Computer Fundamentals Questions and Answers
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Computer Fundamentals- 1094 Questions and Answers
Collected by Engineer: AbdulEllah Qasim
1
1. Which unit is responsible for converting the data received from the user into a computer understandable format?
a) Memory Unit
b) Arithmetic & Logic Unit
c) Input Unit
d) Output Unit
View Answer
Answer: c
2. The only language which the computer understands is ______________
a) Assembly Language
b) Binary Language
c) BASIC
d) C Language
View Answer
Answer: b
3. The smallest unit of data in computer is ________________
a) Byte
b) Nibble
c) Bit
d) KB
View Answer
Answer: c
4. One nibble is equivalent to how many bits?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
2
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
5. Which of the following describes the correct format of an input instruction?
a) IN 82
b) INPUT 82
c) INP 82
d) 82 INP
View Answer
Answer: a
6. The input machine which originated in the United States around 1880s is a ___________
a) Mouse
b) Joystick
c) Keyboard
d) Bar Code Reader
View Answer
Answer: c
7. What does the COMPUTER stand for?
a) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research
b) Commonly Occupied Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research
c) Commonly Operated Machines Used in Technical and Environmental Research
d) Commonly Oriented Machines Used in Technical and Educational Research
View Answer
Answer: a
8. 1 yottabyte = ______________
3
a) 1024 TB
b) 1024 EB
c) 1024 ZB
d) 1024 PB
View Answer
Answer: c
9. Which of the following is not a function of the Input Unit?
a) It reads instructions and data from the outside world
b) It converts the data into computer acceptable format
c) It makes the data into user understandable format
d) It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further processing
View Answer
Answer: c
10. Label the parts 1 and 2:
computer-fundamentals-questions-answers-input-unit-q10
a) 1.ALU 2. MU
b) 1.Output unit 2.Input Unit
c) 1.MU 2. ALU
d) 1.Input Unit 2.Output Unit
View Answer
Answer: d
11. The process of producing useful information for the user is called ___________
a) Controlling
b) Outputting
c) Inputting
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d) Processing
View Answer
Answer: b
12. The output unit converts the data entered by the user into computer understandable form.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
13. VDU stands for __________
a) Virtual Display Unit
b) Visual Display Unit
c) Virtual Detection Unit
d) Visual Detection Unit
View Answer
Answer: b
14. What does SVGA stand for?
a) Standard Visual Graphics Array
b) Super Visual Graphics Array
c) Standard Video Graphics Array
d) Super Video Graphics Array
View Answer
Answer: d
15. The devices that used to give single or multiple colored images and drawings are ____________
a) Monitors
b) Printers
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c) Plotters
d) VDUs
View Answer
Answer: c
16. A special request originated from some device to the CPU to acquire some of its time is called ___________
a) Disturbance
b) Attenuation
c) Interrupt
d) Noise
View Answer
Answer: c
17. Line Printers that print one line at a time are _________
a) Laser Printers
b) Inkjet Printers
c) Drum Printers
d) Chain Printers
View Answer
Answer: c
18. A ___________________ monitor looks like a television and are normally used with non-portable computer
systems.
a) CRT
b) LCD
c) LED
d) Flat Panel Monitors
View Answer
Answer: a
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19. Which of the following is not a function of the Output Unit?
a) It produces results that can be easily understood by the user
b) It accepts the results produced by the computer
c) It supplies the data and instructions to the outside world
d) It supplies the data and instructions to the computer for further processing
View Answer
Answer: d
20. PCI stands for _________
a) Peripheral Component Interconnect
b) Partial Component Interconnect
c) Peripheral Component Interaction
d) Partial Component Interaction
View Answer
Answer: a
21. Components that provide internal storage to the CPU are ______
a) Registers
b) Program Counters
c) Controllers
d) Internal chips
View Answer
Answer: a
22. Saving data and instructions to make them readily available is the job of __________
a) Storage Unit
b) Cache Unit
c) Input Unit
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d) Output Unit
View Answer
Answer: a
23. The two basic types of memory in a computer are ________
computer-fundamentals-questions-answers-arithmetic-logic-unit-q3
a) Primary and major
b) Primary and Secondary
c) Minor and Major
d) Main and virtual
View Answer
Answer: b
24. Which of the following is used to hold running program instructions?
a) Primary Storage
b) Virtual Storage
c) Internal Storage
d) Minor Devices
View Answer
Answer: a
25. Which of the following is non-volatile storage?
a) Backup
b) Secondary
c) Primary
d) Cache
View Answer
Answer: b
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26. Which of the following is used in main memory?
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) PRAM
d) DDR
View Answer
Answer: b
27. RAID stands for __________
a) Redundant array of independent disks
b) Redundant array of individual disks
c) Reusable Array of independent disks
d) Reusable array of individual disks
View Answer
Answer: a
28. A non-erasable disk that stores digitized audio information is _____
a) CD
b) CD-ROM
c) DVD-R
d) DVD-RW
View Answer
Answer: a
29. The first practical form of Random Access Memory was the __________
a) SSEM
b) Cathode Ray Tube
c) William’s Tube
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d) Thomas’s Tube
View Answer
Answer: c
30. The ‘heart’ of the processor which performs many different operations _____________
a) Arithmetic and logic unit
b) Motherboard
c) Control Unit
d) Memory
View Answer
Answer: a
31. ALU is the place where the actual executions of instructions take place during the processing operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
32. Which of the following is not a bitwise operator?
a) |
b) ^
c) .
d) <<
View Answer
Answer: c
33. The sign magnitude representation of -1 is __________
a) 0001
b) 1110
10
c) 1000
d) 1001
View Answer
Answer: d
34. IEEE stands for ___________
a) Instantaneous Electrical Engineering
b) Institute of Emerging Electrical Engineers
c) Institute of Emerging Electronic Engineers
d) Institute of Electrical and electronics engineers
View Answer
Answer: d
35. The ALU gives the output of the operations and the output is stored in the ________
a) Memory Devices
b) Registers
c) Flags
d) Output Unit
View Answer
Answer: b
36. The process of division on memory spaces is called ______________
a) Paging
b) Segmentation
c) Bifurcation
d) Dynamic Division
View Answer
Answer: b
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37. Number of bits in ALU is _________
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
38. Which flag indicates the number of 1 bit that results from an operation?
a) Zero
b) Parity
c) Auxiliary
d) Carry
View Answer
Answer: b
39. The bitwise complement of 0 is ___________
a) 00000001
b) 10000000
c) 11111111
d) 11111110
View Answer
Answer: c
40. ____________ is the raw material used as input and __________ is the processed data obtained as output of data
processing.
a) Data, Instructions
b) Instructions, Program
c) Data, Program
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d) Program, Code
View Answer
Answer: a
41. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a computer?
a) Diligence
b) I.Q.
c) Accuracy
d) Versatility
View Answer
Answer: b
42. Fill in the blank in the diagram.
a) Input Unit
b) Memory Unit
c) Control Unit
d) I/O Unit
View Answer
Answer: c
43. The part of a processor which contains hardware necessary to perform all the operations required by a computer:
a) Data path
b) Controller
c) Registers
d) Cache
View Answer
Answer: a
44. What does MAR stand for?
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a) Main Address Register
b) Memory Access Register
c) Main Accessible Register
d) Memory Address Register
View Answer
Answer: d
45. If the control signals are generated by combinational logic, then they are generated by a type of
_______________ controlled unit.
a) Micro programmed
b) Software
c) Logic
d) Hardwired
View Answer
Answer: d
46. Which is the simplest method of implementing hardwired control unit?
a) State Table Method
b) Delay Element Method
c) Sequence Counter Method
d) Using Circuits
View Answer
Answer: a
47. A set of microinstructions for a single machine instruction is called ___________
a) Program
b) Command
c) Micro program
d) Micro command
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View Answer
Answer: c
48. Micro-program consists of a set of microinstructions which are strings of 0s and 1s.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
49. A decoder is required in case of a ______________
a) Vertical Microinstruction
b) Horizontal Microinstruction
c) Multilevel Microinstruction
d) All types of microinstructions
View Answer
Answer: a
50. Which of the following is not a type of number system?
a) Positional
b) Non-Positional
c) Octal
d) Fractional
View Answer
Answer: d
51. How is the number 5 represented in non-positional number system?
a) IIIII
b) 5
c) V
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d) v
View Answer
Answer: a
52. The base is the total number of digits in a number system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
53. The LSB and MSB of 1243247 are ____ and ____
a) 1, 7
b) 4, 7
c) 7, 1
d) 4, 1
View Answer
Answer: c
54. A device that uses positional notation to represent a decimal number.
a) Abacus
b) Calculator
c) Pascaline
d) Computer
View Answer
Answer: a
55. The 2’s complement of 5 is ______________
a) 1011
b) 0101
16
c) 1010
d) 0011
View Answer
Answer: a
56. What does BCD stand for?
a) Bitwise coded decimal
b) Binary coded decimal
c) Binary converted decimal
d) Bitwise Converted Decimal
View Answer
Answer: b
57. 1 zettabyte = ______________
a) 1024 TB
b) 1024 EB
c) 1024 ZB
d) 1024 PB
View Answer
Answer: b
58. Perfrom BCD addition: 2+3= _______________
a) 0010
b) 0011
c) 0101
d) 1010
View Answer
Answer: c
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59. ASCII stands for _____________________
a) American standard code for information interchange
b) American scientific code for information interchange
c) American scientific code for international interchange
d) American standard code of international interchange
View Answer
Answer: a
60. The value of base in a decimal number system is ____________
a) 8
b) 2
c) 10
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: c
61. Convert : (110)2 = ( __ )10.
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 9
View Answer
Answer: c
62. The 2’s complement of 15 is ____________
a) 0000
b) 0001
c) 0010
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d) 0100
View Answer
Answer: b
63. Another name for base is __________
a) root
b) radix
c) entity
d) median
View Answer
Answer: b
64. The decimal equivalent of (0.101)2 will be ____________
a) 0.5
b) 0.625
c) 0.25
d) 0.875
View Answer
Answer: b
65. The signed magnitude for -3 will be ___________
a) 00000011
b) 10000011
c) 11111101
d) 11111100
View Answer
Answer: b
66. A number with both integer and a fractional part has digits raised to both positive and negative powers of 2 in a
decimal number system.
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a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
67. The hexadecimal representation of 14 is _______________
a) A
b) F
c) D
d) E
View Answer
Answer: d
68. Which of the following is not a decimal number?
a) 114
b) 43.47
c) 99.9A
d) 10101
View Answer
Answer: c
69. Select the incorrect option:
a) (101)10 = (1100101)2
b) G is valid in hexadecimal system.
c) C represents 12
d) The base of a decimal number system is 10.
View Answer
Answer: b
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70. Which of the following is not a positional number system?
a) Roman Number System
b) Octal Number System
c) Binary Number System
d) Hexadecimal Number System
View Answer
Answer: a
71. The value of radix in binary number system is _____________
a) 2
b) 8
c) 10
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: a
72. The binary equivalent of the decimal number 10 is __________
a) 0010
b) 10
c) 1010
d) 010
View Answer
Answer: c
73. A computer language that is written in binary codes only is _____
a) machine language
b) C
c) C#
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d) pascal
View Answer
Answer: a
74. The octal equivalent of 1100101.001010 is ______
a) 624.12
b) 145.12
c) 154.12
d) 145.21
View Answer
Answer: b
75. The input hexadecimal representation of 1110 is _______________
a) 0111
b) E
c) 15
d) 14
View Answer
Answer: b
76. A bit in a computer terminology means either 0 or 1.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
77. Convert the binary equivalent 10101 to its decimal equivalent.
a) 21
b) 12
22
c) 22
d) 31
View Answer
Answer: a
78. Which of the following is not a binary number?
a) 1111
b) 101
c) 11E
d) 000
View Answer
Answer: c
79. Which of the following is the correct representation of a binary number?
a) (124)2
b) 1110
c) (110)2
d) (000)2
View Answer
Answer: d
80. What could be the maximum value of a single digit in an octal number system?
a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
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81. In a number system, each position of a digit represents a specific power of the base.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
82. The maximum number of bits sufficient to represent an octal number in binary is _______
a) 4
b) 3
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
83. The binary number 111 in octal format is ________________
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
84. Convert (22)8 into its corresponding decimal number.
a) 28
b) 18
c) 81
d) 82
View Answer
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Answer: b
85. The octal equivalent of the binary number (0010010100)2 is ______________
a) 422
b) 242
c) 224
d) 226
View Answer
Answer: c
86. Octal subtraction of (232)8 from (417)8 will give ______________
a) 165
b) 185
c) 815
d) 516
View Answer
Answer: a
87. The 1’s complement of 0.101 is _________________
a) 1.010
b) 0.010
c) 0.101
d) 1.101
View Answer
Answer: a
88. Convert (5401)8 to hexadecimal.
a) A01
b) A02
25
c) B01
d) C01
View Answer
Answer: c
89. Express the decimal format of the signed binary number (10010)2 .
a) 2
b) 12
c) -12
d) -2
View Answer
Answer: d
90. What does the symbol D represent in a hexadecimal number system?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 13
d) 14
View Answer
Answer: c
91. ABC is a valid hexadecimal number.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
92. The maximum number of bits sufficient to represent a hexadecimal number in binary:
a) 4
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b) 3
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: a
93. The binary number 1110 in hexadecimal format is _____________
a) 6
b) E
c) 14
d) 15
View Answer
Answer: b
94. Convert (52)16 into its decimal equivalent.
a) 28
b) 83
c) 80
d) 82
View Answer
Answer: d
95. The hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number (0010010100)2 is :
a) 0B4
b) 0A4
c) 224
d) 0114
View Answer
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Answer: c
96. Hexadecimal Addition of (3A5)16 and (1B2)16 will give :
a) 165
b) 185
c) 815
d) 516
View Answer
Answer: a
97. The 2’s complement of 10.11 :
a) 10
b) 0.010
c) 01.01
d) 10.01
View Answer
Answer: a
98. Convert (6532)8 to hexadecimal.
a) A01
b) A02
c) B01
d) C01
View Answer
Answer: c
99. What do we call the point(decimal) in any hexadecimal number of the form 111.A3?
a) radix
b) hexadecimal point
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c) decimal
d) octal point
View Answer
Answer: b
100. Which of the following is not a data type?
a) Symbolic Data
b) Alphanumeric Data
c) Numeric Data
d) Alphabetic Data
View Answer
Answer: a
101. *@Ac# is a type of ________________ data.
a) Symbolic
b) Alphanumeric
c) Alphabetic
d) Numeric
View Answer
Answer: b
102. Which of the following is not a valid representation in bits?
a) 8-bit
b) 24-bit
c) 32-bit
d) 64-bit
View Answer
Answer: b
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103. What are the entities whose values can be changed called?
a) Constants
b) Variables
c) Modules
d) Tokens
View Answer
Answer: b
104. Which of the following is not a basic data type in C language?
a) float
b) int
c) real
d) char
View Answer
Answer: c
105. BOOLEAN is a type of data type which basically gives a tautology or fallacy.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
106. What does FORTRAN stands for?
a) Formula Transfer
b) Formula Transformation
c) Formula Translation
d) Format Transformation
View Answer
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Answer: c
107. The program written by the programmer in high level language is called _____________
a) Object Program
b) Source Program
c) Assembled Program
d) Compiled Program
View Answer
Answer: b
108. A standardized language used for commercial applications.
a) C
b) Java
c) COBOL
d) FORTRAN
View Answer
Answer: c
109. ______________ define how the locations can be used.
a) Data types
b) Attributes
c) Links
d) Data Objects
View Answer
Answer: b
200. A group of bits used to represent a symbol is called a ____________
a) byte
b) memory
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c) nibble
d) code
View Answer
Answer: a
201. BCD uses 6 bits to represent a symbol.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
202. Which of the following is not a type of computer code?
a) EBCDIC
b) BCD
c) ASCII
d) EDIC
View Answer
Answer: d
203. The BCD representation of (34)10 is _______________
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
204. Perform BCD addition of (23)BCD + (20)BCD .
a) 00110100
32
b) 01000011
c) 10011
d) 11100
View Answer
Answer: b
205. The weights used in Binary coded decimal code are:
a) 4,2,1
b) 8,4,2,1
c) 6,4,2,1
d) 2,1
View Answer
Answer: b
206. Write the decimal equivalent for (110001)BCD.
a) 31
b) 13
c) C1
d) 1C
View Answer
Answer: a
207. The 9’s complement of 45 is _____________
a) 45
b) 54
c) 64
d) 46
View Answer
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Answer: b
208. The 10’s complement of 455 is _________
a) 543
b) 544
c) 545
d) 546
View Answer
Answer: c
209. The Excess-3 representation of (0100)BCD is __________
a) 0110
b) 1110
c) 0111
d) 1100
View Answer
Answer: c
210. What does EBCDIC stand for?
a) Extended Binary Converted Decimal Intermediate Code
b) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Intermediate Code
c) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
d) Extended Binary Converted Decimal Interchange Code
View Answer
Answer: b
211. In EBCDIC, a maximum of 128 different characters can be represented.
a) True
b) False
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View Answer
Answer: b
212. The EBCDIC code for the character A is ______________
a) digit : 1100 zone : 0001
b) digit : 1111 zone : 0001
c) digit : 1100 zone : 1010
d) digit : 1111 zone : 1010
View Answer
Answer: a
213. The hex representation for F is _______________
a) C6
b) C5
c) D6
d) D1
View Answer
Answer: a
214. In EBCDIC, D5 is used to represent ________ character.
a) J
b) N
c) O
d) K
View Answer
Answer: b
215. Which of the following is not a character of the digit 1110?
a) S
35
b) Z
c) O
d) X
View Answer
Answer: c
216. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the digit 9?
a) E9
b) F9
c) G9
d) H9
View Answer
Answer: b
217. The characters from 0 to 9 have their common digit as ___________
a) 1111
b) 0000
c) 0001
d) 1000
View Answer
Answer: a
218. The EBCDIC is mainly used in ___________
a) Programming
b) Machine Codes
c) Mainframes
d) Super Computers
View Answer
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Answer: c
219. Which of the following character is available in EBCDIC but not in ASCII?
a) cent sign
b) dollar sign
c) comma
d) punctuation
View Answer
Answer: a
220. What does ASCII stand for?
a) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
b) American Scientific Code for Information Interchange
c) American Scientific Code for Interchanging Information
d) American Standard Code for Interchanging Information
View Answer
Answer: a
221. The decimal representation for the character ‘!’ in ASCII is ____________
a) 31
b) 32
c) 33
d) 34
View Answer
Answer: c
222. The two types of ASCII are _____________ and ____________
a) ASCII-4 and ASCII-8
b) ASCII-8 and ASCII-16
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c) ASCII-7 and ASCII-8
d) ASCII-4 and ASCII-16
View Answer
Answer: c
223. Any set of digits or alphabets are generally referred as ______________
a) Characters
b) Symbols
c) Bits
d) Bytes
View Answer
Answer: a
224. The first 128 characters are the same in both the types of ASCII i.e. ASCII-7 and ASCII-8.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
225. The number of characters that can be represented in ASCII-8 are ______________
a) 128
b) 256
c) 32
d) 64
View Answer
Answer: b
226. The zone of alphabetic characters from A to O in ASCII is _____________
a) 1000
38
b) 0100
c) 0010
d) 0001
View Answer
Answer: b
227. The representation of the number 8 in binary in ASCII-8 format _________
a) 00111000
b) 01001000
c) 1000
d) 00011000
View Answer
Answer: a
228. Binary Coding for the letter X is ______________
a) 01011000
b) 00111000
c) 10001000
d) 00010100
View Answer
Answer: a
229. Express the ASCII equivalent of the signed binary number (00110010)2.
a) 2
b) 1
c) A
d) ,
View Answer
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Answer: a
230. Unicode provides a consistent way of encoding multilingual plain text.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
231. Which of the following is not a type of numeric value in zoned format?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Double
d) Unsigned
View Answer
Answer: c
232. The sign indicator of unsigned numbers is ____________
a) C
b) D
c) F
d) X
View Answer
Answer: c
233. The EBCDIC value of the number 345 in zoned format is __________
a) F3F4F5
b) E3E4E5
c) F3F4C5
d) F3F4D5
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View Answer
Answer: a
234. Which of the following is a valid encoding format?
a) UTF-1
b) UTF-8
c) UTF-A
d) UTF-4
View Answer
Answer: b
235. _________________ defines the assigned ordering among the characters used by the computer.
a) Unicode
b) Collating Sequence
c) Accumulation
d) Sorting
View Answer
Answer: b
236. The sorting sequence of the strings A1,23,1A will be ______________
a) 23 > A1 > 1A
b) 23 < 1A > A1
c) A1 > 1A > 23
d) A1 < 1A < 23
View Answer
Answer: d
237. The default character coding in HTML-5 is _____________
a) UTF-8
41
b) UTF-16
c) UTF-4
d) UTF-32
View Answer
Answer: a
238. Numbers used in packed decimal format can be used for _____________ operations.
a) logical
b) relational
c) arithmetic
d) bitwise
View Answer
Answer: c
239. __________________ is a straightforward method of representing positive and negative numbers.
a) Radix
b) Complement
c) Sign Magnitude
d) Encode
View Answer
Answer: c
240. The additive inverse of a number is the number which when added to the original number gives 1 as a result.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
241. The 1’s complement of 1 in 4 bits is __________
42
a) 0001
b) 0
c) 1001
d) 1110
View Answer
Answer: d
242. The binary number 111 in its 2’s complement form is ____________
a) 010
b) 001
c) 000
d) 111
View Answer
Answer: b
243. The sign magnitude representation of -9 is ___________
a) 00001001
b) 11111001
c) 10001001
d) 11001
View Answer
Answer: c
244. If you are given a word of size n bits, the range of 2’s complement of binary numbers is ________
a) -2n+1 to +2n+1
b) -2n-1 to +2n-1
c) -2n-1 to +2n+1
d) -2n-1 to +2n-1-1
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View Answer
Answer: d
245. In both signed magnitude and 2’s complement , positive and negative numbers are separated using
______________
a) LSB
b) MSB
c) 0
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
246. Single Precision format comprises of _________ bits.
a) 4
b) 8
c) 16
d) 32
View Answer
Answer: d
247. If m is the 2’s complement and n is the binary number, then ______________
a) m=n’
b) m=n’+1
c) m=n’-1
d) m=n
View Answer
Answer: b
248. The possible number of bit patterns with 8 bits ________________
a) 128
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b) 8
c) 24
d) 256
View Answer
Answer: d
249. Which of the following is used for binary multiplication?
a) Restoring Multiplication
b) Booth’s Algorithm
c) Pascal’s Rule
d) Digit-by-digit multiplication
View Answer
Answer: b
250. One extra bit is added on the left of a binary number, in case of Binary Multiplication using Booth’s Algorithm.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
251. The binary number obtained after applying RSC on 11010 will be ___________
a) 11101
b) 10100
c) 01101
d) 01000
View Answer
Answer: c
252. The result of >> of 11001 by 3-bits will be ______________
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a) 01000
b) 01111
c) 00011
d) 11111
View Answer
Answer: a
253. Booth’s Algorithm is applied on _____________
a) decimal numbers
b) binary numbers
c) hexadecimal numbers
d) octal Numbers
View Answer
Answer: b
254. If Booth’s Multiplication is performed on the numbers 22*3, then what is 3 referred to as __________
a) accumulator
b) multiplicand
c) quotient
d) multiplier
View Answer
Answer: d
255. What is the default value of accumulator in booth’s multiplication of two 4-bit binary numbers?
a) 0
b) 1
c) 0000
d) 00000
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View Answer
Answer: d
256. What is the value of n in multiplication of 110* 1000?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: a
257. What will be the value obtained after multiplication of (-2) * (-3) using Booth’s Algorithm?
a) 6
b) -6
c) -2
d) -3
View Answer
Answer: a
258. What does the data transfer instruction STA stand for?
a) Store Accumulator
b) Send Accumulator
c) Send Action
d) Store Action
View Answer
Answer: a
259. What is the 1’s complement of 11010?
a) 11010
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b) 11011
c) 00110
d) 00101
View Answer
Answer: d
260. 2’s complement is obtained by adding 1 to 1’s complement of a number.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
261. The 10’s complement of 562 is __________
a) 4
b) 3
c) 7
d) 8
View Answer
Answer: b
262. The 9’s complement of 6578 is ___________
a) 1234
b) 3421
c) 3124
d) 3420
View Answer
Answer: b
263. >> operator is used to denote _________
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a) left shift
b) right shift
c) greater than
d) less than
View Answer
Answer: b
264. The subtraction using 1’s complement of 110 – 100 will give the result ___________
a) -011
b) 011
c) 010
d) -010
View Answer
Answer: c
265. The result obtained on subtraction using 2’s complement of 1111-0010 will be _________
a) 11101
b) 11011
c) 1101
d) 1011
View Answer
Answer: c
266. The 1’s complement of 1111111110.101 is _______________
a) 1.010
b) 0000000000.010
c) 1111111110.101
d) 1.101
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View Answer
Answer: a
267. 7’s complement of 432 is _________________
a) 432
b) 543
c) 345
d) 777
View Answer
Answer: c
268. The 16’s complement of 74E will be __________
a) 8B2
b) F8B2
c) 2B8
d) 8C2
View Answer
Answer: b
269. Binary addition of 1 + 1 gives the result _____________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: a
270. 4-bit is a valid IEEE- format.
a) True
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b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
271. The result of 0 – 1 in binary is ______________
a) 0
b) 1
c) 11
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: b
272. The complement of any number can be given by a general term _______________
a) Bn – 1 – N
b) Bn -1 + N
c) Bn +1 – N
d) Bn +1 + N
View Answer
Answer: a
273. The IEEE standard followed by almost all the computers for floating point arithmetic _____
a) IEEE 260
b) IEEE 488
c) IEEE 754
d) IEEE 610
View Answer
Answer: c
274. Which of the following is often called the double precision format?
51
a) 64-bit
b) 8-bit
c) 32-bit
d) 128-bit
View Answer
Answer: a
275. What is NaN in IEEE standards?
a) Not arithmetic
b) Not a negation
c) Not a number
d) Not a Node
View Answer
Answer: c
276. The result that is smaller than the smallest number obtained is referred to as ___________
a) NaN
b) Underflow
c) Smallest
d) Mantissa
View Answer
Answer: b
277. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format _________
a) 1
b) 11
c) 9
d) 23
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View Answer
Answer: a
278. Express the decimal format of the signed binary number (101010)2 .
a) 10
b) 12
c) -12
d) -10
View Answer
Answer: d
279. Perform binary addition of 1101 + 0010 is ________
a) 1110
b) 1111
c) 0111
d) 1,1101
View Answer
Answer: b
280. The addition 1+1 gives 0 as a result.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
281. The result of 0*1 in binary is ____________
a) 0
b) 1
c) invalid
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d) 10
View Answer
Answer: a
282. The multiplication of 110 * 111 is performed. What is a general term used for 111?
a) Dividend
b) Quotient
c) Multiplicand
d) Multiplier
View Answer
Answer: d
283. The result obtained on binary multiplication of 1010 * 1100 is _____________
a) 0001111
b) 0011111
c) 1111100
d) 1111000
View Answer
Answer: d
284. Which of the following is often called the double precision format?
a) 64-bit
b) 8-bit
c) 32-bit
d) 128-bit
View Answer
Answer: a
285. What do you call the intermediate terms in binary multiplication?
54
a) Multipliers
b) Mid terms
c) Partial Products
d) Multiplicands
View Answer
Answer: c
286. The result that is smaller than the smallest number obtained is referred to as ___________
a) NaN
b) Underflow
c) Smallest
d) Mantissa
View Answer
Answer: b
287. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format is _______
a) 1
b) 11
c) 9
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: a
288. Express the decimal format of the signed binary number (101010)2 .
a) 10
b) 12
c) -12
d) -10
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View Answer
Answer: d
289. The number of values applicable in Boolean Algebra.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
290. Boolean Algebra can deal with any number system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
291. The symbol + in Boolean is also known as the ____________ operator.
a) AND
b) OR
c) ADD
d) SUMMATION
View Answer
Answer: b
292. Which operator has the highest precedence?
a) +
b) .
c) !
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d) *
View Answer
Answer: c
293. In the expression Y + X’.Y, which operator will be evaluated first?
a) ‘
b) +
c) .
d) ,
View Answer
Answer: a
294. Which of the following is false?
a) x+y=y+x
b) x.y=y.x
c) x.x’=1
d) x+x’=1
View Answer
Answer: c
295. As per idempotent law, X + X will always be equal to ________
a) 0
b) 1
c) X
d) 2X
View Answer
Answer: c
296. The expression for involution law is _________
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a) x+y=y+x
b) x+1=1
c) (x’)’=x
d) x.x=x
View Answer
Answer: c
297. Who proposed the use of Boolean algebra in the design of relay switching circuits?
a) George Boole
b) Claude E. Shannon
c) Claude E. Boole
d) George Shannon
View Answer
Answer: b
298. Truth table is used to represent Boolean __________
a) functions
b) algebra
c) operators
d) addition
View Answer
Answer: a
299. Boolean Function is of the form of ________
a) Truth values
b) K=f(X,Y,X)
c) Algebraic Expression
d) Truth Table
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View Answer
Answer: a
300. The result of X+X.Y is X.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
301. In the boolean function w=f(X,Y,Z), what is the RHS referred to as ________
a) right hand side
b) expression
c) literals
d) boolean
View Answer
Answer: b
302. The general form for calculating the number of rows in a truth table is ________
a) 2n
b) 2n+1
c) 2n
d) 2n+1
View Answer
Answer: c
303. The number of literals in the expression F=X.Y’ + Z are _____________
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
59
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: b
304. The complement term for X’.Y’.Z + X.Y will be _____________
a) XYZ’+X’Y’
b) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y’)
c) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y)
d) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y)
View Answer
Answer: b
305. What is the complement of X’Y’Z?
a) X+YZ
b) X’+Y+’Z’
c) X+Y+Z’
d) XYZ’
View Answer
Answer: c
306. The minterm of any expression is denoted by ___________
a) Mt
b) m
c) M
d) min
View Answer
Answer: b
307. The min term when X=Y=Z=0 is _____________
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a) x’+y’+z’
b) xyz
c) x’y’z’
d) x+y+z
View Answer
Answer: c
308. The max term when X=Y=Z=1 is ________
a) x’+y’+z’
b) xyz
c) x’y’z’
d) x+y+z
View Answer
Answer: a
309. The terms in SOP are called ___________
a) max terms
b) min terms
c) mid terms
d) sum terms
View Answer
Answer: b
310. A sum of products expression is a product term (min term) or several min terms ANDed together.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
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311. Which of the following is an incorrect SOP expression?
a) x+x.y
b) (x+y)(x+z)
c) x
d) x+y
View Answer
Answer: b
312. The corresponding min term when x=0, y=0 and z=1.
a) x.y.z’
b) X’+Y’+Z
c) X+Y+Z’
d) x’.y’.z
View Answer
Answer: d
313. LSI stands for ___________
a) Large Scale Integration
b) Large System Integration
c) Large Symbolic Instruction
d) Large Symbolic Integration
View Answer
Answer: a
314. Which operation is shown in the following expression: (X+Y’).(X+Z).(Z’+Y’)
a) NOR
b) ExOR
c) SOP
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d) POS
View Answer
Answer: c
315. The number of min terms for an expression comprising of 3 variables?
a) 8
b) 3
c) 0
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: a
316. The number of cells in a K-map with n-variables.
a) 2n
b) n2
c) 2n
d) n
View Answer
Answer: c
317. The output of AND gates in the SOP expression is connected using the ________ gate.
a) XOR
b) NOR
c) AND
d) OR
View Answer
Answer: d
318. The expression A+BC is the reduced form of ______________
63
a) AB+BC
b) (A+B)(A+C)
c) (A+C)B
d) (A+B)C
View Answer
Answer: b
319. Electronic circuits that operate on one or more input signals to produce standard output _______
a) Series circuits
b) Parallel Circuits
c) Logic Signals
d) Logic Gates
View Answer
Answer: d
320. Logic Gates are the building blocks of all circuits in a computer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
321. A __________ gate gives the output as 1 only if all the inputs signals are 1.
a) AND
b) OR
c) EXOR
d) NOR
View Answer
Answer: a
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322. The boolean expression of an OR gate is _______
a) A.B
b) A’B+AB’
c) A+B
d) A’B’
View Answer
Answer: c
323. The gate which is used to reverse the output obtained is _____
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) EXOR
d) NOT
View Answer
Answer: d
324. Which of the following gate will give a 0 when both of its inputs are 1?
a) AND
b) OR
c) NAND
d) EXOR
View Answer
Answer: c
325. When logic gates are connected to form a gating/logic network it is called as a ______________ logic circuit.
a) combinational
b) sequential
c) systematic
65
d) hardwired
View Answer
Answer: a
326. The gate which is called an inverter is called _________
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) EXOR
d) NOT
View Answer
Answer: d
327. The expression of an EXOR gate is ____________
a) A’B+AB’
b) AB+A’B’
c) A+A.B
d) A’+B’
View Answer
Answer: a
328. A ____________ is a circuit with only one output but can have multiple inputs.
a) Logic gate
b) Truth table
c) Binary circuit
d) Boolean circuit
View Answer
Answer: a
329. There are 5 universal gates.
66
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
330. The Output is LOW if any one of the inputs is HIGH in case of a _________ gate.
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) OR
d) AND
View Answer
Answer: b
331. The following figure shows a ___________ gate.
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) EXOR
d) OR
View Answer
Answer: a
332. The complement of the input given is obtained in case of:
a) NOR
b) AND+NOR
c) NOT
d) EX-OR
View Answer
Answer: c
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333. How many AND gates are required to realize the following expression Y=AB+BC?
a) 4
b) 8
c) 1
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
334. Number of outputs in a half adder _____________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: b
335. The ________ gate is an OR gate followed by a NOT gate.
a) NAND
b) EXOR
c) NOR
d) EXNOR
View Answer
Answer: c
336. The expression of a NAND gate is_______
a) A.B
b) A’B+AB’
c) (A.B)’
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d) (A+B)’
View Answer
Answer: c
337. Which of the following correctly describes the distributive law.
a)( A+B)(C+D)=AB+CD
b) (A+B).C=AC+BC
c) (AB)(A+B)=AB
d) (A.B)C=AC.AB
View Answer
Answer: b
338. Brain of computer is ____________
a) Control unit
b) Arithmetic and Logic unit
c) Central Processing Unit
d) Memory
View Answer
Answer: c
339. Control Unit acts as the central nervous system of the computer.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
340. What does MBR stand for?
a) Main Buffer Register
b) Memory Buffer Routine
69
c) Main Buffer Routine
d) Memory Buffer Register
View Answer
Answer: d
3411. In the instruction ADD A, B, the answer gets stored in ___________
a) B
b) A
c) Buffer
d) C
View Answer
Answer: b
342. What does PC stand for?
a) Program Changer
b) Program Counter
c) Performance Counter
d) Performance Changer
View Answer
Answer: b
343. Which of the following holds the last instruction fetched?
a) PC
b) MAR
c) MBR
d) IR
View Answer
Answer: d
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344. The portion of the processor which contains the hardware required to fetch the operations is _______
a) Datapath
b) Processor
c) Control
d) Output unit
View Answer
Answer: a
345. Causing the CPU to step through a series of micro operations is called _________
a) Execution
b) Runtime
c) Sequencing
d) Pipelining
View Answer
Answer: c
346. The functions of execution and sequencing are performed by using ______________
a) Input Signals
b) Output Signals
c) Control Signals
d) CPU
View Answer
Answer: c
347. What does D in the D-flip flop stand for?
a) Digital
b) Direct
c) Delay
71
d) Durable
View Answer
Answer: c
348. CPU has built-in ability to execute a particular set of machine instructions, called as __________
a) Instruction Set
b) Registers
c) Sequence Set
d) User instructions
View Answer
Answer: a
349. Opcode indicates the operations to be performed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
350. The length of a register is called _______
a) word limit
b) word size
c) register limit
d) register size
View Answer
Answer: b
351. The _________ holds the contents of the accessed memory word.
a) MAR
b) MBR
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c) PC
d) IR
View Answer
Answer: b
352. Which of the following is not a visible register?
a) General Purpose Registers
b) Address Register
c) Status Register
d) MAR
View Answer
Answer: d
353. Which of the following is a data transfer instruction?
a) STA 16-bit address
b) ADD A, B
c) MUL C, D
d) RET
View Answer
Answer: a
354. What is correct instruction if you want the control to go to the location 2000h?
a) MOV 2000h
b) MOV A, 2000h
c) JMP 2000h
d) RET 2000h
View Answer
Answer: c
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355. What kind of a flag is the sign flag?
a) General Purpose
b) Status
c) Address
d) Instruction
View Answer
Answer: b
356. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format __________
a) 1
b) 11
c) 9
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: a
357. New CPU whose instruction set includes the instruction set of its predecessor CPU is said to be ___________
with its predecessor.
a) fully compatible
b) forward compatible
c) compatible
d) backward compatible
View Answer
Answer: d
358. What is the high speed memory between the main memory and the CPU called?
a) Register Memory
b) Cache Memory
c) Storage Memory
74
d) Virtual Memory
View Answer
Answer: b
359. Cache Memory is implemented using the DRAM chips.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
360. Whenever the data is found in the cache memory it is called as _________
a) HIT
b) MISS
c) FOUND
d) ERROR
View Answer
Answer: a
361. LRU stands for ___________
a) Low Rate Usage
b) Least Rate Usage
c) Least Recently Used
d) Low Required Usage
View Answer
Answer: c
362. When the data at a location in cache is different from the data located in the main memory, the cache is called
_____________
a) Unique
b) Inconsistent
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c) Variable
d) Fault
View Answer
Answer: b
363. Which of the following is not a write policy to avoid Cache Coherence?
a) Write through
b) Write within
c) Write back
d) Buffered write
View Answer
Answer: b
364. Which of the following is an efficient method of cache updating?
a) Snoopy writes
b) Write through
c) Write within
d) Buffered write
View Answer
Answer: a
365. In ____________ mapping, the data can be mapped anywhere in the Cache Memory.
a) Associative
b) Direct
c) Set Associative
d) Indirect
View Answer
Answer: a
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366. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format is ____
a) 1
b) 11
c) 9
d) 23
View Answer
Answer: a
367. The transfer between CPU and Cache is ______________
a) Block transfer
b) Word transfer
c) Set transfer
d) Associative transfer
View Answer
Answer: b
368. Computer has a built-in system clock that emits millions of regularly spaced electric pulses per _____ called clock
cycles.
a) second
b) millisecond
c) microsecond
d) minute
View Answer
Answer: a
369. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
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Answer: a
370. The operation that does not involves clock cycles is _________
a) Installation of a device
b) Execute
c) Fetch
d) Decode
View Answer
Answer: a
371. The number of clock cycles per second is referred as ________
a) Clock speed
b) Clock frequency
c) Clock rate
d) Clock timing
View Answer
Answer: a
372. CISC stands for ____________
a) Complex Information Sensed CPU
b) Complex Instruction Set Computer
c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU
d) Complex Instruction Set CPU
View Answer
Answer: b
373. Which of the following processor has a fixed length of instructions?
a) CISC
b) RISC
78
c) EPIC
d) Multi-core
View Answer
Answer: b
374. Processor which is complex and expensive to produce is ________
a) RISC
b) EPIC
c) CISC
d) Multi-core
View Answer
Answer: c
375. The architecture that uses a tighter coupling between the compiler and the processor is ____________
a) EPIC
b) Multi-core
c) RISC
d) CISC
View Answer
Answer: a
376. MAR stands for ___________
a) Memory address register
b) Main address register
c) Main accessible register
d) Memory accessible register
View Answer
Answer: a
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377 .A circuitry that processes that responds to and processes the basic instructions that are required to drive a
computer system is ________
a) Memory
b) ALU
c) CU
d) Processor
View Answer
Answer: d
378. Any electronic holding place where data can be stored and retrieved later whenever required is ____________
a) memory
b) drive
c) disk
d) circuit
View Answer
Answer: a
379. Cache memory is the onboard storage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
380. Which of the following is the fastest means of memory access for CPU?
a) Registers
b) Cache
c) Main memory
d) Virtual Memory
View Answer
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Answer: a
381. The memory implemented using the semiconductor chips is _________
a) Cache
b) Main
c) Secondary
d) Registers
View Answer
Answer: b
382. Size of the ________ memory mainly depends on the size of the address bus.
a) Main
b) Virtual
c) Secondary
d) Cache
View Answer
Answer: a
383. Which of the following is independent of the address bus?
a) Secondary memory
b) Main memory
c) Onboard memory
d) Cache memory
View Answer
Answer: a
384. ____________ storage is a system where a robotic arm will connect or disconnect off-line mass storage media
according to the computer operating system demands.
a) Secondary
b) Virtual
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c) Tertiary
d) Magnetic
View Answer
Answer: c
385. What is the location of the internal registers of CPU?
a) Internal
b) On-chip
c) External
d) Motherboard
View Answer
Answer: b
386. MAR stands for ___________
a) Memory address register
b) Main address register
c) Main accessible register
d) Memory accessible register
View Answer
Answer: a
387. If M denotes the number of memory locations and N denotes the word size, then an expression that denotes the
storage capacity is ______________
a) M*N
b) M+N
c) 2M+N
d) 2M-N
View Answer
Answer: a
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388. Computer has a built-in system clock that emits millions of regularly spaced electric pulses per _____ called clock
cycles.
a) second
b) millisecond
c) microsecond
d) minute
View Answer
Answer: a
389. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic operation.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
390. The operation that does not involves clock cycles is ____________
a) Installation of a device
b) Execute
c) Fetch
d) Decode
View Answer
Answer: a
391. The number of clock cycles per second is referred as ______
a) Clock speed
b) Clock frequency
c) Clock rate
d) Clock timing
View Answer
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Answer: a
392. CISC stands for ___________
a) Complex Information Sensed CPU
b) Complex Instruction Set Computer
c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU
d) Complex Instruction Set CPU
View Answer
Answer: b
393. Which of the following processor has a fixed length of instructions?
a) CISC
b) RISC
c) EPIC
d) Multi-core
View Answer
Answer: b
394. Processor which is complex and expensive to produce _________
a) RISC
b) EPIC
c) CISC
d) multi-core
View Answer
Answer: c
395. The architecture that uses a tighter coupling between the compiler and the processor.
a) EPIC
b) Multi-core
84
c) RISC
d) CISC
View Answer
Answer: a
396. HLDA stands for _______
a) High level data
b) High level data acknowledgment
c) Hold Acknowledgement
d) Hold Data
View Answer
Answer: c
397. Word length of a personal computer ___________
a) 64bits
b) 16 bits
c) 8 bits
d) 32 bits
View Answer
Answer: c
398. ________________ is also called auxiliary storage.
a) secondary memory
b) tertiary memory
c) primary memory
d) cache memory
View Answer
Answer: a
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399. Secondary storage virtually has an unlimited capacity because the cost per bit is very low.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
400. Magnetic tape is a type of _________ access device.
a) Sequential
b) Direct access
c) Step
d) Indirect
View Answer
Answer: a
401. The magnetic tape is generally a plastic ribbon coated with ______
a) Magnesium oxide
b) Chromium dioxide
c) Zinc oxide
d) Copper oxide
View Answer
Answer: b
402. The dots on the magnetic tape represent ________
a) Binary digits
b) Decimal digits
c) Hex digits
d) Oct digits
View Answer
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Answer: a
403. Which of the following is the correct representation for a storage capacity of a tape?
a) Data recording density = Storage capacity
b) Length = Storage capacity
c) Storage capacity= Length * data recording density
d) Storage capacity= Length + data recording density
View Answer
Answer: c
404. The number of characters/second that can be transmitted to the memory from the tape is denoted by the term.
a) Data transfer rate
b) Transmission mode
c) Transmission rate
d) Data mode
View Answer
Answer: a
405. The typical value of data transfer rate is __________
a) 7.7 MB/s
b) 6.6 MB/s
c) 5.5 MB/s
d) 10 MB/s
View Answer
Answer: a
406. Tape drive is connected to and controlled by _______
a) Interpreter
b) Tape controller
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c) CPU
d) Processor
View Answer
Answer: b
407. ________________ is used for writing/reading of data to/from a magnetic ribbon.
a) Magnetic disk
b) Magnetic tape
c) Magnetic frames
d) Magnetic Ribbon
View Answer
Answer: b
408. Magnetic disk is a sequential access device.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
409. The disk’s surface is divided into a number of invisible concentric circles called:
a) Drives
b) Tracks
c) Slits
d) References
View Answer
Answer: b
410. The number of sectors per track on a magnetic disk ________
a) less than 5
88
b) 10 or more
c) 8 or more
d) less than 7
View Answer
Answer: c
411. Generally there are __________bytes in a sector.
a) 64
b) 128
c) 256
d) 512
View Answer
Answer: d
412. Which of the following is not a part of disk address?
a) Sector size
b) Sector number
c) Track number
d) Surface number
View Answer
Answer: a
413. What does CHS stand for?
a) Cylinder-high-sector
b) Concentric-head-sector
c) Cylinder-head-sector
d) Concentric-high-sector
View Answer
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Answer: c
414. The interval between the instant a computer makes a request for the transfer of data from a disk system to the
primary storage and the instance this operation is completed is called _________
a) Disk arrival time
b) Disk access time
c) Drive utilization time
d) Disk utilization time
View Answer
Answer: b
415. Disk access time does not depends on which of the following factors __________
a) Seek time
b) Latency
c) Transfer rate
d) Arrival rate
View Answer
Answer: d
416. The time required to spin the desired sector under the read/write head, once the read/write head is positioned
on the desired track.
a) Seek time
b) Arrival rate
c) Latency
d) Transfer rate
View Answer
Answer: c
417. A ____________ disk consists of a circular disk, which is coated with a thin metal or some other material that is
highly reflective.
a) magnetic
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b) optical
c) compact
d) hard
View Answer
Answer: b
418. Optical disks are proved to be a promising random access medium for high capacity secondary storage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
419. The technology used in optical disks is ______
a) Reflective
b) Refractive
c) Laser Beam
d) Diffraction
View Answer
Answer: c
420. The storage capacity of an optical disk is given by:
a) Number of sectors * number of bytes per sector
b) Number of sectors * 2(number of bytes per sector)
c) Number of sectors * 3(number of bytes per sector)
d) Number of sectors * 0.5(number of bytes per sector)
View Answer
Answer: a
421. Rotation of the disk must vary __________ with the radius of the disk.
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a) directly
b) inversely
c) concurrently
d) accordingly
View Answer
Answer: b
422. Which of the following correctly represents the track pattern of an optical disk ?
a) computer-fundamentals-questions-answers-optical-disks-q6a
b) computer-fundamentals-questions-answers-optical-disks-q6b
c) computer-fundamentals-questions-answers-optical-disks-q6c
d) computer-fundamentals-questions-answers-optical-disks-q6d
View Answer
Answer: a
423. The tracks are divided into sectors whose size _______
a) remains the same
b) keeps increasing
c) keeps decreasing
d) remains uneven
View Answer
Answer: a
424. CLV stands for, in terms of rotation of the optical disk ___
a) Concurrent lines value
b) Constant Linear velocity
c) constant linear value
d) concurrent linear velocity
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View Answer
Answer: a
425. The range of access times of optical disks is generally ______
a) 100 to 300 milliseconds
b) 10 to 30 milliseconds
c) 200 to 400 milliseconds
d) 20 to 40 milliseconds
View Answer
Answer: a
426. Which of the following is not a type of optical disk?
a) DVD
b) CD
c) WORM
d) Winchester
View Answer
Answer: d
427. Winchester disks are a type of _______
a) optical disks
b) magnetic disks
c) compact disks
d) magnetic drives
View Answer
Answer: b
428. Bernoulli disks are a type of magnetic floppy disks.
a) True
93
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
429. A plug and play storage device that simply plugs in the port of a computer is __________
a) Flash drive
b) Compact disk
c) Hard disk
d) CD
View Answer
Answer: a
430. What does USB stand for?
a) Universal Signal Board
b) Universal Signal Bus
c) Universal Serial Bus
d) Universal Serial Board
View Answer
Answer: c
431. A device similar to a flash drive ______________
a) Memory card
b) Compact drive
c) Compact disk
d) Memory disk
View Answer
Answer: a
432. What does RAID stand for?
94
a) Redundant array of independent disks
b) Redundant array of inexpensive disks
c) Redundant array of intermediate disks
d) Redundant array of improper disks
View Answer
Answer: b
433. A set of hard disk drives with a controller mounted in a single box, forming a single large storage unit is
____________
a) Disk array
b) Drives
c) Compact drives
d) Multi-cores
View Answer
Answer: a
434. The process in which a file is partitioned into smaller parts and different parts are stored in different disks is
____________
a) RAID
b) Mirroring
c) Stripping
d) RAID classification
View Answer
Answer: c
435. Which of the following uses multiple hard disk platters mounted on a single central shift?
a) Disk drives
b) Hard disks
c) Disk packs
95
d) Compact disks
View Answer
Answer: c
436. Which of the following is not a magnetic disk?
a) Floppy
b) Winchester
c) Zip
d) FLASH
View Answer
Answer: d
437. These devices provide a means of communication between a computer and outer world.
a) I/O
b) Storage
c) Compact
d) Drivers
View Answer
Answer: a
438. The I/O devices are sometimes called the peripheral devices because they surround the CPU and memory of the
computer system.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
439. Identify the blank space in the diagram.
a) Processor
b) Memory
96
c) CPU
d) Storage
View Answer
Answer: c
440. What does GUI stand for?
a) Graphical User Instruction
b) Ground User Interface
c) General User Instruction
d) Graphical User Interface
View Answer
Answer: d
441. Which of the following is not a point-and-draw device?
a) Keypad
b) Trackball
c) Touch screen
d) Mouse
View Answer
Answer: a
442. A device used for video games, flight simulators, training simulators and for controlling industrial robots.
a) Mouse
b) Light pen
c) Joystick
d) Keyboard
View Answer
Answer: c
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443. The unattended interactive information systems such as automatic teller machine or ATM is called as _________
a) Kiosks
b) Sioks
c) Cianto
d) Kiaks
View Answer
Answer: a
444. Which are the input devices that enable direct data entry into a computer system from source documents?
a) Data Scanning devices
b) Data retrieving devices
c) Data acquiring devices
d) System Access devices
View Answer
Answer: a
445. Which of the following is a type of image scanner?
a) Flat-held
b) Hand-led
c) Flat-bed
d) Compact
View Answer
Answer: c
446. Which of the following is capable of recognizing a pre-specified type of mark by pencil or pen?
a) OMR
b) Winchester
c) Bar code reader
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d) Image Scanner
View Answer
Answer: a
447. Input Devices that use a special ink that contains magnetizable particles of iron oxide are ____
a) Optical disks
b) Magnetic disks
c) MICR
d) Magnetic drives
View Answer
Answer: c
448. MICR character set consists of only 2 digits 0 and 1.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
449. A printer that prints one line at a time and has a predefined set of characters is called _______
a) Laser
b) Drum
c) Inkjet
d) Impact
View Answer
Answer: b
450. Which of the following is a name of plotter as well as a printer?
a) Flatbed
b) Laser
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c) Drum
d) Impact
View Answer
Answer: c
451. Name the device that converts text information into spoken sentences.
a) Speech Sensors
b) Compact convertors
c) Speech Synthesizers
d) Voice systems
View Answer
Answer: c
452. Which of the following is not a part of a digitizer?
a) Digitizing tablet
b) Cursor
c) Stick
d) Stylus
View Answer
Answer: c
453. Which is the device used for converting maps, pictures and drawings into digital form for storage in computers?
a) Digitizer
b) Scanner
c) Image Scanner
d) MICR
View Answer
Answer: a
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454. The process in which a file is partitioned into smaller parts and different parts are stored in different disks is
called _________
a) RAID
b) Mirroring
c) Stripping
d) RAID classification
View Answer
Answer: c
455. Which of the following Printers have a speed in the range of 40-300 characters per second?
a) Inkjet
b) Laser
c) Dot matrix
d) Drum
View Answer
Answer: a
456. Which of the following is a temporary output?
a) Hard copy
b) Soft copy
c) Duplicate copy
d) On paper
View Answer
Answer: b
457. Input Devices that use a special ink that is used for converting pictures, maps and drawings into digital format.
a) Digitizers
b) Digital pens
c) Light Pens
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d) MICR
View Answer
Answer: a
458. GIS stands for Graphical Information System.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
459. A digitizer converts __________ input into digital input.
a) Laser
b) Digital
c) Analog
d) Complex
View Answer
Answer: c
460. Which of the following term is used when different forms of information like text, sound is converted to a binary
code?
a) Digitalization
b) Digitization
c) Binarization
d) Digization
View Answer
Answer: b
461. Which of the following isn’t a phase of digitization?
a) Discretization
b) Quantization
102
c) Discretization + Quantization
d) Analog conversion
View Answer
Answer: d
462. Which of the following is not a part of a digitizer?
a) Digitizing tablet
b) Cursor
c) Stick
d) Stylus
View Answer
Answer: c
463. The process of making digital information work for you is called ___________
a) Digitization
b) Digital Transformation
c) Digitalization
d) Analogization
View Answer
Answer: c
464. What is the full form of FSM?
a) Field Service Management
b) Frequent Service Management
c) Final Service Management
d) Field Service Master
View Answer
Answer: a
103
465. Which of the following Techniques are used to optimize field services?
a) AI
b) ML
c) CC
d) Reality tools
View Answer
Answer: a
466. Obtaining services from a rapidly evolving group of internet users __________
a) Outsourcing
b) Crowd Sourcing
c) Human collaboration
d) Human Computation
View Answer
Answer: b
467. What is the full form of TTS?
a) Typically Typed Speech
b) Typographic Text Speech
c) Text to Speech
d) Typography to speech
View Answer
Answer: c
468. Text analysis is all about converting the input text into a ‘speakable’ form.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
104
Answer: a
469. A concept that contains rhythm of speech, stress patterns and intonation is ________
a) Text synthesis
b) Prosody
c) Speech Synthesis
d) Formant Synthesis
View Answer
Answer: b
470. Which of the following does not come under text analysis?
a) Document Structure Detection
b) Speech Synthesis
c) Prosonic Analysis
d) Prosodic Analysis
View Answer
Answer: c
471. What is the medium to convert text information into spoken sentences?
a) Speech Sensors
b) Compact convertors
c) Speech Synthesizers
d) Voice systems
View Answer
Answer: c
472. Pitch and duration attachment comes under _____
a) Prosody
b) Phonetic Analysis
105
c) Speech Synthesis
d) Text Analysis
View Answer
Answer: a
473. Which of the following is not a speech synthesis method?
a) Formant
b) Summative
c) Articulator
d) Concatenative
View Answer
Answer: b
474. Speech Synthesis method based on the generation of periodic and non-periodic signals is ____________
a) Formant
b) Summative
c) Conactenative
d) Articulative
View Answer
Answer: a
475. What is the full form of SAMPA?
a) Speech Assessment Methods-Phonetic Alphabet
b) Speech Assessment Methods-Prosodic Access
c) Speech Assessment Methods-Phonetic Arrangement
d) Speech Assessment Methods- Prosodic Alphabet
View Answer
Answer: a
106
476. A speech synthesis model which tries to model the human speech production mechanisms is _________
a) Articulatory Synthesis
b) Formant Synthesis
c) Summative Synthesis
d) Concatenative Synthesis
View Answer
Answer: a
477. The physical devices of a computer :
a) Software
b) Package
c) Hardware
d) System Software
View Answer
Answer: c
478. Software Package is a group of programs that solve multiple problems.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
479. ____________ refer to renewing or changing components like increasing the main memory, or hard disk
capacities, or adding speakers, or modems, etc.
a) Grades
b) Prosody
c) Synthesis
d) Upgrades
View Answer
107
Answer: d
480. Which of the following is designed to control the operations of a computer?
a) Application Software
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) User
View Answer
Answer: b
481. Which of the following is not an example of system software?
a) Language Translator
b) Utility Software
c) Communication Software
d) Word Processors
View Answer
Answer: d
482. A person who designs the programs in a software package is called :
a) User
b) Software Manager
c) System Developer
d) System Programmer
View Answer
Answer: d
483. ___________________ is designed to solve a specific problem or to do a specific task.
a) Application Software
b) System Software
108
c) Utility Software
d) User
View Answer
Answer: a
484. Assembler is used as a translator for?
a) Low level language
b) High Level Language
c) COBOL
d) C
View Answer
Answer: a
485. What do you call a program in execution?
a) Command
b) Process
c) Task
d) Instruction
View Answer
Answer: b
486. Which of the following is not a process state?
a) Terminated
b) Running
c) Blocked
d) Execution
View Answer
Answer: c
109
487. The software designed to perform a specific task:
a) Synchronous Software
b) Package Software
c) Application Software
d) System Software
View Answer
Answer: c
488. Word processing software is a type of application software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
489. Developing software __________ means a major commitment of time, money and resources.
a) In-house
b) In-sync
c) On-date
d) On-duration
View Answer
Answer: a
490. Which of the following is not a way of acquiring software?
a) Buying pre-written software
b) Ordering customized software
c) Downloading public-domain Software
d) Duplicating the software
View Answer
110
Answer: d
491. OSS stands for:
a) Open System Service
b) Open Source Software
c) Open System Software
d) Open Synchronized Software
View Answer
Answer: b
492. Public domain software is usually:
a) System supported
b) Source supported
c) Community supported
d) Programmer supported
View Answer
Answer: c
493. Set of programs which consist of full documentation.
a) Software Package
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) File package
View Answer
Answer: a
494. Interpreter is used as a translator for __________
a) Low level language
b) High Level Language
111
c) COBOL
d) C
View Answer
Answer: b
495. What do you call a specific instruction designed to do a task?
a) Command
b) Process
c) Task
d) Instruction
View Answer
Answer: a
496. They normally interact with the system via user interface provided by the application software.
a) Programmers
b) Developers
c) Users
d) Testers
View Answer
Answer: c
497. The software substituted for hardware and stored in ROM.
a) Synchronous Software
b) Package Software
c) Firmware
d) Middleware
View Answer
Answer: c
112
498. Middleware has enabled the production of various types of smart machines having microprocessor chips with
embedded software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
499. A “glue” between client and server parts of application.
a) Middleware
b) Firmware
c) Package
d) System Software
View Answer
Answer: a
500. MOM stands for?
a) Message oriented middleware
b) Mails oriented middleware
c) Middleware of messages
d) Main object middleware
View Answer
Answer: a
501. Storage of firmware is ___________
a) Cache Memory
b) RAM
c) External
d) ROM
View Answer
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Answer: d
502. DNS stands for?
a) Domain Name System
b) Direct Name System
c) Direct Network System
d) Domain Network System
View Answer
Answer: a
503. A software that lies between the OS and the applications running on it.
a) Firmware
b) Middleware
c) Utility Software
d) Application Software
View Answer
Answer: b
504. A type of middleware that allows for between the built-in applications and the real-time OS?
a) Firmware
b) Database middleware
c) Portals
d) Embedded Middleware
View Answer
Answer: d
505. What is the other name for object middleware?
a) Object request interface
b) Object enabled interface
114
c) Object Request broker
d) Object enabled broker
View Answer
Answer: c
506. The _______ calls certain procedures on remote systems and is used to perform synchronous or asynchronous
interactions between systems.
a) Procedure
b) RPC
c) Message Oriented
d) DB
View Answer
Answer: b
507. A software that can be freely accessed and modified.
a) Synchronous Software
b) Package Software
c) OSS
d) Middleware
View Answer
Answer: c
508. Open Source Software can be used for commercial purpose.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
509. PNG is a _________
a) image format
115
b) file format
c) internet format
d) html format
View Answer
Answer: a
510. OSI stands for?
a) Open Source Index
b) Open Source Image
c) Open Source Initiative
d) Open Source Instant
View Answer
Answer: c
511. Which of the following is not an open source software?
a) LibreOffice
b) Microsoft Office
c) GNU image manipulation
d) MySQL
View Answer
Answer: b
512. The users must agree to the _______ terms and agreements when they use an open source software.
a) System
b) License
c) Community
d) Programmer
View Answer
116
Answer: b
513. Which of the following is not a downside of OSS?
a) Lack of personalized support
b) Restricted choice
c) No warranty
d) Multiple choices
View Answer
Answer: d
514. An example of a web design OSS.
a) Nvu
b) KOffice
c) AbiWorld
d) Open Office
View Answer
Answer: a
515. An image editor similar to Adobe Photoshop.
a) Nvu
b) Open Office
c) Bluefish
d) GIMPshop
View Answer
Answer: d
516. An OSS for communication purpose.
a) Virtue Mart
b) Drupal
117
c) Pidgin
d) ZenCart
View Answer
Answer: c
517. A guideline for the OSS licenses other than the GPL.
a) OSI
b) OSD
c) OSE
d) OSL
View Answer
Answer: b
518. GPL of GNU says that every copy of a program governed by GPL license, even if modified, must be subject to GPL
again.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
519. Richard Stallman from MIT, established a special license, the ________ license.
a) GNU
b) Free
c) Package
d) Commercial
View Answer
Answer: a
520. In 1969 AT&T laboratories developed ______ which supported and worked on different hardware platforms.
a) Linux
118
b) Unix
c) Windows
d) Ubuntu
View Answer
Answer: b
521. OSS stands for ___________
a) Open System Service
b) Open Source Software
c) Open System Software
d) Open Synchronized Software
View Answer
Answer: b
522. Public domain software is usually __________
a) System supported
b) Source supported
c) Community supported
d) Programmer supported
View Answer
Answer: c
523. Set of a program which consists of full documentation.
a) Software Package
b) System Software
c) Utility Software
d) File package
View Answer
119
Answer: a
524. Interpreter is used as a translator for?
a) Low level language
b) High Level Language
c) COBOL
d) C
View Answer
Answer: b
525. What do you call a specific instruction designed to do a task?
a) Command
b) Process
c) Task
d) Instruction
View Answer
Answer: a
526. They normally interact with the system via user interface provided by the application software.
a) Programmers
b) Developers
c) Users
d) Testers
View Answer
Answer: c
527. The word ____________comes from the name of a Persian mathematician Abu Ja’far Mohammed ibn-i Musa al
Khowarizmi.
a) Flowchart
b) Flow
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c) Algorithm
d) Syntax
View Answer
Answer: c
528. In computer science, algorithm refers to a special method usable by a computer for the solution to a problem.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
529. This characteristic often draws the line between what is feasible and what is impossible.
a) Performance
b) System Evaluation
c) Modularity
d) Reliability
View Answer
Answer: a
530. The time that depends on the input: an already sorted sequence that is easier to sort.
a) Process
b) Evaluation
c) Running
d) Input
View Answer
Answer: c
531. Which of the following is incorrect?
Algorithms can be represented:
121
a) as pseudo codes
b) as syntax
c) as programs
d) as flowcharts
View Answer
Answer: b
532. When an algorithm is written in the form of a programming language, it becomes a _________
a) Flowchart
b) Program
c) Pseudo code
d) Syntax
View Answer
Answer: b
533. Any algorithm is a program.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
534. A system wherein items are added from one and removed from the other end.
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Linked List
d) Array
View Answer
Answer: b
122
535. Another name for 1-D arrays.
a) Linear arrays
b) Lists
c) Horizontal array
d) Vertical array
View Answer
Answer: a
536. A data structure that follows the FIFO principle.
a) Queue
b) LL
c) Stack
d) Union
View Answer
Answer: c
537. The symbol denotes _______
a) I/O
b) Flow
c) Terminal
d) Decision
View Answer
Answer: c
538. In computer science, algorithm refers to a pictorial representation of a flowchart.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
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Answer: b
539. The process of drawing a flowchart for an algorithm is called __________
a) Performance
b) Evaluation
c) Algorithmic Representation
d) Flowcharting
View Answer
Answer: d
540. Actual instructions in flowcharting are represented in __________
a) Circles
b) Boxes
c) Arrows
d) Lines
View Answer
Answer: b
541. The following box denotes?
a) Decision
b) Initiation
c) Initialization
d) I/O
View Answer
Answer: a
542. A box that can represent two different conditions.
a) Rectangle
b) Diamond
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c) Circle
d) Parallelogram
View Answer
Answer: b
543. There should be certain set standards on the amount of details that should be provided in a flowchart.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
544. A detailed flowchart is called ______
a) Stack
b) Macro
c) Micro
d) Union
View Answer
Answer: c
545. Which of the following is not an advantage of a flowchart?
a) Better communication
b) Efficient coding
c) Systematic testing
d) Improper documentation
View Answer
Answer: d
546. A flowchart that outlines the main segments of a program.
a) Queue
125
b) Macro
c) Micro
d) Union
View Answer
Answer: b
547. A ______________ is diagram that depicts the flow of a program.
a) Algorithm
b) Hash Table
c) Graph
d) Flowchart
View Answer
Answer: d
548. Terminals are represented by diagonals in a flowchart.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
549. The operation represented by parallelograms.
a) Input/Output
b) Assignment
c) Comparison
d) Conditions
View Answer
Answer: a
550. Which of the following is not a flowchart structure?
126
a) Process
b) Sequence
c) Repetition
d) Case
View Answer
Answer: a
551. The action performed by a ___________ structure must eventually cause the loop to terminate.
a) sequence
b) case
c) repetition
d) process
View Answer
Answer: c
552. The following symbol denotes:
a) Module
b) Terminal
c) Process
d) i/o operation
View Answer
Answer: a
553. What type of structure is this?
a) sequence
b) case
c) repetition
d) process
127
View Answer
Answer: c
554. What type of a structure is this?
a) sequence
b) case
c) repetition
d) process
View Answer
Answer: b
555. A _______ is a connector showing the relationship between the representative shapes.
a) line
b) arrow
c) Process
d) box
View Answer
Answer: b
556. The following box denotes?
a) Decision
b) Input/Output
c) Process
d) Module
View Answer
Answer: a
557. Keep the statement language ______________ while writing a pseudo code.
a) Dependent
128
b) Independent
c) Case sensitive
d) Capitalized
View Answer
Answer: b
558. Capitalize initial keyword – This is a rule while writing a pseudo code.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
559. Which of the following is not a keyword?
a) Read
b) Write
c) start
d) endif
View Answer
Answer: c
560. ______________ is used to show hierarchy in a pseudo code.
a) Indentation
b) Curly Braces
c) Round Brackets
d) Semicolon
View Answer
Answer: a
561. The statement that tells the computer to get a value from an input device and store it in a memory location.
129
a) read
b) write
c) READ
d) WRITE
View Answer
Answer: c
562. _____________ are identified by their addresses, we give them names (field names / variable names) using
words.
a) Memory variables
b) Memory Locations
c) Memory Addresses
d) Data variables
View Answer
Answer: b
563. ____________ begins with lower case letters.
a) Keywords
b) Variables
c) Tokens
d) Functions
View Answer
Answer: b
564. Another notation for exponentiation.
a) *
b) **
c) ***
d) *^
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View Answer
Answer: b
565. A symbol used for grouping.
a) ()
b) {}
c) [].
d) ” ”
View Answer
Answer: a
566. A statement used to close the IF block.
a) ELSE
b) ELSEIF
c) END
d) ENDIF
View Answer
Answer: d
567. Programming based on stepwise refinement process.
a) Structural
b) C programming
c) Procedural
d) Fine
View Answer
Answer: a
568. Top-down approach is followed in structural programming.
a) True
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b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
569. A ________ is a directed graph that describes the flow of execution control of the program.
a) Flowchart
b) Flow graph
c) Complexity curve
d) Algorithm
View Answer
Answer: a
570. A program should be ________
a) Secure
b) Sequential
c) Ordered
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: b
571. The following is the syntax for:
a) Else
b) Elif
c) If
d) Switch
View Answer
Answer: c
572. Which of the following is a loop statement?
132
a) IF
b) ELSE
c) WHILE
d) DO
View Answer
Answer: c
573. What is the correct syntax of for statement?
a) for(initialization;condition;update)
b) for(initialization,condition,update)
c) for(condition;initialization;update)
d) for(initialization;condition;)
View Answer
Answer: a
574. Semicolon is used after :
a) Function definition
b) Function call
c) for loop
d) while loop
View Answer
Answer: b
575. The number of values a function can return at a time?
a) 1
b) 0
c) 2
d) more than 2
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View Answer
Answer: a
576. Which of the following isn’t a loop statement?
a) for
b) elif
c) while
d) do-while
View Answer
Answer: b
577. The language made up of binary coded instructions.
a) Machine
b) C
c) BASIC
d) High level
View Answer
Answer: a
578. Binary code comprises of digits from 0 to 9.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
579. The ___________ contains the address of the next instruction to be executed.
a) IR
b) PC
c) Accumulator
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d) System counter
View Answer
Answer: b
580. The memory unit is made up of _____ bytes.
a) 256
b) 124
c) 4096
d) 3096
View Answer
Answer: c
581. A document that specifies how many times and with what data the program must be run in order to thoroughly
test it.
a) addressing plan
b) test plan
c) validation plan
d) verification plan
View Answer
Answer: b
582. An approach that designs test cases by looking at the allowable data values.
a) Maintenance
b) Evaluation
c) Data coverage
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: c
583. The formal grammar rules governing the construction of valid instruction.
135
a) test case
b) syntax
c) program
d) semantics
View Answer
Answer: b
584. A program that reads each of the instructions in mnemonic form and translates it into the machine-language
equivalent.
a) Machine language
b) Assembler
c) Interpreter
d) C program
View Answer
Answer: b
585. An approach that designs test cases by looking at the allowable data values.
a) Data coverage
b) Code Coverage
c) Debugging
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: a
586. The rules that give meaning to the instructions.
a) Semantics
b) Syntax
c) Code
d) Cases
136
View Answer
Answer: a
587. Each personal computer has a _________ that manages the computer’s arithmetical, logical and control
activities.
a) Microprocessor
b) Assembler
c) Microcontroller
d) Interpreter
View Answer
Answer: a
588. Assembly Language requires less memory and execution time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
589. The data size of a word is _________
a) 2-byte
b) 4-byte
c) 8-byte
d)16-byte
View Answer
Answer: a
590. A direct reference of specific location.
a) Segment Address
b) Absolute Address
c) Offset
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d) Memory Address
View Answer
Answer: b
591. A Borland Turbo Assembler.
a) nasm
b) tasm
c) gas
d) asm
View Answer
Answer: b
592. The instructions that tell the assembler what to do.
a) Executable instructions
b) Pseudo-ops
c) Logical instructions
d) Macros
View Answer
Answer: a
593. The segment containing data values passed to functions and procedures within the program.
a) Code
b) Data
c) Stack
d) System
View Answer
Answer: c
594. To speed up the processor operations, the processor includes some internal memory storage locations, called
___________
138
a) Drives
b) Memory
c) Units
d) Registers
View Answer
Answer: d
595. To locate the exact location of data in memory, we need the starting address of the segment, which is found in
the DS register and an offset value. This offset value is also called?
a) Effective Address
b) Direct offset address
c) Memory address
d) General Address
View Answer
Answer: a
596. Each byte of character is stored as its ASCII value in _______
a) Hexadecimal
b) Binary
c) Octal
d) Decimal
View Answer
Answer: a
597. Prolog comes under ___________
a) Logic Programming
b) Procedural Programming
c) OOP
d) Functional
139
View Answer
Answer: a
598. Java is procedural programming.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
599. A program that can execute high-level language programs.
a) Compiler
b) Interpreter
c) Sensor
d) Circuitry
View Answer
Answer: b
600. Executables might be called ________
a) native code
b) executable code
c) complex code
d) machine code
View Answer
Answer: a
601. Source program is compiled to an intermediate form called ___________
a) Byte Code
b) Smart code
c) Executable code
140
d) Machine code
View Answer
Answer: a
602. _______________ is the assembly language for an imaginary architecture.
a) Byte code
b) Machine code
c) Native code
d) Executable code
View Answer
Answer: a
603. JIT stands for?
a) Just in time
b) Jump in time
c) Jump in text
d) Jump in terms
View Answer
Answer: a
604. JVM stands for?
a) Java virtual machine
b) Java visual machine
c) JRE virtual machine
d) JRE visual machine
View Answer
Answer: a
605. A language supported by MS. Net platform.
141
a) C
b) C++
c) java
d) C#
View Answer
Answer: d
606. Which of the following isn’t a characteristic of High level languages?
a) machine code
b) platform independent
c) interactive execution
d) user-friendly
View Answer
Answer: a
607. Which is interpreted language?
a) C++
b) C
c) MATLAB
d) Fortran
View Answer
Answer: c
608. In compiled language, the translation to machine-language is performed incrementally at run-time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
142
609. The first widely-used high level language developed in 1957.
a) C
b) Java
c) Fortran
d) Cobol
View Answer
Answer: c
610. A text file that contains our program is called as __________
a) Exe file
b) Doc file
c) Obj file
d) Source file
View Answer
Answer: d
611. First statement in a fortran code is _________
a) include statement
b) import statement
c) program statement
d) @data statement
View Answer
Answer: c
612. A Fortran is not ___________
a) System supported
b) Source supported
c) Case Sensitive
143
d) Programmer supported
View Answer
Answer: c
613. The delimiter in a FORTRAN code.
a) Semicolon
b) Blank space
c) Colon
d) Comma
View Answer
Answer: b
614. A program that reads the source code and converts it to a form usable by the computer.
a) Interpreter
b) Compiler
c) Linker
d) Assembler
View Answer
Answer: b
615. A valid variable declaration in FORTRAN is __________
a) real :: Celsius
b) real Celsius;
c) Celsius real;
d) real : Celsius
View Answer
Answer: a
616. In FORTRAN, the declarations of variables can be modified using the _____ parameter.
144
a) kind
b) make
c) select
d) change
View Answer
Answer: a
617. COBOL stands for _________
a) Common Business Oriented Language
b) Common Business Object Language
c) Common Beneficial Oriented Language
d) Common Beneficial Object Language
View Answer
Answer: a
618. COBOL is a language that keeps evolving.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
619. Which of the following is not a part of the program division in COBOL?
a) Identification
b) Environment
c) Procedure
d) Compilation
View Answer
Answer: d
145
620. Which of the following is not a part of the Identification division?
a) Paragraphs
b) Entries
c) Phrases
d) Clauses
View Answer
Answer: c
621. D in COBOL stands for _________
a) Data
b) Draft
c) Debugger
d) Debugging lines
View Answer
Answer: d
622. Comment in COBOL is denoted by ________
a) *
b) /
c) //
d) ;
View Answer
Answer: a
623. The data division is used to ________
a) Declare program id
b) Declare variables
c) File control
146
d) Input-Output section
View Answer
Answer: b
624. Which is not a data type in COBOL?
a) numeric
b) alphanumeric
c) alphabetic
d) float
View Answer
Answer: d
625. What does S denote in a picture clause?
a) A symbol
b) A character
c) A sign
d) Alphanumeric sign
View Answer
Answer: b
626. _____________ denotes the format in which data is stored in memory.
a) kind
b) attach
c) select
d) usage
View Answer
Answer: d
627. Another name for white-box testing is ___________
147
a) Control testing
b) Graybox
c) Glassbox
d) Black box
View Answer
Answer: c
628. Test cases ensure that all the statements are executed atleast once.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
629. Which of the following divides the input domain into classes containing data?
a) Equivalent partitioning
b) Environment partitioning
c) Procedure division
d) Compilation division
View Answer
Answer: a
630. Which of the following is a common testing conducted by the developers?
a) Unit testing
b) Entry testing
c) Phrase testing
d) Code testing
View Answer
Answer: a
148
631. SDLC stands for ________
a) Software development life cycle
b) System development life cycle
c) Software design life cycle
d) System design life cycle
View Answer
Answer: a
632. Which of the following is a myth in testing?
a) Tester can find bugs
b) Any user can test software
c) Missed defects are not due to testers
d) Complete testing is not possible
View Answer
Answer: b
633. A process to determine how the actual testing is done _______
a) Audit
b) Inspection
c) Control
d) Monitoring
View Answer
Answer: a
634. Gathering formal or informal technical feedback is called _________
a) Audit
b) Testing
c) Inspection
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d) Unit testing
View Answer
Answer: c
635. Which is not involved in debugging?
a) Identifying
b) Isolating
c) Test
d) Fixing
View Answer
Answer: c
636. A standard for unit testing.
a) IEEE 1008
b) IEEE 1005
c) IEEE 1009
d) IEEE 1000
View Answer
637. Examination of the program step by step is called ______________
a) Controlling
b) Tracing
c) Stepping
d) Testing
View Answer
Answer: c
638. The examination of changing values of variables is called stepping.
a) True
150
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
639. A freeware GNU Debugger is __________
a) GDB
b) GNB
c) FDB
d) FNB
View Answer
Answer: a
640. Which of the following is written for getting help in GDB?
a) he
b) h
c) assist
d) assistant
View Answer
Answer: b
641. h command gives ___________
a) A list of all the commands starting from h
b) Describes all the commands
c) Displays a short description of the command
d) Displays all the programs
View Answer
Answer: c
642. ____________ creates an inferior process that runs your program.
151
a) run
b) exit
c) execute
d) e
View Answer
Answer: a
643. Which of the following does not affects the execution of the program?
a) Arguments
b) Environment
c) Control
d) I/o
View Answer
Answer: c
644. ‘set args ‘ without arguments can ___________
a) initialize all the arguments
b) remove all the arguments
c) no change
d) show all the arguments
View Answer
Answer: b
645. Which is not involved in debugging?
a) Identifying
b) Isolating
c) Test
d) Fixing
152
View Answer
Answer: c
646. run > outfile command is used to _________
a) direct output to the file outfile
b) jump to a file outfile
c) enter a file outfile
d) edit a file outfile
View Answer
Answer: a
647. STD stands for ____________
a) Software Test Documents
b) System Test Documents
c) Software Traced Documents
d) System Traced Documents
View Answer
Answer: a
648. The SRS describes what the system should do with words and figures.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
649. _______ is part of user documentation.
a) Class diagram
b) Use case
c) Code comment
153
d) Installation guide
View Answer
Answer: d
650. The process of maintaining a record of project development and maintenance.
a) Process documentation
b) Product documentation
c) User documentation
d) System documentation
View Answer
Answer: a
651. This describes the objectives of a product and set out the constraints.
a) SDP
b) SRS
c) SDD
d) STD
View Answer
Answer: a
652. ____________ provide the detailed, specific application being developed.
a) System models
b) Appendices
c) Index
d) Glossary
View Answer
Answer: b
653. Which of the following should describe the technical terms used in the document?
154
a) glossary
b) index
c) user requirements
d) system architecture
View Answer
Answer: a
654. The services provided for the user are described in which section?
a) System requirements
b) User requirements
c) System models
d) Appendices
View Answer
Answer: b
655. ______________ architecture provides a high-level overview of the anticipated system architecture.
a) System
b) User
c) Test
d) Software
View Answer
Answer: a
656. The graphical models showing the relationships between the system and its environment.
a) System models
b) Software models
c) Class models
d) User models
155
View Answer
Answer: a
657. Maintenance and review add to the useful life of the system but can consume large amounts of __________
a) Documents
b) Soft wares
c) Devices
d) Resources
View Answer
Answer: d
658. File and database contains the frequency component.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
659. This is not a part of the signing on the procedure.
a) Identification
b) Verification
c) Execution
d) Authorization
View Answer
Answer: c
660. A __________ is a noted set of activities that are executed on the software in order to confirm its behavior to
certain set of inputs.
a) Process
b) Document
c) Use case
156
d) Test case
View Answer
Answer: d
661. A type of testing that is conducted at the software interface.
a) gray box
b) black box
c) red box
d) white box
View Answer
Answer: b
662. A simple notation for the representation of control flow.
a) System flow
b) Flow graph
c) Flow program
d) System program
View Answer
Answer: b
663. An expression for the calculation of cyclomatic complexity.
a) V(G) = E – N + 2
b) V(G) = E + N + 2
c) V(G) = E – N – 2
d) V(G) = E + N – 2
View Answer
Answer: a
664. The probability of failure-free operation of a software application in a specified environment for a specified
time.
157
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: a
665. SCM stands for __________
a) Software configuration monitoring
b) System configuration management
c) Software configuration management
d) System configuration monitoring
View Answer
Answer: a
666. ______________ is done in the development phase by the developers.
a) Deployment
b) Debugging
c) Verification
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: b
667. Testing is conducted by the developers in testing phase.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
158
668. Process of evaluating a system to verify whether or not it is meeting its objectives.
a) System Maintenance
b) System Evaluation
c) System validation
d) System authorization
View Answer
Answer: b
669. A point not considered in system evaluation.
a) Process control
b) Performance evaluation
c) User Satisfaction
d) Failure Rate
View Answer
Answer: a
670. A type of testing that is conducted at the software interface.
a) gray box
b) black box
c) red box
d) white box
View Answer
Answer: b
671. Incorporating changes in an existing system to enhance, update, or upgrade its features.
a) Maintenance
b) Evaluation
c) Deployment
159
d) Validation
View Answer
Answer: a
672. _____________ Conducted at developer’s site.
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Unit testing
d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: a
673. ___________ Conducted at customers’ site.
a) Alpha Testing
b) Beta Testing
c) Unit testing
d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: b
674. The probability of failure-free operation of a software application in a specified environment for a specified
time.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: a
675. The probability that a software application is operating according to requirements at a given point in time.
160
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: c
676. A __________is a set of instructions which is prepared to perform a specific assignment if executed by a
computer.
a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Program
d) Code
View Answer
Answer: c
677. A program is an active entity.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
678. What is responsible for creating a process from a program?
a) OS
b) Web
c) Internet
d) Firewall
View Answer
Answer: a
161
679. This cycle, of going through __________ states of running and input/output, may be repeated over and over
until the job is completed.
a) evaluation
b) process
c) program
d) data
View Answer
Answer: b
680. The wait fraction is represented by __________
a) w
b) #
c) Q
d) &
View Answer
Answer: a
681. Processor wait ratio is given by ________
a) w=b/e+b
b) w=b/e-b
c) #=b/e-b
d) #=b/e+b
View Answer
Answer: b
682. What does ‘b’ represent in a processor wait ratio?
a) input ratio
b) output ratio
c) average time
162
d) average I/O time
View Answer
Answer: d
683. A technique that allows more than one program to be ready for execution and provides the ability to switch
from one process to another.
a) multitasking
b) multiprocessing
c) multitasking
d) multiprogramming
View Answer
Answer: d
684. Multiprogramming is mainly accomplished by:
a) os
b) software
c) hardware
d) program
View Answer
Answer: a
685. The technique that increases the system’s productivity.
a) multiprogramming
b) multitasking
c) multiprocessing
d) single-programming
View Answer
Answer: a
686. Multithreading is also called as ____________
163
a) Concurrency
b) Simultaneity
c) Crosscurrent
d) Recurrent
View Answer
Answer: a
687. Multiprocessing allows single processor to run several concurrent threads.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
688. A single sequential flow of control within a program is ________
a) Process
b) Task
c) Thread
d) Structure
View Answer
Answer: c
689. Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been transferred.
a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: b
164
690. Java extension used in threads?
a) java.lang.Thread
b) java.language.Thread
c) java.lang.Threads
d) java.Thread
View Answer
Answer: a
691. A method that must be overridden while extending threads.
a) run()
b) start()
c) stop()
d) paint()
View Answer
Answer: a
692. An interface that is implemented while using threads.
a) java.lang.Run
b) java.lang.Runnable
c) java.lang.Thread
d) java.lang.Threads
View Answer
Answer: b
693. A thread becomes non runnable when?
a) Its stop method is invoked
b) Its sleep method is invoked
c) Its finish method is invoked
165
d) Its init method is invoked
View Answer
Answer: b
694. A method used to temporarily release time for other threads.
a) yield()
b) set()
c) release()
d) start()
View Answer
Answer: a
695. A method used to force one thread to wait for another thread to finish.
a) join()
b) connect()
c) combine()
d) concat()
View Answer
Answer: a
696. A task carried out by the OS and hardware to accommodate multiple processes in main memory.
a) Memory control
b) Memory management
c) Memory sharing
d) Memory usage
View Answer
Answer: b
697. An HTML file is a text file containing small markup tags.
166
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
698. Secondary memory is the long term store for programs and data while main memory holds program and data
currently in use. What kind of an organization is this?
a) Physical
b) Logical
c) Structural
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: a
699. Memory organization in which users write programs in modules with different characteristics.
a) Physical
b) Logical
c) Structural
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: b
700. An executing process must be loaded entirely in main memory. What kind of a memory organization is this?
a) Physical
b) Logical
c) Structural
d) Simple
View Answer
Answer: d
167
701. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
702. A set of overlapping divisions in the main memory are called _______
a) Partitions
b) Divisions
c) Blocks
d) Modules
View Answer
Answer: a
703. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This is called ____________
a) fragmentation
b) prior fragmentation
c) internal fragmentation
d) external fragmentation
View Answer
Answer: c
704. __________ is used to shift processes so they are contiguous and all free memory is in one block.
a) Fragmentation
b) Compaction
c) External Fragmentation
168
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: b
705. _______ searches for smallest block. The fragment left behind is small as possible.
a) best fit
b) first fit
c) next fit
d) last fit
View Answer
Answer: a
706. Separation of user logical memory and physical memory is ___________
a) Memory control
b) Memory management
c) Memory sharing
d) Virtual memory
View Answer
Answer: d
707. Logical Address space can be larger than physical address space.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
708. Virtual Memory can be implemented via __________
a) Demand Paging
b) Logical paging
169
c) Structural way
d) Simple division
View Answer
Answer: a
709. COW stands for?
a) Copy over write
b) Convert over write
c) Count over write
d) Copy over write
View Answer
Answer: d
710. LRU stands for?
a) Least Recently used
b) Less Recently used
c) Least Recurrently used
d) Least Randomly used
View Answer
Answer: a
711. An allocation that uses a proportional allocation scheme using priorities rather than size.
a) Priority allocation
b) File allocation
c) Preference allocation
d) Simple allocation
View Answer
Answer: a
170
712. A process selects a replacement frame from the set of all frames.
a) Local replacement
b) Global replacement
c) Block replacement
d) Module replacement
View Answer
Answer: b
713. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This is called _____________
a) fragmentation
b) prior fragmentation
c) internal fragmentation
d) external fragmentation
View Answer
Answer: c
714. A process is busy swapping pages in and out.
a) Thrashing
b) Compaction
c) External Fragmentation
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: a
715. ____________ is one or more physically contiguous pages.
a) Slab
b) Cache
c) Object
171
d) Allocator
View Answer
Answer: a
716. A basic element of data in a file.
a) Memory
b) Record
c) Field
d) Value
View Answer
Answer: c
717. Records are treated as a unit.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
718. __________________ refers to the logical structuring of records.
a) Physical organisation
b) Logical organisation
c) Structural organisation
d) File organisation
View Answer
Answer: d
719. Which of the following is not an appropriate criterion for file organisation?
a) Larger access time
b) ease of update
172
c) simple maintenance
d) economy of storage
View Answer
Answer: a
720. ___________ itself is a file owned by the operating system
a) Logical file
b) Record
c) Database
d) Directory
View Answer
Answer: d
721. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file directory?
a) Attributes
b) Protocol
c) Location
d) Ownership
View Answer
Answer: b
722. Allocated size of a file comes under?
a) basic information
b) address information
c) access control information
d) usage information
View Answer
Answer: b
173
723. Which of the following is not a part of the usage information?
a) data created
b) identity of creator
c) owner
d) last date modified
View Answer
Answer: c
724. When access is granted to append or update a file to more than one user, the OS or file management system
must enforce discipline. This is _________
a) Simultaneous access
b) Compaction
c) External Fragmentation
d) Division
View Answer
Answer: a
725. The user can load and execute a program but cannot copy it. This process is?
a) Execution
b) Appending
c) Reading
d) Updating
View Answer
Answer: a
726. Category of software that comprises word processing, graphics, databases etc.
a) System
b) Application
c) General purpose
174
d) OS
View Answer
Answer: b
727. There are two basic structures in text documents.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
728. MS-Word comes under __________
a) Document production
b) Graphics
c) Databases
d) Numerical Analysis
View Answer
Answer: a
729. A ______________is an application that allows the user to compose and edit simple documents.
a) Word processor
b) Spreadsheet
c) Email utility
d) Browsers
View Answer
Answer: a
730. In text documents, a structure which stays the same no matter how the document is represented.
a) Logical
b) Smart
175
c) Nano
d) Physical
View Answer
Answer: a
731. When the document gets put out : the best fit is calculated from ___________ structure.
a) Logical
b) Smart
c) Nano
d) Physical
View Answer
Answer: a
732. This can change the physical structure of the document.
a) Font
b) Formatting
c) Approach
d) Debug
View Answer
Answer: b
733. An example of e-mail utility.
a) Word
b) Outlook
c) Explorer
d) Excel
View Answer
Answer: b
176
734. A structure that is system- dependent.
a) Logical
b) Smart
c) Nano
d) Physical
View Answer
Answer: d
735. The _____________ in a document and the order in which it is presented is referred to as the document’s logical
structure.
a) data
b) information
c) features
d) functions
View Answer
Answer: b
736. In a spreadsheet, letters are used to represent _____________
a) Cells
b) Rows
c) Columns
d) Blocks
View Answer
Answer: c
737. Cells are identified by a combination of letters and numbers.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
177
Answer: a
738. A numeric data analysis tool that allows us to create a computerized ledger.
a) Word processing package
b) Spreadsheet package
c) Graphics package
d) Mathematical Package
View Answer
Answer: b
739. Which of the following isn’t a part of a spreadsheet?
a) row number
b) column number
c) column letter
d) cell address
View Answer
Answer: b
740. Spreadsheets cannot:
a) do calculations
b) create graphics
c) plot graphs
d) plot charts
View Answer
Answer: b
741. ______________ help us to see patterns.
a) Spreadsheets
b) Calculations
178
c) Charts
d) Graphs
View Answer
Answer: c
742. An easier way to set up complicated calculations.
a) Decimals
b) Fractions
c) Booleans
d) Functions
View Answer
Answer: d
743. The cell that is in use.
a) Highlighted cell
b) Main cell
c) Active cell
d) Formula cell
View Answer
Answer: c
744. The placement of information within a cell at the left edge, right edge, or centered is :
a) Indentation
b) Placement
c) Identification
d) Alignment
View Answer
Answer: d
179
745. A change in the appearance of a value or label in a cell.
a) Alteration
b) Format
c) Indentation
d) Design
View Answer
Answer: b
746. CAD stands for?
a) Computer Aided Design
b) Calculation Aided Design
c) Computer Aided Draft
d) Calculation Aided Draft
View Answer
Answer: a
747. In CAD, objects are displayed in block format.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
748. Used to produce illustrations for reports or for generation of slides.
a) Animation Graphics
b) Spreadsheet graphics
c) Graphics package
d) Presentation graphics
View Answer
180
Answer: d
749. A graphics method in which one object is transformed into another.
a) animation
b) morphing
c) designing
d) graphics art
View Answer
Answer: b
750. Producing graphical representations for scientific, engineering, and medical data sets.
a) Scientific Analysation
b) Scientific Visualization
c) Plot analysation
d) Plot visualization
View Answer
Answer: b
751. ________________applies techniques to modify or interpret existing pictures such as photographs and TV scans.
a) Scientific Analysation
b) Scientific Visualization
c) Image processing
d) Business visualization
View Answer
Answer: c
752. A simple technique of X-ray photography.
It allows cross-sectional views of physiological systems to be displayed.
a) Photography
181
b) Image processing
c) Visualization
d) Tomography
View Answer
Answer: d
753. The major component of GUI.
a) Icons
b) Links
c) Window Manager
d) Cells
View Answer
Answer: c
754. GKS stands for?
a) General Kernel System
b) Graphics Kernel System
c) Graphics Kernel Software
d) General Kernel Software
View Answer
Answer: b
755. A set of libraries that provide programmatically access to some kind of graphics 2D functions.
a) Graphics Package
b) Formatting Package
c) Animation Package
d) Design Package
View Answer
182
Answer: a
756. A package that allows individuals to use personal computers for storing and retrieving their personal
information.
a) Animation package
b) Spreadsheet package
c) Graphics package
d) Personal assistance package
View Answer
Answer: d
757. PDAs have permanent rechargeable batteries.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
758. PDA stands for?
a) Personal digital assistants
b) Personal digital additionals
c) Personal digital advantage
d) Public digital assistants
View Answer
Answer: a
759. You can expand the memory of some PDAs with ________ that can be inserted into the PDA.
a) hard disks
b) storage cards
c) pendrives
d) floppy disks
183
View Answer
Answer: b
760. The devices that work the best with contact management.
a) Palm OS
b) Pocket PC
c) Plot PC
d) Drives
View Answer
Answer: a
761. MCTI stands for Mobile community ________ inventory.
a) task
b) trade
c) tree
d) tele
View Answer
Answer: c
762. Forms that do not require any programming.
a) vector form
b) hanDbase forms
c) pendragon forms
d) html forms
View Answer
Answer: b
763. The forms that can be used for a variety of inventory applications.
a) vector form
184
b) hanDbase forms
c) pendragon forms
d) html forms
View Answer
Answer: c
764. Graphic object composed of patterns of lines, points, circles etc.
a) CAD
b) Vector
c) Animation
d) Raster
View Answer
Answer: b
765. Graphics composed of patterns of dots called pixels.
a) CAD
b) Vector
c) Animation
d) Raster
View Answer
Answer: d
766. MFD stands for?
a) Main File Directory
b) Memory File Directory
c) Master File Directory
d) Master Format Directory
View Answer
185
Answer: c
767. The users are allowed to read information in directories.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
768. ___________ is created when a user opens an account in the computer system.
a) RFD
b) Subdirectory
c) MFD
d) SFD
View Answer
Answer: b
769. A filename without path information.
a) File name
b) Complete filename
c) Directory name
d) Relative filename
View Answer
Answer: d
770. Two or three characters appended to relative filename separated by a period.
a) status
b) identifier
c) extension
d) descriptor
186
View Answer
Answer: c
771. Files that maintain the hierarchical structure of the file system.
a) Descriptors
b) Directories
c) Modifiers
d) Relative files
View Answer
Answer: b
772. The files that appear as entries in the directories.
a) Ordinary files
b) Special files
c) Duplicate files
d) Sub directories
View Answer
Answer: b
773. Number of regions of the disk in a UNIX files management system.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
774. Several instructions execution simultaneously in _________
a) processing
187
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing
d) multitasking
View Answer
Answer: b
775. A collection of related data.
a) Information
b) Valuable information
c) Database
d) Metadata
View Answer
Answer: c
776. DBMS is software.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
777. DBMS manages the interaction between __________ and database.
a) Users
b) Clients
c) End Users
d) Stake Holders
View Answer
Answer: c
778. Which of the following is not involved in DBMS?
188
a) End Users
b) Data
c) Application Request
d) HTML
View Answer
Answer: d
779. Database is generally __________
a) System-centered
b) User-centered
c) Company-centered
d) Data-centered
View Answer
Answer: b.
780. A characteristic of an entity.
a) Relation
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Constraint
View Answer
Answer: b
781. The restrictions placed on the data.
a) Relation
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Constraint
189
View Answer
Answer: d
782. IMS stands for?
a) Information Mastering System
b) Instruction Management System
c) Instruction Manipulating System
d) Information Management System
View Answer
Answer: d
783. A model developed by Hammer and Mc Leod in 1981.
a) SDM
b) OODBM
c) DDM
d) RDM
View Answer
Answer: a
784. Object=_________+relationships.
a) data
b) attributes
c) entity
d) constraints
View Answer
Answer: c
785. DBMS is a set of __________ to access the data.
a) Codes
190
b) Programs
c) Information
d) Metadata
View Answer
Answer: b
786. DBMS provides a convenient and efficient environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
787. Which of the following isn’t a level of abstraction?
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: c
788. A level that describes how a record is stored.
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: a
789. The ______level helps application programs hide the details of data types.
191
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: d
790. A logical structure of the database.
a) Schema
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Instance
View Answer
Answer: a
791. The actual content in the database at a particular point.
a) Schema
b) Attribute
c) Parameter
d) Instance
View Answer
Answer: d
792. Which of the following is not an object-based logical model?
a) ER
b) Network
c) Semantic
d) Functional
192
View Answer
Answer: b
793. SQL is _______
a) Relational
b) Network
c) IMS
d) Hierarchical
View Answer
Answer: a
794. A level that describes data stored in a database and the relationships among the data.
a) physical
b) logical
c) user
d) view
View Answer
Answer: b
795. A term that defines the direction of flow of information between devices.
a) interconnectivity
b) intra connectivity
c) transmission mode
d) transmission
View Answer
Answer: c
796. Transmission mode controls the direction of signal flow.
a) True
193
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
797. Which of the following isn’t a type of transmission mode?
a) physical
b) simplex
c) full duplex
d) half duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
798. A transmission that generally involves dedicated circuits.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
799. A transmission mode that can transmit data in both the directions but transmits in only one direction at a time.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
800. A communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ____________ duplex transmission.
194
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
801. Telephone networks operate in this mode.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: c
802. Fire alarms are based on this type of transmission:
a) direct
b) network
c) analog
d) multiple
View Answer
Answer: c
803. A technique of transmitting data or images or videos (information) using a continuous signal.
a) direct
b) network
c) analog
d) multiple
195
View Answer
Answer: c
804. A walkie-talkie operates in ____________
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
805. A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of _________ of megahertz.
a) 100
b) 150
c) 1000
d) 10000
View Answer
Answer: a
806. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time slots.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
807. The carrier wave is a _________
a) tan wave
b) cosec wave
c) sine wave
196
d) cot wave
View Answer
Answer: c
808. Controlling the phase is referred as __________
a) modulation
b) half modulation
c) amplitude modulation
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: d
809. A transmission mode that can transmit data in both the directions but transmits in only one direction at a time.
a) simplex
b) half duplex
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: b
810. A multiplexing technique based on sampling.
a) FDM
b) TDM
c) SDM
d) FM
View Answer
Answer: b
811. An example of FDM:
197
a) broadcast radio
b) telephone
c) machines
d) semi-duplex
View Answer
Answer: a
812. FDM stands for?
a) Frequency Division Multiplexing
b) Frequency Dependent Multiplexing
c) Frequency Diverged Multiplexing
d) Frequency Derived Multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: a
813. A modulation technique that improves channel bandwidth utilization.
a) direct
b) modulation
c) demodulation
d) multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: d
814. The purpose of communication system is to transfer information from _______ to the destination.
a) user
b) source
c) system
d) station
198
View Answer
Answer: b
815. WDM stands for?
a) Wave division multiplexing
b) Wavelength division multiplexing
c) Wavelength dependent multiplexing
d) Wave dependent multiplexing
View Answer
Answer: b
816. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time slots.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
817. In this type of multiplexing time slots are preassigned to sources and fixed.
a) TDM
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM
d) FDM
View Answer
Answer: b
818. Controlling the frequency is referred as _________
a) frequency modulation
b) hertz modulation
c) amplitude modulation
199
d) phase modulation
View Answer
Answer: a
819. A technique that can be a solution to the problem of synchronizing data sources.
a) framing
b) data link control
c) full link control
d) pulse stuffing
View Answer
Answer: d
820. For voice, each channel contains a ___ word of digitized data.
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
821. Many time slots are wasted in __________
a) TDM
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM
d) FDM
View Answer
Answer: b
822. A technique that allocates time slots dynamically.
200
a) TDM
b) WDM
c) Dynamic TDM
d) Statistical TDM
View Answer
Answer: d
823. A system in which two channels are dedicated to transfer data.
a) TV
b) Cable
c) Modem
d) Cable modem
View Answer
Answer: d
824. In this technique, there is a link between subscriber and network and a local loop.
a) SSDL
b) DSDL
c) ASDL
d) TSDL
View Answer
Answer: c
825. A topology that is responsible for describing the geometric arrangement of components that make up the LAN.
a) Complex
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental
201
View Answer
Answer: b
826. Bus is a type of topology.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
827. _____ LAN topology describes the possible connections between pairs of networked end-points that can
communicate.
a) Complex
b) Physical
c) Logical
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: c
828. A term that refers to the way in which the nodes of a network are linked together.
a) network
b) topology
c) connection
d) interconnectivity
View Answer
Answer: b
829. A network comprising o multiple topologies.
a) Complex
b) Hybrid
c) Bus
202
d) Star
View Answer
Answer: b
830. The participating computers in a network are referred to as:
a) Clients
b) Servers
c) Nodes
d) CPUs
View Answer
Answer: c
831. A topology that involves Tokens.
a) Star
b) Ring
c) Bus
d) Daisy Chaining
View Answer
Answer: b
832. A ____________WAN can be developed using leased private lines or any other transmission facility
a) Hybrids
b) peer-to-peer
c) Two-tiered
d) Three-tiered
View Answer
Answer: b
833. A serially connected system of all the hubs of networks.
203
a) Bus
b) Ring
c) Daisy chains
d) Star
View Answer
Answer: c
834. A piece of information which is sent along with the data to the source computer.
a) data
b) module
c) token
d) element
View Answer
Answer: c
835. Configuration where many independent computer systems are connected.
a) Complex
b) Distributed
c) Cloud
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: b
836. Partial mesh is a highly flexible topology that can take a variety of very different configurations.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
204
837. Components used for interconnecting dissimilar networks that use different communication protocols.
a) Switches
b) Gateways
c) Routers
d) Bridges
View Answer
Answer: b
838. A topology is a modified version of the basic star topology.
a) network
b) two-tiered
c) bus
d) ring
View Answer
Answer: b
839. WANs that need to interconnect a very large number of sites.
a) bus
b) two-tiered
c) three-tiered
d) ring
View Answer
Answer: c
840. Components that operate at the network layer of the OSI model.
a) Switches
b) Servers
c) Routers
205
d) Gateways
View Answer
Answer: c
841. A topology that involves Tokens.
a) Star
b) Ring
c) Bus
d) Daisy Chaining
View Answer
Answer: b
842. ____________ operate at bottom two layers of the OSI model.
a) Bridges
b) Switches
c) Models
d) Modules
View Answer
Answer: a
843. Connecting two or more networks to form a single network is called :
a) Internetworking
b) Intranetworking
c) Interconnecting
d) Intraconnectivity
View Answer
Answer: a
844. OSI stands for?
206
a) Open Site Interconnection
b) Open System Interdependence
c) Open System Interconnection
d) Open Site Interdependence
View Answer
Answer: c
845. ARPANET stands for?
a) Advanced Research Project Agency Network
b) Advanced Research Programmed Auto Network
c) Advanced Research Project Automatic Network
d) Advanced Research Project Authorized Network
View Answer
Answer: a
846. Internet can help you find the shortest route.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
847. In this technique, there is no direct contact between users and their programs during execution.
a) Time Sharing
b) Batch Processing
c) System Processing
d) Message Passing
View Answer
Answer: b
207
848. A technique that marked the beginning of computer communications.
a) Batch Environment
b) Message passing
c) User Environment
d) Time Sharing
View Answer
Answer: d
849. A type of technique in which dumb terminals are connected to a central computer system.
a) Time Sharing
b) Message passing
c) Batch environment
d) User environment
View Answer
Answer: a
850. TCP stands for?
a) Transmission control program
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Transfer control program
d) Transfer control protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
851. The “Victorian internet” is actually?
a) Telegraph
b) Batch Environment
c) Unit Environment
208
d) System Environment
View Answer
Answer: a
852. Packet switching was invented in?
a) 1960s
b) 1980s
c) 2000s
d) 1990s
View Answer
Answer: a
853. The probability of failure-free operation of a software application in a specified environment for a specified
time.
a) Software Reliability
b) Software Quality
c) Software availability
d) Software Safety
View Answer
Answer: a
854. DARPA stands for?
a) Data Advanced Research Projects Agency
b) Defense Advanced Research Product Agency
c) Data based Advanced Research Product Agency
d) Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
View Answer
Answer: d
855. A network that links many different types of computers all over the world.
209
a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Arpanet
d) LAN
View Answer
Answer: b
856. Internet was evolved from the basic ideas of ARPANET.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
857. A service that allows a user to log in into another computer somewhere on the Internet.
a) Telnet
b) FTP
c) e-mail
d) UseNet
View Answer
Answer: a
858. An internet service that allows the user to move a file.
a) FTP
b) Telnet
c) UseNet
d) Time Sharing
View Answer
Answer: a
210
859. Anonymous FTP files are called ___________ accessible files.
a) Privately
b) Publicly
c) Batch
d) User
View Answer
Answer: b
860. TCP stands for?
a) Transmission control program
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Transfer control program
d) Transfer control protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
861. Any system that uses the HTTP protocol is called _________
a) Web Browser
b) Web Server
c) WWW
d) TCP/IP
View Answer
Answer: b
862. Any computer that can access the server is called?
a) Web Server
b) Web Browser
c) User
211
d) Web Client
View Answer
Answer: d
863. Allows the user to create and maintain a personal list of favorite URL addresses.
a) Software
b) Web Servers
c) Web Browsers
d) WWW
View Answer
Answer: c
864. URL stands for?
a) Uniform Resource Locator
b) Uniform Research Locator
c) Uniform Resource Link
d) Uniform Research Link
View Answer
Answer: a
865. The web works on this model.
a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) Client-Server
d) Server
View Answer
Answer: c
866. In the Client-server model, the client receives a request from the server.
212
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
867. Which of the following is not a type of server?
a) File
b) Web
c) Name
d) Browsers
View Answer
Answer: d
868. This determines the type of protocol to be used.
a) <scheme>
b) <pathname>
c) <server name>
d) <server domain name>
View Answer
Answer: a
869. The location of file is determined by ________
a) <scheme>
b) <pathname>
c) <server name>
d) <server domain name>
View Answer
Answer: b
213
870. Apache is a type of ________
a) Transmission control program
b) Web Server
c) Web Browser
d) DBMS
View Answer
Answer: b
871. A small data file in the browser.
a) Cookie
b) Web Server
c) FTP
d) Database
View Answer
Answer: a
872. Any computer that can access the server is called?
a) Web Server
b) Web Browser
c) User
d) Web Client
View Answer
Answer: d
873. Allows the user to create and maintain a personal list of favorite URL addresses.
a) Software
b) Web Servers
c) Web Browsers
214
d) WWW
View Answer
Answer: c
874. SGML stands for?
a) Standard Granted Markup Language
b) System Generalized Markup Language
c) Standard Generalized Markup Language
d) System Granted Markup Language
View Answer
Answer: c
875. A program that can retrieve files from the world wide web and render text, images or sounds encoded in the
files.
a) Browser
b) Internet
c) Server
d) Web Server
View Answer
Answer: a
876. An HTML file is a text file containing small markup tags.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
877. Which of the following is not a type of browser?
a) Netscape
b) Web
215
c) IE
d) Mozilla
View Answer
Answer: b
878. Both client and server release _________ connection after a page has been transferred.
a) IP
b) TCP
c) Hyperlink
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: b
879. In HTML, the tags that tell the browser how to display the page.
a) markup
b) style
c) body
d) head
View Answer
Answer: a
880. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
216
881. A section in HTML that contains generic information about the document.
a) body
b) title
c) head
d) style
View Answer
Answer: c
882. A tag similar to that of the italic tag.
a) <strong>
b) <cite>
c) <code>
d) <i>
View Answer
Answer: b
883. A _________ partitions a web browser window so that multiple web documents can be displayed
simultaneously.
a) Frame
b) set
c) Frameset
d) div
View Answer
Answer: c
884. The _________ attribute specifies the web page to be placed in the frame initially.
a) name
b) src
c) cols
217
d) rows
View Answer
Answer: b
885. XML stands for?
a) Extensions Made Language
b) Extensible Markup Language
c) Extensible Major Language
d) Extensible Minor Language
View Answer
Answer: b
886. AAA stands for Anonymous Administrative Authority.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
887. API is?
a) Advanced Processing Information
b) Application Processing Information
c) Application Programming interface
d) Application Processing Interface
View Answer
Answer: c
888. GSM stands for?
a) Global System for Monitoring
b) Graphical System for Mobile Telecommunications
218
c) Graphical System for Monitoring
d) Global System for Mobile Telecommunications
View Answer
Answer: d
889. IN stands for?
a) Input
b) InterNet
c) Intelligent Network
d) IntraNet
View Answer
Answer: c
890. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
891. PDU stands for?
a) Protocol Data Unit
b) Professional Data Unit
c) Protocol Distributed Unit
d) Professional Distributed Unit
View Answer
Answer: a
219
892. A tag similar to that of the bold tag.
a) <strong>
b) <cite>
c) <code>
d) <i>
View Answer
Answer: a
893. ISP is?
a) Intranet System Processing
b) Internet Service Provider
c) Intelligent System Processing
d) Intranet Service Provider
View Answer
Answer: b
894. NE stands for __________ element.
a) name
b) network
c) new
d) normal
View Answer
Answer: b
895. ______________the ability to access, analyzes, evaluate and produce media.
a) Literacy
b) Internet
c) Media
220
d) Media Literacy
View Answer
Answer: d
896. Media literacy can help youth and adults understand how media shapes our culture.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
897. The analysis of _________ is a process of deconstruction that investigates the operations of texts, their
constructions, the ways they produce meanings, what those meanings may be.
a) Media
b) Web
c) IE
d) Text
View Answer
Answer: d
898. A type of analysis that attends to the repetition and frequency of features, their proportions within the text, and
consequent assumptions about significance.
a) Media
b) Content
c) Linguistic
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: b
899. __________ analysis regards texts as collections of signs or paradigms and possible meanings, operating within
the bounds of various codes.
a) Semiotic
221
b) Style
c) Linguistic
d) Text
View Answer
Answer: a
900. This part of image analysis refers to those primary signs, often part of the technique of photography, which are
about how the image is made.
a) Treatment
b) Position
c) Content
d) Media
View Answer
Answer: a
901. In image analysis, this part refers to objects represented within the image, which may signify to us because of,
for example, their symbolic power or because of their composition in relation to each other.
a) Treatment
b) Position
c) Content
d) Media
View Answer
Answer: c
902. _________ are about storytelling and story meaning.
a) narratives
b) plot
c) content
d) storyline
222
View Answer
Answer: a
903. __________ describes the effect of involving the reader with the story, of constructing it as truth.
a) Narration
b) Identification
c) Plot
d) Characters
View Answer
Answer: b
904. The notion of norms also links to the idea that representations are given force through a process of:
a) naturalization
b) identification
c) media
d) casting
View Answer
Answer: a
905. The media texts may throw up discourses and are called ____________
a) Binary oppositions
b) Violations
c) Oppositions
d) Media Illiteracy
View Answer
Answer: a
906. In terms of image analysis, it is important to attend to primary level signs in visual codes, most obviously for
examples of still photography.
a) True
223
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
907. The notion of __________ is one which is especially associated with semiotics and with genres.
a) Media
b) Web
c) codes
d) Text
View Answer
Answer: c
908. The idea of _________is central to understanding the production of meaning through texts.
a) Identity
b) Content
c) Represntation
d) Network
View Answer
Answer: c
909. ICT stands for?
a) Interaction, Communication and Technology
b) Information, Communication and Technology
c) Interaction, Communication and Text
d) Information, Communication and Text
View Answer
Answer: b
910. A system of interlinked documents, websites, portals etc. accessed through the Internet.
224
a) WWW
b) Internet
c) Web
d) Media
View Answer
Answer: a
911. In image analysis, this part refers to objects represented within the image, which may signify to us because of,
for example, their symbolic power or because of their composition in relation to each other.
a) Treatment
b) Position
c) Content
d) Media
View Answer
Answer: c
912. A dedicated website for providing specialized information in a particular field.
a) Website
b) Blog
c) Web directories
d) Corporate Websites
View Answer
Answer: c
913. _________ are the web-based interactive applications to express and share your ideas and thoughts with
interested people.
a) Website
b) Blog
c) Web directories
225
d) Corporate Websites
View Answer
Answer: b
914. A term used in the context of web design to suggest the path that user takes while browsing a website.
a) navigation
b) identification
c) graphics media
d) casting
View Answer
Answer: a
915. HMD stands for?
a) Head Mounted Display
b) Head Masked Display
c) Head Made Display
d) Head Mounted Detection
View Answer
Answer: a
916. In terms of image analysis, it is important to attend to primary level signs in visual codes, most obviously for
examples of still photography.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
917. ______________ keep track of position.
a) Motion analyzers
b) Motion Trackers
226
c) HMD
d) SMD
View Answer
Answer: b
918. BOOM stands for?
a) Binocular Omni-Orientation Manager
b) Binary Omni-Orientation Manager
c) Binocular Omni-Orientation Monitor
d) Binary Omni-Orientation Monitor
View Answer
Answer: c
919. A term for Illusion of immersion by projecting stereo images on the walls and floor of a room.
a) CAVE
b) BOOM
c) GUI
d) HMD
View Answer
Answer: a
920. It is a mediated environment which creates the sensation in a user of being present in a (physical) surrounding.
a) WWW
b) VR
c) HMD
d) GUI
View Answer
Answer: b
227
921. A term to describe the extent to which a user can modify form and content of a mediated environment.
a) Vividness
b) Richness
c) Interactivity
d) Mapping
View Answer
Answer: c
922. A type of VR environment in which subjects are visually isolated from the real environment.
a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
c) Non immersive
d) Augmented
View Answer
Answer: a
923. In this type of VR environment, the three-dimensional scene is considered as a part of the physical environment.
a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
c) Non immersive
d) Augmented
View Answer
Answer: c
924. In this type of VR environment, the subjects can perform both in the real and virtual environment.
a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
c) Non immersive
228
d) Augmented
View Answer
Answer: b
925. ____________is basically a form of pictorial presentation.
a) Photography
b) Animations
c) Drawing
d) Creativity
View Answer
Answer: b
926. Multiplane camera was introduced by Walt Disney.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
927. It refers to simulated motion pictures showing movement of drawn objects.
a) Motion
b) Animation
c) VR
d) SMD
View Answer
Answer: b
928. A ____________(invented by Paul Roget in 1828) is a simple mechanical toy which creates the illusion of
movement.
a) Binocular
b) Zoetrope
229
c) Thaumatrope
d) BOOM
View Answer
Answer: c
929. A device produces an illusion of movement from a rapid succession of static pictures.
a) Zoetrope
b) Thaumatrope
c) Phenakistoscope
d) HMD
View Answer
Answer: a
930. The ____________ is a piece of equipment designed to make cartoons more realistic and enjoyable. It uses
stacked panes of glass each with different elements of the animation.
a) Multiplane camera
b) VR
c) Thaumatrope
d) Phenakistoscope
View Answer
Answer: a
931. He made the first animated film in 1906.
a) Walt Disney
b) J. Stuart Blackton
c) William Horner
d) J.A. Ferdinand Plateau
View Answer
Answer: b
230
932. Name of the first animation film.
a) Humorous Phases of Funny Faces
b) Tom and Jerry
c) Mickey Mouse
d) How i learnt animations
View Answer
Answer: a
933. ___________ animation is used to animate things that are smaller than life size.
a) Immersive
b) Claymotion
c) Stop motion
d) Augmented
View Answer
Answer: c
934. The father of animation?
a) Walt Disney
b) J. Stuart Blackton
c) William Horner
d) J.A. Ferdinand Plateau
View Answer
Answer: b
935. A term in computer terminology is a change in technology a computer is/was being used.
a) development
b) generation
c) advancement
231
d) growth
View Answer
Answer: b
936. The fourth generation was based on integrated circuits.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
937. The generation based on VLSI microprocessor.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: d
938. ______ generation of computer started with using vacuum tubes as the basic components.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: a
939. Batch processing was mainly used in this generation.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
232
c) 3rd
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: a
940. ___________ is an emerging branch in computer science, which interprets means and method of making
computers think like human beings.
a) Block chain
b) VR
c) AI
d) Cloud computing
View Answer
Answer: c
941. ULSI stands for?
a) Ultra Large Scale Integration
b) Under Lower Scale Integration
c) Ultra Lower Scale Integration
d) Under Large Scale Integration
View Answer
Answer: a
942. In this generation Time sharing, Real time, Networks, Distributed Operating System was used.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 5th
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: d
233
943. HLL stands for?
a) High Level Language
b) High Layman’s Language
c) High Level Lesson
d) High Layman’s Lesson
View Answer
Answer: a
944. The period of ________ generation was 1952-1964.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 5th
d) 4th
View Answer
Answer: b
945. Execution of several activities at the same time.
a) processing
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing
d) multitasking
View Answer
Answer: b
946. Parallel processing has single execution flow.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
234
Answer: b
947. A term for simultaneous access to a resource, physical or logical.
a) Multiprogramming
b) Multitasking
c) Threads
d) Concurrency
View Answer
Answer: d
948. ______________ leads to concurrency.
a) Serialization
b) Parallelism
c) Serial processing
d) Distribution
View Answer
Answer: b
949. A parallelism based on increasing processor word size.
a) Increasing
b) Count based
c) Bit based
d) Bit level
View Answer
Answer: d
950. A type of parallelism that uses micro architectural techniques.
a) instructional
b) bit level
235
c) bit based
d) increasing
View Answer
Answer: a
951. MIPS stands for?
a) Mandatory Instructions/sec
b) Millions of Instructions/sec
c) Most of Instructions/sec
d) Many Instructions / sec
View Answer
Answer: b
952. The measure of the “effort” needed to maintain efficiency while adding processors.
a) Maintainablity
b) Efficiency
c) Scalabilty
d) Effectiveness
View Answer
Answer: c
953. The rate at which the problem size need to be increased to maintain efficiency.
a) Isoeffciency
b) Efficiency
c) Scalabilty
d) Effectiveness
View Answer
Answer: a
236
954. Several instructions execution simultaneously in ________________
a) processing
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing
d) multitasking
View Answer
Answer: b
955. RMI stands for?
a) Remote Mail Invocation
b) Remote Message Invocation
c) Remaining Method Invocation
d) Remote Method Invocation
View Answer
Answer: d
956. A remote object is an object whose method can be invoked from another virtual environment.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
957. A typical _________ program creates some remote objects, makes references to these objects accessible, and
waits for clients to invoke methods on these objects.
a) Server
b) Client
c) Thread
d) Concurrent
View Answer
237
Answer: a
958. A typical __________ program obtains a remote reference to one or more remote objects on a server and then
invokes methods on them.
a) Server
b) Client
c) Thread
d) Concurrent
View Answer
Answer: b
959. The ___________ layer, which provides the interface that client and server application objects use to interact
with each other.
a) Increasing
b) Count
c) Bit
d) Stub/skeleton
View Answer
Answer: d
960. A layer which is the binary data protocol layer.
a) stub layer
b) skeleton layer
c) remote layer
d) transport protocol
View Answer
Answer: d
961. A middleware layer between the stub skeleton and transport.
a) remote layer
238
b) instruction layer
c) reference layer
d) remote reference layer
View Answer
Answer: d
962. An object acting as a gateway for the client side.
a) skeleton
b) stub
c) remote
d) server
View Answer
Answer: b
963. A gateway for the server side object.
a) skeleton
b) stub
c) remote
d) server
View Answer
Answer: a
964. RMI uses stub and skeleton for communication with the ________ object.
a) client
b) remote
c) server
d) any
View Answer
239
Answer: b
965. ________________ is a paradigm of distributed computing to provide the customers on-demand, utility based
computing service.
a) Remote Sensing
b) Remote Invocation
c) Cloud Computing
d) Private Computing
View Answer
Answer: c
966. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the cloud users.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
967. Which of the following is not a cloud stakeholder?
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
d) Cloud users
View Answer
Answer: b
968. These cloud services are of the form of utility computing i.e. the _________ uses these services pay-as-you-go
model.
a) Cloud providers
b) Clients
c) End users
240
d) Cloud users
View Answer
Answer: d
969. Which of the following is not a type of cloud?
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: c
970. In this type of cloud, an organization rents cloud services from cloud providers on-demand basis.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: b
971. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of multiple internal or external cloud.
a) Private
b) Public
c) Protected
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: d
972. _____________ enables the migration of the virtual image from one physical machine to another.
241
a) visualization
b) virtualization
c) migration
d) virtual transfer
View Answer
Answer: b
973. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this type of architecture.
a) skeleton
b) grid
c) linear
d) template
View Answer
Answer: b
974. Saas stands for?
a) Software as a service
b) System Software and services
c) Software as a system
d) System as a service
View Answer
Answer: a
975. Which of the following is not a type of computer on the basis of operation?
a) Remote
b) Hybrid
c) Analog
d) Digital
242
View Answer
Answer: a
976. Remote computers work on continuous range of values.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
977. A computer that operates on digital data.
a) remote
b) hybrid
c) analog
d) digital
View Answer
Answer: d
978. This type of computer is mostly used for automatic operations.
a) remote
b) hybrid
c) analog
d) digital
View Answer
Answer: b
979. ______________ are used for solving complex application such as Global Weather Forecasting.
a) Super Computers
b) Public computers
c) Mobile computers
243
d) Hybrid computers
View Answer
Answer: a
980. The invention of _______________ gave birth to the much cheaper micro computers.
a) Mainframes
b) Microcomputers
c) Microprocessors
d) PDAs
View Answer
Answer: c
981. They can operate on batteries and hence are very popular with travelers.
a) Mainframes
b) Laptops
c) Microprocessors
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: b
982. PDA stands for?
a) personal digital applications
b) private digital applications
c) personal digital assistants
d) private digital assistants
View Answer
Answer: b
983. PDAs are also called?
244
a) PCs
b) Laptops
c) Tablets
d) Handheld
View Answer
Answer: d
984. ______computers are lower to mainframe computers in terms of speed and storage capacity.
a) Mini
b) Super
c) Mainframes
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: a
985. Which of the following is not a type of computer on the basis of operation?
a) Remote
b) Hybrid
c) Analog
d) Digital
View Answer
Answer: a
986. Remote computers work on continuous range of values.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
245
987. A computer that operates on digital data.
a) remote
b) hybrid
c) analog
d) digital
View Answer
Answer: d
988. This type of computer is mostly used for automatic operations.
a) remote
b) hybrid
c) analog
d) digital
View Answer
Answer: b
989. ______________ are used for solving complex application such as Global Weather Forecasting.
a) Super Computers
b) Public computers
c) Mobile computers
d) Hybrid computers
View Answer
Answer: a
990. The invention of _______________ gave birth to the much cheaper micro computers.
a) Mainframes
b) Microcomputers
c) Microprocessors
246
d) PDAs
View Answer
Answer: c
991. They can operate on batteries and hence are very popular with travelers.
a) Mainframes
b) Laptops
c) Microprocessors
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: b
992. PDA stands for?
a) personal digital applications
b) private digital applications
c) personal digital assistants
d) private digital assistants
View Answer
Answer: b
993. PDAs are also called?
a) PCs
b) Laptops
c) Tablets
d) Handheld
View Answer
Answer: d
994. ______computers are lower to mainframe computers in terms of speed and storage capacity.
247
a) Mini
b) Super
c) Mainframes
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: a
995. A network of physical objects or things embedded with electronics or softwares.
a) AI
b) ML
c) IOT
d) Internet
View Answer
Answer: c
996. RFID is a part of IoT.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
997. RFID stands for?
a) Random frequency identification
b) Radio frequency identification
c) Random frequency information
d) Radio frequency information
View Answer
Answer: b
248
998. Which of the following is not involved in working of IoT?
a) RFID
b) Sensor
c) Nano tech
d) Server
View Answer
Answer: d
999. Making the smaller and smaller things have the ability to connect and interact.
a) Micro Tech
b) Smart tech
c) Nano tech
d) RFID
View Answer
Answer: c
1000. Wi-Fi stands for?
a) Wireless fidelity
b) Wireless Flexibility
c) Wide Fidelity
d) WAN Flexibility
View Answer
Answer: a
1001. Diagnostics service for Cars.
a) MIPS
b) AutoBot
c) IoT Assistant
249
d) IoT
View Answer
Answer: b
1002. The father of ioT.
a) Kevin Atrun
b) Kevin Atrhur
c) Kevin Ashton
d) Kevin Thomas
View Answer
Answer: c
1003. Collect->Communicate->__________->Act
a) Acknowledge
b) Analyze
c) Examine
d) Rectify
View Answer
Answer: a
1004. Several instructions execution simultaneously in?
a) processing
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing
d) multitasking
View Answer
Answer: b
1005. The technology that has the ability to interact with the world.
250
a) AI
b) ML
c) IOT
d) IT
View Answer
Answer: a
1006. The goal of AI is to build systems that exhibit intelligent behavior.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1007. The first neural network computer.
a) RFD
b) SNARC
c) AM
d) AN
View Answer
Answer: b
1008. A hardware based system that has autonomy, social ability and reactivity.
a) AI
b) Autonomous Agent
c) Agency
d) Behavior Engineering
View Answer
Answer: b
251
1009. A particular system that contains intelligent agents.
a) AI systems
b) Agency
c) Autonomous systems
d) Company
View Answer
Answer: b
1010. A methodology used to develop behavior-based autonomous agents.
a) Descriptors
b) Behavior engineering
c) Behavior modeling
d) Auto engineering
View Answer
Answer: b
1011. An international research effort to promote autonomous robots.
a) Fresh Kitty
b) RoboCup
c) AICup
d) SPOT
View Answer
Answer: b
1012. A type of non-monotonic reasoning.
a) Ordinary
b) Special
c) Duplicate
252
d) Default
View Answer
Answer: d
1013. The performance of an agent can be improved based on this.
a) Observe
b) Learn
c) Improvise
d) Implement
View Answer
Answer: b
1014. Face recognition system is based on _____________
a) applied AI
b) parallel AI
c) serial AI
d) strong AI
View Answer
Answer: a
1015. The field that covers a variety of computer networks, both public and private, that are used in everyday jobs.
a) Artificial Intelligence
b) ML
c) Network Security
d) IT
View Answer
Answer: c
1016. Network Security provides authentication and access control for resources.
253
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1017. Which is not an objective of network security?
a) Identification
b) Authentication
c) Access control
d) Lock
View Answer
Answer: d
1018. Which of these is a part of network identification?
a) UserID
b) Password
c) OTP
d) fingerprint
View Answer
Answer: a
1019. The process of verifying the identity of a user.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Verification
View Answer
Answer: a
254
1020. A concern of authentication that deals with user rights.
a) General access
b) Functional authentication
c) Functional authorization
d) Auto verification
View Answer
Answer: c
1021. CHAP stands for?
a) Challenge Handshake authentication protocol
b) Challenge Hardware authentication protocol
c) Circuit Hardware authentication protocol
d) Circuit Handshake authentication protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
1022. Security features that control that can access resources in the OS.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Access control
View Answer
Answer: d
1023. An algorithm in encryption is called _____________
a) Algorithm
b) Procedure
c) Cipher
255
d) Module
View Answer
Answer: c
1024. The information that gets transformed in encryption is ____________
a) Plain text
b) Parallel text
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text
View Answer
Answer: a
1025. The process of transforming plain text into unreadable text.
a) Decryption
b) Encryption
c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
View Answer
Answer: b
1026. An algorithm used in encryption is referred to as cipher.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1027. A process of making the encrypted text readable again.
a) Decryption
b) Encryption
256
c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
View Answer
Answer: a
1028. WTLS stands for?
a) Wireless Transport Security Layer
b) Wireless Transfer System Layer
c) Wireless Transfer Security Layer
d) Wireless Transport System Layer
View Answer
Answer: a
1029. The protocol designed to make the security of wireless LAN as good as that of wired LAN.
a) WTLS
b) WEP
c) RSN
d) WP
View Answer
Answer: b
1030. A person who enjoys learning details about computers and how to enhance their capabilities.
a) Cracker
b) Hacker
c) App controller
d) Site controller
View Answer
Answer: b
257
1031. A program created by Farmer and Venema for auditing capability.
a) SAAS
b) SATAN
c) SAN
d) SAT
View Answer
Answer: b
1032. A small program that changes the way a computer operates.
a) Worm
b) Trojan
c) Bomb
d) Virus
View Answer
Answer: d
1033. A program that copies itself.
a) Worm
b) Virus
c) Trojan
d) Bomb
View Answer
Answer: a
1034. An attack in which the site is not capable of answering valid request.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
258
d) Ping storm
View Answer
Answer: b
1035. A cipher in which the order is not preserved.
a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
b) Transposition-based
c) Substitution based
d) Public key based
View Answer
Answer: b
1036. Plain text is the data after encryption is performed.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1037. A unique piece of information that is used in encryption.
a) Cipher
b) Plain Text
c) Key
d) Cipher
View Answer
Answer: c
1038. Study of creating a d using encryption and decryption techniques.
a) Cipher
b) Cryptography
259
c) Encryption
d) Decryption
View Answer
Answer: b
1039. Creating a computer or paper audit that can help detect wrong doings.
a) Auditing
b) Validation
c) RSN
d) Verification
View Answer
Answer: a
1040. An indirect form of surveillance.
a) Honey pot
b) Logical
c) Security
d) Intrusion
View Answer
Answer: a
1041. A malicious code hidden inside a seemingly harmless piece of code.
a) Worm
b) Bomb
c) Trojan Horse
d) Virus
View Answer
Answer: c
260
1042. Attack in which a user creates a packet that appears to be something else.
a) Smurfing
b) Trojan
c) E-mail bombing
d) Spoofing
View Answer
Answer: d
1043. A technique in which a program attacks a network by exploiting IP broadcast addressing operations.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
View Answer
Answer: a
1044. An attack in which the user receives unwanted amount of e-mails.
a) Smurfing
b) Denial of service
c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
View Answer
Answer: c
1045. These ciphers replace a character or characters with a different character or characters, based on some key.
a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
b) Transposition-based
c) Substitution based
261
d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
View Answer
Answer: d
1046. Encryption is the study of creating and using decryption techniques.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1047. A type of cipher that uses multiple alphabetic strings.
a) Substitution based
b) Transposition-based
c) Polyalphabetic substitution based
d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
View Answer
Answer: c
1048. An encryption technique with 2 keys is ______________
a) Monoalphabetic Cipher
b) Cryptography
c) Private key cryptography
d) Public key cryptography
View Answer
Answer: d
1049. In public key cryptography, a key that decrypts the message.
a) public key
b) unique key
262
c) private key
d) security key
View Answer
Answer: c
1050. DES stands for?
a) Data Encryption Standard
b) Data Encryption Statistics
c) Data Encryption System
d) Data Encryption Sequence
View Answer
Answer: a
1051. Under DES, the data encryption standard took a 64-bit block of data and subjected it to ______ levels of
encryption.
a) 64
b) 8
c) 16
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
1052. Triple-DES has ______ keys.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
263
1053. Encryption standard that is selected by the US government to replace DES.
a) AES
b) BES
c) CES
d) DES
View Answer
Answer: a
1054. An electronic document that establishes your credentials when you are performing transactions.
a) Digital code
b) OTP
c) E-mail
d) Digital certificate
View Answer
Answer: d
1055. A field of technology that deals with a combination of real world and the data generated from computer.
a) ML
b) AI
c) AR
d) IoT
View Answer
Answer: c
1056. AR is interactive in real-time.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
264
Answer: a
1057. Technologies that completely involve a user inside a synthetic environment.
a) AR
b) VR
c) AI
d) ML
View Answer
Answer: b
1058. Technologies that allow the user to see the real world, with virtual objects composited in the real world.
a) AR
b) VR
c) AI
d) SR
View Answer
Answer: a
1059. A ______________________ is a display device, worn on head as a part of helmet that has a small display
optic.
a) HD
b) MD
c) HMD
d) ARD
View Answer
Answer: c
1060. Wearable computing device in the form of computerized eyeglasses.
a) HMD
b) Helmets
265
c) Smart Glasses
d) VR Glasses
View Answer
Answer: c
1061. A tracking based on geo-location information.
a) Location based
b) Markerless
c) Marker based
d) GPS
View Answer
Answer: a
1062. SLAM stands for?
a) Simultaneous localization and mapping
b) System localization and mapping
c) Simultaneous localization and maintenance
d) System localization and maintenance
View Answer
Answer: a
1063. A technique that enables light field which is generally the product of a light source scattered off objects.
a) AES
b) Holography
c) Cryptography
d) Gyrography
View Answer
Answer: b
266
1064. A _______ can be recorded using a normal light source.
a) Holograph
b) Photography
c) Holography
d) Photograph
View Answer
Answer: d
1065. A model that is the demo implementation of the system.
a) waterfall
b) prototype
c) incremental
d) agile
View Answer
Answer: b
1066. Maintenance is the final phase in waterfall model.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1067. A stage in which individual components are integrated and ensured that they are error-free to meet customer
requirements.
a) Coding
b) Testing
c) Design
d) Implementation
View Answer
267
Answer: b
1068. ___________ is a step in which design is translated into machine-readable form.
a) Design
b) Conversion
c) Debugging
d) Coding
View Answer
Answer: d
1069. The customer requirements are broken down into logical modules for ease of _______________
a) inheritance
b) design
c) editing
d) implementation
View Answer
Answer: d
1070. What do you call a technical person who is capable of understanding the basic requirements?
a) team leader
b) analyst
c) engineer
d) stakeholder
View Answer
Answer: b
1071. A step in waterfall model that involves a meeting with the customer to understand the requirements.
a) Requirement Gathering
b) SRS
268
c) Implementation
d) Customer review
View Answer
Answer: a
1072. Methodology in which project management processes were step-by step.
a) Incremental
b) Waterfall
c) Spiral
d) Prototyping
View Answer
Answer: b
1073. An individual who plans and directs the work.
a) Stakeholder
b) Project manager
c) Team leader
d) Programmer
View Answer
Answer: b
1074. A planned program if work that requires a definitive amount of time, effort and planning to complete.
a) Problem
b) Project
c) Process
d) Program
View Answer
Answer: b
269
1075. A set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.
a) verification
b) testing
c) implementation
d) validation
View Answer
Answer: a
1076. Validation is computer based.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
1077. ___________ is done in the development phase by the debuggers.
a) Coding
b) Testing
c) Debugging
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: c
1078. Locating or identifying the bugs is known as ___________
a) Design
b) Testing
c) Debugging
d) Coding
View Answer
270
Answer: b
1079. Which defines the role of software?
a) System design
b) Design
c) System engineering
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: c
1080. What do you call testing individual components?
a) system testing
b) unit testing
c) validation testing
d) black box testing
View Answer
Answer: b
1081. A testing strategy that test the application as a whole.
a) Requirement Gathering
b) Verification testing
c) Validation testing
d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: d
1082. A testing strategy that tests the application in the context of an entire system.
a) System
b) Validation
271
c) Unit
d) Gray box
View Answer
Answer: a
1083. A ________ is tested to ensure that information properly flows into and out of the system.
a) module interface
b) local data structure
c) boundary conditions
d) paths
View Answer
Answer: a
1084. A testing conducted at the developer’s site under validation testing.
a) alpha
b) gamma
c) lambda
d) unit
View Answer
Answer: a
1085. A ______________ represents the need of information in the program without the presenting the details.
a) abstraction
b) polymorphism
c) implementation
d) class
View Answer
Answer: a
272
1086. Abstraction combines the data and functions into a single unit called a class.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
1087. The process of forming a new class from an existing class.
a) Abstraction
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: c
1088. This concept allows routines to use data again at different times.
a) Abstraction
b) Polymorphism
c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
View Answer
Answer: b
1089. The ability for programmers to use the same written and debugged existing class.
a) Reusability
b) Design
c) Debugging
d) Implementation
View Answer
273
Answer: a
1090. A concept that combines data and functions into a single unit called class.
a) inheritance
b) encapsulation
c) polymorphism
d) abstraction
View Answer
Answer: b
1091. __________ represents a particular instance of a class.
a) module
b) block
c) object
d) token
View Answer
Answer: c
1092. A basic unit of object-oriented programming.
a) module
b) block
c) object
d) token
View Answer
Answer: c
1093. A procedural programming follows ___________ approach.
a) top-down
b) bottom-up
274
c) left-right
d) right-left
View Answer
Answer: a
1094. A programming technique in which the focus is on doing things.
a) object oriented
b) procedural
c) logical
d) structural
View Answer
Answer: b
275
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