gases should be compared
10. d-block metals are ______ electropositive with _______ radii of other elements.
3. 16th group elements also known as
than group 1 and 2 metals. [NCERT Pg. 95] [NCERT Pg. 86]
_______. [NCERT Pg. 84]
11. Half of the internuclear distance separating 18. Second electron gain enthalpy of oxygen
4. Size of anion is always _______ than its
the metal cores in the metallic crystal is atom is _______. [NCERT Pg. 90]
parent atom. [NCERT Pg. 87]
know as _______. [NCERT Pg. 88]
5. Maximum covalency of first member of each 19. Elements in the same group have similar
group is _______. [NCERT Pg. 93] 12. s and p-block elements together are also _______ properties. [NCERT Pg. 96]
known as _______. [NCERT Pg. 84]
6. Second ionization enthalpy will be _______ 20. Element having maximum chemical
13. Element having electronic configuration
than the first ionization enthalpy. reactivity in terms of oxidising property is
[Rn]5f146d107s27p5 belongs to _______
_______. [NCERT Pg. 99]
[NCERT Pg. 88] period. [NCERT Pg. 84]
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Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
4
Chapter
m Covalent bond – When two atoms share electron pair(s) 6 POLARITY OF BONDS
they are said to be joined by covalent bonds. 4 BOND PARAMETERS
m Bond length is defined as the equilibrium distance between m In non-polar covalent bonds electron pair is situated
m It two atoms share one electron pair, the covalent bond the nuclei of two bonded atoms in a molecule. exactly between the two identical nuclei.
between them is called single bond, if two electrons pairs m The Covalent Radius is measured approximately as the m In polar covalent bond electron pair between the two atoms
then double bond e.g. radius of on atom's core which is in contact with the core an gets displaced more towards more electronegative atom.
adjacent atom in a bonded situation.
m The vander Walls Radius represents the overall size of m Dipole moment is the product of the magnitude of the
atoms which included the valence shell in a non-bonded charge and the distance between the centres of positive or
Cl Cl O C O negative charge and denoted by m
, situation.
m Bond Angle is defined as the angle between the orbitals m Dipole moment is a vector quantity and represented by
8e– 8e– 8e– 8e– 8e– containing bonding electron pairs around the central atom in a crossed arrow ( )
Cl – Cl O=C=O molecule/ ion.
eg H —— F
m Bond Enthalpy is defined as the amount of energy required to
break one mole of bonds of a particular type between two m Unit of m is Debye (1D = 3.33564 × 10–30 C m)
Total number of Total number of atoms in a gaseous state. For polyatomic molecules the term m In polyatomic molecules, the dipole moment depend upon
mean or average bond enthalpy is used.
m Formal charge = valence electrons non-bonding individual dipole moments of individual bonds and spatial
m Bond Order is given by the number of bonds between the two arrangement of bonds eg.
in free atom electrons
atoms in a molecule.
m Isoelectronic molecules and ions have identical bond orders H H
Total number of for example F2 and O2– 2 have bond order 1, N2 CO and NO
+
1 O O
- bonding have bond order 3.
2 electrons m With increase in bond order, bond enthalpy increases and H H
bond length decreases. Bond dipole Resultant dipole
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NCERT Maps Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 15
B 1
m Bond order = (N - NA )
3 2 T-shape ClF3 2 B
B A
1
m Bond order µ Bond strength µ
B Bond length
B
B B m If all the molecular orbitals in a molecule are doubly occupied then the substance is diamagnetic else paramagnetic.
6 0 A Octahedral SF6
B B
B 11 HYDROGEN BONDING
B m Hydrogen bond can be defined as the attractive force which binds hydrogen atom of one molecule with the electronegative atom (F, O or N) of
B B another molecule or within the same molecule.
5 1 A Square BrF5
B B Types of H-bond
pyramid
m Intermolecular hydrogen bond is formed between the atoms of two different molecules e.g. H2O, NH3, HF, C2 H5OH etc.
B B
4 2 A Square XeF4 m Intramolecular hydrogen bond is formed when hydrogen atom is in between the two highly electronegative (F, O, N) atoms present within the
B B same molecule eg. orthonitrophenol.
Planar
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16 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure NCERT Maps
1. Hybridisation of Br in BrF5 is 9. Bond order of NO+ ion is [NCERT Pg. 109] 14. Paramagnetic species is [NCERT Pg.129]
[NCERT Pg. 124] (1) 0 (2) 1 (1) O2 (2) O22−
(1) sp3d (2) sp3d2 (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) N2 (4) F2
(3) dsp2 (4) sp3
10. Select the incorrect statement. 15. Octet rule is not satisfied in
2. Which of the following molecule is not sp3
hybridised? [NCERT Pg. 121] [NCERT Pg. 111] [NCERT Pg. 105]
(1) H2O (2) NH3 (1) Resonance stabilizes the molecule (1) CO (2) NO
(3) CH4 (4) BF3 (2) Resonance averages the bond (3) CO2 (4) CO32−
3. Total number of σ bonds in C6H6 is characteristics as a whole
16. Formal charge of central oxygen atom in O3
[NCERT Pg. 120] (3) The canonical forms have no real
molecule is [NCERT Pg. 105]
(1) 3 (2) 6 existence
(1) +1 (2) 0
(3) 9 (4) 12 (4) There is equilibrium between the
(3) –1 (4) –2
4. Hydrogen bonding is not possible when canonical forms
hydrogen atom is bonded with 17. Maximum ionic character in the following is
11. Correct order of repulsive interaction of of
[NCERT Pg. 131] electron pair is [NCERT Pg. 113]
(1) F (2) O [NCERT Pg. 112]
(1) lp – lp > bp – bp > lp – bp (1) CsF (2) LiI
(3) N (4) C
(2) lp – lp > lp – bp > bp – bp (3) LiF (4) CsI
5. Shape of ClF3 molecule is
[NCERT Pg. 117] (3) bp – bp > lp – bp > lp – lp 18. Molecule which does not exist is
(1) Pyramidal (2) Trigonal planar (4) lp – bp > bp – bp > lp – lp [NCERT Pg. 130]
(3) T-shape (4) Tetrahedral 12. Which molecular orbital has maximum (1) B2 (2) Li2
6. Which of the following pair of orbital always energy among the given option? (3) C2 (4) Be2
show zero overlap? [NCERT Pg. 119] [NCERT Pg. 129] 19. Intramolecular H-bonding is present in
(1) s + px (2) py + py [NCERT Pg. 132]
(1) π2px (2) π*2px
(3) px + py (4) s + s
(1) Phenol (2) o-nitrophenol
7. Debye is equal to [NCERT Pg. 111] (3) σ2pz (4) σ*2pz
(3) m-nitrophenol (4) p-nitrophenol
(1) 3.33 × 10 C m (2) 3 × 1030 C cm
30
13. The bond order of N2+ is same as that of 20. Minimum bond length is of
(3) 3.33 × 10–30 C m (4) 3 × 10–30 C cm
[NCERT Pg. 129] [NCERT Pg. 129]
8. Polar molecule among the following is
[NCERT Pg. 112] (1) N2− (2) N2 (1) O2 (2) O2+
(1) BF3 (2) XeF4
(3) CCl4 (4) NH3 (3) O2 (4) O2− (3) O2− (4) O22−
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NCERT Maps Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure 17
1. _____ represents the overall size of the 8. The orbital formed by the addition of atomic 14. In Li2 molecule, last electron goes into
atoms which includes its valence shell in a orbitals is called _____ molecular orbital. _____ molecular orbital [NCERT Pg. 131]
non-bonded situation. [NCERT Pg. 107] [NCERT Pg. 126] 15. Bond angle of HOH in H2O molecule is
2. Isoelectronic molecules and ions have _____ [NCERT Pg. 120]
9. A molecule is stable if number of electrons
_____ bond orders. [NCERT Pg. 109] occupying bonding orbitals is _____ than 16. At equilibrium inter-nuclear distance, the
number of electrons occupying antibonding potential energy of the system is _____
3. The dipole moment of NH3 is _____ than
that of NF3. [NCERT Pg. 112] orbitals. [NCERT Pg. 129] [NCERT Pg. 133]
4. Central atom having 5 bond pairs and 1 lone 10. Energy of resonance hybrid is _____ than 17. Minimum bond length is of _____
pair is _____ in shape. [NCERT Pg. 115] the energy of any single canonical structure. [NCERT Pg. 108]
[NCERT Pg. 110]
5. Sigma bond is _____ as compared to 18. C — O bond order in CO32− ion is _____
π-bond. [NCERT Pg. 120] 11. O22− ion is _____ in nature. [NCERT Pg. 110]
6. Hybridisation involving 3p, 3d and 4s [NCERT Pg. 135] +
orbitals is _____ [NCERT Pg. 125] 19. Shape of CH3 ion is _____
12. In PCl5 axial bonds are _____ as compared
7. The shape and hybridization of SF6 to equatorial bonds [NCERT Pg. 135] [NCERT Pg. 115]
molecule are _____ and _____ respectively 20. CO2 contains _____ number of sigma and
13. Hydrogen bond is _____ than the van der
[NCERT Pg. 125] Walls forces. [NCERT Pg. 135] π-bonds. [NCERT Pg. 135]
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5
States of Matter Chapter
Volume
solid /liquid (iv) p2
p3 as ideal gas equation.
energy between stationary (iv) Indefinite shape and volume p4 Ideal gas equation : PV = nRT
molecules is proportional to 13 . (v) Mix evenly and completely in all
m
r
proportions without any ñ
-273.15 m R is universal gas constant and equal to
(iii) Dipole-Induced dipole forces –300 –200 –100 0 100
mechanical aid (i) 8.314JK–1 mol–1
operate between the polar Temperature (°C)
–2 –1 –1
molecules having permanent (ii) 8.20578 × 10 L atm K mol
4 GAS LAWS
dipole and the molecule lacking PM
6 GAY LUSSAC'S LAW m Density of gas = RT
permanent dipole. Interaction m Boyle's law
(i) At constant volume, pressure of a
energy is proportional to 1 . (i) A t c o n s t a n t t e m p e r a t u r e ,
fixed amount of gas varies directly
r6 pressure of a fixed amount of
with temperature 9 DALTON'S LAW OF PARTIAL PRESSURE
(iv) Hydrogen bond is a special case of gas varies inversely with its
dipole-dipole interaction and is volume. (ii) P µ T or P = k3 (i) Total pressure exerted by the mixture of non-
T
found in the molecules in which (ii) P = k1 1 Þ pV = k1 reactive gases is equal to the sum of the partial
highly polar N – H, O – H, or H – F V
V1<V2<V3<V4 pressures of individual gases.
Pressure (bar)
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NCERT Maps States of Matter 19
pV
2
temperature is called normal
possessed by the maximum number of
molecules (P+
an
V
2 ( (V-nb) = nRT boiling point and at 1 bar then
the boiling point is called
m Root mean square speed(Urns) is the square 0 p standard boiling point of the
a and b are called van der waals constant
root of the mean of the square of speeds. liquid.
and depends on nature of gas.
m Surface Tension is defined as the
m Compressibility factor Z
force acting per unit length
u12 + u 22 .... un2
urms = Real gas
V perpendicular to the line drawn
n
Ideal gas (i) Z = PV , Z = real on the surface of liquid. Denoted
nRT Videal
m ump : uav: urms :: 1 : 1.128:1.224 Pressure by g and SI unit is Nm–1.
(ii) For ideal gas Z = 1 m Viscosity
(i) It is a measure of resistance
11 KINETIC MOLECULAR THEORY OF GASES (iii) At very low pressure Z » 1 for all gases. to flow which arises due to
0 Volume
m Postulates of kinetic molecular theory (iv) At high pressure Z > 1 and at internal friction between
intermediate pressure most gases layers of fluid as they slip
(i) Gases consist of large number of identical past one another while liquid
particles and their actual volume is m Two assumption of kinetic theory do not hold have Z < 1. flows.
negligible in comparison to the empty good for real gases i.e (i) No interparticle (ii) In laminar flow there is a
m Boyle temperature or Boyle point
space between them attraction and (ii) Negligible volume of regular gradation of velocity
The temperature at which a real gas obeys in passing from one layer to
(ii) No force of attraction between particles at molecule of gas in comparison to space
ideal gas law over an appreciable range of next.
ordinary temperature and pressure occupied by the gas.
pressure. du
(iii) Particles of gas are always in constant m Real gases show deviations from ideal gas (iii) F = h A dz where F is force
random motion. of viscosity; A, area of
because molecules of gases intereact with 13 LIQUIFACTION OF GASES
(iv) Particles of gas move in all possible du
each other. This affects the pressure exerted contact; dz velocity gradient;
direction in straight lines and during m Critical temperature (TC) is the highest
by the molecules on the walls of container. h, coefficient of viscosity
motion they collide with each other and temperature at which liquid is observed.
with wall of container elastically. an2 m Critical volume (VC) is the volume of one (iv) SI unit of h is Nsm–2, in cgs
(v) Individual speed of particles are changing Pideal = Preal + mole of the gas at critical temperature
V system unit is poise
but distribution of speeds remains (observed (correction and pressure. 1 poise = 1 gcm–1s–1
pressure) term)
constant at a particular temperature. m For CO2, TC is 30.98°C = 10–1 kgm–1s–1.
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20 States of Matter NCERT Maps
1. In London force, the interaction energy is 5. Value of universal gas constant in L atm 9. Which of the curve belong to H2 gas at
proportional to (r = distance between two K–1 mol–1 is [NCERT Pg. 146] 273 K? [NCERT Pg. 150]
interacting particles) [NCERT Pg. 138] (1) 0.082
1 1 (2) 1.99
(1) (2)
r r2 (3) 8.314
1 1 (4) 0.83
(3) (4)
r3 r6 6. A gaseous mixture contains equal masses
2. A gas occupies 1 L volume at 720 mm then of O2 and CH4. If the total pressure of the
the pressure at which it occupies 600 mL mixture is 15 atm then the partial pressure
volume at constant temperature is of CH4 in the mixture is [NCERT Pg. 147] (1) a (2) b
[NCERT Pg. 140] (1) 1 atm (2) 5 atm (3) c (4) d
(1) 600 m (2) 720 mm (3) 10 atm (4) 15 atm 10. Select the correct relation.
[NCERT Pg. 151]
(3) 900 mm (4) 1200 mm 7. Ratio of ump : uav : urms is [NCERT Pg. 149]
a 2n
3. If volume of a gas at 0°C is V0 then the (1) 1 : 1·128 : 1·224 (1) Pideal = Preal +
V2
volume of the gas at 27·3°C is nearly (2) 1·128 : 1 : 1.224
[NCERT Pg. 142] a 2n
(3) 1·128 : 1·224 : 1 (2) Pideal = Preal –
V2
(1) V0 (2) 1.1V0
(4) 1 : 1·224 : 1·128 an2
(3) 1.5 V0 (4) 10 V0 (3) Pideal = Preal +
8. Which assumption of the kinetic molecular V2
4. At constant volume, pressure of a fixed theory is not correct? [NCERT Pg. 149]
an2
amount of a gas varies directly with the (4) Pideal = Preal –
(1) At any particular time, different particles V2
temperature. This statement is based on of gas have different speeds 11. The temperature at which real gas obeys
[NCERT Pg. 143] (2) Collisions of gas molecules are perfectly ideal gas law over an appreciable range of
(1) Charle’s law elastic. pressure is called [NCERT Pg. 152]
(3) Pressure is exerted as a result of (1) Boiling temperature
(2) Boyles’s law
collision of particles with each other. (2) Boyle temperature
(3) Gay Lussac’s law
(4) Particles of a gas move in all possible (3) Critical temperature
(4) Avogadro law direction in straight lines. (4) Inversion temperature
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NCERT Maps States of Matter 21
12. Density of CO2 gas (in gL–1) at 8·21 atm and (1) HF (1) 0·9 bar
400 K is [NCERT Pg. 146] (2) H2O (2) 1·2 bar
(1) 1·1 (2) 5·5 (3) NH3 (3) 1.8 bar
(3) 11 (4) 22 (4) H2 (4) 2.7 bar
13. Maximum value of vander Waals constant 16. S.I Unit of surface tension is 19. Real gas behaves as an ideal gas at
‘a’ is of [NCERT Pg. 151,154] [NCERT Pg. 156] [NCERT Pg. 151,152]
(1) He (2) O2 (1) Nm (2) Nm–1 (1) High pressure and low temperature
(3) NH3 (4) CO2 (2) Nm2 (4) Nm–2 (2) Low pressure and high temperature
14. At critical temperature, the density of liquid 17. Force of viscosity depends on (3) High pressure and high temperature
becomes [NCERT Pg. 155] [NCERT Pg. 156] (4) Low pressure and low temperature
(1) Greater than the density of vapours (1) Coefficient of viscosity 20. According to Avogadro Law equal volume of
(2) Area of contact between liquid layers all gases under same conditions of
(2) Less than the density of vapours
(3) Velocity gradient temperature and pressure contain equal
(3) Equal to the density of vapours [NCERT Pg. 144]
(4) All of these
(4) Zero (1) Number of Atoms
18. Pressure exerted by a gaseous mixture
15. In which of the following molecules when 0.5 L H2 at 0.8 bar and 2.0 L of O2 at (2) Number of molecules
hydrogen bonding does not occur? 0.7 bar are introduced in 1L vessel at 27°C (3) Mass
[NCERT Pg. 138,139] is [NCERT Pg. 158] (4) Number of electrons
1. Energy of a body arising from motion of its 5. Average kinetic energy of a gas molecule is 10. If value of Z = 2 for a real gas then volume
atoms or molecules is called _______. directly proportional to the _______. of 1 mol of gas at STP is _______ L.
[NCERT Pg. 139] [NCERT Pg. 149] [NCERT Pg. 152]
11. Boyle’s law is applicable at constant
2. Lowest temperature possible is _______ °C. 6. At high pressure, all the gases have Z
[NCERT Pg. 143] _______. [NCERT Pg. 140]
_______ 1. [NCERT Pg. 151]
12. _______ interaction occurs between two
3. The difference between the total pressure of 7. At 1 atm pressure boiling temperature is
HCl molecules. [NCERT Pg. 138]
the moist gas and pressure of dry gas is called _______ boiling point.
13. If volume of a gas is V L at 10°C then volume
equal to _______. [NCERT Pg. 146] [NCERT Pg. 154]
of the same gas at 293°C is _______ L.
4. At any given temperature, nitrogen 8. Liquid tends to rise (or fall) in the capillary [NCERT Pg. 142]
molecules have _______ value of most because of _______. [NCERT Pg. 156] 14. Dalton’s law of partial pressure is not
probable speed than the chlorine molecules. 9. SI unit of vander Waals constant ‘b’ is applicable for _______ gaseous mixture.
[NCERT Pg. 148] _______. [NCERT Pg. 151] [NCERT Pg. 146]
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22 States of Matter NCERT Maps
15. Schematic plot of number of molecules Vs 17. Critical temperature of CO2 gas is _______. 19. 1 poise is equal to _______ kg m–1 s–1.
molecular speed at different temperatures is [NCERT Pg. 153] [NCERT Pg. 157]
called ______ of speeds. [NCERT Pg. 148]
20. _______ is the difference between the mass
16. Repulsive interactions are _______ 18. Vapour pressure of a liquid depends only on of displaced air and mass of balloon.
interactions. [NCERT Pg. 151] _______. [NCERT Pg. 154] [NCERT Pg. 158]
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Thermodynamics
6
Chapter
1 THERMODYNAMIC TERMS 3 ENTHALPY (H) m Standard enthalpy of sublimation, (DsubH°) is the change
m (i) System - Part of universe under observation. m Thermodynamic function is equal to U + pV in enthalpy when one mole of a solid substance sublimes at
(ii) Surroundings - Include everything other than m It is a state function. constant temperature and under standard pressure (1 bar).
system. m DH = qP, heat absorbed by system at constant pressure. Standard Enthalpy of Formation (DfH°) is the standard
m There are three types of system. m DU = qV at constant volume enthalpy change for the formation of one mole of a compound
(i) Open system - Exchange of energy and matter from its elements in their most stable states of aggregation.
m DH > 0 for endothermic and DH < 0 for exothermic reaction.
between system and surroundings. s
m DH = DU + DngRT where Dng is change in gaseous moles. Standard Molar Enthalpies of Formation (DfH )
(ii) Closed system - No exchange of matter but
at 298 K of a few Selected Substances
exchange of energy is possible.
(iii) Isolated system - There is no exchange of energy 4 EXTENSIVE AND INTENSIVE PROPERTIES Substance Substance
or matter between the system and surroundings. m An extensive property is a property whose value depends
m The state of a thermodynamic system is described by Br2(l) 0 H2O(l) –285.83
on the quantity or size of matter present in the system e.g.
its measurable properties. P, V, T, n etc are called state
mass, volume, enthalpy etc. +30.91 NO(g) +90.25
variables or state functions because their values Br2(g)
depend only on the state of the system and not on how it m Properties which do not depend on the quantity or size of
is reached. matter present are known as intensive properties e.g. C(diamond) +1.89 NO2(g) +33.18
temperature, density, molar heat capacity etc.
2 FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS Heat Capacity C(graphite) 0 –910.94
m Commonly known as the law of conservation of energy m Molar heat capacity is the quantity of heat required to raise Cl2(g) 0 C(g) +716.68
i.e. energy can neither be created nor be destroyed. the temperature of one unit mole of a substance by 1°C or
m DU = q + w is mathematical statement of the first law of 1 K, q = ncDT H2(g) 0 H(g) +217.97
thermodynamics
m Molar heat capacity at constant pressure is CP and molar –241.82 Cl(g) +121.68
Internal Energy (U) H2O(g)
m Sum of chemical, electrical, mechanical or any other heat capacity at constant volume is CV and CP – CV = R.
type of energy of the system. m Bomb calorimeter is used to find DU. Hess’s Law of Constant Heat Summation
Work (W) m Enthalpy change for a reaction is the same whether it occurs in
m Work is done on an ideal gas when it is compressed one step or in series of steps.
and work is done by an ideal gas when it is expanded 5 REACTION ENTHALPY (DRH)
vf
Standard Enthalpy of Combustion (DCH°) is defined as
W = - ò Pex dV m The standard enthalpy of reaction is the enthalpy change the enthalpy change per mole of a substance, when it
vi for a reaction when all the participating substances are in undergoes combustion and all the reactants and products
m A process or a change is said to be reversible, if a their standard states. being in their standard states at the specified temperature.
change is brought out in such a way that the process Enthalpy Change During Phase Transformation Bond Enthalpy (DbondH°) is energy required to break a bond
could, at any moment, be reversed by an infinitesimal or energy released when a bond is formed.
change. Process other than reversible are known as m The enthalpy change that accompanies melting of one mole
irreversible processes. of solid substance in standard state is called standard Enthalpy of Atomization (DaH°) is the enthalpy change on
For isothermal irreversible change q = –W = Pex(Vf – Vi) breaking one mole of bonds completely to obtain atoms in the
m enthalpy of fusion (DfusH°).
gas phase.
V Amount of heat required to vaporise one mole of liquid at
m For isothermal reversible change q = - W = nRT ln f m
m In case of diatomic molecules, the enthalpy of atomization is
Vi constant temperature and under standard pressure (1 bar)
m For adiabatic change, q = 0 DU = Wad also the bond dissociation enthalpy.
m W = 0 in free expansion is called standard enthalpy of vaporisation DvapH°. m DrH ° = å bond enthalpies reactants - å bond enthalpies products
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24 Thermodynamics NCERT Maps
s
m If DG > 0, process is non spontaneous.
1/2 DbondH
–1
s
So, DrCP = + 5/2 R (for ionization) DG° = –RT ln K = –2.303 RT log K.
–348.6 kJ mol
s m
DegH
s m DrG° = DrH° – TDrS° = –RT ln K.
+ DrCP = – 5/2 R (for electron gain)
Na (g) + 1/2Cl2(g) s s s
Therefore, DrH DrS DrG Description
s
– + – Reaction spontaneous at all
s DrH (ionization enthalpy)
Di H temperatures
when one mole of it dissolves in a specified amount of + + – (at high T) Reaction spontaneous at high
s temperature
DlatticeH solvent.
Na(s) + 1/2Cl2(g) + – + (at all T) Reaction non-spontaneous a
D Hs
sol
AB (S) ¾¾¾¾ ® A + (aq) + B- (aq)
–1
all temperatures
–411.2 kJ mol
Df H
s
DlatticeHs DhydHs
7 ABSOLUTE ENTROPY AND THIRD LAW OF
+ – THERMODYNAMICS
A (g) + B (g)
m The entropy of any pure crystalline substance approaches zero as
m D solH = DlatticeHs + DhydHs
s the temperature approaches absolute zero. This is called third law
NaCl(s) of thermodynamics
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NCERT Maps Thermodynamics 25
1. Select the incorrect statement among the (1) –1.5 kJ (2) –4.5 kJ 10. ∆rH° of the reaction is equal to
following. [NCERT Pg. 162]
(3) –6.5 kJ (4) –9 kJ 13
(1) System and the surroundings together C4H10(g) + O2(g) → 4CO2(g) + 5H2O(l)
constitute the universe 6. If enthalpy of combustion of carbon to CO2 2
(2) System is separated from the is –400 kJ mol–1 then how much heat will be [NCERT Pg. 176]
surroundings by some sort of wall which released upon formation of 8.8 g CO2 from (1) ∆fH° of CO2 (2) ∆fH° of H2O
may be real or imaginary carbon and dioxygen gas?[NCERT Pg. 176]
(3) ∆fH° of C4H10 (4) ∆cH° of C4H10
(3) In closed system exchange of heat is (1) 40 kJ (2) 80 kJ
possible but no exchange of work is 11. In isothermal free expansion of an ideal gas
possible with surroundings (3) 400 kJ (4) 800 kJ
[NCERT Pg. 166]
(4) In an isolated system, there is no 7. A reaction is non spontaneous at all
(1) ∆H = 0 (2) ∆U = 0
exchange of energy or matter between temperatures when [NCERT Pg. 186]
the system and the surroundings (3) ∆W = 0 (4) All of these
2. Path function is [NCERT Pg. 162] (1) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS > 0
12. Intensive property among the following is
(1) H (2) W (2) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS > 0 [NCERT Pg. 168]
(3) U (4) S (1) Molar heat capacity
(3) ∆rH < 0 and ∆rS < 0
3. A system absorbed 400 J of heat and done
(4) ∆rH > 0 and ∆rS < 0 (2) Entropy
300 J of work. The change in internal energy
of the system is [NCERT Pg. 164] (3) Internal energy
8. If equilibrium constant is 2 atm at 300 K then
(1) 100 J (2) –100 J the standard free energy change at 300 K (4) Enthalpy
(3) 700 J (4) –700 J and 1 atm pressure is [NCERT Pg. 187] 13. 10 mol of ideal gas expanded reversibly
4. If heat of atomization of CH4(g) is x J then isothermally from 1 L to 10 L at 100 K. The
(1) 1728.9 J mol–1 (2) –1728.9 J mol–1
average bond enthalpy of C – H bond is work done during the process is
[NCERT Pg. 178] (3) 309 J mol–1 (4) –309 J mol–1
[NCERT Pg. 166]
x 9. In which of the following entropy decreases?
(1) x (2) (1) –1.91 kJ (2) –0.95 kJ
4 [NCERT Pg. 183]
(3) –19.1 kJ (4) –38.2 kJ
4 (1) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(3) (4) 4x 14. If ∆rH of A → B ; B → C and A → D are x, y
x
(2) 2H(g) → H2(g) and z kJ mol–1 respectively then ∆rH of
5. Enthalpy change on freezing of 1.0 mol of
(3) A solid melts into liquid C → D is [NCERT Pg. 176]
water at 40°C to ice at 0°C is (∆fusH = 6 kJ
mol–1 at 0°C, CP[H2O(l) = 75 J mol K–1]) (4) 2NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + (1) z – x – y (2) x + y – z
[NCERT Pg. 172] H2O(g) (3) x – y – z (4) x + y + z
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26 Thermodynamics NCERT Maps
15. Bomb calorimeter is used to measure 17. For which of the following ∆H = ∆U? (3) ∆rG° = RT ln K
[NCERT Pg. 169] [NCERT Pg. 167] (4) ∆rG° = 2.303 RT ln K
(1) ∆U (2) W (1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) 19. Reference state of oxygen at 25°C and 1 bar
(3) ∆G (4) ∆S (2) PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) pressure is [NCERT Pg. 173]
(3) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) (1) O2(g) (2) O3(g)
16. If ∆fH° of CaCO3(s), CaO(s) and CO2(g) are
–1200, –630 and –400 kJ mol–1 respectively 1 (3) O(g) (4) O2(l)
(4) H2 (g) + O2 (g) → H2O(l)
then ∆rH° of the reaction CaCO3(s) → 2 20. Process occurring at constant volume is
CaO(s) + CO2(g) is [NCERT Pg. 171] 18. Select the correct relation.[NCERT Pg. 186] known as [NCERT Pg. 166]
(1) –170 kJ mol–1 (2) 170 kJ mol–1 (1) ∆rG° = –RT ln K (1) Isobaric (2) Isochoric
(3) –2230 kJ mol–1 (4) 2230 kJ mol–1 (2) ∆rG° = –2.303 RT ln K (3) Adiabatic (4) Isothermal
1. At equilibrium, ∆sysG is equal to ________. 9. For 1 mol of ideal gas, the difference 15. Diffusion of gases have ∆H ________ to
[NCERT Pg. 188] between molar heat capacity at constant zero and ∆S ________ than zero.
2. The ________ of any pure crystalline pressure and molar heat capacity at
constant volume is ________. [NCERT Pg. 182]
substance approaches zero as the
temperature approaches absolute zero. [NCERT Pg. 169] 16. More negative the ∆fH°, ________ is the
[NCERT Pg. 185] thermodynamic stability. [NCERT Pg. 191]
3. ________ is sum of ∆latticeH° and ∆hydH°. 10. For adiabatic process q is equal to
________. [NCERT Pg. 163] 17. Unit of entropy is ________.
[NCERT Pg. 180]
4. Sum of heat and work is a ________ 11. ________ is used to determine lattice [NCERT Pg. 183]
function. [NCERT Pg. 164] enthalpies. [NCERT Pg. 180]
18. ∆U = W, for ________ process.
5. Maximum mean single bond enthalpy is of 12. All the fast reactions are ________.
________. [NCERT Pg. 178] [NCERT Pg. 190]
[NCERT Pg. 185]
6. For a spontaneous process, ∆Stotal is 19. Sum of all kind of energies is known as
13. A reversible process takes ________ time
________ than zero. [NCERT Pg. 183]
for completion. [NCERT Pg. 166] ________. [NCERT Pg. 163]
7. According to 1st law of thermodynamics, q +
w is equal to _______. [NCERT Pg. 188] 14. During an adiabatic process, if system 20. According to 1st law of thermodynamics, the
absorbs 10 J heat from surrounding then the energy of an isolated system is ________.
8. Heat of reaction at constant pressure is
equal to ________. [NCERT Pg. 188] value of ∆U is ________. [NCERT Pg. 167] [NCERT Pg. 164]
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Equilibrium
7
Chapter
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28 Equilibrium NCERT Maps
Kb =
[M ][OH ] Ca
= 1–a with strong base can act as acidic buffer (eg
(c) Strong Bronsted acid has weak conjugate base [MOH]
and vice-versa. CH3COONa + CH3COOH)
m For conjugate acid-base pair [Salt]
– +
e.g. HI ® I + H (ii) pH = pK a + log
Ka.Kb = Kw [Acid]
Strong weak conjugate m Basic Buffer
pKa + pKb = pKw
acid base (i) Aqueous solution of weak base and its salt with
(iii) Lewis Acids and Bases Di-and Polybasic Acids and Di-and Polyacidic Bases strong acid can act as basic buffer (eg NH4Cl +
According to this theory an acid is a species which m Acids having more than one ionizable proton per NH4OH)
accepts electron pair and base which donates an molecule are known as polybasic acids pOH = pK b + log
[Salt]
electron pair. [Base]
m Higher order ionization constant (Ka2, Ka3) are smaller
e.g. AlCl3 [Lewis acid], NH3 (Lewis base) Sparingly Soluble Salts
than the lower order ionization constant (Ka1) of a m Salts having solubility < 0.01 M are considered
Ionization Constant of Water and its Ionic Product
+ –
polyprotic acid. The reason for this is that it is more saparigly soluble salts
m Ionic product of water Kw = [H ] [OH ]
difficult to remove a positively charged proton from a m The equilibrium constant between the undissolved solid
+ – –7
m Concentration of H and OH in pure water at 298 K = 10 negative ion due to electrostatic forces. and the ions in a saturated solution is known as
–14 2
M and Kw = 10 M Common ion effect defined as a shift in equilibrium on Solubility product (Ksp).
+ –
m In acidic solution [H3O ] > [OH ], in neutral solution adding a substance that provides more of ionic species m For sparingly soluble salt MxXy with molar solubility S
+ – + –
[H3O ] = [OH ] and in basic solution [H3O ] < [OH ] already present in the dissociation equilibrium x y
Ksp = x . y (S)
(x+y)
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NCERT Maps Equilibrium 29
1. Equilibrium constant for the reaction (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 9. Equilibrium constant depends on
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) is (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 3 [NCERT Pg. 211]
[NCERT Pg. 200] 5. Unit of KC for the equilibrium (1) Concentration of reactants and products
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) is (2) Volume
[NO][H2O] [NO]4 [H2O]6
(1) (2) (3) Pressure
[NH3 ][O2 ] [NH3 ]4 [O2 ]5 [NCERT Pg. 204]
(4) Temperature
[4NO][6H2O] [4NH3 ][5O2 ] (1) mol L–1 (2) mol2L–2
(3) (4) 10. Conjugate base of HCO3− is
[4NH3 ][5O2 ] [4NO][6H2O] (3) L mol–1 (4) L2mol–2
6. If value of KC for an equilibrium is 2.4 × 1047 [NCERT Pg. 215]
2. If equilibrium constant for the reaction
N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) is KC then the then which of the following statement is (1) H2CO3 (2) CO2
correct? [NCERT Pg. 205]
equilibrium constant for the reaction (3) CO32− (4) CO
(1) Reactants predominate over products
1 3 11. Which of the following species can act as a
NH 3 (g)
N2 (g) + H2 (g) is (2) Products predominate over reactant
2 2 Lewis base? [NCERT Pg. 216]
[NCERT Pg. 200] (3) Reaction proceeds rarely
(1) H2O (2) AlCl3
1 (4) Both the reactants and products are
(3) BF3 (4) Mg2+
(1) KC (2) present in appreciable amount
KC 12. At T(K) temperature, pure water contains
7. For the reaction N2O4(g) 2NO2(g), if 10–6 M H+ ions then value of ionic product of
1
(3) (4) KC initially only 4 atm N2O4 is present and at water at temperature T(K) is
KC
equilibrium, total pressure of equilibrium [NCERT Pg. 217]
3. Example of homogeneous equilibrium is mixture is 6 atm then the value of KP is (1) 10–7 (2) 10–13
[NCERT Pg. 201] [NCERT Pg. 208] (3) 10–12 (4) 10–14
(1) CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(l) (1) 2 atm (2) 4 atm 13. The degree of dissociation of a 0.1 M
CH3COOH (aq) + C2H5OH(aq) (3) 8 atm (4) 16 atm aqueous solution of weak acid HA is
(2) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) 8. For which of the following reaction, increase (Ka (HA) = 10–7) [NCERT Pg. 219]
(3) Ca(OH)2(s) + (aq) Ca2+(aq) + 2OH– in pressure favours the forward reaction? (1) 10–1 (2) 10–2
(aq) [NCERT Pg. 210] (3) 10–3 (4) 10–4
(4) H2O(l) H2O(g) (1) [Ni(CO)4](g) Ni(s) + 4CO(g) 14. If Kb for NH3 is 1.8 × 10–5 then value of Ka for
4. The ratio of KP to KC for the reaction (2) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) NH4+ ion is [NCERT Pg. 222]
CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g) is (3) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) (1) 1.7 × 10–9 (2) 5.5 × 10–10
[NCERT Pg. 202] (4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (3) 2.3 × 10–5 (4) 4.8 × 10–10
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30 Equilibrium NCERT Maps
15. Common ion effect takes place in the 17. Which of the following mixture can act as a 19. Solubility of AgCl in 10–2M NaCl solution is
mixture of [NCERT Pg. 225] buffer solution? [NCERT Pg. 227] (Ksp (AgCl) = 1.8 × 10–10) [NCERT Pg. 230]
(1) HCl + NaCl (2) HCl + CH3COOH (1) HClO4 + NaClO4 (1) 10–2 M (2) 1.8 × 10–12 M
(3) CH3COOH + NaCl (4) HCl + NaOH (2) CH3COOH + HClO4 (3) 1.8 × 10–8 M (4) 1.8 × 10–2 M
16. The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of (3) NaClO4 + CH3COONa 20. Select the correct relation [NCERT Pg. 208]
ammonium acetate is (pKa CH3COOH = (4) CH3COONa + CH3COOH
4.76 pKb NH4OH = 4.75) (1) ∆G = ∆Gº + RT ln Q
18. For a binary salt AB the Ksp is 4 × 10–10. The
[NCERT Pg. 226] molar solubility of AB is [NCERT Pg. 228] (2) ∆Gº = ∆G + RT ln Q
(1) 7.005 (2) 9.510 (1) 2 × 10–5 M (2) 5 × 10–5 M (3) ∆G = ∆Gº + RT ln K
(3) 4.750 (4) 6.995 (3) 2 × 10–10 M (4) 4 × 10–5 M (4) ∆Gº = ∆G + RT ln K
1. According to the Henry’s law, mass of a gas 7. Substances which conduct electricity in their 14. pH of Human blood is ______.
dissolved in a given mass of a solvent at any aqueous solutions are called ______. [NCERT Pg. 219]
temperature is proportional to the ______ of [NCERT Pg. 212] 15. NH2− is a conjugate base of ______.
the gas above the solvent. 8. Substances capable of accepting a
[NCERT Pg. 216]
[NCERT Pg. 195] hydrogen ion, H+ are known as ______.
16. Solution which resists the change in pH due
2. All chemical equilibria are ______ in nature. [NCERT Pg. 214] to the addition of small amount of acid or
[NCERT Pg. 196] 9. Strong acids have ______ conjugate bases alkalies is known as ______.
3. If QC is ______ than KC, net reaction goes [NCERT Pg. 217] [NCERT Pg. 226]
from left to right [NCERT Pg. 206] 10. pH of 10 M HCl solution is ______.
–8
17. Vapour pressure of a liquid depends on
[NCERT Pg. 219] ______ [NCERT Pg. 232]
4. At equilibrium, ∆G is ______.
11. The value of Ka1 is always ______ than 18. For solid liquid equilibrium, only at
[NCERT Pg. 208]
value of Ka2 for a dibasic acid. ______ both the phases can coexist.
5. Removal of products from the equilibrium [NCERT Pg. 195]
shift the equilibrium in ______ direction. [NCERT Pg. 224]
19. Molar concentration of pure solid or liquid is
[NCERT Pg. 209] 12. Salts of ______ and ______ do not undergo ______. [NCERT Pg. 204]
hydrolysis. [NCERT Pg. 226] 20. The equilibrium constant for an exothermic
6. Catalyst lowers the ______ for the forward
and reverse reactions by exactly the same 13. For acidic buffer pH = pKa+ ______. reaction ______ as the temperature
[NCERT Pg. 227] increases. [NCERT Pg. 212]
amount. [NCERT Pg. 212]
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8
Redox Reactions Chapter
1 CLASSICAL IDEA OF REDOX REACTIONS (5) Oxidation number of F is –1, other halide ions is – 1, X + YZ ® XZ + Y
m Oxidation- addition of oxygen/electronegative elements positive oxidation number of halogens (except F) in Types of displacement to reactions.
to a substance or removal of hydrogen/electropositive oxoacids and oxoanions. (1) Metal displacement reaction in which a metal in a
element from a substance. compound can be displaced by another metal in
(6) Algebraic sum of oxidation number of all atoms in a
m Reduction is the removal of oxygen/electronegative uncombined state.
compound is 0. In polyatomic ions, the algebraic sum of
element from a substance or addition of hydrogen/ e.g. CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) ® Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq)
oxidation number of all atoms is equal to charge
electropositive element to a substance. (2) Non-metal displacement redox reaction generally
present on the ions. include hydrogen displacement
2 REDOX REACTION IN TERMS OF ELECTRON m Stock notation is expressed by putting a Roman numeral
e.g. 2Na(s) + 2H4O(l) ® 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
TRANSFER REACTIONS representing the oxidation number in parenthesis after the
m Disproportionation reactions
m Half reactions that involve loss of electrons are called symbol of metal in the molecular formula eg. Au (III) Cl3 In this type of reaction an element in one oxidation state
oxidation reactions. m Oxidation : An increase in the oxidation number of the is simultaneously oxidised and reduced.
m Half reactions that involve gain of electrons are called element in the given substance. eg: 2H2O2(aq) ¾® 2H2O (l) + O2(g)
reduction reactions.
– m Reduction : A decrease in the oxidation number of the
loss of 2e
element in the given substance. 5 PARADOX OF FRACTIONAL
+ –
2Na (s) + Cl2 (g) ¾® 2Na Cl (s) m Oxidising agent : A reagent which can increase the OXIDATION NUMBER
oxidation number of an element in a given substance
gain of 2e
– In certain compound, the oxidation number of a particular
m Reducing agent : A reagent which can decrease the
m Oxidising agent : Acceptor of electron(s). element in the compound is in fraction. Actually this
oxidation number of an element in a given substance.
m Reducing agent : Donor of electron (s) fractional oxidation state is the average oxidation state of
same element in the compound.
3 OXIDATION NUMBER 4 TYPES OF REDOX REACTIONS
m Combination reactions O O O
m Oxidation number denotes the oxidation state of an +6 +4 +6
element in a compound ascertained according to a set of A + B ¾® C eg: Br3O8 O Br Br Br O,
rules formulated on the basis that electron pair in a (Either A and B or both A and B must be in the elemental
O O O
covalent bond belongs entirely to more electronegative form)
element eg : C(s) + O2(g) ¾® CO2(g) Oxidation no. of Br = 16/3
m Rules of the calculation of oxidation numbers: m Decomposition reactions are the opposite of
(1) In elements in the free state, oxidation number of ¸2 0 +2
combination reaction. eg: C3O2 O C C C O
each atom is zero. D
(2) For ion containing single atom, oxidation number is e.g : 2NaH (s) 2Na (s) + H2 (g) Oxidation no. of C = 4/3
equal to charge on the ion. All decomposition reactions are not redox reactions
(3) Oxidation number of oxygen in oxide = –2, in D O O
e.g : CaCO3 CaO(s) + CO2 (g) +5 0 0 +5 –
peroxide = – 1, in super oxide = –½, in OF2 = + 2, in –
O S S S S O
m Displacement reaction are those in which an ion (or an eg: S4O62–
O2F2 = + 1
O O
(4) Oxidation number of hydrogen is + 1 in binary atom) in a compound is replaced by an ion (or an atom) of
Oxidation of S = 2.5
compound except with metal eg: LiH, CaH2 another element.
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32 Redox Reactions NCERT Maps
6 BALANCING OF REDOX REACTIONS Step 3: Balance the atoms other than O and H in For the reaction in a basic medium, first balance the
+
each half reaction individually. Here the oxidation atoms as is done in acidic medium. Then for each H ion,
1. Oxidation Number Method
half reaction is already balanced with respect to –
add an equal number of OH ions to both sides of the
MnO4– (aq) + Br – (aq) ® MnO2 (s) + BrO3– (aq) (in basic medium) Fe atoms. For the reduction half reaction, we + –
3+ equation. Where H and OH appear on the same side
Step 1: The Skeletal ionic equation multiply the Cr by 2 to balance Cr atoms.
of the equation, combine these to give H2O.
MnO4– (aq) + Br – (aq) ® MnO2 (s) + BrO3– (aq) Cr2O72 - (aq) 2Cr 3 + (aq)
Step 5 : Finally, count the hydrogen atoms and add appropriate only six positive charges on the right hand side.
Therefore, we add six electrons on the left side.
number of water molecule (i.e. one H2O molecule, on the left + – 3+
Cr2O72– (aq) + 14H (aq) + 6e ® 2Cr (aq) +
side to achieve balanced redox change.)
7H2O (l) Oxidation Reduction
2M nO 4– (aq) + B r – (aq) + H 2 O( l ) ® 2M nO 2 (s) + B rO 3– (aq) + 2O H – (aq)
To equalise the number of electrons in both the
2. Half Reaction Method: half reactions, we multiply the oxidation half
Suppose we have to balance the equation showing the oxidation reaction by 6 and write as : m The potential associated with each electrode is known
2+ 3+ 2– 2+ 3+ – as electrode potential.
of Fe ions to Fe ions by dichromate ions (Cr2O7) in acidic 6Fe (aq) ® 6Fe (aq) + 6e
2– 3+ m If the concentration of each species taking part in the
medium, wherein, Cr2O7 ions are reduced to Cr ions. Step 6: We add the two half reactions to achieve
the overall reaction and cancel the electrons on electrode reaction is unity at 298 K then the potential of
The following steps are involved in this task.
Step 1: Produce unbalanced equation for the reaction in ionic each side. This gives the net ionic equation as : each electrode is said standard electrode potential.
2+ + 3+
form : 6Fe (aq) + Cr2O72– (aq) + 14H (aq) ® 6 Fe (aq) m By convention the standard electrode potential (E°)
3+ of hydrogen electrode is 0 volts.
Fe2+ (aq) + Cr2O72– (aq) Fe3+ (aq) + Cr 3+ (aq) +2Cr (aq) + 7H2O(l)
Step 7: Verify that the equation contains the same m A negative E° means redox couple is a stronger
Step 2: Separate the equation into half reactions:
+2 +3 type and number of atoms and the same charges reducing agent than H+/H2 couple.
Oxidation half : Fe2 + (aq) Fe3 + (aq) on both sides of the equation. This last check
m A positive E° means redox couple is weak reducing
+6 +3 reveals that the equation is fully balanced with
Reduction half : Cr 2 O72– (aq) 3+
Cr (aq) respect to number of atoms and the charges. +
agent than H / H2 couple.
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NCERT Maps Redox Reactions 33
1. Species undergoing oxidation in the reaction 7. Correct stock notation of aurous chloride is 12. In the balanced redox reaction
H2S(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) + S(s) is [NCERT Pg. 269]
Cr2O27 − + SO23 − → Cr 3 + + SO24−
[NCERT Pg. 264] (1) Au(III)Cl3 (2) Au(II)Cl2
2− 2−
(1) H2S (2) Cl2 (3) Au(I)Cl (4) Au(III)Cl The ratio of number of Cr2O7 ion and SO3
(3) HCl (4) S 8. Non-redox reaction is [NCERT Pg. 270] ion is [NCERT Pg. 276]
2. Which of the following is/are true for a ∆
(1) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
reducing agent? [NCERT Pg. 265] (3) 1 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
∆
(2) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(1) Oxidises itself (2) Reduces other 13. Which of the following can act as self
(3) Donor of electron (4) All of these (3) KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 indicator? [NCERT Pg. 277]
3. Oxidation number of S in Na2S2O3 is 2− −
(1) Cr2O7 (2) MnO4
(4) 2NaH → 2Na + H2
[NCERT Pg. 268]
2−
(3) C2O4 (4) Cu2+
(1) 0 (2) – 2 9. CuSO4 + Zn → Cu + ZnSO4 is an
(3) 2 (4) 6 example of [NCERT Pg. 270] 14. Select the incorrect statement regarding
Daniell cell [NCERT Pg. 278]
4. Oxidation number of oxygen in KO2 is (1) Combination reaction
(1) Electrons are produced at the anode
[NCERT Pg. 268] (2) Decomposition
(2) Oxidation of Zn takes place
1 (3) Metal displacement reaction
(1) − (2) –1 (3) Circuit is completed inside the cell by
2 (4) Non-metal displacement reaction
migration of ions through salt bridge
(3) –2 (4) +1 10. Disproportionation reaction cannot be
(4) Direction of current is from anode to
5. Which of the following halogen cannot have shown by the ion [NCERT Pg. 272]
cathode in external circuit
positive oxidation number [NCERT Pg. 268] (1) ClO–
−
(2) ClO4 15. Oxidation number of Fe in Fe3O4 is
(1) F (2) Cl
− [NCERT Pg. 280]
(3) ClO3 (4) ClO2−
(3) Br (4) I (1) +2 (2) +3
6. Highest oxidation state of group 16 element 11. Oxidation number of middle carbon in C3O2
8
is [NCERT Pg. 269] molecule is [NCERT Pg. 273] (3) + (4) 0
3
(1) 0 (1) 0
16. Oxidation number of hydrogen is –1 in
(2) –2 (2) –2
[NCERT Pg. 280]
(3) +2 (3) +2
(1) NaH2PO4 (2) NaHSO4
(4) +6 (4) + 4
(3) NaBH4 (4) H2
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34 Redox Reactions NCERT Maps
17. For the reaction (1) K (2) Ag 20. Consider the reaction
−
P4 (s) + OH (aq) → PH3 (g) + H2PO2− (aq) aMnO−4 (aq) + bSO2 (g) → cMn2+ (aq) + dHSO−4 (aq)
(3) Hg (4) Cr
−
The ratio of PH3 and H2PO2 in a balanced The value of a, b, c and d in the balanced
19. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
reaction is [NCERT Pg. 282] reaction in acidic medium is
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 4 [NCERT Pg. 269]
[NCERT Pg. 282]
(3) 1 : 5 (4) 1 : 6 (1) Na + HCl → NaCl + H2 a b c d
18. Given the standard electrode potential
(2) Na2O + HCl → NaCl + H2O (1) 2 5 2 5
K+ /K = – 2.93 V, Ag+ /Ag = 0.80 V
(2) 5 2 5 2
Hg2+ /Hg = – 0.79 V, Cr3+ /Cr = –0.74 V (3) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
(3) 1 5 1 5
The maximum reducing power is of
[NCERT Pg. 283] (4) Na2CO3 + HCl → NaCl + H2O + CO2 (4) 5 1 5 1
1. Oxidising agent is ______ of electron(s). 8. In electrolysis of aqueous solution of AgNO3 14. A negative E° means that the redox couple
using platinum electrodes ______ is is a ______ reducing agent than the H+/H2
[NCERT Pg. 265] liberated/deposited at cathode. couple. [NCERT Pg. 279]
2. When Zn rod placed in copper nitrate [NCERT Pg. 283] + −
15. E° for the reaction 2H (aq) + 2e → H2 (g)
solution, the intensity of blue colour is 9. I2, though insoluble in water, remains in
solution containing KI as ______. is ______ volt. [NCERT Pg. 279]
______. [NCERT Pg. 266]
[NCERT Pg. 277] 16. Formula of Iron (III) sulphate is ______.
3. Oxidation number of Sulphur in S8 molecule 10. Adding hydrogen to sodium is ______ of [NCERT Pg. 280]
is ______. [NCERT Pg. 269] sodium. [NCERT Pg. 265, 266] 17. ____ has lowest value of standard reduction
4. Decomposition of H2O2 is an example of 11. In Br3O8 oxidation states of Br are ______ potential. [NCERT Pg. 279]
______ reaction. [NCERT Pg. 272] and ______. [NCERT Pg. 273] 18. Carbon can show oxidation states from
12. In basic medium H atoms are balanced by ______ to ______. [NCERT Pg. 280]
5. The assigned oxidation number of oxygen in the help of ______ and ______.
19. Oxidation number of S in KAl(SO4)2·12H2O
O2F2 is ______. [NCERT Pg. 268] [NCERT Pg. 276] is ______. [NCERT Pg. 280]
6. Greater is the reduction potential, greater is 13. A U-tube containing a solution of potassium
20. In the third period, the highest value of
the ______ power. [NCERT Pg. 279] chloride or ammonium nitrate usually
oxidation number changes ______ to
solidified by boiling with agar-agar and later
______ in the compounds of the elements.
7. In galvanic cell, cathode is ______ charged. cooling to a jelly like substance is known as
[NCERT Pg. 278] ______. [NCERT Pg. 278] [NCERT Pg. 268]
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Hydrogen
9
Chapter
1 POSITION OF HYDROGEN IN THE At anode : 2Cl –(aq) ® Cl2(g) + 2e – (v) Reaction with metal ions and metal oxide
PERIODIC TABLE At cathode : 2H 2O(l) + 2e – ® H2(g) + 2OH –(aq) H2(g) + Pd2+(aq) ® Pd(s) + 2H+(aq)
m Hydrogen has electronic configuration 1s1therefore has a Overall reaction : 2Na +(aq) + Cl –(aq) + 2H 2O(l) yH2(g) + MxOy(s) ® xM(s) + yH2O(l)
resemblance to alkali metals which loose one electron to ¯ (vi) Reaction with organic compounds :
form unipositive ions, as well as halogens, which gains Cl2(g) + H2(g) + 2Na +(aq) + 2OH –(aq)
one electron to from uninegative ion; Thus, it is unique in
m Hydrogenation of vegetable oils using nickel as catalyst
(iv) Reaction of steam on hydrocarbon or coke at gives edible fats (margarine or vanaspati ghee)
behaviour and is therefore, best placed seperately in the high temperature with catalyst
periodic table. m Hydroformylation of olefins
1270 K
CnH2n + 2 + nH2O Ni
nCO + (2n + 1)H 2 H2 + CO + RCH = CH2 ®RCH2CH2CHO
2 DIHYDROGEN H2 + RCH2CH2CHO ® RCH2CH2CH2OH
m Occurrence m Mixture of CO and H2 is called water gas or
(i) Dihydrogen is most abundant element in the syngas
universe(70% of the total mass of the universe) 6 USES OF DIHYDROGEN
m The production of H2 can be increased by
(ii) 0.15% by mass in the earth atmosphere and 15.4% reacting CO of syngas with steam in the m For synthesis of NH3 which is used in manufacture of nitric acid
of the earth crust and oceans presence of iron chromate as catalyst & fertilizers
(iii) Occurs in plant and animal tissues, carbohydrate, m It is used in the manufacture of vanaspati ghee, organic
673K
proteins etc. CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H chemicals, metal hydride and hydrogen chloride.
Catalyst
3 ISOTOPES
m In metallurgical process
(Water gas shift reaction)
1 m Atomic hydrogen and oxy hydrogen torch, rocket fuel and fuel
(i) Hydrogen has three isotopes: Protium 1H, m Presently 77% of industrial H2 is produced from cell
deuterium, 12 H or D and tritium 13 H or T petrochemicals 18% from coal, 4% from
(ii) The relative abundance of H, D and T are 99.985,
electrolysis 7 HYDRIDES
0.0156 and 10 –15% respectively
(iii) Only tritium is radioactive and emits low energy b
– m Binary compound of hydrogen with other elements called
particles (t 1/2, 12.33 years) 5 PROPERTIES OF DIHYDROGEN hydrides.
m Types of hydrides
m Physical Properties : H2 is a colourless, odourless,
4 PREPARATION OF DIHYDROGEN (i) Ionic or saline hydrides
tasteless and combustible gas, lighter than air and
m Lab method insoluble in water m Stoichiometric compounds of H with most of the s-block
2
(i) Reaction of granulated zinc with dilute hydrochloric m elements.
Chemical Properties :
acid m Significant covalent character is found in lighter metal
Zn + 2H + ® Zn2+ + H2 (i) Reaction with halogens :
hydrides e.g., LiH, BeH2 and MgH2.
(ii) Reaction of zinc with aqueous alkali H2(g)+X2(g) ® 2HX(g)
m Their melts conduct electricity and on electrolysis liberate
Zn + 2NaOH ® Na2ZnO2 + H2 (X = F, Cl, Br, I)
(ii) Reaction with dioxygen : H2 gas at anode which confirms the existence of H– ion.
m Commercial Production m Reacts violently with H O
2
Catalyst or
(i) Electrolysis of acidified water using Pt electrodes 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(l), DH = –285.9 kJ mol–1 NaH(s) + H2O(aq) ® NaOH(aq) + H2(q)
heating
Electrolysis (ii) Covalent of Molecular Hydride
2H2O(l) 2H2(g) + O2(g) (iii) Reaction with dinitrogen :
Traces of Acid/Base m H2 forms molecular compounds with most of p-block
673K
(ii) High purity (> 99.95%) dihydrogen is obtained by 3H2(g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g), DH = –92.6 kJ mol
–1
elements e.g., CH4, NH3, H2O and HF
electrolysis of warm aqueous Ba(OH) 2 solution with 200atm, Fe
m Hydrogen compounds of non metal considered as hydride.
Ni electrodes. (iv) Reaction with metals : They are volatile in nature.
(iii) Byproduct in the manufacture of sodium hydroxide H2(g) + 2M(g) ® 2MH(s), M = alkali metals
and chlorine by the electrolysis of brine solution m Molecular hydrides are classified further as :
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36 Hydrogen NCERT Maps
(iv) Hydrate formation- from aqueous solution many salt 10 HYDROGEN PEROXIDE(H2O2)
(1) Electron deficient hydride has too few electrons for
writing its conventional lewis structure e.g., B2H6.(In can be crystallised as hydrated salt viz., coordinated m Preparation
fact all group 13 hydrides). water (e.g., [Cr(H2O)6]3+3Cl–), interstitial water(e.g., (i) BaO28H2O(s)+H 2SO4(aq)®BaSO4(s)+H2O2(aq) + 8H2O(l)
(2) Electron precise hydrides have the required number BaCl2.2H2O), hydrogen-bonded water (e.g., Electrolysis Hydrolysis
of electrons to write conventional Lewis structure e.g., CuSO4.5H2O). (ii) 2HSO–4(aq) HO3SOOSO3H(aq)
All elements of group 14 form such compounds. 2HSO–4(aq) + 2H +(aq) + H 2O2(aq)
(3) Electron-rich hydrides have excess electrons which 9 HARD & SOFT WATER This method is now used for lab preparation of D 2O2
are present as lone pairs e.g., elements of group m Presence of calcium and magnesium salts in the form K2S2O8(s) + 2D 2O(l) ®2KDSO4(aq) + D 2O2(l)
15 –1 7 form such compounds. of hydrogen carbonate, chlorides and sulphate makes
(iii) (iii) Industrial method O2(air)
Metallic of Non-stoichiometric (or interstials) water ‘hard’, Hard water does not give lather with soap 2-ethylanthraquinol H 2O2 + (Oxidised product)
Water free from soluble salts of calcium and H2/Pd
Hydrides m
m These are formed by many d-block and f-block magnesium is called soft water m Physical properties
elements m Temporary Hardness is due to presence of Mg and (i) H2O2 is an almost colorless liquid
m Metals of group 7, 8 and 9 do not form hydride. Even Ca hydrogen carbonates. It can be removed by
(ii) H2O2 is miscible with water in all proportions and
from group 6, only chromium forms CrH. (i) Boiling During boiling, the soluble Mg(HCO3)2 is forms a hydrate H2O2.H2O. A 30% solution of H2O2
m They are almost always non-stoichiometric and law of converted into insoluble Mg(OH) 2 and Ca(HCO 3)2 is
costant composition does not hold good. changed to insoluble CaCO3. is marketed as 100 volume hydrogen peroxide.
m E.g., LaH2.87, YbH2.55, NiH0.6-0.7 etc. (iii) 100 volume means 1mL of 30% H 2O2 solution will
(ii) Clark’s method : Calculated amount of lime is added.
give 100 mL of O2 at STP.
Ca(HCO 3)2+ Ca(OH) 2 ® 2CaCO3 ¯ + 2H2O
8 WATER Mg(HCO 3)2 + 2Ca(OH) 2®2CaCO3¯ + Mg(OH) 2¯ + 2H2O m Structure
m Physical properties m Permanent Hardness is due to the presence of soluble
(i) It is colourless and tasteless liquid. The unusual sulphates and chlorides of Mg and Ca. It can be
properties of water in the condensed phase are due to removed by
the presence of extensive hydrogen bonding between (i) Treatment with washing soda
water molecule. MCI2 + Na2CO3 ®MCO3¯ + 2NaCl
(ii) Structure of water (M = Mg,Ca)
MSO4 + Na2CO3 ® MCO3¯ + Na2SO4
95.7 pm
104.5º (ii) Calgon’s method - Sodium hexametaphosphate (b) Solid phase
(a) Gas phase
(Na6P6O18) , commercially called ‘calgon’ when added
H H
to hard water following reactions takes place m Chemical properties
(iii) Structure of ice - At atmospheric pressure ice Na6P6O18 ® 2Na++ Na4P6O182–
crystallizes in the hexagonal form but at very low (M = Mg, Ca) (i) Oxidising action in acidic medium
temperature it condenses to cubic form. Density of ice M2++ Na4P6O182– ®[Na2MP6O18]2– + 2Na+ PbS(s) + 4H2O2(aq) ® PbSO4(s) + 4H2O(l)
is less than water due to open type structure with wide
holes. (iii) Ion-exchange method : This method is also called (ii) Reducing action in acidic medium
m Chemical properties zeolite/permutit process. 2MnO–4 + 6H++ 5H2O2® 2Mn2++ 8H2O + 5O2
2NaZ(s) + M2+(aq)®MZ2(s) + 2Na+(aq)
(i) Amphoteric nature -H2O has, the ability to act as an (NaZ is NaAlSiO 4), (M = Mg,Ca) (iii) Oxidising action in basic– medium
acid as well as base Exhausted zeolite regenerated for further use by 2Fe2++ H2O2 ®2Fe3++ 2OH
H2O(l) + H2O(l) H3O+(aq) + OH–(aq) treating with an aqueous sodium chloride solution
acid-1 base-2 acid-2 base-1 (iv) Reducing action in basic medium
MZ2(s) + 2NaCl(aq) ® 2NaZ + MCl2(aq) I2 + H2O2 + 2OH– ® 2I– + 2H2O + O2
(Self ionization of water) (iv) Synthetic resins method
(ii) Hydrolysis reaction - Due to high dielectric constant, it Cation exchange resins contain large organic
has a very strong hydrating tendency. molecule with-SO 3H group and are water insoluble. 11 HEAVY WATER, D2O
P4O10(s) + 6H2O(l) ® 4H3PO4(aq) RSO3H is changed to RNa by treating it NaCl. The resin
(iii) Redox reaction exchanges Na+ ions with Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions present in
m Extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors
2H2O(l) + 2Na(s) ® 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g) hard water to make the water soft m It is used to prepare other deuterium compounds
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NCERT Maps Hydrogen 37
1. Select the incorrect statement 6. Which of the following is not true regarding 11. During boiling, the soluble Mg(HCO3)2 is
ionic hydrides? [NCERT Pg. 288] converted into [NCERT Pg. 292]
[NCERT Pg. 285]
(1) They are non volatile (1) MgCO3 (2) MgO
(1) Hydrogen has three isotopes
(3) Mg(OH)2 (4) Mg
(2) Tritium is known as heavy hydrogen (2) Conduct electricity on melting
12. Calgon is [NCERT Pg. 292]
(3) Predominant form of hydrogen is (3) On electrolysis give H2 gas at cathode (1) Na3PO4 (2) Na6P6O18
protium (4) React violently with water (3) RSO3H (4) NaAlSiO4
(4) Terrestrial hydrogen contains deuterium 7. Molecular hydride among the following is 13. Exhausted zeolite is regenerated by treating
mostly in the form of HD with an aqueous [NCERT Pg. 292]
[NCERT Pg. 288]
2. High purity dihydrogen is obtained by (1) NaCl Solution (2) HCl Solution
(1) B2H6 (2) MgH2 (3) NaOH Solution (4) CaCl2 Solution
[NCERT Pg. 286]
(3) BeH2 (4) LiH 14. Auto-oxidation of 2-ethylanthraquinol gives
(1) Reaction of Zn with HCl
NCERT Pg. 293]
8. Electron precise hydrides are formed by
(2) Reaction of Zn with NaOH (1) H2 (2) H2O2
[NCERT Pg. 288]
(3) Electrolysis of a acidic H2O (3) HCl (4) CH3OH
(1) Group 14 (2) Group 15 15. 3% H2O2 solution is marketed as
(4) Elastolysis of aqueous Ba(OH)2
(3) Group 16 (4) Group 17 [NCERT Pg. 293]
3. Syngas is [NCERT Pg. 286]
(1) 1V H2O2 Solution
(1) CO + H2 (2) CO2 + H2 9. Which physical property of H2O is greater
than D2O? [NCERT Pg. 290] (2) 10V H2O2 Solution
(3) CO + H2O (4) CO2 + H2O (3) 100V H2O2 Solution
(1) Boiling point
4. Which of the following halogen reacts with (4) 1000V H2O2 Solution
H2 even in dark? [NCERT Pg. 287] (2) Enthalpy of vaporization 16. Dihedral angle of H2O2 in gas phase is
(1) F2 (2) Cl2 (3) Viscosity [NCERT Pg. 294]
(3) Br2 (4) I2 (4) Dielectric constant (1) 90.2º (2) 109.5º
(3) 111.5ºC (4) 120º
5. Hydroformylation of olefins yields 10. Hydrogen-bonded water molecule(s) in
CuSO4.5H2O is [NCERT Pg. 291] 17. CaC2 on reaction with D2O gives
[NCERT Pg. 287]
[NCERT Pg. 294]
(1) Alkane (2) Acid (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) CO (2) C2D2
(3) Aldehyde (4) Esters (3) 4 (4) 5 (3) CD4 (4) C2D6
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38 Hydrogen NCERT Maps
18. Which of the following is added to stabilize 19. Permanent hardness is/are due to 20. Law of constant composition does not hold
H2O2 when stored? [NCERT Pg. 294] [NCERT Pg. 292] good in [NCERT Pg. 289]
(1) Alkali salt (1) MgCl2 (1) Ionic hydrides
(2) Dust (2) CaCl2 (2) Covalent hydrides
(3) Charcoal (3) CaSO4 (3) Metallic hydrides
(4) Urea (4) All of these (4) All of these
1. Hydrogen resembles with _______ and 7. In BaCl2.2H2O, association of water is 14. NaH on reaction with H2O gives _______
_______. [NCERT Pg. 284] _______. [NCERT Pg. 291] and _______.
2. Tritium emits _______ particles. 8. In the reaction H2O(l) + NH3(aq) OH–(aq) [NCERT Pg. 288]
[NCERT Pg. 285] + NH+4 water acts as a/an _______. 15. Majority of H2 gas is produced from
3. Reaction of carbon monoxide of syngas [NCERT Pg. 291] _______. [NCERT Pg. 286]
mixture with steam in presence of iron 9. Hard water reacts with sodium stearate to 16. Vanaspati ghee is obtained by the _______
chromate as catalyst is known as _______ precipitate _______. of vegetables of oils.
reaction. [NCERT Pg. 286] [NCERT Pg. 291] [NCERT Pg. 287]
4. _______ are allowed to recombine on the 10. Ion exchange resin exchanges Ca2+ and 17. Maximum bond dissociation enthalpy for a
surface to be welded to generate Mg2+ ions with _______ ions single bond between two atom is of
temperature of 4000 K. [NCERT Pg. 292] _______. [NCERT Pg. 287]
[NCERT Pg. 288] 11. Acidifying barium peroxide and removing 18. Reaction of dinitrogen with dihydrogen to
5. Boiling point of NH3 will be higher than excess water by evaporation under reduced
form ammonia is known as _______.
hydrides of its group due to _______. pressure gives_______.
[NCERT Pg. 287]
[NCERT Pg. 289] [NCERT Pg. 293]
19. NaAlSiO4 is known as _______.
6. At atmospheric pressure ice crystallizes in 12. As an antiseptic, H2O2 is sold in the market
the _______ form, but at very low as _______. [NCERT Pg. 294] [NCERT Pg. 292]
temperature it condenses to _______. form. 13. _______ hydrides are useful for hydrogen 20. Ca3N2(s) + H2O(l) → _______ + _______.
[NCERT Pg. 290] storage. [NCERT Pg. 289] [NCERT Pg. 297]
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10
The s-Block Elements Chapter
1 GROUP-1 ELEMENTS : ALKALI METALS 2 GENERAL CHARACTERISTICS OF THE COMPOUNDS 2NaHCO3 D Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O
m Hydration Enthalpy OF ALKALI METALS
(b) NH3 is recovered using Ca(OH)2
(i) Hydration enthalpies decrease with increase in ionic m Oxides and Hydroxides
sizes. (a) On combustion in excess of air, Li forms mainly Li2O 2NH4Cl +Ca(OH)2 ® 2NH3 + CaCl2 + H2O
+
(ii) Li has maximum degree of hydration. (plus some Li2O2), Na forms Na2O2 (plus some NaO2) (c) K2CO3 cannot be prepared by Solvay process because
m Physical Properties whilst K, Rb and Cs form superoxides.
(i) Alkali metals are silvery white, soft and light metals. KHCO3 is too soluble to be precipitated out.
(b) These oxide are easily hydrolysed to form hydroxides.
(ii) Alkali metals have low density which increases down, + –
M2O + H2O ® 2M + 2OH (d) It is white crystalline solid exist as Na2CO3.10H2O. On
from Li to Cs. However potassium is lighter than + –
sodium. M2O2 + 2H2O ® 2M + 2OH + H2O2 heating it forms Na2CO3·H2O and above 373 K forms
+ –
(iii) The melting and boiling point are low due to weak 2MO2 + 2H2O ® 2M + 2OH + H2O2+ O2 Na2CO3, a white powder known as soda ash.
metallic bond. (c) The oxides and peroxides are colourless while m NaCl, Sodium Chloride
(iv) Flame colour: Li(Crimson red), Na (Yellow), K(Violet), superoxides are yellow or orange in colour and
Rb(Red Violet), Cs(Blue) paramagnetic. Most abundant source is sea water and impurities like
m Chemical Properties m Halides CaCl2 and MgCl2 make table salt deliquescent.
(i) Reactivity towards air - Burns vigorously in oxygen. (a) Alkali metal halides are high melting, colourless m Sodium hydroxide (caustic soda), NaOH
Li forms Li2 O, Na forms Na2O2 and K, Rb and Cs form crystalline solids.
In Castner Kellner Cell a brine solution is electrolysed using
superoxides, Li also forms Li3N. (b) DfH° values of fluorides become less negative down the
Hg cathode and carbon anode. (Commercial method)
(ii) Reactivity towards water group while reverse is true for chlorides, bromides and
+ – iodides. Hg
(a) 2M + 2H2O ® 2M + 2OH + H2 : (M = An alkali metal) Cathode : Na + + e - ¾¾¾ ® Na - amalgam
(b) Li has most negative E° but reacts less vigorous (c) For given metal DfH° always become less negative from
1
than Na which has least negative E°. fluoride to iodides. Anode : Cl- ® Cl2 + e -
+ – (d) MP/BP trend: fluoride > chloride > bromide > iodide. 2
(iii) Reactivity towards dihydrogen : 2M + H2 ® 2M H
m Salts of Oxo-Acids 2Na - amalgam + 2H2O ® 2NaOH + 2Hg + H2
(iv) Reactivity towards halogen
(a) Alkali metals react vigorously with halogens to form (a) Alkali metals form salt with all oxoacids NaOH is white crystalline deliquescent solid and readily
+ – (b) Their carbonates and hydrogen carbonates are highly soluble in water to give strong alkaline solutions.
ionic halide M X .
+ stable to heat except that of Li.
(b) Due to high polarisation capability of Li , lithium m Sodium Hydrogencarbonate (Baking Soda) NaHCO3
halides are somewhat covalent. LiI is most
3 ANOMALOUS PROPERTIES OF LITHIUM NaHCO3 is known as baking soda because it decomposes
covalent in nature due to bigger size of I–ion.
(v) Reducing nature m The anomalous behaviour of Li is due to the on heating to generate bubbles of CO2 to make cakes or
(a) Alkali metals are strong reducing agents. (i) Exceptionally small size, and (ii) High polarising power.
pastries fluffy. It is made by saturating a solution of Na2CO3
(b) Li is most and Na is least powerful reducing agent. m Li shows diagonal relationship to Mg.
(c) Dispite of high ionisation enthalpy, E° of Li is most with CO2.
negative due to its high hydration enthalpy. 4 SOME IMPORTANT COMPOUNDS OF SODIUM m Biological importance of sodium and potassium
(vi) Solution in Liquid ammonia m Sodium carbonate, Na2CO3 (washing soda) (i) Sodium ions are found primarily on outside of cells, in
(a) Alkali metals give deep blue solution when blood plasma and in the interstitial fluids which
(i) (a) Prepared by Solvay process
dissolved in liquid ammonia.
+ – 2NH3 + H2O + CO2 ® (NH4)2 CO3 surrounds the cell.
M + (x+y) NH3 ® [M(NH3)x] + [e(NH3)y] (Blue colour)
(b) The solutions are paramagnetic and on standing (NH4)2CO3 + H2O + CO2 ® 2NH4 HCO3 (ii) These ions participate in the transmission of nerve
NH4 HCO3 + NaCl ® NaHCO3 + NH4Cl signal, in regulating flow of water across cell membrane
slowly liberate H2 and form amide.
(c) In concentrated solution, the blue colour of solution NaHCO3 crystal separates out. These are heated to etc.
changes to bronze and becomes diamagnetic. give sodium carbonate. (iii) Potassium ions are most abundant within cell fluids.
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40 The s-Block Elements NCERT Maps
5 GROUP 2 ELEMENTS : ALKALINE EARTH METALS 8 GENERAL CHARACTERISTICS OF COMPOUNDS OF m Calcium Hydroxide (Slaked lime), Ca(OH)2
m Except beryllium, group 2 elements are known as alkaline THE ALKALINE EARTH METALS
(i) It is white amorphous powder, sparingly soluble in
earth metals. Oxides and Hydroxides
m water. The aqueous solution is known as lime water and
m Atomic and Ionic Radii
(i) All oxides except BeO (amphoteric) are basic in nature suspension of slaked lime in water is known as milk of
(i) The atomic and ionic radii of group-2 elements are
and react with water to form sparingly soluble lime.
smaller than corresponding alkali metals.
(ii) Within group, atomic and ionic radii increases with hydroxides M(OH)2.
(ii) CO2 turns lime water milky due to the formation of
increase in atomic number. (ii) The solubility, thermal stability and basic character of
m Ionization Enthalpies hydroxides increase down the group however these are CaCO3 and on passing excess CO2, the precipitate
(i) Alkaline earth metals have low ionization enthalpies less basic and less stable than alkali metal hydroxides. dissolves to form Ca(HCO3)2.
due to fairly large size of atoms. (iii) Be(OH)2 is amphoteric.
st (iii) Milk of lime reacts with Cl2 to form hypochlorite.
(ii) The 1 ionization enthalpies of alkaline earth metal are –
nd Be(OH)2 + 2OH ® [Be(OH)4]2– (Beryllate ion)
greater than corresponding group 1 metals. The 2 2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 ® CaCl2 + Ca(OCl)2 + 2H2O
Be(OH)2 + 2HCl + 2H2O ® [Be(OH)4]Cl2
ionization enthalpies of alkaline earth metals are (Bleaching powder)
smaller than corresponding alkali metals. m Halides
(i) Except Be all other halides of alkaline earth metals are 1
m Hydration enthalpies decrease down the group and are m Calcium Sulphate (Plaster of Paris) CaSO4 × HO
ionic. 2 2
larger than those of alkali metals.
(ii) BeCl2 has chain structure in solid state (i) It is a hemihydrate of CaSO4
6 PHYSICAL PROPERTIES Cl Cl (ii) Obtained on heating gypsum, CaSO4·2H2O at 393 K
Cl
(i) BP and MP are higher than alkali metals. Be Be Be
Cl Cl Cl 2(CaSO4·2H2O) D 2(CaSO4) × H2O + 3H2O
(ii) Ca, Sr and Ba give brick red, crimson and apple green
flame colour respectively. (iii) In vapour phase, BeCl2 is a dimer
(iii) Heating above 393 K form CaSO4 known as dead burnt
m Salts of oxo-acids plaster.
7 CHEMICAL PROPERTIES (i) Carbonates m Cement is an important building material
m Reactivity towards air and water (a) All are insoluble and solubility decreases down the
(i) Portland cement composition is
(i) Be and Mg are kinetically inert to oxygen and water group.
because of formation of oxide film on their surface. (b) Thermal stability increases down the group. CaO,50-60%; SiO2, 20-25%; Al2O3, 5-10%;
(ii) Powdered Be readily burns to give BeO and Be3N2 (ii) Sulphates MgO, 2-3%; Fe2O3 1-2% and SO3, 1-2%
(iii) Other elements give oxide and nitride. Solubility decreases down the group.
(ii) The ingredients of portland cement are dicalcium
m Reactivity towards halogens (iii) Nitrates
D All of them decompose on heating silicate (Ca2SiO4)26%, tricalcium silicate (Ca3SiO5)51%
(i) M + X2 ¾¾ ® MX2 : (X = F, Cl, Br, l)
2M(NO3)2 ® 2MO + 4NO2 + O2 and tricalcium aluminate (Ca3Al2O6)11%
D
(ii) (NH4 )2 BeF4 ¾¾ ® 2NH4F + BeF2 (M = Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba) (iii) When cement is mixed with water the setting of cement
600 - 800 K
ˆˆˆˆˆˆˆˆ † takes place to give hard mass. The purpose of adding
(iii) BeO + C + Cl2 ‡ˆˆˆˆˆˆˆ ˆ BeCl2 + CO
9 SOME IMPORTANT COMPOUNDS OF CALCIUM gypsum is only to slow down the process of setting of
m Reactivity towards hydrogen
the cement.
All elements except Be combine with hydrogen to form m Calcium oxide or quicklime, CaO
hydrides, MH2 ; 2 BeCl2 + LiAlH4 ® 2BeH2 + LiCl + AlCl3 (i) Commercial method of preparation - heating limestone
10 BIOLOGICAL IMPORTANCE OF MAGNESIUM
m Reactivity towards Acids : M + 2HCl ® MCl2 + H2 in rotary kiln at 1070-1270 K.
AND CALCIUM
m Reducing nature (ii) It absorbs moisture and CO2 (i) All enzymes that utilize ATP in phosphate transfer require
(i) Be has least negative E° within group.
CaO + H2O ® Ca(OH)2 Mg as the cofactor.
m Solutions in liquid ammonia
(i) Alkaline earth metals give deep blue black colour CaO + CO2 ® CaCO3 (ii) Chlorophyll contains Mg.
solution with ammonia. (iii) Addition of limited amount of water breaks the lump of (iii) Calcium plays important roles in neuro muscular functions,
2+ –
M + (x + 2y)NH3 ® [M(NH3)x] + 2[e(NH3)y] lime. The process is called slaking of lime. blood coagulation etc.
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NCERT Maps The s-Block Elements 41
1. Maximum hydrated radii among the 7. Metal used to make alloy ‘white metal’ along 14. Be(OH)2 + 2HCl + 2H2O gives
following is of [NCERT Pg. 300] with lead is [NCERT Pg. 302] [NCERT Pg. 309]
(1) Li+ (2) Na+ (1) Li (2) K (1) [Be(OH)4]2– (2) [Be(OH)4]Cl2
(3) K+ (4) Rb+ (3) Rb (4) Cs (3) BeO (4) [Be(OH)2]Cl2
2. Flame colour of potassium is 8. ∆fH° values of which alkali metal halides 15. Be is diagonally related to [NCERT Pg. 310]
[NCERT Pg. 300] become less negative as we go down the
(1) Li (2) Mg
group? [NCERT Pg. 303]
(1) Crimson red (2) Yellow (3) B (4) Al
(1) Fluorides (2) Chlorides
(3) Violet (4) Blue 16. When CO2 is passed through lime water it
(3) Bromides (4) Iodides
3. Correct order of density is- turns milky due to formation of
9. In Solvay process, NH3 is recovered from [NCERT Pg. 311]
[NCERT Pg.301] NH4Cl using [NCERT Pg. 305]
(1) CaO (2) Ca(OH)2
(1) Li > Na > K (1) NaOH (2) CaCO3
(3) CaCO3 (4) CaCl2
(2) Na > K > Li (3) Ca(OH)2 (4) CaCl2
17. Major portion in Portland cement is of
(3) K > Na > Li 10. Soda ash is [NCERT Pg. 305] [NCERT Pg. 312]
(4) K > Li > Na (1) Na2CO3.10H2O (2) Na2CO3.9H2O (1) CaO (2) SiO2
4. Which of the following form superoxide? (3) Na2CO3.5H2O (4) Na2CO3 (3) Al2O3 (4) MgO
[NCERT Pg. 301] 11. In Castner-Kellner Cell, the cathode is made 18. Plaster of pair is- [NCERT Pg. 311]
of [NCERT Pg. 305]
(1) Li (2) Cs 1
(1) Pt (2) C (1) CaSO4 (2) CaSO4· H2O
(3) Ca (4) Be 2
(3) Hg (4) Ni (3) CaSO4·2H2O (4) CaSO4·5H2O
5. Least negative E° among the following is of
[NCERT Pg.301] 12. Which metal is kinetically inert to oxygen 19. For the formation of bleaching powder, milk
and water? [NCERT Pg. 308] of lime reacts with [NCERT Pg. 311]
(1) Li (2) Na
(1) Mg (2) Ca (1) HCl (2) H2SO4
(3) K (4) Cs
(3) Sr (4) Ba (3) Cl2 (4) SO3
6. Most covalent halide of alkali metal is
13. Alkali metal gives deep blue colour with 20. Which of the following gives NO2 gas on
[NCERT Pg. 302]
liquid ammonia due to [NCERT Pg. 302] heating? [NCERT Pg. 309]
(1) LiF (2) LiI (1) [M(NH3)x]+ (2) [e(NH3)y]– (1) Be(NO3)2 (2) Mg(NO3)2
(3) CsF (4) CsI (3) H+ (4) NH −
2 (3) Ca(NO3)2 (4) All of these
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42 The s-Block Elements NCERT Maps
1. The solubility of alkali earth metal carbonate 8. Solvay process cannot be used to 15. BeSO4 and MgSO4 are ____ in water.
______ as the atomic number of metal ion manufacture potassium carbonate because
[NCERT Pg. 309]
increases. [NCERT Pg. 309] ________ is too soluble. [NCERT Pg. 305]
2. BeO is _____ in nature. [NCERT Pg. 309] 9. Washing Soda exist as a ______. 16. Beryllium chloride has a _____ in the solid
3. Thermal decomposition of ____ is best route [NCERT Pg. 305] state. [NCERT Pg. 309]
of preparation of BeF2. [NCERT Pg. 308] 10. All group-2 elements are alkaline earth 17. Heating lime stone in a rotary kiln at 1070-
4. The most abundant cations within cell fluids metals except ______. [NCERT Pg. 306] 1270 K gives _______. [NCERT Pg. 311]
is _______ . [NCERT Pg. 306] 11. Minimum density among the group-2 18. Be does not exhibit coordination number
5. In order to increase the setting time of elements is of ______. [NCERT Pg. 307] more than ________. [NCERT Pg. 310]
cement _______________ is added. 12. _____ and _______ do not impart flame 19. Chlorophyll contains _____ metal.
[NCERT Pg. 312] colour. [NCERT Pg. 308]
6. The low solubility of LiF in water is due to its [NCERT Pg. 312]
13. ______ is used for making windows of X-ray
high _______. [NCERT Pg. 303] tubes. [NCERT Pg. 308] 20. Minimum ionic mobility among alkali metal
7. On combustion in air, Li forms mainly 14. A suspension of magnesium hydroxide in ion in aqueous solution is of _______.
_____ and ______. [NCERT Pg. 304] water is called _______. [NCERT Pg. 308] [NCERT Pg. 314]
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The p-Block Elements
11
Chapter
1 THE p-BLOCK ELEMENTS m Physical Properties (2) Borax give alkaline solution in water
m General valence shell electronic configuration of p-block (i) Boron is hard and black coloured solid, exists in many Na2B4O7 + 7H2O ® 2NaOH + 4H3BO3
2
elements is ns np .
1–6 allotropic forms, high melting point due to strong (3) On heating, borax first loses water molecules
crystalline lattice. and swells up. On further heating turns into a
m Maximum oxidation states = total number of valence
electrons. (ii) Rest members are soft metals transparent liquid with solidifies into glass like
m The occurence of oxidation states two unit less than the (iii) Gallium has low melting point (303 K) and high boiling borax bead.
group oxidation states are sometime attributed to the poin (2676 K) D D
Na2B4O7 .10H2O Na2B4O7 2NaBO2 + B2O3
inert pair effect (iv) Density increases down the group
m The second period elements of p-groups are restricted to m Chemical Properties Metaborates of many transition metals have
a maximum covalence of four (using 2s and there 2p (i) B forms only covalent compounds. characteristic colour therefore borax bead test is
orbitals) (ii) In Ga, ln and Tl, both +1 and +3 oxidation states are used to detect metals.
m Third period elements of p-groups can expand their observed. Relative stability of +1 oxidation state : (ii) Orthoboric acid
covalence above four due to vacant 3d orbitals Al < Ga < ln < Tl (1) White crystalline solid with soapy touch,
m Only first member of group can form pp - pp multiple (iii) For Tl, + 1 is predominant and +3 oxidation state is sparingly soluble in water but highly soluble in
bonds to itself. The heavier elements do form p bonds but oxidising hot water.
this involves d-orbitals (dp - pp or dp – dp). (iv) Reactivity towards air (2) Na2B4O7 + 2HCl + 5H2O ® 2NaCl + 4B(OH)3
4E(s) + 3O2(g) D 2E2O3(s)
(3) Layer structure in which planar BO3 units are
2E(s) + N2(g) D 2EN(s) linked by H-bonds.
2 GROUP 13 ELEMENTS : THE BORON FAMILY
B2O3(Acidic), Al2O3 and Ga2O3 (Amphoteric) (4) H3BO3 monobasic Lewis acid not protonic acid.
m B (non-metal), Al (metal but shows many chemical
similarities to B) Ga, In, Tl, Nh (metal) ln2O3 and Tl2O3(Basic). – +
B(OH)3 + 2HOH ® [B(OH)4] + H3O
(v) Al dissolves in mineral acids and aqueous alkalies thus
m Boron mainly occurs as orthoboric acid (H3BO3), borax
shows amphoteric character
(Na2B4O7.10H2O) and kernite (Na2B4O7. 4H2O) –
(5) D D
10 11
2Al(s) + 6 HCl (aq) ® 2Al3+ (aq) + 6Cl (aq) + 3H2(g) H3BO3 HBO2 B2O3
m Boron has two isotopes B(19%) and B(81%) +
2Al(s) +2NaOH(aq) + 6H2O(l) ® 2Na [Al(OH)4] (aq) +
–
m Electronegativity – First decreases from B to Al and then the correct formula is Na2[B4O5(OH)4]. 8H2O.
increases marginally. 2B3N3H6 + 12H2 (B3N3H6 inorganic benzene)
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44 The p-Block Elements NCERT Maps
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NCERT Maps The p-Block Elements 45
1. Correct order of atomic radii is 6. Colour of Co(BO2)2 bead is 11. Ionic tetrahalide among the following is
[NCERT Pg. 324]
[NCERT Pg. 317] [NCERT Pg. 320]
(1) SnF4
(1) B < Al < Ga < ln (2) B > Al > Ga > ln (1) Red (2) Blue
(2) CF4
(3) B < Al > Ga < ln (4) Al < B < Ga < ln (3) Green (4) Orange
(3) PbBr4
2. +1 oxidation state is predominant in 7. Number of water of crystallization in Borax is
[NCERT Pg. 318] (4) SiCl4
[NCERT Pg. 320]
(1) B (2) Al 12. Catenation is not shown by
(1) 10 (2) 9 [NCERT Pg. 325]
(3) Ga (4) Tl
(3) 8 (4) 5 (1) Si
3. Hybridisation of Al when AlCl3 dissolved in
acidified aqueous solution is 8.
∆
3B2H6 + 6NH3 → X → Y + H2, Y is (2) Ge
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46 The p-Block Elements NCERT Maps
15. Which of the following is not the resonance 17. Silicon dioxide on reaction with hydrogen 19. Maximum number of H-bond formed by one
structure of CO2? [NCERT Pg. 329] fluoride gives [NCERT Pg. 329] molecule of orthoboric acid is
(1) (1) Si [NCERT Pg. 321]
(2) SiF4 (1) 1 (2) 3
(2)
(3) 4 (4) 6
(3) (3) SiO
20. On commercial scale, CO2 is obtained by
(4) [SiF6]2–
(4) [NCERT Pg. 328]
18. Least electronegative element among the (1) Burning coal
16. The chain length of silicone can be
following is [NCERT Pg. 319]
controlled by adding [NCERT Pg. 330] (2) Burning CH4
(1) B (2) Al (3) Heating Limestone
(1) SiCl4 (2) CH3SiCl3
(3) (CH3)2SiCl2 (4) (CH3)3SiCl (3) ln (4) Tl (4) CaCO3 with HCl
1. SiCl4 on hydrolysis gives _______. 7. Maximum covalence of boron is _______. 14. _______ Is used to convert alcohols directly
[NCERT Pg. 325] [NCERT Pg. 320] into gasoline [NCERT Pg. 330]
2. Silica is attacked by _______ and _______. 8. In B2H6 _______ 3-centre-2-electron bonds 15. Boric acid is mono basic _______
[NCERT Pg. 329] are present. [NCERT Pg. 322]
[NCERT Pg. 331]
9. _______ isotope of carbon used for
3. Group of organosilicon polymer having 16. B–F bond length in BF3 is _______ than
radiocarbon dating. [NCERT Pg. 323]
_______ as a repeating units are known as B–F bond length in BF4− [NCERT Pg. 332]
silicones [NCERT Pg. 329] 10. Cassiterite is the ore of _______.
[NCERT Pg. 323] 17. CO forms _______ when combine with
4. Hybridisation of B in BH4− is _______. haemoglobin [NCERT Pg. 332]
11. _______ are only form of pure carbon.
[NCERT Pg. 331] [NCERT Pg. 326] 18. Graphite is used as _______ due to its layer
5. _______ catches fire spontaneously upon type structure. [NCERT Pg. 332]
12. Water gas is _______. [NCERT Pg. 327]
exposure to air [NCERT Pg. 321] 19. CO is a _______ oxide [NCERT Pg. 333]
13. _______ buffer system helps to maintain the
6. Borax dissolves in water to give an _______ pH of blood between 7.26 to 7.42 20. Due to inert pair effect, oxidation state
solution. [NCERT Pg. 320] decrease by _______. [NCERT Pg. 333]
[NCERT Pg. 328]
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Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles 12
and Techniques Chapter
1 CLASSIFICATION OF ORGANIC COMPOUNDS (d) For branched alkyl groups, the carbon atom of the O
Organic Compounds branch that attaches to the root alkane is numbered (1) CH3 – C – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH
such as 6 5 4 3 2 1
4 3 2 1 5-Oxohexanoic acid
CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH – (1, 3-Dimethylbutyl) –
Acyclic or open chain Cyclic or closed chain 5 4 3 2 1 OH
O CH3 CH3 CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH – CH3 1 2
, (e) While writing the names of the substituents in OH Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol
3
alphabetical order, the prefixes iso and neo are Pent-4-en-2-ol
considered to be the part of fundamental name of alkyl NO2
Alicyclic compounds Aromatic compounds m Nomenclature of substituted
group but sec- and tert- are not considered to be the 4
3
part of fundamental name. benzene compounds
(f) If two chains are of equal size then that chain is to be 1 Cl
Homocyclic Heterocyclic Benzenoid Non-benzenoid 2
Cl
selected which contains more number of side chains 1
or carbocyclic compounds compounds compounds
2 4 6 8 10 4 CH3
compounds (non-aromatic) NH 3 5 7 9 O2N 2
NO2
2 3 2-Chloro-1-methyl
1 1-Chloro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene -4-nitrobenzene
, , O OMe NH2
O 1
1
2 Cl 2 CH
3
Heterocyclic aromatic
5-(2-Ethylbutyl)-3, 3-dimethyldecane
compounds 3 3
m Nomenclature of Cyclic Compounds 4 4
, CH3 C 2H 5
O N 1 2 (Alphabetic order of numbering) 2-Chloro-4-methylanisole 4-Ethyl-2-methylaniline
H 1-Methyl-3-propylcyclohexane
3
2 NOMENCLATURE m Nomenclature of organic compounds having functional 3 ISOMERISM
Abbreviation for alkyl groups groups(s)
m (a)Structural Isomerism
CH3 (a) The functional group present in the molecule is identified Compounds having the same molecular formula but
CH3
which determines the choice of appropriate suffix. different structures are classified as structural isomers.
CH3 – CH – CH3 – CH2 – CH – (b) The longest chain of carbon atoms containing the
H3 C CH2 – (i) Chain isomerism: Example, C5H12 represents three
CH3 functional group is numbered in such a way that the
chain isomers
Isopropyl – sec-Butyl – Isobutyl – functional group is attached at the carbon atom
CH3 CH3 possessing lowest possible number in the chain.
(c) The order of decreasing priority for some functional
H 3C – C – CH3 – C – CH2 – groups: Pentane 2-Methylbutane
CH3 CH3 –COOH, –SO3H, –COOR, –COCl, –CONH2, –CN, (2, 2-Dimethylpropane)
tert-Butyl – Neopentyl –
m Nomenclature of Branched Chain Alkanes: (Rules)
(a) Longest carbon chain is identified –HC = O, C = O, –OH, –NH2, C=C , –C º C– (ii) Position isomerism: Example, C3H8O represents
(b) Numbering is done so that branched carbon atoms get two alcohols
the lowest possible numbers O O
OH OH
(c) For two substituents present at equivalent positions, the CH3 – CH2 – C – CH2 – C – CH3
lower number is given to the one coming first in 6 5 4 3 2 1
alphabetical listing Hexane-2, 4-dione Propan-1-ol Propan-2-ol
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48 Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques NCERT Maps
(iii)F u n c t i o n a l g r o u p i s o m e r i s m : E x a m p l e , (ii) Homolytic cleavage: One of the electrons of the (iii) Resonance effect
C3H6O represents an aldehyde and a ketone shared pair in a covalent bond goes with each of m It is a permanent effect
carbocation. 1 5 1 5
5 METHODS OF PURIFICATION OF
l Alkyl groups directly attached to the positively 2 4 2 4 ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
charged carbon stabilise the carbocations due to 3 3
inductive and hyperconjugation effects. The common techniques used for purification:
(I) (II)
(i) Sublimation (ii) Crystallisation
· Stability order:
+ + + +
m Actual structure is resonance hybrid of (I) and (II) (iii) Distillation : It is used to separate
(CH3 )3C > (CH3 )2CH > CH3CH2 > CH3 m The resonance structures (canonical structures) are (a) Volatile liquids from non-volatile impurities.
m Carbanions: hypothetical and individually do not represent any (b) The liquids having sufficient difference in boiling points
l A carbon species carrying a negative charge on real molecule. e.g. mixture of chloroform (b.p. 334 K) and aniline
carbon atom is called carbanion. (b.p. 457 K) is separated by this method.
m The energy of actual structure of the molecule is
3 (c) Distillation can be achieved by three different ways
l Carbon in carbanion is generally sp hybridised lower than that of any of the canonical structures. m Fractional Distillation: This is applicable if boiling
and its structure is distorted tetrahedral. m The difference in energy between the actual points of two liquids is not much, e.g. this is
· Stability order: structure and the lowest energy resonance structure applicable to separate different fractions of crude oil
CH3 > CH3CH2 > (CH3 )2 CH > (CH3 )3 C is called the resonance energy. in petroleum industry.
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NCERT Maps Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques 49
m Steam Distillation: This technique is applied to (A) Test for nitrogen Let mass of organic compound = m g
separate substances which are steam volatile and – 2+ 4–
Volume of H2SO4 of molarity M needed for neutralisation
6CN + Fe ® [Fe(CN)6]
are immiscible with water. of ammonia produced = V mL
Example: Aniline is separated by this technique 4– 2
3[Fe(CN)6] + 4Fe ¾¾¾¾
3+ xH O
® Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3 × xH2O
from aniline water mixture. (Prussian blue) V ´ 2M ´ 1.4
m Distillation under reduced pressure: This % of nitrogen =
(B) Test of Sulphur m
method is used to purify liquids having very high 2– 2+
boiling points and those, which decompose at or (i) S + Pb ® PbS (black)
m Kjeldahl’s method is not applicable to compounds
below their boiling points. (ii) S2- + [Fe(CN)5 NO]2 - ® [Fe(CN)5 NOS]4 - containing nitrogen in nitro and azo groups and nitrogen
Example: Glycerol can be separated from spent-lye Nitroprusside Violet present in ring (e.g. pyridine).
in soap industry by using this technique.
In case, nitrogen and sulphur both are present, sodium (B) Halogens
(iv) Differential Extraction:
thiocyanate is formed Carius method:
m When an organic compound is present in an aqueous
Na + C + N + S ® NaSCN
medium, it is separated by shaking it with an organic Fum ing HNO 3
solvent in which it is more soluble than in water. 3+ 2+ Organic compound ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® AgX ¯
Fe + SCN ® [Fe(SCN)] (Blood red) AgNO D 3
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50 Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques NCERT Maps
1. Number of σ and π bonds present in the 4. IUPAC name of the given compound is (c) In methyl halide, carbon is electrophilic
given molecule respectively are centre
CH3 – CH = CH – CH = CH – CN Correct statements are
[NCERT Pg. 335] (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) 13 and 3 (2) 13 and 2 (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) only
[NCERT Pg. 343] 8. Which among the following is a temporary
(3) 14 and 4 (4) 13 and 4
(1) 1-Butyl-3-ethylcyclopentane effect? [NCERT Pg. 355]
2. Which among the following is heterocyclic
(2) 3-Butyl-1-ethylcyclopentane (1) Hyperconjugation
aromatic compound? [NCERT Pg. 340]
(3) 1-Butyl-4-ethylcyclopentane (2) Resonance
(3) Inductive effect
(4) 4-Butyl-1-ethylcyclopentane
(1) (2) (4) Electromeric effect
5. Propanone and propanal are
9. Consider the following species
[NCERT Pg. 349]
(1) Chain isomers
(3) (4)
(2) Metamers
(3) Position isomers
3. Isobutyl group among the following is
[NCERT Pg. 341] (4) Functional group isomers
(4) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – (b) A nucleophile is electron rich species (3) –NO2 (4) –NHCOR
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NCERT Maps Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques 51
11. Mixture of aniline and chloroform can be 17. Commonly used adsorbent(s) in column
easily separated by [NCERT Pg. 357] chromatography is/are [NCERT Pg. 360]
(1)
(1) Distillation (1) Silica gel
(2) Alumina
(2) Fractional distillation
(3) Charcoal
(3) Steam distillation
(2) (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Sublimation
18. Which among the following is a nucleophile?
12. On treating sodium fusion extract with
[NCERT Pg. 351]
sodium nitroprusside solution blood red
(3) (1) BF3 (2) B2H6
colour is obtained. It indicates the presence
of which element(s) in the organic (3) SH (4) AlCl3
compound? [NCERT Pg. 363]
(4) 19. IUPAC name of the given compound is
(1) Nitrogen only
15. In sulphur estimation 0.25 g of an organic
(2) Sulphur only
compound gave 0.466 g of barium sulphate.
(3) Phosphorous only Percentage of sulphur in the compound is
(4) Nitrogen and sulphur both [NCERT Pg. 367]
13. Most stable carbanion among the following (1) 45.5% [NCERT Pg. 347]
is [NCERT Pg. 350] (2) 16.4% (1) 4-Ethyl-2-methylaniline
(3) 56.5% (2) 4-Amino-1-ethyl-3-methylbenzene
(1) CH2 − NO2
(3) 4-Ethyl-6-methylaniline
(4) 25.6%
(2) CH3 (4) 4-Amino-1-ethyl-5-methylbenzene
16. The element which cannot be detected by
Lassaigne’s test is [NCERT Pg. 362] 20. Which among the following is a planar
(3) (CH3 )2CH molecule? [NCERT Pg. 335]
(1) Nitrogen
(1) CH2 = CH – CN
(4) CH2 − Ph (2) Sulphur (2) CH2 = C = CH2
(3) Chlorine (3) CH3 – CH = CH2
14. Kjeldahl’s method is not applicable to which
compound? [NCERT Pg. 366] (4) Oxygen (4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
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52 Organic Chemistry - Some Basic Principles and Techniques NCERT Maps
1. Urea can be synthesised by heating 9. In _______ cleavage, radical formation 15. In quantitative estimation of halogens by
_______. [NCERT Pg. 334] takes place. [NCERT Pg. 349] Carius method, a known mass of organic
2. _______ arises due to different alkyl chains compound is heated with fuming nitric acid
10. _______ technique is applied to separate
on either side of the functional group. substances which are steam volatile and are in presence of _______ in Carius tube.
[NCERT Pg. 349] immiscible with water. [NCERT Pg. 359] [NCERT Pg. 367]
3. Alkyl groups directly attached to the 11. Paper chromatography is a type of _______ 16. Hyperconjugation involves delocalization of
positively charged carbon stabilise the chromatography. σ electrons of C – H bond of an alkyl group
carbocations due to _______ and _______ directly attached to an atom of unsaturated
effects. [NCERT Pg. 349] [NCERT Pg. 362] system or to an atom with an unshared
4. A reagent that takes away an electron pair 12. The sodium fusion extract is boiled with _______. [NCERT Pg. 355]
is called _______. [NCERT Pg. 351] ferrous sulphate and then acidified with
17. Methyl propanoate and butanoic acid are
concentrated sulphuric acid, formation of
5. The _______ structures are hypothetical _______. [NCERT Pg. 348]
Prussian blue colour confirms the presence
and individually do not represent any real
of _______. [NCERT Pg. 363] 18. The structural unit _______ is called
molecule. [NCERT Pg. 353]
neopentyl group. [NCERT Pg. 341]
6. The IUPAC group prefix ‘formyl’ is used for 13. Nitrogen, sulphur, halogens and _______
present in an organic compound are 19. Glycerol is separated from spent-lye in soap
_______. [NCERT Pg. 345]
detected by Lassaigne’s test. industry by using _______ technique.
7. _______ structures have same number of [NCERT Pg. 358]
unpaired electrons. [NCERT Pg. 353] [NCERT Pg. 362]
20. [Fe(SCN)]2+ is _______ in colour.
8. _______ is also termed as no bond 14. Ammonium phosphomolybdate is _______
resonance. [NCERT Pg. 356] coloured compound. [NCERT Pg. 363] [NCERT Pg. 363]
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Hydrocarbons
13
Chapter
1 AlKANES m Physical Properties (vii) Pyrolysis Preparation
C6H12+ H2 m
General formula (CnH2n + 2) Isomeric alkanes having more branching 773 K (i) From alkynes
m C6H14 C4H8+ C2H6 R R¢
has lower boiling point.
m Alkanes show structural isomerism C3H6+ C2H2 + CH4 Pd/C
m Chemical properties (a) RC CR¢ C C (cis)
m Conformations: BaSO4
m C6H14 has got five structural isomers (i) Substitution reaction Alkanes show conformational isomerism H H
whereas C7H16 has nine. CH4 + Cl2
hn
CH3Cl + HCl due to C – C bond rotation as is seen in
ethane. H R¢
m Preparation Na
m Rate of reaction of alkanes with halogens is m Ethane molecule (C2H6) contains a carbon- (b) RC CR¢ C C¢ (trans)
(i) Hydrogenation Liq.NH3
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 carbon single bond.
Pt/Pd/Ni (ii) From alkyl halides R H
CH2 = CH2 + H2 CH3 – CH3 m C – C bond results into infinite number of
m Rate of replacement of hydrogens of alkanes is : spatial arrangements of hydrogen atoms alc./KOH
(ii) From alkyl halides 3º > 2º > 1º CH3 – CH2 – Cl D CH2 = CH2
attached to one carbon atom with respect to
(a) Reduction of alkyl halides (ii) Combustion the hydrogen atoms attached to the other m The reaction is called b-elimination
Zn CH4(g) + 2O2(g) ® CO2(g)+ 2H2O(l) carbon atom. m It is observed that for halogens, the rate
CH3 – Cl + H2 + CH4 m These are called conformational isomers
H is : iodine > bromine > chlorine
(b) Wurtz reaction One such conformation in which hydrogen
CnH2n+2 + 3n + 1 O2 ® nCO2 + (n + 1)H2O
m
dry ether atoms attached to two carbons are as m The rate for alkyl groups is : tert >
2CH3Br + 2Na CH3 – CH3 2 secondary > primary
closed together as possible is called
It is used for the preparation of higher eclipsed conformation. (iii) From vicinal dihalides
alkanes containing even number of (iii) Controlled oxidation
m The conformation in which hydrogens are
carbon atoms. Cu/523 K
as far apart as possible is known as Zn
(a) 2CH4 + O2 2CH3OH CH2 – CH2 CH2 CH2
100 atm
(iii) From carboxylic acids staggered conformation.
Mo2O3
(b) CH4 + O2 CH3OH + H2O m Any other intermediate conformation is Br Br
(a) Decarboxylation D called skew conformation.
CH3COO Na
– + Soda lime
CH4 + Na2CO3 (CH3COO)2Mn H m Chemical Properties
D (c) 2CH3CH3 + 3O2 D H HH H
(b) Kolbe’s electrolytic method H (I) Addition of dihydrogen
H H Pd
RCH CH2 R – CH2 – CH3
– + Electrolysis 2CH3COOH + 2H2O H H H H H2
2CH3COO Na (aq) CH3 – CH3 (i) Eclipsed form (ii) Staggered form
KMnO4 (ii) Addition of halogens
(d) (CH3)3CH (CH3)3COH Br2
m Reaction at anode: 2 AlKENES CH2 = CH2 CCl4
CH2 – CH2
O O (iv) Isomerisation
– –2e
– m General formula (CnH2n ) Br Br
2CH3– C – O 2CH3– C – O m The reddish orange colour of bromine
anhy./AlCl3 m Alkenes show structural isomerism
HCl
+ solution in CCl4 is discharged when Br2
CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH3 CH2 = C – CH3 adds to unsaturation site. this is test for
CH3 – CH3 2CH3 + 2CO2 (i)
(v) Aromatisation CH3 unsaturation.
m Reaction at cathode: CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 (iii) Addition of hydrogen halides
Cr2O3 or V2O5 or Mo2O3 (ii) (iii)
– –
H2O + e OH + H 773 K; 10-20 atm m Alkenes show geometrical isomerism (a) Markovnikov’s reaction
H HBr
2H H2 (vi) Reaction with steam R – CH2 = CH2 R – CH – CH3
cis-But-2-ene & trans-But-2-ene
Ni
m Methane cannot the prepared by this CH4 + H2O CO + 3H2 H H H Br
1273 K
method are geometrical isomers (Major)
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NCERT Maps Hydrocarbons 55
1. Correct order of boiling point of the given 4. Which among the following is not an O
compounds is [NCERT Pg. 380] aromatic species [NCERT Pg.399] ||
(3) CH3 – C– CH2CH3
2 − methylbutane , Pentane ,
(i) (ii) (1) (2)
O O
|| ||
2,2-Dimethylpropane
(4) CH3 – C– C– CH3
(iii)
(3) (4) 8. One mole of an organic compound gives 2
(1) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
moles of acetone on ozonolysis, the
(2) (ii) > (i) > (iii) structure of the organic compound is
5. Which group deactivates the benzene ring
(3) (i) > (ii) > (iii) towards electrophilic substitution reaction? [NCERT Pg.391]
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56 Hydrocarbons NCERT Maps
11. Consider the following reaction sequence 14. Incorrect statement about nitration of
alcoholNaNH (1eq.) 2+
Hg
benzene using nitrating mixture is
Br – CH2 – CH2 – Br → A
2
→ B → C
KOH H3O +
(1) (2)
[NCERT Pg. 401]
Product C is [NCERT Pg.394, 395] (1) The electrophile is nitrosonium ion
(1) Ethanol (2) Nitric acid acts as a base
(2) Ethanoic acid (3) Sigma complex is formed as (3) (4)
(3) Ethanal intermediate
(4) In sigma complex one of the carbon is 18. Total number of structural isomers of C6H14
(4) Ethylene glycol
sp3 hybridised and C7H16 respectively are [NCERT Pg.376]
12. The compound which will not decolourise (1) 6 and 9 (2) 5 and 8
15. Major product formed on the electrolysis of
bromine solution in carbon tetrachloride is
aqueous solution of sodium propanoate is (3) 6 and 10 (4) 5 and 9
[NCERT Pg. 395, 389]
[NCERT Pg.379] 19. IUPAC name of the given compound is
(1) [NCERT Pg.377]
(1) CH3CH2CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH3CH3
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NCERT Maps Hydrocarbons 57
1. There are _______ number of 7. Ozonolysis of alkenes involves the addition 15. One mole of benzene will require _______
conformations of ethane. [NCERT Pg.383] of ozone molecule to alkene to form mole of O2 for complete combustion
_______. [NCERT Pg. 391] [NCERT Pg.402]
2. In ethane, conformation in which hydrogen
8. Sodamide and sodium metal react with
atoms attached to two carbons are as 16. Alkyle halides on treatment with sodium
ethyne to form _______. [NCERT Pg. 394]
closed together as possible is called metal in dry ether give higher alkanes. This
9. C – C bond length is benzene is _______
_______ conformation. [NCERT Pg.383] reaction is known as _______ reaction
pm. [NCERT Pg.399]
3. The repulsive interaction between the 10. Number of π electrons present in [NCERT Pg.379]
electron clouds, which affects stability of a anthracene is _______. [NCERT Pg.399] 17. Hydrogen atoms in ethyne are attached to
conformation, is called _______. 11. _______ is reduced to benzene by passing _______ hybridized carbon atoms
[NCERT Pg.384] its vapours over heated zinc dust.
[NCERT Pg.394]
[NCERT Pg.400]
4. In solid state, trans-But-2-ene has _______ 18. Ethyl choride on reaction with zinc and dilute
12. Reaction of benzene with acetic anhydride
melting point than the Cis form. hydrochloric acid gives _______.
in presence of anhydrous AlCl3 yields
[NCERT Pg.387] _______ [NCERT Pg.401] [NCERT Pg.378]
5. Partially deactivated palladised charcoal is 13. During chlorination of benzene using 19. n-alkanes on heating in the presence of
anhydrous AlCl3 the electrophile formed is _______ and hydrogen chloride isomerise
known as ______ catalyst [NCERT Pg.387]
_______ [NCERT Pg.401 ]
to branched chain alkanes [NCERT Pg.382]
6. Dihalides in which two halogen atoms are 14. –OCH3 group _______ the benzene ring
attached to two adjacent carbon atoms are towards electrophilic substitution reaction 20. _______ is prepared by heating quick lime
known as _______. [NCERT Pg.388] [NCERT Pg.402] with coke. [NCERT Pg.394]
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Environmental Chemistry
14
Chapter
1 ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTION 3 GLOBAL WARMING AND GREEN HOUSE EFFECT
m It is effect of undesirable changes in our surroundings that have harmful effects on m About 75% of the solar energy reaching the earth is absorbed by the earth surface, which
plants, animals and human beings. increases its temperature.
m Green house gases: CO2, CH4, O3, CFCs, H2O vapour, N2O, O3.
2 ATMOSPHERIC POLLUTION
m CO2 molecules trap heat as they are transparent to sunlight but not to the heat radiation.
m It is studied as tropospheric and stratospheric pollution.
m CO2 is the major contributor to global warming.
m Troposphere extends to the height of ~10 km from sea level.
m Stratosphere lies between 10 and 50 km above sea level. It contains N2, O2, O3 and 4 ACID RAIN
little H2O vapour. The presence of O3 in it prevents about 99.5% of sun's harmful UV m When the pH of rain water drops below 5.6, it is called acid rain.
radiations from reaching earth's surface.
m Oxide of S, N and C causes acid rain.
m Tropospheric pollution is due to gaseous air pollutants and particulate pollutants.
m The Taj Mahal is being slowly disfigured and marble is getting discoloured and lustreless due to
(i) Gaseous air pollutants
acid rain. The acid rain reacts with marble, CaCO3 of Taj Mahal.
l SO2 which causes respiratory diseases, irritation to eyes resulting in tears and
redness. CaCO3 + H2SO4 ® CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
l Due to burning of fossil fuel in automobile engine, NO and NO2 are produced.
5 SMOG
l The irritant red haze in the traffic and congested places is due to oxides of
nitrogen. m It is mixture of smoke and fog.
m Classical smog is mixture of smoke, fog and SO2, occurs in cool humid climate. It is a reducing
l NO2 is lung irritant.
mixture.
l Hydrocarbons are carcinogenic. m Photochemical smog results from action of sunlight on unsaturated hydrocarbons and
l CO is highly poisonous and produced as a result of incomplete combustion of nitrogen oxides. It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. Its main components are O3, NO,
carbon.
acrolein, HCHO and PAN. It is called oxidising smog.
l CO binds to Haemoglobin to form carboxy haemoglobin, which is about 300
times more stable than the oxygen-haemoglobin complex.
l The effect of particulate pollutants are largely dependent on the particle size.
l High level of CO in blood may induce premature birth and deformed babies.
l Lead used to be a major air pollutant emitted by vehicles.
l CO2 is released in atmosphere by respiration, burning of fossil fuel and also
during volcanic eruptions. m Stratospheric pollution is due to the depletion of protective ozone layer. CFCs combine with
ozone and damage ozone layer.
l Increased amount of CO2 in the air is mainly responsible for global warming.
· ·
UV
(ii) Particulate pollutants CF2Cl2 (g) ¾¾¾ ® Cl(g) + CF2Cl(g)
l These are minute solid particles or liquid droplets in air. · ·
l Viable particulates: Bacteria, fungi, moulds, algae etc. Cl(g) + O3 (g) ¾¾® ClO(g) + O2 (g)
l Non-viable particulates: Cigarette smoke, Dust, Sand, Cement, fly ash, · ·
Sulphuric acid mist, fume particles etc. ClO(g) + O(g) ¾¾® Cl(g) + O2 (g)
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NCERT Maps Environmental Chemistry 59
(i) Pathogens: Bacteria and other organisms that l The process in which nutrient enriched water bodies support a m Biodegradable waste: It is generated by cotton mills,
enter water from domestic sewage and animal dense plant population, which kills animal life by depriving it of paper mills and textile factories.
excreta. Human excreta contain bacteria such as oxygen and results in subsequent loss of biodiversity is known as m Non-Biodegradable waste: It is generated by thermal
Escherichia coli and streptococcus faecalis Eutrophication. power plants, iron and steel plants etc.
which cause gastrointestinal diseases. l International standards for drinking water. m Now a days, fly ash and slag from steel industry are
(ii) Organic waste: Leaves, Grass, Trash, Excessive (1) Fluoride: Its deficiency causes tooth decay. It makes utilised by the cement industry.
phytoplankton growth etc. enamel on tooth much harder by converting [3 Ca3(PO4)2 × m Fuel obtained from plastic waste has high octane rating.
l If the concentration of dissolved oxygen (DO) in Ca(OH)2] into [3 Ca3(PO4)2 × CaF2]. It contains no lead and is known as “green fuel”.
water is below 6 ppm, the growth of fish gets –
F ion concentration above 2 ppm causes brown mottling of
inhibited. 9 WASTE MANAGEMENT
teeth.
l The amount of oxygen required by bacteria to The improper disposal of wastes is one of the major
(2) Lead: Upper limit of lead in drinking water is 50 ppb. m
break down the organic matter present in a causes of environmental degradation. Therefore the
(3) Sulphate: Excessive sulphate (>500 ppm) in drinking water
certain volume of a sample of water is called management of wastes is of utmost importance.
causes laxative effect.
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD).
(4) Nitrate: Upper limit of nitrate in drinking water is 50 ppm. m Two programmes are being implemented
l The amount of BOD in the water is a measure of Excess of it causes diseases such as methemoglobinemia
the amount of organic material in the water. Swatchh Bharat Mission - Urban (SBM - U)
(‘blue baby’ syndrome)
Clean water would have BOD value of less than Swatchh Bharat Mission - Gramin (SBM - G)
l (5) Other metals:
5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have
a BOD value of 17 ppm or more. Metal Fe Mn Al Cu Zn Cd 10 GREEN CHEMISTRY
(iii) Chemical Pollutants:
Maximum m It is a way of thinking and it about utilising the existing
l Water soluble inorganic chemicals such as Cd, Concentration 0.2 0.05 0.2 3.0 5.0 0.005 knowledge and principles of chemistry and other
Hg, Ni etc. These metals can damage kidneys, (ppm) sciences to reduce the adverse impact on environment.
central nervous system, liver etc. m Tetrachloroethene (Cl2C = CCl2), was earlier used as
l NaCl and CaCl2 are used to melt snow and ice in solvent for dry cleaning and is also a suspected
the colder climates. 7 SOIL POLLUTION carcinogen. Now, liquefied CO 2 with a suitable
detergent is used.
l Petroleum products pollute many sources of m Insecticides, pesticides and herbicides cause soil pollution. m Chlorine gas was used earlier for bleaching paper.
water e.g. major oil spills in oceans.
m Prior to World War II, nicotine were used as pest controlling These days, H2O2 with suitable catalyst is used.
l Pesticides that drift down from sprays or runoff substance for major crops. m Ethanal is prepared commercially by one step oxidation
from lands.
m After the World War II, DDT was used in various crop diseases. of ethene.
l Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) which are Catalyst
m Pesticides are basically synthetic toxic chemicals with CH2 = CH2 + O2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® CH3CHO (90%)
used as cleansing solvent, detergents and Pd(II)/Cu(II) (in water )
ecological repercussions.
fertilizers. PCBs are suspected to be
m As insect resistance of DDT increased, other organic toxins m Kernel of tamarind seeds has been found to be effective
carcinogenic. to make waste water clean.
such as Aldrin and Dieldrin were introduced.
l Fertilizers contain phosphates. The addition of m Green chemistry is a cost effective approach which
phosphates in water enhances algae growth, m These days herbicides such as NaClO3 and Na3AsO3 have involves reduction in material, energy consumption and
which reduces oxygen concentration in water. more attention. Some herbicides cause birth defects. waste generation.
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60 Environmental Chemistry NCERT Maps
1. The incorrect statement regarding classical 5. The maximum limit of nitrates in drinking 9. The branch of chemistry which involves
smog is [NCERT Pg. 411] water as per international standards is adopting methods in day-to-day life, which
[NCERT Pg. 416] results in the reduction of environmental
(1) It occurs in cool humid climate
pollution is known as [NCERT Pg. 421]
(1) 50 ppb (2) 50 ppm
(2) It is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur
(1) Green chemistry
dioxide (3) 10 ppm (4) 5 ppm
(2) Blue chemistry
(3) It is reducing in nature 6. Herbicide among the following is
(3) Yellow chemistry
(4) Its main components results from [NCERT Pg. 417]
(4) Orange chemistry
unsaturated hydrocarbons and nitrogen (1) Na3PO4 (2) CaCO3
oxides 10. Brown mottling of teeth is caused due to
(3) NaClO3 (4) NaNO3 excess concentration of [NCERT Pg. 416]
2. Which of the following is not a greenhouse
7. Now a days, which of the following
gas? [NCERT Pg. 408] (1) F− (2) Cl−
compound is used for the purpose of
(1) Carbondioxide (2) Ozone bleaching clothes in the process of laundry, (3) Br − (4) I−
(3) Dinitrogen (4) Water vapour giving better result and make use of lesser 11. Which of the following was found to be of
amount of water? [NCERT Pg. 420] great use in the control of malaria and other
3. The pH of normal rain water is
(1) Cl2C = CCl2 insect-borne diseases during World War II?
[NCERT Pg. 409] [NCERT Pg. 416]
(2) CO2
(1) 5.6 (2) 7 (1) Aldrin (2) DDT
(3) O3
(3) 6.5 (4) 4.6 (3) Dieldrin (4) Sodium arsenite
(4) H2O2
4. Carbondioxide molecules are 12. Clean water would have BOD value of less
8. Which of the following compound is than [NCERT Pg. 415]
[NCERT Pg. 408] commercially prepared by oxidation of
ethene in presence of Pd(II)/Cu(II) catalyst (1) 5 ppm (2) 8 ppm
(1) Transparent to both sunlight and heat
radiations in aqueous medium with 90% yield? (3) 10 ppm (4) 17 ppm
(2) Transparent to sunlight but not to the [NCERT Pg. 420] 13. In an automobile engine at high temperature
heat radiations when fossil fuel is burnt, dinitrogen and
(1) CH3CH2OH
dioxygen combine to yield significant
(3) Transparent to heat radiations but not to
(2) CH3COOH quantities of [NCERT Pg. 407]
the sunlight
(3) HOCH2CH2OH (1) NO and N2O (2) N2O and NO2
(4) Not transparent to both sunlight and
heat radiations. (4) CH3CHO (3) NO and NO2 (4) NO2 and N2O3
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14. Select the correct statement(s) among the (1) Dust (2) Mist 19. The maximum prescribed concentration of
following [NCERT Pg. 408, 415, 420] (3) Smog (4) All of these cadmium in drinking water is
(1) Hydrocarbons can be carcinogenic 17. Increased level of which of the following gas [NCERT Pg. 416]
(2) Tetrachloroethene is a suspected may induce premature birth, spontaneous (1) 0·5 ppm (2) 0·05 ppm
carcinogen. abortions and deformed babies?
(3) 5 ppm (4) 0·005 ppm
(3) PCB’s are suspected to be carcinogenic [NCERT Pg. 408]
20. Select the incorrect reaction of CFCs in
(4) All of these (1) CO2 (2) NO2 stratosphere [NCERT Pg. 413]
15. Presence of which gas in the stratosphere (3) SO2 (4) CO • •
prevents about 99·5 percent of sun’s UV
(1) CF2 Cl2 (g) → Cl(g) + CF2 Cl(g)
18. CO2 is released into atmosphere by
harmful ultraviolet radiations from reaching
[NCERT Pg. 408] • •
the earth’s surface? [NCERT Pg. 407] (2) Cl(g) + O3 (g)
→ ClO(g) + O2 (g)
(1) Respiration
(1) Dinitrogen (2) Ozone • •
(2) Burning of fossil fuels (3) ClO(g) + O(g)
→ Cl(g) + O2 (g)
(3) Dioxygen (4) Methane
(3) Decomposition of limestone
16. The particulate pollutants present in • •
1. ______ are man-made industrial chemicals 5. Fuel obtained from plastic waste has high 9. If the concentration of dissolved oxygen in
used in air conditioning which also damage octane rating. It contains no lead and is water is below ____ ppm, the growth of fish
ozone layer. [NCERT Pg. 409] known as _____. [NCERT Pg. 418] gets inhibited [NCERT Pg. 415]
2. _____ and ____ after oxidation and reaction 6. _____ was earlier used as solvent for dry 10. The process in which nutrient enriched
with water are major contributors to acid cleaning. [NCERT Pg. 420] water bodies support a dense plant
rain. [NCERT Pg. 410] 7. Stratosphere extends above troposphere population, which kills animal life by
3. CO binds to haemoglobin to form upto ____ km above sea level. depriving it of oxygen and results in
carboxyhaemoglobin, which is about____ subsequent loss of biodiversity is known as
[NCERT Pg. 407]
times more stable than the oxygen- _____. [NCERT Pg. 415]
8. About _____ % of the solar energy reaching
haemoglobin complex. [NCERT Pg. 408] 11. The irritant red haze in the traffic and
earth is absorbed by the earth surface and
4. Excessive sulphate (> 500 ppm) in drinking rest is radiated back to the atmosphere. congested places is due to oxides of _____.
water causes ____ effect. [NCERT Pg. 416] [NCERT Pg. 407]
[NCERT Pg. 408]
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62 Environmental Chemistry NCERT Maps
12. The most serious water pollutants are the 15. SO2 is absorbed directly on both solid and 18. Excessive _____ growth within water is also
disease causing agents called ______. liquid ground surfaces and it thus deposited a cause of water pollution.[NCERT Pg. 414]
[NCERT Pg. 414] as _____ deposition. 19. The amount of oxygen required by the
13. The lowest region of atmosphere in which [NCERT Pg. 410] bacteria to break down the organic matter
present in certain volume of a sample of
human beings along with other organisms 16. Fuel obtained from plastic waste has high water, is called ______. [NCERT Pg. 415]
live is called _______. ______ rating. [NCERT Pg. 418]
20. Utilization of existing knowledge base for
[NCERT Pg. 407] 17. In winter, polar stratospheric clouds provide reducing the chemical hazards along with
14. Green plants require CO2 for _____. surface on which _______ formed gets the developmental activities is the
[NCERT Pg. 408] hydrolysed to form hypochlorous acid. foundation of _______.
[NCERT Pg. 413] [NCERT Pg. 419, 420]
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Class XI
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Chapter-6 : Thermodynamics
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Chapter-7 : Equilibrium
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Chapter-9 : Hydrogen
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Chapter-13 : Hydrocarbons
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1
The Solid State Chapter
m Have definite pattern of arrangement of particles m Do not have a definite pattern of arrangement of
Primitive Unit Cells Non-Primitive Unit Cells
m Anisotropic particles
m eg. NaCl, Solid SO2
m Constituent particles are present m Constituent particles are present m Isotropic
m Are categorised according to intermolecular forces, only at the corner of unit cell at corner as well as body-centre or m eg. rubber, glass
into Ionic, Metallic, Molecular and Covalent solids m 7 types of Primitive unit cells with face centre.
14 Bravis lattices
ZM
3 CUBIC SYSTEM Density =
3 5 NON-STOICHIOMETRIC DEFECTS
NA a
m Metal excess defect :
(i) Arises due to anionic vacancies, leaving a hole which is occupied by an electrons thus maintaining
Type Position of Z CN Relation of Packing
electrical neutrality. The anionic sites, occupied by unpaired electrons known as F-centre and impart
atoms r, d, a efficiency
colour to the crystal. eg : NaCl with Na vapour impart yellow colour.
6 d a 52.4% (ii) Arises due to presence of extra cations at interstitial sites. e.g. on heating ZnO loses oxgen and
Simple Corner 1 r= =
8× =1 2 2
8 2+
cubic excess Zn move to interstitial sties.
d m Metal deficiency defect : Arises when metal shows variable valency. The defect occurs due to missing
1 8 3a 68%
BCC Corner and r= =
8× +1=2 4 a cation from its lattice site and the loss of positive charge is made up by the presence of the cation having
Body centre 8 2
higher charge in the adjacent lattice site eg. FeO is found with composition of Fe0.95O
1 1 d a
FCC Corner and 8× +6× =4 12 r= = 74%
8 2 2 2 2 6 IMPURITY DEFECTS
face centre
Na+ Cl– Na+ Cl–
m When molten NaCl containing a little amount of SrCl2 is crystallised,
4 TYPE OF DEFECTS some sites of Na+ are occupied by Sr2+ . Each Sr2+ replaces two Na+ ions. Cl– Sr2+ Cl– Na+
9 FRENKEL DEFECT
8 SCHOTTKY DEFECT m Due to dislocation of ions (usually cations) from the lattice sites
+ – + – + – + –
and occupy interstitial sites.
m It is due to equal number of cations and anions are missing from lattice sites. – – + – + –
m Has no effect on density +
m It results in decrease of density of crystal m Found in crystals with large difference in size of ions. + – + –
+ – +
m It is found in crystals having almost similar size of cation and anion eg. NaCl, KCl, AgBr etc. m eg: AgCl, ZnS, AgBr etc.
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64 The Solid State NCERT Maps
10 CLOSE PACKING
m In one dimension : Co-ordination number (CN) = 2 m In fcc unit cell, two tetrahedral voids are present on each body diagonal and
m In two dimension : (a) AAA type : Square close packing have CN = 4 octahedral voids are present on body centre and on each edge centres.
(b) ABAB type : hexagonal close packing have CN = 6
Voids in fcc lattice : if N atoms in lattice
m In three dimension :(a) AAA type : simple cubic lattice have CN = 6
(b) ABAB type : hcp lattice have CN = 12 m Tetrahedral voids = N
(c) ABCABC type : fcc lattice have CN = 12 m Octahedral voids = 2N
11 CLASSIFICATION OF SOLIDS
in the absence of external magnetic field. eg Ni, Fe, Co, CrO2 etc.
m Ferrimagnetic substances : Which posses very small net magnetic moment even
l Diode is a combination of n-type and p-type semicoductors
through they have very large number of unpaired electrons eg. Fe3O4, MgFe2O4.
and used as a rectifier.
These substance lose ferrimagnetism on heating and become paramagnetic.
l VO, VO2, VO3 and TiO3 show metallic or insulating properties
depending on temperature.
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NCERT Maps The Solid State 65
1. Which is not true for crystalline solids? 5. The total number of atoms per unit cell in body 10. The 2D coordination number of an atom in a
[NCERT Pg. 3] centred cubic lattice is [NCERT Pg. 13] square close-packed layer is
(1) 4 (2) 1 [NCERT Pg. 14]
(1) Melts at sharp and characteristic
(3) 3 (4) 2
temperature (1) 6 (2) 8
6. The formula of a compound formed by two
(2) Have a definite and characteristic (3) 12 (4) 4
elements X and Y in which element X make
enthalpy of fusion CCP and element Y occupy 1/3rd of 11. A cubic solid is made by two elements P and
octahedral voids will be [NCERT Pg. 18] Q. Atoms of Q are at the corners of cube and
(3) Have only short range order in
P at the body centre. The formula of the
arrangement of constituent particles. (1) XY3 (2) X2Y3
compound is [NCERT Pg. 13]
(3) X3Y (4) X3Y2
(4) Electrical resistance when measured (1) P2Q
7. In a CCP unit cell, octahedral voids are
along different directions in the same
present at [NCERT Pg. 19] (2) PQ
crystal show different values
(1) Body centre and face centres (3) PQ2
2. Which is not an amorphous solid? (2) Body centre and edge centres (4) P2Q3
[NCERT Pg. 5] (3) Edge centres and face centres
12. If copper (Molar mass = 63.1 g/mol)
(4) Corners and Body centre crystallises in fcc unit cell with edge length of
(1) Rubber (2) Solid NH3
8. The correct relationship between edge 3.608 × 10–8 cm then density of unit cell will
(3) Glass (4) Plastics length (a) and radius of atom (r) for fcc unit be [NCERT Pg. 22]
cell is [NCERT Pg. 20]
3. In which of the following crystal system 120° (1) 5.67 g/cm3
axial angle is present? [NCERT Pg. 10] a a
(1) r = (2) r = (2) 8.92 g/cm3
2 2 2
(1) Orthorhombic (2) Tetragonal (3) 9.21 g/cm3
a
(3) r = (4) r = 2a (4) 7.77 g/cm3
(3) Hexagonal (4) Cubic 2
9. Packing fraction in simple cubic lattice is 13. Frenkel defect is generally shown by
4. In which of the following crystal systems all [NCERT Pg. 25]
edge lengths are different? [NCERT Pg. 21]
π (1) Ionic solids
3π
[NCERT Pg. 11] (1) (2)
3 2 8 (2) Covalent solids
(1) Triclinic (2) Rhombohedral (3) Metallic solids
π 2
(3) (4) π
(3) Tetragonal (4) Cubic 6 3 (4) Molecular solids
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66 The Solid State NCERT Maps
14. Select the incorrect statement among the 16. The given alignment of magnetic moment (3) TiO, CrO2 and ReO3 behave like metals
following [NCERT Pg. 25] represents [NCERT Pg. 30] (4) Diode is a combination of n-type and p-
(1) Schottky defect decreases the density of type semiconductors
substance 19. The fraction of Ni in Ni0.98O which exists as
(1) Antiferromagnetic substance
(2) AgBr shows both Schottky and Frenkel Ni2+ is (Ni can exist an Ni2+ and Ni3+)
defects (2) Ferrimagnetic substance
[NCERT Pg. 26]
(3) A solid solution of CdCl2 and AgCl is an (3) Ferromagnetic substance
example of impurity defect (4) Diamagnetic substance (1) 0.96
(4) In Frenkel defect usually an anion is 17. Which of the following is an example of (2) 0.98
dislocated from its normal site to an ferrimagnetic substance? [NCERT Pg. 30] (3) 0.87
interstitial site
(1) MnO (2) CrO2 (4) 0.91
15. The anionic sites occupied by unpaired
(3) Ni (4) ZnFe2O4 20. The pattern of layers written as ABCABC…
electrons in metal excess defect are called
18. Select the incorrect statement among the is called [NCERT Pg. 17]
[NCERT Pg. 26]
following [NCERT Pg. 28, 29] (1) Hexagonal close packing
(1) G – Centres
(1) In n-type semiconductor the conductivity (2) Simple cubic packing
(2) F – Centres
is due to electron hole only
(3) C – Centres (3) Face centred cubic packing
(2) Silicon doped with boron known as
(4) X – Centres (4) Body centred cubic packing
p-type semiconductors
1. Quartz is the typical example of ______ 4. An atom at face-centred cubic unit cell is 7. The determination of the mass of a single
solids. shared between _____ unit cells atom gives an accurate method of
[NCERT Pg. 2] [NCERT Pg. 13] determination of _____. [NCERT Pg. 22]
2. Amorphous solid are _____ in nature 5. In one dimensional close packed 8. ____ are the irregularities from the ideal
[NCERT Pg. 3] arrangement, the coordination number is arrangement in entire rows of lattice points
_____. [NCERT Pg. 14]
3. Some solids which apparently appear [NCERT Pg. 24]
amorphous but have microcrystalline 6. The pattern of spheres repeated in alternate
structure are called ____ solids layers often written as ABAB… pattern is 9. A ccp unit cell contains ____ tetrahedral
called ____ structure [NCERT Pg. 17] voids. [NCERT Pg. 18]
[NCERT Pg. 3]
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NCERT Maps The Solid State 67
10. Point defects that do not disturb the 13. Zinc oxide is white in colour at room 17. _____ type of transistors are used to detect
stoichiometry of the solid are also called temperature, on heating it turns _____. audio signals. [NCERT Pg. 29]
____ defects [NCERT Pg. 24] [NCERT Pg. 26] 18. Bohr magneton is equal to _____Am2.
14. FeO is mostly found with a composition of [NCERT Pg. 29]
11. Frenkel defect is shown by ionic substance
_____. [NCERT Pg. 26] 19. In solid state, the metal ions of
in which there is a _____ difference in the
size of ions. [NCERT Pg. 25] 15. Metals have conductivities in the order of ferromagnetic substances are grouped
____ are good conductors. [NCERT Pg. 26] together into small regions are called ____.
12. In NaCl there are approximately ____ 16. Substance in which the gap between filled [NCERT Pg. 30]
Schottky pair per cm3 at room temperature.. valence band and the next higher 20. CCP structure has ____ atoms per unit cell
unoccupied band is large behaves as an
[NCERT Pg. 25] [NCERT Pg. 20]
_____. [NCERT Pg. 27]
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2
Solutions Chapter
1 EXPRESSING CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTIONS 4 RAOULT'S LAW 6 COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES
Mass of a component For non-volatile solute in volatile solvent o
m Mass percentage (w/w) = × 100 m p 1 – p1
o Relative lowering of vapour pressure :
Mass of solution psolution = p solvent xsolvent m o = xsolute
p1
Volume of a component m For volatile liquids: 0
m Volume percentage (v/v) = × 100 o o o o o m Elevation in boiling point: DTb = Tb – Tb = Kbm
Total volume of solution ptotal = p1 + p2 = p1 x1 + p2 x2 = p 1 + (p 2 – p 1 )x2
2
m Mole fraction of any component in vapour phase: R × M1 × Tb
Mass of solute Where, Kb =
m Mass by volume percentage (w/v) = × 100 y1 = p1/ptotal 1000 × DvapH
Volume of solution
0
5 TYPE OF SOLUTIONS m Depression in freezing point: DTf = Tf – Tf = Kfm
Mass of solute 6 2
m Parts per million (ppm) = × 10 m Ideal solutions: A – B interactions are of same R × M1 × Tf
Mass of solution Where, Kf =
magnitude as A – A and B – B interactions. DVmix = 0 and 1000 × DfusH
Mole of a component
m Mole fraction (X) = DHmix = 0 n
Total moles of all components m Osmotic pressure:p = CRT = RT
eg.: n-hexane and n-heptane, bromoethane and v
Moles of solute chloroethane. m Osmotic pressure method is widely used to determine
m Molarity (M) =
Volume of solution (l) m Non-ideal solutions: A – B interactions are of different molar mass of proteins, polymers.
magnitude than A – A and B – B interactions. DVmix ¹ 0 m Isotonic solution have same osmotic pressure.
Mass of solute
m Molality (m) = m Osmotic pressure associated with the fluid inside the
Mass of solvent (kg) and DHmix ¹ 0.
blood cell is equivalent to 0.9% (mass/vol) of NaCl solution.
m (+)ve deviations: A – B interactions are weaker than
m Solubility of a substance is its maximum amount that can be
dissolved in a specified amount of solvent at a specified A – A and B – B interactions. 7 van't Hoff FACTOR AND ITS SIGNIFICANCE
temperature. Observed value of colligative property
l DHmix > 0, DVmix > 0, Pobs > Pcal i=
Calculated value of colligative property
2 SOLUBILITY OF A SOLID IN A LIQUID l eg: acetone + ethanol, Normal molar mass
Significantly affected by temperature change. m (–)ve deviations: A – B interactions are stronger than =
m Abnormal molar mass
m Pressure does not have any significant effect. A – A and B – B interactions. m For normal solute (i = 1)
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NCERT Maps Solutions 69
1. Which of the following is a common example (3) Pressure 8. Which among the following solution shows
of solid solution? [NCERT Pg. 36] (4) All of these positive deviation from raoult's law?
(1) Chloroform mixed with nitrogen gas 5. Select the incorrect statement among the [NCERT Pg. 48]
(2) Glucose dissolved in water following. [NCERT Pg. 41]
(1) Nitric acid + water
(3) Solution of hydrogen in palladium (1) Different gases have different KH values
at the same temperature (2) Chloroform + acetone
(4) Camphor in nitrogen gas
(2) The value of KH for a gas decreases with (3) Phenol + aniline
2. If a solution is described by 10% glucose in
increase of temperature
water by mass it means that (4) Ethanol + water
(3) Higher the value of KH at a given
[NCERT Pg. 36] 9. At a particular temperature if the vapour
pressure, the lower is the solubility of the
(1) 10 g of glucose is present in 90 g of gas in a liquid pressure of pure liquids P and Q are 450 and
water 700 mm Hg respectively then the mole
(4) Mole fraction of a gas in the solution is
fraction of P in vapour phase will be (Given: total
(2) 10 g of glucose is present in 100 g of proportional to the partial pressure of the
vapour pressure of solution is 600 mm Hg)
water gas over the solution
[NCERT Pg. 45]
(3) 10 g of glucose is present in 110 g of 6. The mass of CO2 in 500 ml of soda water
water when packed under 2.5 atm CO2 pressure at (1) 0.4 (2) 0.3
298 K is (KH = 1.67 × 108 Pa)
(4) 10 g of glucose is present in 100 ml of (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7
water [NCERT Pg. 43]
10. The value of Kf is given by [NCERT Pg. 53]
3. The molarity of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous (1) 1.85 g (2) 2.67 g
KI solution will be (Density of solution R × M1 × Tf2 R × M1 × Tf2
(3) 1.21 g (4) 0.93 g (1) (2)
= 1.202 g ml–1) [NCERT Pg. 38] 1000 × ∆ fusH ∆ fusH
7. For a solution of two volatile liquids, the
(1) 1.87 M (2) 1.52 M correct relation is [NCERT Pg. 44] R × M1 × Tf R × M1 × ∆ fusH
(3) (4)
(3) 1.21 M (4) 1.44 M 1000 × ∆ fusH Tf
= p1o + po2
(1) ptotal
4. Generally solubility of one substance into 11. Mass of benzoic acid required to prepare
o o
another substance depends on (2) p=
total p1 x 2 + p2 x1 500 mL of 0.3 M solution in ethanol is
[NCERT Pg. 39]
(
(3) ptotal =p1o + po2 − p1o x 2 ) [NCERT Pg. 53]
(2) Temperature ( )
(4) ptotal =p1o + po2 − p1o x1
(3) 18.3 g (4) 21.5 g
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70 Solutions NCERT Maps
12. Two solutions having same osmotic 15. Which colligative property is used to (3) Cryoscopic constant to Ebullioscopic
pressure at a given temperature are called determine the molar masses of proteins? constant
[NCERT Pg. 56] (4) Molal depression constant to molal
[NCERT Pg. 56]
(1) Osmotic pressure elevation constant
(1) Hypotonic solutions
(2) Elevation in Boiling point 18. The molar mass of a non-volatile solute
(2) Isotonic solutions whose 2% aqueous solution exerts a
(3) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
osmotic pressure of 1.004 bar at 273 K, will
(3) Hypertonic solutions (4) Depression in freezing point be [NCERT Pg.55]
(4) Ideal solutions 16. The approximate composition (by mass) of (1) 625.5 g/mol (2) 700.3 g/mol
azeotrope formed by nitric acid and water is
13. The vapour pressure of a solution at 298 K (3) 226.4 g/mol (4) 445.9 g/mol
[NCERT Pg. 49]
containing 50 g of urea in 850 g of water will 19. Which of the following aqueous solution
o
(1) 48% HNO3 + 52% H2O
be (Given: pH = 23.8 mm at 298 K) have highest freezing point?
2O (2) 72% HNO3 + 28% H2O
[NCERT Pg. 58]
[NCERT Pg. 49] (3) 68% HNO3 + 32% H2O (1) 0.1 m NaCl (2) 0.3 m Na2SO4
(1) 22.4 mm (2) 22.9 mm (4) 50% HNO3 + 50% H2O (3) 0.2 m Sucrose (4) 0.1 m urea
17. van't Hoff factor is defined as the ratio of 20. If depression in freezing point of 0.2 m
(3) 23.1 mm (4) 23.4 mm
[NCERT Pg. 58] CH2FCOOH solution is 0.5°C then van't Hoff
14. van't Hoff factor (i) for complete dissociation (1) Calculated colligative property to factor of CH2FCOOH will be (kf = 1.86 K kg
of K2SO4 will be [NCERT Pg. 59] observed colligative property mol–1) [NCERT Pg. 51]
(1) 7 (2) 1 (2) Normal molar mass to experimentally (1) 1.34 (2) 1.75
(3) 2 (4) 3 determined molar mass (3) 1.62 (4) 1.12
1. At high altitudes the partial pressure of 3. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of the 5. The process of osmosis can be reversed if a
oxygen is _______ than that at the ground solvent over a solution is equal to the pressure _______ than the osmotic
_______ of a non-volatile solute present in
level. [NCERT Pg. 50] pressure is applied to the solution.
the solution. [NCERT Pg. 50]
2. Solutions which obey Raoult's law over the 4. The properties of solutions which depend on [NCERT Pg. 57]
entire range of concentration are called the number of solute particles and are 6. The value of i for ethanoic acid in benzene
independent of their chemical identity are
_______. [NCERT Pg. 47] is nearly _______. [NCERT Pg. 58]
called _______. [NCERT Pg. 49]
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NCERT Maps Solutions 71
7. The osmotic pressure associated with the 12. The mole fraction of benzene in solution 17. The osmotic pressure (in atm) of a solution
fluid inside the blood cell is equivalent to that containing 30% by mass in carbon containing 5.55 g of NaCl in 1 L of aqueous
of _______ (mass/volume) sodium chloride tetrachloride is _______. [NCERT Pg. 39]
solution at 300 K will be _______.
solution. [NCERT Pg. 56]
13. Molarity is a function of temperature
because _______ depends on temperature. [NCERT Pg. 55]
8. The concentration of pollutants in water is
often expressed in terms of _______. [NCERT Pg. 39] 18. The mass percentage of benzene in mixture
[NCERT Pg. 37] 14. Raoult's law becomes a special case of of 22 g benzene and 122 g of carbon
Henry's law in which KH becomes equal to tetrachloride is _______. [NCERT Pg. 39]
9. _______ does not have any significant _______. [NCERT Pg. 46]
effect on solubility of solids in liquids. 19. A solution will freeze when its vapour
15. The enthalpy change of mixing of the pure
[NCERT Pg. 40]
components to form a ideal solution is pressure equals the vapour pressure of the
10. The tanks used by scuba divers are filled _______. [NCERT Pg. 47] pure _______. [NCERT Pg. 52]
with air diluted with _______ to avoid bends.
16. The boiling point (in Kelvin) of solution 20. The flow of solvent from dilute solution to the
[NCERT Pg. 43]
containing 6 g urea in 1 kg of water concentrated solution across a
11. The type of intermolecular attractive
(Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1) will be semipermeable membrane is due to
interactions among I2 and CCl4 are
_______. [NCERT Pg. 63] [NCERT Pg. 51] _______. [NCERT Pg. 55]
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Electrochemistry
3
Chapter
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NCERT Maps Electrochemistry 73
13 CORROSION
O2 + Fe2+ 4H+(aq) + O2
m It slowly coats the surfaces of metallic objects with oxides or other salts of metal.
Fe2+ Fe2+ 2H2O
m Corrosion of iron is called rusting. It is an electrochemical phenomenon. Fe2O3
Fe Fe
m Rust is Fe2O3 · xH2O.
4e–
m Prevention of rusting can be done by 2e– 2e–
(i) Covering the surface with paint or by chemicals (e.g. bisphenol) Oxidation : Fe(s) ® Fe2+(aq) + 2e–
(ii) Cover the surface by other metals (Sn, Zn etc.) Reduction : O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e– ® 2H2O(l)
Atmospheric oxidation : 2Fe2+(aq) + 2H2O(l) + 1/2O2(g) ® Fe2O3 + 4H+
(iii) Provide a sacrificial electrode of other metal (Mg, Zn etc.) Fig. Corrosion of iron in atmosphere
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74 Electrochemistry NCERT Maps
1. If an external opposite potential is applied to 4. The conductivity (κ) of an electrolyte (1) a and c only
Daniell cell (in standard state) the reaction solution depends on [NCERT Pg. 77] (2) b and d only
continues to take place till the opposite (1) The concentration of electrolyte (3) b and c only
voltage reaches the value of (2) Nature of solvent (4) a, b, c and d
[NCERT Pg. 66] (3) Temperature 7. For the electrode reaction
Mn+(aq.) + ne– → M(s),
(1) 1.1 V (2) 1.8 V (4) All of these
the Nernst equation is given by
5. Select the incorrect statement among the [NCERT Pg. 70]
(3) 2.1 V (4) 2.3 V
following [NCERT Pg. 70, 88, 93]
RT [M]
2. The cell potential is called emf of the cell (1) Electrochemical principles are relevant (1) E(Mn+ /M) =
E°(Mn+ /M) − log n+
nF [M ]
when [NCERT Pg. 68] to the hydrogen economy
RT [M]
(2) Corrosion of metals is an (2) E(Mn+ /M) =
E°(Mn+ /M) − ln
(1) Electrodes are in standard state nF [Mn+ ]
electrochemical phenomenon
(2) One ampere current is drawn through RT [M]
(3) Batteries are very useful forms of (3) E(Mn+ /M) =
E°(Mn+ /M) + ln n+
the cell nF [M ]
electrolytic cells
RT [M]
(3) No current is drawn through the cell (4) Electrochemical cells are used for (4) E(Mn+ /M) =
E°(Mn+ /M) + log n+
nF [M ]
determining solubility product
(4) Platinum electrodes are used in the cell
8. Incorrect relation among the following is
6. Select the correct statements among the
3. For the cell reaction : [NCERT Pg. 74]
following
(1) ∆rG = –2.303 RT log K
Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq.) → Cu2+(aq.) + 2Ag(s) (a) A negative E° means that the redox
[NCERT Pg. 68] couple is a stronger reducing agent than 2.303 RT
(2) E°cell = log K c
the H+/H2 couple nF
=
(1) Ecell E −E (b) F2 is strongest oxidising agent among
Cu2 + /Cu Ag+ / Ag (3) ∆rG° = –RT ln K
halogens
(4) ∆rG = –nFEcell
Ecell E
(2)= + −E 2+ (c) Among alkali metals lithium is the most
Ag / Ag Cu /Cu
powerful reducing agent in aqueous 9. The oxidation potential of hydrogen
solution electrode which is in contact with a solution
Ecell E
(3)= +E
Ag+ / Ag Cu2 + /Cu having pH = 10 is [NCERT Pg. 75]
(d) The potential of individual half-cell can
not be measured (1) 0.591 V (2) 0.295 V
=
(4) Ecell 2E + +E 2+
Ag / Ag Cu /Cu [NCERT Pg. 68, 70, 71] (3) 1.182 V (4) 0.886 V
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NCERT Maps Electrochemistry 75
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76 Electrochemistry NCERT Maps
1. The reversible work done by a galvanic cell 8. The slope of plot Λm vs C1/2 for strong 16. The amounts of different substances
is equal to decrease in its ________. electrolytes is equal to _______. liberated by the same quantity of electricity
[NCERT Pg. 74] [NCERT Pg. 81] passing through the electrolytic solution are
2. Ecell is an ________ parameter. 9. Prevention of corrosion can be done by proportional to their chemical _______.
covering the metal surface by chemicals [NCERT Pg. 85]
[NCERT Pg. 74]
_______. [NCERT Pg. 91]
17. At any concentration C, the degree of
3. The SI unit of resistivity is ________
– –
[NCERT Pg. 75] 10. Among OH , Cl , Na+
and K+
ions, the dissociation of a weak electrolyte is
limiting molar. Conductivity in water at 298 approximated to the ratio of its molar
4. Nowadays a number of ceramic materials K is maximum for _______.[NCERT Pg. 83] conductivity (Λm) to the its _______.
and mixed oxides show super conductivity
11. Standard hydrogen electrode is assigned a [NCERT Pg. 84]
at temperatures as high as ________.
________ potential at all temperatures.
[NCERT Pg. 76] 18. Fuel cells using the reaction of hydrogen
[NCERT Pg. 68]
5. The conductivity of electrolytic solution with oxygen to form water used for providing
12. The cell potential of mercury cell is
________ with the increase of temperature. electrical power in the ________ space
approximately _______. [NCERT Pg. 89]
programme. [NCERT Pg. 90]
[NCERT Pg. 77] 13. The number of Faraday needed to reduce 1
2− 19. The molar conductivity (in S cm2 mol–1) of
6. The cell constant is usually determined by mol of Cr2O7 into Cr3+ is _______.
measuring the resistance of the cell 0.2 M solution of KCl at 298 K having
[NCERT Pg. 88] conductivity 0.0248 S cm–1 will be _______.
generally containing a solution of ________
whose conductivity is already known. 14. During the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl, on [NCERT Pg. 93]
account of _______ of oxygen, oxidation of
[NCERT Pg. 78] 20. On electrolysis of aqueous solution of
Cl– is preferred. [NCERT Pg. 87]
AgNO3 with silver electrodes, concentration
7. In a galvanic cell, anode has a ________ 15. During the electrolysis of high concentrated
potential with respect to the solution. of Ag+ _______ in the solution.
H2SO4, formation of _______ is preferred at
[NCERT Pg. 67] anode. [NCERT Pg. 88] [NCERT Pg. 94]
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4
Chemical Kinetics Chapter
1 RATE OF REACTION 5 INTEGRATED RATE EQUATION AND HALF LIFE 8 TEMPERATURE DEPENDENCE OF THE RATE OF
For a reaction, aA + bB ® xX + yY REACTION
m Zero order reaction:
-1 d[A] -1 d[B] 1 d[X] 1 d[Y] -d[R] m For a chemical reaction with rise in temperature by 10°,
rate = = = = Rate = = k[R]°
dt the rate of reaction is nearly doubled
a dt b dt x dt y dt -Ea
[R] = [R]0 – kt m Arrhenius equation : k = Ae RT
m Unit of rate of reaction : [R0]
–1 –1 [R]0 slope= – k Intercept = InA
[R]
(i) mol L s t1 =
2
2k
–1
Ink
(ii) atm s –Ea
[R]0 slope =
t100% = R
-D[R] - ([R2 ] - [R1] ) k
m Average rate = = 0 t
Dt t 2 - t1 First order reaction:
-d[R] 0 1/T
d[R] d[P]
m Instantaneous rate = - = Rate = = k[R]1
dt dt dt
æk ö Ea é T2 - T1 ù
In [R] = ln [R]0 – kt m log ç 2 ÷ = ê ú
2 ORDER è k1 ø 2.303 R ë T1T2 û
x y 2.303 [R]
log 0
log([R]0/[R])
m For a rate law equation : rate = k[A] [B] order of k= m The energy required to form the reaction intermediate,
t [R]
reaction = x + y slope = k called activated complex, is known as activation energy (Ea)
2.303 [R] 2.303
m Order of reaction can be 0, 1, 2, 3 and even a fraction. k= log 1 m Threshold energy = Activation energy
(t 2 - t1) [R]2
m Order of reaction is an experimental quantity. 0 t + energy possessed by
m Order is applicable to elementary as well as complex 0.693
t1 = reacting species.
reaction. k
2
-Ea
m For complex reaction, order is given by slowest step. th For biomolecular reaction. Rate = PZ e RT
m For n order reaction, t 1 µ [R0 ]1-n m
AB
3 MOLECULARITY 2
where, P is steric factor and ZAB is Collision frequency.
m It is the number of atoms, ions are molecules that must
6 PSEUDO FIRST ORDER REACTIONS
collide simultaneously with one another to result into a 9 EFFECT OF CATALYST
m Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in acidic medium
chemical reaction
m Inversion of cane sugar in acidic medium m Catalyst increases the rate of reaction by reducing the
m It cannot be zero or a non-integer activation energy of reaction.
7 ORDER OF SOME REACTIONS
m It is applicable only for elementary reactions
m A small amount of the catalyst can catalyse a large amount
Reaction Order
1130 K
of reactants
4 Reaction order Unit of rate constant 2NH3(g) Pt catalyst
N2(g) + 3H2(g) Zero
–1 –1 Gold surface
m A catalyst does not alter Gibbs energy, DG of a reaction.
Zero mol L s 2HI(g) D
H2(g) + I2(g) Zero
m Catalyst does not change the equilibrium constant of a
–1 Radioactive decay
First s First reaction
–1 –1 D 1
Second mol L s N2O5(g) 2NO2 + O2 First m A catalyst can catalyse the spontaneous reactions only.
2
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78 Chemical Kinetics NCERT Maps
1. Select the correct statement(s) among the 4. Activation energy is given by 7. For which reaction, the rate of reaction is
following [NCERT Pg.96] independent of the concentration of
[NCERT Pg.118]
reactant(s)? [NCERT Pg.105]
(1) By mixing of aq. AgNO3 and aq. NaCl,
(1) The energy difference between activated (1) Fractional order reaction
precipitation of AgCl occurs instantan-
complex and the energy of reactant
eously (2) Second order reaction
molecules
(2) Rusting of iron in presence of air and (3) Zero order reaction
(2) Always equal to energy of product
moisture is very slow process (4) First order reaction
molecules
(3) Hydrolysis of starch proceed with a 8. The overall order of a reaction which has the
(3) Always equal to energy of reactant
moderate speed 3 1
molecules rate expression, rate = k[A] 2 [B] 2 will be
(4) All of these
(4) Summation of threshold energy and [NCERT Pg.102]
2. The rate of reaction 5Br
−
(aq.) + BrO3− (aq.) energy of product molecules
(1) 1 (2) 0
+
+ 6H (aq.) → 3Br2 (aq.) + 3H2O( ) is given 5. The rate of a reaction can be increased by
(3) 2 (4) 1. 5
[NCERT Pg.118]
by [NCERT Pg.99] 9. For nth order reaction, unit of rate constant
(1) Increasing the temperature (k) is given by [NCERT Pg.103]
∆[Br − ] 1 ∆[Br2 ]
(1) − (2)
∆t 3 ∆t (2) Lowering the activation energy (1) (mol L–1)n–1 s–1
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NCERT Maps Chemical Kinetics 79
11. For a first order reaction, how much half lives 14. Select the correct statement(s) regarding 16. For a first order reaction (k = 6.93 s–1) the
are nearly required for 90% completion of catalyst among the following time required to reduce the initial
reaction? [NCERT Pg.106] concentration of the reactant to its 1/16th
[NCERT Pg.116]
value is [NCERT Pg.121]
(1) 2 a. A small amount of catalyst can catalyse
(1) 0.4 s (2) 0.2 s
(2) 6 a large amount of reactants.
(3) 0.1 s (4) 0.8 s
(3) 8 b. A catalyst does not alter Gibbs energy,
∆G of a reaction. 17. The activation energy (in kJ mol–1) of a
(4) 10 chemical reaction whose rate become
c. A catalyst can catalyse both doubles on increasing the temperature from
12. Consider the following statements spontaneous and non-spontaneous 298 K to 308 K will be [NCERT Pg.118]
a. Order of reaction is an experimental reactions.
(1) 46.21 (2) 61.28
quantity. d. A catalyst catalyses the forward reaction
to the more extent than a backward (3) 52.89 (4) 71.89
b. Order of reaction can be zero or fraction.
reaction. 18. The half life (in seconds) for a first order
c. Order is applicable to elementary as well reaction which takes 4 seconds for 30%
as complex reaction. (1) a and c only
completion is [NCERT Pg.121]
d. For complex reaction, molecularity of the (2) a and b only
(1) 6.65 (2) 5.45
slowest step is same as the order of the (3) c and d only
(3) 8.95 (4) 7.77
overall reaction. (4) b and d only
19. For a first order reaction A → products, k is
The correct statement(s) is/are 15. In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate 0.2303 s–1. If the initial concentration of A is
[NCERT Pg.104-105] of reaction (r0) was measured for different 1 M then concentration of A remaining after
initial concentrations of A and B as given 10 s will be [NCERT Pg.121]
(1) a, b and c only
below.
(1) 0.5 M (2) 0.1 M
(2) a and b only
A [M] B [M] R0 [Ms ]
–1
(3) 0.75 M (4) 0.3 M
(3) b and c only
0.2 0.3 5.07 × 10–5 20. Which among the following is not an
(4) a, b, c and d example of first order reaction?
0.2 0.1 5.07 × 10–5
13. For first order reaction, the slope of graph [NCERT Pg.104, 107, 108]
[R 0 ] 0.4 0.05 1.014 × 10–4
between log vs t is [NCERT Pg.107] (1) Decomposition of H2O2 in alkaline
[R] The overall order of the reaction is medium catalyzed by iodide ion.
2.303 k [NCERT Pg.120] (2) Hydrogenation of ethene
(1) (2)
k 2.303 (1) 1.5 (2) Zero (3) Decomposition of N2O5
(3) 2.303 k (4) k (3) 1 (4) 2 (4) Natural radioactive decay
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80 Chemical Kinetics NCERT Maps
1. Molecularity and order of an _____ reaction 9. In the Arrhenius equation, the factor _____ 15. The Ea (in kJ mol–1) for the decomposition of
are same. [NCERT Pg.118] corresponds to the fraction of molecules that hydrocarbon that follows the equation
2. _____ account the fact that in collision, have kinetic energy greater than Ea. −28000
molecules must be properly oriented. [NCERT Pg.114] k = (4.5 × 1011 s–1) e T(K)
is _____.
[NCERT Pg.117] 10. The slope of plot lnk vs 1/T is _____. [NCERT Pg.121]
3. For a reaction having rate constant [NCERT Pg.114] 16. The rate of reaction at a particular moment
k = 3 × 10–4 s–1, the reaction order will be
_____ [NCERT Pg.103] 11. According to collision theory, the number of of time is given by _____ rate.
collisions per second per unit volume of the
4. Reactions with the molecularity _____ are [NCERT Pg.98]
reaction mixture is known as _____.
very rare and slow to proceed.
[NCERT Pg.117] 17. For first order reaction t 1 is independent of
[NCERT Pg.104] 2
12. The collision in which molecules collide with
5. The decomposition of gaseous ammonia on _____ of reactant. [NCERT Pg.111]
a hot platinum surface is _____ order sufficient kinetic energy and proper
reaction at high pressure. [NCERT Pg.106] orientation so that products are formed 18. Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in acidic medium
known as _____ collisions.[NCERT Pg.117] is _____ order reaction. [NCERT Pg.112]
6. The half life of a first order reaction having
rate constant 200 s–1 will be _____ seconds. 13. For a first order reaction, the time required 19. The peak of the distribution curve showing
for 99% completion is _____ the time energies among gaseous molecules
[NCERT Pg.111]
required for the completion of 90% of
7. All natural and artificial radioactive decay of corresponds to _____ kinetic energy.
reaction. [NCERT Pg.121]
unstable nuclei take place by _____ order [NCERT Pg.113]
kinetics. [NCERT Pg.107] 14. For a second order reaction w.r.t. reactant,
the rate of reaction is _____ when the 20. The order of a reaction for which t 1 ∝ [R0 ] ,
8. For a chemical reaction with rise in
temperature by 10°, the rate constant is concentration of the reactant is doubled. 2
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Surface Chemistry
5
Chapter
1 ADSORPTION 3 CATALYSIS
m The accumulation of molecular species at the surface rather than in the bulk of a solid or liquid is termed adsorption. m Substance, which accelerate the rate of a chemical reaction and
m The molecular species or substance, which concentrates or accumulates at the surface is termed adsorbate and the themselves remain chemically and quantitatively unchanged after the
material on the surface of which the adsorption takes place is called adsorbent reaction, are known as catalyst
m In adsorbtion the concentration of the adsorbate increases only at the surface of the adsorbent, while in absorbtion m Promoters are substance that enhances the activity of catalyst
the concentration is uniform throughout the bulk of solid. m Poisons decrease the activity of a catalyst
Mechanism of adsorption m When the reactants, products and the catalyst are in same phase, the
m The extent of adsorption increases with the increase of surface area per unit mass of the adsorbent at a given process is said to be homogeneous catalysis
temperature and pressure. m The catalytic process in which the reactants and the catalyst are in
m Another important factor featuring adsorption is the heat of adsorption during adsorption, there is decrease in surface different phases is known as heterogeneous catalysis
energy which appears as heat therefore adsorption is an exothermic process. In other words, DH of adsorption is
always negative. When a gas is adsorbed, the freedom of movement of its molecules become restricted. This Adsorption of
reacting molecules A
amounts to decrease in the entropy of the gas after adsorption i.e., DS is negative for a process to be spontaneous, +A+B
DG must be negative at constant pressure and temperature. B
Reacting
m As the adsorption proceeds DH becomes less and less negative ultimately DH becomes equal to TDS and DG
molecules
becomes zero. At this state equilibrium is attained
Catalyst surface having Adsorption
Types of adsorption free valencies of reacting
molecules
Physisorption Chemisorption
1. It arises because of van der Waals’ forces. 1. It is caused by chemical bond formation. Desorption of
product molecules A
2. It is not specific in nature. 2. It is highly specific in nature. +A–B
3. It is reversible in nature. 3. It is irreversible. Product B
4. It depends on the nature of gas. More easily 4. It also depends on the nature of gas. Gases which
liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily. can react with the adsorbent show chemisorption.
–1 –1 Catalyst
5. Enthalpy of adsorption is low (20-40 kJ mol ) 5. Enthalpy of adsorption is high (80-240 kJ mol ).
6. Low temperature is favourable for adsorption. It 6. High temperature is favourable for adsorption. m The activity of a catalyst depends upon the strength of chemisorption to
decreases with increase of temperature. It increases with the increase of temperature. a large extent
7. No appreciable activation energy is needed. 7. High activation energy is sometimes needed. m The selectivity of a catalyst is its ability to direct a reaction to yield a
8. It depends on the surface area. It increases with 8. It also depends on the surface area. It too increases particular product selectively, when under the same reaction conditions
an increase of surface area. with an increase of surface area. many products are possible
9. It results into multimolecular layers on adsorbent 9. It results into unimolecular layer.
surface under high pressure. m The catalytic reaction that depends upon the pore structure of the
catalyst and the size of the reactant and product is called shape-
selective catalysis e.g. zeolites.
2 ADSORPTION ISOTHERMS (FREUNDLICH ADSORPTION ISOTHERM) m Numerous reactions that occur in bodies of animals and plants are
x catalysed by enzymes termed as biochemical catalyst
m
= kp1/n (n > 1) y
m m Characteristics of enzyme catalysis
1
x = mass of gas adsorbed, m = mass of adsorbent Slope = (i) Most highly efficient
p = pressure of gas, K, n = constants depend on nature of adsorbent and gas n
x (ii) Highly specific nature
at a particular temperature log
m (iii) Highly active under optimum temperature
m
x 1
log = log K + log P logk = intercept (iv) Highly active under optimum pH
m n
1 x (v) Increasing activity in presence of activators and co-enzymes.
lies between 0 to 1 (probable range 0.1 to 0.5) O log P
n (vi) Influence of inhibitors and poisons
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82 Surface Chemistry NCERT Maps
SOME ENZYMATIC REACTION (iii) Classification based on type of particles of dispersed phase
(a) Multimolecular colloids contains a large number of atoms or smaller molecules of a
Enzyme Source Enzymatic reaction substance aggregate together to form species having size in the colloidal range. e.g., Gold
Invertase Yeast Sucrose ® Glucose and fructose sol, sulphur sol
(b) Macromolecular colloids - Macromolecules in suitable solvents form solutions in which
Zymase Yeast Glucose ® Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
the size of the macromolecule may be in colloidal range e.g., starch, protein etc.
Diastase Malt Starch ® Maltose (c) Associated colloids (Micelles) : At low concentrations behave as normal strong
electrolyte, but at higher concentrations exhibit colloidal behaviour due to formation of
Maltase Yeast Maltose ® Glucose
aggregates (micelles) Micelles formation takes place above a particular temperature called
Urease Soyabean Urea ® Ammonia and carbon dioxide Kraft temperature (TK) and above a particular concentration called critical micelle
Pepsin Stomach Proteins ® Amino acids concentration (CMC) e.g. soaps and synthetic detergents
5 PREPARATION OF COLLOIDS
4 COLLOIDS
m Chemical methods
m A colloid is a Heterogeneous system in which one substance is dispersed Double decomposition
(dispersed phase) as very fine particles in another substance called dispersion As2O3 + 3H2S As2S3 (sol) + 3H2O
medium
Oxidation
m The range of diameters of colloidal particles is between 1 to 1000 nm SO2 + 2H2S 3S(sol) + 2H2O
m Classification of colloids
Reduction
(i) Classification based on physical state of dispersed phase and dispersion 2AuCl3 + 3HCHO + 3H2O 2Au(Sol) + 3HCOOH + 6HCl
medium
Hydrolysis
Dispersed Dispersion Type of FeCl3 + 3H2O Fe(OH)3 (sol) + 3HCl
Examples
phase medium colloid
m Electrical disintegration or Bredig’s Arc method - In this method, electric arc is struck between
Solid Solid Solid sol Some coloured glasses and gem stones electrodes of metal immersed in dispersion medium. The intense heat produced vapourises the
Solid Liquid Sol Paints, cell fluids metal, which then condenses to form particles of colloidal size. Colloidal sols of metals such as gold,
Solid Gas Aerosol Smoke, dust silver, platinum etc. can be prepared by this method.
Liquid Solid Gel Cheese, jellies
m Peptization - Process of converting a precipitate into colloidal sol by shaking it with dispersion
Liquid Liquid Emulsion Milk, hair cream, butter
medium in the presence of a small amount of electrolyte. The electrolyte used for this purpose is
Liquid Gas Aerosol Fog, mist, cloud, insecticide sprays
called peptizing agent
Gas Solid Solid sol Pumice stone, foam rubber
Gas Liquid Foam Froth, whipped cream, soap lather
6 PURIFICATION OF COLLOIDAL SOLUTIONS
(ii) Classification based on nature of interaction between dispersed phase The process used for reducing the amount of impurities to a requisite minimum is known as purification
and dispersion medium of colloidal solution.
(a) Lyophilic colloids directly formed by mixing substances like gum, m Dialysis : Process of removing a dissolved substance from a colloidal solution by means of
gelatin, starch, rubber etc with a suitable liquid. These sols are diffusion through a suitable membrane.
reversible in nature m Electro-dialysis : Ordinarily, the process of dialysis is quite slow. It can be made faster by applying
(b) Lyophobic colloids can be prepared only by special methods. These an electric field if the dissolved substance in the impure colloidal solution is only an electrolyte.
sols are readily coagulated on addition of small amount of electrolyte by m Ultrafiltration is the process of separating the colloidal particles from the solvent and soluble.
heating or by shaking and hence are not stable. These sols are solutes present in the colloidal solution by specially prepared filters which are permeable to all
irreversible in nature. substance except the colloidal particles.
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NCERT Maps Surface Chemistry 83
Hydrated metallic oxides, e.g., Al2O3.xH2O, Metals, e.g., copper, silver, gold sols. 8 EMULSIONS
CrO3.xH2O and Fe2O3.xH2O. etc. Metallic sulphides, e.g., As2S3, Sb2S3, CdS sols. These are liquid-liquid colloidal systems. These are of two types
Basic dye stuffs. e.g., methylene blue sol. Acid dye stuffs, e.g., eosin. congo red sols. m Oil dispersed in water (O/W type) e.g., : milk and vanishing cream.
Haemoglobin (blood) Sols of starch, gum, gelatin, clay, charcoal, etc. m Water dispersed in oil (W/O type) e.g., butter and cream
Oxides, e.g., TiO2 sol.
9 COLLOIDS AROUND US
m Zeta potential : The potential difference between the fixed layer and diffused layer of opposite
charges is called electrokinetic potential or zeta potential. m The styptic action of alum and ferric chloride solution is due to the coagulation of
m Electrophoresis : Movement of colloidal particles under an applied electric potential. blood forming a clot which stops further bleeding
m When electrophoresis i.e., movement of particles is prevented by some suitable means, it is m When river water meets the sea water, the electrolyte present in sea water
observed that the dispersion medium begins to move in an electric field. This phenomenon is coagulate the colloidal solution of day resulting in the deposition with the
termed electroosmosis. formation of delta.
m Coagulation or precipitation m Argyrol is a silver sol used as eye lotion.
The process of settling of colloidal particles. The coagulation of lyophobic sols can be carried out
m Colloidal antimony is used in curing kalaazar.
by
m Colloidal gold is used for intramuscular injection.
(a) Electrophoresis
(b) By mixing two oppositely charged sols m Milk of magnesia is used for stomach disorders.
(c) By boiling m Animal hides are colloidal in nature when soaked in tannin results in hardening of
(d) By persistent dialysis lather. This process is known as tanning. Chromium salts are also used in place of
(e) By addition of electrolytes tannin.
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84 Surface Chemistry NCERT Maps
1. Which of the following is not a characteristics 5. Enzyme used to convert cane sugar to 11. Gold sol can be prepared chemically by
of chemisorption? [NCERT Pg. 126] glucose and fructose is [NCERT Pg. 133] [NCERT Pg. 139]
(1) High specificity (1) Invertase (2) Zymase (1) Double decomposition
(3) Diastase (4) Maltase
(2) High enthalpy of adsorption (2) Oxidation
6. The range of diameter of colloidal particles
(3) Reversible in nature (3) Reduction
is [NCERT Pg. 136]
(4) Results into unimolecular layer (1) 1 to 10 nm (2) 1 to 100 nm (4) Hydrolysis
(1) −COO −
(2) −SO3− (3) Long chain alcohols
C6H12O6 (aq) + C6H12O6 (aq)
(3) −NH− (4) −O− (4) Heavy metal salts of fatty acids
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NCERT Maps Surface Chemistry 85
16. Coagulation of lyophobic sols can be carried (1) Dialysis (2) Electro-dialysis 19. Optimum pH range for enzyme catalyzed
out by [NCERT Pg. 144] (3) Ultrafiltration (4) Electrophoresis reaction is [NCERT Pg. 134]
(1) Persistent dialysis 18. The accumulation of molecular species at (1) 1-2 (2) 4-6
(2) Mixing two oppositely charged sols the surface rather than in the bulk of a solid (3) 5-7 (4) 8-9
(3) Addition of electrolytes or liquid is known as [NCERT Pg. 124] 20. According to the classification based on
(4) All of these (1) Absorption physical states of dispersed phase and
(2) Adsorption dispersion medium, the types of colloids
17. Which of the following is not a method of
possible are [NCERT Pg. 136]
purification of colloidal solution ? (3) Sorption
(1) 9 (2) 8
[NCERT Pg. 140] (4) Desorption
(3) 7 (4) 6
1. Adsorption is accompanied by decrease in 8. An ultra-filter paper may be prepared by 14. If dispersion medium is alcohol then sol is
_____ as well as _______ of the system soaking the filter paper in the _______ called ______. [NCERT Pg. 137]
[NCERT Pg. 123] solution [NCERT Pg. 141] 15. Gold sol or Sulphur sols are example of
2. The extent of adsorption _____ with the 9. The potential difference between the fixed _______ colloids [NCERT Pg. 137]
increase of surface area of the adsorbent. layer and the diffused layer of opposite 16. In Bredig’s Arc method ______ sols are
[NCERT Pg. 125] charges is called ______ [NCERT Pg. 143] prepared. [NCERT Pg. 139]
3. Physisorption arises because of ________. 10. The minimum concentration of an 17. ______ effect is due to the fact that colloidal
[NCERT Pg. 126] electrolyte in millimoles per litre required to particles scatter light in all direction in space
4. Silica gels are used as adsorbents for cause precipitation of a sol in two hours is [NCERT Pg. 141]
removing _______. [NCERT Pg. 128] called ______. [NCERT Pg. 144] 18. When highly diluted solution of AgNO3 is
5. In Haber’s process, ______ acts as a 11. During adsorption, there is always a _____ added to highly diluted KI solution, _______
promoter for iron as catalyst in residual forces of the surface charged colloidal sol is formed
[NCERT Pg. 130] [NCERT Pg. 125] [NCERT Pg. 143]
6. Zeolites are ______ catalysts 12. Low temperature is favourable for _______ 19. In butter oil act as ________
[NCERT Pg. 132] adsorption [NCERT Pg. 127] [NCERT Pg. 145]
7. In foam, dispersed phase is ________ 13. _______ converts alcohols directly into 20. For soaps the CMC is ________ mol L–1
gasoline [NCERT Pg. 133]
[NCERT Pg. 136] [NCERT Pg. 138]
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General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
(i) Concentration or dressing of ore 2Na[Al(OH)4](aq.) + CO2(g) ® Al2O3.xH2O(s) + as reducing agent at high temperature. The
(ii) Isolation of crude metal 2NaHCO3(aq.) process in general known as pyrometallurgy
(iii) Purification or refining of metal 1470 K
Al2O3 . xH2O(s) Al2O3(s) + xH2O(g) MxOy + yC ® xM + yCO
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NCERT Maps General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 87
5 THERMODYNAMIC PRINCIPLES OF METALLURY 7 EXTRACTION OF COPPER FROM CUPROUS OXIDE 8 HALL-HEROULT PROCESS
m For considering the choice of reducing agent in reduction of m The sulphide ores containing iron are roasted/smelted to Purified Al2O3 is mixed with Na3AlF6 (Cryolite) and CaF2
oxide, Elligham Diagram is used. give oxide (fluorspar) to lower the melting point of the mixture and to
m Ellingham diagram consists of plots of DfG° vs T for the 2Cu2S + 3O2 ® 2Cu2O + 2SO2 increase conductivity
formation of oxides of metals and reducing agents. m The oxide is reduced to copper using coke 2Al2O3 + 3C ® 4Al + 3CO2
eg: 2x M(s) + O2(g) ® 2MxO(s) Cu2O + C ® 2Cu + CO m Steel vessel with lining of carbon acts as cathode and
m The ore is heated in a reverberatory furnace after mixing graphite is acts as anode.
m The difference in the two DrG° values determines whether
reduction of the oxide of the element of the upper line is with silica, where iron oxide "slags of" as iron silicate
feasible by the element of which oxide formation is FeO + SiO2 ® FeSiO3(slag) 9 REFINING
represented by the lower line. If the difference is large, the The process of purifying impure metals is called refining.
m Copper is produced as copper matte containing Cu2S and
reduction is easier. (i) Distillation: It is used for those metals which are
FeS, which is then charged into silica lined convertor in
presence of hot air blast. volatile. The impure metal is heated and the vapours are
2O 2 SiO separately condensed in receiver. It is used for
FeS ¾¾¾ ® FeO ¾¾¾
® FeSiO3
–SO 2 purification of Zn, Hg etc.
Cu2S ¾¾¾
O
2
® Cu2O ¾¾¾2 Cu O
® Cu(blister copper) (ii) Liquation: When impurities are less fusible than the
–SO –SO
2 2 metal itself then this process is used. The impure metal
such as Sn is purified by liquation.
BLAST (iii) Electrolytic refining: Metal like Cu are purified by this
FURNACE
method. The impure metal is made the anode and a strip
of a pure metal is made as cathode while the electrolytic
solution consists of solution of a suitable salt of metal.
(iv) Zone refining: It is based on the concept that impurities
are more soluble in melt than in the solid state of the
metal. This method is useful for Ge, Si, B for obtaining
highly pure metals.
(vi) Vapour phase refining:
330 - 350 K
(a) Mond process: Ni + 4CO ¾¾¾¾¾
® Ni(CO)4 ()
6 EXTRACTION OF IRON FROM ITS OXIDE 450 - 470 K
Ni(CO)4 ¾¾¾¾¾
® Ni + 4CO
Reduction of oxides of iron (Fe2O3, Fe3O4) is done in blast
(b) Van Arkel method: (for Zr/Ti)
furnace.
1800 K
m Iron obtained from blast furnace contains 4% carbon, Zr + 2I2 ® ZrI4 ¾¾¾® Zr + 2I2
(volatile)
known as pig iron.
(vii) Chromatographic Methods: Column chromatography
m Cast iron is obtained by melting pig iron with scrap iron and
is used for purification of elements which are available in
coke using hot air blast. It contains about 3% carbon.
minute quantities and impurities are not very different in
m Wrought iron is the purest form of commercial iron and
prepared in a reverberatory furnace lined with haematite. the chemical properties from the element to be purified.
USES OF m Zn is used for galvanising iron. m Al is used in extraction of Cr and Mn from their oxides. m Wrought iron is used making anchors, wires, bolts.
10
METALS m Zn in Alloys (Brass : Cu + Zn, german silver: Cu + Zn + Ni). m Cu is used for making wires used in electrical industry m Chrome steel is used for cutting tools.
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88 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements NCERT Maps
1. Leaching is a process of [NCERT Pg. 154] 5. Cyanide process of leaching is used for 10. The impurities present in the mineral is
(1) Oxidation (2) Reduction which of the following metals? called [NCERT Pg. 153]
(4) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 7. Extraction of aluminium is usually carried out 12. In case of an ore containing ZnS and PbS,
from its bauxite ore by leaching it with the depressant used is [NCERT Pg. 154]
3. For which reaction ∆G° Vs temperature plot
[NCERT Pg. 154] (1) KOH (2) MgCl2
in the Ellingham diagram has negative slope
[NCERT Pg. 157] (1) NaCl (2) NaCN (3) NaCN (4) CsCN
1 (3) Na2SO4 (4) NaOH 13. Mond process is used for the refining of
(1) CO(g) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)
2 [NCERT Pg. 165]
8. The percentage of Zn in german silver is
1 about [NCERT Pg. 166] (1) Zirconium
(2) C(s) + O2 (g) → CO(g)
2
(1) 25 - 30% (2) 40 – 50% (2) Titanium
1
(3) Mg(s) + O2 (g) → MgO(s) (3) 15 – 25% (4) 60 – 80% (3) Cobalt
2
9. Which of the following is not used as (4) Nickel
1 collectors in froth floatation method?
(4) 2Ag(s) + O2 (g) → Ag2O(s) 14. The function of flux during the smelting of the
2
[NCERT Pg. 154] ore is [NCERT Pg. 156]
4. Among the following which ore is
(1) Pine oils (1) To remove impurities
concentrated by froth floatation process?
[NCERT Pg. 154] (2) Aniline (2) To make ore porous
(1) Cassiterite (2) Bauxite (3) Fatty acids (3) To reduce the melting point of ore
(3) Zincite (4) Cinnabar (4) Xanthates (4) To make the reduction of ore easy
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NCERT Maps General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 89
15. In the equation, 4M + 8CN– + 2H2O + O2 → 17. At which temperature carbon monoxide is 19. The impure copper obtained in the
4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH–, the metal M is used as reducing agent to reduce iron oxide Bessemer process is called
in blast furnace? [NCERT Pg. 157]
[NCERT Pg. 155] [NCERT Pg. 162]
(1) 1500 K (2) 300 K
(1) Cu (2) Zn
(1) Blister copper
(3) 1073 K (4) 2170 K
(3) Fe (4) Au
(2) Copper pyrites
18. The correct statement(s) regarding Hall-
16. Select the correct statement(s) among a, b,
Heroult process is/are [NCERT Pg. 163] (3) Copper spelter
c and d for roasting process
[NCERT Pg. 155,156] (1) Fluorspar is added to decrease the
(4) Glitter copper
melting points of Alumina
a. Sulphide ores converted into oxide ores 20. The process used for refining of low boiling
(2) Cryolite is added to increase the
b. Ore is heated in a regular supply of air conductivity of non-conducting molten metals is [NCERT Pg. 164]
c. Removes sulphur impurity as volatile mass (1) Zone refining
oxides (3) The surface of molten electrolyte is
(2) Distillation process
d. Solid ore converts into molten ore covered with coke to prevent the
oxidation of Al so formed (3) Electrolytic refining
(1) a, b and d only (2) a, b and c only
(4) All of these (4) Liquation process
(3) b, c and d only (4) a, b, c and d
1. _______ is the third most abundant element 4. Froth floatation method is used for removing 8. Copper matte contains Cu2S and _______.
in earth's crust. (By weight) gangue from _______ ores. [NCERT Pg. 156]
[NCERT Pg. 154] 9. _______ diagram helps us in predicting the
[NCERT Pg. 152]
5. Bauxite is a principle ore of _______. feasibility of thermal reduction of ore.
2. Removal of unwanted materials from the ore [NCERT Pg. 154] [NCERT Pg. 157]
is known as concentration, dressing or 6. In the metallurgy of gold, the gold is leached 10. At 500 – 800 K in blast furnace, Fe2O3 is first
_______ of ore. [NCERT Pg. 153] with a dilute solution of NaCN in the reduced to _______ and then _______.
presence of _______. [NCERT Pg. 155] [NCERT Pg. 160]
3. Hydraulic washing method is based on the
7. Usually sulphides ores, converted into 11. The iron obtained from blast furnace
difference between _______ of the ore and _______ ores before reduction. contains about _______ % carbon.
the gangue particles [NCERT Pg. 153] [NCERT Pg. 155] [NCERT Pg. 161]
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90 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements NCERT Maps
12. The reduction of Zinc oxide is done by using 15. In Mond process for refining Nickel, the 18. In electrolytic refining method, the impure
_______. [NCERT Pg. 162] metal is heated in a stream of _______. metal is made to act as _______.
[NCERT Pg. 165]
13. Copper is extracted by _______ from low [NCERT Pg. 164]
16. _______ is used for making wires used in
grade ores. [NCERT Pg. 163]
electrical industry and for water and steam 19. _______ is the purest form of commercial
14. Zone refining method is based on the pipes. [NCERT Pg. 166]
iron. [NCERT Pg. 161]
principle that the impurities are _______ 17. In _______ method, a low melting metal like
soluble in the melt that in solid state of tin can be made to flow on a sloping surface. 20. Cresols act as _______ in froth floatation
metal. [NCERT Pg. 165] [NCERT Pg. 164] method. [NCERT Pg. 154]
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The p-Block Elements
7
Chapter
1 GROUP 15 ELEMENTS 13. All oxidation states +1 to +4 for nitrogen tend to 21. Preparation of ammonia
disproportionate in acid solution. (i) NH2CONH2 + 2H2O (NH4 )2 CO3 ƒ 2NH3 + H2O + CO2
+3 +5 +2
1. Pnictogens: N, P, As, Sb, Bi, Uup (ii) 2NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2 2NH3 + 2H2O + CaCl2
3H N O2 HNO3 + H2O + 2NO
non-metals Metalloids metals 14. Anomalous behaviour of nitrogen is due to its (iii) Haber’s process: N2(g) + 3H2(g) ƒ 2NH3(g), DH < 0
2. Physical properties: (i) small size 22. NH3 behave as a lewis base
(ii) High electronegativity 2+ 2+
l Covalent radii : N < P < As < Sb < Bi Cu (aq) + 4NH3 (aq) ¾® [Cu(NH3)4 ] (aq)
(iii) High ionization enthalpy (blue) (deep blue)
l Ionisation enthalpy : N > P > As > Sb > Bi (iv) Non-availability of d-orbitals
AgCl(s) + 2NH3 (aq) ¾® [Ag(NH3)2 ] Cl (aq)
l Electronegativity: N > P > As > Sb = Bi 15. All elements of this group form hydrides of type MH3 (white ppt) (colourless)
3. Nitrogen is a gas, which all remaining elements are (i) Melting point: NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 23. Oxides of nitrogen:
solids. (ii) Boiling Point: BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 N 2O
D
Neutral NH4NO3 N2O + 2H2O
4. Nitrogen is a diatomic molecule with very large bond (iii) Bond angle: NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
–1 (iv) Bond enthalpy: NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 NO Neutral 2NaNO2 + 2FeSO 4 + 3H2SO 4
enthalpy (941.4 kJ mol )
(v) Basicity: NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 ³ BiH3 Fe2 (SO 4 )3 + 2NaHSO 4 + 2H2O + 2NO
5. The boiling points, in general increase from top to
16. All elements of this group form two types of oxides:
bottom in the group but melting points increases upto 250 K
N2O3 Acidic 2NO + N2O4 2N2O3
E2O3 and E2O5
arsenic and then decreases upto bismuth.
N2O3, P2O3, As2O3, Sb2O3, Bi2O3 NO2 Acidic 2Pb(NO3 )2 673 K 4NO2 + 2PbO + O2
6. Only nitrogen in this group is capable of forming
pp–pp multiple bonds within itself and with carbon, Acidic Amphoteric Basic Cool
N2O4 Acidic 2NO 2 N2O4
oxygen etc, due to small size. Phosphorus and other 17. Except nitrogen, the rest of the elements form two type of Heat
elements do not form pp–pp multiple bonds. halides : EX3 and EX5. Nitrogen does not form pentahalide N2O5 Acidic 4HNO3 + P4O10 4HPO3 + 2N2O5
due to absence of d-orbitals. Among trihalides of nitrogen
Phosphorous and arsenic can form dp–dp bond. 24. Preparation of nitric acid on large scale is done by
7. Except nitrogen, all elements show allotropy only NF3 is stable. Ostwald’s process.
18. Preparation of Dinitrogen Pt/Rh gauge catalyst
8. Single N–N bond is weaker than single P-P bond. 4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
500 K, 9 bar
9. Maximum covalency of N and P are 4 and 6 (i) NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2 (aq) N2 (g) + 2H2O(l ) + NaCl(aq) (from air )
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92 The p-Block Elements NCERT Maps
26. Brown ring test: 31. Oxoacids of phosphorus: 6. Anomalous behaviour of oxygen is due to its
NO3– + 3Fe2 + + 4H+ NO + 3Fe3 + + 2H2O Characteristic (i) Small size
2+ 2+ Name Formula bonds and (ii) High electronegativity
[Fe(H2O) 6 ] + NO [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)] + H2O
(brown ring)
their number
(iii) Absence of d-orbitals
27. Phosphorus exists in a number of allotropic forms. Hypophosphorous H3PO2 One P – OH
(i) White phosphorus : It is less stable and therefore (Phosphinic) Two P – H 7. All the elements of group-16 form hydrides of type H2E
more reactive than the other solid phases under normal One P = O (i) Melting point : H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
Orthophosphorous H3PO3 Two P – OH
conditions (bond angle 60°), poisonous, soluble in CS2 (Phosphonic) (ii) Boiling point : H2O > H2Te > H2Se > H2S
One P – H
and glows in dark (Chemiluminescence). One P = O (iii) Acidic nature : H2Te > H2Se > H2S > H2O
Pyrophosphorous H4P2O5 Two P – OH
P 8. S, Se, Te and Po form oxides of type EO2 and EO3, all are
Two P – H
60°
Two P = O acidic in nature.
P P
Hypophosphoric H4P2O6 Four P – OH 9. These elements form halides of type EX6, EX4 and EX2.
P
Two P = O – – – –
Fig. White phosphorus One P – P (i) Stability order of halides : F > CI > Br > I
(ii) Red phosphorus : Non-poisonous and insoluble in Orthophosphoric H3PO4 Three P – OH (ii) SF6 is exceptionally stable
CS2. It is polymeric and less reactive than white One P = O
(iii) All elements except oxygen form dichlorides and
phosphorous. Pyrophosphoric H4P2O7 Four P – OH
dibromides
Two P = O
One P – O – P (iv) Dimeric halides undergo disproportionation
P P P
Cyclotrimetaphosphoric (HPO3)3 Three P – OH 2Se2Cl2 ¾® SeCl4 + 3Se
P P P P P P Three P = O 10. Preparation of dioxygen
Three P – O – P
P P P D
D (i) 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
Fig. Red phosphorus 32. (i) 4H3PO3 3H3PO4 + PH3 MnO2
(iii) Black phosphorus : It has two forms a and b-
(ii) 4AgNO3 + 2H2O + H3PO2 ® 4 Ag + 4HNO3 + H3PO4 D
phosphorus. (ii) 2Ag2O 4Ag + O2
28. Preparation of phosphine: 2 GROUP 16 ELEMENTS 11. Hydrazines with liquid oxygen is used as fuel in rockets.
(i) Ca3P2 + 6H2O 3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3
1. Chalcogens : O, S, Se, Te, Po, Lv 12. (i) Mixed oxide : Pb3O4, Fe3O4, Mn3O4
(ii) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O PH3 + 3NaH2PO2 (ii) Simple oxides:
non-metals metalloid Metal
29. PH3 becomes inflammable due to presence of P2H4 and (a) Acidic oxide : SO2, Cl2O7, N2O5
2. (–DegH) : S > Se > Te > Po > O.
P4 vapours. Spontaneous combustion of phosphine is (b) Basic oxide : CaO, Na2O
3. Oxygen (O2) is a gas whereas sulphur (S8) exist as solid.
technically used in Holme’s Signals. (c) Amphoteric oxide : Al2O3
4. Oxygen shows generally negative oxidation state - 2.
30. Preparation of PCl5:
5. The stability of +6 oxidation state decreases down the (d) Neutral oxide :CO, NO, N2O
(i) P4 + 10Cl2 4PCl5 group and stability of +4 oxidation state increases due to 13. Ozone is allotropic form of oxygen and prepared by
(ii) P4 + 10SO2Cl2 4PCl5 + 10SO2 inert pair effect. passing silent electric discharge through dry oxygen.
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NCERT Maps The p-Block Elements 93
(v) Colour : F2 , Cl2 , Br2 , I2 (ii) These are more reactive than Halogen except F2 advertisement display
Yellow Greenish Re d Violet
yellow (iii) CIF + H2O ¾® HF + HOCl 10. Ar is used to provide an inert atmosphere in arc welding.
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94 The p-Block Elements NCERT Maps
1. Rhombic Sulphur transforms to monoclinic (3) Dissociation enthalpy : HF > HCl > HBr 13. Select the incorrect statement among the
Sulphur when heated above > HI following regarding oxoacids of
[NCERT Pg. 192] phosphorous [NCERT Pg. 184]
(4) Melting point : HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(1) 369 K (2) 350 K (1) H4P2O5 contains one P–P bond
[NCERT Pg. 201]
(3) 450 K (4) 569 K (2) H4P2O6 contains one P–P bond
8. I2O5 is used in the estimation of
2. SO2 reacts with Cl2 in the presence of (3) (HPO3)3 contains three P–O–P bonds
[NCERT Pg. 201]
charcoal catalyst to give [NCERT Pg. 194] (4) H3PO4 contains one P = O bond
(1) CO2 (2) NO
(1) SOCl2 (2) S2Cl2
14. Which of the following species is not
(3) SO2Cl2 (4) S (3) CO (4) Xe obtained by the thermal decomposition of
3. Peroxide bond is present in 9. The correct composition of bleaching ammonium dichromate? [NCERT Pg. 174]
powder is [NCERT Pg. 203] (1) O2 (2) H2O
[NCERT Pg. 194]
(1) H2S2O7 (2) H2S2O8 (1) Ca(OCl)2·CaCl2·Ca(OH)2·2H2O (3) Cr2O3 (4) N2
(3) H2S2O5 (4) H2S2O6 (2) Ca(OCl)2·CaCl2·Ca(OH)2·H2O 15. The favorable conditions for the formation of
4. Catalyst used in contact process during the (3) Ca(OCl)2·CaCl2·2H2O ammonia in Haber’s process is
manufacture of sulphuric acid is (4) CaCl2·Ca(OH)2·2H2O [NCERT Pg. 176]
[NCERT Pg. 195] 10. Cl2 on reaction with hot and concentrated (1) High pressure and optimum temperature
(1) Pt (2) NO NaOH forms [NCERT Pg. 203] (2) High pressure and high temperature
(3) Fe2O3 (4) V2O5 (1) NaCl and NaClO4 more than 700 K
5. Due to low volatility of sulphuric acid it can (2) NaClO3 and NaClO4 (3) Low pressure and optimum temperature
be used to manufacture [NCERT Pg. 196] (4) Low pressure and high temperature
(3) NaCl and NaClO
(1) HF (2) HCl 16. N–O–N bond is present in [NCERT Pg. 178]
(4) NaCl and NaClO3
(3) HNO3 (4) All of these (1) N2O (2) N2O5
11. Interhalogen compounds are more reactive
6. Which halide ion can be oxidized by oxygen
than halogens except [NCERT Pg. 207] (3) N2O3 (4) N2O4
in acidic medium? [NCERT Pg. 200]
(1) I2 (2) F2 17. The correct order against the indicated
(1) F– (2) I–
property is [NCERT Pg. 173]
(3) Cl– (4) Br– (3) Br2 (4) Cl2
(1) Melting pont : SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
7. Select the correct order against the indicated 12. Which of the following is not obtain by the
Property hydrolysis of XeF2? [NCERT Pg. 210] (2) Boiling point : SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
(1) Boiling point : HF > HCl > HBr > HI (1) Xe (2) HF (3) Bond angle : PH3 > NH3 > SbH3 > AsH3
(2) Acidic nature : HF > HCl > HBr > HI (3) XeO3 (4) O2 (4) Bond energy : NH3 > PH3 > SbH3 > AsH3
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NCERT Maps The p-Block Elements 95
18. Ammonium nitrate on heating gives (1) Oxygen does not form dichlorides and 20. Incorrect statement regarding ozone is
[NCERT Pg. 177] dibromides [NCERT Pg. 191, 192]
(2) Dimeric chloride of selenium undergoes (1) Pure ozone is pale blue gas
(1) NO (2) N2O3 disproportionation into selenium and
selenium tetrachloride (2) It is thermodynamically unstable w.r.t
oxygen
(3) N2O (4) N2O5 (3) SF6 is exceptionally stable due to steric
reasons (3) It oxidises lead sulphide into lead sulphite
19. Incorrect statement among the following is (4) The stability of halides of 16th group (4) The oxygen-oxygen bond lengths in the
[NCERT Pg. 188, 189] decreases as : F– > Br– > Cl– > l– ozone molecule are identical.
1. Among group 15 elements, the number of 9. White phosphorus dissolves in boiling 15. CIF3 is used for the production of _____ in
metalloids element is _____. NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere giving the enrichment of 235U. [NCERT Pg. 207]
[NCERT Pg. 172] phosphine and _____. [NCERT Pg. 181]
16. First inert compound is formed by Neil
2. The formula of Indian Saltpetre is ______. 10. The spontaneous combustion of phosphine Bartlett by mixing Xenon and ____.
[NCERT Pg. 170] is technically used in ____ signals [NCERT Pg. 209]
3. Except ______, all the elements of group 15 [NCERT Pg. 182] 17. XeF6 can be prepared by the interaction of
show allotropy. [NCERT Pg. 172]
11. In gaseous PCl5, the axial P-Cl bonds are XeF4 and _____ at 143K.
4. The only well characterized Bi(V) compound _____ than equatorial bonds. [NCERT Pg. 210]
is ______. [NCERT Pg. 172]
[NCERT Pg. 183] 18. ____ is used in discharge tubes and
5. Nitrogen is restricted to a maximum
fluorescent bulbs for advertisement display
covalency of _____. [NCERT Pg. 172] 12. Among Halogens highest bond dissociation
purposes. [NCERT Pg. 211]
enthalpy is of ______. [NCERT Pg. 199]
6. Liquid ammonia is used as a _____.
19. Interhalogen compound XX′3 on hydrolysis
13. When three parts of concentrated HCl and
[NCERT Pg. 177] gives halide ion derived from the smaller
one part of concentrated HNO3 are mixed,
7. On large scale nitric acid is prepared mainly halogen and ____. [NCERT Pg. 207]
_____ is formed. [NCERT Pg. 204]
by ______ process. [NCERT Pg. 179] 20. An elevated temperature ( 1000K) ,
14. Interhalogen compounds are volatile solids
8. Zinc reacts with dilute nitric acid to give or liquids at 298 K except _____ which is a dominant form of Sulphur is _____ which is
_____ oxide. [NCERT Pg. 180] gas. [NCERT Pg. 207] paramagnetic in nature. [NCERT Pg. 193]
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8
The d- and f-Block Elements Chapter
st
1 d-BLOCK ELEMENTS 12. The 1 ionisation enthalpy in any d-series generally 25. Many Cu(I) compounds are unstable in aqueous solution
1. The d-block of the periodic table contains the elements of increases but the magnitude of increase in 2nd and 3rd and undergo disproportionation.
+ 2+
the group 3-12. ionisation enthalpies for the successive elements, is 2Cu ¾® Cu + Cu
2. Transition metals : Metals which have incomplete much higher along a series. 2+
26. The stability of Cu (aq) rather than Cu (aq.) is due to the
+
nd rd
d-subshell either in neutral atom or in their ions. 13. The trend of steady increase in 2 and 3 ionisation much more negative DHydH° of Cu (aq.) than Cu (aq),
2+ +
st
3. General electronic configurations energies for 1 transition series breaks for the formation which more than compensates for the second ionisation
1–10 1–2 2+ 3+ 5
(n –1)d ns , but this has several exceptions due to of Mn and Fe respectively as both ions have d enthalpy of Cu.
2–
very little energy difference between (n – 1)d and ns configuration. 27. Ferrates (FeO4) are formed in alkaline media but they
orbitals. 14. The three terms responsible for the value of ionisation readily decompose to Fe2O3 and O2.
4. There are mainly four series of the transition metals : 3d enthalpy are attraction of each electron towards nucleus,
28. The highest Mn fluoride is MnF4 whereas highest oxide is
series (Sc to Zn), 4d series (Y to Cd), 5d series (La and Hf repulsion between the electrons and the exchange
to Hg), and 6d series (Ac and Rf to Cn) energy. Mn2O7
+ +
5. Zn, Cd and Hg are not regarded as transition metals. 15. Ionisation energy of Mn is lower than Cr as there is no 29. Mn 2 O 7 is a covalent oxide in which each Mn is
6. With the exceptions of Zn, Cd, Hg and Mn, these have one 6
loss of exchange energy at d configuration. tetrahedrally surrounded by O’s including Mn–O–Mn
or more typical metallic structures at normal bridge.
16. Mn exhibits all the oxidation states from +2 to +7.
temperatures. 30. Order of oxidising power : VO2+ < Cr2O72– < MnO4–
17. Sc(II) virtually unknown.
7. With the exception of Zn, Cd, and Hg, these metals are 31. Ti & V, in practise, are passive to dilute non-oxidising acids
18. The only oxidation state of Zn is +2.
very hard and have low volatility. at room temperature.
19. In group-6, Mo(VI) and W(VI) are found to be more stable 3+ 2+ 3+ 3+
8. These elements have high melting and boiling point. In any 32. E°(M /M ) values shows that Mn and Co ions are
than Cr(VI)
row the melting points of these metals rise to a maximum at 2+ strongest oxidising agents in aqueous solutions among
5 20. Among 3d series elements, E°(M /M) is positive only for 3d series.
d except for anomalous values of Mn and Tc.
copper because high energy to transform Cu(s) to 2+ 2+ 2+
9. These metals have high enthalpy of atomisation due to 2+ 33. The ions Ti , V and Cu are strong reducing agents
nd rd Cu (aq.) is not balanced by its hydration enthalpy. Only
strong interatomic interactions. Metals of 2 and 3 oxidising acids (nitric and hot concentrated sulphuric) among 3d series and will liberate H2 from dilute acids.
series have more enthalpies of atomisation than the reacts with Cu. 34. Each unpaired electron has a magnetic moment
st
corresponding elements of 1 series due to much more 2+ associated with its spin angular momentum and orbital
21. Among 3d series, the value of E°(M /M) for Mn, Ni and Zn
frequent metal-metal bonding. angular momentum.
are more negative than excepted from the trend.
10. Tungsten (W) has highest melting point among d-block 35. For the compounds of first transition series metals,
22. In halides of 3d series, the highest oxidation numbers are
elements. magnetic moment is determined by 'spin only' formula :
achieved in TiX4, VF5 and CrF6.
11. The filling of 4f before 5d orbitals results in a regular m = n(n + 2) BM
+5
decrease in atomic radii called lanthanoid contraction. 23. V halide is represented only by VF5, the other Halides 36. The colour of some aquated transition metal ions :
nd rd 3+ 4+ 2+ 3+ 2+ 2+ 3+
The net result of it is that the 2 and 3 d-series exhibits undergo hydrolysis to give oxohalides VOX3. Sc , Ti , Zn : Colourless, V , Fe , Ni : Green , Fe :
similar radii (e.g. Zr and Hf). 24. Cu(II) halides are known except the iodide. Yellow, Mn : pink.
2+
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NCERT Maps The d- and f-Block Elements 97
37. These metals form a large number of complex 48. In acidic solution, K2Cr2O7 is used as oxidising agent as l The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii from La
compounds due to comparatively smaller sizes of the 2– + – 3+ to Lu due to poor shielding to 4f is known as
Cr2O + 14H + 6e ¾® 2Cr + 7H2O (E° = 1.33 V)
metal ions, their high ionic charges and the availability of 7
lanthanoid contractions
d-orbitals for the bond formation. 49. Preparation of KMnO4 l Most common oxidation state is +3
38. These metals and their compounds are used as a catalyst +
KOH H – l Pr, Nd, Tb and Dy also exhibit +4 oxidation state but
due to their ability to adopt multiple oxidation states and to (i) MnO2 K2MnO4 MnO + MnO2
4
O2
(Green) (Pink) only in oxides, MO2
form complexes.
2+ –
39. When small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside the (ii) Lab method : 2Mn + 5S2O8 + 8H2O ® 2MnO 2–
4 l Eu and Yb also exhibit +2 oxidation states.
crystal lattice of these metals, the combination are called 2– +
+ 10 SO 4 + 16 H l Their melting point range between 1000 to 1200 K but
interstitial compounds which are usually non-
Sm melts at 1623 K
stoichiometric. 50. KMnO4 decomposes at 513 K as :
3+
40. Due to similar radii, transition metals form alloy. D l Ln ions may be coloured due to presence of
2KMnO4 K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
eg. : Brass (Cu – Zn), Bronze (Cu – Sn). f-electrons
51. KMnO4 behaves as oxidising agent as :
41. Manganese (VI) becomes unstable relative to
l Lanthanoids form Ln(OH)3 which are basic like
– 2–
manganese (VII) and manganese (IV) in acidic solution l Basic medium : MnO4 + e– ¾® MnO4 alkaline earth metal hydroxides.
2– + –
3MnO4 + 4H ® 2MnO4 + MnO2 + 2H2O l Neutral/faintly alkaline medium : l Mischmetal is an alloy which consists lanthanoids
42. All 3d metals forms MO oxides except scandium. – + –
MnO + 4H + 3e ¾® MnO2 + 2H2O (~95%) and Iron (~5%)
4
43. Mn2O7 is acidic, Cr2O3 is amphoteric and CrO is basic in
l Acidic medium : 4. Actinoids
nature
0–14 0–1 2
– +
MnO + 8H + 5e ¾® Mn + 4H2O
– 2+ l Outer electronic configuration : 5f 6d 7s
44. Preparation of K2Cr2O7 : 4
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98 The d- and f-Block Elements NCERT Maps
1. Brass is an alloy of [NCERT Pg. 230] 6. Which among the following ions has a 11. The nature of Cr2+ and Mn3+ respectively are
(1) Zn and Sn (2) Cu and Zn magnetic moment of 5.92 BM? [NCERT Pg. 224]
(3) Cu and Sn (4) Zn and Ni [NCERT Pg. 228] (1) Oxidising and reducing
2. The most basic oxide among the following is (1) Zn2+ (2) V3+ (2) Oxidising and oxidising
[NCERT Pg. 231] (3) Fe2+ (4) Mn2+ (3) Reducing and reducing
(1) TiO (2) FeO 7. Most common oxidation state of lanthanoids
(4) Reducing and oxidizing
(3) CrO (4) VO is [NCERT Pg. 235]
12. The incorrect statement regarding interstitial
3. In alkaline medium MnO−4 oxidises I− into (1) +3 (2) +4
compounds is [NCERT Pg. 230]
[NCERT Pg. 234] (3) +2 (4) +5
(1) These are usually non stoichiometric
(1) IO−4 (2) IO2− 8. Which of the following options represents
the correct order of decreasing second (2) These have high melting points, higher
(3) I2 (4) IO3− ionization enthalpy for the given elements? than those of pure metals.
4. The correct order of ionic radii of [NCERT Pg. 220] (3) These are neither typically ionic nor
(1) Mn > Cr > Ti > V (2) Cr > Mn > V > Ti covalent
Eu3 + , La3 + and Y 3 + is [NCERT Pg. 236]
(3) Cr > Mn > Ti > V (4) V > Ti > Mn > Cr (4) These are chemically more reactive than
(1) Eu3 + > La3 + > Y 3 + pure metal
9. Mischmetal contains [NCERT Pg. 237]
(2) Y 3 + > Eu3 + > La3 + 13. Cu(II) halides are known except
(1) Actinoids ( 90%) and iron ( 10%)
(3) La3 + > Eu3 + > Y 3 + [NCERT Pg. 226]
(2) Lanthanoids ( 95%) and iron ( 5%)
(4) La3 + > Y 3 + > Eu3 + (1) Iodides
(3) Lanthanoids
5. To provide acidic medium during the (2) Bromides
( 90%) and calcium ( 10%)
oxidising reactions of KMnO4, H2SO4 is used
(3) Chlorides
instead of HCl. This is mainly because of (4) Actinoids ( 95%) and calcium ( 5%)
(4) Fluorides
[NCERT Pg. 234] 10. Among 3d series, the enthalpy of
(1) HCl is a monobasic acid atomization is lowest for [NCERT Pg. 220] 14. Which of the following elements is not
(1) Mn regarded as transition element?
(2) HCl is stronger acid than H2SO4
(2) Sc [NCERT Pg. 215]
(3) HCl is oxidized by KMnO4 to Cl2
(3) Zn (1) Cd (2) Mn
(4) Rate of reaction is slower in presence of
HCl (4) Cu (3) Os (4) Nb
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NCERT Maps The d- and f-Block Elements 99
15. The correct increasing order of oxidizing 17. Which of the following group elements are 19. Among 3d series elements first ionization
called coinage metals? [NCERT Pg. 239] energy is maximum for [NCERT Pg. 220]
power of MnO−4 , Cr2O72− and VO2+ is
(1) Group-10 (1) Cu (2) Mn
[NCERT Pg. 226]
(2) Group-12 (3) Zn (4) Ni
(1) VO2+ < MnO4− < Cr2O72−
(3) Group-11 20. Select the incorrect statement among the
(2) VO2+ < Cr2O72− < MnO4− following [NCERT Pg. 236,237,238]
(4) Group-9
(3) Cr2O72− < MnO−4 < VO2+ 18. Which of the following species is not (1) Mixed oxides of lanthanoids are used as
obtained when KMnO4 is decomposed at catalysts in petroleum cracking.
(4) MnO−4 < Cr2O72− < VO2+
513 K? [NCERT Pg. 233] (2) All actinoids are radioactive elements
16. Which of the following aquated transition (1) K2MnO4 (3) The melting point of samarium is 1623 K
metal ion is colourless? [NCERT Pg. 229]
(2) O2 (4) The actinoid contraction is lower from
(1) Cu2+ (2) Ti4+
(3) MnO element to element than the lanthanoid
(3) Mn3+ (4) Co2+ contraction.
(4) MnO2
1. The trend of steady increase in second 5. In aqueous solution, the colour of Fe3+ ion is 10. Manganese (II) ion salts are oxidised by
ionization enthalpy breaks for the formation ______. [NCERT Pg. 229] peroxodisulphate to ______.
of ______ along 3d series. [NCERT Pg. 233]
6. Iron (III) catalyses the reaction between
[NCERT Pg. 221] iodide and ______ ions. [NCERT Pg. 230] 11. The almost identical radii of Zr and ______is
a consequence of the lanthanoid
2. Manganese exhibits all the oxidation states 7. Bronze is an alloy of copper and ______. contraction. [NCERT Pg. 235]
from +2 to ______. [NCERT Pg. 223] [NCERT Pg. 230] 12. Pr, Nd, Tb and Dy also exhibit +4 oxidation
state but only in ______. [NCERT Pg. 235]
3. In 3d series, the E°(M2+/M) value for ______ 8. Among 3d series all the metals except
______ form MO oxides. [NCERT Pg. 231] 13. In General, in chemical behavior, the earlier
is positive. [NCERT Pg. 220]
members of the lanthanoid series are quite
4. The highest Mn fluoride is ______. 9. The formula of chromite ore is ______. reactive similar to ______.
[NCERT Pg. 226] [NCERT Pg. 231] [NCERT Pg. 236]
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100 The d- and f-Block Elements NCERT Maps
14. In general, actinoids show ______ oxidation 17. Sodium dichromate is ______ soluble than 19. For the compounds of the first series of
state. [NCERT Pg. 238] potassium dichromate. transition metals, the contribution of the
______ angular momentum is effectively
[NCERT Pg. 232]
15. ______ is manufactured specially for the quenched and hence is of no significance.
pigment industry. [NCERT Pg. 239] 18. For 3d series the value of E°(M2+/M) for Mn, [NCERT Pg. 228]
______ and Zn are more negative than 20. The dichromate ion consists of two
16. TiCl4 with ______ forms the basis of the
expected from the trend. tetrahedral sharing one corner with
Ziegler catalysts, used to manufacture Cr – O – Cr bond angle of ______.
polythene. [NCERT Pg. 240] [NCERT Pg. 227]
[NCERT Pg. 232]
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Coordination Compounds
9
Chapter
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102 Coordination Compounds NCERT Maps
3 x
2
D D
5 t 5 0
dxy, dyz, dxz
e Metal d orbitals t2g
d ,d
x2 - y 2 z2
d orbitals free ion Average energy of the Splitting of d orbitals d ,d dxy, dyz, dxz Average energy of the Splitting of d orbitals
x2 - y2 z2
d orbitals in spherical in tetrahedral crystal d orbitals in spherical in octahedral crystal
crystal field field Free metal ion crystal field field
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NCERT Maps Coordination Compounds 103
1. Double salts among the following is/are 6. Hybridization of central metal in complexes 10. The correct statement for crystal field
[NCERT Pg. 246] [Mn(CN)6]3–, [Fe(CN)6]3– and [Co(C2O4)3]3– splitting in tetrahedral coordination entities is
respectively are [NCERT Pg. 256] [NCERT Pg. 259]
(1) Carnallite
(1) d2sp3, d2sp3 and d2sp3 (1) The energies of dxy , dyz and dzx orbitals
(2) Mohr’s salt
(3) Potash alum (2) sp3d2, sp3d2 and sp3d2 are more than the average energy of d-
orbitals in spherical crystal field
(4) All of these (3) sp3d2, d2sp3 and sp3d2
(2) The orbital splitting energies are
2. The IUPAC name of [NiCl2(PPh3)2] is (4) sp3d2, sp3d2 and d2sp3
sufficiently large for forcing pairing of
[NCERT Pg. 249] 7. Amongst the following, the most stable electrons
(1) Dichloridodi(triphenylphosphine)nickel(II) complex is [NCERT Pg. 266] (3) Low spin configurations are commonly
(2) Dichloridobis(trisphenylphosphine)nickel(II) (1) [FeCl6]3– observed
(3) Dichloridobis(triphenylphosphine)nickel (II) (2) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (4) Tetrahedral complexes have centre of
symmetry
(4) Dichloridodi(trisphenylphosphine)nickel(II) (3) [Fe(C2O4)3]3–
11. The correct formula for tris(ethane-1,2-
3. The facial and meridional isomers are (4) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
diamine) cobalt (III) sulphate is
possible in [NCERT Pg. 252]
8. Which of the following complex absorb [NCERT Pg. 250]
(1) [CoCl2(en)2]+ (2) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
highest wavelength in the visible region?
(1) [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]SO4
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (4) [Co(en)3]3+
[NCERT Pg. 259]
(2) [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]3(SO4)2
4. Optical isomerism is shown by
(1) [Co(CN)6]3– (3) [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)2]3(SO4)2
[NCERT Pg. 252]
(2) [CoCl(NH3)5]2+ (4) [Co(H2NCH2CH2NH2)3]2(SO4)3
(1) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]+ (2) [Co(en)3]3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ 12. The correct order of increasing field strength
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(4) [Co(NH3)5(H2O)]3+ is [NCERT Pg. 258]
5. Select the incorrect statement regarding the
complex [Co(NH3)6]3+ [NCERT Pg. 255] 9. The number of unpaired electrons in [NiCl4]2– (1) H2O < F− < Cl− < Br −
(1) It is spin paired complex and [Ni(CO)4] respectively are
(2) Cl− < S2− < H2O < C2O24−
(2) Hybridisation of complex is d2sp3 [NCERT Pg. 255]
(3) H2O < NH3 < CO < en
(3) Geometry of complex is octahedral (1) 2 and 0 (2) 2 and 3
− −
(4) It is paramagnetic in nature (3) 2 and 4 (4) 0 and 2 (4) F < en < CN < CO
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104 Coordination Compounds NCERT Maps
13. For the same metal, same ligands and (3) [Ag(NH3)2]+ 19. The incorrect statement regarding crystal
metal-ligand distances, the correct relation is (4) [Ag(CN)2]– field theory is [NCERT Pg. 257]
[NCERT Pg. 259]
17. The hybridization and number of unpaired (1) It considered the metal-ligand bond to be
(1) 4∆t = 9∆0 (2) 2∆t = 7∆0
electrons in [Ni(CN)4]2– respectively are purely ionic
(3) 9∆t = 4∆0 (4) 3∆t = 5∆0
[NCERT Pg. 256] (2) The pattern of splitting depends upon the
14. Select the correct option(s) for Mn2(CO)10
(1) sp3, two (2) dsp2, zero nature of the crystal field
[NCERT Pg.261]
(3) dsp2, two (4) sp3, zero (3) The degeneracy of five d-orbitals is lifted
(1) It is named as decacarbonyldiman-
when negative field of ligands surrounds
ganese(0) 18. Select the incorrect statement regarding
the metal atom/ion
(2) It is made up of two square pyramidal metal carbonyls among the following
units of Mn(CO)5 [NCERT Pg. 262] (4) In octahedral complexes, the orbitals
(3) It contains Mn – Mn bond d and d will be lowered in
(1) Metal-carbon bond possesses both σ x2 − y2 z2
(4) All of these and π character energy relative to average energy in the
15. Hardness of water is estimated by simple spherical crystal field
(2) M – C σ bond is formed by the donation
titration with [NCERT Pg. 262]
of lone pair of electrons on the carbonyl 20. [Ag(NH3)2] [Ag(CN)2] is named as
(1) Na2EDTA (2) CaEDTA carbon into a vacant orbital of the metal
(3) MgEDTA (4) Urea [NCERT Pg. 250]
(3) M – C π-bond is formed by the donation
16. The complex ion formed due to dissolution of a pair of electrons from a filled d orbital (1) Diammine silver (I) dicyanido silverate (I)
of undecomposed AgBr in black and white of metal into vacant bonding π-orbital of (2) Diammine silver (I) dicyanidoargentate (I)
photography is [NCERT Pg. 263] CO
(3) Diammine silver (I) dicyanidoargentate (III)
(1) [Ag(S2O3)2]3– (4) The synergic bonding provides stability
(2) [Ag(SO4)2]3– to metal carbonyls (4) Diammine argentate (I) dicyanido silver (I)
1. The primary valence of binary compound 5. In the complex ion, [Fe(C2O4)3]3– the
3. Ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion (EDTA4–)
CrCl3 is _____ [NCERT Pg. 244] coordination number of Fe is _____
is an _____ ligand. [NCERT Pg. 247]
[NCERT Pg. 247]
2. Moles of AgCl precipitated per mole of
PtCl4⋅2HCl with excess AgNO3 is _____ 6. Complexes in which a metal is bound to only
4. SCN– is a _____ ligand because it has two
one kind of donor groups are known as
[NCERT Pg. 246] possible donor atoms. [NCERT Pg. 247] _____. [NCERT Pg. 248]
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NCERT Maps Coordination Compounds 105
7. Square planar complex MABXL (where, A, 11. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is _____ in colour 16. [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6]
B, X and L are unidentate ligands) shows [NCERT Pg. 259] are _____ isomers. [NCERT Pg. 253]
_____ geometrical isomers.
12. Ligands can be arranged in a series in the 17. The magnetic moment of coordination
[NCERT Pg. 251] order of increasing field strength which is compounds can be measured by the
8. The number of unpaired electrons in termed as _____ series. [NCERT Pg. 258] magnetic _____ experiments
[Pt(CN)4]2– is [NCERT Pg. 261] 13. Cis-platin effectively inhibit the growth of [NCERT Pg. 256]
9. In metal carbonyl, the metal to ligand _____ [NCERT Pg. 263]
18. [CoF6]3– is paramagnetic with _____
bonding creates a _____ effect which 14. The formula of coordination compound
unpaired electrons. [NCERT Pg. 256]
strengthens the bond between CO and the mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S-cobaltate (III)
metal [NCERT Pg. 262] is [NCERT Pg. 250] 19. Ligands for which ∆0 < P are known as
10. [(Ph3P)3RhCl] is known as _____, which is _____ field ligands. [NCERT Pg. 258]
15. Optical isomerism is common in octahedral
used for hydrogenation of alkenes. complexes involving _____ ligands. 20. In [PtCl2(en)2]+, only the _____ isomer
[NCERT Pg. 263] [NCERT Pg. 252] shows optical activity. [NCERT Pg. 252]
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10
Haloalkanes and Haloarenes Chapter
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NCERT Maps Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 107
l For a given alkyl group reactivity of halide follows Replacement by hydroxyl group
(d) Inversion, retention and recemisation l
same order in both the mechanisms
C2H5 C2H5 C2H5 Cl OH
R – I > R – Br > R — Cl >> R – F Y Y
H H H
Y (i) NaOH, 623K, 300 atm
(iii) Stereochemical aspects of nucleophilic (inversion) X Y (retention)
+
H3C CH3 CH3 (ii) H
substitution reaction :
B A
Some important concepts Y Presence of an electron with drawing group at o/p
(a) Optical activity : positions increases the reactivity of haloarenes
A + B
The compounds which rotate plane polarised 50% 50% Cl OH
(racemisation)
light are optically active (I) NaOH, 443 K
l If a compound rotates plane polarised light in (B) Elimination reactions +
(ii) H
clockwise direction. It is called dextrorotatory Br
Alc. Alc. NO2 NO2
and if it rotates in anti clock wise direction it is Hofmann
KOH/D KOH/D Minor
Major product (B) Electrophilic substitution reactions :
called laevorotatory.
(b) Molecular asymmetry, Chirality and enantiomers: Saytzeff product Haloarenes undergo electrophilic reactions of the
l If the spatial arrangment of four different groups benzene ring such as halogenation, nitration,
(C) Reaction with metal
around the central carbon is tetrahedral then the l Preparation sulphonation and friedel crafts reaction.
carbon is called asymmetric carbon dry MgBr
Br + Mg
ether Reaction with metals
l The compounds which are non-superimposable on
Grignard reagent (i) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
their mirror images are Chiral and are called
(Organometallic compound) X
enantiomers R
RMgX + H2O RH + Mg (OH)X Ether
l The stereoisomers having no mirror image + Na + RX
Hydrocarbon
relationship are called diastereomers.
Reaction of Haloarenes (ii) Fittig reaction
l A mixture containing two enantiomers in equal
(A) Nucleophilic substitution : Aryl halides are extremely X
proportions will have zero optical rotation. Such
less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reactions Ether
mixture is known as racemic mixture. 2 + 2 Na
due to following reasons :
(c) Retention : In general, if during a reaction, no (i) Resonance effect : Lone pair of chlorine is in Diphenyl
bond to the stereocentre is broken, the reaction is conjugation with benzene resulting in double bond Polyhalogen Compounds
said to proceed with retention of configuration hn
character of C — Cl bond. As a result bond cleavage 2CHCl3 + O2 2COCl2 + 2HCl
CH3 in haloarene is difficult. Phosgene
CH3
D
H CH2 — OH + HCl H CH2 — Cl + H2O (ii) Difference in hybridization of carbon atom in C– X bond
CH2 CH2 (iii) Instability of phenyl cation
CH3 CH3 (iv) Repulsion between haloarene and approaching
(–)-2-methylbutan-1-ol (+)-1-chloro-2-methylbutane nucleophile
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108 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes NCERT Maps
1. Allyl chloride among the following is Major product P is [NCERT Pg. 296] 7. Consider the following statements
[NCERT Pg. 290] (a) If a compound rotates plane polarized
light in clockwise direction then it is
called dextrorotatory
(1) (2)
(1) (2) (b) A molecule which is non-
superimposable on its mirror image is
chiral and optically active
(c) Propan-2-ol is an achiral molecule
(3) (4) The correct statements are
(3) (4)
[NCERT Pg. 305]
2. Total number of structural isomers of C5H11F (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
is [NCERT Pg. 292] (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) only
5. Which among the following is liquid at room
(1) 6 (2) 8 8. Chiral molecule(s) among the following
temperature? [NCERT Pg. 298]
is/are [NCERT Pg. 307]
(3) 10 (4) 9 (1) Methyl chloride
3. Correct order of dipole moment of the given (2) Methyl bromide
molecules is [NCERT Pg. 294] (3) Ethyl chloride
CH3 – I CH3 – Br CH3 − Cl CH3F (4) Dichloromethane
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
6. Correct order of SN2 reactivity of the given (1) (I) only (2) (I) and (II) only
(1) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV) compounds will be [NCERT Pg. 305] (3) (I) and (III) only (4) (I), (II) and (III)
(2) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I) (CH3 )3 CBr (CH3 )2 CHCH2Br 9. Consider the following reaction
(I) (II)
(3) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
CH3 CH2CH(Br)CH3
(4) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV) (III)
4. Consider the following reaction
(1) (III) > (II) > (I) Major product P is [NCERT Pg. 310]
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NCERT Maps Haloalkanes and Haloarenes 109
10. Consider the following reaction sequence (c) CH3MgBr evolves ethane when treated (c) One molecule of DDT contains six
PhCH2Br dry
+ Mg → A
CH3OH
→B
with water chlorine atoms
ether
Product B is [NCERT Pg. 310] The correct statement is/are The incorrect statement(s) is/are
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only
(1) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (c) only
(2) (b) only
(1) (2) 13. In the given reaction, catalyst used is
(3) (c) only
(1) (2)
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110 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes NCERT Maps
18. Incorrect statement among the following is 19. Which compound on reaction with aqueous
[NCERT Pg. 301, 305, 306, 307] alkali gives maximum racemised product?
(1) SN2 reaction takes place in single step [NCERT Pg. 309 (3) (4)
and no intermediate is formed
(2) 2-Bromopropane is an achiral molecule
20. Which among the following is an ambident
(3) Enantiomers are non-superimposable nucleophile? [NCERT Pg. 300]
mirror images of each other (1) (2) −
(1) NO2− (2) N3
(4) Enantiomers have different melting point
(3) CH3O– (4) SH
1. In vinyl chloride, the chlorine atom is bonded 8. The reaction between tert-butyl bromide and 15. In case of optically active alkyl halide, SN1
to _____ hybridized carbon. hydroxide ion yields tert-butyl alcohol and reaction is accompanied by ____.
[NCERT Pg. 291] follows ______ kinetics [NCERT Pg. 303] [NCERT Pg. 309]
2. Iodobenzene is prepared by shaking the 9. In SN1 reactions, step-I is ____ and ____. 16. Alkyl halides react with ____ in dry ether to
diazonium salt with ____. [NCERT Pg. 296] [NCERT Pg. 304]
give hydrocarbon containing double the
3. Propene on reaction with HBr yield two 10. The angle by which that plane polarized light number of carbon atoms. [NCERT Pg. 311]
products, however only one predominates is rotated is measured by an instrument
as per _____ rule. [NCERT Pg. 295] 17. 4-chloroacetophenone is obtained when
called _____. [NCERT Pg. 303]
____ is treated with acetylchloride in
4. Addition of ______ in CCl4 to an alkene
11. (+) and (–) isomers of a compound are presence of ____. [NCERT Pg. 315]
results in discharge of reddish brown colour.
called _____ isomers. [NCERT Pg. 303] 18. When chlorobenzene is treated with sodium
[NCERT Pg. 295]
12. The object which are ____ on their mirror in presence of dry ether then the product
5. Alkyl iodides are prepared by reaction of image are said to be chiral. formed is _____. [NCERT Pg. 316]
alkyl chlorides/ bromides with NaI in dry
____. [NCERT Pg. 295] [NCERT Pg. 306] 19. Swarts reaction is useful in the synthesis of
13. If one of the enantiomer is dextrorotatory, _____. [NCERT Pg. 295]
6. Ethyl chloride reacts with AgCN to form
_____ as major product the other will be ____. [NCERT Pg. 307] 20. When a haloalkane with β-hydrogen atom is
[NCERT Pg. 301] 14. A mixture containing two enantiomers in heated with alcoholic solution of KOH, ____
equal proportions will have ____ optical is formed as major product.
7. SN1 reactions are generally carried out in
____ solvents. [NCERT Pg. 303] rotation. [NCERT Pg. 307] [NCERT Pg. 309]
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Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
11
Chapter
1 PREPARATION OF ALCOHOLS 2 PREPARATION OF PHENOLS Acidity of alcohols : Acidic strength order
(i) From alkenes
(a) By acid catalysed hydration : (a) From haloarenes R R
– + CHOH > R COH
Cl ONa OH R–CH2OH >
+ R R
CH3CH=CH2+H2O H CH3–CH–CH3(Major)
623 K HCl Acidity of phenols : Phenols are more acidic than alcohol because
+ NaOH
(b) By hydroboration - oxidation OH 300 atm conjugate base of phenol (phenoxide ion) is resonance stabilised.
–
CH3–CH=CH2+ (H–BH2)2 ® CH3–CH2–CH2–BH2 (b) From benzene sulphonic acid O O O O O–
CH3CH=CH2 SO3H OH – –
CH3CH=CH2
(CH3CH2CH2)3B (CH3CH2CH2)2BH Oleum (i) NaOH
– (ii) H
+ –
H2O 3H2O2/OH
(c) From diazonium salts + (ii) Esterification : H+
3CH3CH2CH2OH + B(OH)3 NH2 N2Cl
–
OH Ar/R–O–H + R¢COOH Ar/ROCOR¢ + H2O
Ester
The alcohol formed looks as if it has been formed
by the addition of water to alkene in a way opposite NaNO2 H2O COOH COOH
to Markovnikov’s rule. HCl Warm OH + OCOCH3
273-278 K H
(ii) From carbonyl compounds + (CH3CO)2O + CH3COOH
(d) From cumene
(a) By reduction of aldehydes and ketones : H 3C
CH(CH3)2 C–O–OH OH Salicylic acid (Aspirin)
H 3C
RCHO + H2 Pd RCH2OH +
(b) Reactions involving cleavage of C-O bond in alcohols
NaBH4 O2 H (i) Reaction with hydrogen halides : (Lucas test)
R–CH–R¢ + CH3COCH3
RCOR¢ H2O ROH + HX ® R–X + H2O
OH Cumene Lucas reagent (Conc. HCl and ZnCl2)
Cumene Tertiary alcohol produce turbidity with Lucas reagent immediately
(b) By reduction of carboxylic acids and esters : hydroperoxide
Primary alcohols do not produce turbidity at room temperature.
(i) LiAlH4 3 PHYSICAL PROPERTIES
RCOOH RCH2OH (ii) Reaction with phosphorus trihalides :
(ii) H2O High boiling points of alcohols are mainly due to the 3R–OH + PX3 ® 3R–X + H3PO3 (X = Cl, Br)
R¢OH H2 presence of intermolecular hydrogen bonding in them. H SO
RCOOH RCOOR¢ RCH2OH (iii) Dehydration : C2H5OH 2 4 CH2 = CH2 + H2O
H+ Pd Solubility of alcohols and phenols in water is due to their 443 K
(iii) From Grignard reagent + R¢OH
ability to form hydrogen bonds with water. Relative ease of dehydration : Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
H 2O (iv) Oxidation
HCHO + RMgX ® RCH2OMgX RCH2OH
4 CHEMICAL REACTIONS : CrO3
1° alcohol RCH2OH RCHO
H 2O [A] Reaction of alcohols PCC
RCHO + R¢MgX ® R – CH – OMgX CH3–CH=CH–CH2OH CH3–CH=CH–CHO
(a) Reactions involving cleavage of O-H bond
(i) Acidity of alcohols and phenols CrO 3
R¢ R – CH – OH R–CH–R¢ R–C–R¢
Reaction with metals
– + OH O
R¢ 2° alcohol 2R–O–H + 2Na ® 2RONa + H2
R Cu Cu
Phenol reacts with aqueous NaOH RCH2OH RCHO R–CH–R¢ R–C–R¢
H2O 573 K 573 K
RCOR + R¢MgX ® R – C – OMgX OH ONa
CH3 OH O
R¢ R
Cu
R – C – OH + NaOH + H2O CH3–C–OH CH3–C=CH2
573 K
CH3 CH3
3° alcohol R¢
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NCERT Maps Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 113
1. IUPAC name of the given compound is 3. Which among the following compounds on
reaction with methyl magnesium bromide
followed by hydrolysis gives a tertiary (3)
alcohol? [NCERT Pg. 331]
(4)
[NCERT Pg. 330] 4. Consider the following reaction sequence (1)
(1) (2)
Product A and C respectively are
[NCERT Pg. 332]
(2)
(3)
(1)
(3)
(2) (4)
(4)
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114 Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers NCERT Maps
6. When salicyclic acid is treated with acetyl (1) (2) (1) (CH3)3C – OC2H5
chloride in presence of pyridine the product
(2)
obtained is [NCERT Pg. 338]
(3) (4)
(3)
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(4)
(3) (4)
7. The alcohol which will react at slowest rate
with conc. HCl and ZnCl2 is
(3) (4)
[NCERT Pg. 338] 10. In Kolbe’s reaction electrophile used is
[NCERT Pg. 342]
(1) (2)
(1) CO2 (2) : CCl2 13. The ether which is most difficult to cleave on
heating with HBr is [NCERT Pg. 348]
+ +
(3) H − C =
O (4) CCl3
(3) (4) (1)
11. Consider the following reaction sequence
(2) Ph–CH2–O–CH2 –Ph
8. When tert butyl alcohol is reacted with Cu at C2H5OH Na (CH3 )3 C −Cl
→ A → B(Major) (3) Ph–O–CH3
573 K then the product obtained is
[NCERT Pg. 340] Major product B is [NCERT Pg. 335, 346] (4) Ph – O – Ph
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NCERT Maps Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers 115
14. Major products of the given reaction are 19. Consider the following reaction sequence
[NCERT Pg. 348]
(1) (2)
Product B is
[NCERT Pg. 340]
1. In vinylic alcohols, –OH group is bonded to 3. In hydration of alkene in acidic medium, the 5. Benzene diazonium chloride is hydrolysed
_______ hybridized cabon. intermediate formed is a _______ to _______ by warming with water.
[NCERT Pg. 325] [NCERT Pg. 332]
[NCERT Pg. 329]
2. Structure of 3-Methylbutoxybenzene is 6. Cumene is oxidized in the presence of air
4. Ethanoic acid is reduced to _______ in
________. [NCERT Pg. 327] to_______ [NCERT Pg. 332]
excellent yield by LiAlH4 [NCERT Pg. 330]
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7. Alcohols on reaction with acid anhydrides 12. p-Nitrophenol is less volatile than o- 16. Phenol is converted to _______ on heating
form _______ [NCERT Pg. 337] Nitrophenol due to _______ which causes with zinc dust. [NCERT Pg. 343]
the association of molecules. 17. _______ is known as wood spirit.
8. Lucas reagent is ______ [NCERT Pg. 338]
[NCERT Pg. 341] [NCERT Pg. 344]
9. Secondary alcohols are oxidized to
13. With _______, phenol is converted to 2, 4, 18. The commercial alcohol is made unfit for
_______ by chromic anhydride
6-trinitrophenol. [NCERT Pg. 341] drinking by mixing in it some _______ and
[NCERT Pg. 340]
14. Phenol on reaction with Br2 in presence of _______ [NCERT Pg. 344]
10. When vapours of isobutanol is passed over
CS2 at 273 K forms _______ as major 19. In Williamson synthesis of ether the reaction
heated copper at 573 K then the product
product [NCERT Pg. 342]
involves _______ attack of an alkoxide ion
formed is _______ [NCERT Pg. 340]
15. In Kolbe’s reaction of phenol _______ is on primary alkyl halide [NCERT Pg. 345]
11. o-Nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol mixture can formed as main reaction product. 20. Cleavage of methyl-tert-butyl ether by HI
be separated by _______ [NCERT Pg. 341]
[NCERT Pg. 342, 343] follows ____ mechanism. [NCERT Pg. 348]
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Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
12
Chapter
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NCERT Maps Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 119
6 CHEMICAL REACTIONS (b) Reaction involving cleavage of C – OH bond (c) Reactions involving – COOH group
(a) Reactions involving cleavage of O – H bond (i) Formation of anhydrides (i) Reduction
(Acidity) (i) LiAlH4/ether or B2H6
RCOOH + RCH2OH
(ii) H3O
– + O O
2RCOOH + 2Na ® 2RCOO Na + H2 + OO
H /D
CH3 – C + C – CH3 or
– + (ii) Decarboxylation
RCOOH + NaOH ® RCOO Na + H2O P2O5/D O
OH HO Ethanoic anhydride
NaOH & CaO
– + RCOONa D
R – H + Na2CO3
RCOOH + NaHCO3 ® RCOO Na + H2O + CO2
(ii) Esterification
m Carboxylic acids evolve CO2 gas on reaction with NaHCO3. +
(d) Substitution reactions in the hydrocarbon part
H
This is used to detect the presence of carboxyl group in an RCOOH + R¢OH RCOOR¢ + H2O (i) Halogenation (Hell - Volhard-Zelinsky reaction)
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120 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids NCERT Maps
1. Consider the following reaction sequence 7. Consider the following reaction sequence
[NCERT Pg. 362] (1) (2)
(1) (2)
[NCERT Pg. 362]
(1) Rosenmund reaction (4)
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NCERT Maps Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 121
9. Consider the following reaction 12. The compound which will give HVZ reaction 15. The compound which will not give positive
is [NCERT Pg. 383] Fehling test is [NCERT Pg. 369]
(1) Acetaldehyde (2) Benzaldehyde
Compound A is (3) Formic acid (4) Formaldehyde
(1) (2)
[NCERT Pg. 372] 16. Consider the following reaction sequence
(3) (4)
(1) (2)
Products C and D are
13. When a mixture of acetaldehyde and
propionaldehyde is heated in presence of [NCERT Pg. 372]
(3) (4) dilute alkali then which of the given
compounds is not formed as a product
10. Strongest acid among the following is (1)
[NCERT Pg. 372]
[NCERT Pg. 381]
(1) CH3CH = CH – CHO
(1) NO2CH2COOH (2)
(2) CH3CH2CH = CHCHO
(2) HCOOH
(3) CH3 − CH =
C – CHO
(3) FCH2COOH |
CH3 (3)
(4) C6H5COOH
11. In the given reaction sequence product B is (4) CH3 − C =CH – CHO
|
CH3 (4)
14. The compound which will not undergo aldol 17. Strongest acid among the following is
condensation reaction is
[NCERT Pg. 376, 382] [NCERT Pg. 381]
[NCERT Pg. 371]
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
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122 Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids NCERT Maps
18. Which among the following is an oxime? 19. Consider the following reaction sequence 20. The compound which does not treact with
NaHCO3 is [NCERT Pg. 379]
[NCERT Pg. 368]
(1)
(2) (2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(3)
(4)
(4)
(4) HCOOH
1. IUPAC name of compound is 5. In Wolff-Kishner reduction solvent used 10. Butanal when treated with ammoniacal
is_____. [NCERT Pg. 369] AgNO3 solution then organic product
_____.
6. Fehling solution A is _____ and Fehling obtained is _____.
[NCERT Pg. 359] solution B is_____.
[NCERT Pg. 369]
[NCERT Pg. 369]
2. Reagent used in Etard reaction is _____. 11. _____ react with dry ice to form salts of
7. When benzaldehyde is heated with
[NCERT Pg. 362]
acetophenone in presence of dilute NaOH carboxylic acids [NCERT Pg. 376]
3. Treating an alkyl nitrile with Grignard then_____ is obtained as major product
12. Benzamide on acidic hydrolysis
reagent followed by hydrolysis yields _____. [NCERT Pg. 372]
forms_____. [NCERT Pg. 376]
[NCERT Pg. 364] 8. In Cannizzaro reaction, one molecule of
aldehyde is reduced to_____ while another 13. _____ lose carbon dioxide to form
4. Aldehydes react with one equivalent of
is oxidized to_____. [NCERT Pg. 372] hydrocarbons when their sodium salts are
monohydric alcohol in the pressure of dry
heated with soda lime
HCl to yield alkoxyalcohol intermediate, 9. _____ is called Jones reagent.
known as_____. [NCERT Pg. 367] [NCERT Pg. 372] [NCERT Pg. 383]
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NCERT Maps Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids 123
14. Ethanoic acid on heating with P2O5 17. Iodoform reaction with sodium hypoiodite is
gives_____. [NCERT Pg. 381] used for detection of _____ or _____ 19. Compound is
groups. [NCERT Pg. 370]
15. Phthalamide on strong heating forms_____. formed when _____ reacts with 2, 4–DNP.
[NCERT Pg. 383] 18. Addition of ammonia derivative to carbonyl
[NCERT Pg. 368]
compounds is catalyzed by_____.
16. Carboxylic acids are reduced to _____ with
20. Addition of HCN to aldehydes and ketones
LiAlH4. [NCERT Pg. 385] [NCERT Pg. 368]
is catalyzed by_____. [NCERT Pg. 367]
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13
Amines Chapter
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NCERT Maps Amines 125
(vii) Electrophilic substitution reaction: 6 DIAZONIUM SALTS (b) Replacement by iodide ion
(a) Bromination + –
m Primary aliphatic amines form highly unstable Ar N2Cl +KI ArI + KCl + N2
NH2 NH2
alkyldiazonium salts. (c) Replacement by fluoride ion
Br2 Br Br
(White precipitate)
m Primary aromatic amines form arenediazonium salts + – + – D
H 2O Ar N2Cl + HBF4 Ar N2BF4 Ar – F + BF3+ N2
(2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline) which are stable for a short time in solution at low
temperature (273-278 K) due to resonance (d) Replacement by Hydrogen
Br
+
O O –
Ar N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O ArH + N2 + H3PO3 + HCl
N N N=N N=N N=N N N + –
NH2 NH NH NH2 Ar N2Cl + CH3CH2OH ArH + N2 + CH3CHO + HCl
–
(CH3CO)2O Br2 OH
+
(e) Replacement by hydroxyl group
Pyridine CH3COOH or H
+ – 283 K
Ar N2Cl + H2O ArOH + N2 + HCl
Br Br
(Major) (i) Method of preparation of C6H5N2Cl
(f) Replacement by –NO2 group
273- 278 K + +
(b) Nitration C6H5NH2 + NaNO2 + 2HCl C6H5N2Cl – –
N2Cl N2BF4 NO2
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
(ii) Physical properties NaNO2
HNO3,H2SO4 NO2 + HBF4
+ + m Benzenediazonium chloride is colourless crystalline Cu, D
288 K
NO2 solid and readily soluble in water.
m It is stable in cold but reacts with water when warmed. B. Reactions involving retenation of diazo group
NO2 (47%) (2%) (Coupling reaction)
m Benzenediazonium Fluoroborate is water insoluble
(51%) and stable at room temperature.
–
m Controlled nitration reaction Cl
(iii) Chemical reactions N
NH2 NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3 NH2 +
A. Reactions involving displacement of nitrogen N OH
–
(CH3CO)2O HNO3×H2SO4 OH
pyridine +
(a) Replacement by halide or cyanide ion –
OH
288 K or H + N=N OH
Sandmeyer reaction
NO2 NO2 phenol (Orange dye)
(Major) Cu2Cl2/HCl p-hydroxyazobenzene
ArCl + N2
–
(c) Sulphonation Cu2Br2/HBr Cl
+ –
+ – + Ar N2X ArBr + N2 N
NH2 NH3HSO4 NH2 NH3
CuCN/KCN N
+
NH2
ArCN + N2
H2SO4 453-473 K
Gatterman reaction H
+
+ N=N NH2
Anilinium Cu/HCl
SO3H SO
–
+
ArCl + N2 + CuX
hydrogen 3 – (Yellow dye)
Ar N2X aniline
sulphate Sulphanilic Zwitter Cu/HBr
acid ion ArBr + N2 + CuX p-aminoazobenzene
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126 Amines NCERT Maps
1. Consider the following amines 4. In the given reaction sequence major 6. Which compound on reaction with
[NCERT Pg. 396] product B is [NCERT Pg. 405] chloroform and ethanolic potassium
hydroxide form isocyanide?
C2H5N ( CH3 )2 ( C2H5 )2 NH n − C4H9NH2
[NCERT Pg. 401]
(i) (ii) (iii)
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NCERT Maps Amines 127
9. In the given reaction major product P is 11. Consider the given set of reactions 14. Products A and B of the given reaction are
1. IUPAC name of 5. Carbylamine reaction is a chemical test of 10. Structure of sulphanilic acid is _______.
is _______ amines. [NCERT Pg. 401] [NCERT Pg. 403]
6. Aliphatic diazonium salts in aqueous 11. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts
medium liberate _______ gas quantitatively reaction due to salt formation with ______.
______. [NCERT Pg. 391] and ______. [NCERT Pg. 401] [NCERT Pg. 403]
2. Nitrobenzene is reduced to _______ in 7. _______ reacts with primary and secondary 12. Benzenediazonium chloride is _______ in
presence of Sn/HCl. [NCERT Pg. 392] amines to form sulphonamide. water. [NCERT Pg. 405]
[NCERT Pg. 401] 13. The conversion of primary aromatic amines
3. Number of resonating structures in aniline is
8. _______ amines do not react with benzene into diazonium salts is known as _______.
_______. [NCERT Pg. 399]
sulphonyl chloride [NCERT Pg. 402] [NCERT Pg. 404]
4. _______ reacts with acetyl chloride in 14. When diazonium salt solution is treated with
9. Activating effect of-NHCOCH3 group is
presence of base giving N, N- _______, iodobenzene is formed.
_______ than that of –NH2 group
diethylethanamide. [NCERT Pg. 400]
[NCERT Pg. 403] [NCERT Pg. 405]
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NCERT Maps Amines 129
15. Ethanol reduces diazonium salts to arenes 17. p-aminoazobenzene is ______ colour dye 19. In strongly acidic medium, aniline is
and itself get oxidised to ______. [NCERT Pg. 406] protonated to form anilinium ion which is
[NCERT Pg. 405] 18. Coupling reaction of diazonium salt with _______ directing towards electrophilic
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14
Biomolecules Chapter
reactions. m The given observations could not explain chain structure CH2OH OH H OH H
6
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NCERT Maps Biomolecules 131
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132 Biomolecules NCERT Maps
1. Glucose does not react with 6. Incorrect statement among the following is 11. Monosaccharide units present in Lactose
[NCERT Pg. 415] [NCERT Pg. 419] are [NCERT Pg. 418]
(1) NH2OH (2) Br2 water (1) Cellulose is most abundant organic (1) β-D-Glucose and β-D-Glucose
substance in plant kingdom
(3) HCN (4) NaHSO3 (2) α-D-Glucose and β-D-Fructose
(2) Cellulose is straight chain
2. The compound which will not react with (3) α-D-Glucose and α-D-Glucose
polysaccharide formed by β-D-glucose
Tollen’s reagent is [NCERT Pg. 417] (4) β-D-Galactose and β-D-Glucose
units
(1) Sucrose (2) Glucose 12. Water soluble vitamin among the following
(3) Glycogen is known as animal starch
(3) Fructose (4) Maltose is [NCERT Pg. 426]
(4) Structure of Glycogen is similar to
3. Number of –OH group present in a sucrose cellulose (1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin D
molecule is [NCERT Pg. 417] (3) Vitamin K (4) Vitamin A
7. Number of achiral carbons present in
(1) 9 (2) 10 13. Sugar unit present in RNA is
α-D- (–) fructofuranose structure is
(3) 8 (4) 11 [NCERT Pg. 427]
[NCERT Pg. 416]
4. α-D-(+)-glucose and β-D-(+) glucose (1) 5 (2) 3 (1)
molecules are [NCERT Pg. 417]
(3) 4 (4) 2
(1) Enantiomers (2) Anomers
8. Cyclic amino acid among the following is
(3) Epimers (4) Homomers [NCERT Pg. 421]
5. Consider the following statements (1) Lysine (2) Proline (2)
[NCERT Pg. 418] (3) Cysteine (4) Serine
(a) Amylose and Amylopectin are 9. Which among the following is/are fibrous
components of starch protein? [NCERT Pg. 422]
(b) Amylopectin is insoluble in water (1) Keratin (2) Insulin (3)
(c) Amylose is long unbranched chain of (3) Myosin (4) Both (1) and (3)
α-D-(+)-glucose units 10. Deficiency of which vitamin causes
The correct statements are pernicious anaemia? [NCERT Pg. 426]
(1) (a) & (b) only (1) Vitamin B6 (4)
(2) (b) & (c) only (2) Vitamin B12
(3) (a) & (c) only (3) Thiamine
(4) (a), (b) & (c) (4) Riboflavin
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NCERT Maps Biomolecules 133
14. The base which is absent in RNA is (3) A unit formed by the attachment of a The correct statements are
[NCERT Pg. 428] base to 1′ position of sugar is known as (1) (a) & (c) only
(1) Guanine nucleotide
(2) (b) & (c) only
(2) Cytosine (4) Five nitrogen atoms are present in an
(3) (a) & (b) only
(3) Uracil adenine molecule
(4) (a), (b) & (c)
(4) Thymine 17. Which hormone is responsible for preparing
19. Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets in
the uterus for implantation of fertilized egg?
15. In a DNA strand, adenine forms hydrogen children? [NCERT Pg. 426]
[NCERT Pg. 430]
bond with [NCERT Pg. 429]
(1) Vitamin A
(1) Testosterone (2) Estradiol
(1) Cytosine
(2) Vitamin D
(2) Guanine (3) Progesterone (4) Thyroxine
(3) Vitamin B2
(3) Thymine 18. Consider the following statements
(4) Vitamin E
(4) Uracil [NCERT Pg. 417]
20. Which amino acid contains amide functional
16. Incorrect statement among the following is (a) Sucrose on hydrolysis give equimolar
group? [NCERT Pg. 421]
[NCERT Pg. 430, 429, 428] mixture of D-glucose and D-fructose
(1) Glutamine
(1) DNA is the chemical basis of heredity (b) Two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose
differ only in the configuration of the (2) Tyrosine
(2) Nucleotides are joined together by
hydroxyl group at C-1. (3) Histidine
phosphodiester linkage between 5′ and
3′ carbon atoms of the pentose sugar (c) Fructose is laevorotatory (4) Methionine
1. Carbohydrates that yield two to ten 5. The six membered cyclic structure of 8. In amylopectin, branching occurs by
monosaccharide units, on hydrolysis, are glucose is called pyranose structure, in _______ glycosidic linkage
called _______ [NCERT Pg. 412] analogy with _______. [NCERT Pg. 416]
[NCERT Pg. 418]
2. Glucose on prolonged heating with HI, forms 6. Hydrolysis of _______ brings about a
_______ [NCERT Pg. 413] change in sign of rotation, from dextro to 9. The amino acids, which cannot be
3. Glucose is oxidised to _______ on reaction laevo and the product is named as invert synthesised in the body and must be
with nitric acid. [NCERT Pg. 414] sugar. [NCERT Pg. 417] obtained through diet, are known as
7. A linkage between two monosaccharide _______. [NCERT Pg. 421]
4. Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with
hydroxylamine indicating the absence of units through oxygen atom is called 10. In _______ form, amino acids show
free _______ group. [NCERT Pg. 415] _______ linkage. [NCERT Pg. 417] amphoteric behaviour. [NCERT Pg. 422]
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134 Biomolecules NCERT Maps
11. Except _______, all other naturally 14. In DNA cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with 18. _______ are molecules that act as inter
occurring α-amino acids are optically active _______. [NCERT Pg. 429] cellular messengers. [NCERT Pg. 430]
[NCERT Pg. 420] 15. In maltose _______ of one glucose (I) is 19. Low level of _______ in the diet may lead to
12. Deficiency of _______ causes Beri beri. linked to _______ of another glucose unit (II) hypothyroidism.
[NCERT Pg. 426] [NCERT Pg. 417]
[NCERT Pg. 430]
13. _______ are joined together by 16. Glucose is oxidise to _______ by Br2 water.
20. _______ Control the level of excretion of
phosphodiester linkage between 5’ and 3’ [NCERT Pg. 413]
water and salt by the kidney.
carbon atoms of pentose sugar. 17. _______ is released in response to the rapid
rise in blood glucose level [NCERT Pg. 430] [NCERT Pg. 431]
[NCERT Pg. 428]
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Polymers
15
Chapter
1 CLASSIFICATION OF POLYMERS Uses: It is used in making sheets, bristles for brushes and in
m Classification based on source textile industry
a. Natural polymers : These polymers are found in plants and animals. Examples are proteins, starch, rubber etc. m Nylon 6:
b. Semi-synthetic polymers : Cellulose derivatives as cellulose acetate and cellulose nitrate are semi-synthetic polymers. H
N O
c. Synthetic polymers : These are man made polymers examples are Buna-S, nylon 6,6, polythene etc. O 533-543 K H
H2O
–[C–(CH2–)5N–]n
2 TYPE OF POLYMERISATION REACTION Nylon 6
Caprolactam
A. A d d i t i o n p o l y m e r i s a t i o n o r c h a i n g r o w t h l High density polythene:
polymerisation TiCl4,(C2H5)3Al Use: It is used in manufacture of tyre cords, fabrics and ropes.
nCH2 = CH2 –(CH2 – CH2–)n
l The molecules of the same monomer or different (333-343) K (6-7) atm ii. Polyesters: These are condensation products of
High density polythene
monomers add together on a large scale to form a dicarboxylic acids and diols.
polymer. l Catalyst TiCl4, (C2H5)3Al is called Ziegler-Natta catalyst
COOH
l The polymer obtained has high density due to close C C
l Monomers used are unsaturated compounds, e.g.
alkenes, alkadienes and their dirivatives packing.
nHOCH2 – CH2OH + –[OCH2 – CH2 – O – C C–]n
l Chain growth can take place through the formation of l These are also called linear polymers.
either free radicals or ionic species. l It is also chemically inert, more tough and hard. (Ethylene glycol) Terylene (dacron)
COOH
l The addition polymers formed by the polymerisation ii. Polytetrafluoroethene (Teflon) (Terephthalic acid)
of a single monomeric species are known as Catalyst Use: It is used in blending with cotton and wool fibres.
homopolymers. nCF2 =CF2 –[CF2 – CF2–]n
high pressure
Teflon iii. Phenol formaldehyde polymer (Bakelite)
Example : Polythene Uses: It is used in making oil seals, gaskets and non-stick OH OH OH OH
l The polymers made by addition polymerisation from surface coated utensils.
two different monomers are termed as copolymers. + CH2O
H+ or
–
OH + OH + HO OH
iii. Polyacrylonitrile: OH
Example : Buna-S CN
Polymerization OH OH
n CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 + n C6H5CH = CH2 nCH2 = CHCN [–CH2 – CH–]n
1,3-Butadiene Styrene Peroxide catalyst
OH OH OH OH
Uses: It is used as a substitute for wool in making H2C CH2
commercial fibers as orlon or acrilan. n OH +
C6H5 H
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136 Polymers NCERT Maps
n CH2 = CH – CH = CH 2 + n –[CH2 – CH = CH – CH 2 – CH – CH 2–]n m Some commercially important polymers along with their structures and uses are given below in
table.
1,3-butadiene styrene Butadiene-styrene copolymer
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NCERT Maps Polymers 137
1. Which among the following is/are 5. Polyamide among the following is 8. Which polymer is used in the manufacture
homopolymer(s)? [NCERT Pg. 435] [NCERT Pg.438] of paints and lacquers?
(1) PVC (2) Buna-S (1) Terylene (2) Bakelite [NCERT Pg. 443]
(3) Buna-N (4) Both (2) and (3) (3) Glyptal (4) Nylon 6 (1) Glyptal (2) PVC
2. An elastomer among the following is 6. Monomers of PHBV are (3) Polystyrene (4) Acrilan
[NCERT Pg. 441] [NCERT Pg. 442] 9. Ziegler – Natta Catalyst is
(1) Nylon 6,6 (2) Neoprene [NCERT Pg.436]
(3) Glyptal (4) Polythene (1) Benzoyl peroxide (2) Et4Pb
(1)
3. Monomer of orlon is (3) Et3Al + TiCl4 (4) BuLi + PbCl2
[NCERT Pg. 436] 10. Number of nitrogen atoms present in
melamine is [NCERT Pg.439]
(1) (2) (2)
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8
(3) (4) (3)
11. Incorrect statement among the following is
[NCERT Pg.442, 440]
4. Consider the following statements
(4) (1) Nylon 2-Nylon 6 is a biodegradable
[NCERT Pg.437] polymer
a. Fibres posses high tensile strength (2) Buna-N is a copolymer of 1,3-butadiene
7. Incorrect statement among the following is
b. Thermosetting polymers are cross and acrylonitrile
linked polymers [NCERT Pg. 440, 438]
(3) In manufacture of tyre rubber, 5% of
c. Monomers of nylon 6,6 are hexame- (1) Natural rubber becomes brittle at low Sulphur is used as a crosslinking agent.
thylenediamine and terephthalic acid temperature (< 283 K)
(4) Natural rubber is an example of
The correct statements are (2) Monomer of natural rubber is 2-methyl- crosslinked polymer
1,3-butadiene
(1) a and b only 12. Synthetic polymer among the following is
(3) Bakelite is an example of thermoplastic
(2) b and c only [NCERT Pg. 434]
polymer
(3) a and c only (1) Starch (2) Glycogen
(4) Monomers of Bakelite are phenol and
(4) a, b, and c formaldehyde (3) Cellulose (4) Nylon 6
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138 Polymers NCERT Maps
13. Which among the following is/are branched 16. Polymer which is used for non-stick surface 18. Novolac can be obtained from the reaction
chain polymer? coated utensils is [NCERT Pg. 436] of [NCERT Pg. 438]
[NCERT Pg. 435, 440] (1) Teflon (2) PAN (1) Phenol and methanal
(1) LDP (2) Natural rubber (3) Nylon6, 6 (4) PHBV
(2) Benzoic acid and methanol
(3) HDP (4) Both (1) and (3) 17. Consider the following statements
(3) Benzaldehyde and methanal
14. Terylene is condensation polymer of [NCERT Pg. 435-436]
(4) Phenol and chloroform
[NCERT Pg. 437] a. LDP is obtained by the polymerization
of ethene under high pressure and high 19. Monomer of Teflon is
(1) Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid temperature in presence of peroxide
[NCERT Pg. 436]
(2) Ethylene glycol and Benzene-1, 4- initiator
dicarboxylic acid b. HDP is obtained by the polymerization (1) Propene (2) Vinyl chloride
(3) Glycine and amino caproic acid of ethene in presence of (3) Tetrafluoroethene (4) Vinyl cyanide
triethylaluminium and titanium
(4) Ethylene glycol and 3-Hydroxybutanoic 20. Which among the following is adipic acid?
tetrachloride
acid
c. LDP is used in the manufacture of [NCERT Pg. 437]
15. Chain growth polymer among the following squeeze bottles
is [NCERT Pg. 435]
The correct statement(s) is/are (1) (2)
(1) LDP
(1) a and b only
(2) Bakelite (2) b and c only
(3) Glyptal (3) a and c only (3) (4)
(4) Urea-formaldehyde resin (4) a, b and c
1. Addition polymers formed by the 3. Novolac is used in _____ 6. Nylon 6 is obtained by heating _______
polymerization of a single monomeric with water. [NCERT Pg. 437]
[NCERT Pg. 438]
species are known as _____. 7. _____ are the polycondensation products
[NCERT Pg. 435] 4. _____ polymers are also known as step
of dicarboxylic acids and diols
growth polymers [NCERT Pg. 437]
2. Rubber is a natural polymer and possesses [NCERT Pg. 438]
_____ properties. 5. _____ is used as a substitute for wool
8. Catalyst used in the manufacture of
[NCERT Pg. 440] [NCERT Pg. 436] terylene is _____. [NCERT Pg. 438]
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NCERT Maps Polymers 139
9. Novolac on heating with _____undergoes 13. On vulcanization of rubber, _____ forms 16. PHBV undergoes_______ degradation in
cross linking to form an infusible solid mass cross links at reactive sits of double bond environment [NCERT Pg. 442]
called bakelite [NCERT Pg. 438] 17. _____ is an example of semi- synthetic
[NCERT Pg. 441]
polymer [NCERT Pg. 434]
10. Melamine polymer is used in the
14. Neoprene is formed by polymerisation of 18. Polymers made by addition polymerization
manufacture of _____ [NCERT Pg. 439]
chloroprene by _____ mechanism from two different monomers are termed as
11. ____ is also called as cis-1,4- _____ [NCERT Pg. 435]
[NCERT Pg. 441]
polyisoprene [NCERT Pg. 440] 19. Benzoyl peroxide is a ______generating
15. _____ is used in controlled release of initiator [NCERT Pg. 434]
12. Natural rubber is soluble in _______
drugs [NCERT Pg. 442] 20. _____ is the structure of neoprene
solvents [NCERT Pg. 440]
[NCERT Pg. 441]
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Chemistry in Everyday Life
16
Chapter
(i) Antacids : (a) Bactericidal : These antibiotics have killing effect on microbes
Examples: Penicillin, Aminoglycosides, Ofloxacin
l Over production of acid in the stomach causes irritation and pain
(b) Bacteriostatic : These antibiotics have inhibitory effect on microbes.
l Histamine stimulates the secretion of pepsin and HCl in the stomach Examples : Erythromycin, Tetracycline, chloramphenicol
l Antacids prevent the interaction of histamine with receptors present in the stomach wall. This l Antibiotics which kill or inhibit a wide range of Gram-positive and Gram-negative
results in the release of lesser amount of acid. bacteria are said to be broad spectrum antibiotics.
Examples: Ampicillin, Amoxycillin, Chloramphenicol, vancomycin, ofloxacin.
Examples of antacids :
l Antibiotics effective mainly against Gram-positive or Gram-negative bacteria are
Cimetidine (Tegamet), ranitidine (Zantac) narrow spectrum antibiotics.
(ii) Antihistamines : Example: Penicillin G
l Histamine is a potent vasodilator (B) Antiseptics and disinfectants
(a) Antiseptics: These are applied to the living tissues such as wounds, cuts, ulcers
l Histamine is also responsible for the nasal congestion associated with common cold and
and diseased skin surfaces.
allergic response to pollen Examples: Furacine, soframicine
l Synthetic drugs, brompheniramine (Dimetapp) and terfenadine (Seldane), act as l Dettol is a mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol.
l Bithional is added to soaps to impart antiseptic properties.
antihistamines
l 2-3 per cent solution in alcohol-water mixture is known tincture of iodine. It is
(iii) Neuologically active drugs :
applied on wounds.
Tranquilizers and analgesics are neurologically active drugs. These affect the message l Boric acid in dilute aqueous solution is weak antiseptic for eyes.
transfer mechanism from nerve to receptor. l 0.2 per cent solution of phenol is an antiseptic.
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NCERT Maps Chemistry in Everyday Life 141
(ii) Synthetic Detergents : These are cleansing agents which have all the properties of CH3 +
–
soaps, but can be used both in soft and hard water. CH3(CH2)15 – N – CH3 Br
l These are of three types CH3
(a) Anionic detergents : Anionic detergents are sodium salts of sulphonated long (c) Non-ionic detergents : Non-ionic detergents do not contain any ion in their constitution.
chain alcohols or hydrocarbons. Examples : Detergent formed when stearic acid reacts with polyethylene glycol.
(b) Cationic detergents : Cationic detergents are quaternary ammonium salts of CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH
amines with acetates, chlorides or bromides as anions.
l Liquid dishwashing detergents are non-ionic type
Example : Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide l Detergents and soap remove grease and oil by micelle formation
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142 Chemistry in Everyday Life NCERT Maps
1. Which among the following is an antacid? 5. The compound which contains heterocyclic 9. The compound which is unstable at cooking
[NCERT Pg. 451] ring is [NCERT Pg. 454,455,456] temperature is [NCERT Pg. 458]
(1) Ranitidine (1) Salvarsan (2) Prontosil
(1) Aspartame
(2) Serotonin (3) Penicillin (4) Norethindrone
(2) Sucralose
(3) Terfenadine 6. Sweetest compound among the following is
[NCERT Pg. 457] (3) Saccharin
(4) Histamine
(1) Sucrose (2) Saccharin (4) Sucrose
2. Dimetapp is an [NCERT Pg. 451]
(3) Aspartame (4) Sucralose 10. Dettol is a mixture of [NCERT Pg. 456]
(1) Antihistamine
7. Select the incorrect match (1) Chloroxylenol and furacine
(2) Analgesic
[NCERT Pg. 456,455,458,452] (2) Bithionol and soframycine
(3) Antipyretic
Column I Column II (3) Chloroxylenol and terpineol
(4) Antibiotic
3. Consider the following statements (1) Novestrol Antifertility drug (4) Terpineol and furacine
[NCERT Pg. 447,453,448] (2) Chloramphenicol Broad spectrum 11. Consider the following statements
(a) Use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is antibiotic
[NCERT Pg. 458]
called chemotherapy
(3) Alitame Artificial
(a) Sodium benzoate is used as food
(b) Analgesics have pain killing effect sweetener
preservative
(c) Proteins which perform the role of (4) Meprobamate Analgesic
biological catalysts in the body are called (b) BHT is used as an antioxidant
enzymes 8. Incorrect statement among the following is (c) Liquid dishwashing detergents are
[NCERT Pg. 453,451,452]
The correct statements are cationic detergents
(1) Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of
(1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (c) only The incorrect statement(s) is/are
prostaglandins
(3) (a) and (c) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) (1) (a) and (c) only
(2) Morphine when administered in
4. Which among the following is a bactericidal medicinal dose, relieve pain (2) (c) only
antibiotic? [NCERT Pg. 455]
(3) Veronal is a derivative of barbituric acid
(3) (b) only
(1) Tetracycline (2) Ofloxacin
(4) Antihistamines and analgesics are
(3) Chloramphenicol (4) Erythromycin (4) (b) and (c) only
neurologically active drugs
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NCERT Maps Chemistry in Everyday Life 143
12. Incorrect statement among the following is 15. In which of the following compounds tertiary 19. Consider the following statements
[NCERT Pg. 452,453,451] amine is absent? [NCERT Pg. 453] [NCERT Pg. 459,460]
(1) Noradrenaline plays role in mood (1) Morphine (a) Anionic detergents are sodium salts of
changes sulphonated long chain alcohols or
(2) Serotonin
(2) Barbiturates are hypnotic hydrocarbons
(3) Heroin
(3) Histamine is responsible for nasal (b) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide is a
(4) Codeine
congestion cationic detergent
16. Which among the following is not used as a
(4) Drugs that bind to the receptor site and (c) Calcium stearate is soluble in water but
tranquilizer? [NCERT Pg. 452,453,455]
inhibit its natural function are called sodium stearate is not
agonists (1) Meprobamate (2) Equanil The incorrect statement(s) among the
13. Narrow spectrum antibiotics among the (3) Dysidazirine (4) Veronal following is/are
following is [NCERT Pg. 455] (1) (b) only (2) (c) only
17. Which among the following is present in
(1) Penicillin G (2) Vancomycin salvarsan? [NCERT Pg. 454] (3) (a) and (b) only (4) (b) and (c) only
(3) Ofloxacin (4) Chloramphenicol (1) As (2) Cd 20. Which solution is used as disinfectant?
14. Norethindrone is used as [NCERT Pg. 456] (3) Pb (4) Ag [NCERT Pg. 456]
(1) Antifertility drug 18. Saccharin is sweeter than cane sugar by (1) Tincture of iodine
(2) Antiseptic how many times? [NCERT Pg. 457] (2) Aqueous solution of boric acid
(3) Tranquilizer (1) 100 (2) 600 (3) 0.2 percent solution of phenol
(4) Analgesic (3) 550 (4) 2000 (4) 0.2 to 0.4 ppm solution of Cl2
1. Use of chemicals for therapeutic effect is 3. Some drugs do not bind to the enzyme’s 5. ________ stimulates the secretion of pepsin
called ________. [NCERT Pg. 447] active site. These binds to a different site of and hydrochloric acid in the stomach
enzyme which is called ______ site [NCERT Pg. 451]
2. Proteins which are crucial to communication
[NCERT Pg. 449]
system in the body are called ______. 6. Synthetic drug, terfenadine acts as ______
4. Receptor proteins are embedded in ______ [NCERT Pg. 451]
[NCERT Pg. 448]
[NCERT Pg. 450]
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144 Chemistry in Everyday Life NCERT Maps
7. Tranquilizers affect the message transfer 12. Aspirin inhibits the synthesis of ______ 17. Birth control pills essentially contain a
mechanism from ______ to receptor [NCERT Pg. 453] mixture of synthetic ______ and ______
[NCERT Pg. 452]
derivatives [NCERT Pg. 456]
8. Antidepressant drugs inhibit the enzymes 13. In body, prontosil is converted to a
which catalyse the degradation of ______ compound called ______ [NCERT Pg. 455] 18. Aspartame is methyl ester of dipeptide
[NCERT Pg. 452] formed from ______ and phenylalanine
9. Equanil is used in controlling depression 14. Ampicillin and Amoxycillin are synthetic [NCERT Pg. 458]
and ______ [NCERT Pg. 452] modifications of ______ [NCERT Pg. 455]
19. Sucralose is trichloro derivative of ______
10. Nembutal is a derivative of ______
15. ______ is added to soaps to impart [NCERT Pg. 458]
[NCERT Pg. 453]
antiseptic properties [NCERT Pg. 456] 20. Hydrolysis of glyceryl ester in presence of
11. Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class
alkali is known as _______
of ______ analgesics 16. ______ percent solution of phenol is an
[NCERT Pg. 453] disinfectant [NCERT Pg. 456] [NCERT Pg. 459]
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152 Answers NCERT Maps
Class XII
Chapter-1 : The Solid State
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Large
1. (3) 2. (2) 1. Crystalline 12. 106
3. (3) 4. (1) 2. Isotropic 13. Yellow
5. (4) 6. (3) 3. Polycrystalline 14. Fe0.95 O
7. (2) 8. (1) 4. Two
15. 107 ohm–1 m–1
9. (3) 10. (4) 5. Two
16. Insulator
11. (2) 12. (2) 6. hcp
17. npn and pnp
13. (1) 14. (4) 7. Avogadro constant
15. (2) 16. (3) 18. 9.27 × 10–24
8. Line defects
17. (4) 18. (1) 9. Eight 19. Domains
Chapter-2 : Solutions
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. London dispersion forces
1. (3) 2. (1) 12. 0.46
1. Less
3. (4) 4. (4) 2. Ideal solutions 13. Volume
5. (2) 6. (1) 3. Mole fraction 14. P1o
7. (3) 8. (4) 4. Colligative properties
15. Zero
9. (2) 10. (1) 5. Higher
16. 373.052 K
11. (3) 12. (2) 6. 0.5
17. 4.66 atm
13. (4) 14. (4) 7. 0.9%
15. (1) 16. (3) 18. 15.28%
8. ppm
17. (2) 18. (4) 9. Pressure 19. Solid solvent
19. (4) 20. (1) 10. Helium 20. Osmosis
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NCERT Maps Answers 153
Chapter-3 : Electrochemistry
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Zero
1. (1) 2. (3) 1. Gibbs energy 12. 1.35 V
3. (2) 4. (4) 2. Intensive 13. Six
5. (3) 6. (4) 3. ohm meter 14. Overpotential
7. (2) 8. (1) 4. 150 K
15. S2O82−
9. (1) 10. (3) 5. Increases
16. Equivalent weights
11. (2) 12. (2) 6. KCl
13. (4) 14. (1) 7. Negative 17. Limiting molar conductivity ( Λ°m )
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154 Answers NCERT Maps
19. (3) 20. (2) 10. Coagulating value 20. 10–4 to 10–3
19. (1) 20. (2) 10. Fe3O4, FeO 20. Froth stabilisers
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NCERT Maps Answers 155
17. (2) 18. (4) 9. Slowest and reversible 19. Alkyl fluorides
19. (1) 20. (1) 10. Polarimeter 20. Alkene
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NCERT Maps Answers 157
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158 Answers NCERT Maps
Chapter-13 : Amines
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context
11. Aluminium chloride/Lewis acid
1. (2) 2. (3) 1. N, N-Diethylbutan-1-amine
2. Aniline 12. Soluble
3. (4) 4. (1)
3. 5 13. Diazotisation
5. (4) 6. (1) 4. N-Ethylethanamine
14. KI
7. (2) 8. (3) 5. Primary
6. Nitrogen, alcohols 15. Ethanal
9. (1) 10. (3)
7. Hinsberg’s reagent 16. Phenol
11. (2) 12. (3)
8. Tertiary
13. (2) 14. (3) 17. Yellow
9. Less
15. (3) 16. (1) 18. Electrophilic substitution
Chapter-14 : Biomolecules
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Glycine
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NCERT Maps Answers 159
Chapter-15 : Polymers
Sharpen Your Understanding Thinking in Context 11. Natural rubber
1. (1) 2. (2) 1. Homopolymers 12. Non-polar
3. (3) 4. (1) 2. Elastic 13. Sulphur
5. (4) 6. (1) 3. Paints 14. Free-radical
7. (3) 8. (1) 4. Condensation 15. PHBV
9. (3) 10. (3) 5. Polyacrylonitrile 16. Bacterial
11. (4) 12. (4) 6. Caprolactam 17. Cellulose acetate
13. (1) 14. (2) 7. Polyesters 18. Copolymers
15. (1) 16. (1) 8. Zinc acetate – antimony trioxide 19. Free radical
17. (4) 18. (1) 9. Formaldehyde
19. (3) 20. (3) 10. Unbreakable crockery 20.
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