1) Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of their

potential effect on the mother, fetus and newborn. The following questions pertain to STDs.
Venus is a promiscuous woman in Manila who submits herself to the clinic for certain
examinations. She is experiencing vaginal irritation, redness and a thick cream cheese vaginal
discharge. As a nurse, you will suspect that she is having which disease?
Your Answer: Candida albicans
Answer: Candida albicans
Discussion: The symptoms of the client is consistent with cadidiasis infection. This is the
causative agent of Bacterial Vaginosis. This is the causative agent of Syphilis. This is the
causative agent Chlamydia

2) Normie is a 6-year-old preschooler reported by her mother having fever, coughing, runny
nose and white spots in his mouth. To render comfort measures is one of the priorities of the
nurse. This includes care of the skin, eyes, ears, mouth and nose. To clean the mouth, your
antiseptic solution is in some form of which one below?
Your Answer:
Answer: Water
Discussion: Patients with measles might develop mouth sores. Cleansing agent for this should
be neutral solution such as water. Sulfur, Alkaline and Salt will cause pain to the sore of the
patient

3) Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of their
potential effect on the mother, fetus and newborn. The following questions pertain to STDs.
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may be experienced by the client with syphilis after therapy with
Benzathine Penicillin G. The characteristic manifestations of Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction are,
Your Answer: Sudden episode of hypotension, fever, tachycardia and muscle aches
Answer: Sudden episode of hypotension, fever, tachycardia and muscle aches
Discussion: Upon administration of Penicillin, massive destruction of the microorganisms
occurs, the organisms will produce endotoxin in defend to that, which produces fever,
hypotension tachycardia and muscle aches

4) The Philippines ranks ninth among the 22 highburden countries for pulmonary tuberculosis.
However, there has been a significant decline in the tuberculosis burden ten years after the
DOTS therapy was initiated. A client exposed to tuberculosis is taking Isoniazid and develops
signs and symptoms of the disease. The client is instructed to add Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide
to the medication regimen. A nurse explains to the client that the purpose of adding this second
medication is,
Your Answer: These medications potentiate each othereliminated
Answer: To be certain that resistant organisms are
Discussion: The reason in most cases where in multiple drug therapy is given, is to prevent
resistance of the microorganisms to the drugs. They do not offset the effect of each other
5) The nurse in the community is planning to educate the people regarding the prevention of the
MERS-CoV, which of the following if stated by the nurse would be considered inaccurate?
Your Answer: Currently, there is a vaccine that will prevent a person from contracting the viral
condition, it is available in the city hall of every municipalities.
Answer: Currently, there is a vaccine that will prevent a person from contracting the viral
condition, it is available in the city hall of every municipalities.
Discussion: As stated, currently there are no vaccines available to prevent this new viral disease
as well as medication that will help to cure but management is usually toward in controlling and
relieving manifestation or symptomatic approach. The DOH recommends that in order to
prevent the disease, increasing immune resistance would be the best approach. These
intervention includes, frequent hand washing, avoiding people who are sick, covering mouth
when coughing and sneezing, sleeping enough or 8 hours, drinking ample amount of water,
eating nutritious food like vegetable and fruits and taking vitamins
Reference - doh.gov.ph

6) A nurse has given a client, who is taking Ethambutol, information about this medication. The
nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states and immediately
reports:
Your Answer: Difficulty in discriminating the color red from green
Answer: Difficulty in discriminating the color red from green
Discussion: The side effect of Ethambutol is optic neuritis making this option the best nswer.
This is the side effect of Streptomycin. This is the side effect of Rifampicin

7) A cohort study differs from a case-control study in that,

Your Answer: Cohort studies require many years to conduct, but case-control studies do not
Answer: Subjects are enrolled or categorized on the basis of their exposure status in a cohort
study but not in a case-control study
Discussion: The key difference between a cohort and case-control study is that, in a cohort
study, subjects are enrolled on the basis of their exposure, whereas in a case-control study
subjects are enrolled on the basis of whether they have the disease of interest or not. Both
types of studies assess exposure and disease status. While some cohort studies have been
conducted over several years, others, particularly those that are outbreak-related, have been
conducted in days. Either type of study can be used to study a wide array of health problems,
including infectious and non-infectious.

8) The epidemiologic triad of disease causation refers to,

Your Answer: Agent, host, environment
Answer: Agent, host, environment
Discussion: The epidemiologic triad of disease causation refers to agent-host-environment.

9) Maricris, a 6-year-old girl, was not given any immunization at all since her family never visited
a health care facility. She was diagnosed with Heine-Medin disease. The major route of
transmission of polio virus in an environment with poor sanitation would be,
Your Answer: Feco-Oral
Answer: Feco-Oral
Discussion: Heine Medin Disease is also known as Infantile paralysis or Poliomyelitis which is
transmitted through fecal-oral route. Water system and sewerage system might be one of the
source of infection but not specifically its mode of transmission. Droplet is not for Poliomyelitis.

10) Maricris, a 6-year-old girl, was not given any immunization at all since her family never
visited a health care facility. She was diagnosed with Heine-Medin disease. A nursing instructor
asks his student about the administration of human immunoglobulin. The student correctly
states that these types of vaccine are,
Your Answer: Vaccines that had their virulence diminished so as not to produce a full blown
disease condition
Answer: Vaccines collected from pooled human blood and provide antibodies to a variety of
diseases.
Discussion: Human immunoglobulins are pooled from the blood of the human which gives
immediate protection. This is weakened vaccines. This is Killed vaccines.

11) Nashsep, 35 years old, is HIV positive. Aside from fatigue, Nashsep has no other
complaints. Which of the following is an inappropriate advice of the nurse for Nashsep?
Your Answer: Inform all health care personnel
Answer: Do not become pregnant
Discussion: It is important for the nurse to instruct clients who are infected with HIV to abstain
from sexual activities, or if not possible make sure to have safe sex measures. To prevent
transmission to health care personnel, it is important for you to inform the other members of the
health care team. Informing all sexual partners are necessary to know if they are also infected
or not

12) What is the CD4 T-cell count at which AIDS is considered to have developed?
Your Answer: Below 200 per cubic milliliter
Answer: Below 200 per cubic milliliter
Discussion: A normal count is 600 or more CD4 positive T cells per cubic milliliter of blood.
Below 200 per cubic milliliter means a person infected with HIV has developed AIDS.

13) When the nurse interacts with the client, which of the following precautionary measures
should she observe to prevent contamination?
Your Answer: Wear mask and gown
Answer: Wear gloves
Discussion: It is important for nurse who handles HIV-AIDS to wear gloves especially if you are
expecting spray of body fluids coming from the patient. There are times that you cannot avoid to
touch the secretions especially if you are rendering care to the client. 3 ft distance from the
patient is not necessary. Wearing mask is also important but wearing gloves is the first priority
14) Choose the following correct combination of drug and virus,
Your Answer: Daclatasvir versus hepatitis C
Answer: Daclatasvir versus hepatitis C
Discussion: Probably one of the most dramatic discoveries in the field over the last edition of
Human Virology has been the anti Hep C drugs

15) Cryosurgery may also be used to remove large lesions. The healing period after cryosurgery
may be completed in 4 to 6 weeks but may cause some discomfort to the woman. Which
measures can alleviate these discomforts?
Your Answer: Sitz baths and lidocaine cream
Answer: Cool Air
Discussion: Cool air dry is recommended after cryosurgery

16) Which of these is a symptom of HIV infection?

Your Answer: All choices
Answer: All choices
Discussion: These are symptoms of HIV, but a blood test is the only way to know for sure if you
have HIV infection. Symptoms are not always reliable. They can be mistaken for other illnesses.
Severe symptoms like rapid weight loss or chronic infections usually do not appear for years, if
at all. Even if you do not have any symptoms, you can still infect other people. This is one
important reason why early testing is so important.

17) When was HIV first recognized in the U.S.?

Your Answer: 1981
Answer: 1981
Discussion: Around this time, doctors in Los Angeles and New York were reporting rare cases
of pneumonia, cancer, and other illnesses among male patients who had sex with other men.
These conditions were not normally found in people with healthy immune systems. It was
several years before scientists developed a test for the virus.

18) A client who is taking INH, Rifampicin, PZA and Pyridoxine for the treatment of tuberculosis
asks a nurse why the Vitamin B6 ,pyridoxine, is necessary. The nurse would respond that,
Your Answer: INH causes nausea and vomiting which leads to inadequate intake of Vitamin B6.
Answer: INH competes with the absorption of Vitamin B6, which leads to depletion.
Discussion: The reason why patients who are taking Isoniazid is manifesting peripheral neuritis
is because of the reason

19) HIV attacks a certain kind of cell in the immune system. Which is it?
Your Answer: White blood cells called T cells
Answer: White blood cells called T cells
Discussion: HIV targets a kind of white blood cell called a CD4 positive T cell, or T4 cell. This
type of cell is a key immune response cell and fighter of infections.

20) In order to prevent acquiring sexually transmitted diseases, which is the BEST way to
consider?
Your Answer: Abstinence
Answer: Abstinence
Discussion: Best way to prevent transmission of sexually transmitted infection is abstinence.
You will not be protected in these actions. Condom will give you protection against STI but not
100percent

21) Nashsep, 35 years old, is HIV positive. Aside from fatigue, Nashsep has no other
complaints. The result of the Enzyme-linked Immunosorbent Assay Test ,ELISA, was positive.
The nurse understands that this is a test to determine the presence of,
Your Answer: HIV antigen-antibody response
Answer: HIV antibody
Discussion: ELISA, now known as Enzyme immunoassay, is a commonly used screening test to
detect antibodies to HIV. Viral count is used to know if how much viral load do a patient has.
CD4 count is used to determine total CD4 T cell of a patient

22) Which of the following is not a risk factor for mother-to-child transmission of HIV?
Your Answer: A history of stillbirth
Answer: Advanced maternal age
Discussion: Young maternal age is a risk factor, as are a high maternal viral load, a low
maternal CD4 count, a history of stillbirth, prolonged rupture of the membranes, breastfeeding,
sexually transmitted diseases, chorioamnionitis, vaginal delivery, advanced maternal HIV
disease, and obstetric events that increase bleeding

23) The Philippines ranks ninth among the 22 highburden countries for pulmonary tuberculosis.
However, there has been a significant decline in the tuberculosis burden ten years after the
DOTS therapy was initiated. Question: Staff nurses learn that a client they have been caring for
during the last few weeks has just been diagnosed with tuberculosis. When the nurse expresses
concern about contracting tuberculosis themselves, the charge nurse's response should be
based on which of the following statements?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis is not highly infectious when standard precautions are followed.
Answer: Tuberculosis is not highly infectious when standard precautions are followed.
Discussion: If strict standard precaution was made in handling a TB client, transmission of the
disease will be prevented. Minimum treatment of TB is 6months. Sputum culture analysis is
used to confirm the diagnosis of TB. BCG will not give you 100percent protection against TB

24) Why are drug combinations essential for HIV?

Your Answer: The virus cannot mutate vs a combination
Answer: The virus cannot mutate vs a combination
Discussion: Microbe populations of billions are subject to natural laws and Darwinian theories of
survival of the fittest. So even 2 drugs can be superseded by 3 or even 4.

25) A propagated epidemic is usually the result of what type of exposure?

Your Answer: Person to person
Answer: Person to person
Discussion: A propagated epidemic is one in which infection spreads from person to person.

26) A nurse is reviewing the physician's prescription for a child who has been diagnosed with
scabies. Lindane has been prescribed for the child. The nurse questions the prescription if
which of the following is noted in the child's record?
Your Answer: The child has a history of frequent respiratory infections.
Answer: The child is 18 months old.
Discussion: Lindane is a neurotoxic drug that is the reason why it is not given to children less
than 2 years old. 1st line drugs for scabies are Crotamiton lotion and Permethrin. These are
irrelevant statements in contraindication of administration of Lindane

27) Bobby, 11 years old, was admitted because of hematuria. Diagnosis was Dengue Fever.
The nurse noted that aspirin and NSAIDs are contraindicated for Bobby. Which of the following
is the rationale behind this order?
Your Answer: Drugs enhance production of maculopapular rashes
Answer: Drug contains anticoagulant properties
Discussion: Aspirin is a blood thinner medicine hence will cause further bleeding to the patient.
Although NSAIDs causes GI upset which can lead to bleeding of the patient with dengue,
aspirin is more contraindicated one.

28) SARS is described as a zoonotic virus - what does this mean?

Your Answer: They emerge from animals to cross the species barrier infrequently
Answer: They emerge from animals to cross the species barrier infrequently
Discussion: The emergence of viruses can be complex and although at first sight the civet cat
was blamed, the ultimate reservoir for SARS is a bat in SE Asia. A pandemic implies rapid
global spread and this has not been a feature to date.

29) What does HIV-positive mean?

Your Answer: Either antibodies against HIV or the virus particles themselves are present in the
blood
Answer: Either antibodies against HIV or the virus particles themselves are present in the blood
Discussion: When you have HIV in your body, your immune system makes antibodies, a kind of
protein, to fight the infection. These antibodies can be measured by a blood test. It usually takes
2 to 8 weeks after infection before HIV antibodies can be detected. For some people, it may
take longer, but most people will develop antibodies within the first 3 months after infection.
Once the antibodies are detected, a person is considered HIV-positive. A person can also be
diagnosed with HIV infection when a blood test detects the actual virus particles.

30) All of the following are necessary household management in preventing the spread of
measles at home, except,
Your Answer: The patient should be isolated when the fever subsides
Answer: The patient should be isolated when the fever subsides
Discussion: Period of communicability of Measles is 4 days before upto 5 days after the eruption
of rashes. Even though the patient has no fever, it is still possible that he is communicable

31) You are caring for Rolando, 58 years old, who was admitted because of difficulty of
swallowing and stiffening of the neck. He has a history of a wound laceration on his right hand
sustained while gardening. Physician suspects Tetanus infection. The priority nursing diagnosis
for Rolando is Risk for ineffective airway clearance related to which of the following?
Your Answer: Stiffness of the jaw
Answer: Stiffness of the jaw
Discussion: If the problem has something to do with the mouth and nose, priority is airway.
Hence stiffnes of the jaw might cause ineffective airway clearance. The priority intervention
during seizure is providing safety of the patient.

32) Water is a common vehicle of transmission for communicable diseases. How far should
toilet facilities be away from water sources?
Your Answer: 25-35 meters
Answer: 25-35 meters
Discussion: Toilet facilities should be 25 meters away water source to ensure that it will not
contaminate the water.

33) When analyzing surveillance data by age, which of the following age groups is preferred?
Choose one best answer
Your Answer: 1-year age groups
Answer: Depends on the disease
Discussion: Epidemiologists tailor descriptive epidemiology to best describe the data they have.
Because different diseases have different age distributions, epidemiologists use different age
breakdowns appropriate for the disease of interest.

34) Bobby, 11 years old, was admitted because of hematuria. Diagnosis was Dengue Fever. To
prevent transmission of the virus to others, which of the following is the MOST appropriate
isolation measure that the nurse should implement in the care of Bobby?
Your Answer: Use gown, gloves and mask
Answer: Screen the environment
Discussion: The mode of transmission of DHF is through bite of infected A. Aegypti, giving
intervention with this type of mode of transmission will prevent the spread of infection.
Screening the environment is the most effective way. These types of isolation are not necessary
since DHF is transmitted through vector.

35) Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of their
potential effect on the mother, fetus and newborn. The following questions pertain to STDs.
Syphilis is another infection that may impose risk during pregnancy. Since we are under the
practice of health science, the nurse knows that Syphilis is caused by,
Your Answer: Treponema pallidum
Answer: Treponema pallidum
Discussion: Treponema pallidum is the causative agent of Syphilis

36) Bobby, 11 years old, was admitted because of hematuria. Diagnosis was Dengue Fever.
The condition of Bobby is closely watched for signs of hypovolemic shock. Which of the
following should the nurse report as EARLY signs of hypovolemic shock?
1. Lethargy
2.Rapid pulse
3.Clammy skin
4.Cyanosis
5. Restlessness
6. Hematemesis
Your Answer: 1,2,3,5
Answer: 1,2,3,5
Discussion: NONE

37) Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of their
potential effect on the mother, fetus and newborn. The following questions pertain to STDs. The
causative agent of venereal warts is,
Your Answer: Human Papilloma Virus
Answer: Human Papilloma Virus
Discussion: NONE

38) Choose the best answer, comparing numbers and rates of illness in a community, rates are
preferred for,
Your Answer: Conducting surveillance for communicable diseases
Answer: Estimating subgroups at highest risk
Discussion: Rates assess risk. Numbers are generally preferred for identifying individual cases
and for resource planning.
39) Sexually Transmitted Diseases are important to identify during pregnancy because of their
potential effect on the mother, fetus and newborn. The following questions pertain to STDs. As a
knowledgeable nurse, you know that the doctor may prescribe a certain medication for Desiree.
Which would be the drug of choice for her infection?
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Answer: Miconazole
Discussion: Candidiasis is a fungal infection hence, Miconazole is the drug given. This drug is
given to Syphilis. This drug is given to Trichomoniasis

40) Maricris, a 6-year-old girl, was not given any immunization at all since her family never
visited a health care facility. She was diagnosed with Heine-Medin disease. A client who was
exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity which,
Your Answer: Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic sites
Answer: Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen
Discussion: Gammaglobulin is a type of passive immunity which gives immediate protection that
instantly neutralizes the antigen

41) Maricris, a 6-year-old girl, was not given any immunization at all since her family never
visited a health care facility. She was diagnosed with Heine-Medin disease. When the polio
virus enters the system, it multiplies in the,
Your Answer: Gastrointestinal tract
Answer: Gastrointestinal tract
Discussion: The question is asking for the place where the microorganisms of poliomyelitis
multiplies or proliferates, therefore the best answer is GI tract. Since it is acquired thru fecal oral
route and enters the GIT, this is the place where it favors the multiplication. CNS is the organ of
affectation

42) Nashsep, 35 years old, is HIV positive. Aside from fatigue, Nashsep has no other
complaints. Which of the following is NOT a primary tool for AIDS prevention?
Your Answer: Immunization
Answer: Immunization
Discussion: There is no known vaccine for HIV-AIDS

43) A client suspected of having tetanus asks the nurse about immunization against the
disease. The nurse explains that the major benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is that it,
Your Answer: Stimulates long-lasting passive immunity
Answer: Provides a high titer of immunoglobulins
Discussion: Antitoxins provide a short but immediate response to the problem of the patient
hence it will provide high titer of immunoglobulins. It is a type of Artificial Passive immunity
which provides short lasting effect
44) Which point in the replication cycle appears most easily blocked by antivirals?
Your Answer: Virus RNA and DNA replication
Answer: Virus RNA and DNA replication
Discussion: Experience has shown that nucleoside and nucleotide analogues are the most
easily discovered antivirals especially for HHV and HIV.

45) In clients who are suspected of having the MERS-CoV virus, which laboratory test would
provide an accurate diagnosis of MERS-CoV?
Your Answer: Polymerase chain reaction
Answer: Polymerase chain reaction
Discussion: There are two diagnostic procedures that will confirm if an individual is infected with
MERS-CoV. Its either through autopsy or Polymerase chain reaction. Travel history and
manifestation would help in establishing the diagnosis, however would not confirm the case.
Sputum AFB is relevant in confirming respiratory infections such as in TB and pneumonia.
These procedures can be done in a client with MERS-CoV, however, these procedure will not
help in confirming the disease.
Reference- cdc.gov

46) Which of the following drugs inhibit herpes viruses?

Your Answer: Acyclovir
Answer: Acyclovir
Discussion: Acyclovir this was the third discovery of an antiviral - the first was Marboran versus
smallpox. Acyclovir is used as a prodrug versus HHV-1, HHV-2 and HHV-3.

47) During a seizure, which of the following are you expected to do FIRST?
Your Answer: Turn patient to his side
Answer: Turn patient to his side
Discussion: During seizure the initial priority is to provide safety to the client. But turning the
client to his side, if possible is indicated to promote drainage of the secretions. Monitoring VS is
done after seizure. Padded tongue blade can cause obstruction especially if the blade or teeth
of the client has broken. Mechanical ventilation is given if the patient develops respiratory
distress after the seizure subsides

48) MERS-CoV is transmitted via,

Your Answer: Human to Human transmission
Answer: Human to Human transmission
Discussion: The mode of transmission of MERS-CoV is human to human, direct contact to a
person infected with MERS-CoV. The WHO is still investigating whether it is transmitted through
respiratory or direct physical contact. So far there are no sustained community transmission has
been observed. Plants are not associated with MERS-CoV. Researchers linked MERS-Cov to
Camels and Bats. However, that speculation is not yet confirmed. MERS-CoV is not transmitted
through vector like mosquito, or snails.
Reference- who.int

49) Normie is a 6-year-old preschooler reported by her mother having fever, coughing, runny
nose and white spots in his mouth. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning red, referring to the
rashes that appear on the face and cheeks of the client during the eruptive stage prior to its full
development by the end of the second day. As a nurse, your physical examination must
determine complications, especially,
Your Answer: Otitis Media
Answer: Bronchial pneumonia
Discussion: Most common complication of patients with measles is broncho-pneumonia.
Though otitis media is one of the complication, the priority assessment is still on the
development of pneumonia since this is one of the cause of death of patients with measles. This
is expected manifestation

50) Normie is a 6-year-old preschooler reported by her mother having fever, coughing, runny
nose and white spots in his mouth. As a public health nurse, you are teaching the mother and
family members the prevention of measles' complication. Which of the following should be
closely watched?
Your Answer: Inflammation of the conjunctiva
Answer: Temperature fails to drop
Discussion: Temperature fails to drop indicates that the client is leading to complication which is
pneumonia. These are expected manifestations in measles