QUESTION BANK

(CBSE Sample Question papers

with key answers
for the Academic year 2020-21)

CLASS - X
 INDEX

SUBJECT PAGE

ENGLISH 1 – 45

TAMIL 46 – 92

HINDI 93 – 137

SOCIAL SCIENCE 138 – 172

MATHEMATICS 173 – 251

SCIENCE 252 – 315

 ENGLISH

Duration: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This paper is divided into two parts: A and B. All questions are
compulsory.

2. Separate instructions are given with each section and question,

wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and
follow them.

3. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the

questions.

 Part–A (40 Marks):

 Reading (20 marks)

 Literature (10 marks)

 Grammar (10 marks)

 Part–B (40 Marks):

 Writing (10 marks)

 Literature (30 marks)

 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1
PART A – 40 Marks
READING (20 MARKS)
1. Read the passage given below.
a. Spice plants, such as coriander, cardamom or ginger, contain compounds
which, when added to food, give it a distinctive flavour. Spices have been
used for centuries in the preparation of both meat dishes for consumption
and meat dishes for long-term storage. However, an initial analysis of
traditional meat-based recipes indicated that spices are not used equally in
different countries and regions, so we set about investigating global
patterns of spice use.
b. We hypothesized initially that the benefit of spices might lie in their anti-
microbial properties. Those compounds in spice plants which give them
their distinctive flavours probably first evolved to fight enemies such as
plant-eating insects, fungi, and bacteria. Many of the organisms which
afflict spice plants attack humans too, in particular the bacteria and the
fungi that live on and in dead plant and animal matter. So if spices kill
these organisms, or inhibit their production of toxins, spice use in food
might reduce our own chances of contracting food poisoning.
c. The results of our investigation supported this hypothesis. In common with
other researchers, we found that all spices for which we could locate
appropriate information have some antibacterial effects: half inhibit more
than 75% of bacteria, and four (garlic, onion, allspice and oregano) inhibit
100% of those bacteria tested. In addition, many spices are powerful
fungicides.
d. Studies also show that when combined, spices exhibit even greater anti-
bacterial properties than when each is used alone. This is interesting
because the food recipes we used in our sample specify an average of four
different spices. Some spices are so frequently combined that the blends
have acquired special names, such as ‘chilli powder’ (typically a mixture of
red pepper, onion, paprika, garlic, cumin and oregano) and ‘oriental five
spice’ (pepper, cinnamon, anise, fennel and cloves). One intriguing
example is the French ‘quatre epices’ (pepper, cloves, ginger and nutmeg)
which is often used in making sausages. Sausages are a rich medium for
bacterial growth, and have frequently been implicated as the source of
death from the botulism toxin, so the value of anti-bacterial compounds in
spices used for sausage preparation is obvious.

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e. A second hypothesis we made was that spice use would be heaviest in areas
where foods spoil most quickly. Studies indicate that rates of bacterial
growth increase dramatically with air temperature. Meat dishes that are
prepared in advance and stored at room temperatures for more than a few
hours, especially in tropical climates, typically show massive increases in
bacterial counts. Of course temperatures within houses, particularly in areas
where food is prepared and stored, may differ from those of the outside air,
but usually it is even hotter in the kitchen.
f. Our survey of recipes from around the world confirmed this hypothesis: we
found that countries with higher than average temperatures used more
spices. Indeed, in hot countries nearly every meat-based recipe calls for at
least one spice, and most include many spices, whereas in cooler ones,
substantial proportions of dishes are prepared without spices, or with just a
few. In other words, there is a significant positive correlation between mean
temperature and the average quantity of spices used in cooking.
g. But if main function of species is to make food safer to eat, how did our
ancestors know which ones to use in the first place? It seems likely that
people who happened to use spice plants to meat during preparation,
especially in hot climates, would have been less likely to suffer from food
poisoning than those who did not. Spice users may also have been able to
store foods for longer before they spoiled, enabling them to tolerate longer.
h. Another question which arises is why did people develop a taste for spicy
foods? One possibility involves learned taste aversions. It is known that
when people eat something that makes them ill, they tend to avoid that taste
subsequently. The adaptive value of such learning is obvious. Adding a
spice to a food that caused sickness might alter its taste enough to make it
palatable again (i.e. it tastes like a different food), as well as kill the micro-
organisms that caused the illness, thus rendering it safe for consumption.
By this process, food aversions would more often be associated with
unspiced (and therefore unsafe) foods, especially in places where foods
spoil rapidly. Over time people would have developed a natural preference
for spicy food.
i. Of course, spice use is not the only way to avoid food poisoning. Cooking,
and completely consuming wild game immediately after slaughter reduces
opportunities for the growth of micro-organisms. However, this is practical
only where fresh meat is abundant year-round. In areas where fresh meat is
not consistently available, preservation may be accomplished by
thoroughly cooking, salting, smoking, drying and spicing meats. Indeed,
salt has been used worldwide for centuries to preserve food. We suggest
that all these practices have been adopted for essentially the same reason: to
minimize the effects of harmful, food-borne organisms.

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 On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY TEN
questions from the twelve that follow. 10 x 1 = 10
i) Which paragraph contains the following information?
‘a comparison between countries with different climate types’
a. F b. A c. G d. E
ii) According to the writers, what might the use of spices in cooking help people
to avoid?
a. food digestion b. food poisoning c. food aversion d. food allergy
iii) What proportion of bacteria in food do four of the spices tested destroy?
a. 100 % b. 75% c. 10% d. 7.5%
iv) Which food often contains a spice known as ‘quatre epices’?
a. sauce b. mayonnaise c. sausage d. macaroni
v) Which types of country use the fewest number of spices in cooking?
a. hotter ones b. cooler ones c. tropical ones d. sub-tropical ones
vi) What might food aversions often be associated with?
a. spicy foods b. unspiced foods c. thawed foods d. fast foods
vii) Apart from spices, which substance is used in all countries to preserve food?
a. honey b. salt c. sauce d. margarine
viii) Which is the best title for the Reading Passage?
a. The function of spices in food preparation
b. A history of food preservation techniques
c. Traditional recipes from around the world
d. An analysis of the chemical properties of the spice plants
ix) Choose the option that correctly states the meaning of ‘slaughter’, as used in
the passage.
a. the killing of animals for skin
b. the killing of animals for food
c. the killing of animals for deity
d. the killing of animals for sport

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x) What does the survey suggests in the last paragraph of the passage?
a. to minimise the effects of harmful, water-borne organisms
b. to minimise the effects of harmful, air-borne organisms
c. to minimise the effects of harmful, food-borne organisms
d. to minimise the effects of harmful, animal-borne organisms
xi) Rates of bacterial growth increases with _________.
a. land temperature b. air temperature
c. water temperature d. body temperature
xii) In paragraph (h), ________ means ‘pleasant to taste’.
a. palatable b. aversion c. adaptive d. rendering

2. Read the passage given below.

When another old cave is discovered in the south of France, it is not usually
news. Rather, it is an ordinary event. Such discoveries are so frequent these
days that hardly anybody pays heed to them. However, when the Lascaux cave
complex was discovered in 1940, the world was amazed. Painted directly on its
walls were hundreds of scenes showing how people lived thousands of years
ago. The scenes show people hunting animals, such as bison or wild cats. Other
images depict birds and, most noticeably, horses, which appear in more than
300 wall images, by far outnumbering all other animals. Early artists drawing
these animals accomplished a monumental and difficult task. They did not limit
themselves to the easily accessible walls but carried their painting materials to
spaces that required climbing steep walls or crawling into narrow passages in
the Lascaux complex. Unfortunately, the paintings have been exposed to the
destructive action of water and temperature changes, which easily wear the
images away. Because the Lascaux caves have many entrances, air movement
has also damaged the images inside. Although they are not out in the open air,
where natural light would have destroyed them long ago, many of the images
have deteriorated and are barely recognizable. To prevent further damage, the
site was closed to tourists in 1963, 23 years after it was discovered.
On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer ANY TEN
questions from the twelve that follow. 10 x 1 = 10
i) Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
a. Wild animals in art b. hidden prehistoric paintings
c. exploring caves respectfully d. determining the age of French Caves

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ii) In line 3, the words pays heed to are closest in meaning to________.
a. discovers b. watches c. notices d. buys
iii) Based on the passage, what is probably true about the south of France?
a. It is home to rare animals. b. It has a large number of caves.
c. It is known for horse-racing events. d. It has attracted many famous artists.
iv) According to the passage, which animals appear most often on the cave walls?
a. Birds b. Bison c. Horses d. Wild cats
v) In line 7, the word depict is closest in meaning to _________.
a. show b. hunt c. count d. draw
vi) Why was painting inside the Lascaux complex a difficult task?
a. It was completely dark inside.
b. The caves were full of wild animals.
c. Painting materials were hard to find.
d. Many painting spaces were difficult to reach.
vii) In line 9, the word ‘they’ refers to _________.
a. walls b. artists c. animals d. materials
viii) According to the passage, all of the following have caused damage to the
paintings except _________.
a. temperature changes b. air movement
c. water d. light
ix) What does the passage say happened at the Lascaux caves in 1963?
a. Visitors were prohibited from entering.
b. A new lighting system was installed.
c. Another part was discovered.
d. A new entrance was created.
x) The synonym of the word ‘deteriorate’ in the passage is _________.
a. ravish b. worse c. ruin d. demolish
xi) The word which means the same as ‘to be greater than someone or something’
in the passage is _________.
a. outnumbering b. heed c. depict d. accomplish
xii) Lascaux cave paintings show how people lived hundreds of years ago. (TRUE/
FALSE)

5
 LITERATURE (10 MARKS)
3. Read the extracts given below and attempt ANY ONE by answering the
questions that follow. 5x1=5

A.
a. Who entered the classroom?
(i) Maddie and Peggy
(ii) Wanda Petronski
(iii) Miss Mason and the school Principal
(iv) Some other staff members
b. What was there all over the room?
(i) drawings (ii) paintings (iii) furniture (iv) fancy lights
c. Trace a word that means grand.
(i) Dazzling (ii) Brilliant (iii) Lavish (iv) Gasped
d. How many drawings were there?
(i) Ten (ii) Fifty (iii) Hundred (iv) Sixty
e. On what were the drawings drawn upon?
(i) Newspaper (ii) Cardboard (iii) Pastel sheets (iv) Wrapping paper
(OR)

B.
a. Who decided to answer the letter?
(i) The postmaster
(ii) Lencho himself
(iii) a post office employee
(iv) God

6
b. How did the postmaster help the writer of the letter?
(i) by hiring him
(ii) By sending the letter to God
(iii) By collecting money and sending it to Lencho
(iv) By guiding and motivating him to work harder
c. Which word in the extract means the same as a firm decision?
(i) Faith (ii) evident (iii) goodwill (iv) resolution
d. Write an antonym for 'unnoticeable' from the passage?
(i) evident (ii) faith (iii) resolution (iv) goodwill
e. What kind of a person was the postmaster?
(i) cunning (ii) arrogant (iii) amiable iv) lethargic

4. Read the extracts given below and attempt ANY ONE by answering the
questions that follow. 5x1=5
A. Has given my heart
A change of mood
And saved some part
Of a day I have rued
a. Under which tree was the poet standing or sitting?
(i) Hemlock (ii) Banyan (iii) Pine (iv) Oak
b. What changed the poet's gloomy mood?
(i) Snowflakes (ii) raindrops (iii) wind (iv) sunshine
c. What is the rhyming meter of the given stanza?
(i) abcd (ii) abab (iii) abba (iv) aabb
d. How did the poet feel when the snowflakes fell on him?
(i) petrified (ii) dejected (iii) joyful (iv) enraged
e. What does the word 'rued' mean?
(i) pride (ii) fear (iii) enthusiasm (iv) regret
(OR)

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B.
a. Name the poet.
(i) Walt Whitman (ii) Robert Frost (iii) Ruskin Bond (iv) W B Yeats
b. What does the poet say about animals?
(i) They are calm (ii)They have a pure soul
(iii) They are self-contained (iv) All of these
c. Trace a word from the extract that means serene.
(i) placid (ii) self-contained (iii) turn (iv) long and long
d. The poet looks at the animals _________
(i) recklessly (ii) briefly (iii) for a long time (iv) angrily
e. What does the poet intend to become?
(i) a child (ii) a bird (iii) an animal (iv) God

GRAMMAR (10 MARKS)

5. Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from those given below.
3x1=3
The butter (a) ________ melted. Onions and vegetables are (b) ________ in it
for 3 minutes. Flour and stock are (c) ________
It is brought to a boil while stirring continuously. Grated cheese is then added
to this mixture.
a. (i) be (ii) is (iii) are (iv) being
b. (i) fried (ii) fry (iii) fries (iv) frying
c. (i) and (ii) added (iii) adding (iv) aided

6. Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the

shopkeeper’s narration. 3x1=3
Customer : You have a variety of frozen stuff.
Shopkeeper : You can buy as much as you like.
Customer : Why don’t you keep fresh vegetables?
Shopkeeper : Things have become very expensive these days.
Customer : You should start keeping good stuff; otherwise I shall stop
buying from you.

8
 Customer told the shopkeeper that he had a variety of frozen stuff. Shopkeeper
replied that he could buy as much as he liked. The customer then asked the
shopkeeper (i) _______ fresh vegetables. The shopkeeper replied that things
(ii) _______. The customer warned him that he (iii) _______.
(i) a. why don’t you keep
b. why he didn’t keep
c. why didn’t he keep
d. why he don’t kept
(ii) a. has become very expensive those days
b. have become very expensive those days
c. had become very expensive those days
d. have become very expensive these days
(iii) a. should start keeping good stuff otherwise, he would stop buying from him
b. should start keeping good stuff otherwise, he will stop buying from him
c. should started keeping good stuff otherwise, he would stop buying from him
d. should start keeping good stuff otherwise I shall stop buying from you

7. Fill in the blanks using correct options for ANY FOUR of the six sentences
given below. 4x1=4
i) They had _______ so well.
a. do b. done c. did d. does
ii) You won’t forget me, _______ you?
a. will b. won’t c. are d. aren’t
iii) What did you _______ for breakfast?
a. have b. had c. has d. were
iv) _______ the end of next month she would have been here for twenty years.
a. By b. In c. At d. On
v) Everyone _______ Priya.
a. support b. supporting c. supports d. are supporting
vi) I prefer coffee _______ tea.
a. to b. for c. instead d. or

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 PART B – 40 MARKS

WRITING (10 MARKS)

8. Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words. (5)

A. You are Somya/Shekhar of 3B, SectorII, Rajendra Nagar, New Delhi.You have
observed that the subways in NewDelhi are seldom used by pedestrians. You
have decided to write a letter to the editor of 'The India Daily Times
'highlighting the need of creating awareness about the importance of such ways
and their proper maintenance.

OR

B. Express your views by writing a letter to the Editor of the local newspaper on
the subject 'Reforming Beggars'.

9. Attempt ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words. (5)

A. The following table shows details about the internet activities for six categories
for different age groups. Write an analytical paragraph for the table given
below.

Age Group

Activity % Teens 20s 30s 40s 50s 60s 70+

Get News 76 73 76 75 71 74 70

Online games 81 54 37 29 25 25 32

Downloads 52 46 27 15 13 8 6

Product research 0 79 80 83 79 74 70

Buyin g a product 43 68 69 68 67 65 41

Searching for people 5 31 23 23 24 29 27

OR

10
B. The table illustrates the proportion of monthly household income five countries
spend on food and drink, housing, clothing and entertainment. Write an
analytical paragraph by selecting and reporting the main features and make
relevant comparisons.

Food and drink Housing Clothing Entertainment

India 25% 31% 7% 13%

Pakistan 22% 33% 15% 19%

China 27% 37% 11% 11%

Russia 36% 20% 12% 10%

Afghanistan 31% 18% 8% 15%

LITERATURE (30 MARKS)

10. Answer ANY TWO questions in 20-30 words each, from A and B
respectively.

A. (ANY TWO: 2 x 2 = 4)

(i) The young seagull was afraid of flying. Why?

(ii) How was the town looking on the Christmas Eve?

(iii) Describe the appearance of the dragon.

B. (ANY TWO: 2 x 2 = 4)

(i) "But there was one thing I could do - collect things." What collection did
Ebright make? When did he start making the collection?

(ii) What did Bill say about Lutkins and his family?

(iii) What were the reasons that Bholi's parents accepted Bishamber's proposal
although it was not a proper match?

11
11. Answer ANY TWO questions in 40-50 words each, from A and B
respectively.

A. (ANY TWO: 2 x 3 = 6)
(i) Why did the children become excited to see the baker? What did they do then?
(ii) How did Valli react to the elderly woman? What was the reason for her
reaction?
(iii) What did her experience teach Kisa Gotami?

B. (ANY TWO: 2 x 3 = 6)
(i) Where did Hari Singh put the stolen money?
(ii) What was Mr.Herriot’s strict advice? Did Mrs.Pumphrey pay heed to his
advice?What excuses did she make?
(iii) What was Matilda’s response to the invitation?

12. Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words. (5)

A. What does Mandela mean by the boyhood freedom and the freedom he enjoyed
as a young man?
OR
B. How did tea originate and how did it become famous worldwide?

13. Answer ANY ONE of the following in 100-120 words. (5)

A. Griffin was a brilliant scientist but not a good human being. Explain.
OR
B. Sketch the character of Bholi.

***********

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 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1

PART A – 40 Marks
READING (20 MARKS)
1. PASSAGE 1 (10 x 1 = 10)
i. F
ii. b. food poisoning
iii. a. 100%
iv. c. sausage
v. b. cooler ones
vi. b. unspiced foods
vii. b. salt
viii. a. The function of spices in food preparation
ix. b. the killing of animals for food
x. c. to minimise the effects of harmful, food-borne organisms
xi. b. air temperature
xii. a. palatable

2. PASSAGE 2 (10 x 1 = 10)

i. b. hidden prehistoric paintings
ii. c. notices
iii. b. It has a large number of caves.
iv. c. horses
v. a. show
vi. d. many painting spaces were difficult to reach.
vii. b. artists
viii. d. light
ix. a. visitors were prohibited from entering
x. b. worse
xi. a. outnumbering
xii. False

LITERATURE (10 MARKS)

3. EXTRACTS(ANY ONE) (5×1=5)
A. a. (i) Maddie and Peggy
b. (i) Drawings
c. (iii) Lavish
d. (iii) Hundred
e. (iv) Wrapping paper
OR

13
B. a. (i) The postmaster
b. (iii) by collecting money and sending it to Lencho
c. (iv) resolution
d. (i) evident
e. (iii) amiable

4. EXTRACTS (ANY ONE) (5×1=5)

A. a. (i) Hemlock
b. (i) snowflakes
c. (ii) abab
d. (iii) joyful
e. (iv) regret
OR
B. a. (i) Walt Whitman
b. (iv) All of these
c. (i) Placid
d. (iii) For a long time
e. (iii) An animal

GRAMMAR (10 MARKS)

5. Fill in the blanks choosing the correct option from those given below.
a. (ii) is b (i) fried c (ii) added (3×1=3)
6. Choose the correct options to fill in the blanks to complete the shopkeeper’s
narration. (3×1=3)
1. b. why he didn’t keep
2. c. had become very expensive those days
3. a. should start keeping good stuff, otherwise he would stop buying from him

7. Fill in the blanks using correct options for ANY FOUR of the six sentences given
below. (4×1=4)
(i) b. done (ii) a. will (iii) a. have (iv) a. By (v) c. supports (vi) a. to

PART B – 40 MARKS
WRITING
8. LETTER – WRITING : ANY ONE (5 MARKS)
FORMAT – 1 MARK
CONTENT - 2 MARKS

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 Importance of Subways:
 Unutilized infrastructure
 Many footpaths occupied by the vendors
 Pedestrians are prone to accidents
 Pedestrians prefer to jump the roads causing deaths, causes of apathy – water
and filth accumulation.

Reforming Beggars:
 Beggars – slur to the nation.
 Common sight
 Criminals- pick pocket, snatching etc
 Giving them money – making them handicapped
 Made capable to earn and live.
 Training to be given
 Old and handicapped beggars –asylums, old age homes
 Should be made punishable.
EXPRESSION – 2 MARKS

9. ANALYTICAL WRITING : ANY ONE (5 MARKS)

FORMAT – 1 MARK
CONTENT - 2 MARKS
Internet activities:
 Graph illustrates Internet activities
 Internet – inevitable.
 Popularity – all age groups
 Comparison of datas – highest , lowest
 Similar among all the categories
 Internet –used wisely

Monthly Household income

 Graph illustrates proportion of monthly income spent.
 Comparison - given five countries
 Highest - Russia – food & clothing
 Lowest – Pakistan – food & clothing
 China spend more - housing.
 Afghanistan – lowest –clothing. India spend lesser than Afghanistan –
clothing
 Pakistan - more –entertainment.
 Highest and lowest – food & drink, housing, clothing ,entertainment.
EXPRESSION – 2 MARKS

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 LITERATURE (30 MARKS)
10. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:
ANY TWO EACH FROM SETS A AND B (2×4=8)
A. (2×2=4)
(i) The young seagull was afraid of flying as he was afraid of heights.The sea expanse
was vast and he thought that his wings would not support him. He was afraid of
falling and hurting himself.
(ii) On Christmas Eve, the town was looking very beautiful. There were celebrations all
around. All the houses had wreaths and holly in the windows. Outside of the grocery
store, hundreds of Christmas trees were stacked and decorated with candy,
peppermint sticks and cornucopias of shiny transparent papers. The air smelled like
Christmas and light shining everywhere reflected different colours on the snow.
(iii) Custard, the dragon had a formidable appearance. Its mouth was like a fireplace and
the nose was always fuming like a chimney. It had sharp teeth, toes like daggers,
spikes on back and scales on the belly. However, in sharp contrast to the appearance,
its temperature was extremely timid.
B. (2×2=4)
(i) When young, Ebright felt he could neither play football nor baseball. There was one
thing which he could do, which was collecting things. He had a wonderful assortment
of monarch butterflies, fossils, rocks and coins. He began collecting things when he
was in kindergarten.
(ii) Bill, the taxidriver, told many false things about Lutkins and his family to make the
lawyer afraid. He told him that Oliver Lutkins was a dishonest person. He said
Lutkins used to play a lot of pokers. He was good at deceiving people. He owed
money to many people. He said that Oliver Lutkins's mother was a terrible woman.
She was about nine feet tall and four feet thick. She was quick as a cat and talked too
much. She was very active. She could prove to be very dangerous.
(iii) Bholi's parents accepted Bishamber's proposal although it was not a proper match
because Bishamber Nath was a well-to-do grocer, a widower who had a house of his
own and a big bank balance. Bishamber Nath was not aware of the 'flaws' of Bholi.
When he proposed to Ramlal, he readily accepted fearing that if he rejected the
proposal Bholi would remain unmarried all her life. She would then be a burden on
her parents.

11. ANY TWO (3×4=12)

A. (3×2=6)
(i) Everyone including children and the author became very excited to see the baker
because they loved to eat bread-bangles. When they heard the Jhang-Jhang sound
made by the baker’s bamboo, they ran towards him. They started to peep into his
basket climbing on the railings and benches. The baker used to first give the bread to
maids and then the children.
(ii) At one busstop, an elderly woman entered the bus. She came and sat beside Valli.
She tried to be friendly with Valli. But Valli did not show any warmth and

16
 friendliness to the elderly woman. She spoke to her angrily and started looking
outside the bus. The reason was that she was chewing betel nuts and there was juice
on her lips. She also had ugly earrings. She asked Valli if she knew where she was
going. So Valli didn't like her.
(iii) Kisa Gotami became tired and hopeless as she could not find a house where no one
had ever died. She saw the lights of the city when she sat at the wayside. They
flickered up and extinguished again. She learnt from her experience that human lives
were like the lights and death was inevitable and common to all.

B. (3×2=6)
(i) Hari Singh escaped quickly from the room after stealing Anil’s money from under the
mattress. He hid the bundle of money in his pyjama. After returning back to Anil’s
room, he put the money under the mattress i.e. on its original spot.
(ii) Mr.Herriot’s strict advice was to cut down Tricki's diet and give him a lot of water
and more exercise to avoid illness. But Mrs. Pumphrey did not pay heed to his
advice. She made an excuse that Tricki seemed so weak that she had to relent and
could not refuse him.
(iii) Matilda’s response to the invitation was not positive. She was not happy to see the
invitation. She refused to go to the ball. She advised her husband to give the
invitation to someone who has a good dress and expensive jewellery. She threw the
invitation spitefully upon the table.

12. ANY ONE (5×1=5)

A. Mandela meant different things when he referred to his boyhood freedom and the
freedom he enjoyed as a young man. Nelson Mandela felt that his boyhood freedom
was an illusion. His freedom had already been taken from him. As a boy, he was free
to run in the fields and swim in the streams. He was not troubled as long as he obeyed
the laws and his parents. A man has to work for his family, parents, wife, and
children. As a youth, Nelson Mandela realized that his freedom had been seized from
him. With the advancement in age and experience, he felt that not only his freedom
but also the freedom of everyone was curtailed. He felt the hunger of freedom for all.
Nelson Mandela is grateful in acknowledging the unimaginable sacrifices of
thousands of black heroes for the freedom of their people. Modestly, he realizes that
freedom is indivisible. He realized that he could not lead a free and honourable life if
his people were in chains.
OR
B. There were many legends about the origins of tea. One legend was about a Chinese
emperor who always boiled water before drinking it. One day a few leaves of the
twigs burning under the pot fell into the water giving it a delicious flavour. It is said
they were tea leaves. According to another Indian legend, a Buddhist monk
Bodhidharma, an ancient Buddhist ascetic,cut off his eyelids because he felt sleepy
during meditations. Ten tea plants grew out of the eyelids.The leaves of these plants
when put in hot water and drunk banished sleep.

17
 Tea was first drunk in China as far back as 2700B.C.Words like ‘Chai’ and ‘Chini’
were from Chinese. Tea came to Europe only in the sixteenth century and was drunk
more as medicine than a beverage.

13. ANY ONE (5×1=5)

A. Griffin was a very brilliant scientist because he invented a rare drug to make the
human body transparent like a sheet of glass and subsequently, he became invisible.
He could become famous and popular amongst all if he would use his discovery for
the welfare of society. But he did just the opposite. He misused his discovery. He used
it to create trouble for others. Firstly, he set fire to his landlord's house as he did not
like him and wanted to eject him. And he slipped into a London store without
permission and fitted himself with all the clothing. Without caring for payment he
enjoyed coffee, meat, and wine. After this, he robbed a shopkeeper in the theatrical
company to get clothing to hide the empty space above his shoulders. He stabbed the
shopkeeper from behind. Later on, he stole the housekeeping money from the
clergyman’s desk. All these incidents show that Griffin was not a true scientist. He
used his scientific discovery for his own selfish purposes and to eliminate those who
hindered his path.
OR
B. Bholi’s real name was Sulekha but she was called Bholi, the simpleton as she was a
backward child. She was the fourth daughter of Numberdar Ramlal who had seven
children. Bholi remained a backward child due to an injury in her head when she was
ten months old. She was fair and pretty at birth but when she was two years old, she
had an attack of small-pox which left deep black marks all over her body. She started
speaking only when she turned five but she stammered when she spoke and as a
result, she was always mimicked or made fun of by the other children. Therefore,
Bholi talked very little. Unlike Ramlal’s other children, she was not healthy and
strong. She was frightened at first when her father wanted to take her to school. After
years of gaining an education and with the help of her teacher, Bholi turned into a
confident girl.

***********

18
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2

PART A – 40 Marks
READING (20 MARKS)
1. Read the passage given below and complete the sentences that follow:
1. Broadly speaking, Reading Comprehension (RC) passages can be classified into
a few categories. Fact based RC is the simplest form of RC. These types of
passages have a lot of information in the form of names, numbers, etc. In this
type of passages one should read very fast.
2. Inference based RC is the toughest form of RC. Here the passage is fairly tough
to understand. This includes passages on topics like Religion, Spirituality,
Philosophy, etc. Most of the students will not be comfortable attempting these
passages at least in RC. The reading speed is fairly slow in this type of passages.
The way to master this type of passages is to read them again and again while
practicing.
3. Topic based RC includes passages on any particular topic like economics,
astrology, medical science, etc. Generally what makes these passages tough is
usage of technical terms. If a topic is new to us then the presence of technical
terms scares us even if they are defined in the passage. For success in this type of
passages we need to have an understanding of the definition of the term if it is
defined in the passage. Read that definition twice if you need to. But don’t worry
about technical terms if they are not defined in the passage. Assume them to be
non- existent and proceed. The key principle in tackling these passages is not to
go to the next line unless the previous line is clear.
4. Reading the passage first and then questions is the most popular strategy for RC.
While answering the question you may come back to the passage to find answer
as you have just read the passage initially and not crammed it. But you should not
come back for each and every question. If you come back for majority of
questions then you haven’t read the passage properly. The key to success for this
strategy is that you should understand the passage very well. We will suggest
students to follow this technique from the beginning and work upon this.
5. Reading questions first and then the passage is the strategy followed by a few
students. They just look at the questions and not options. The objective is that
after seeing the questions when you read the passage then you read only that part
carefully where the answer is given. The flaw with this is that you will not be
able to remember all the questions.
6. Besides this, this strategy fails when there are questions that require
understanding of the passage.

On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer any ten of the
following questions. (1x10=10)
a) Most students find Reading Comprehension difficult because…………………
(i) the language is tough
(ii) the vocabulary is difficult
(iii) the style is too involved
(iv) the topics are unrelated to their interest

19
b) Choose the option that describes the central idea in the following quotes.
I. II. III. IV.
Once you learn The more that you read, To learn to read is Comprehension
to read, you the more things you will to light a fire; is the goal
are forever know. The more that every syllable that between the
free. you learn, the more is spelled out is a reader and the
- Frederick places you’ll go. spark. text.
Douglas - Dr.Seuss. -Victor Hugo - Unknown
i) Option I ii) Option II iii) Option III iv) Option IV
c) Which of the characteristics given below are apt in the case of fact based reading
comprehensions?
1. simple 2. dull 3. Brief
4. Informative 5. for fast reading 6. fact based
i) 2 and 3 ii) 4 and 6 iii) 2 and 5 iv) 4 and 1
d) Suggest an appropriate title for the passage from the following:
i) Reading writing and arithmetic ii) Tackling reading comprehension
iii) How to read and comprehend iv) Read, comprehend and answer.
e) The phrase ‘toughest form of reference to context’ refers to passage that are
i) tough to understand ii) tough to read
iii)tough to answer iv)tough to define
f) Select the sentence that makes the correct use of word ‘passage’, as used in given
text, to fill in the black spaces.
i) The cricket team was ................. through India on their way to New Zealand.
ii) The dictation ............... was very tough.
iii) The pupil has _______the class x examination
iv) Only trucks with the medical supplies were _______ through the bombed city.
g) The author tries to ______ the readers in this passage
(i)inform (ii)infer (iii)intimidate (iv) intuit
h) The author of the passage uses the abbreviation ‘RC’ to describe reading
comprehension. Pick the word which is not a standard abbreviation.
i) DIY ii)abbrev iii)ASOP iv)ASAP
i) The word ‘inference’ in para 2 means ...................
i) similar ii)same iii) conclusion iv)assumption
j) What does the phrase ‘most popular strategy’ means?
i) a commonly adopted plan for answers ii)a sharp plan to solve answers
iii)an easy plan to write answers iv)a tested method of writing answers
k) Choose the option that correctly states the use of the most popular strategy for
answering Reference to Context questions.
i) read question first and then the passage
ii) read passage first and the questions
iii) understand the passage and then answer questions
iv) read only part of the passage which pertains to the question asked.
l) The main thrust of this passage is on........................
i) types of reference to context passage
ii) methods of tackling questions in reference to context
iii) Strategise reading and answering of reference to context
iv) choose a personal style for reference to context work

20
2. Read the following passage carefully:
1. I have often thought it would be a blessing if each human being was stricken blind
and deaf for a few days at some time during his adult life. Darkness would make
him more appreciative of sight, silence would teach him the joy of sound. Now
and then I have tested my seeing friends to discover what they see. Recently I
asked a friend, who had just returned from a long walk in the woods, what she has
observed. "Nothing in particular," she replied.
2. How was it possible I asked myself to walk for an hour through the woods and see
nothing worthy of note. I, who cannot see find hundreds of things to interest me
through mere touch. I feel the delicate symmetry of leaf. I pass my hands lovingly
about the smooth skin of a silver birch or the rough, shaggy bark of a pine. In
spring I touch the branches of trees hopefully in search of a bud, the first sign of
awakening nature after her winter's sleep. Occasionally if I am fortunate and place
my hand gently on a small tree and feel the happy quiver of a bird in full song.
3. At times my heart cries out with longing to see all these things. If I can get so
much pleasure from mere touch, how much more beauty must be revealed by
sight.
4. And I have imagined what I should must like to see if I were given the use of my
eyes, say, just for three days.
5. I should divide the period into three parts. On the first day, I should want to see the
people whose kindness and gentleness and companionship have made my life
worth living. First I would like to gaze upon the face of my dear teacher, Mr. Anne
Sullivan Macy. She came to see me when I was a child. She opened the other
world for me
On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer any ten of the
following questions. (1x10=10)
a) What would make one's blindness more appreciative of sight ?
i) blackness ii) whiteness iii) darkness iv) joyfulness
b) What would silence teach one's deafness?
i) joy of music ii) joy of voice iii) joy of sound iv)joy of speaking
c) Where did her friend go?
i) to a village ii) to a town iii) to a city iv) to the woods
d) How could Helen Keller find hundreds of things ?
i) by touch ii) by voice iii) by sound iv) by listening
e) Whom would she like to see first if she was given sight ?
i) her father ii) her teacher iii) her mother iv) her brother
f) Give the noun form of 'observe'?
i) Observation ii) Observasion iii) Obserwation iv) Obserwasion
g) The verb form of ‘thought’ is ______.
i) think ii) thinked iii) thinks iv) to think
h) Writer divided the period into ______ parts.
i) one ii) two iii) three iv) four
i) Where does the writer go for a walk?
i) in woods ii) on road iii) in cave iv) in a town
j) On what things writer passes his hand?
i) a silver birch ii) a toy iii) a painting iv) a child

21
k) What makes writer more appreciative in sight?
i) darkness ii) light iii) touch iv) sunlight
i) The word ‘symmetry’ in para2 is closest in meaning to
i) irregular ii) asymmetrical iii) imbalance iv) equal

Literature Textbooks (10 marks)

3. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. (5 x 1 =5)
His parents and his brothers and sister had landed on this green flooring ahead of
him. They were beckoning to him, calling shrilly. He dropped his legs to stand on the
green sea. His legs sank into it. He screamed with fright and attempted to rise again
flapping his wings. But he was tired and weak with hunger and he could not rise,
exhausted by the strange exercise. His feet sank into the green sea, and then his belly
touched it and he sank no farther. He was floating on it, and around him his family
was screaming, praising him and their beaks were offering him scraps of dog-fish. He
had made his first flight.
(a) The young seagull’s brothers and sister had landed on the ________
(i) Sea (ii) air (iii) trees (iv) none of the above.
(b) At the time of landing, the young seagull was _________.
(i) tired (ii) weak (iii)happy (iv) both (i) and(ii)
(c) As a reward, the young seagull’s parents offered him _________.
(i) dog fish (ii) water (iii) fruit (iv) none of the above.
(d) Find the synonym of ‘tired out’ from the extract.
(i) exhausted (ii) flapping (iii)screaming (iv) shrilling
(e) On his landing, his family __________.
(i) made fun of him (ii) shouted on him (iii)praised him (iv)none of the above.
Or
Lencho had predicted, big drops of rain began to fall. In the north-east huge
mountains of clouds could be seen approaching. The air was fresh and sweet. The
man went out for no other reason than to have the pleasure of feeling the rain on his
body, and when he returned he exclaimed, ‘‘These aren’t raindrops falling from the
sky, they are new coins. The big drops are ten cent pieces and the little ones are
fives.’’
(a) How did Lencho feel when the rain began to fall?
(i) Fresh & Sweet (ii) no feelings
(iii) pleasure to have the rain on his body (iv) happy to see coins falling.
(b) Choose the option that lists the set of statements that are NOT True.
1. Lencho predicted big drops of mists falling.
2. The clouds were on the north – east side.
3. The air was fresh but humid.
4. The big drops were tiny like cent pieces.
5. Lencho went out to feel the rain on his person.
6. Lencho remarked the raindrops were like new coins.
7. Lencho had predicted big drops of rain falling.
(i) 1,2 & 3 (ii) 1,3 & 4 (iii) 3, 4 & 5 (iv) 5, 6 & 7
(c) Find a word in the passage which means the same as ‘anticipated’.
(i) predicted (ii) approached (iii) feeling (iv) exclaimed.

22
(d) Which word does ‘mountains of’ not correspond to?
(i) massif (ii)masses (iii) mastiff (iv) multitudes.
(e) Choose the option. What character trait Lencho had displayed when he saw the rain
come down?
(i) engagement (ii) elongation (iii) elevation (iv) elation

4. Read the extracts given below and attempt ANY ONE, by answering the
questions that follow. (5)
The way a crow
Shook down on me
The dust of snow
From a hemlock tree
Has given my heart
A change of mood
And saved some part
Of a day I had rued.
a) The way that the crow ‘shook down” on the poet shows that it was___________.
(i) snowing (ii)snowfall (iii) snow fed (iv) snowed
b) Detail the rhyme scheme of the poem ____________.
i) a, a, b, b… abab ii) abab…. cdde iii) aabb …. addcb iv) abab,…..cdcd.
c) The poem brings out the contrast between ____________.
i) the poet’s dejection and the nature of the bird
ii) the poet’s happiness and the reaction of the bird
iii) the contrast between the moods of the poet and the carefree nature of the crow.
iv) natural delights and human desires .
d) What is the crow not likely say to the poet?
i) Cheer up! Fly with me ii) Is not it a fine day?
iii) Remain dejected iv) The day is so dull & gloomy.
e) The falling of ‘a dust of snow’ on the poet and his reaction to it reveals _________.
i) human beings find solace in the snow.
ii) human beings find solace in the lap of nature.
iii) human beings find happiness in the company of birds.
iv) human beings like crow.
Or
Some say the world will end in fire,
Some say in ice.
From what I’ve tasted of desire
I hold with those who favour fire.
a) People uses fire and ice as symbols of ______________
i) for ending the earth ii) tools of destruction
iii)tools of human destruction iv) tools for saving the world.
b) The poet says that human greed _________________.
i) can be destroyed by fire.
ii) is the fire that will end the world
iii) Fire symbolises burning desire of human greed.
iv) Fire symbolises the power of fire to destroy mankind.

23
c) The word ‘perish’ does not have a similar meaning to ________.
i) demise ii) devolve iii) decease iv) degenerate.
d) Both the elements mentioned in the poem have some similarities. Which one of
the followings is not the common between the two?
i) Both are natural ii) Both can end the world
iii) Both are not weak iv) Both can be mastered.
e) The poet is of the opinion __________.
i) that fire would cause final destruction ii) that ice would cause the final destruction
iii) that there would be no destruction iv) Both I & II

Grammar (10 Marks)

5. Complete the following passage by choosing the most appropriate option from
the ones given below: (3)
Glass is a pure compound of sand melted at a high temperature with the a) _____of
catalysts. Silicate, the main compound of sand , is heated b) _____ it is red-hot. c)
_____ it has been sufficiently heated, it is wound around a blowing pipe.
a) (i) help (ii) heat (iii) temperature (iv) purpose.
b) (i) up (ii) till (iii) upto (iv) still
c) (i) till (ii) still (iii) when (iv) before

6. Choose your answer from the given options. Answer any 4 of the following
questions. (3)
a) This time tomorrow, I _____ on the beach.
i) am lying ii) will lie iii) will be lying iv) none of the above
b) She said that she_____ help me.
i) will ii) shall iii) would iv) none of the above
c) _____ you go right now? You only arrived an hour ago!
i) must ii) should iii) can iv) none of the above
d) When he was young, he _____swim very well. He won medals and championships!
i) had to ii) can iii) could iv) none of the above
e) Most of the teeth_____clean.
i) is ii) an iii) are iv) none of the above

7. Read the following conversation and complete the paragraph choosing the best
option (3)
Mr Harish : Can you polish my shoes?
Cobbler : Yes sir. But I will take Rs.10 for each shoe.
Mr Harish : I will not mind as long as it is done?
i) Mr Harish asked the cobbler a)________________.
a) whether he could polish his shoes.
b) If he can polish his shoes.
c) whether he polished his shoes.
d) whether he would polish his shoes.

24
ii) Cobbler answered affirmatively but b) __________________.
a) said that he will take Rs.10 for each shoe.
b) said that he has taken Rs.10 for each shoe.
c) said that he would take Rs.10 for each shoe.
d) said that I would take Rs.10 for each shoe.
iii) Mr.Harish said that c) ___________________.
a) he would not mind as long as it is done.
b) he will not mind as long as it is done.
c) he will not mind as long as it was done.
d) he would not mind as long as it was done.

PART B – 40 Marks
Writing (10 marks)
8. The insanitary conditions in your colony are causing multiple diseases. Write a letter
in 100 -120 words to the Municipal commissioner bringing the problem to his notice
and request him to take urgent action in the matter. You are Deepak / Deepa of C 2/8,
Ankur Enclave, New Delhi. (5)
OR
You are Rajesh/Ranjani of 105 C, Chaterjeee Lane, Kolkata. You have received a
letter from your brother who is studying in the hostel of Shakti Mandir Public School,
Darjeeling, stating that he is being bullied by some senior students who threatened
him with dire consequences, if he complains. Write a letter in 100-120 words to the
Hostel Warden requesting him to take urgent action.

9. Colours play a very important role in our life. They have a healing power also. Read
the table given below and use it to write an analytical paragraph on ‘Colour Therapy’.
You are Shruti / Sharad of BPS Public School. (5)
COLOURS BENEFITS
Supports Balance, Harmony, Love, Communication, Social
1. GREEN
Nature, Acceptance
Increases Calmness, Love, Honesty, Kindness, Truth, Inner
2. BLUE- INDIGO
Peace, Emotional Depth, Devotion
Stimulates Intuition, Imagination, Universal Flow, Meditation,
3. VIOLET
Artistic qualities.
Increases Physical Energy, Vitality, Stamina, Spontaneity,
4. RED
Stability, Passion
Stimulates Creativity, Productivity. Pleasure, Optimism,
5. ORANGE
Enthusiasm, Emotional expression.
Increases Fun, Humour, Lightness, Personal Power, Intellect,
6. YELLOW
Logic, Creativity.
OR
Due to Covid -19 pandemic, all schools are closed and to mitigate the academic loss,
online classes are being provided by the government and the schools. In this situation
the role of cell phones, once prohibited in schools, now has become an essential need
of the students. Write a paragraph in 100 -120 words on the topic “Importance of cell
phones for the students during pandemic Covid -19” (5)

25
 Literature (30 marks)
10. Attempt any two questions in 20-30 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively.
(4x2=8)
A) Any Two
a) People get support from family and friends during bad times. How does Lencho’s
family behave after the harvest is ruined?
b) How does the poem point to the cruelty of animals in captivity?
c) Enumerate any two reasons that justify Mr. Keesing’s displeasure at Anne’s talking
in class.
B) Any Two
a) Why does Mrs Pumphery call the doctor?
b) Why were the two boys surprised to see imprints of a pair of bare feet?
c) Bholi’s father Ramlal was not in favour of sending girls to school. Why?

11. Attempt any two questions in 40-50 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively.
(4x3=12)
A) Any Two
a) Anne believed that paper has more patience than people. Why?
b) Who is the ‘mermaid’ in the poem Amanda? What does ‘she’ wish to do?
c) Why does the conductor refer Valli as ‘madam’?
B) Any Two
a) What were the three mistakes that Matilda committed?
b) The hack driver at New Mullion befriended the lawyer. What did he do after that?
c) Which project of Ebright won him the first prize at county science fair?

12. Answer any one of the following long answers type questions in 100-120 words
(5)
a) Anne justified her being a chatterbox in her essay. Do you agree that she had the
courage to defy injustice? What values do you learn from Anne’s views in her essay.
(or)
(b) ‘Though Peggy and Maddie made fun of Wanda, she gifted them her special
drawings’. In the light of this statement interpret the social equation that changed
between girls.

13. Attempt any one of the following long type questions in 100-120 words: (5)
(a) ‘The Necklace’ reveals that vanity is an evil. It may bring short term joy but it leads
to ruin. Assess how Matilda’s vanity leads her to ruin.
(or)
(b) Create a pen portrait for Bholi. How do you think the teacher influenced her to grow
and evolve.

***********

26
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2

1. Read the passage carefully

a) (iv) the topics are unrelated to their interest
b) iv) Option IV
c) iv) 4 and 1
d) iv) Read, comprehend and answer.
e) i) tough to understand
f) ii) The dictation ...............was very tough.
g) i) inform
h) iii) ASOP
I) iv) assumption
J) ii) a sharp plan to solve answers
K) iii) understand the passage and then answer questions
l) iii) strategise reading and answering of reference to context

2. Read the passage carefully

a) iii) darkness
b) iii) joy of sound
c) i) to a village
d) i) by touch
e) ii) her teacher
f) i) Observation
g) i) think
h) iii) three
i) i) in woods
j) i) a silver birch
k) ii) light
l) iv) equal

3. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. (5)
a. i) Sea
b. (iv) both (i) and(ii)
c. (i) dog fish
d. (i) exhausted
e. (iii) praised him
or

27
a. (iv) happy to see coins falling.
b. (ii) 1,3 & 4
c. (i) predicted
d. (iii) mastiff
e. (iv) elation

4. Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow. (5)
a. (i) snowing
b. (iv) abab,…..cdcd.
c. iii) the contrast between the moods of the poet and the carefree nature of the crow.
d. i) Cheer up! Fly with me
e. ii) human beings find solace in the lap of nature.
Or
a. iii) tools of human destruction
b. ii) is the fire that will end the world
c. ii) devolve
d. iv) Both can be mastered.
e. i) that fire would cause final destruction

5. Complete the following passage by choosing the most appropriate option from
the ones given below: (3)
a) (i) help
b) (ii) till
c) (iii) when

6. Choose your answer from the given options. Answer any 4 of the following
questions. (3)
a) iii) will be lying
b) iii) would
c) iii) can
d) iii) could
e) iii) are

7. Read the following conversation and complete the paragraph choosing the best
option:
i. a) whether he could polish his shoes.
ii c) said that he would take Rs.10 for each shoe.
iii. d) he would not mind as long as it was done

28
8. The insanitary conditions in your colony are causing multiple diseases. Write a letter
in 100 -120 words to the Municipal commissioner bringing the problem to his notice
and request him to take urgent action in the matter. You are Deepak / Deepa of C 2/8,
Ankur Enclave, New Delhi.
Format – 1 mark
Content – 2 marks
 the problem
 sufferings of people
 suggestions
 request to take urgent action
Expression – 2marks
Or
You are Rajesh/Ranjani of 105 C, Chaterjeee Lane, Kolkata. You have received letter
from your brother who is studying in the hostel of Shakti Mandir Public School,
Darjeeling, stating that he is being bullied by some senior students who threatened
him with dire consequences, if he complains. Write a letter in 100-120 words to the
Hostel Warden requesting him to take urgent action.
Format – 1 mark
Content – 2 marks
• the problem
• stress , sleepless nights,no longer wants to study, threat, concern for brother’s life
• request to take urgent action
Expression – 2marks

9. Colours play a very important role in our life. They have a healing power also. Read
the table given below and use it to write an analytical paragraph on ‘Colour Therapy’.
You are Shruti / Sharad of BPS Public School. (5)
Format – 1 mark
Content – 2 marks
• healing effect of colours
• effects of each colour
• reap its benefits
Expression – 2marks
Or
Due to Covid -19 pandemic, all schools are closed and to mitigate the academic loss,
online classes are being provided by the government and the schools. In this situation
the role of cell phones, once prohibited in schools, now has become an essential need
of the students. Write a paragraph in 100 -120 words on the topic “Importance of cell
phones for the students during pandemic Covid -19”

29
 Format – 1 mark
Content – 2 marks
• schools closed , online classes
• importance of cell phone increased
• cell phones - a boon to the students
• access a lot of resources
• life easier for the students.
Expression – 2marks

10. Short Answers:

Part A
a) After his entire crop was ruined in the hailstorm, his family members solaced him
and asked him not to lose hope. They reminded him that in God's world no one died
of hunger. Lencho's entire family had faith in God's help.
b) The poet tries to expose the miserable life led by the animals in the zoo. He compares
the life of the tiger in the zoo with its life at a natural habitat. The animals have the
right to freedom and should not be caged. They should be allowed to run free in the
wild.
c) Keesing was irritated by Anne's talkative nature. He warned her many times and
finally decided to punish her by giving her extra homework. He was justified, to a
certain extent, in punishing her as she disturbed the class and would have been a
definite distraction to other students
Part B
a) Mrs Pumphrey was worried and distraught because Tricki would not eat anything. It
even refused its favourite dishes. It had bouts of vomiting. It spent all its time lying
on the rug and panting. It did not want to go for walks or do anything. So she had to
call the doctor.
b) The two boys in London were surprised and fascinated because they had seen the
muddy imprints of a bare footed man but they did not see any man there. Soon the
footprints became fainter and fainter and finally disappeared. All this surprised the
boys.
c) Ramlal was not in favour of sending girls to school because he felt that sending girls
to the school will affect their marriage prospects adversely

11. Part A
a) According to Anne, paper is more patient than persons because the diary is a silent
recorder of Anne's thoughts, non-judgmental and patient. People on the other hand
rarely listen and constantly censure her whenever she talks. People are seldom
interested in listening to the musings of a thirteen-year-old schoolgirl but a diary
would not object or shut her up. It would patiently let her fill up its blank pages with

30
 her thoughts, observations and comments without judgement.
b) The mermaid is Amanda herself. Amanda wishes to be a mermaid so she could
carelessly move along on a languid emerald sea. She just wishes to be carried away
by the green sea waves slowly and gradually. Amanda longs for a place where she is
all by herself as her happiness is not dependent on any other human being.
c) The conductor was fond of joking. He called Valli ‘Madam’ to tease her. Valli was
behaving like a grown up and confident lady. She did not help anybody’s help. She
was annoyed when the old man called her a child. Moreover she had paid her fare
herself and was travelling all alone.
Part B
a) Matilda was unhappy with her life. She longed to be rich. She borrowed a diamond
necklace from her friend. She did not tell her friend the truth. The cause of Matilda’s
ruin was her constant discontentment with her circumstances. It was her sense of
frustration which made her and her husband borrows the necklace for the party which
was subsequently lost. She could have avoided it by firstly, not borrowing the
necklace and secondly by telling the truth to Mrs. Forestier.
b) After befriending the lawyer, the hack driver who was Lutkins himself offered to
search Lutkins to whom the lawyer had to serve summon. He took to him to Fritz
shop, Mustafa’s and Gray’s barber shops and then to the pool room. Later he took
him to his wife for lunch for half a dollar and then to his mother.
c) Ebright didn’t win anything at his first science fair, thereby realising that actual
experiments alone worked. Later, he started winning prizes. Ebright with his scientist
friend first built a device that showed that the tiny gold spots on a monarch pupa
were producing a hormone necessary for the butterfly’s full development. This
project won them first prize in the County Science Fair and third prize in zoology in
the International Science Fair.

12. Long Answers:

a) Anne was very talkative and hence her maths teacher punished her and asked her to
write an essay on 'A Chatterbox'. She expressed her 'talking' as a students' trait. She
defied the injustice through her three essays on the same topic. She said that she
could do nothing with her inherited trait. She wrote three essays and the third one
was in the form of a verse. This was about the three ducklings which were bitten to
death by the father swan because they quacked too much. This changed Mr.Keesing
and never punished her after that. This shows the power of the pen to express her
feelings and the sense of injustice done to her, without annoying others.
b) Wanda was a poor Polish girl who studied in an American school with the American
students. They used to make fun of her name. Maddie and Peggy, two American
girls, used to tease her by asking her about the dresses she had. Wanda decided to
leave the school forever. But before leaving the school she wanted to prove herself
and show her talent. She participated in a drawing competition in the school. She
made hundred paintings showing hundred different dresses.

31
 Wanda wrote a letter to Ms Mason telling her that the girls could keep those hundred
dresses as a Christmas gift from her. She gifted two special paintings to Maddie and
Peggy. She won the hearts of everyone by her gesture. It shows that to win other’s
money is not everything. Talent, plays a very important role in one’s life. In long run
money and beauty does not pay, it is the skill and talent which help us.
13. a) ‘The necklace’, through the example of Matilda conveys a chore truth that one
must value what he has and cherish. His blessings rather than chase illusions in the
form of material possessions, because if one lacks contentment then there is no end to
the chase.
Matilda should have valued the love of her husband rather than grumble about her
unfulfilled aspirations. And to look beautiful, one does not need to borrow expensive
jewels; it is the goodness of a person and the way one conducts, makes one beautiful.
b) Bholi was a neglected child, fourth daughter of Ramlal who was a revenue official
of the village. Bholi had suffered small pox in her childhood which left marks on her
face and also a head injury which made her mind slower than a normal child of her
age. She learned to speak late and stammered. She was illiterate and was looked
down upon by her family and other villagers.
Her medical condition and others' behaviour towards her made her an under
confident and introvert. She was like any other child who was fond of her pet cow
Lakshmi. Her hesitation to go to school shows that she was also unaware of age-old
customs and traditions but still understood them as something bad and feared them.
After getting education and encouragement from her teacher, she became a confident,
easy speaking and a kind girl. The teacher played a very important role in
transforming the shy and dumb Bholi into a bold and confident girl. The teacher’s
kind and encouraging words helped her to overcome her handicap of stammering. It
was the teacher’s untiring efforts which helped her to become so bold that she had
the courage to finally refuse to marry Bishamber Nath who was much older than her
and was a very greedy and contemptible person. The metamorphosis of the innocent
Bholi to a bold and confident person was because of her teacher. The teacher had
definitely created a masterpiece.

***********

32
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3

PART A – 40 Marks
READING (20 MARKS)
1. Read the following passage carefully (10)
1. Detachment is not physically renouncing our possessions, profession, home
and family as many of us think. It is the ability to let go of all the desires,
habits, emotions, thoughts, speech and behaviour patterns that are negative or
detrimental to our well-being in any way. Detachment and discrimination are
inter-dependent; they mutually strengthen each other and empower us. The
more we are able to discriminate, the more we are able to segregate our
harmful desires and discard them. The more mental trash we discard this way,
the more we empower our faculty of discrimination.
2. There is a simple technique we can all practice to strengthen our discrimination
and detachment and get rid of unnecessary desires. This will generate the
awareness we need to control our senses and mind and make them stop
churning out desires every moment. To practice this technique, we should
select a quiet place when we have some leisure time.
3. Sit down with a few sheets of paper and a pen or a computer and make two
lists. In the first list, understand and write down your most important goal or
agenda in this life. Then meticulously add all the other goals that you would
like to achieve. While you make this list, you shouldn’t think only about
yourself. Include what you would like to contribute for the welfare of your
dependents, children and their forthcoming generations.
4. Once you complete this, set it aside and begin the second list. List all your
desires here. They may be big or small, important or insignificant, right or
wrong, demonic or divine. Just remove the lid on the Pandora’s Box and allow
them all to spill out freely. Don’t try to censor or edit the list of desires at this
stage. Complete the list first. After you have made an exhaustive list, go over it
to see which of these desires are truly necessary, conducive to your meditation,
helpful and favourable to you and beneficial to others.
5. If you have been serious and honest in doing this exercise, you will have long
lists of goals and desires and many of them may be selfish or detrimental to
your goal of meditation, visualisation, self-realisation, peace, happiness and
bliss. This exercise will help you develop frankness and honesty with yourself.
You will touch your true feelings and bring many of your hidden ambitions
and desires into the open.

On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer any ten of the
following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer.
i. According to the passage, detachment is _________
a. not physically renouncing of material things.
b. physically renouncing of all the material things
c. attachment to the family
d. none of the above

33
ii. According to the passage, detachment is the ability______
a. to let go all the negative desires b. to focus on mental health
c. to be away from negativity d. all of the above
iii. According to the passage, our behavior pattern affects ________
a. our well-being b. our mental health
c. our happiness d. all of the above
iv. Detachment and discrimination _______
a. are inter-dependent b. don’t strengthen each other
c. don’t empower us d. are independent
v. According to the passage, developed faculty of discrimination _________
a. helps in discarding negative thoughts b. is detrimental to our well-being
c. does not help in segregating negative thoughts d. none of the above
vi. According to the passage, to get rid of unnecessary desires we need _______
a. strong faculty of discrimination b. will power
c. medication d. meditation
vii. The faculty of discrimination can be strengthened _______
a. by discarding positive thoughts b. by discarding mental trash
c. by reading good books d. by medication
viii. To practice the strengthening, the faculty of discrimination and detachment we
need ______
a. quite place and leisure time b. few sheets of papers and a pen
c. both a & b d. none of the above
ix. According to the passage, in the first list, we should write ________
a. the most important goal or agenda of life b. our desires
c. our negative thoughts d. none of the above
x. In the second list, we should write ________
a. all our desires b. the most important goal of our life
c. our suppressed wish d. none of the above
xi. According to the passage, the exercise will help us ________
a. to develop frankness and honesty with ourselves
b. to touch our true feelings and bring many of your hidden ambitions and desires
into the open.
c. both of the above
d. none of the above
xii. Pick out the word from para 1 that means the same as ‘damaging’.
a. detrimental b. detachment
c. discrimination d. meticulously

2. Read the following passage carefully (10)

1. Storytelling, songs, festivals and initiations are just some of the many ways
people of the past tried to preserve their traditions and memories. People
marked items as a means of passing information to others, this included
marking of stone, indents in clay, knotted lengths of cord and scratching plates
of lead, copper and wood using iron.

34
 2. Babylonians wrote astronomical observations on bricks of clay. According to
the testimony of ancient historian Hellanicus, the first recorded handwritten
letter (epistle) was by Persian Queen Atossa, daughter of Syrus, mother of
Xerxes, around 500 BC.
3. The leaves of plants and the bark of trees advanced the use of writing. The
linden tree was particularly good because the bark could be folded just like a
letter. Egyptian papyrus made possible the ancient libraries of Alexandria and
Pergamum. The Roman Emperor Claudius developed a new stronger type of
cross-layered papyrus which was not damaged by the use of the calamus
(reed).
4. Papyrus became so popular a writing material that law was introduced
preventing it leaving its country of origin in the East. This caused a shortage of
papyrus in the West which led to the introduction of new writing materials,
vellum and parchment produced from animal skins. Saxons of the dark ages
used the bark of the beech tree, called back whence comes the word ‘book’.
5. The style (pen) used in ancient times was made from wood, metal or a bone
shaped to a point. A reed was used on papyrus and parchment dipped in
Indian/Chinese ink, made from the secretion of cuttlefish. The 5th century saw
the use of (goose) quills in Saxon, England.
6. Lead pencils were used in ancient Greece but only as a temporary marker to be
rubbed out later. It wasn’t until the 14th century that pencils made from a lead
composite became popular and in common use for writing implement.
7. About the 10th century from the Far East to the West came cotton paper which
was in common use by the 12th century. A great advance in writing material
came in the 14th century with the introduction of paper made from linen rags.
This method of making paper continued for several hundred years.

On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer any ten of the
following questions by choosing the most appropriate answer.
i. People of the past tried to preserve their tradition and memories through _______
a. storytelling b. songs c. festivals d. all of the above
ii. Which one of the following items was not used for passing information?
a. books b. stones c. clay d. wood
iii. According to the passage, the Babylonians used to write astronomical
observations on _______
a. bricks of clay b. barks c. copper plates d. none of the above
iv. According to the passage, writing was advanced by the use of ________
a. bark of trees b. leaves c. both of the above d. none of the above
v. What is Papyrus?
a. a water plant b. a stone c. reed d. none of the above
vi. Which one of the following writing material was not produced from the trees?
a. The linden tree b. Egyptian Papyrus c. Vellum d. beech leaves
vii. According to the passage, what caused the shortage of papyrus in the west?
a. excess demand b. ban on supply from the east
c. less home production d. none of the above

35
viii. According to the passage, the pen used in ancient times was not made from
________
a. wood b. metal c. bone d. plastic
ix. According to the passage, the ink in the ancient time was made of ________
a. secretion of cuttlefish b. goose quills
c. both of the above d. none of the above
x. Lead pencils became popular as a writing implement in the _______
a. 15th century b. 14th century c. 13th century d. 19th century
xi. Pick out the word from para 1 that means the same as ‘save’.
a. preserve b. testimony c. papyrus d. calamus
xii. Pick out the word from para 6 that means the opposite of ‘permanent’.
a. temporary b. prevent c. parchment d. composite

Literature (10 Marks)

3. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Choose the most appropriate answers from the options given below. (5)
The bus rolled on now cutting across a base landscape, now rushing through a tiny
hamlet or past an odd wayside shop. Sometimes the bus seemed on the point of
gobbling up another vehicle that was coming towards them or a pedestrian crossing
the road. But lo! Somehow it passed on smoothly, leaving all obstacles safely
behind. Trees came running towards them but then stopped as the bus reached
them and simply stood there helpless for a moment by the side of the road before
rushing away in the other direction.
(i) As the bus moved forward the trees appeared _______
(a) going along the canal (b) rushing away in the other direction
(c) going down the slope (d) stand still
(ii) Somehow the bus passed smoothly, leaving all _______ safely behind.
(a) obstacles (b) stones (c) huts (d) villages
(iii) The bus was going to the _______ from Valli's village.
(a) city (b) another village (c) pilgrim (d) none of the above
(iv) The word 'gobbling' here means _______
(a) gulping (b) running (c) beaking (d) none of the above
(v) What did Valli see on the way to the city?
(a). landscape (b). tiny hamlet (c) wayside shops (d) all of the above

OR
“I can hardly believe my ears These meadows aren’t worth much to me. They only
come to five dessiatins and are worth perhaps 300 roubles, but I can’t stand
unfairness. Say what you will, I can’t stand unfairness.”

(a) Who is the speaker of these lines?

(i) Natalya (ii) Chubukov (iii) Chubukov’s Aunt (iv) Lomov
(b) To whom are these words said to?
(i) Chubukov (ii) Chubukov’s Aunt (iii) Natalya to herself (iv) Lomov

36
(c) In what context is ‘unfairness’ being talked about?
(i) To the worthlessness of meadows
(ii) The worth of meadows being 300 roubles
(iii) The claiming of meadows by Lomov
(iv) The possession of meadow lands by Chubukov’s for years
(d) What could the speaker not believe?
(i) The unfairness by Lomov
(ii) Lomov’s claim over Chubukov’s meadow lands
(iii) The worth of meadows being 300 roubles
(iv) The quarrel between Lomov and Chubukov over the meadows
(e) Which word in the passage means ‘injustice’?
(i) Worth (ii) Unfairness (iii) Dessiatins (iv) Hardly

4. Read the following stanza and answer the questions that follow. Choose the
most appropriate answers from the options given below. (5)
Not one is satisfied, not one is demented with
the mania of owning things,
Not one kneels to another, nor to his kind that
lived thousands years ago,
Not one is respectable or unhappy over the whole earth.
i. It is unique in the animal world that no one is _______
a. happy b. unhappy c. sad d. angry
ii. The animals are _________ and self-contained.
a. placid b. sad c. confused d. weak
iii. These lines have been taken from the poem _____
a. How to Tell Wild animals b. A Tiger in the Zoo
c. Animals d. Dust of snow
iv. Find and antonym of ‘satisfied’ in the stanza.
a. Dissatisfied b. demented c. unhappy d. mania
v. What quality of the animals impresses the poet?
a. They never complain b. They are placid
c. They are always satisfied d. All of the above

OR
He stalks in his vivid strips
the few steps of his cage
on pads of Velvet quiet
in his quiet rage
i. The name of the poet is _______
a. John Berryman b. Robin Klein c. Leslie Nooris d. Carolyn Wells
ii. Why is ‘he’ in the cage?
a. He is punished. b. to save the visitors from his rage.
c. He is hidden there. d. He has to entertain from there.

37
iii. He is quite rage because ______
a. He is deprived of his liberty. b. He has velvet pads
c. He has vivid strips. d. He is hungry.
iv. A vivid strips here refers to _________
a. lines of the cage b. strips on the zebra crossing
c. blue lines d. strips on the tiger’s body
v. What is the mental state of the tiger _______
a. angry b. helpless c. quiet but angry inside d. all of them

Grammar (10 Marks)

5. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word from the words given in
options: Attempt any four. (4)
There are so a) ________ ways of entertainment in life. b) ________ circus is one
of the most entertaining media. Last Sunday c)_______ of d) ________ friends
went to see the Diamond Circus. My uncle took us there. e) _____ one paid for f)
_______ ticket.
a. i. many ii. more iii. much iv. few
b. i. The ii. A iii. Some iv. Few
c. i. some ii. many iii. more iv. much
d. i. our ii. my iii. their iv. your
e. i. Every ii. Each iii. Some iv. Few
f. i. his ii. our iii. my iv. Your

6. Read the following conversation and complete the paragraph choosing the
best alternative. (3)
Reena: Do you know how to swim?
Surbhi: Yes I know. I have learnt it during this summer vacation.
Reena asked Surbhi a) ______. Then Surbhi replied b) ______ and also added that
c) ______.
a. i. whether she knew how to swim ii. does she knew how to swim
iii. that she knows how to swim iv. she know how to swim
b. i. in affirmative ii. in negative iii. I knows iv. I know
c. i. I have learnt it during that summer vacation
ii. she has learnt it during that summer vacation
iii. she had learnt it during that summer vacation
iv. I had learnt it in that summer vacation

7. Read the following paragraph and fill in the blanks with the most appropriate
form of the verb from the given options (3)
Mohan and Shyam a) _______ my best friends. They always b) _______me in my
work. None of them c) _______ football.
a. i. are ii. is iii. was iv. has
b. i. help ii. are helping iii. helped iv. helps
c. i. plays ii. played iii. are playing iv. will play

38
 Part-B (40 Marks)
Writing (10 Marks)
8. Though there is a movement like the ‘Sarvashiksha Abhiyan’ and the enrolling of
underprivileged children in schools, there are still many children, like the one in the
picture, who do not go to school, rather they have never even seen a school. It is
indeed disturbing. You decide to write a letter to the editor of a newspaper expressing
your views and the steps to be taken. Write a letter in about 120 words. Sign yourself
as Siddharth. (5)
OR
Write a letter to the Editor of an English daily in 100 – 120 words, making a plea
to the common people to switch over to solar energy to conserve electricity bills.
You are Divyansh of 147,Mayur Vihar-I (5)

9. Study the chart given below, which is the result of the survey conducted in the
public schools and government schools of Vadodara. This depicts the types of
activities the teenagers (Age 13- 19 year) are involved during their leisure time).
Write an analysis of the given chart in about 150-200 words (5)

OR
The following data in the form of histogram shows that death due to violence has
increased considerably during recent years. Write its interpretation in 100 words
on how educated youth can play a major role in establishing peace in society. (5)

39
 Literature (30 Marks)
10. Answer any two questions in 20-30 words each, from (A) and (b) respectively.
(4x2=8)
(A) Any Two
a. What was Lomov’s opinion about Squeezer?
b. How did the seagull express his excitement when he saw his mother bringing
food for him?
c. What does courage mean to Mandela?
(B) Any Two
a. Why could Tricki not be cured at home?
b. What are Hari Singh’s reactions to the prospect of receiving an education? Do
they change over time?
c. What happened to the people who tried to help the constable in catching the
invisible man?

11. Answer any two questions in 40-50 words each, from (A) and (B) respectively.
(4x3=12)
(A) Any Two
a. How did Kisa Gotami realize that life and death is a normal process?
b. How did the conductor treat Valli? How did Valli feel when the conductor
called her ‘My Fine Madam’?
c. What is the origin of the people of Coorg?
(B) Any Two
a. What lesson does Ebright learn when he does not win anything at a science fair?
b. Why was Matilda not satisfied with her life?
c. How does Lutkins befool the lawyer?

12. Answer any one of the following Long Answer Type questions in 100-120
words. (5)
(A) What is the truth of life, according to Buddha? How should a wise man behave in
times of trouble or mishappenings?
OR
(B) Chubukov says of Natalya:’…as if she won’t consent! She’s in love; egad, she’s
like a lovesickcat….”Would you agree? Find reasons for your answer.

13. Answer any one of the following Long Answer Type questions in 100-120
words. (5)
(A) What could have happened to Matilda if she had confessed to her friend that she
had lost the necklace?
OR
(B) “Where there is a will, there is a way”. Ebright had a will to become a scientist but
did not have enough resources. How did will and curiosity help us in becoming a
successful person in our life?
Elaborate with reference to Ebright.

*************

40
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3

PART A – 40 Marks
READING (20 MARKS)
1. PASSAGE 1 (10)
i. a. not physically renouncing of material things
ii. d. all of the above
iii. d. all of the above
iv. a. are inter-dependent
v. a. helps in discarding negative thoughts
vi. a. strong faculty of discrimination
vii. b. by discarding mental trash
viii. c. both a & b
ix. a. the most important goal or agenda of life
x. a. all our desires
xi. c. both of the above
xii. a. detrimental

2. Read the following passage carefully (10)

i. d. all of the above
ii. a. books
iii. a. bricks of clay
iv. c. both of the above
v. a. a water plant
vi. c. Vellum
vii. b. ban on supply from the east
viii. d. plastic
ix. c. both of the above
x. b. 14th century
xi. a. preserve
xii. a. temporary

3. Read the following extract carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Choose the most appropriate answers from the options given below. (5)
i. (b) rushing away in the other direction
ii. (a) obstacles
iii. (a) city
iv. (a) gulping
v. (d). all of the above
OR

41
a. (i) Natalya
b. (iv) Lomov
c. (iii) The claiming of meadows by Lomov
d. (ii) Unfairness
e. (ii) Lomov’s claim over Chubukov’s meadow lands

4. Read the following stanza and answer the questions that follow. Choose the
most appropriate answers from the options given below. (5)
i. b. unhappy
ii. a. placid
iii. c. Animals
iv. a. Dissatisfied .
v. d. All of the above
OR
i. c. Leslie Nooris
ii. d. He has to entertain from there.
iii. a. He is deprived of his liberty
iv d. strips on the tiger’s body..
v. d. All of them

5. Fill in the blanks with most appropriate word from the words given in options:
Attempt any four. (4)
a. i) many
b. ii) the
c. i) some
d. ii) my
e. i) every
f. i) his

6. Read the following conversation and complete the paragraph choosing the best
alternative. (3)
a. i. whether she knew how to swim
b. i. in affirmative
c. iii. She had learnt it during the summer vacation

7. Read the following paragraph and fill in the blanks with the most appropriate
form of the verb from the given options (3)
a. i. are
b. i. help
c. i. plays

42
8. Letter Writing: (5)
Format : 1 mark
Content: 2 marks
Sarvasiksha Abhiyan:
 Providing knowledge to all.
 Compulsory education for children between four – fourteen
 Children – domestic labour –low wages – health hazards
 Govt plan – no awareness
 Spread awareness –media
 Right to education
Solar Energy:
 Conserve energy
 Overuse of resource – exhausted
 India –rich in solar energy.
 Solar power – non polluting
 Economical
 No electricity bills
 Awareness programs – use of solar energy
 Make use of abundant wealth
Expression: 2 marks

9. Analytical Writing: (5)

Format : 1 mark
Content : 2 marks
Leisure Time:
 Survey – public school & Govt schools – leisure time activities.
 Teenagers – Public school - less watch TV
 Public school – high – net surfing.
 Similarly they – high – cell phones
 Government school – very social – more friends.
Violence:
 Survey – death due to violence
 Death rate in 1999 – 2500
 Reached maximum - 2010
 No decline – has been increasing from 1999.
 Role of youth – establishing peace.
Expression : 2 marks.

43
10. Very Short Answers (4x2=8)
Part A:
a. Lomov considered Squeezer a bad hunter. According to him Squeezer was an
overshot. Its lower jaw was shorter than his upper jaw. It was old to hunt. Its
market price was low.
b. The seagull was very hungry. When he saw his mother bringing him food, he was
greatly excited. He expressed his excitement by uttering a joyful scream.
c. According to Mandela, Courage is to take risk and give one’s life for an idea.
Courage is not the absence of fear but triumph over it.
Part B:
a. Mrs Pumphrey loved Tricki very much and could not be strict with him . She did
not follow his diet advice and gave him cakes, cream, Horlicks etc. He was not
given proper exercise also. Therefore, he had to be taken to the surgery and could
not be cured at home.
b. Hari Singh is very intelligent. He wanted to receive education to lead a better life.
He was aware that an educated man is respected by all and moreover he knew that
he could earn a handsome salary.
c. When people tried to help the constable the invisible man hit them. They could not
catch him as he was invisible. They got blows from nowhere.

11. Short answer (4x3=12)

Part A
a. Kisa Gotami realised this when Gautam Buddha asked her to bring handful of
mustard seed from a family who had not lost his parents, wife and friends. She was
unable to get a handful of mustard seeds because death had visited every family.
b. When Valli got into the bus, the conductor treated him as a child. Valli was trying
to behave more mature than her age. She was trying to look overconfident and
smart. The conductor was amused at her behaviour and in an effort to tease her
called her ‘madam’.
c. It is believed that Kodavu people are of Arabic origin. It is said that some of
Alexander’s army men moved to south and settled there. Their costume, martial
practices and marriage rituals also point to the fact that they are from Arabic
origin.
Part B
a. When Richard Ebright did not win anything at the science fair, he realized that the
winners had tried to conduct real experiments. He, on the other hand, had simply
made a neat display. He had shown slides of frog tissues under a microscope. It
was the first time that he got a hint of what real science was.
b. Matilda was a pretty young lady. She was ambitious and wanted to lead a
luxurious life. She dreamed to dine exquisite food served in marvelous dishes. But
, in reality, she was married to a mere clerk who could not fulfill her desire of
becoming rich. So she was unhappy with her life.
c. Lutkins was a jolly-natured and fun-loving person. When he got to know that the
lawyer came to the village searching for him, he came up with a plan to befool
him. Apart from that, he found the lawyer young, gullible, inexperienced. So he
befooled him by posing as Bill and made fun of him in front of all the villagers.

44
12. Long Answers (5)
a. According to Buddha, all men are mortal. One who is born, is sure to die. All
things in nature die and are reborn—be it animals, plants or objects. Some people
start behaving like a madman whenever a problem arises in their life. They lose
their sense of reasoning and become depressed. But this is not a solution to come
out of your grief. A sensible person understands the realities of life and remains
balanced in all the situations. The lesson here is that whenever we come across a
problem, we should try to find out its solution. Instead of blaming our fate or
others, we must think deep for the reason of that problem. By being calm, resolute
and contented, most of the problems can be solved.
OR
b. Chubukov thought that Lomov was a good marriage prospect for his daughter. He
had been waiting for this proposal since long. When Lomov expressed his doubt
regarding Natalya’s consent to the proposal, Chubukov immediately told him that she
was in love with him. However, this was not true. Natalya did not seem to be in love
with Lomov at any point in the play. It seemed like she was more attached to her
land, meadows and dogs than to Lomov. In fact, the way they kept getting into
arguments about trivial matters suggests that neither Lomov nor Natalya was in love
with the other.

13. Long Answers (5)

a. If Matilda had confessed to her friend that she had lost her necklace, she might
have been in lesser trouble than what she faced after having replaced the necklace.
Her friend would have been angry with her. Most probably, she would have asked
Matilda to replace it. She would have given her the details from where she had
bought the necklace and how much it had cost her. Matilda would thus have known
that the jewels in the necklace were not real diamonds. It would have cost her a far
lesser amount to replace it. Matilda would thus have saved herself and her husband
all the trouble they went through.
OR
b. Ebright had a will to become a successful scientist. However, he did not have
enough resources and the right guidance to follow his dream. His curiosity and his
strong will made him work hard on various projects and he was able to formulate
theories that helped him win many prizes. As a high school junior, he continued his
advanced experiments on discovering a hormone on the monarch pupa. His hard
work and determination rewarded him and he won a prize. In his senior year, he
got an opportunity to work at the army laboratory where he was able to conduct
many experiments. This shows that if one has a will to do something, then, God
opens all doors for him or her. Ebright's will to work and his curiosity helped him
overcome his lack of resources and helped him in becoming a successful scientist.
He was able to work well under the guidance of the right people and apply what he
had learned.

*************

45
 தமிழ்

கால அளவு : 3 மணி நேரம்

மதிப்பெண் : 80

இக்நகள்வித் தாள் ெிரிவுகளளக் பகாண்டது -

ெிரிவு – அ & ஆ.

ெிரிவு – அ :

- 40 மதிப்பெண்கள்

ெிரிவு – ஆ :

- 40 மதிப்பெண்கள்
 – 1

பிரிவு – அ

1. அ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)

வினாக்கள் :

அ. ___________

க. ங. ச.

ஆ. ___________

க. ங. ச.

இ. ___________ .

க. ங. ச.

ஈ. ___________ .

க. ங. ச.

உ. ___________

க. ங. ச.

அ )

ஆ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)

46
 .

வினாக்கள் :

அ. ___________

க. ங. ச.

ஆ. ___________ .

க. ங. ச.

இ. __________

க. ங. ச.

ஈ. ___________

உ. ___________

2. அ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி: (5)

–
–

வினாக்கள் :

அ. பெரிய புராணத்தை எழுைியவர் ___________

க. சுந்ைரர் ங. சசக்கிழார் ச. ைிருஞானசம்ெந்ைர்

47
ஆ. சைவாரத்தைத் பைாகுத்ைவர் ___________

க. சுந்ைரர் ங. சசக்கிழார் ச. நம்ெியாண்டார் நம்ெி

இ. ைிருமுதைகளில் சைவாரம் ___________ ைிருமுதை.

க. ஏழாம் ங. ென்னிரு ச. முைல்

ஈ. ___________ .

க. ஒன்ெது ங. ெத்து ச. நூறு

உ. சை + வாரம் = என்ெைன் பொருள் ___________

க. மாதை ங. இதசப்ொடல் ச. இதைவன்

அ )

2. ஆ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)

வினாக்கள் :

அ. ___________

க. ங. ச.

ஆ. ___________ .

க. ங. ச.

இ. ___________

க. ங. ச.

ஈ. ___________ .

க. ங. ச.

உ. ___________ .

க. ங. ச.

48
3. சான்று தருக. ) 4 x 1 = 4

4. . ) 4 x 1 = 4

49
 )

5. . ) 4 x 1 = 4

6. . ) 4 x 1 = 4

___________ .

50
 ___________
.

___________

___________

___________ .

7. பாையைப் படித்துப் பபாருளுணர்ந்து வினாக்களுக்கு வியைைளி:

5 x 1 = 5

வினாக்கள் :

அ. இப்ொடைின் ஆசிரியர் ___________

க. ங. ச.

ஆ. ___________

க. ங. ச.

இ. ?

க. ங. ச.

51
ஈ. என்ை பசால்ைின் பொருள் ___________

க. ங. ச.

___________

க. ங. ச.

8. பின்வரும் உயைநயைப் பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை

வியையை எழுதுக. 5 x 1 = 5

வினாக்கள் :

அ. ___________

க.

ங.

ச.

ஆ. ___________

க. ங. ச.

இ. ___________ .

க. ங. ச.

ஈ. ___________ .

க. ங. ச.

உ. ___________ .

க. ங. ச.

52
9. . 4 x 1 = 4

1. ___________

2. ___________

3. ___________

4.

___________ .

பிரிவு – ஆ

10. எயவழைனும் இைண்டு

வினாக்களுக்கு வியை தருக. 2 x 3 = 6

- .

11. பின்வரும் உயைநயை வினாக்களில் எயவழைனும்

வினாக்களுக்கு வியை தருக. 3 x 4 = 12

அ. ?

ஆ. - .

இ.
.

ஈ. ?

- .

53
12. துயண கட்டுயை எழுதுக. (7)

அ. .

- .

13. . (3)

14. . (6)

1. நீ வசிக்கும் ெகுைியில்

கடிைம் எழுதுக.

(அல்ைது)

2.

-
)

(அல்ைது)

3.
.

54
15. பகாடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள குறிப்புகயளக் பகாண்டு கட்டுயை எழுதுக. (6)

அ. முன்னுதர – ொரைத்ைின் மக்கள்பைாதக — ஒற்றுதம – கூடி வாழ்ந்ைால்

சகாடி நன்தம — உைக உைவு — ஒன்றுெட்டால் உண்டு வாழ்வு —
முடிவுதர.

– - – –
– – -
– - .

***********

55
 - – 1

பிரிவு – அ
1. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து
வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)
( ) (ஆ)
அ. ச. அ. ங.
ஆ. ங. ஆ. ங.
இ. ச. அ ( ) இ. ச.
ஈ. ங. ஈ. .
உ. க. உ. .

2. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி: (5)
( ) (ஆ)
அ. ங. சசக்கிழார் அ. ச.
ஆ. ச. நம்பியாண்டார் நம்பி . க.
இ. க. ஏழாம் ( ) இ. ச.
ஈ. ங. பத்து ஈ. ங.
உ. ங. இசசப்பாடல் உ. ச.

3. சான்று தருக ( ) 4 x 1 = 4
அ. .
. .
. . .
ஈ. . அ
. .

4. . ( ) 4 x 1 = 4
அ. .
. .
. .
ஈ. .
. . அ

5. ( ) 4 x 1 = 4
அ .
. .

56
 . .
ஈ. .
. . அ

6. . ( ) 4 x 1 = 4
அ. .
. .
. .
ஈ. .
. .

7. பாையைப் படித்துப் பபாருளுணர்ந்து வினாக்களுக்கு வியைைளி :

5 x 1 = 5
அ. ங.
ஆ. ச.
இ. ங.
ஈ. க. அ
. ச.

8. பின்வரும் உயைநயைப் பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை

வியையை எழுதுக. 5 x 1 = 5
அ. ங.
ஆ. ச.
இ. ங.
ஈ. க.
உ. ச.

9. . 4 x 1 = 4
1. .
2. .
3. .
4. . அ

பிரிவு – ஆ ( )
10. . 2 x 3 = 6
அ. அ - - - -
- - - -
- - -

57
 - -
.
. - - அ -
-
அ
அ .
. - -
-
-
-
-
.
ஈ. -
அ - அ -
- -
- -
- -
.

11. . 3 x 4 = 12
அ. அ -
-
- அ அ -
அ -
- .
. - -
-
- -
- -
.
.
அ . - -

Leaf . -
- - .
ஈ. -
அ அ -
-

58
 - -
-
.

. - Railsleeper - -
அ
-
- -
-
.

12. (7)

-
அ
அ .
-
.
அ - அ - அ
- அ -
அ அ - அ -
- அ -
-
.
.
-

அ .

ஆ
-
அ
அ .
-
.
- -
- -
- -

59
 -
- - -
- -
- .
-

அ
.

-
அ
அ .
-
.
- - -
- - அ
- - -
- - ஈ
-
.
-

அ .

13. . (3)
-
- .

14. (6)
1.
. அ - 1/2
. - 1/2
. - 1/2
. - 1/2
. - 2.5
( -
- - -

60
 )
. - )
. - 1/2
. - ½

2. /
. - 1/2
. - 1/2
. - 1/2
. - 3.5
- --
அ -
)
. - ½ அ )
. - ½

3.
. அ - 1/2
. - 1/2
. - 1/2
. - 1/2
. - 1/2
. - 3
- அ
- -
- அ -
- )
. - 1/2

15. . (6)
- 1/2
- 1/2
– 4

)
- 1/2
- 1/2
***********

61
 – 2

பிரிவு – அ

1. அ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)

வினாக்கள் :

அ. ________

க. ங. ச.

ஆ. ________ .

க. ங. ச.

இ. ________

க.

ங.

ச.

ஈ. ________ .

க. ங. ச.

உ.
________

க. ங. ச.

அ )

62
ஆ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ
வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)

; , ,
.

வினாக்கள் :

அ. ________

க. ங. ச.

ஆ. ________ .

க. ங. ச. .

இ. ________

க. ங. ச.

ஈ. ________

க. ஒன்பது ங. பத்து ச.

உ. ___________

க. ங. ச.

2. அ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி: (5)

63
 .

வினாக்கள் :

அ. ________

இரண்டும்

ஆ. மணிமமகலை காப்பியம் ________ வாழ்க்லகலய விளக்குகிறது.

மணிமமகலையின்

இ. சிைப்பதிகாரத்லத எழுதியவர் யார்?

சீத்தலைச்சாத்தனார்

ஈ. சீத்தலைச்சாத்தனார் எழுதிய நூல் ________

க. மணிமமகலை ங. சிைப்பதிகாரம்

உ. ________ .

ஐஞ்சிறுகாப்பியம்

அ )

2. ஆ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)

அ. _________.

க. மதுலர ங. குமரி ச. குமரிக்கண்டம்

64
ஆ. குமரிக்கண்டத்தில் .

க. முதல் ங. மூன்றாவது ச. முதல், இலட

இ. யார்?

க. கால்டுவவல் ங. கம்பர் ச. ஆய்வாளர்கள்

ஈ.

க. மதுலர ங. குமரி ச. குமரிக்கண்டம்

__________.

க. தமிழ் ங. தமிளியன் ச. தமுைிக்

3. சான்று தருக. ) 4 x 1 = 4

4. . ) 4 x 1 = 4

65
 )

ஈ .

5. . ) 4 x 1 = 4

66
ஈ

6. . ) 4 x 1 = 4

________

________ .

_____

ஈ ________

________

67
7. பாையைப் படித்துப் பபாருளுணர்ந்து வினாக்களுக்கு வியைைளி:
5 x 1 = 5

ஈ .

வினாக்கள் :

அ. இப்பாடைின் ஆசிரியர் ________

க. ங. ச.

ஆ. ?

க. ங. ச.

இ. எலவ?

க.

ங.

ச.

ஈ. என்ற வசால்ைின் வபாருள் ________

க. ங. ச.

க. ங. ச.

8. பின்வரும் உயைநயைப் பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை

வியையை எழுதுக. 5 x 1 = 5

.
-

68
 வினாக்கள் :

அ. ________

க. ங. ச.

ஆ. ________

க. 1908 ங. 1890 ச. 1980

இ. ________

க. ங. ச.

ஈ. ________

க. ங. ச.

உ. ________

க.

ங.

ச.

9. . 4 x 1 = 4

1. ________

2. ________

3. ________

4.

________ .

69
 பிரிவு – ஆ

10. எயவழைனும் இைண்டு

வினாக்களுக்கு வியை தருக. 2 x 3 = 6

ஈ ?

11. பின்வரும் உயைநயை வினாக்களில் எயவழைனும்

வினாக்களுக்கு வியை தருக. 3 x 4 = 12

அ.
.

ஆ. - .

இ. .

ஈ. ?

12. துயண கட்டுயை எழுதுக. (7)

அ.

13. . (3)

70
14. . (6)

1.
கடிதம் எழுதுக.

(அல்ைது)

2.

-
)

(அல்ைது)

3.
.

15. பகாடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள குறிப்புகயளக் பகாண்டு கட்டுயை எழுதுக. (6)

அ. முன்னுலர – — – -
- -
— முடிவுலர.

(அல்ைது)

– - - -– -
- - -
- .

***********

71
 - – 2

பிரிவு – அ

1. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)

( ) (ஆ)

அ. ங. அ. ச.

ஆ. ச. ( ) ஆ. ச. .

இ. ச. இ. ங.

ஈ. ச. ஈ. ச.

உ. ங. உ. க.

2. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி: (5)

( ) (ஆ)

அ. அ. க. மதுரை

ஆ. மணிமமகரையின் ஆ. ச. முதல்,இரை

இ. ( ) இ. ங. கம்பர்

ஈ. க. மணிமமகரை ஈ. ச. குமரிக்கண்ைம்

உ. உ க. தமிழ்

3. சான்று தருக ( ) 4 x 1 = 4

அ உ

ஈ .

72
4. . ( ) 4 x 1 = 4

5. ( ) 4 x 1 = 4

6. ( ) 4 x 1 = 4

அ .

7. பாையைப் படித்துப் பபாருளுணர்ந்து வினாக்களுக்கு வியைைளி :

5 x 1 = 5

அ. ச.

ஆ. ச.

இ. ங. அ

ஈ. க.

உ ச.

73
8. பின்வரும் உயைநயைப் பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை
வியையை எழுதுக. 5 x 1 = 5

அ. ச.

ஆ. ச. 1980

இ. ங.

ஈ. க.

உ. ச.

9. . 4 x 1 = 4

1. ஆ

2. ஆ அ

3. ஆ

4.

பிரிவு – ஆ ( )

10. . 2 x 3 = 6

அ அ உ ,

அ அ
.

ஆ - -
-
அ அ
உ .

ஆ -

உ .

- - -
அ - - -
- உ -
ஆ - ஆ .

74
ஈ - அ -
உ - -
-
உ -
- - உ உ .

11. . 3 x 4 = 12

அ - -
- - .

: - -
- - -
- -
- - -
- .

ஆ -
உ அ - ஆ - -
அ
.

-
- அ
- உ ஆ - ஆ
உ -
.

- - அ .

- அ -
-
-
ஈ - -
உ .

ஈ
அ - உ

75
 உ -
- -
-
உ - - .

உ அ -
ஆ - உ -
உ -
-
அ

- -
.

12. (7)

அ
அ .

- -
- -
- -
- உ
- - -
உ - -
உ - .

அ .

76
ஆ .

அ
அ .

-
உ - -
- - அ -
- -
- -
- -
-
.

அ .

அ
அ .

அ - -
அ அ உ அ -
- - -
- -
- அ -
- அ
அ - - உ உ

77
 உ - உ -
.

அ .

13. . (3)

14. (6)

1.

அ - 1/2

- 1/2

- 1/2

- 1/2

உ - 2.5

- உ -
- உ - -
)

- 1/2 உ )

- 1/2

உ - 1/2

2. /

- 1/2

- 1/2

- 1/2

உ - 3.5

78
 - -
- உ - -
- உ )

- ½ அ )

உ - 1/2

3.

அ - 1/2

- 1/2

- 1/2

- 1/2

- 1/2

உ - 3

-
- - -
அ - )

- ½

15. . (6)

- 1/2

- 1/2

– 4

- 1/2

- 1/2

***********

79
 – 3

பிரிவு – அ
1. அ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ
வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)

.
வினாக்கள் :
அ. ___________ .

ஈ .

?
.

அ )
ஆ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ
வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)

80
 .
வினாக்கள் :
அ. ?

_____________

ஈ ____________

_______________

2. அ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி: (5)

.
வினாக்கள் :
அ. ?

81
 ________

ஈ ?
. 40
?

அ )
2. ஆ. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து அ
வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)
,

.
:
அ. _________.
க. பெருந்தேவனார் ங. கெிலர் ச. பூரிக்தகா
ஆ. .
க. ெத்துப்ொட்டு ங. எட்டுத்போகக ச. நீேி
இ. ________
க. 301 ங. 501 ச. 401
ஈ. _________
க. பெருந்தேவனார் ங. கெிலர் ச. பூரிக்தகா
.
க. கல்வி ங. பசல்வம் ச. ஒழுக்கம்

3. சான்று தருக. ) 4 x 1 = 4
அ. அ

82
4. . ( ) 4 x 1 = 4
)

ஈ -

5. . ) 4 x 1 = 4
?

6. . ) 4 x 1 = 4
? __________

___________

83
ஈ ________

7. பாையைப் படித்துப் பபாருளுணர்ந்து வினாக்களுக்கு வியைைளி: 5 x 1 = 5

.
வினாக்கள் :
அ. இப்ொடலின் ஆசிரியர் ______________
க. ங. ச.
ஆ. ____________
க. ங. ச.
இ. .
க. ங. ச.
ஈ. _______ .
க. ங. ச.
___________
க. ங. ச.

8. பின்வரும் உயைநயைப் பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை

வியையை எழுதுக. 5 x 1 = 5

.
வினாக்கள் :
அ. .
க. ங. ச.

84
ஆ. ______ .
க. ங. ச.
இ. _____________ .
க. ங. ச.
ஈ. _________
க. ங. ச.
உ. ____________
க. ங. ச.

9. . 4 x 1 = 4
1.
.

2.
.

3.
.

4.
.

பிரிவு – ஆ
10. எயவழைனும் இைண்டு வினாக்களுக்கு
வியை தருக. 2 x 3 = 6
- .
.

.
ஈ - .

11. பின்வரும் உயைநயை வினாக்களில் எயவழைனும் வினாக்களுக்கு

வியை தருக. 3 x 4 = 12
அ.
.
ஆ. - .
இ. .
ஈ. ?
?

85
12. துயண கட்டுயை எழுதுக. (7)
அ. .
.
.

13. . (3)

14. . (6)
1. அரசால் ேகடபசய்யப்ெட்ட பநகிழிப் பொருட்ககைப் ெயன்ெடுத்தும், உங்கள்
ெகுேி வணிகர்கள் மீ து நடவடிக்கக எடுக்கதவண்டி
கடிேம் எழுதுக.
(அல்ைது)
2. உன் நண்ெனுக்குக் கடிேம்
எழுதுக.
-
)
(அல்ைது)
3.

.
)

15. பகாடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள குறிப்புகயளக் பகாண்டு கட்டுயை எழுதுக. (6)

அ. – – – – –
– - .
)
– – – –
– –
– .

***********

86
 - – 3

பிரிவு – அ
1. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து
வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி : (5)
( ) (ஆ)
அ. ங. அ. ச
ஆ. ச ( ) ஆ.
இ. இ. ச
ஈ. ஈ.
உ. ச உ. ச

2. கீ ழே உள்ள பத்தியைப் படித்து

வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை வியைைளி: (5)
( ) (ஆ)
அ. ச ச அ. ச. பூரிக்க ோ
ஆ. ச ஆ. ங. எட்டுத்த ோக
இ. ச ( ) இ. ச. 401
ஈ. 37 ஈ. . தெருந்க வனோர்
உ. ச. ஒழுக் ம்

3. சான்று தருக ( ) 4 x 1 = 4
அ ச
ஆ
இ ச
ஈ ச ஆ ச
அ அ இ

4. . ( ) 4 x 1 = 4
அ ச அ
ஆ
இ ச அ
ஈ ச ஆ

5. ( ) 4 x 1 = 4
அ
ஆ ச ச

87
இ
ஈ ச

6. ( ) 4 x 1 = 4
அ ச
ஆ ச
இ ச
ஈ ச ச அ
ச

7. பாையைப் படித்துப் பபாருளுணர்ந்து வினாக்களுக்கு வியைைளி : 5 x 1 = 5

அ. ங. ச
ஆ. ச.
இ. ங.
ஈ. ங.
ச.

8. பின்வரும் உயைநயைப் பத்தியைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு உரிை

வியையை எழுதுக. 5 x 1 = 5
அ. ச. இ
ஆ. ங.
இ. ச.
ஈ. ச.
உ. ங.

9. . 4 x 1 = 4
1. ஆ
2. இ
3. அ ச
4. ஆ

பிரிவு – ஆ (40 )
10. . 2 x 3 = 6
அ - இ - இ ச
ச - ச ச அ
-
- இ ச - ச
ச .

88
ஆ - ச -
- இ அ
- அ - இ
- இ -
இ - இ -
- ச -
.
இ - ச ஆ -
அ -
ச -அ அ
அ
.
ஈ இ - - . -
- ஆ ச -
- ச ச
ச - ச இ
ச .

11. . 3 x 4 = 12
அ - இ ச
- -
அ - .
ஆ
ச ஆ - -
- - ச - அ ஆ .

ச அ ச இ ச ச
ஆ ஆ ஆ இ ச
ஆ ஆ - அ ஆ .
இ.
-
இ
அ - இ
ச -
இ - அ
அ ச .
ஈ. ச - -
-
ச ச -
- அ

89
 - ச
ச அ
ச .

அ - ச அ -
ச ஆ ச
ச அ - - ச
ச அ அ
இ ச .

12. (7)

-
அ அ
.
-
இ .
அ - -
அ அ அ -
ச இ - - -
ச - ச ச இ -
- அ -
- அ ச அ
ச - - - -
.
-
அ
இ .

ஆ
-
அ அ
.
-
இ .
அ - அ ஆ - அ
ஆ - அ ஆ - அ
அ ஆ - அ -
ஆ - அ ச -

90
 -
இ
.
-
அ
இ .

-
அ அ
.
-
இ .
- இ - - ச
- ச - ச அ ச
ச - ஆ ச - -
- - ஈ ச
- இ .
-
அ
இ .

13. . (3)
-
-

14. (6)
1.
அ - 1/2
- 1/2
3 - 1/2
- 1/2
- 2.5
( - அ

- - அ ச
அ -
)
- 1/2 ( )

91
 7 இ - 1/2
- 1/2

2.
இ - 1/2
- 1/2
3 - 1/2
- 3.5
( ச - ஆ - ச -
ச ச -
- இ )
- அ )
- 1/2

3.
அ - 1/2
- 1/2
3 - 1/2
- 1/2
- 1/2
- 3
(இ - அ - அ
- -
-
அ - -
அ )
7 - ½

15. . (6)
- 1/2
- 1/2
– 4

இ )
- 1/2
- 1/2
***********

92
समय: 3 : 80

सम :

(i) इस - ‘अ’ ‘ब’।

(ii) ‘अ’ स ग ।

(iii) ‘ब’ स ग ।

(iv) स स ।
 vH;kl izJ i= & 1

अ
परक न
अप
1 न क एक क अ क पर कर 5x1=5
अ, य ,आ औ
आ य य
अब ‘अ ’ब य
आ
य इ य - य
इ इ ध ब
इ य आ औ अ औ आ
ब ब इ इ ,इ
अ य य य घ
- , बध- , आ आ घ इ
अ य ब
- ब य
क, ककर क न र क र ?
1. ४ 2. ३ 3. ५ 4. ६
, न क क ?
1. 2.
3. 4. आ
, क इ कन र क ------ न
1. य 2. ब 3. ब 4.
घ, नक न पर - अ नए
1. 2. 3. 4.
, क नए
1. 2. 3. 4.
अ
, आ ब आ ब –
, , , ब आ - –
“आ ब ? औ आ इ ब
?इ आब ब ” ब

93
 य ब अ -ध ब
आ औ य आ ब आ ब
इ य य अ अ
ध - ब आ य
ध आय अध इ
ब अ य ब अ
आ? घ आय आ ब -घ
ब औ , आ
ब ,ब
ब , अ औ य ब
इ य इ य - ,
बध -
-ब य औ - - य - -
- य
अ ध
क, “इ न क - न ” – ‘इ न ’क क :
1. आब ब
2. आब य
3.
4. अ अ
, क क कअ ए ?
1. 2. 3. 4.
, र पर कन कर ?
1.
2. अ -
3. आ ब
4. अ अ
घ, क क क क , क:
1. य आ
2. ब
3. -
4. बऔ
, क नए
1. 2. 3. 4.

94
 2 ए ए क एक क अ पर क ए 5x1=5
इ, अ अ
य य अ ,अ
अ य य
अ ब य , ब
,अ औ य य
अ ध
अ य अ य अ अ य
औ आ
औ य अ य य औ
अ औ अ ध
अ यअ अ

क, क ?
1. आ 2. अ
3. य 4.
, नक क कअ ए ?
1. 2. आ 3. 4.
, क न न ए?
1. 2. 3. 4.
घ, अन ?
1. 2. य
3. य 4. अ ब
, क नए
1. अ 2.
3. 4.
अ
ई, य अ औ
अ ध औ ध
ब य घ
इ अ ,
घब घ औ अ घ अ
ब आ य , इ ,
आ य घ औ

95
 , यय , य , आ य: अ
य य
य, ध य, आ
ध , , , इ य अ
ध
य य य
आ औ ध य
क, न क र ?
1. घ 2.
3. घ य 4.
, नक क पर न ?
1. 2. आ 3. घ 4.
, क ?
1. 2. इ
3. आ 4. ब
घ, न न पर ?
1. 2.
3. 4. यब
, क नए
1. 2. ध
3. घ य 4. घ

रक कर
3 प नए 4x1=4
प पर र क र क र क नकर ए:
क, नप क( रक ) नर -कन प ?
1, बध 2. बध
3. य बध 4. य बध
, ए र (क पक ) ए- क न प ?
1. बध 2. बध
3. बध 4. य बध
, ( नर पर करन ) पर
1. य बध 2. बध 3 बध, 4 बध

96
घ, ( न )
1. य बध 2. बध 3 बध, 4 य बध,
, क क ( न न रक)
1. य बध 2. बध 3 बध, 4 य बध,

4 क कर इए 4x1=4
क र क र क नकर ए:-
क, क घर प क क प क
1. 2. 3 य 4इ
, र क नक ए-
1, ब औ आ य 2. ध -ध
3. य यब य 4. ब
, पर करन इ नप ?
1, 2
3 य 4
घ, क कक क ?
1, 2 3 ब ब 4
, न न पर क क प नए
1 ब ब 2
3 4

5 क 4 क र ए 4x1=4
क, प क क नए
1 ब 2 ब 3 ब 4 ब
, प क न नए - प
1 2अ य 3 ध य 4
, अ र क
1अ ध 2अ ध 3अ ध 4अ ध
घ, इ क अ
1, आ 2अ 3अ 4अ
, न क इ प क क न ए
1, अ य 2ब 3 4 ध य

97
 6 क र ए 4x1=4
क, ‘ करन ’ रक अ -
1. ब 2. आ
3. ध 4.
, नइ न क कर…………
1. ब य 2. य
3. ब य 4. य
, क प नए - एक र कप प ए
1 य 2य य
3 य 4 य
घ, न क
1 य 2 य
3 य 4 य

7 ए एप प प कर क र ए 4x1=4
य य
य आ
ध

धअ
अ य य

ध
य

क, क क न नकर ए
1 2
3आ 4इ

98
 , क क न नकर ए
1 2 3अ 4
, क अ
1 2 3 4
घ, ----------क क
1 य 2 3 4

8 प 5x1=5
न प कर ए ए क र क नकर ए:
ब
ब घ य ब य य
ब य घ अ बब
य य य ब -ब
य
औ - आ य घ
ब - य , य
ब बब य बध अ
य य अ
बध ब ब
इ आ य अ ,
ब ब आ य औ
य ब -ब घ आ ब
क, प क न नकर ए
1 य 2 य
3 य 4 य
, कक न नकर ए
1 य 2 ध
3 4 य
, र क अ
1 2 ब 3 ब 4 :
घ, इ क र न क न ?
1 घ 2 घ 3ब य 4
, इ क नन क न ?
1, ५ 2 १ 3 २ 4 ३

99
 9 ए एप प कर क र ए 5x1=5
यब “ - “ आय आ - -
अ य य
ब ब - औ आय
ध -ध य
इ य आ
य , औ ब
य आ
आ
अब ध
अ अ य औ
?अ य
ध औ ध
अ ब - य ब
ध ध घ य औ
ब घब अ
- य अ ,
ध ब
क, -प प क न- प क न ए
1 2 य 3 4
, र नकर ए
1 2अ य
3 ध अ 4
, क और र क अ
1 ,आ ब 2 य,
3 , 4 ,आ
घ, अन क र- इ
1ब 2 ब
3 - 4
, र क न ?
1, ब 2 ब
3 ब 4 ब

100
 न क न
प प क
10 क र 30 40 ए 2x2=4
1, ' ' ?
2, ' बध ' ?' ' आध

3, य ?

11 ए ए क र 60 70 ए (4)
1 - आध
य ?

12 ए ए क र 60 70 ए 2x3=6
1 अ य अ आध

2 . आध
3 औ इ

न
13 अन न
ए ए क क र पर न क एक पर अन
ए (6)
1, क र
क -* अ य * / *
अ
2, क प क न
क - * * * *ब

अ
3, र- रक र , ई
क - * अ * * बध
* अ

101
 14 प न (5)
1, ब ध ‘ ’
आ य 80 100 आ प ए
अ
2, ब ब , ब आ -प ए

15 न न (5)
1 अ ब ब
ब आ ,इ य ब न ए
अ
2, अ बध य य ,इ य न ए

16 पन न (5)
1 य य ,इ य य पन रक ए
अ
2 ध
पन रक ए

17 घ क ए
क र पर क इए (5)
1, न
अ ,
ब ब य
- आ य य
य य य अ अ
, अ
अ
2, न
ब औ
आ आ औ ब ब ब
य ब
, आ घ घ ब

***********

102
 mRrj vafdr ;kstuk & vH;kl izJ i= & 1
अ
1- अ क-६ अ आ, क, कक क
-
- ,अ क अ
घ- क घ, औ
च- च,

2- इ- क-अ अ 2- -क - घ
- - घ
, ,
घक क क घ
च, अ च, घ

3, क , ,
घ, , च,

4, क , - ,
घ च, क च

5, क क , अ क
घअ चक
6 क-आ भ ,. क
कक च घ क च

7 कइ क भ ,
घ

8 क क क क
:क घक क च३

9, क ,अ
च कच , आ भ घ च
चक क

ब
-
10 यह 30 40 2x2=4
क, - क - - क भ .
अ ऊ .
क -च क क क -च क
-1½ -½

103
 11 ग 60 70 (4)
क -आ क - -क
-3½ -½

12 ग 60 70 2x3=6
क, अ भ औ क भ क क क अ क च-
अ क - क क क क .
, क अ - क - .
, इ क - औ - क क औ -
-2½ -½

13 अ -3 -1 भ -2

14
Izkk:Ik & 1]
ijh{kk Hkou
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fnukad & 24 ebZ -20----

lsok esa]
iz/kkukpk;Z
lw;ksZn; fo/;ky;
jke Ukxj
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fo”k; & dai;wVj ysc esa fganh QkAV dh lqfo/kk,¡

egksn;]
lfou; fuosnu gS fd eSa vkids fo/;ky; ds d{kk nloha ^ c* dk Nk= gw¡AA
c<+rh gqbZ dk;Zdze ds dkj.k gesa daI;wVj dh t:jr iM+rh gSA blh fo”k; dks
ys[kj geus tc dk;Z djuk vkjaHk fd;k rks ] irk pyk fd fganh QkAV+ dh deh gSA
blfy, gedks iwjs mRlkg ls dke djus esa vleFkZ gSA
,slh fLFkfr esa vkxkeh lkseokj ls ijh{kk dk vkjaHk Hkh gSA gekjs rjQ+ ls
fouez izkFkZuk gS fd vki bl fo”k; ij /;ku nsa vkSj blds dkj.k gekjs ysc esa fganh
QkaV dh HkfrZ djus dh vuqefr nsaA
l/kU;oknA
Hkonh;
då[kåxå
d{kk nl~ vFkok
104
Ik= ys[ku
Izkk:Ik & 2]
ijh{kk Hkou
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fnukad & 24 ebZ -20----

lsok esa]
अ क
Csafdax lsok HkfrZ cksM+Z
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fo”k; & fyfid on ds fy, vkosnu ds laca/k esa

egksn;]
eSa panuiwj ftyk dk fuoklh gw¡AA eq>s vkids cSad esa fyfid in [kkyh gksus
dk tkudkjh feykA blh fo”k; dks ys[kj eSa ;g vuqjksn djrk gw¡ fd esjs ;g
vkosnu i= Lohdkj djsaA vxj vki esjh ;g i= dk eatwj gS rks t+jk vki ekSdk
nhft, ftlls eS vkHkkjh cudj jgw¡xkAA
gekjs rjQ+ ls fouez izkFkZuk gS fd vki bl fo”k; ij /;ku nsa vkSj bl ds
lkFk layXu fd;k gqvk esjk ifjp; dh tkudkjh ysaA
uke ---
mej ---
firk dk uke ---
i<+kbZ dk fooj.k
ijh{kk esa vad dk fooj.k
vuqHko dk fooj.k
l/kU;oknA
Hkonh;
då[kåxå
15
jkeyky ifjokj ds rjQ ls] enzkl
lwpuk
ubZ LFkku dh izca/k
fnukad 8 Qjojh 20----
lc tkus&ekus vkSj ca/kqvksa dks ;g lwfpr fd;k tkrk gS fd cM+s HkkbZ
Jheku iznhi dqekj dk ‘kknh ] Loknh eaMi esa igys r; fd;k x;k FkkA
dksjksuk ds dkj.k le; vkSj LFkku dk cnyko fd;k x;k gSA

105
 u;k LFkku dk uke& nqxkZ ekrk ds eafnj esa] vUuk uxj ] enzkl
fnukad & 12 Qjojh ]
le; & lcsjs 7-00 cts
vki lHkh dks gekjs ifjokj ds rjQ+ ls Lokxr djrk gw¡
då[kåxå
gLrk{kj
lwpuk &2
jkefoykl gksVy] enzkl
lwpuk
uoo”kZ dh eukbZ
fnukad 28 fnlacj 20----
lc vke turk dks ;g lwfpr fd;k tkrk gS fd gekjs gksVy ds ykHkh esa
uoo”kZ dh eukbZ gksxhA iwjs fnu dbZ dk;Zdze dh izca/k dh xbZ gS] tkus&ekus
yksxksa ds lkFk vki dk vkxeu ds fy, bartkj gSA
fnukad & 31 fnlacj 20--- ]
le; & lcsjs 7-00 cts
vki lHkh dks gekjs rjQ+ ls jkr dks nkor gS
lpho
då[kåxå
gLrk{kj

16 -3 -1 क -1

17 -3 -1 भ -1

***********

106
 vH;kl izJ i= & 2
अ
परक न
अप
1 न क एक क अ क पर कर 5x1=5
अ, आजकल प आ ल क क ल
क क क प ज ल क क
ल , , क क क ल
लक क प प प ज क
क प क ज आ क प ल ज
क क ओ क क ल
आ ,ज , प , कल प आ क प क
क पक ल ल क क कज ,
ज क क ज क औ क
क, कक
क ल
क ल
क क ल
cksyus dk izpyu c<+rk gS
, क क प ?
क प प प
क प प प
प प प
[ksy esa ifjiDo gksrs gS
, आ _
आ ल
आ
आ
vkRefuHkZj
घ, ल _ ज
Movies
Advertisements
Templates
slideshows
च, क
क

107
 कक
क
lekt dk fLFkfr
अ
आ, क औ क क आ क क प लआ औ
क क ऊप प क क ल ज कक
औ क क क औ क क ल आ आज क
क क ज क प ज औ क
क क ल क ज क ज
क प ज क औ क प
क प ल, , ल आ ज ज ल क
ज ज प आजकल क ज लक ज
क, औ क क

क
क
la?k”kZ ,oa LokFkhZ esa
, क ज क ल
क प ज
क ज
क क
euq”; dk gkfu
, क क प
प प
ज ज ओ

rkieku ls gksrk gS
घ, क क
प जक
प क
क
fj’rs ds leku
च, क क क ?
क प
क
क औ क
dksbZ ugh

108
 2 ए ए क एक क अ पर क ए 5x1=5
इ, क क क क
क क आ ज क क
क , ,प
क क आ क
औ क प
क क क ल क
कऔ क क क ,
क , क क क ज क ल क
ज क क क क आ क
क क क कक ल क
क क औ क ल क
क क क क क ज आ क
ओक कप ल प
क, क क ल
क आ क
क आ क
जक क आ क
vkfFkZd dk vko’;d gS
, क ज ?
क क
क आ
ज ल
vkfFkZd fLFkfr
, क
क
क

f’k{kk ls gksrk gS
घ, क क क
ज क
आ क क
ल क
Hkk”kk ds vHkko
च, क
क
क
क ल
l{kjrk ls ykHk
अ

109
ई, क क प प प प आ क प प क
आ प क पक ज औ क कल
प क प लक कक क ज
प ज, क औ ल आ प क प ज,
क , आ ल ल क क
ल ज ल क क ज कल क क आ क ज
क आ क आजकल ल
आक ,ज , आ क क ज ल
क ज , औ क ल कल क प क
ल प क
क, ल क प प क ?
क प प
प प
ल प प
dqN ugh
, ______

लज प

[kqys txg ij i<++uk

, लक क ?
क क
क ल क
क क
iz;ksx’kkyk ds rjg
घ, ल _______ल
क

fiz;re
च, क क ल
ल
क
ल ल
dqN ugh

110
 रक करण
3 प च नए 4x1=4
क, क ( )ल
प
प
प
fdz;k fo’ks’k.k
, ( ज आ) प प

dqN ugh
, ( ) ल ल प क क र च नए

fdz;k
घ, क इ प ?
क

क
dgkuh lqurs gS
च, _______

‘kCn
प
inca/k
4 क कर इए 4x1=4
क, आ औ ल
क
ल क
क
lk/kkj.k okD;
, क इ क च नए
जक क
औ क
ज क
jke ?kj tkus ij ek¡ dks ns[kk

111
 , pqfu,
क क प ल पक
ज क ल
ज क क
og tksj ls g¡l iM+k
घ, लक ल प क

okD; izca/k
च, कक औ क प ?
ल

ldkjkRed okD;
5 क 4 क र ए 4x1=4
क, क ?
क

cgqozhfg
, क

क
क
ou ds xeu
, प ज
प
प
पल
ihrvacj
घ, क क क ज
-
क -
क -
xq: ds nf{k.kk
च, प क
क
आ
ल
fnu dk p;kZ

112
 6 क र ए 4x1=4
क, क प कल_____
ज
कज
आज
feV tkuk
, क क ____
जल
लल
ज ल
xys yxkrs gS
, प क _____
क ल
प ल
प प
dqN ugh
घ, प प _____क क प
प क
ल
ल क
izk.k j{kk

7 ए एप प प कर क र ए 4x1=4
क ल ज
ल
, ज
क क क
क क
ल क क
- कप
ल
ज क
ज क जआ
औ क क
ज ज
आज
ल

113
क, ‘ ’ क क क ?

ड
प
‘kku
, क क क क ?

olar
, प क क vFkZ
ल क ल
क क
ज प ज
dqN ugh
घ, ज आ
ज
क
ज क
eukus dk fnu

8 प 5x1=5
ज क क ल , क ल
, क कल प प आप क
क ल क प क क क प क क क
क ल क ज डक ज ल प
ज क क क ज क
औ क ल ज क क
क, प क कऔ ल कक
ल_ क
ल ल_ क
कलक _ क
jfoanz dsysdj& >su dk nsu
, ज क क

क
क क क
dqN Hkh ugh

114
 , क क क
क क
कप क
क
dqN Hkh ugh
घ, डक ज ल ज
ड क
क
क
ijhJe dju
च,

ल
क
lqurs jgrs gS

9 ए एप प कर क र ए 5x1=5
क क आज प ल क
आ औ क - जल आ क
आप ज क ल औ आपक कक क
क
ल ल ल औ ल“ क क क क
ज लल लक क ल क क ? क
“
ज कक आक कआ ऊप ज क ड ल क
ल क क क लप प ल आ ल ल ल
क क ड पक ल औ लक प प
क, क

flj Åij djuk

, जल आ
आ क क
ज क
ल क
mnkl gksdj

115
 , -क क क ?

dqN Hkh ugh

घ, क प ?
क
क ज
प
ijLij drZO;
च, क प प ?

nksLr
yMdk

णन क न-प प क
10 क र 30 40 ए 2x2=4
क, क क प कआ प ल
, कप ल ल क प ल
, क क प क क क क कआ प ल

11 ए ए क र 60 70 ए (4)
क क क क क औ क क क ल प
?

12 ए ए क र 60 70 ए 2x3=6
क प औ क आ ? प
प औ ड क क क प कआ प
, कक क औ क ल ? प ज

नकर
13 अन न
ए ए क कआ र पर न क एक पर अन
ए (6)
क, 21 क
क - *आ क * 21 आ ल * क

116
 अ
, ल कल ज
क _* क प * *क क क
अ
, क
क _ * क प * क क * क क

14 प न (5)
क, प ल कक क क ज क प कप ल
अ
, कक क क क प प ल क
कप ल
15 चन न (5)
क ल ककऔ ज क क ल क क क
ल
अ
, ज क प क प ल क ल
प क क क ल

16 पन न (5)
क ल जक क प प क ज
अ
, ज औ लक क ल ल प क प क ज

17 घ क ए
क आ र पर क इए (5)
क, ज - क क क 2औ
आ क क प ज क क क क
क आ क क क क औ
क औ क क क ज औ क प औ
औ क क डल क आ ज क क क
अ
, ज क ल पक प क ल कल
ल प प ल लप क ल क क ज क
क औ लप प प प प 2
ज क प औ ल प क
प ज क प डज

***********

117
 mRrj vafdr ;kstuk & vH;kl izJ i= & 2

अ
1- अ क- क अ आ, क, क
- क . क य
ग- आ ग,
- movies , क
- क क , क

2- इ- क-अ क आ क अ 2- क-क
- ग क आ -
ग, क ग, क क
आ क क
, क अ , क

3, क
, य
ग,
,
,

4, क य कय
, गय औ क ।
ग, क क ।

, कय

5, कक य
, क ग
ग
ग क -
क य

6 क- आ
,
ग
क

118
7 क ड
,
ग क य
क

8 क क क _ क
ग कयक क
गअ क क
य ग क

9, क क
, क
ग
इय क

ब
-
10 यह 30 40 2x2=4
क, - - -आ .
क - आ - क - य अक
ग -ग अ क गग .
ग - ग - क ड क- अ क
क क क अ अ क ग क
य -1½ -½

11 ग 60 70 (4)
- - क - - क - क क -
ग क
य -3½ -½

12 ग 60 70 2x3=6
क, क - क आक -अ ग क
क
, ड क - क अ क क
क ड क ग ग

119
ग, इय औ क -अ य क य अ ग
-कक क क क य ग
य -2½ -½

13 अ य -3 -1 -2

14 य -3 -1 -1
Izkk:Ik & 1]
ijh{kk Hkou
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fnukad & 24 ebZ -20----

lsok esa]
अ क
Ukxj izkf/kdj.k
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fo”k; & jksx Qsyus dh tkudkjh ds laca/k esa

egksn;]
eSa panuiwj ftyk dk fuoklh gw¡AA c<+rh gqbZ jksx ds dkj.k ;gk¡ ds
yksxksa dk LokLF; fcxM+ jgk gSA blh fo”k; dks ys[kj ge fpafrr gSa] ftlds
dkj.k cPpksa dk LokLF; Hkh fcxM+ jgk gSA bl rjg ds jksx ds fy, bykt
dh deh Hkh gS vkSj e`R;q dh laHkkouk Hkh gSA
gekjs rjQ+ ls fouez izkFkZuk gS fd vki bl fo”k; ij /;ku nsa vkSj
blds bykt ds fy, lgh fpfdRld dh izca/k djsa rFkk eksgYys dks LoPN
j[kus ds fy, mfpr dk;Zokgh dj ldsaA
l/kU;oknA
Hkonh;
då[kåxå

vFkok

120
Ik= ys[ku
Izkk:Ik & 2]
ijh{kk Hkou
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fnukad & 24 ebZ -20----

lsok esa]
iz/kkukpk;Z
lw;ksZn; fo/;ky;
jke Ukxj
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fo”k; & ijh{kk esa lfEefyr u gksus ds laca/k esa

egksn;]
lfou; fuosnu gS fd eSa vkids fo/;ky; ds d{kk uoe ^ c* dk Nk=
gw¡AA c<+rh gqbZ cq[kkj ds dkj.k eSa ldwy ugh vk ldkA blh fo”k; dks ys[kj
eSa fpafrr Fkk] ftlds dkj.k tk¡p djus ij MkWDVj us VkbQ+kbM+ dh iqf”V dh
gSA blfy, eq>s iwjh vkjke ds fy, vkns’k nh xbZ gSA
,slh fLFkfr esa vkxkeh lkseokj ls vkjaHk gksus okyh ijh{kk esa lfEefyr
gksus ij vleFkZ gw¡A esjs rjQ+ ls fouez izkFkZuk gS fd vki bl fo”k; ij eq>s
{kek djsa vkSj blds dkj.k eq>s ckn esa ijh{kk fy[kus dh vuqefr nsaA
esfM+dy fjiksVZ dh layXu fd;k gSA
l/kU;oknA
Hkonh;
då[kåxå
d{kk uoe~

121
15 य -3 -1 -1

Losrk vLirky] fnYyh

lwpuk
ubZ LFkku dh izca/k
fnukad 8 Qjojh 20----
lc vke turk dks ;g lwfpr fd;k tkrk gS fd ejhtksa ds fy, ubZ
LFkku] lc lqfo/kkvksa ds lkFk izca/k fd;k x;k gSA
u;k LFkku dk uke& vLirky ds CykWd ^ v *] 300 fcLrjksa ds lkFk
vkjaHk gksxk & 12 Qjojh ls]
vLirky ds lfpo
då[kåxå
gLrk{kj

‘kkafr Hkou] eSlwj

lwpuk
lkfgR; izfr;ksfxrk
fnukad 25 flracj 20----
lc vke turk dks ;g lwfpr fd;k tkrk gS fd xka/kh t;arh ds
volj ij lc ys[ku dk;Z dh izfr;ksfxrk dk vk;ksftr gksxkA
LFkku dk uke& Hkou ds lHkk esa
fnukad & 2 vDrwcj 20--- uke nsus ds fy, vafre fnu & 29 flracj
‘kke 4-00 ds igys
le; & lcsjs 7 cts ls
¼ lc mej ds fy, vyx&vyx dk;Zdze gksxk] tkudkjh HkfrZ gksus ij
nh tk,xh ½
lHkk ds lfpo
då[kåxå
gLrk{kj

16 य -3 -1 क -1

17 य -3 -1 -1

***********

122
 vH;kl izJ i= & 3
अ
परक न - अप
1 न क एक क अ क पर कर 5x1=5
(यदि आप इस गद्यां श कय चयन करते हैं तो कृपयय उत्तर पुस्तिकय में दिखें दक आप प्रश्न सांख्यय
एक में दिए गए गद्यां श 1पर आधयररत उत्तर दिख रहे हैं ।)
खबर के दबकने की खबर पुरयनी हो कर भी पुरयनी नहीां हुई। यह पूछने के बयवजूि दक जब
मीदियय मांिी में है और मांिी में धमम ईमयन पयखांि ईश्वर सत्य किय सभी कुछ दबक रहय है तो
खबर दबकने पर इतनय परे शयन होनय अथवय िु खी होनय क्ोां? परे शयन होनय जरूरी है । मीदियय
कय भ्रष्टयचयर िोकतांत्र को भयरी नुकसयन पहुां चयने वयिय है । पैसे िेकर समयचयर छयपने की खबर
ने हड़कांप मचय दियय। धन कय िोग क्य-क्य नहीां करवयतय? बतययय गयय दक मुनयफयखोरी के
िबयव में कुछ मीदियय सांगठनोां में पत्रकयररतय के ऊांचे आिशों की हत्यय कर िी। कुछ समय
पहिे तक ररपोर्म रोां अथवय सांवयिियतयओां को नगि यय अन्य छोर्े -छोर्े उपहयर दिए जयते थे
िे श दविे शोां में दकसी कांपनी यय दकसी शख्स के बयरे में अनुकूि खबर छयपने पर अच्छे होर्िोां
में िांच दिनर के सयथ नगि भुगतयन कय दिफयफय दियय जयतय है । ऐसी खबर हर सूरत में
विुदनष्ठ होते हुए ्यकस्तति पि यय सां्थय की प्रशांसय कर रही होती थी, दफर बड़य बिियव आयय।
कयमकयज की शययरी और दनयम बिि गए। मूल्ोां को दनदित करने की गिय कयर्
प्रदतयोदगतय के अदतररति बड़य मु नयफय पयने के दिए एक नई धमम मयकेदर्ां ग कय सहयरय दियय
जयने िगय।
उसूिोां के उल्लां घन के जवयब तियश कर दिए गए। कहयां गयय दक एजेंदसयोां जैसे दबचौदियोां को
खत्म करने में कुछ भी बुरय नहीां। प्रेस पररषि में कुछ ियदयत्व समझते हुए पैसे के बििे
समयचयर पर एक कमेर्ी कय आरां भ दकयय दजससे चुनयव के िौरयन नेतय व अथवय रयजनीदतक
ििोां से पैसय िेकर समयचयर प्रकयदशत करने वयिे दजम्मे ियर कयरकोां को कर्घरे में खड़य दकयय
जय सके परां तु कॉपोरे र् मीदियय की दृश्य अदृश्य शस्तति के सयमने ऐसय हो नय सकय।

1, दकस मांिी में धमम और ईश्वर दबक रहय है ?

क, सब्जी मां िी ख, पत्रकयररतय की मांिी, ग, कपड़े की मांिी, घ, यह सभी
2, िोकतांत्र को दकस से नुकसयन हो रहय है ?
क, पत्रकयररतय के उत्थयन से ख, मीदियय के प्रभयव से
ग, मीदियय के दबग जयने से घ, इन सभी से
3, िेखक के अनुसयर
क, मीदियय में पहिे दकसी प्रकयर कय भ्रष्टयचयर नहीां
ख, मीदियय में पहिे भी भ्रष्टयचयर थय
ग, मीदियय के दबकने पर पयखां ि कय दबकनय स्वभयदवक नहीां है
घ, धमम और ईमयन कय मीदियय से कोई िेनय-िे नय नहीां
4, नए बिियव आने पर
क, जीवनशैिी बिि गई ख,अध्ययन की शैिी बिि गई
ग,कयमकयज की शैिी बिि गई घ,पत्रकयर कय महत्व कम हो गयय
5, पत्रकयर शब्द में कौन सय समयस है ?
क, अ्यकयीभयव ख, तत्पुरुष ग, द्वां द्व घ, कममधयरय

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(यदि आप इस गद्यां श कय चयन करते हैं तो कृपयय उत्तर पुस्तिकय में दिखें दक आप प्रश्न सांख्यय
एक में दिए गए गद्यां श 2 पर आधयररत उत्तर दिख रहे हैं ।)
अभी भी इस बयरे में बहुत कम जयनकयरी है दक आधु दनक कहीां जयने वयिी आज की िु दनयय
आस्तखर कैसे सांचयदित हो रही है । हयियां दक हर एक िे श के पयस इसकी कोई नय कोई
आदधकयररक यय क्य जरूर है दक वह कैसे और दकन सांिभों में आधु दनक हो रहे हैं ।िेदकन
इस बयरे में मेरय कहनय है दक आधु दनकतय की रयह पर बढ़ने के दिए समयज को दकन चीजोां की
जरूरत होती है बेशक, आज हर कोई मॉिनम होनय चयहतय है िेदकन आधु दनकतय की रयह
उतनी स्पष्ट नहीां है , दजतनी वह मयनी जयती है । इसीदिए मैं यह बयत बयर-बयर कहतय हां दक
पदिमी समयज कभी आधु दनक नहीां रहे , पदिम के पयस यह एकमयत्र उल्लेखनीय चीज है ।
सयइां स दजसमें उसने तरक्की की िेदकन दजन सयइां दर्स्टओ के बिबूते वहयां आधु दनकतय कय
परचम िहरययय जयतय है खु ि वे सयइां दर्स्ट अपने कल्चर में उिझे रहते हैं । उनकय यह कल्चर
आधु दनकतय कय झांिय बधयम र है । यह भी नहीां कहय जय सकतय है दक उनके कल्चर पर िू सरी
सांस्कृदतयोां और िोग कय चयरोां कय असर नहीां हुआ होगय। अगर यह असर हुआ है तो दसफम
वही आधु दनक क्ोां कहय गयय है ?
1, िेखक ने दकस बयत की अस्पष्टतय की ओर सांकेत दकयय है ?
क, आधु दनक बनने के ख, मयनिां िोां में दवदवधतय
ग, पदिम िे श की सांस्कृदत तरक्की कय अथम घ, आधु दनकतय की सही ्यकयख्यय
2, हरिे श ने आधु दनक होने के
क, अपने अथम और मयनिां ि तय दकए हैं
ख, आधु दनक होने की समयन ्यकयख्यय की है
ग, अपने द्वयरय दनधयम ररत मयनिां िोां को सही नहीां कहय है
घ, अपने आप को आधु दनक सयदबत दकयय है
3, पदिमी समयज कभी-कभी आधु दनक नहीां हो रहे िेखक ने ऐसय क्ोां कहय होगय?
क, पदिमी समयज िू सरे कल्चर कय असर ग्रहण कर रहय है
ख,पदिमी समयज के पयस सयइां स है
ग, पदिमी समयज यह नहीां जयनतय दक आधु दनक कय अथम क्य है और कौन सी चीज है समयज
को आधु दनक बनयती है
घ, पदिमी समयज आधु दनक नहीां है
4, सयइां दर्स्टओ शब्द इस ओर सांकेत करतय है दक
क, िेखक कय शब्द चयन अच्छय नहीां है
ख,आजकि स्तखचड़ी भयषय कय प्रयोग हो रहय है
ग,ऐसे शब्द नय दहां िी के रहते हैं और नय अांग्रेजी के
घ, कोई भयषय दकसी िू सरी भयषय से शब्द तो िेती है िेदकन ्यकयकरण अपनय प्रयुति करती है
5, िेखक इस गद्यां श में क्य कहनय चयहतय है ?
क, समयज आधु दनक है
ख, वैज्ञयदनकोां को केवि अपनी सांस्कृदत कय ज्ञयन है
ग, दवज्ञयन में उन्नदत करनय ही आधु दनक होने कय मयनिां ि नहीां है
घ, आधु दनक होने के दिए दवज्ञयन में तरक्की करनय जरूरी है ।

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 2 ए ए क एक क अ पर क ए 5x1=5
(यदि आप इस गद्यां श कय चयन करते हैं तो कृपयय उत्तर पुस्तिकय में दिखे की आप प्रश्न सांख्यय
2 में गद्यां श 1 पर आधयररत उत्तर दिख रहे हैं )
दवगत वषों में िोक कथयएां हमयरे आम जीवन में सदियोां से रची बसी है । इन्हें हम अपने बड़े
बूढ़ोां से बचपन से ही सुनते आ रहे हैं । िोक कथयओां के बयरे में यह भी कहय जयतय है दक
बचपन के शुरुआती वषों में बच्ोां को अपने पररवेश की महक सोच व कल्पनय की उड़यन िे ने
के दिए इनकय उपयोग जरूरी है । हम यह भी सु नते हैं दक बच्ोां के भयषय के दवकयस के सांिभम
में भी इन दकतयबोां की उपयोदगतय महत्वपूणम है । ऐसय इसदिए कहय जयतय है क्ोांदक इन िोक
कथयओां के दवदभन्न रूपोां में हमें िोकजीवन के तत्व दमिते हैं जो बच्ोां के बयिशयह दवकयस में
उल्लेखनीय भूदमकय दनभयते हैं । अगर हम अपनी पढ़ी हुई िोक कथयओां को ययि करें तो
सहजतय से हमें इनके कई उियहरण दमि जयते हैं । जब हम कहयनी सुनय रहे होते हैं तो बच्ोां
से हमयरी यह अपेक्षय रहती है दक वे पहिी घर्ी घर्नयओां को जरूर िोहरयए। बच्े भी घर्नय
को ययि रखते हुए सयथ सयथ मजे से िोहरयते हैं इस तरह कथय सुनयने की इस प्रदियय में बच्े
इन घर्नयओां को यह िम में रखकर िे खते हैं इन िदमक घर्नयओां में यह तकम होतय है जो
बच्ोां के मनोभयवोां से दमितय जुितय है ।
1, िोक कथयओां में शयदमि है
क, िोक जीवन के रां ग ख, िोक की उड़यन ग, घर्नयएां घ, िोक कल्पनय
2, िोक कथयओां में दकस पररवेश की महक की बयत की गई है ?
क, शहरी पररवेश की ख, दवद्यिय पररवेश की
ग, ग्रयमीण पररवेश की घ, बच्ोां के आसपयस मौजूि पररवेश की
3, बच्ोां से हमयरी क्य अपेक्षय रहती है ?
क, कहयनी सुननय
ख, घर्नयओां की भयषय को समझनय
ग, एक कहयनी में मजे िे नय
घ, कहयनी की घर्नयओां को ययि रखें तयदक आगे की कहयनी से जुड़य जय सके
4, अनुच्छेि के आधयर पर कहय जय सकतय है दक इसकय मुख्य दबांिु है
क, िोक कथयओां के मयध्यम से कल्पनय सरवर भयषय पर दवकयस दकयय जय सकतय है
ख, कहयनी में ययि रखनय जरूरी है
ग, िोक कथयएां हमयरे जीवन कय दहस्सय है
घ, िोक कथयओां में िोक तत्व होतय है
5, कहयनी की िदमक घर्नयओां में एक तकम होतय है , जो बच्ोां के मन भयवे से दमिय जुितय है ,”
वयक् दकस ओर सांकेत करतय है ?
क,कहयदनयोां में एक िम होतय है
ख, बच्े भी कहयनी के िम में ही सोचते हैं
ग कहयदनययां बच्ोां की मयनदसक िशय को िशयम ती है
घ,बच्े भी कहयनी के बयरे में िगभग उसी तरह सोचते हैं दजस तरह कहयनी में घर्नयएां घर्ती
है

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2 में दिए गए गद्यां श 2 पर आधयररत उत्तर दिख रहे हैं ।)
गयां धीजी मयनते थे दक सयमयदजक यय सयमूदहक जीवन की और बढ़ने से पहिे कुर्ु मदपक जीवन
कय अनुभव प्रयप्त करनय आवश्यक है ।इसदिए वे आश्रम जीवन दबतयते थे ।वहयां सभी एक
भोजनयिय में भोजन करते थे। इससे समय और धन तो बचतय ही थय सयथ ही सयमू दहक जीवन
कय अभ्ययस भी होतय थय।
िेदकन यह सब होनय चयदहए समय पयिन सु्यकव्थय और शुदचतय के सयथ। और िोगोां को
प्रोत्सयदहत करने के दिए गयां धी जी स्वयां भी सयमूदहक रसोई घर में भोजन करते थे। भोजन के
समय िो बयर घांर्ी बजती थी। जो िू सरी घांर्ी बजने तक भोजनयिय में नहीां पहुां च पयतय थय उसे
िू सरी पांस्तति के दिए बरयमिे में इां तजयर करनय पड़तय थय। िू सरी घांर्ी बजते ही रसोई घर कय
द्वयर बांि कर दियय जयतय थय दजससे बयि में आने वयिे ्यकस्तति अांिर नय आने पयए। 1 दिन
गयां धीजी दपचक गए। सांयोग से उस दिन आश्रम वयसी श्री हरी बयबू उपयध्ययय भी दपछड़ गए।
जब भी वहयां पहुां चे तो िे खय दक बयपू बरयमिे में खड़े हैं । बैठने के दिए नय बेंच है नय कुसी। हरी
बयबू ने दवनोि करते हुए कहय बयपूजी आज तो आप भी गुनहगयरोां के कर्घरे में आ गए हैं ।
गयां धीजी की स्तखियकर हां स पड़े । बोिे कयनून के सयमने तो सब बरयबर है नय? हरी बयबू जी ने
कहय बैठने के दिए कुसी ियऊां बयपू ? गयां धीजी बोिे उसकी जरूरत नहीां है ।सजय पूरी भुगतनी
चयदहए उसी में सच्य आनांि होतय है ।
1, गयां धी जी ने दकस बयत की पूरी सजय भुगतने की बयत की?
क,गित दनयम बनयने की ख,िे र से रसोई घर में पहुां चने की
ग, सयमूदहक जीवन की घ, आश्रम जीवन दबतयने की
2, सयमूदहक जीवन दबतयने के दिए सबसे महत्वपूणम क्य है ?
क,सिस्ोां की आपसी प्रदतस्पधयम
ख,समूह के दिए बनयए गए दनयमोां कय पयिन
ग सब समयन िर के हो
घ, समयन दवचयरधयरय होनय
3, कयनून के सयमने तो सब बरयबर होते हैं नय?गयां धी जी कय यह कथन दकस ओर सांकेत करतय है ?
क कयनून के हयथ िांबे होते हैं
ख, गयां धी जी झेंप गए हैं
ग, कयनून दकसी तरह कय भेिभयव नहीां करतय
घ, गयां धीजी पूरी ईमयनियरी से दनयमोां कय पयिन करने में दवश्वयस रखते थे
4, िू सरी घांर्े के बयि रसोई घर कय िरवयजय क्ोां बांि कर दियय जयतय होगय?
क, ऐसय गयां धी जी कय दनिे श थय
ख,तयदक िोग समय से भोजन करें और दनयम कय पयिन करें
ग, तयदक िोग अांिर नय आ सके
घ, तयदक िोग एक आि दिन उपवयस कर सकें
5, सभी भोजनयिय में यह एक सयथ भोजन करते थे इससे
क, केवि धन की बचत होती थी
ख, सु्यकव्थय रहती थी
ग, गयां धीजी और हरर बयबूजी को बहुत असुदवधय हुई
घ, सयमूदहक जीवन कय महत्व पतय चितय थय

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3 प नए 4x1=4
(1) 'खड़े रहने की जगह कम पड़ने पर समांिर को गुस्सयआ गयय।'- रे खयां दकत पि है
क. सवमनयम पिबांध ख. दवशेषण पिबांध
ग. सांज्ञय पिबांध घ. दिययदवशेषण पिबांध
(2) जीवन की रफ़्तयर तेजी से बढ़ती जय रही थी।-वयक् में दियय पिबांध है
क तेजी से बढ़ती जय रही थी ख जय रही थी
ग. बढ़ती जय रही थी घ. इनमें से कोई नहीां
(3) पिबांध के दकतने प्रकयर है ?
क. सयत ख. पयाँ च ग. चयर घ. छह
(4) आजकि बच्े गयनय सुनते-सुनते पढ़ते हैं ।
क. सवमनयम पिबांध ख. दियय पिबांध
ग. सांज्ञय पिबांध घ. दियय-दवशेषण पिबांध
(5) वयक् --------------से बनतय है ।
क. पिबांध ख. वणममयिय ग. पि घ. शब्द

4 क कर ए 4x1=4
(1) 'हमयरे समयज में धन कय वह महत्व नहीां जो ्यकवहयर कय है ।'-रचनय के दृदष्ट से
I. सरि वयक् II.सांिेहवयचक वयक् III. सांयुति वयक् IV. दमश्र वयक्
(2) दनम्नदिस्तखत में से दमश्र वयक् पहचयदनए
I. वह िो दिन गयाँ व में रहय और बीमयर हो गयय।
||.कयिी भैंस खे त में चर रही थी जोदक आत्मयरयम की थी।
III. जब गिी में शोर हुआ, तब सब िोग बयहर आ गए।
IV. वह िड़कय गयाँ व में जयकर बीमयर हो गयय।
(3) 'मयांक सुांिर है । वह हाँ समुख भी है ।'- कय सांयुति वयक् है
I. मयांक सुांिर और हां समुख है । II.मयांक सुांिर भी है और हाँ समुख भी।
III. मयांक सुांिर है तथय हाँ समुख भी है । IV. मयांक सुांिर होने के सयथ हाँ समुख है ।
(4) ' मैं इतनय थक गयय थय दक चि भी नहीां पय रहय थय।' - कय सरि वयक् है -
I. बहुत थकने के कयरण मैं चि नहीां पय रहय थय।
II. क्ोांदक मैं अदधक थक जयने पर थक गयय इसदिए चि नहीां पययय।
III. मैं इतनय थक गयय दक चि नहीां पययय।
IV. मेरे चि न पयने कय कयरण यही थय दक मैं बहुत थक गयय थय।
(5) दनम्नदिस्तखत में कौन-सय दमश्र वयक् नहीां है ?
I. जैसे ही दबल्ली ने छियां ग िगयई, घर में सन्नयर्य छय गयय।
II. मेरे पयठ्यिम में जो गोियन उपन्ययस है , उसके िेखक मुांशी प्रेमचांि है ।
III.दविे श में रहते हुए भी मेरय मन अभी भी भयरत में है ।
IV. जब दसपयही ने जेब कतरे को पकड़ दियय तो उसे पीर्य।

127
 5 क 4 क र ए 4x1=4
(1) बयढ़ के समय जिप्रवयह बहुत तीव्र हो जयतय है ।- रे खयां दकत समि पि में कौन-सय समयस है ?
I. सांबांध तत्पुरुष समयस II.सांप्रियन तत्पुरुष समयस
III. कमम तत्पुरुष समयस IV. अदधकरण तत्पुरुष समयस
(2) सही समयस दवग्रह कय चयन कीदजए
I. परिोक में गमन - तत्पुरुष समयस II.परिोक से गमन - तत्पुरुष समयस
III. परिोक के दिए गमन - तत्पुरुष समयस IV. परिोक को गमन - तत्पुरुष समयस
(3) अवदध के अनुसयर कय समि पि क्य होगय?
I. यथयदवदध II.अवदधनुसयर III. यथदवदध IV. यथयवदध
(4) मृगनयन कय समयस दवग्रह एवां भेि –
I. मृग रूपी नयन - कममधयरय समयस II.नयन समयन मृग - कममधयरय समयस
III. मृग के समयन नयन - कममधयरय समयस IV. नयन रूपी मृग - कममधयरय समयस
(5) कौन-सय शब्द बहुव्रीदह समयस कय सही उियहरण है
I. दनदशदिन II.दत्रभुवन III. पांचयनन IV. पुरुषदसांह

6 क र ए 4x1=4
ररति ्थयन की पूदतम सर्ीक मुहयवरे से कीदजए।
(1) कययमिम को सफि करने के दिए छयत्रोां ने ------------------
I. धस्तिययाँ उड़य िी ||.आसमयन दसर पर उठय दियय
III. उिर्-फेर कर दियय IV. एड़ी-चोर्ी कय जोर िगय दियय
(2) आज ये बयिक पढ़यई की बजयय---------------रहे हैं । मयजरय क्य है ? ररति ्थयन की पूदतम
सर्ीक मुहयवरे से कीदजए।
I. मजय चखय ||.धमयचौकड़ी मचय
III. बे-दसर-पैर की बयतें IV. पन्ने रां ग
(3) इस नेतय के रयज में आर्े -ियि के ियम----------------पर पहुाँ च गए हैं । ररति ्थयन की पूदतम
सर्ीक मुहयवरे से कीदजए।
I. सयतवें आसमयन II.तरयजू पर.
III.चयाँ ि पर IV.जमीन पर
(4) कुछ ्यकस्तति सिै व--------------रहते हैं , िू सरोां के कष्ट को नहीां िे खते। ररति ्थयन की पूदतम
सर्ीक मुहयवरे से कीदजए।
I. अपनी स्तखचड़ी पकयते II.अपनय ही रयग अियपते
III. अपने मुाँह दमयय दमठू बने IV. उड़ती दचदड़यय के पांख दगनते

7 ए एप प प कर क र ए 4x1=4
'मनुष्य मयत्र बांधु हैं ' यही बड़य दववेक है ,
पुरयणपुरुष स्वयांभू दपतय प्रदसद्ध एक है ।
फियनुसयर कमम के अवश्य बयह्य भेि हैं ,
परां तु अांतरै क् में प्रमयणभूत वेि हैं ।
अनथम है दक बांधु ही न बांधु की ्यकथय हरे ,
वही मनुष्य है दक जो मनुष्य के दिए मरे ।।

128
(1) मनुष्य मात्र बंधु है का आशय क्या है ?
I. मनुष्य मात्र को अपना भाई समझना
II.मनुष्य मात्र को अलग-अलग समझना
III. मनुष्य मात्र के अलग-अलग कमम होना
IV. मनुष्य मात्र के द्वारा पररश्रम ककया जाना
(2) प्रत्येक मनुष्य अपना बंधु कैसे है ?
I. एक रयष्टर में जन्म िेने से ||.एक प्रयां त में जन्म िेने से
III. एक जैसय खयनय खयने से IV. सभी परमेश्वर की सां तयन होने से
(3) मयनव मयत्र में बयहरी अांतर क्ोां दिखयई िे तय है ?
I. दभन्न जिवयय् के कयरण II.मयनव की कमम दभन्नतय के कयरण
III. मयतय-दपतय की दभन्न प्रकृदत के कयरण IV. दभन्न िे शोां में जन्म िेने के कयरण
(4) सबसे बडा अनर्म क्या है ?
I. भयई कय भयई से िगयव II.भयई कय भयई से दविगयव
III. भयई की भयई के प्रदत कुदर्ितय IV. भयई-भयई में सहयनुभूदत

8 प 5x1=5
िु दनयय कैसे वजूि में आई? पहिे क्य थी? दकस दबांिु से इसकी ययत्रय शुरू हुई? इन प्रश्नोां के
उत्तर दवज्ञयन अपनी तरह से िे तय है , धयदममक ग्रन्थ अपनी-अपनी तरह से। सांसयर की रचनय भिे
ही कैसे हुई हो िेदकन धरती दकसी एक की नहीां है । पांछी, मयनव, पशु, निी, पवमत, समांिर
आदि की इसमें बरयबर की दहस्सेियरी है । यह और बयत है दक इस दहस्सेियरी में मयनव जयदत ने
अपनी बुस्तद्ध से बड़ी-बड़ी िीवयरे खड़ी कर िी हैं । पहिे पूरय सांसयर एक पररवयर की समयन थय
अब र्ु कड़ोां में बाँर्कर एक-िू सरे से िू र हो चूकय है । पहिे बड़े -बड़े ियियनोां-आाँ गनोां में सब
दमि-जुिकर रहते थे अब छोर्े -छोर्े दिब्बे जैसे घरोां में जीवन दसमर्ने िगय है । बढ़ती हुई
आबयदियोां ने समां िर के पीछे सरकयनय शुरू कर दियय है , पेड़ोां को रयिोां से हर्यनय शुरू कर
दियय है , फैिते हुए प्रिू षण ने पांदछयोां को बस्तियोां से भगयनय शुरू कर दियय है । बयरूिोां की
दवनयश िीियओां ने वयतयवरण को सतयनय शुरू कर दियय। अब गरमी में ज्ययिय गरमी, बेवति
की बरसयतें , जिजिे, सैियब, तूफयन, और दनत नए रोग, मयनव और प्रकृदत के इसी असांतुिन
के प्रमयण हैं । नेचर की सहनशस्तति की एक सीमय होती है ।
(1) िेखक के अनुसयर धरती पर दकसकय अदधकयर है ?
I. मयनव कय II.पशु-पदक्षयोां कय
III. समुद्र, पवमत, नदियोां आदि कय IV. उपयुमति सभी
(2) मयनव जयदत ने अपनी बुस्तद्ध से दकस प्रकयर की िीवयरें खड़ी कर िी है ?
I. उसने मनुष्य-मनुष्य में, िे श-िे श में जड़ और चे तन प्रकृदत को अिग-अिग करके
II. उसने समांिर के दकनयरे ऊाँची इमयरतोां कय दनमयम ण करके
III. मनुष्य ियियनोां-आाँ गनोां को छोड़कर दिब्बे जै से घरोां में रहने िगे
IV. बयरूिोां कय प्रयोग करके
(3) प्रयकृदतक असांतुिन के कयरण
I. समांिर पीछे हर्ने िगय
II. वयतयवरण में अदधक गरमी, बेवति बयररश, आाँ दधययाँ , रोग आदि फैिे

129
 III. मनुष्य ने सांसयर को एक पररवयर से र्ु कड़ोां में बयाँ र् दियय
IV. इनमें से कोई नहीां
(4) 'जीवन दसमर्नय'- आशय क्य है ?
I.मनुष्य की आयु कम होनय II.छोर्े दिब्बोां के-से घरोां में रहनय
III.अपनी ्यकस्तति गत दजांिगी जीनय IV. अपने िे श में रहनय
(5) पयठ और िेखक कय नयम -
I. झेन की िे न - दनिय फयजिी
II. अब कहयाँ िू सरोां के िु ुःख से िु खी होने वयिे - दनिय फयजिी
III. अब कहयाँ िू सरे के िु ुःख से िु खी होने वयिे - दनिय फयजिी
IV. अब कहयाँ िू सरोां के िु ुःख से िु खी होने वयिय - दनिय फयजिी

9 ए एप प कर क र ए 5x1=5
जयपयन में मैंने अपने एक दमत्र से पूछय, "यहयाँ के िोगोां को कौन सी बीमयररययाँ अदधक होती हैं ?"
"मयनदसक", उसने जवयब दियय,"यहयाँ के अस्सी फीसिी िोग मनोरुग्ण हैं ।"
"इसकी क्य वजह है ?" कहने िगे, "हमयरे जीवन की रफ़्तयर बढ़ गई है । यहयाँ कोई चितय
नहीां, बस्तििौड़तय है । कोई बोितय नहीां, बकतय है । हम जब अकेिे पड़ते हैं तब अपने आपसे
िगयतयर बड़बड़यते रहते हैं । अमेररकय से हम प्रदतस्पधयम करने िगे। एक महीने में पूरय होने
वयिय कयम एक दिन में ही पूरय करने की कोदशश करने िगे। वैसे भी दिमयग की रफ़्तयर
हमेशय तेज ही रहती है । उसे 'स्पीि' कय इां जन िगयने पर वह हजयर गुनय अदधक रफ्तयर से
िौड़ने िगतय है । दफर एक क्षण ऐसय आतय है जब दिमयग कय तनयव बढ़ जयतय है और पूरय
इां जन र्ू र् जयतय है । यही कयरण है दजससे मयनदसक रोग यहयाँ बढ़ गए हैं ।
(1) 'पतझर में र्ू र्ी पदत्तययाँ ' के मयध्यम से िेखक ने दकस बयत की प्रेरणय िी है ?
I. सदिय नयगररक बनने की II.जयगरूक रहने की
III. अपने अदधकयरोां के प्रदत जयगरूक रहने की IV. जयगरूक न रहने की
(2) झेन की िे न में िेखक जयपयनी िोगोां के बयरे में क्य कहतय है ?
I. जयपयनी िोगो को मयनदसक बीमयररयय अदधक हैं II.जयपयनी िोग स्मयर्म हैं
III. जयपयनी िोग गदतवयन हैं IV. कोई नहीां
(3) जयपयदनयोां के दिमयग में स्पीि कय इां जन होने से क्य भयव है ?
I. वे स्पीि इां जन में कयम करते हैं II.बहुत तेज चिते हैं
III. उनकय दिमयग बहुत तेज गदत से चितय है IV. हयथ तेज चिते हैं
(4) जयपयदनयोां में तनयव के क्य-क्य िक्षण दिखयई िे ते हैं ?
I. दिमयग की तेज गदत
II.चिने की जगह िौड़नय, बोिने की जगह बकनय
III. प्रदतस्पधयम
IV. मयनदसक रोग
(5) "हमयरे जीवन की रफ़्तयर बढ़ गई है ।" - से क्य तयत्पयम है ?
I. अत्यदधक कयमनय के कयरण बहुत अदधक कयम करनय
II.ज्ययिय पैसे कमयने के दिए अत्यदधक कयम करनय
III. अपने रयष्टर को िु दनयय कय श्रेष्ठ रयष्टर बनने की होड़ करनय
IV. उपयुमति सभी

130
 णन क न
प प क
10 क र 30 40 ए 2x2=4
1
?
2

-
-

11 ए ए क र 60 70 ए (4)
1 “ “
?

12 ए ए क र 60 70 ए 2x3=6
(I)

(II)

(III) ,

नकर
13 अन न
ए ए क क र पर न क एक पर अन
ए (6)
1. समय अमूल् धन है
• समय िौर्तय नहीां • उदचत समय कय ियभ िेनय आवश्यक • कोई उियहरण
2. तेते पयाँ व पसयररए जेती िांबी सौर
• सूस्तति कय आशय • ियिच व महत्वयकयां क्षयएाँ • महाँ गयई के िौर में जरूरी
3. मयतृभयषय के प्रदत बढ़ती अदभरुदच
• मयतृभयषय क्य है • मयतृभयषय -दशक्षय कय उपयुति मयध्यम • घर्ती रूदच के दवदभन्न कयरण

131
14 प न (5)
वन-दवभयग द्वयरय िगयए गए वृक्ष सूखते जय रहे हैं । इस समस्य की ओर ध्ययन आकृष्ट करते हुए
दकसी प्रदसद्ध िै दनक पत्र के सांपयिक को पत्र दिस्तखए।
अर्वा
झुग्गी-झोांपड़ी बिी में सयमयन्य सुदवधयओां को जुर्यने की प्रयथमनय करने हे तु दिल्ली नगर दनगम
के अदधकयरी को पत्र दिस्तखए।

15 न न (5)
दिल्ली की नयर्क मांििी श्रीरयम दथएर्र की ओर से दिखयए जयने वयिे नयर्क 'भगतदसांह' को
िे खने के दिए दवद्यिय नयर्क पररषि् के सदचव की ओर से सूचनय िे ते हुए समय,्थयन आदि
की जयनकयरी िीदजए।
अर्वा
आप दवद्यिय की किय पररषि के अध्यक्ष हैं । आप अपने दवद्यिय में दचत्रकिय प्रिशमनी
िगवयनय चयहते हैं । इस प्रिशमनी में इच्छु क दचत्रकयरोां को दचत्र भेजने के दिए और अन्य
दवद्यदथमयोां को प्रिशमनी िे खने हे तु सूचनय िीदजए।

16 पन न (5)
मोबयइि कय नयय शोरूम खु िय है -'न्यू जेन मोबयइल्स'। सभी प्रकयर के मोबयइल्स की खरीि के
दिए दवज्ञयपन तैययर कीदजए।
अथवय
अपने दपतयजी की पुरयनी कयर की दबिी हे तु दववरण िे ते हुए िगभग 50 शब्दोां में एक
दवज्ञयपन दिस्तखए |

17 क ए
क र पर क ए (5)
'ईमयनियरी' शीषमक पर 100-120 शब्दोां में एक िघु कथय दिस्तखए |
अथवय
'घमांिी रयजकुमयरी' शीषमक पर 100-120 शब्दोां में एक िघु कथय दिस्तखए |

***********

132
 mRrj vafdr ;kstuk & vH;kl izJ i= & 3
अ
प्रश्न 1- निम्ननिखित दो गद्यांश से निसी एि िय अभ्ययस ियर्य पूरय िरें 5x1=5
1 ख, पत्रकारिता की मंडी,
2 ख, मीडडया के प्रभाव से
3 ख, मीडडया में पहले भी भ्रष्टाचाि था
4 ग,कामकाज की शैली बदल गई
5 घ, कममधािय

गद्ां श 2
1 क, आधु डिक बििे के
2- घ, अपिे आप को आधु डिक साडबत डकया है
3- ख,पडिमी समाज के पास साइं स है
4- घ, कोई भाषा डकसी दू सिी भाषा से शब्द तो लेती है लेडकि व्याकिण अपिा प्रयुक्त किती है
5- ग, डवज्ञाि में उन्नडत कििा ही आधु डिक होिे का मािदं ड िहीं है

प्रश्न 2, डिम्नडलखखत दो गद्ां श में डकसी एक को ध्याि पूवमक पड़िए औि उस पि आधारित प्रश्नों के
उत्ति दीडजए
गद्ां श 1
1- ग, घटिाएं
2- घ, बच्ों के आसपास मौजूद परिवेश की
3- घ, कहािी की घटिाओं को याद िखें ताडक आगे की कहािी से जुडा जा सके
4- घ, लोक कथाओं में लोक तत्व होता है
5- घ,बच्े भी कहािी के बािे में लगभग उसी तिह सोचते हैं डजस तिह कहािी में घटिाएं घटती
है

गद्ां श 2
1- ख, दे ि से िसोई घि में पहं चिे की
2- ग सब समाि स्ति के हो
3- ग, कािूि डकसी तिह का भेदभाव िहीं किता
4- ख, ताडक लोग समय से भोजि किें औि डियम का पालि किें
5- घ, सामूडहक जीवि का महत्व पता चलता था

व्ययवहयररि व्ययिरण (16)

प्रश्न 3. डिम्नडलखखत पााँ च भागों में से डकन्ीं चाि भागों के उत्ति दीडजए: 4x1=4
1- ख. डवशेषण पदबंध
2- ख जा िही थी
3- ख. पााँ च
4- घ. डिया-डवशेषण पदबंध
5- घ. शब्द

133
प्रश्न 4. डिम्नडलखखत पााँ च भागों में से डकन्ीं चाि भागों के उत्ति दीडजए: 4x1=4
1- IV. डमश्र वाक्य
2- III. जब गली में शोि हआ, तब सब लोग बाहि आ गए।
3- I. मयंक सुंदि औि हं समुख है ।
4- III. मैं इतिा थक गया डक चल िहीं पाया।
5- III.डवदे श में िहते हए भी मेिा मि अभी भी भाित में है ।

प्रश्न 5. डिम्नडलखखत पााँ च भागों में से डकन्ीं चाि भागों के उत्ति दीडजए: 4x1=4
1- I. संबंध तत्पुरुष समास
2- IV. पिलोक को गमि - तत्पुरुष समास
3- IV. यथावडध
4- III. मृग के समाि ियि - कममधािय समास
5- III. पंचािि

प्रश्न 6. डिम्नडलखखत चािों भागों के उत्ति दीडजए: 4x1=4

1- ||. आसमाि डसि पि उठा डलया
2- I. मजा चखा
3- I. सातवें आसमाि
4- II. अपिा ही िाग अलापते

प्रश्न 7. निम्ननिखित पद्यांश िो पढ़िर सवययनिि उपर्ुक्त नविल्ोां िय चर्ि िीनिए: 4x1=4
1- I. मिुष्य मयत्र िो अपिय भयई समझिय
2- IV. सभी पिमेश्वि की सं ताि होिे से
3- II. मािव की कमम डभन्नता के कािण
4- III. भाई की भाई के प्रडत कुडटलता

प्रश्न 8. डिम्नडलखखत गद्ां श को प़िकि प्रश्नों के सवाम डधक उपयुक्त डवकल्ों का चयि कीडजए: 5x1=5
1- IV. उपयुमक्त सभी
2- III. मिुष्य दालािों-आाँ गिों को छोडकि डडब्बे जैसे घिों में िहिे लगे
3- II. वाताविण में अडधक गिमी, बेवक्त बारिश, आाँ डधयााँ , िोग आडद फैले
4- II.छोटे डडब्बों के-से घिों में िहिा 5- III. अब कहााँ दू सिे के दु ुःख से दु खी होिे वाले - डिदा
फाजली

प्रश्न 9. डिम्नडलखखत गद्ां श को प़िकि प्रश्नों के सवाम डधक उपयक्त डवकल्ों का चयि कीडजए: 5x1=5
1- I. सडिय िागरिक बििे की
2- I. जापािी लोगो को मािडसक बीमारिया अडधक हैं
3- III. उिका डदमाग बहत तेज गडत से चलता है
4- II. चलिे की जगह दौडिा, बोलिे की जगह बकिा
5- IV. उपयुमक्त सभी

134
 िांड-ब वणयियत्मि प्रश्न
पयठ्य-पुस्ति एवां पूरि पयठ्य-पुस्ति (14)
प्रश्न 10. निम्ननिखित प्रश्नोां में से निन्ी ां 2 प्रश्नोां िे उत्तर िगभग 25-30 शब्ोां में निखिए:2x2=4
1- ns’k esa ,drk dk vHkko & /ku dk ykyp & ,d dks nwljs ij bZ”;kZ & ‘kfDr
dk deh & lkFk esa gekjs ns’k dh ,s’o;Z dk ykyp vaxzsft;ksa dks Fkk
2& सहन न स न न सन सहन
ह न सहन ह
ह सह न ह ह ह न न
ह नस स स न ह न

3& स स ह इन हस न न
सन सह न ह
न ह

प्रश्न 11. निम्ननिनित प्रश्न का उत्तर िगभग 60-70 शब्दों में निनिए: 1x4=4
ns’kokfl;ksa & vius lkal ds var rd yMrs jgusokys flikb;ksa dh dkfQys
dks c<k, & mudh e`R;q dks Hkh euk,
प्रश्न 12. निम्ननिनित प्रश्नों में से ककन्हीं 2 प्रश्नों के उत्तर िगभग 40-50 शब्दों में निनिए: 2x3=6
1- nkslrh ls tqMus ij & d{kk uoe esa Qsy gksus ij & ijhJe djus dk eu
gqvk & thou ds eqlhcrksa dks lkeuk djus dk <`< fo’okl gqbZ
2 dqN dk;Zdyk esa tqMsa & [ksy esa eu cgyk,a & euks Hkkoksa dk vius fLFkj ij
j[kus yk;d dke djsa
3 ys[kd NksVs mej ls nkslrh & blfy, dkdk lc dqN dgus dk tksj Mkysa
& Hkkb;ksa ds lkFk ppkZ rks de Fkk & dkdk vius d”V u crk, & egar ds
ckgjh O;ogkj ls /kks[kk [kk, & vlyh :I tkuus ij vQlksl gq,
लेखि (26)
प्रश्न 13. निम्ननिखित में से निसी 1 नवषर् पर नदए गए सांिेत-नबांदुओ ां िे आियर पर िगभग
80-100 शब्ोां में एि अिुच्छेद निखिए: 1x6=6
निषयिस्तु - 3 िततिी शुद्ध - 1 भाषा ज्ञाि – 2

प्रश्न 14. पत्र डलखखए।

Izkk:Ik & 1]
ijh{kk Hkou
ubZ fnYyh & 007
fnukad & 24 ebZ -20----
lsok esa]
laiknd
VsaEl nSfud if=dk
ubZ fnYyh & 007

135
fo”k; & o`{kkjksiu dh tkudkjh ds laca/k esa

egksn;]
eSa panuiwj ftyk dk fuoklh gw¡AA c<+rh gqbZ ;g xfeZ;ksa ds fnuksa esa
lM+d ds vkl&ikl esa ou foHkkx yxk, x, isMksa ls ;gk¡ ds yksxksa dks Nk;k
vkSj lgk;rk feyrk gSA ysfdu vc dqN fnuksa ls ;g ekyqe gksrk gS fd
o`{kksa dh j{kk esa /;ku deh gqbZ gS] lw[kus yxsa gSaA blh fo”k; dks ys[kj ge
fpafrr gSa] ftlds dkj.k okrkoj.k fcxM+ jgk gSA bu o`{kksa ds ns[kHkky vkSj
j{kk ij t+jk dk;Zokgh djus ds fy, vuqjksn djrsa gSaSA
gekjs rjQ+ ls fouez izkFkZuk gS fd vki bl fo”k; dks vki vius
if=dk esa Nkius dh d”V ysa rFkk lHkh dks ;g tkudkjh feysaA
l/kU;oknA
Hkonh;
då[kåxå vFkok
Ik= ys[ku
Izkk:Ik & 2]
ijh{kk Hkou
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fnukad & 24 ebZ -20----

lsok esa]
vf/kdkjh
uxj fuxe foHkkx
jke Ukxj
ubZ fnYyh & 007

fo”k; & >ksaiM+h esa lqfo/kk,¡ ds laca/k esa

egksn;]
lfou; fuosnu gS fd eSa jkeuxj dk fuoklh gw¡AA gekjs eksgYys esa
>ksaiMh esa jgus okyksa dh lqfo/kk,¡ cgqr de gS ftlds dkj.k eSa fpafrr gw¡]
tk¡p djus ij irk pyk fd lqj{kk Hkh de gSA blfy, esjs rjQ+ ls fouez
izkFkZuk gS fd ,slh fLFkfr esa vki tyn ls bl ds fy, lq>ko djsaA
l/kU;oknA
Hkonh;
då[kåxå
136
प्रश्न 15 सूचिा
Jhjke R,Vj] fnYyh
Lwkpuk
fo/;ky; ukVd ifj”kn~
fnukad & 10 Qjojh 20---
vke turk dks ;g lwfpr fd;k tkrk gS fd vxys gQrs esa ^ Hkxrflag
*ukVd dk vk;kstu gksxk।
le; vkSj LFkku dk fooj.k uhps fn;k gqvk gS।
fnukad & 15 Qjojh 20---
le; & ‘kke 5 cts
fVdV dk [kpZ & 50 gj ,d O;fDr ds fy,
LFkku & fo/;ky; lHkk?kj
Lfpo
då[kåx
gLrk{kj

Jhjke fo/;ky;] fnYyh

Lwkpuk
fp=dyk iznf’kZuh~
fnukad & 10 Qjojh 20---
vke turk dks ;g lwfpr fd;k tkrk gS fd vxys gQrs esa ^ iznf’kZuh~ *
vk;kstu gksxk। bPNqd yksx vius fp= dk izn’kZu djsa ,oa ns[kus Hkh vk
ldsa। le; vkSj LFkku dk fooj.k uhps fn;k gqvk gS।
fnukad & 15 Qjojh 20---
le; & lcsjs 7 cts ls
LFkku & fo/;ky; lHkk?kj
fp= tek djus dk vafre fnu & 13 Qjojh 20---
Lfpo
då[kåx
gLrk{kj

प्रश्न 16. डवज्ञापि तैयाि कीडजए।

निषयिस्तु - 3 िततिी शुद्ध - 1 प्रस्तुतीकरण - 1

प्रश्न 17. लघु कथा डलखखए |

निषयिस्तु - 3 िततिी शुद्ध - 1 भाषा ज्ञाि - 1

***********

137
 SOCIAL SCIENCE

Duration: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There

are 32 questions in the question paper. All questions are
compulsory.
(ii) Section A – Question no. 1 to 16 are Objective Type Questions of 1
mark each.
(iii) Section B – Question no. 17 to 22 are short answer type questions,
carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed
80 words.
(iv) Section C – Question no. 23 to 26 are source based questions,
carrying 4 marks each.
(v) Section D – Question no. 27 to 31 are long answer type questions,
carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed
120 words.
(vi) Section E – Question no. 32 is map based, carrying 5 marks with
two parts, 32.1 from History (2 marks) and 32.2 from Geography (3
marks).
(vii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an
internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the
choices in such questions have to be attempted.
(viii) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section
and question, wherever necessary.
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1

SECTION – A (1 x 16 = 16)
1. Who said “Cavour, Mazzini, Garibaldi three her brain, her soul, her sword”? 1
A. Victor Emmannual B. George Meredith
C. Louis XVIII D. Guizot
2. Name the state which led the process of Italian unification. 1
A. Rome B. Prussia C. Sardinia Piedmont D. Vienna
3. Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order: 1
I. Coming of Simon Commission to India
II. Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC
III. Government of India Act 1919
IV. Champaran Satyagraha
A. i—iv—iii—ii B. iv—iii—i—ii
C. iv—i—ii-iii D. iii—iv—ii—i
4. Why is terrace cultivation practiced in hilly region? 1
Or/
Which crop is called the ‘golden fibre’ of India?
5. Which two states have witnessed land degradation due to over irrigation? 1
6. Fill in the blank. 1
Barley: Rabi crop, cotton: kharif, ___________________: zaid crop.
A. Wheat B. Mustard C. Soya bean D. Cucumber
7. Identify the soil with the help of the following features. 1
• Found in states like Chhattisgarh, Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura.
• This soil varies from red to brown in colour.
• They are generally sandy in texture.
8. Rearing silkworms for the production of silk is: 1
A. Pisciculture B. Sylviculture C. Sericulture D. Agriculture
9. 59 per cent of the country‘s total population who speaks Dutch, lives in : 1
A. Wallonia region B. Brussels
C. Flemish region D. None of these
10. Correct the following statement and rewrite: 1
In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance of
the Tamil-speaking
Or/
Correct the following statement and rewrite:
In Belgium, the majority French-speaking community was relatively rich and
powerful as compared to Dutch.

138
11. Which large country has not followed federalism and why? 1
Or/
Which administrative authority legislates on Residuary subjects?
12. Read the given data and find out which country has most equitable distribution
of income. 1

13. Choose the incorrect option from the following:

List 1 List 2
A. Courier Tertiary Sector
B. Fisherman Primary Sector
C. Carpenter Primary sector
D. Banker Tertiary Sector
Or/
Arrange the following in the correct sequence
I. People began to use many more goods that were produced in factories.
II. In the past 100 years, there has been a further shift in sectors in developed
countries. The service sector has become the most important in terms of total
production.
III. At initial stages of development, primary sector was the most important
sector of economic activity
IV. Over a long time (more than hundred years) the people who had earlier
worked on farms now began to work in factories in large numbers.
A. i—iv—iii—ii B. iii—iv—i—ii
C. iv—i—ii—iii D. iii—iv—ii—i
14. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A)
and Reason (R). Read the statements and chose the correct option: 1
Assertion (A): A large number of workers are forced to enter the unorganized
sector jobs, which pay a very low salary. They are often exploited and not paid
a fair wage.

139
 Reason (R): The unorganized sector is characterized by small and scattered
units. These are largely outside the control of the government. There are rules
and regulations but these are not followed.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
15. The common route for investments by MNCs in countries around the world is
to 1
A. Set up new factories.
B. Buy existing local companies.
C. Form partnerships with local companies.
D. All or above
16. Give one reason why the infant mortality rate in Kerala is less than Bihar? 1

SECTION: B (3 x 6 = 18)
17. Discuss the Salt March to make clear why it was an effective symbol of
resistance against colonialism. 3
18. Who was Garibaldi? What were his main achievements? 3
Or/
How did culture play an important role in creating the idea of the nation in
Europe? Explain it by giving examples.
19. Explain some Human activities which are mainly responsible for land
degradation in India. 3
20. Distinguish between coming together federation and holding together
federation. 3
Or/
“A major step towards decentralization was taken in 1992.” Explain the
statement by giving suitable examples.
21. Differentiate between demand deposits and fixed deposits. 3
22. What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different
countries? What are the limitations of this criterion? 3

140
 SECTION: C (4 x 4 = 16)
23. Economists began to think in terms of the national economy. They talked of
how the nation could develop and what economic measures could help forge
this nation together. Friedrich List, Professor of Economics at the University of
Tubingen in Germany, wrote in 1834: ‘The aim of the zollverein is to bind the
Germans economically into a nation. It will strengthen the nation materially as
much by protecting its interests externally as by stimulating its internal
productivity. It ought to awaken and raise national sentiment through a fusion
of individual and provincial interests. The German people have realised that a
free economic system is the only means to engender national feeling.’
23.1. What was the aim of the zollverein in Germany?
23.2. What have German people realized?
23.3. How can a country become stronger?
23.4. Who was Friedrich List?
24. Chhotanagpur plateau region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel
industries. It is largely, because of the relative advantages this region has for
the development of this industry. These include,cost of iron ore, high grade raw
materials in proximity, cheap labour and vast growth potential in the home
market. Though, India is an important iron and steel producing country in the
world yet, we are not able to perform to our full potential largely due to: (a)
High costs and limited availability of coking coal (b) Lower productivity of
labour (c) Irregular supply of energy and (d) Poor infrastructure.
24.1. In which region is maximum iron and steel industries concentrated?
24.2. Why is cheap labour available in this region?
24.3. Why are we not able to perform to our full potential largely?
24.4. Why are most of iron and steel industries located in this region?
25. Democracies are based on political equality. All individuals have equal right in
electing representatives. Parallel to the process of bringing individuals into the
political arena on an equal footing, we find growing economic inequalities. A
small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and
incomes. Not only that, their share in the total income of the country has been
increasing. Those at the bottom of the society have very little to depend upon.
Their incomes have been declining. Sometimes they find it difficult to meet
their basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, house, education and health.
25.1. Democracies are based on which type of equality?
25.2. Why do all individuals have equal right in electing representatives in a
democracy?
25.3. What are the basic needs of life?
25.4. Why do those at the bottom of the society, have very little resources?

141
26. In recent years, the central and state governments in India are taking special
steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India. Industrial zones, called
SEZ, are being set up. SEZs are to have world class facilities: electricity, water,
roads, transport, storage, recreational and educational facilities. Companies
who set up production units in the SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial
period of five years. Government has also allowed flexibility in the labour laws
to attract foreign investment. Companies in the organised sector have to obey
certain rules that aim to protect the workers’ rights. In the recent years, the
government has allowed companies to ignore many of these. Instead of hiring
workers on a regular basis, companies hire workers ‘flexibly’ for short periods
when there is intense pressure of work. This is done to reduce the cost of
labour for the company. However, still not satisfied, foreign companies are
demanding more flexibility in labour laws.
26.1. Expand SEZ.
26.2. What steps have been taken by the government to attract foreign
companies?
26.3. What type of facilities are provided in Special Economic Zones?
26.4. What are the demands of foreign companies?

SECTION: D (5 x 5 = 25)
27. Examine the aims and methods of Non-Cooperation. How did the movement
make a difference from earlier movement? 5
OR/
Examine the Satyagraha movement organized by Gandhiji between1916-18.
28. Why are the means of transport and communication called the lifelines of a
nation and its economy? 5
Or/
Why are the railways so important today?
29. What are the various functions of political parties in modern times? Explain. 5
30. What are the different forms of power sharing in modern democracies? Give an
example of each of these. 5
31. Why is the tertiary sector becoming more important in India? Explain. 5
Or/
What are the differences in the employment conditions between organized and
unorganized sectors of the economy?

142
 SECTION – E (1 x 5 = 5)
32.1. Two places A and B are marked on the outline political map of India, identify
these places with the help of following information 1+1=2
a. A place where Indian National Congress Session was held in Dec. 1920.
b. A place where Satyagraha Movement of indigo planters took place.

32.2. Locate & label the following places on the same map.
a. Salal dam
b. Oldest port
c. Noida
d. Narora

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143
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1

SECTION – A (1 x 16 = 16)
1. B. George Meredith 1
2. C. Sardinia Piedmont 1
3. B. iv—iii—i—ii 1
4. to check soil erosion through water current on the slopes/ Jute 1
5. Punjab, Haryana, 1
6. D. Cucumber 1
7. Arid Soil 1
8. C. Sericulture 1
9. C.Flemish region 1
10. In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government sought to ensure the dominance 1
of the Sinhala speakers/ In Belgium the minority French speaking
community was relatively rich and powerful than the dutch speaking
community.
11. China has communist based government, having unitary system./ Union 1
government
12. A. Country A 1
13. C. Carpenter 3. Primary sector or B. iii—iv—i—ii 1
14. A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A. 1
15. B. Buy existing local companies. 1
16. The state of Kerala has adequate provision of basic health and educational 1
facilities.

SECTION: B (3 x 6 = 18)
17.  Mahatma Gandhi found salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. 3
 Gandhiji sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. The most
stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax.
 Salt was an essential item of food and was consumed by rich and poor
alike.
 Irwin was unwilling to negotiate, so Gandhiji started Salt march with 78
volunteers. (On 6th April ) he reached Dandi, violated the law and made
salt.
 This march developed the feeling of nationalism, people in different parts
of the country broke the salt law and manufactured salt and demonstrated
in front of government salt factories.
18.  a famous Italian freedom fighter. He managed a large number of 3
volunteers apart from regular troops.
 In 1860, they marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of the two
Sicilies and succeeded in winning the support of the local peasants in order
to drive out the Spanish rulers.
 He supported Victor Emmanuel II in his efforts to unify the Italian states
and in 1861 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed king of united Italy.
(OR)

144
 (Any 3 points)
 Art, poetry, stories and music helped express and shape nationalist
feelings in-Europe.
 Romanticism, a cultural movement in Europe developed a particular
form of nationalist sentiment.
 .German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder claimed that true German
culture was to be discovered among the common people (das volk) in
their folk song, folk poetry and folk dances.
 Vernacular languages and folklores strengthen the national spirit.
 In Poland Karol Kurpinski celebrated the national struggle through
opera and music.
 Allegory of Germania and Marianne developed national feelings
among citizens.
19.  In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Orissa 3
deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation.
 .In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation.
 In Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh over-irrigation is
responsible for land degradation. It leads to water logging which in turn
increases salinity and alkalinity in the soil and reduces its fertility.
20. (Any 3 points) 3
 USA, Switzerland and Australia are examples of coming together
federations.
 India, Belgium and Spain are examples of holding together federations.
 'Coming together' federation is nothing but independent states coming
together on their own to form a bigger state or country.
 Holding together federation is nothing but the division of powers
between the states of the country and central government of that
country.
 All the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis-à-
vis the federal government in coming together federation.
 The central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the States
in holding together federation.
20. (Any 3 points) 3
 It was made obligatory to hold elections for choosing members of local
governmental institutions
 Seats were reserved for people belonging to scheduled castes and
scheduled tribes and other backward classes in local bodies.
 One-third of the seats are reserved for women.
 State Election Commission was constituted in the states for holding
elections in local government bodies.
 It was made mandatory for the State Governments to share powers and
revenues with local bodies

145
21. 3

22. Main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries is 3
average/ per capita income.
According to the World Bank Report July 1st 2020 (new), countries are
classified as follows:
 Rich countries :Countries with per capita income of $ 12,535 per
annum and above in 2020 are called rich countries
 Upper-middle income countries: Countries with per capita income
between
 $ 4,045 – 12,535 are called low-middle income countries.
 Low-middle income countries: Countries with per capita income of
between $ 1036-4045 are called low-middle income countries.
 Poor or Low income countries: Countries with less than $ 1036 are
called poor countries.
 Calculated by the
PCM = Total Income
Population

SECTION: C (4 x 4 = 16)
23. 23.1. to bind the Germans economically into a nation 1
23.2. a free economic system is the only means to engender national feeling.’ 1
23.3. strengthen the nation materially as much by 1
protecting its interests externally as by stimulating its internal productivity 1
23.4. Professor of Economics at the University of Tubingen in Germany
24. 24.1. Chhotanagpur plateau region 1
24.2. Availability of cheap labour from the surrounding areas of West 1
Bengal, Jharkhand, and West Bengal
24.3. (a) High costs and limited availability of coking coal (b) Lower 1
productivity of labour (c) Irregular supply of energy and (d) Poor
infrastructure
24.4. , because of the relative advantages this region has for the development 1
of this industry. These include, cost of iron ore, high grade raw materials in
proximity, cheap labour and vast growth potential in the home market
25. 25.1. political equality 1
25.2. As the equality is the main feature of democracy, we have equal rights 1

146
 to elect our representatives
25.3. food, clothing, house, education and health 1
25.4. A small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly 1
disproportionate share of wealth and incomes.
26. 26.1. Special Economic Zones 1
26.2 No Permission for sub-contracting 1
26.3 electricity, water, roads, transport, storage, recreational and educational 1
facilities.
26.4 Flexible labour laws 1

SECTION: D (5 x 5 = 25)
27.  Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India with 5
the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this
cooperation. If Indians refused to co-operate, British rule in India would
collapse within a year, and swaraj would come. Gandhiji believed that if
Indians begin to refuse to cooperate, the British rulers will have no other
way than to leave India.
Some of the proposals of Non-Cooperation Movement:
 Surrender the titles which were awarded by the British government.
 Boycott civil services, army, police, courts, legislative councils and
schools.
 Boycott foreign goods.
 Launch full civil disobedience campaign, if the government persisted
with repressive measures.
 The movement started in 1916 from Champaran Bihar, where Gandhiji 5
inspired the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation
system.
 In 1917, he took up the cause of the peasants of Kheda district of Gujarat
to fight for reduction of revenue through Satyagraha Movement.
 The third movement was held in 1918. Gandhiji went to Ahmedabad to
organise a satyagraha movement amongst the cotton mill workers whose
conditions were miserable.
 These movements were the first mass movements in Indian National
Movement. These inculcated self confidence and a spirit to fight against
injustice among people.
28.  Lifelines of a human being are his veins. They carry blood in all the 5
parts the body and keep them hale and healthy.
 Likewise means of transport and communication bring all the regions of
a country closer and develop them equally.
 The means of transportation and communication are called the lifelines
of a nation and its economy because they are the preconditions for
progress and development.
 A country 's economy depends not only on the production and sale of

147
 goods and services, but on their transport as well
 A country makes tremendous progress because of its developed means
of transport and communication. Without these all the developmental
activities will come to an end and the country would meet its doom.
 Indian Railways carry most of the long distance passenger traffic and 5
80% of the total freight of the country.
 Iron and Steel industry solely depends upon the railways to transport raw
materials and finished goods of the industry from one place to another.
 The Indian Railways provide employment for huge number of people in
the country
 Railways play a significant role in the integration of the country by
bringing different people of different region together
 They carry big chunks of good from the place of production to the ports
and vice versa.
29.  Candidates are put forward by political parties to contest in elections. These 5
candidates may be chosen by the top leaders, or by members of the party.
 Parties put forward their policies and programs for voters to choose from
them.
 Political parties play a major role in making laws for the country. No law
can become a bill unless majority parties support it.
 Political parties form and run governments.
 Parties that lose election play the role of opposition party in power.
 Parties shape public opinion.
 Political parties form an important link between the government and the
people. It is easy for the public to approach their local leader than a
government official. The local leader has to listen to the public demand,
otherwise, he will lose the next election.
30. Horizontal distribution of power 5
 Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the
Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.
 Example – India This distribution ensures that none of the organs can
exercise and utilise unlimited power.
 Each and every organ keeps an eye on the others.
 This system of arrangement is called a system of checks and balances.
Vertical distribution of power
 Power can be shared among governments at different levels.
 A general central government for the entire country and governments at the
provincial or state and regional level.
 Example – India Union Government that is Central government and State
Government.
Community government
 Power can also be shared among different socially active groups such as the
religious and linguistic groups.
 Example – Belgium

148
 Power-sharing between political parties, pressure groups and movements
 This kind of power-sharing competition ensures that power does not remain
in one single hand.
 For longer duration, power is shared among different political parties that
represent different ideologies and social groups.
31. - increase in GDP in tertiary sector - due to economic development, income 5
of people increases.
- It results in more demand for services like tourism, shipping, private
schools and hospitals etc.
It helps primary and secondary sectors to develop by providing services
such as transportation, communication, banking, infrastructure etc. This
leads to more employment opportunities.
- enhances the income level,
- rise in income people start demanding more services like tourism,
shopping, eating out, private hospitals etc. Certain new services based on
information technology.
- three sectors are dependent on one another.
- Development of one sector leads to the development of other sector

B.
Organised Sector Unorganised Sector
a.) Job security -Lack of proper job security
b) regular monthly salary - workers are pad daily / hourly
c) Rules & regulations are strictly wages
adhered -No rules and regulations are
d) Workers get benefits like followed
Provident fund, paid leave and other -no benefits to employees
medical benefits.
e) Fixed working hours - no fixed hours (10-12 hours)
f ) has formal processes and - no formal process or procedure
procedures -lack of favourable working
g) favourable working conditions conditions

SECTION – E (1 x 5 = 5)
32.1 a. Nagpur b. Champeran 2

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149
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2

SECTION – A (1 x 16 = 16)
1. What was this main objective of the treaty of Vienna of 1815? 1
a) To undo the changes brought about in Europe during Napoleonic war.
b) To plan the unification of Germany
c) To restore the democracy in Europe.
d) To overthrow the Bourbon dynasty
2. Which sentence best explains the Utopian Society? 1
a) A society where everyone is equal
b) A society with a comprehensive constitution
c) An idealist society which can never be achieved
d) A democratic society
3. The resolution of Purna Swaraj was adopted at which Congress session? 1
Or
Who organized the Dalits into Depressed Class Association in 1930?
4. If there are five persons in a family and their total income is Rs 20000/-What would
be the average income of each person? 1
a) Rs-6000/- b) Rs-4000/- c) Rs-5000/- d) Rs-10000/-
5. Which among the following is a feature of unorganized sector? 1
a) Fixed number of work hours. b) Paid holidays
c) Employment is insecure d) Registered with the government
6. ________ is an asset that the borrower owns and uses as a guarantee until the loan is
repaid to the leader. 1
Or
________ issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government.
7. Raghav has surplus money so he opens a bank account and deposits in it. Whenever
he needs money, he can go to his bank and withdraw from there. This kind of deposit
with the banks are known as 1
a) Demand deposit b) Term deposit
c) Fixed deposit d)Surplus deposit.

150
10. Which crop is grown with the onset of monsoon and are harvested in September-
October? 1
11. Fill in the blank-
Barley: Rabi crop, cotton: kharif, zaid crop: ?
a) Wheat b) Mustard c) Soya bean d) Muskmelon 1
12. Which state is the leading producer of jute products in India? 1
13. Which one of the following is correct regarding power sharing? 1
a) It leads to conflict between different groups
b) It ensures the stability of the country
c) It helps to reduce the conflict between different groups
a) Only A is true b) Only B is true
c) Both A & B are true d) Both B & C are true
14. Political parties can be reformed by
a) Reducing the role of muscle power b)Reducing the role of money
c) State funding of election d)All of the above

16. Define net sown area 1

Or
What is commercial farming?

SECTION: B (3 x 6 = 18)
17. What was the impact of Treaty of Vienna (1815) on European people? Write any
three points. 3
18. What are the major attributes of development considered by UNDP in making the
Human Development Report? Explain the importance of each of these attribute 3
19. In India, about 80 percent of farmers are small farmers, who need credit for
cultivation. 3
1) Why might banks be unwilling to lend to small farmers?
2) What are the other sources from which the small farmers can borrow?
3) How can the terms of credit be unfavourable for the small farmer?

151
20. The pattern of the net sown area varies greatly from one state to another. It is over
80percent of the total area in Punjab and Haryana and less than 10 percent in
Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Mention
any three reasons for the low proportion of net sown area in these states. 3
21. Why did federalism succeed in India? Which three policies adopted by India have
ensured this success? 3
Or
Describe any three steps taken by the government towards decentralization in the
year 1992.
22. When and where did Massacre of Jallianwala occur? Write an evolutionary note on
this massacre. 3
Or
Explain any three features of Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930.

SECTION: C (4 x 4 = 16)
23. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
‘A Nation is the culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A
heroic past, grant men, glory, that is the social capital upon which one bases a
national idea. To have common glories in the past, to have a common will in the
present , to have performed great deeds together, to wish to perform still more , these
are the essential conditions of being a people. A nation is therefore a large –scale
solidarity… Its existence is a daily plebiscite..A province is its inhabitants; if anyone
has the right to be consulted, it is the inhabitant. A nation never has any real interest
in annexing or holding on to a country against its will. The existence of nations is a
good thing, a necessary even. Their existence is a guarantee of liberty, which would
be lost if the world had only one law and only one master.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
23.1. From whose speech have these words been quoted?
Or
What was the theme of the above passage?
23.2. Pick out the correct definition to define the term ' Plebiscite '
a) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which only the female members of a region are
asked to accept or reject a proposal
b) Plebiscite is a direct vote by the female members of a matriarchal system to
accept or reject a proposal.
c) Plebiscite is a direct vote by only a chosen few from the total population of
a particular region to accept or reject a proposal
d) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the citizens of a region are asked to
accept or reject a proposal.
23.3 Examine the concept of ‘nation’ as given in the above passage.
23.4 Why is the existence of a nation necessity?

152
24. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
Globalization has had far-reaching effects on our lifestyle. It has led to faster access
to technology, improved communication and innovation. Globalization has also
created some areas of concern, and prominent among these is the impact that it has
had on the environment. Activists have pointed out that globalization has led to an
increase in the consumption of products, which has impacted the ecological cycle.
Increased consumption leads to an increase in the production of goods, which in turn
puts stress on the environment. Globalization has also led to an increase in the
transportation of raw materials and food from one place to another. Earlier, people
used to consume locally-grown food, but with globalization, people consume
products that have been developed in foreign countries. The amount of fuel that is
consumed in transporting these products has led to an increase in the pollution levels
in the environment. It has also led to several other environmental concerns such as
noise pollution and landscape intrusion. Transportation has also put a strain on the
non-renewable sources of energy, such as gasoline. The gases that are emitted from
the aircraft have led to the depletion of the ozone layer apart from increasing the
greenhouse effect. The industrial waste that is generated as a result of production has
been laden on ships and dumped in oceans. This has killed many underwater
organisms and has deposited many harmful chemicals in the ocean. Globalization is a
process of globalization that participates in the exchange of information, material
goods and ideas throughout the world. Since 1960, there has been an acceleration of
international exchanges and the dissemination of the same political, cultural and
economic models. Global trade growth is based on intensive exploitation of natural
resources and on polluting modes of production and transport. However,
globalization also allows the growth and development of new markets: this is the
case for fair trade.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.
24.1 Globalisation is partly responsible for environmental damage. Choose the
correct option which supports the given statement:
a) Globalisation indirectly promotes CO2 emissions linked to industrial
activity and consumption.
b) Globalisation encourages deforestation
c) By impoverishing biodiversity
d) Globalisation promotes CO2 emissions from transport.
e) All of these.
24.2. ‘The impact of Globalisation has not been fair.’ Who among the following
people have not benefited from globalisation?
(a) Well off consumers (b) Small producers and workers (c) Skilled and
educated producers (d) Large wealthy producers
24.3. Which of the following is not a beneficial outcome of the globalization
process?
a) The redistribution of wealth, addressing disparities in economic and
resource allocation across the globe through a sense of greater
'interconnectedness'

153
 b) The growing sense of global community, resulting in super-national
identities that result from populations feeling closer to one another
c) The sharing of ideas, technologies and resources that can directly benefit
human security, such as medical advancements
d) A global market that has demonstrated the ability, if left unchecked, to
reduce poverty and make substantial economic gains
24.4 Which of the following statements best describes our understanding of the
term 'globalization'?
a) Globalization refers to the process by which shared hegemonic values
pervade societies across the globe, drawing them into an ideological
community, most often based on the economic principles of capitalism.
b) Best described as intensification of worldwide social relations and
increasing interdependence, globalization is the result of the compression of
space and time through the development of new technologies.
c) Globalization is best described as the 'shrinking' of the global community,
drawing people into closer contact with one another primarily at the economic
and technical levels.
d) Globalization process is a direct result of technological advancement in
communications and travel industries that facilitate the efficient transportation
of physical objects, people and ideas across the globe
25. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and stands at second place as
an exporter after Bangladesh. There are about 70 jute mills in India. Most of these are
located in West Bengal, mainly along the banks of the hoogly river. In a narrow belt
(98 km long and 3 km wide).The jute industry supports 2.61 lakh workers directly
and another 40 lakhs small and marginal farmers who are engaged in cultivation of
jute. Many more people are associated indirectly.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
25.1 Which country is the largest exporter of jute in the world?
A. India B. Brazil C. Bangladesh D. Thailand
25.2. When was the first jute mill set up in Kolkata?
A. 1869 B.1870 C.1859 D. 1855
25.3. Write any two factors responsible for the location of jute mills in the Hoogly
basin.
25.4. The National Jute Policy (2005)was formulated with the objective of
A. increasing productivity.
B. improving quality.
C. Ensuring good prices to the jute farmers.
D. Enhancing yield per hectare
E. All of these

154
26. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The term Democracy comes from the Greek words dêmos (people) and Kratos
(power). In its literal meaning, democracy means the "rule of the people". In fact it is
a form of government in which all eligible people have an equal say in the decisions
that affect their lives. Equality and freedom have both been identified as important
characteristics of democracy since ancient times. These principles are reflected in all
citizens being equal before the law and having equal access to legislative processes
Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting
dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from
fellow beings. Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they
are not treated with due respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of
democracy. Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in
principle. This has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies. For
societies which have been built for long on the basis of subordination and
domination, it is not a simple matter to recognize that all individuals are equal.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
26.1 Choose the wrong statement about democracy.
A. Promotes equality among citizens
B. Enhances the dignity of the individuals.
C. Provide a method to resolve conflicts
D. Does not have room to correct mistakes.
26.2 Democracy can lead to
A. handle social differences. B. secular society.
C. harmonious social life. D. All of above.
26.3 What does ‘Dignity’ signify ?
26.4 Democracy attain people happiness by
A. Government function to represent general view.
B. equal distribution of resources.
C. better governance
D. All of the above.

SECTION: D (5 x 5 = 25)
27. “The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production “, Mahatma
Gandhi declared ,” revealed the most oppressive face of Bristish rule”. 5
a) Why did Gandhiji consider this tax most oppressive?
b) How did he use this as a weapon to launch a mass movement against the British?
Or
“Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same
nation”. Justify the statement.
28. Suggest and explain any five ways to reform Political Parties in India. 5
29. Highlight the measures adopted by the Belgian Constitution for the prevention of
conflicts in Belgium. 5
30. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state
boundaries”. Support the statement with examples. 5
Or

155
 Imagine yourself as one of the head of the states attending the International Earth
Summit at Rio-de Janeiro, Brazil and suggest some methods for environmental
protection.
31. Differentiate between Formal Source and Informal Source of Credit? 5
Or
Mention the role and functions of RBI.

SECTION – E (1 x 5 = 5)
32.1. On the outline map of India. Plot the following :
A. Indian National Congress Session at this place in SEP 1920
B. Mahatma Gandhi organized a Satyagraha Movement at this place for indigo planters
32.2. On the same outline map of India locate and label any THREE of the following with
suitable Symbols.
a. State with the largest area under black soil.
b. Bhakra Nangal
c. Narora nuclear power plant
d. Bhilai – Iron and steel plant
e. Kandla port

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156
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2

SECTION – A (1 x 16 = 16)
1. a) To undo the changes brought about in Europe during Napoleonic war. 1
2. c) An idealist society which can never be achieved 1
3. Lahore Session,1929 / Dr. Ambedkar 1
4. b)Rs-4000/- 1
5. c) Employment is insecure 1
6. Collateral Or RBI 1
7. a) Demand deposit 1
8. i) b- ii) e- iii) d-iv) c-v) a 1
9. Forest Soil 1
10. Kharif crops 1
11. d) Muskmelon 1
12. West Bengal 1
13. d) Both B & C are true 1
14. d)All of the above 1
15. a)1-A,2-C,3-D,4-B 1
16. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year/ the use of higher doses of 1
modern inputs for higher productivity

SECTION: B (3 x 6 = 18)
17.  The Bourbon dynasty, which had been deposed during the French 3
Revolution, was restored to power.
 France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon. A series of
states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French
expansion in future.
 Thus the kingdom of the Netherlands, which included Belgium, was set
up in the north and Genoa was added to Piedmont in the south.
 Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers.
 Austria was given control of northern Italy.
18. (Any 3 points) 3
The major attributes in making the Human Development Report are:
(i) Per Capita Income (PCI): A nation with high PCI will have a population
with high nutritional levels, have healthy people, as healthcare facilities will
be good and have more educated people, as they will be able to afford better
education.
(ii) Educational levels of the people: They will be able to get better jobs and
higher earnings due to their higher education status.
(iii) Health status: Health will be good and longevity will increase as they
will be able to afford better healthcare facilities. Infant mortality will also
reduce due to better healthcare, resulting in further increase in life
expectancy at birth.
19. Banks might be unwilling to lend small farmers because small farmers 3
usually lack in providing the required documentation for loan processing.
Small farmers may also fail to provide collateral security as requested by the
banks.

157
 (b) Money lenders, relatives, friends, cooperative societies etc.,
(c) Farmers can get credit at cheaper rates of interest from formal sources
of credit like banks and cooperative societies. But providing with collateral
security will be difficult for a small farmer.
20. (Any 3 points) 3
 Mostly tribal group lives in this region. Even today they practice shifting
cultivation.
 These states are covered by dense tropical forests
 These states receive very heavy and a large amount of rainfall.
 The topography and soil types are not favourable for the cultivation.
 These states are still considered as backward where the farmers or
peasants are economically poor and do not have access to technological
resources.
21. (Any 3 points) 3
 Linguistic States : After independence, the boundaries of several old
states were changed in order to create new states. The creation of
linguistic states was the first and a major test for democratic politics in
our country.
 Language Policy : The second test for the Indian federation is the
language policy. The Indian Constitution did not give the status of
national language to any one of the language.
 Centre-State Relations : Restructuring the centre-state relations is one
more way in which federalism has been strengthened in practice.
 Decentralisation of Power : Power in India has been decentralised to the
local government. The local government includes Panchayats in villages
and municipalities in urban areas.
21. (Any 3 points) 3
 It was made obligatory to hold elections for choosing members of local
governmental institutions
 Seats were reserved for people belonging to scheduled castes and
scheduled tribes and other backward classes in local bodies.
 One-third of the seats are reserved for women.
 State Election Commission was constituted in the states for holding
elections in government bodies.
 It was made mandatory for the State Governments to share powers and
revenues with local body.
22.  On 13th April 1919,Amritsar 3
 On 13th April 1919, people gathered in a small park in Amritsar which
was called the Jalllianwala Bagh, to protest against these arrests.
 The peaceful gathering was attended by men, women and children.
General Dyer, a British military officer, stationed a regiment of soldiers
at the only entrance of the park, declared the meeting illegal and without
warning ordered his soldiers to fire.
 The firing lasted for ten minutes, till all the ammunition was exhausted.
More than a thousand people were killed and over twice that number
wounded.

158
22.  Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes. 3
 In many places forest people violated forest laws—going into Reserved
Forests to collect wood and graze cattle.
 Women participated in the movement on a large scale

SECTION: C (4 x 4 = 16)
23. 23.1. Ernst Renan/ ‘What is a Nation?’, emergence of the nation-state 1
23.2. d) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the citizens of a region are 1
asked to accept or reject a proposal.
23.3. ‘A nation is the culmination of a long past of endeavours, sacrifice 1
and devotion.
23.4. a guarantee of liberty, which would be lost if the world had only one 1
law and only one master.’
24. 24.1. e) All of these. 1
24.2. (b) Small producers and workers 1
24.3. a)The redistribution of wealth, addressing disparities in economic and 1
resource allocation across the globe through a sense of greater
'interconnectedness'
24.4. b) Best described as intensification of worldwide social relations and 1
increasing interdependence, globalization is the result of the compression
of space and time through the development of new technologies.
25. 25.1. C. Bangladesh 1
25.2. D. 1855 1
25.3. proximity of the jute producing areas, inexpensive water 1
transport, supported by a good network of railways 1
25.4. E. All of these
26. 26.1. D. Does not have room to correct mistakes. 1
26.2. D. All of above 1
26.3. Every individual should be treated with respect and he should treat 1
others with respect too. 1
26.4. D. All of the above

SECTION: D (5 x 5 = 25)
27. a) salt was something which was a essential part of food item 5
b) As the consumption was high but the salt was expensive Mahatma
Gandhi found salt a very powerful symbol to unite all the people of the
nation
 On 31st January 1930 he sent a letter to Viceroy Irvin stating his 11
demands and one of the most stirring was abolishion of salt tax
 Viceroy was unwilling to negotiate Mahatma Gandhi started his famous
salt march accompanied by his 78 Trustee volunteers for A 240 miles
walk from Sabarmati to Dandi for 24 days
 On 6th April he reached Dandi and ceremonially violated the law by
manufacturing salt by boiling sea water.
 This increased many others to do the same thousand peoples in the
different part of the countries broke the salt law by manufacturing salt
and demonstrate it in front of the salt manufacturing company set up by
the British.

159
  United Struggle Different religious groups and communities unitedly struggled 5
against the British rule.
 Cultural Processes Unity spread through various cultural processes like
history, folklore, songs and symbols that helped in spread of nationalism.
 Common Identity The painting of ‘Bharat Mata was commonly identified as
motherland and affected the people equally.
 Revival of India Folklore Reviving the folklore through folk songs, legends
helped in promoting traditional culture and restore a sense of pride in the past
history and culture.
 Role of the Leaders Leaders like’ Mahatma Gandhi, Jawaharlal Nehru aroused
the feelings of nationalism through their motivational speeches and political
activities.
28. (Any 5 points) 5
 A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties.
 It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of its
members.
 It should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number
of tickets; about 1/3rd to its women candidates.
 There should be a quota for women in the decision-making bodies of the party.
 There should be state funding of elections.
 The government should give parties money to support their election expenses
in kind for example petrol, paper, telephone etc. or in cash.
 Vote casting should be made compulsory in each election.
 Data regarding caste religion OBC, SC, ST should not be utilized during the
election period in any form.
29.  They recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural diversities. 5
Between 1970 and 1993,they amended their constitution four time
 The number of Dutch and French speaking ministers are equal in the central
government.
 Many powers of the Central Government have been given to State Government of
the two regions of the country.
 Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal
representation.
 A third kind of government named Community Government is introduced in
addition to the Central and State Government.
30.  Land degradation affects the agricultural productivity of land as well as food 5
security.
 Addition of greenhouse gases in atmosphere is responsible for increase in
temperature.
 Addition of chlorofluoro carbons in atmosphere is responsible for ozone
depletion in Antarctic region
 Pollution of water affected the availability of water in whole world.
 Pollution of air has created respiratory diseases in humans of all parts of the
world
(or)
(Any valid points)
 Introduction of agro-industries or farm industries in the rural areas to provide
employment to farmers and labourers.
 Introduction of HIV seeds, agricultural machinery, eco-friendly fertilizers to
boost the agricultural economy and better production.

160
  (Spreading awareness of environmental pollution and other issues like health,
sanitation, and diseases among rural and urban areas on a massive level, by
rallies, movements, programs, etc.
 Building organizations to protect the environment and contribute to the
welfare of poverty-stricken areas, the minorities like women children and
elderly, providing facilities for healthcare, education and sanitation.
Undertaking steps to protect forests and promote deforestation and
reforestation, preserve the wildlife of forests by building national parks and
biological reserves.
31. Formal Sector Loans Informal Sector Loans
1. Comparatively rate of interest 1. Comparatively rate of interest charged is
charged is lower higher.
2. Collateral is not a must for getting loan
2. Collateral is a must for getting
from a formal sector. Ready to give loans
loan from a formal sector
without any collateral.
3. RBI supervises them 3. No organization supervises them.
4. Rich urban households
4. Poor households depend on informal sector
depend on formal sector.
5. Eg: Money Lenders, Traders, friends,
5. Eg : Banks & Co-operatives
retailers.
6. Unorganised banking sector is not sp
6. Organised banking sector is
systematic and often indulges in malpractices
systematic in its functioning
to exploit the customers.
7. Organised financial
7. Unorganised financial sector do not
intermediaries maintain proper
maintain proper books of accounts. They do
books of accounts and are
not charge uniform interest rate. They keep
audited regularly. Their
their business affairs confidential
functioning is more transparent.
8. Formal credit sector usually 8. Informal credit sector usually does not
grants loan for productive differentiate between loans for productive /
purposes like purchase of unproductive purposes. They easily give loan
machinery, agricultural even for unproductive purpose like loan for
equipments, house etc., family functions, treating illness etc..,
9. More documentation and 9. Less documentation and formalities and
formalities are to be completed that is the reason for the illiterates prefer to
before the loan is granted. get loans from such sector.
Reserve Bank of India is the central bank of India.
Its role is to supervise the functioning of formal credit sector.
-Sole authority in issuing currency notes on behalf of the central government.
-It keeps a check on the working of the other banks across the country.
-monitors the banks in actually maintaining the minimum cash balance-CRR
-RBI monitors to check that the banks provide loans not just to profit making
businesses and traders but also to small cultivators, small scale industries, to small
borrowers etc.
-Periodically banks have to submit information to RBI on how much they are
lending to whom and at what rate of interest.

SECTION – E (1 x 5 = 5)
32.1 A) Calcutta B) Champeran 2

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161
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3

SECTION – A (1 x 16 = 16)
1. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity because 1
(a) It ensures protection to all inhabitants.
(b) It ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) It ensures Parliamentary form of government to its inhabitants.
(d) It ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.
2. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark, Germany and France, ended in
___________ victory. 1
3. Who set up the ‘Oudh Kisan Sabha’? 1
4. Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined
for utilization are known as 1
(a) Potential resources (b) Stock (c) Developed resources (d) Reserves
5. Fill in the blank: 1
West Bengal: Rice, Punjab: Wheat, ____________: Maize.
(a) Uttarkhand (b) Karnataka (c) Haryana (d) Assam
6. Identify the type of pollution with the help of the following features: 1
• It is caused by the presence of high proportion of undesirable gases.
• It is caused by the presence of Sulphur dioxide and Carbon monoxide.
• This pollution often appears as a cloud making the air murky.
7. Choose the incorrect matched pair about the connectivity or communication in India
from the following. 1
(a) NH 1 – Delhi and Amritsar.
(b) Golden Quadrilateral – Silchar and Porbander
(c) Border Road Organization – Established in 1985
(d) Water ways – Fuel-efficient
8. HAIL markets steel for the public sector plants. True/False.
9. Population of Sri Lankan Tamil is concentrated in ________ region of Sri Lanka. 1
10. Define Prudential reasoning. 1
OR
Define Ethnicity.
11. Which level of government in India has the power to legislate on the ‘residuary’
subjects?
(a) Union government (b) State government
(c) Local self-government (d) Both a and b
12. What type of activities does the secondary sector cover? 1
OR
What is an MNC?
13. Which of the following authorizes money as a medium of exchange? 1
(a) The Central government (b) The RBI
(c) The SHG (d) World Bank
14. What was the idea behind developing Special Economic Zones in India? 1
(a) To attract foreign companies to invest in India.
(b) To earn foreign exchange.
(c) To make India financially stable.
(d) To make India a developed country.

162
15. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option. 1
Assertion (A): Banks and cooperatives come under the category of formal source of
credit.
Reason (B): The RBI issues currency notes on behalf of the Central government.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is correct but R is wrong.
D. A is wrong but R is correct.
16. Development of a country can generally be determined by its _________ 1

SECTION: B (3 x 6 = 18)
17. "The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi
and the notion of Swaraj". Support the statement with arguments. 3
18. How did the Treaty of Vienna change the map of Europe? 3
OR
With reference to Scotland and Ireland, explain how did British nationalism grow at
the cost of other cultures?
19. Define the term soil erosion. What steps can be taken to control soil erosion? 3
20. Why did the makers of our Constitution declare India to be a 'Union of States'? Why
were some sub-political units of India given a special status? 3
OR
How are the powers divided between the states and centre? Explain with examples.
21. How is the developmental report published by the World Bank and UNDP different
from each other? 3
22. What is money? Why is modern currency accepted as a medium of exchange? 3

SECTION: C (4 x 4 = 16)
23. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:
The first clear expression of nationalism came with the French Revolution in 1789.
France, as you would remember, was a full-fledged territorial state in 1789 under the
rule of an absolute monarch. The political and constitutional changes that came in the
wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy
to a body of French citizens. The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who
would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny. From the very
beginning, the French revolutionaries introduced various measures and practices that
could create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people. The ideas of la
patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) emphasised the notion of a united
community enjoying equal rights under a constitution. A new French flag, the
tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard. The Estates General was
elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly. New
hymns were composed; oaths taken and martyrs commemorated, all in the name of
the nation. A centralised administrative system was put in place and it formulated
uniform laws for all citizens within its territory.
Internal customs duties and dues were abolished and a uniform system of weights
and measures was adopted. Regional dialects were discouraged and French, as it was
spoken and written in Paris, became the common language of the nation.

163
 Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.
23.1. At the time of French Revolution, France was under the rule of
(a) Constituent Assembly (b) An absolute monarchy
(c) Liberal monarch who supported the uprising (d) None of the above
23.2 From the very beginning French Revolution tried to create the
(a) Idea of democracy (b) Sense of collectiveness
(c) Idea of cooperative (d) None of the above
23.3. Which of the following statements correctly define the idea of a la patrie and
'lecitoyen'?
(a) United community enjoying equal rights
(b) Rights are protected by the Constitution
(c) Liberalism must be acquired
(d) Both (a) and (b)
23.4. The National Assembly took the initiative to ________.
(a) Introduce centralized administrative system
(b) Formulated uniform laws
(c) Internal custom duties and dues were abolished
(d) All of the above
24. Read the text given below and answer the following questions. 4
Over the last two decades, the share of manufacturing sector has stagnated at 17 per
cent of GDP – out of a total of 27 per cent for the industry which includes 10 per cent
for mining, quarrying, electricity and gas. This is much lower in comparison to some
East Asian economies, where it is 25 to 35 per cent. The trend of growth rate in
manufacturing over the last decade has been around 7 per cent per annum. The
desired growth rate over the next decade is 12 per cent. Since 2003, manufacturing is
once again growing at the rate of 9 to 10 per cent per annum. With appropriate policy
interventions by the government and renewed efforts by the industry to improve
productivity, economists predict that manufacturing can achieve its target over the
next decade. The National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has
been set up with this objective.
Answer the following MCQ s by choosing the most appropriate option.
24.1. The share of manufacturing sector has stagnated at ………… per cent of GDP out of
a total of ……….. per cent. (1)
(a) 27; 17 (b) 17; 20 (c) 17; 27 (d) 20; 35
24.2. If we classify the various industries based on a particular criterion then we would be
able to understand their manufacturing better. Identify the industries on the basis of
sources-

Choose the correct option:

(a) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 (b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(c) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3 (d) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

164
24.3. In which year the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) has
been set up?
(a) 2005 (b) 2006 (c) 2003 (d) 2004
24.4. Which of the following statements is correct about NMCC?
(a) It was set up as a part of its Common Minimum Programme.
(b) It was established as an autonomous organization.
(c) Its objective to improve manufacturing productivity.
(d) All of the above.
25. Read the source and answer the following questions.
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leader of the Sinhala
community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority.
As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of Majoritarian
measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise
Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. The government
followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university
positions and government jobs. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall
protect and foster Buddhism. All these government measures, coming one after the
other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils.
They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders
was sensitive to their language and culture. They felt that the constitution and
government policies denied them equal political rights, discriminated against them in
getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their interests. As a result, the
relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option
25.1. What is the reason to adopt Majoritarianism in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sri Lanka got independence in 1948.
(b) Sri Lanka is a Buddhist country.
(c) The leaders of Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government.
(d) None of the above
25.2. Tamil was disregarded in Sri Lanka as ________
(a) Sinhala became the official language.
(b) There were very few Tamilians in Sri Lanka.
(c) Tamilian led a secluded life.
(d) None of the above
25.3. Which measures of government in Sri Lanka are responsible to increase alienation
among the Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Sri Lanka should protect and foster Buddhism.
(b) Sinhala applicants for university position and government jobs are favoured.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Migration of Tamils was stopped.
25.4. Why was the relation between the Sinhala and Tamil strained over time?
(a) Constitution and government policies denied the equal political rights between
Sinhala and Tamil communities.
(b) There was a civil war between them.
(c) There was disagreement between the two communities.
(d) None of the above

165
26. Read the source given below and answer the following questions.
Swapna, a small farmer, grows groundnut on her three acres of land. She takes a loan
from the moneylender to meet the expenses of cultivation, hoping that her harvest
would help repay the loan. Midway through the season the crop is hit by pests and
the crop fails. Though Swapna sprays her crops with expensive pesticides, it makes
little difference. She is unable to repay the moneylender and the debt grows over the
year into a large amount. Next year, Swapna takes a fresh loan for cultivation. It is a
normal crop this year. But the earnings are not enough to cover the old loan. She is
caught in debt. She has to sell a part of the land to pay off the debt.
Answer the following MCQ s by choosing the most appropriate option.
26.1. The passage given above relates to which of the following options?
(a) Collateral credit. (b) Credit recovery is very painful.
(c) Failure of crops. (d) Credit is somewhere beneficial.
26.2. According to the passage, Swapna faced
(a) Failure of the crop made loan repayment impossible.
(b) She had to sell part of the land to repay the loan.
(c) Credit left her worse off.
(d) All of the above.
26.3. It refers to an arrangement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money,
goods or services in return for the promise of future payment. It is called ………
(a) Term of credit (b) Credit (c) Depositor (d) Borrower
26.4. The above passage is an example of …………
(a) Collateral loan (b) Borrower’s loan
(c) Debt-trap (d) Informal loan trap

SECTION: D (5 x 5 = 25)
27. "Dalit participation was limited in the Civil Disobedience Movement.' Examine the
statement. 5
OR
Who launched the Khilafat Movement? Why was the movement launched?
28. Suggest the initiative taken by the government to ensure the increase in agricultural
production. 5
OR
Describe the geographical conditions for the cultivation of Cotton and name the
leading producer states of cotton in India.
29. Do you think that political parties are necessary for democracy? Give reasons. 5
30. “Power Sharing is the very spirit of democracy”. Justify the statement. 5
31. Why do different individuals have different as well as conflicting notions of
development goals? 5
OR
Besides income, what can be the other attributes to compare economic development?
Explain.

166
 SECTION – E (2 + 3 = 5)
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTIONS
32.1. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify
them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. 2
(A) A place where Cotton Mill workers organized Satyagraha.
(B) An incident took place here due to which the Non-Cooperation Movement was
called off.
32.2. On the same outline map of India locate and label THREE of the following with
suitable Symbols. 3
(a) Forest and mountainous soils in Ladakh
(b) Punjab- The largest wheat producing state
(c) Gandhinagar Software Technology Park
(d) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
(e) Tehri Dam

***********

167
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3

S.No MARKS
1. (b) It ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens. 1
2. Prussian victory 1
3. Jawahar Lai Nehru and Baba Ramchandra 1
4. (c) Developed resources 1
5. (b) Karnataka 1
6. air 1
7. (c) Border Road Organization – Established in 1985 1
8. False. 1
9. North & East 1
10. on careful calculation of gains and lose/ A social division based on shared 1
culture
11. (a) Union government 1
12. secondary processing of raw materials, food manufacturing, textile 1
manufacturing industry (any1)
or
(MNC) has facilities and other assets in at least one country other than its
home country
13. b) The RBI 1
14. (a) To attract foreign companies to invest in India. 1
15. B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. 1
16. Economic /income development and Social development –Health, 1
education and public services
17.  For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move
freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed.
 Swaraj meant retaining a link the village from which they had come. Any
 Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 plantation workers were not 3
permitted to leave the Tea Gardens without permission. points
 When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement thousands of
workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed home.
 They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be
given land in their own village.
18.  The Federalists believed in a modernized army, an effective
bureaucracy and a progressive economy.
 In 1815, the European powers-Britain, Siberia, Prussia, and Austria
destroyed Napoleonic reforms at Vienna to the draw-up establishment Any
of Europe. 3
 This discussion was entertained by Austrian Chancellor-Duke points
Metternich.
 The Treaty of Vienna of 1815 was signified to invalidate most of the
differences which were occured due to the Napoleonic War.
 The dismissed Bourbon Dynasty was reinstalled to power.
18.  Through the Act of Union (1707), England was able to impose its
influence on Scotland.

168
  The growth of British identity in Parliament suppressed the distinctive 3
culture of Scotland.
 The Catholic clans that inhabited the Scottish Highland suffered
repression
 They were forcibly driven out of their homeland.
 Ireland was also divided between Catholics and Protestant
 Ireland was forcibly incorporated in the UK.
19.  The removal of the top soil by water, wind and human activities is called 1+2
soil erosion.
 Shelter belts: Trees should be planted in several rows to check the speed
of the wind. This reduces soil erosion because of wind.
 Constructing dams: Because the rivers cause soil pollution, dams are built
in the upper course of the rivers to check soil erosion.
20.  India became a Union of States because it consisted of both British–
ruled territories as well as many princely states. Some sub political
units of India have a special status.
 French and Portuguese–ruled territories were given the status of
Union territory. Any 3
 Jammu & Kashmir joined India on a special condition. points
 Some units were too small to become independent states. They were
made Union Territories.
 States in the north-east have been given a special status as they have a
large tribal population with a distinct history and culture.
20.  Union list : Union lists consist of 97 subjects. It includes subjects of 3
National importance such as defence of the country, foreign affairs,
banking, communication and currency.
 State list: State list consists of 66 subjects. It contains subjects of state
and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture and
irrigation.
 Concurrent list: Concurrent list consists of 47 subjects It includes
subjects of common interest to both such as education, forest, trade
unions, marriage, adoption and succession.
 Union Government can make laws on the subjects which are not
covered under these lists. The name has been given to such subjects is
residuary subjects.
21.  UNDP uses Human Development Index (HDI) as the main criterion for 3
measuring development.
 This criterion takes into consideration other development indicators
like life expectancy-Health, education besides per capita income,
 whereas World Bank compares the different countries only on the
basis of the income criterion.
22.  Money is anything which has common acceptability as a means of 3
exchange, a measure and a store of value.
 Modern money has been accepted as a medium of exchange because: It
is authorised by the government of a India. It is issued by the apex
bank on behalf of the government.
 No other individual is allowed to issue currency. The law of the

169
 country legalises its use as a medium of payment and settling
transactions.
 No one in a country can refuse payment made with the currency of
that country.
23. 23.1. (b) An absolute monarchy 1
23.2. (b) Sense of collectiveness 1
23.3. (a) United community enjoying equal rights 1
23.4. (d) All of the above 1
24. 24.1. (c) 17;27 1
24.2. (b) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 1
24.3. (c) 2003 1
24.4. (d) All of the above. 1
25. 25.1. (c) The leaders of Sinhala community sought to secure dominance 1
over government. 1
25.2. (a) Sinhala became the official language 1
25.3. (c) Both (a) and (b)
25.4. (a) Constitution and government policies denied the equal political 1
rights between Sinhala and Tamil communities.
1 (a) Collateral credit. 1
26. 2.(d) All of the above 1
3.(a)Term of credit 1
4.(c) Debt trap 1
27.  The abstract concept of Swaraj did not move the nation’s 5
untouchables. They had begun to call themselves dalit or oppressed
from around 1930s.
 For the long time, the Congress had ignored the dalits for fear of
offending the Sanatanis, the conservative high caste Hindus.
 Gandhiji persuaded upper castes to change their heart and gave up the
sin of untouchability.
 Mahatma Gandhi declared that Swaraj would not come for a hundred
years, if untouchability was not eliminated.
 He called the untouchables ‘Harijan’.
 He organised satyagraha to secure their entry into temples and access
to public wells, tanks, roads and schools.
 He himself cleaned toilets to dignify the work of the bhangi.
 Many dalit leaders were keen to solve the community’s problems in
different ways.
 They began organising themselves demanding reserved seats in
educational institutions and a separate electorate that would choose
dalit members for legislative councils.
 Political empowerment, they believed would resolve the problems of
their social disabilities.
2  The Khilafat Movement was launched by Muhammad Ali and Shaukat 5
7 Ali.
.  Gandhiji saw this as an opportunity to bring Muslims under the
umbrella of a unified national movement.
 At the Calcutta Session of the Congress in September 1920, he

170
 convinced other leaders to start a Non-Cooperation Movement in
support of Khilafat Movement.
 The Khilafat Movement (1919-1924), was a pan-Islamic, political
protest campaign launched by Muslims in British India to influence the
British Government and to protect the Ottoman empire during the
aftermath of First World War. The First World War had ended with the
defeat of Ottoman Turkey.
 There was a fear that the power of the spiritual head of the Islamic
world (Khalifa) would be curtailed. To defend his power, a Khilafat
Committee was formed in Bombay in 1919. The Khilafat leaders put
pressure upon the British Government to give better treatment to
Turkey.
28.  Collectivization, consolidation of holdings, cooperation and and
abolition of zamindari, etc. were given priority to bring about
institutional reforms in the country. 'Land reform' was the main focus
of First Five Year Plan.
 The green revolution and the white revolution (operation flood) were
some strategies initiated to improve Indian agriculture.
 Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, fire and
diseases. Any 5
 Establishment of Grameen banks, cooperative societies and banks for points
providing loan facilities to the farmers at lower rates of interest.
Kissan Credit Card (KCC), Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS)
are some schemes introduced by the Govt. of India for the benefit of
farmers.
 Special weather bulletins and agricultural programs were introduced
on the radio and television.
 The Government also announces minimum support price,
remunerative and procurement prices for important crops to check
the exploitation of farmers by speculators and middlemen
28.  Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan
plateau.
 It requires high temperature,
 light rainfall or irrigation,
 210 frost-free days and bright sun-shine for its growth.
 It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature.
 Major cotton-producing states are– Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya
Pradesh
29.  Without political parties, democracies cannot exist.
 If we do not have political parties-in such a situation every candidate
in elections will be independent.
 No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any Any 5
major policy changes. points
 The government may be formed but its utility will remain uncertain.
 Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for
what they do in their locality.
 But no one will be responsible for how the country will run.
 The role of opposition party in a democracy necessitates the existence

171
 of political parties.
 As societies become large and complex they also need some agencies
to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the
government, that's why political parties are needed.
30.  Power sharing helps in reducing the conflict between various social 5
groups. Hence, power sharing is necessary for maintaining social
harmony and peace.
 Power sharing helps in avoiding the tyranny of majority.
 The tyranny of majority not only destroys the minority social groups
but also the majority social group.
 People’s voice forms the basis of a democratic government. Hence,
power sharing is essential to respect the spirit of democracy.
 Avoiding conflict in society and preventing majority tyranny are
considered as prudential reasons for power sharing.
 Maintaining the spirit of democracy is considered as the moral reason
for power sharing.
31. Development goals may be common, different or conflicting: 5
 Common Goals: There are some needs which are common to all like
income, freedom, equality, security, respect, friendship, etc.
 Different Goals: Development or progress does not mean the same
thing for every individual.
 Each individual has his own idea of development. For example,
development for a farmer might be irrigation facilities; for an
unemployed youth it may mean employment opportunities, etc.
 Conflicting Goals: What may be development for some may become
destruction for some others. Example, Industrialists may want dams
for electricity, but such dams would displace the natives of a region by
submerging their land.
31.  Of course, for comparing economic development of countries, their 5
income is considered to be one of the most important attribute. This is
based on the understanding that more income means more wants that
human beings desire for. That is why, the World Bank uses Per Capita
Income to compare economic development.
 Apart from income, educational levels of the people and their health
status are considered as measures to compare economic development
of a nation.
 Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) : This indicates the number of children
who die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1,000 live
children born in that particular year. ‘
 Literacy Rate : This measures the proportion of literate population in
the 7 years and above age group.
 Net Attendance Ratio : This is the total number of children of age
group 6-10 attending school as a percentage of total number of
children in the same age group.
 Life Expectancy at birth : It denotes average expected length of life of a
person at the time of birth.
32.1. A. Ahmadabad B. Chauri Chaura 2

***********

172
 MATHEMATICS

Duration: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains two parts A and B.
2. Both Part A and Part B have internal choices.

Part–A:
1. It consists of two sections- I and II.
2. Section I has 16 questions. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
3. Section II has four case study-based questions. Each case study has 5
case-based sub parts. An examinee is to attempt any 4 out of 5 sub-
parts.

Part–B:
1. Question no. 21 to 26 are very short answer type questions of 2 mark
each.
2. Question no. 27 to 33 are short answer type questions of 3 marks
each.
3. Question no. 34 to 36 are long answer type questions of 5 marks
each.
4. Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of 2 marks, 2 questions of
3 marks and 1 question of 5 marks.
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1

PART – A
SECTION – I
Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
1. Given that HCF (2520, 6600) = 40, LCM (2520, 6600) = 252 × k, then find the
value of k.
OR

The decimal representation of will terminate after how many decimal places.
2. If one zero of the quadratic polynomial 4 2 – 8 kx – 9 negative of the other, find
the value of k.
3. Find the value of for which the system of equations has
unique solution?
4. If x = a, y= b, is the solution of the systems of equations x-y = 2 and x+ y = 4 then
find the values of a and b.
5. Find the sum of first 16 terms of the AP: 10, 6, 2…..
OR
The first term of an AP is -7 and the common difference is 5. Find its general term.
6. If one root of the quadratic equation 2 2+kx-6 = 0 is 2, find the value of k.
7. Solve the Quadratic equation
OR
Find the value of k for which the equation 2k 2- 40x +25 = 0 has equal roots.
8. In the figure PA and PB are tangents to a circle with centre O. If ∠AOB=120°, then
find ∠OPA.

OR
If angle between two radii of a circle is130°, find the angle between the tangents at
the ends of the radii.
9. In the figure, QR is a common tangent to the given circles touching externally at the
point T. The tangent at T meets QR at P. If PT = 3.8 cm, then find the length of QR.

10. In ∆ABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that
DE∥BC. If AD = 4x-3, AE = 8x-7, BD = 3x-1 and CE = 5x-3, find the value of x.
11. A tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5 cm meets a line through the center
O at a point Q so that OQ = 12 cm. Find the length of PQ.

173
12. If tan = and sin = , find + .
2
13. If ( 1 + sin ) (1- sin ) = k , then find k.
14. In a circle of diameter 42 cm, if an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the center where
= , find the length of the arc.
15. 12 solid spheres of the same radii are made by melting a solid metallic cylinder of
base diameter 2 cm and height 16 cm. Find the diameter of each sphere.
16. If a die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting a prime number.
OR
From a well shuffled pack of cards, a card is drawn at random. Find the probability
of getting a black queen.

SECTION-II
Case study based questions are compulsory. Attempt any four sub parts of each
question. Each subpart carries 1 mark.
Case study based -1 4
CARTESIAN PLANE
17. Using Cartesian Coordinates we mark a point on a graph by how far along and how
far up it is. The left –right (horizontal) direction is commonly called X-axis. The up-
down (vertical) direction is commonly called Y-axis. When we include negative
values, the x and y axes divide the space up into 4 pieces. Read the following passage
and answer the questions that follow the above information: In a classroom, four
students Sita, Gita, Rita and Anita are sitting at A (3,4), B (6,7), C (9,4), D (6,1)
respectively. Then a new student Anjali joins the class.

i) Teacher tells Anjali to sit in the middle of the four students. Find the co-ordinates of
the position where she sits.
a. (2,4) b. (4,4) c. (6,4) d. (6,5)
ii) The distance between Sita and Anita is
a. units. b. 3 units. c. 2 units. d. 3 units.
iii) Which two students are equidistant from Gita?
a. Anjali and Anita b. Anita and Rita c. Sita and Anita d. Sita and Rita
iv) The geometrical figure formed after joining the ABCD is a
a. Square b. Rectangle c. Parallelogram d. Rhombus
v) The distance between Sita and Rita is
a. 4 units b. 6 units c. 5 units d. 7 units

174
18. Case study based -2
SIMILARITY OF TRIANGLES
Teacher gives an activity to the students to measure the height of the tree and asks
them who will do this activity. Anjali accepts the challenge. She places a mirror on
level ground to determine the height of a tree. She stands at a certain distance so that
she can see the top of the tree reflected from the mirror. Anjali’s eye level is 1.8 m
above the ground. The distance of Anjali and the tree from the mirror are 1.5 m and
2.5 m respectively. Answer the questions below.

i) Name the two similar triangles formed.

a. ∆ ABM ~ ∆ CMD
b. ∆ AMB ~ ∆ CDM
c. ∆ ABM ~ ∆ MDC
d. None of these
ii) State the criteria of similarity that is applicable here.
a. SSS Criterion
b. SAS Criterion
c. AA Criterion
d. ASA Criterion
iii) Find the height of the tree.
a. 3 m
b. 3.5 m
c. 2.5 m
d. 4 m
iv) If ∆ ABM and ∆ CDM are similar, CD = 6 cm, MD = 8 cm and BM = 24 cm. Then
findAB.
a. 17 cm
b. 18 cm
c. 12 cm
d. 24 cm
v) In ∆ ABM , if ∠ BAM = 30° then find ∠ MCD
a. 40°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 30°

175
19. Case study based -3
POLYNOMIALS 4
Due to heavy storm an electric wire got bent as shown in the figure. It follows a
mathematical shape. Answer the following questions below.

i) Name the shape in which the wire is bent.

a. Spiral b. Ellipse c. Linear d. Parabola
ii) How many zeroes are there for the polynomial (shape of the wire)?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 1 d. 0
iii) The zeroes of the polynomial are
a. -1,5 b. -1,3 c. 3,5 d. -4,2
iv) What will be the expression of the polynomial
a. 2 +2x-3 b. 2 -2x+3 c. 2 -2x-3 d. 2 +2x+3
v) What is the value of the polynomial if x = -1?
a. 6 b. -18 c.18 d.0

20. Case study based -4 4

100 m RACE
A stopwatch was used to find the time that it took a group of students to run 100 m.

Time(in sec) 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100

No.of students 8 10 13 6 3
i) Estimate the mean time taken by a student to finish the race.
a. 54 sec b. 63 sec c. 43 sec d. 50 sec
ii) What will be the upper limit of the modal class?
a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d.80

176
iii) The construction of cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the
a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. None of the above
iv) The sum of lower limits of median class and modal class is
a.60 b.100 c.80 d.140
v) How many students finished the race within 1 min?
a. 18 b. 37 c. 31 d. 8

PART – B
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one.
Section – III
21. Mallica has 2 flowerbeds in her garden. One bed has 18 rows of plants and other has
24 rows of plants. Each of the beds has the same number of plants. What is the least
number of plants in each flowerbed?
22. Find a point on Y-axis which is equidistant from the points (2,-2) and (-4,2)
OR
Name the type of triangle formed by the points A (2,-2), B (-2, 1), C (5, 2). Justify
your answer.
23. Find a quadratic polynomial whose zeroes are 5- and 5+ .
24. Construct a pair of tangents from a point 5cm away from the center of a circle of
radius 3cm. Measure the lengths of the tangents.
25. If sin = , find the value of tan + cot .
OR
Calculate the value of if (sin -1) = 0.
26. Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.

Section – IV
27. Prove that 3- is an irrational number, given that is irrational.
28. If one zero of the polynomial ( 2+9) 2+13x+6a is reciprocal of the other. Find the
value of a.
OR
If and are the zeroes of the polynomial f(x)= 2-5x+k such that - =1, find the
value of k.
29. Find the area of the shaded region in the given figure, where ABCD is a square of
side 14 cm.

177
30. D is a point on the side BC of ∆ABC, such that ∠ADC =∠BAC. Prove that 2=

BC×CD

OR
In an equilateral ∆ ABC, D is a point on the side BC such that BD = BC. Prove
2
that 9 = 7 2.
31. If the median of the distribution given below is 28.5, find the values of x and y.
Class
0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 Total
interval
Frequency 5 x 20 15 y 5 60
32. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower at a point on the horizontal line through
the foot of the tower is 45°. After walking a distance of 80 m towards the foot of the
tower along the same horizontal line, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower
changes to 60°. Find the height of the tower.
33. Calculate the mode for the following frequency distribution.
Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50
No.of
6 10 12 32 20
students

SECTION – V
34. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of a tower is 30° and the
angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. If the
tower is 50 m high, find the height of the building.
OR
As observed from the top of a 75m high lighthouse from the sea level, the angles of
depression of two ships are 30°and45°. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the
same side of the light house, find the distance between the two ships.
35. Water in a canal, 6 m wide and 1.5 m deep is flowing with a speed of 10 km/hr.
How much area will it irrigate in 30 min, if 8 cm of standing water is needed?
36. A boat goes 30 km upstream and 44 km down-stream in 10 hrs. In 13 hrs, it can go
40 km upstream and 55 km down-stream. Determine the speed of the stream and
that of the boat in still water.

***********

178
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1

PART A
SECTION – I
1. HCF x LCM = Product of two numbers
2520 x 6600 = 40 x 252 x k
k = 1650
OR
It will terminate after 4 decimal places.

2. [ sum of the zeroes = ]

[
0=
k=0

3.

k
Except 6 all other real values
4. a – b = 2 …. (1)
a + b = 4 …. (2)
2a = 6
a=3
b=1
5. S16 = 8 [20 + 15 (-4)]
= -320
OR
a = -7, d = 5
tn = a+(n-1)d
tn = -7 + (n – 1)(5)
tn = 5n-12
6. + kx - 6 =0
+ kx – 6
= 8 + 2k – 6

k = -1

7. + 3x + 7x + 7 = 0
x (x + ) + 7 (x + ) = 0
(x + ) ( )=0
x=- ,
OR

179
 D=0
– 4ac = 0
− 4(2k) (25) = 0 1600 = 200k

8. In OAPB,
[sum of the angles in a quadrilateral]
120 + 90 + 90 +

= 30
OR
Let angle between two tangents is x.
x + 130 = 180
x = 50

9. PT = PQ = PR
QR = 2PT = 2(3.8) = 7.6cm

10.

= [by BPT]
=
x = 1, -

11.

PQ = [by Pythagoras theorem]

=

12. Tan =

Sin =

= 30
= 75

180
13. (1+ sin ) (1 – sin ) = k
(1- )=k
=k
=k

14. Length of the arc = 2 units

= x2x x 21
= 22 cm

15. 12(Volume of sphere) = Volume of cylinder

= 16 x 1
=1
r=1
d = 2 cm

16. S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
P (getting a prime number) =
=
OR
P (black queen) =
=
SECTION – II

17. (i) c. (6,4)

(ii) b. AD =
=
= units
(iii) d. Sita and Rita
(iv) a. Square
(v) b. AC = 6 units

18. i) c. ∆ ABM ~ ∆ MDC

ii) c. AA Criteria
iii) a.
x=3m
iv) b. 18 cm
v) d. 30

181
19. i) d. parabola
ii) a. 2
iii) b. -1, 3
iv) c. – 2x -3
v) d. 0

20. i) c. Mean =
= 43 sec
ii) c. 60
iii) b. median
iv) c. 40+ 40 = 80
v) c. 31

PART B
SECTION – III
21.

LCM = x
=8x9
= 72
Therefore least number of plants in each flowerbed is 72.

22. Let (0, y) be the point on y-axis.

=
+ =
y=2
(0, 2) is a point on y axis
OR
2
AB =16+9 = 25
BC2=49+1= 50
AC2=9+16 = 25
Hence, ABC is an isosceles triangle.

23. – (sum of the zeroes) x + Product of the zeroes

= – [5 - 3 + 5 + 3 ]x + (5 - 3 ) (5 + 3 )]
= - 10x + 25 – 18
=

182
24.

Thus, PA and PB are the required tangents measurement using scale PA=PB= 4 cm.

25.

tan + cot =
=
OR
(Sin – 1) = 0
Sin = 1

26.

AP = AS …. (1)
PB = BQ …. (2)
CR = CQ …. (3)
DR = DS …. (4)
Add AP + BP + CR + DR = AS + BQ + CQ + DS
AB + CD = AD + BC
2AB = 2AD [∵AB = CD, BC = AD]
AB = AD
Therefore ABCD is a rhombus
Since adjacent sides in a parallelogram are equal.

183
 SECTION – IV
27. Let us assume that 3 - is a rational number
∴3- = b 0, a and b are integers
- = –3

=
Therefore is rational since a and b are integers.
Therefore is rational
But it contradict the fact that is irrational
Therefore 3 - is an irrational number.

28.
=
1=
– 6a + 9 = 0
(a-3) ( a-3) = 0
a =3,3
OR
=1
= [square on both sides]
-2 =1
-4 =1
25 – 4k = 1
k=6

29. a = 14cm, 2d = 14cm , r = cm

Area of the shaded region = (Area of a square) – 4(Area of a circle)
=
= – 4( )
= 196 – 154
= 42cm2

30. Consider ABC and ADC

[Common]
[Given]
[By AA criteria] (Since two tangents are similar, their
corresponding sides are proportional.)
=
Hence,
= BC CD
Hence proved.

184
 OR

AB = BC = AC =2x
BE = EC = x
BD = BC
BD = 2x
=
DE = BE – BD
=x-
=
LHS = = 9( )
= 9[( )+ ]
= 9[ ]
=9[ ]

= 9(
=
= 7( )
= = RHS
∴ LHS = RHS
Hence proved.

31.
C.I f cf
0 - 10 5 5
10 - 20 x 5+x
20 - 30 20 25 + x
30 - 40 15 40 + x
40 - 50 y 40 + x + y
50 - 60 5 45 + x + y
45 + x + y = 60
x + y = 15
Median = l +( )h
28.5 = 20 + x 10
28.5 = 20 +

185
 x=8
x +y = 15
y=7

32.

tan 60 =
=
h=
tan 45 =
1=
80 + x = h …. (2)
From (1) and (2)
= 80 + x
x( ) = 80
x= *
= 40 )
h = 40 )
= 40(3 + )
∴ Height of the tower is 40(3 + )m (or) 189.28 m.

33. Mode = 30 + x 10
= 30 + x 10
= 36.25

SECTION – V
34.

186
 tan 60 =
=
x= …. (1)
tan 30 =
=
x = h …. (2)
From (1) & (2)
=h
h=
Therefore height of the building is 16.6m

OR

tan 45 =
x = 75
tan 30 =
=
x + d = 75
75 + d = 75
d = 75 – 1) m.
Hence, the distance between the two ships is 75 – 1) m.

35. Canal is the shape of cuboid

b = 6m
h = 1.5m
speed = 10km/hr
length of the canal in 1 hour = 10km
length of the canal in 30mins = 5km
=5000m
Volume of the water in canal upto the length of 5000 m = Volume of the area irrigated
5000 x 6 x 1.5 =

187
 =
Area irrigated =
= 56.25 hectares

36. Let x be the speed of the boat and y be the speed of the stream
= 10
= 13
30U + 44V = 10 …. (1)
40U + 55V = 13 ….(2)
V=
40U + 55( ) = 13
40U + = 13
160U + 50 – 150U = 52
10U = 2
U=
V=
=
=
x–y=5
x + y = 11
2x = 16
x=8
y=3
Therefore speed of the boat = 8km/hr
Speed of the stream = 3km/hr.

*************

188
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2

PART – A
SECTION – I
Section I has 16 questions of 1 mark each. Internal choice is provided in 5 questions.
1. Is it true to say that the product of a non-zero rational number and an irrational
number is either a rational number or an irrational number?
2. Find a Quadratic polynomial whose Zeroes are + 3 and – 3.
3. HCF of 144 and 198 is 18, find LCM of 144 and 198?
OR
Express 23150 as product of its prime factors. Is it unique?
4. If the equation kx – 2y = 3 and 3x + y = 5 represent two intersecting lines at unique
point, then find the value of k.
5. After how many decimal places will the rational number terminate?
OR
What is the angle subtended at the centre of a circle of radius 6cm by an arc of length
6 cm.
6. Find the value of x for which 2x, (x +10) and (3x +2) are the three consecutive terms
of an A.P.
OR
What happens to value of cos when increases from 00 to 900 ?
7. The areas of two circles are in the ratio 9: 4, then what is the ratio of their
circumferences?
8. The tops of two poles of heights 18m and 12m are connected by a wire. If the wire
makes an angle of 300 with the horizontal, find the length of the wire.
9. A road which is 7m wide surrounds a circular park whose circumference is 88m.
Find the radius of the park.
10. The median and mode respectively of a frequency distribution are 26 and 29. Then
find its mean.
11. To divide line segment AB in the ratio m:n , we draw a ray AX so that BAX is
acute angle and then mark points on ray AX at equal distance. What is the minimum
number of these points on AX?
12. If the pair of equations x sin + y cos = 1 and x + y = has infinitely many
solutions, then what is the value of ?
OR
Prove the identity: – cosec4 =0.

189
13. In a rectangle ABCD, E is a point on AB such that AE = AB. AB = 16m and AD =
5m, then find the length of DE.
14. Two different dice are thrown together, find the probability that the sum of the
numbers appeared is less than 5.
OR
The length of the minute hand of clock is 14cm. Find the area swept by the minute
hand from 9:00a.m to 9: 35a.m.
15. Tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with centre O from a point p outside the
circle. Prove that OPA =

16. If empirical relationship between mean, median and mode is expressed as mean = k
(3 median – mode), then find the value of k.

SECTION-II
Case study based questions are compulsory. Attempt any four sub parts of each
question. Each subpart carries 1 mark.
17. Case study based -1 4
A boy goes to the market with his mom. He sees a toy and wants to buy it. This toy is
in the form of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of common base of radius 7 cm. The
total height of the toy is 31cm.

(i) What is the curved surface area of hemisphere?

(a) 309 cm2 (b) 308 cm2 (c) 803 cm2 (d) 903 cm2
(ii) Write the formula to find curved surface area of cone?
(a) (b) (c) (d) 2
(iii) Slant height of a cone is?
(a) 26 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 52 cm (d) 62 cm
(iv) What is the curved surface area of the cone?
(a) 505 cm2 (b) 55 cm2 (c) 550 cm2 (d) 555 cm2
(v) Find the total surface area of the toy?
(a) 858 cm2 (b) 885 cm2 (c) 588 cm2 (d) 855 cm2

190
18. Case study based -2 4
Underground water sump is popular in India. It is usually used for large water sump
storage and can be built cheaply using cement-like materials. Underground water
sump are typically chosen by people who want to save space. The water in the
underground sump is not affected by extreme weather conditions. The underground
sump maintain cool temperatures in both winter and summer. A builder wants to
build a sump to store water in an apartment. The volume of the rectangular sump will
be modelled by V =x3+x2-4x-4.

(i) He planned in such a way that its base dimensions are x + 1 and x + 2 . How much
deep he has to dig ?
(a) x + 1 (b) x – 2 (c) x - 3 (d) x + 2
(ii) If x = 4 meter, what is the volume of the sump?
(a)30 m3 (b) 20 m3 (c) 15 m3 (d) 60 m3
(iii) If x = 4 and the builder wants to paint the entire inner portion on the sump, what is
the total area to be painted ?
(a) 52 m2 (b) 96 m2 (c) 208 m2 (d) 104 m2
(iv) If the cost of paint is Rs. 25 per sq. m, what is the cost of painting ?
(a) 3900 Rs (b) 2600 Rs (c) 1300 Rs (d) 5200 Rs.
(v) What is the storage capacity of this sump ?
(a) 3000 litre (b) 6000 litre (c) 60000 litre (d) 30000 litre

19. Case study based -3 4

Traffic lights (or traffic signals ) are lights used to control movement of traffics. They
are placed on roads at intersections and crossings. The different colours of light tell
drivers what to do. The traffic lights at different road crossings change after every 48
sec, 72 sec and 108 sec respectively.
(i). 108 can be expressed as a product of its primes as
(a). 23 x 32 (b). 23 x 33 (c). 22 x 32 (d). 22 x 33
(ii). The H.C.F of 48, 72, 108 is
(a). 18 (b). 16 (c). 12 (d). 10
(iii). The LCM of 48, 72, 108 is
(a). 520 (b). 432 (c). 396 (d). 420

191
(iv) If all the traffic lights change simultaneously at 8:20:00 hrs, they will again change
simultaneously at
(a). 8:27:12 hrs (b).8:32:24 hrs (c) 8:40:08hrs (d) 8:24:24 hrs
(v) The [HCF x LCM] for the numbers 48, 72, 108 is
(a). 2472 (b).3680 (c) 4090 (d) 5184

20. Case study based -4 4

The Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan is a system of premier central government
schools in India that are instituted under the aegis of the Ministry of Education
(MHRD), Government of India. As of October 2020, it has a total of 1239 schools. It
is one of the world’s largest chains of schools. The system came into being in 1963
under the name ‘Central Schools’. Later, the name was changed to Kendriya
Vidyalaya. It is a non profit organisation. Its schools are all affiliated to the Central
Board of Secondary Education (CBSE). The objective of KVS is to cater to the
educational needs of the children of transferable Central Government employees
including Defence and Para-Military personnel by providing a common programme
education.

Commissioner of Regional office Jaipur prepare a table of the marks obtained of 100
students which is given below
Marks obtained 0-20 20-40 40-60 60-80 80-100
Number of
15 18 21 29 p
students
He was told that mean marks of a student is 53.
(i) How many students got marks between 80-100?
(a) 21 (b) 38 (c) 17 (d) 26
(ii) What is the lower limit of model class ?
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 60 (d)80
(iii) What is the value of model marks ?
(a) 58 (b) 62 (c) 65 (d) 68
(iv) What is the value of median marks ?
(a) 58 (b) 62 (c) 65 (d) 72
(v) What is the upper limit of median class ?
(a) 20 (b) 40 (c) 60 (d) 80

192
 PART – B
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one.
Section – III
21. If the point C( k,4) divides the line segment joining two points A(2, 6) and B(5,1) in
ratio 2:3, what is the value of k?
OR
What is the coordinates of the mid-point of the line segment joining (4,3) and (-2,-1)?
22. Solve the equation : =2x -1.
23. If tanA = , Find the value of +
OR
If sin – cos = 0 and 00 900, find the value of
24. Determine the ratio in which the line 2x + y – 4= 0 divides the line segment joining
points A( 2, -2) and B(3,7).
25. If x = r sinA cosC, y = r sinA sinC and z = r cosA. Prove that r2 = x2 + y2 + z2.
26. A box contains 3 blue, 2 white and 4 red marbles. If a marble is drawn at random
from the box, what is the probability that it will not be a white marble?

Section – IV
27. Prove that + is irrational number.
28. The roots of and of the quadratic equation x2 – 5x + 3 (k -1) =0 are such that -
=1. Find the value of k.
OR
How many terms of the A.P: 54,51,48,……… must be taken so that their sum is 513?
Explain the double answer.
29. Prove that if a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio, then the line
is parallel to the third side.
30. Prove that:( sin A + cosec A )2 + ( cos A + sec A)2 = 7+ tan2 + cot2A
31. A survey regarding the heights (in cm) of 51 girls of class X of a school was
conducted and the following data was obtained
Height Less Less than Less than Less than Less than Less than
(in cm) than 140 145 150 155 160 165

No of girls 4 11 29 40 46 51

Find the median height?

32. Determine the ratio in which the point (6,a) divides the line segment joining points
A(9,-4) and B(2,5). Also find the value of a.
OR

193
 A car has two wipers which do not overlap. Each wiper has a blade of length 25cm
sweeping through an angle of 1150.Find the total area cleaned at each sweep of the
blades.
33. Draw a line segment AB of length 9cm. Taking A as centre, draw a circle of radius
5cm and taking B as centre , draw another circle of radius 3cm. Construct tangents to
each circle from the centre of the circle.

SECTION – V
34. A child prepares a poster on save energy on a square sheet whose each side measures
60cm.At each corner of the sheet, she draws a quadrant radius 17.5cm, in which she
shows the ways to save energy. At, the centre she draws a circle of diameter 21cm
and writes slogan “Save energy” in it. Find the area of the remaining sheet.
OR
In an equilateral triangle, prove that three times the square of one side is equal to four
times the square of one of its altitude.
35. The decorative block shown in fig. is made of two solid – a cube and a hemisphere.
The base of the block is a cube with edge 5cm, and the hemisphere fixed on the top
has a diameter of 4.2cm. Find the total surface area of the block. (take = 22/7).

36. An incomplete frequency distribution is given as follows:

Variable 10 - 20 20 -30 30 -40 40 -50 50 -60 60 -70 70 -80 Total

Frequency 12 30 ? 65 ? 25 18 229

Given that median value is 46, determine the missing frequency using the median
formula.

***********

194
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2

PART A
SECTION – 1
1. No, it is an irrational number.

2.

3. L.C.M = 1584
OR
23150 = 2x5 x 5 x 463
According to the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, the explanation of prime
factorisation of any number is unique. So, the expansion of prime factorization of
23150 is Unique.

4.
∴ the value of k is not equal to -6.

5. 4
OR
Angle subtended at the centre at the circle is 180 .

6. x=6
OR
Decreases.

7.

8. 12m

9. R = 14m and radius of the park r = 14 – 7 = 7m

10. 24.5

11. (m + n)

12. For infinite many solutions

= =

OR

195
 L.H.S
= -
= * -
=0
= RHS
Hence Proved.

13.

= 25 + 144
= 169
∴ DE = 13m.

14.
OR
359.33

15.

(angle between a tangent and radius)

In OAP
………….. (1)
………… (2)
From (1) & (2)

16.

196
 SECTION – II
2
17. (i) (b) 308 cm
(ii) (a)
(iii) (b) 25 cm
(iv) (c) 550 cm2
(v) (a) 858 cm2

18. (i) (b) x-2

(ii) (d)
(iii) (d)
(iv) (b) Rs. 2600
(v) (c) 60000 litre

19. (i) (d)

(ii) (c) 12
(iii) (b) 432
(iv) (a) 8: 27: 12 hrs
(v) (d) 5184

20. (i) (c) 17

(ii) (c) 60
(iii) (d) 68
(iv) (a) 58
(v) (c) 60

PART – B

21.
k=
k= =
∴k=
OR
Let C be the mid point of AB
=
= (1,1)
Hence, coordinates of the midpoint is (1,1)

22. = 2x-1
Squaring on both sides

– 4x-
– 4x + 3 = 0
(x-1) (x-3) = 0
x = 1and x =3

197
23.

tan A =
sin A = ;
cos A =
+ = + =
OR
= Cos
=
= cot

24. Let the required ratio be k: 1

X= =
y= =
This point p(x,y) lies on the line 2x + y-4=0
=2 + =4
= 9k = 2 k=
Required ratio : 1 which is 2: 9

25. x2 + y2 + z2 = r2 sin2Acos2C + r2 sin2 A sin2C + r2 cos2A

= r2 sin2A (cos2C + sin2C) + r2 cos2A
= r2 sin2A + r2 cos2A [ sin2 + cos2 =1]
= r2 (sin2A + cos2A)
= r2
∴ r = x2 + y2 + z2
2

Hence proved

26. n(S) = 3+2+4 = 9

n(E) =
Probability (will not be a white marble) =

198
 SECTION – IV
27. Let us assume that + is a rational number.
As + is a rational number,
There exist two co – prime numbers p, q such that
+ =
Therefore = +
- =
=5
Squaring on both the sides
- +3=5

–2= =

= x

=
This implies that is a rational number ,
Because is a rational number, as p, q are integers.
This is a contradiction to the fact that is irrational.
So our assumption that is a rational number is not correct
Hence , is an irrational number.

28. - ….. (1)

+ = 5 ….. (2)
Solving (1) & (2)
=3 =2

6 = 3(k-1)
k=3
OR
[2(54)+(n-1) (-3)] = 513
[108-3n+3] = 513
[111-3n] = 153
111n - = 1026
-111n + 1026 = 0
-37n + 342 = 0
(n-19) (n-18) = 0
n = 19 or n= 18
The reason for double answer is that the 19th term is equal to zero.

199
29.

Given : In a triangle ABC in which a line parallel to side BC intersects other two
sides AB and AC at D and E respectively.
To prove :
Construction : Join BE and CD
Draw DM AE and EN AD
Proof:
In ADE and BDE
ar ( = x AD x EN
ar ( = x DB x EN

= …. (1)

Similarly In ADE and DEC

= x AE x DM
DEC) = x EC x DM

= = …. (2)

Since and DEC are on the same base DE and between the same parallels
BC and DE
Therefore ar( ) = ar( DEC) ….(3)
From (1), (2) and (3) we have =
Hence proved.

30. LHS
+
A+ A + 2cos A sec A
1+1+ A + 2+1 + A+2
7+ A+ A
= R.H.S
LHS = RHS
Hence proved.

200
31.
Height (cm) No. of Girls cf
Less than 140 4 4
140 - 145 7 11
145- 150 18 29
150 - 155 11 40
155 - 160 6 46
160 - 165 5 51
Total 51
Median = l + xh
= 145 + x5
= 145 + = 145 + 4.02
= 149.02
Hence the median height = 149 cm

32. Let point (6,a) divides the given line segment in the ratio k:1
6=
6 k + 6 = 2k + 9
4k =3

i.e 3:4 also taking y- coordinate of (6,a) we get

a= =
OR
The area covered by one blade = x x
∴The area covered by both blades = (2 x x x 625)
= 625
=

33.

201
 SECTION - V
34. Area of the remaining sheet = Area of square – 4(Area of quadrant radius 17.5cm) –
Area of the circle of diameter 21 cm.
= [60 x 60 - 4 ]
= [3600 – 22 x - 22 x ]
= [3600 – 11 x - ]
= [3600 - (175 + 63)]
= [3600 - x 238]
= [ 3600 – 11 x 119]
= [3600 – 1309]
= 2291
OR

AM BC
BM = MC = BC
In AMB
=
=
=

=
= +
-

Hence proved.

35. The surface Area of the block = TSA of cube – base area of hemisphere + CSA of
hemisphere
= 150 - +2
= (150 + )
= 150 + x
= 150 + 13.86
= 163.86

202
36. Let the frequency of the class 30 -40 be F1 and that of 50 -60 be F2 .
Class Interval Frequency CF
10 - 20 12 12
20 - 30 30 42
30 - 40 F1 42 + F1
40 - 50 65 107 + F1
50 - 60 F2 107 + F1 + F2
60 - 70 25 132 + F1 + F2
70 - 80 18 150 + F1 + F2

150 + F1 + F2 = 229
F1 + F2 = 79 --------------(1)
Median = + xh

46 = 40 + x 10

6 =
78 = 229 – 84 -2F1
2F1 = 229 – 84 – 78
2F1 = 67
F1 = 33.5 34 putting in (1)
F2 = 45
Hence F1 = 34 and F2 = 45.

***********

203
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3

Part - A
Section - I
1. If HCF (336, 54) = 6, find LCM (336, 54).
OR
If HCF of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form 65n-117, then find the value of n.
2. For which value(s ) of p, will the lines represented by the following pair of linear
equations be parallel ?
3. Find the roots of the quadratic equation x2 − 0.04 = 0
OR
2
If ½ is a root of the equation x + kx − 54 = 0, then what is the value of k ?
4. Find the sum of first 20 terms of the AP 1, 4, 7, 10 ....
5. A ladder 10 m long reaches a window 8 m above the ground. Find the distance of the
foot of the ladder from the base of the wall.
6. 7th term of an A.P is 40, determine sum of first thirteen terms.
7. If sin θ = , then find the value of tan θ +secθ.
OR
2
Find the value of sin θ +
θ
8. If x = 3 sin θ + 4 cos θ and y = 3 cos θ − 4 sin θ then prove that x 2 + y 2 = 25.
OR
Find the value of θ, where θ θ θ< 900
9. To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined to each other at an angle of
600, it is required to draw a tangents at end points of those two radii of the circle, then
what should be the angle between these radii.
10. Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the chord of
larger circle (in cm) which touches the smaller circle.
11. In figure, and , prove that BAC is an isosceles triangle.

12. Find the radius of a circle whose circumference is equal to the sum of the
circumference of two circles of diameter 36 cm and 20 cm.
OR
Find the diameter of a circle whose area is equal to the sum of areas of two circles of
diameter 16cm and 12 cm.
13. Two cones have their heights in the ratio 1:3 and radii in the ratio 3:1. What is the
ratio of their volumes?
14. Two cubes each of volume 8 cm3 are joined end to end, then what is the surface area
of resulting cuboid.

204
15. Find median of the data, using an empirical relation when it is given that Mode =
12.4 and Mean= 10.5.
16. A pair of die is thrown. The probability of getting a sum of numbers which is a
perfect cube and divisible by 3.

Section II
17. For the box to satisfy certain requirements, its length must be three meter greater than
the width, and its height must be two meter less than the width.

(i) If width is taken as x, which of the following polynomial represent volume of box ?
(a) x2 - 5x - 6 (b) x3 + x2 − 6x (c) x3 - 6x2 - 6x (d) x2 + x − 6
(ii) Which of the following polynomial represent the area of paper sheet used to make
box ?
(a) x2 - 5x - 6 (b) 6x2 + 4x – 12 (c) x3 -6x2 - 6x (d) 6x2 + 3x − 4
(iii) If it must have a volume of 18 unit, what must be its length?
(a) 6 unit (b) 3 unit (c) 4 unit (d) 2 unit
(iv) At a volume of 18 cubic unit, what must be its height ?
(a) 1 unit (b) 3 unit (c) 2 unit (d) 4 unit
(v) If box is made of a paper sheet which cost is 100 rs per square unit, what is the cost
of paper?
(a) Rs 5400 (b) Rs 10800 (c) Rs 2700 (d) Rs 3400

18. Mr. RK Agrawal is owner of a famous amusement park in Delhi. Generally he does
not go to park and it is managed by team of staff. The ticket charge for the park is Rs
150 for children and Rs 400 for adults.

One day Mr Agrawal decided to random check the park and went there. When he
checked the cash counter, he found that 480 tickets were sold and Rs 134500 was
collected.
(i) Let the number of children visited be x and the number of adults visited be y . Which
of the following is the correct system of equation that model the problem ?
(a) x + y = 480 and 3x + 8y = 2690 (b) x + 2y = 480 and 3x + 4y = 2690
(c) x + y = 480 and 3x + 4y = 2690 (d) x + 2y = 480 and 3x + 8y = 2690
(ii) How many children attended?
(a) 250 b) 500 (c) 230 (d) 460
(iii) How many adults attended?
(a) 250 (b) 500 (c) 230 (d) 460
(iv) How much amount collected if 300 children and 350 adults attended?
(a) Rs 225400 (b) Rs 154000 (c) Rs 112500 (d) Rs 185000
(v) One day total attended children and adults together is 750 and the total amount
collected is Rs 212500. What are the number of children and adults attended ?
(a) (700, 800) (b) (350, 400) (c) (800, 700) (d) (400, 350)

205
19. Amul, is an Indian dairy cooperative society, based at Anand in the Gujarat. Formed
in 1946, it is a cooperative brand managed by a cooperative body, the Gujarat Co-
operative Milk Marketing Federation Ltd. (GCMMF), which today is jointly owned
by 36 lakh (3.6 million) milk producers in Gujarat. Amul spurred India’s White
Revolution, which made the country the world’s largest producer of milk and milk
products.

Survey manager of Amul dairy has recorded monthly expenditures on milk in 100
families of a housing society. This is given in the following frequency distribution :

Number of families 10 14 15 x 28 7 5

(i) How many families spend between Rs 525- Rs 700 on milk ?

(a) 21 (b) 38 (c) 17 (d) 26
(ii) What is the upper limit of median class ?
(a) 1225 (b) 875 (c) 1050 (d) 700
(iii) What is the median expenditure on milk?
(a) 601.4 (b) 636.5 (c) 616.6 (d) 624.5
iv) What is the lower limit of model class ?
a)1225 (b) 875 (c) 1050 (d) 700
(v) What is the model expenditure on milk?
(a) 734.25 (b) 743.75 (c) 801.25 (d) 820.25

20. In two dice game, the player take turns to roll both dice, they can roll as many times
as they want in one turn. A player scores the sum of the two dice thrown and
gradually reaches a higher score as they continue to roll. If a single number 1 is
thrown on either die, the score for that whole turn is lost. Two dice are thrown
simultaneously.

(a) What is the probability of getting the sum as an even number ?

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

206
(b) What is the probability of getting the sum as a prime number ?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) What is the probability of getting the sum of atleast 10?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(d) What is the probability of getting a doublet of even number ?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(e) What is the probability of getting a product of numbers greater than 16?
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

Part – B
21. Two tankers contain 850 litres and 680 litres of petrol respectively. Find the
maximum capacity of a container which can measure the petrol of either tanker in
exact number of times.
22. If the points A(4,3) and B(x,5) lie on the circle with centre O(2,3), find the value of
x.
OR
If point A(0,2) is equidistant from the points B(3,p) and C(p,5), determine the value
of p.
23. The sum of first 6 terms of an AP is 42. The ratio of its 11th term to its 33rd term is
1:3. Calculate the first term of an A.P.
24. If 4 cos θ = 11 sin θ, find the value of 11 cos θ − 7 sin θ .
OR
If cotA = , evaluate
25. A solid is in the shape of a cone mounted on a hemisphere of same base radius. If the
curved surface areas of the hemispherical part and the conical part are equal, then
find the ratio of the radius and the height of the conical part.
26. A cylinder and a cone have base radii 5 cm and 3 cm respectively and their respective
heights are 4 cm and 8 cm. Find the ratio of their volumes.
27. Find the HCF and LCM of 510 and 92 and verify that HCF × LCM = Product of two
given numbers.
OR
Write whether on simplification gives a rational or an irrational
number.
28. The 14th term of an AP is twice its 8th term. If the 6th term is -8, then find the sum
of its first 20terms.

207
29. Find the mode of the following frequency distribution.
Class 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70

Frequency 8 10 10 16 12 6 7
30. The incircle of ∆ABC touches the sides BC , CA and AB at D, E and F respectively.
Show that: AF+BD+CE=AE+BF+CD= (perimeter of ∆ABC)
31. In the given figure, DE OQ and DF OR .Prove that EF QR.

32. A kite is flying at a height of 90 m above the ground. The string attached to the kite is
temporarily tied to a point on the ground. The inclination of the string with the
ground is 60 . Find the length of the string assuming that there is no slack in the
string.
33. Find the 20th term of an AP whose 3rd term is 7 and the seventh term exceeds three
times the 3rd term by 2. Also find its nth term.
OR
If 7th term of an AP is 1/9 and 9th term is 1/7, find 63rd term.
34. Water is pumped from a cuboidal tank of dimensions 4mx3mx2m to an overhead
tank in the shape of cylinder. The overhead tank has radius 60cm and height 80cm.
Find the height of water left in the cuboidal tank after the overhead tank has been
completely filled with water from the cuboidal tank.(Use π=3.14)
35. Two men standing on either side of a cliff 90m high, observes the angles of elevation
of the top of the cliff to be 30 and 60 respectively. Find the distance between the
two men.
OR
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is 45 . On
walking 30 metres towards the tower, the angle of elevation becomes 60 . Find the
height of the tower and the original distance from the foot of the tower.(Use =1.73)
36. Solve for x and y:
+ = -3:

+ =-6:

***********

208
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3

1. LCM =
= 3024
OR
HCF = 13
65n - 117 = 13
65n = 13+117
n=
n=2

2.

Value of P is other than 10 all other real values

3. x2 - 0.04 = 0
x2 = 0.04
x = ± 0.2
OR
P( ) = +K
P( ) =
0=
0 = 2K – 215
K=

4. a = 1, d = 3
S20 = 10 [2 + 19(3)]
= 10 [ 2 + 57]
S20 = 590
5.

X=

209
 =
=6m
Distance between foot of the ladder and wall is 6m

6. a +6d = 40
S13 = [ 2a + 12d ]
=
= 13[40] [From (1)]
= 520

7.

= 12

(OR)

=1

8.
=
= 9+16
= 25 = RHS
Hence Proved
(OR)
[Both sides divided by sin ]

210
9. Angle between two radii = 180
= 120

10.

PM

PQ = 2(PM)
= 8 cm
Hence, Length of the chord is 8 cm

11. Given :
DE BC [By converse of BPT]
and [ Corresponding angles are equal]
[ ]
BAC is an isosceles triangle. Since .

12.

(OR)

= 64+36

13. =
= :
=9 1:1 3
=9:3
=3:1

211
14. =
a = 2cm

l = 4cm, b = 2cm, h = 2cm

Surface area = 2(lb + bh + hl)
= 2 (8+4+8)
= 40

15. Mode = 12.4, Mean = 10.5

3 median = Mode + 2 Mean
Median =
= 11.13

16. P (sum of numbers which is a perfect cube and divisible by 3) =

17. i) (b) x3 + x2 − 6x
ii) (b) 6x2 + 4x – 12
iii) (a) 6 unit
iv) (a) 1 unit
v) (a) Rs 5400

18. i) x + y = 480 and 3x + 8y = 2690

ii) 230
iii) 250
iv) 185000
v) (350, 400)

19. i) 21
ii) 700
iii) 616.6
iv) 700
v) 743.75

20. i)
ii)
iii)
iv)
v)

212
21. 850 = 2 5 5 17
680 = 2 2 2 5 17
HCF = 2 5 17
= 170
Hence maximum capacity of the container is 170 litres

22. OA = OB [ radius of the circle]

=
=( )+( )
- 4x + 4 = 0
(x-2)(x-2) = 0
x=2
Value of x is 2.
OR

=
+ = +
9 + + 4 – 4p = + 9
p=1

23. = 42 3[2a + 5d] = 42

2a + 5d = 14 ….(1)
=

=
3a+30d = a+ 32d
2a – 2d = 0
a=d
sub in (1)
2a + 5a = 14
a=2
Hence, the first term of an A.P is 2.

24. 4 cos = 11 sin

cos = sin
11
11 cos - 7 sin = 11 ) - 7 sin
4
121 2
= sin
4
= sin
4

213
 OR
=
=
=
=

25.

C.S.A of a hemisphere =C.S.A of a cone

= rl
2r = l
2r = 2 2

42= 2+ 2

2
= 2
h= r
1
=
ratio of the radius and the height is 1 :

2 1 2
26. Ratio of their volumes = 1 2
1 2
= 52 4: 8
2
= 100:
= 100 : 24
= 25 : 6

27. 510 = 2 3 5 17
92 = 2 2 23
HCF = 2
LCM = 22 3 5 17 23 = 23460
Product of two numbers = 510 92
= 46,920
HCF LCM = 46,920
Hence verified.

214
 OR
45 4 2 4 5
1 5
=1 5 5
5 42
5

5 5
=
5 42
5
=
42
It is an irrational number.

28. a14 2a
a 1 d 2 a d
a 1 d 2a 14d
a d
a d …………..①
a
a 5d
d 5 [From ①
4d
d 2
a=2
2 1 4 1 2
1 4
4

29. 1 1 1 2 12
1
Mode =
21 2
1 1
= 30+ 2
2 1 12
= 30 + 1
1
= 36

30.

(Since lengths of the tangents drawn from an

external point to a circle are equal) …………..①
1
2
1
=
2

215
 1
= 2 [From ①
2
=
1
Similarly we can prove
2

Hence proved.

31. In
1)
In
2
From (1) & (2)

32.

2
1

Hence, the length of the string is .

33. a
a a 2
a d a 2d 2
a d a d 2
2a 2
a 1
a 2d
1 2d [ ]
d 4
a2 a 1 d
1 1 4

216
 1
5
th
20 term is 75
a 1 1 4
1 4 4
4 –5
th
n term is 4n-5
(OR)
1 1
a a
1
a d 1
1
a d 2
1 1
1 2 2d
2
2d
1
d
1 1
a
1
a
1
a –
1
a
a a 2d
1 2

a 1
rd
63 term is 1.

34. a da a
4 2
24 m3
2
d a a
14
1 1 1
= 14
4 2
a a da a 24 4 2
2 5
2 5
4 2 5
2 5
4
1 24 4

217
35.

12
Distance between the two men is 120 .

(OR)

In ABC,
tan 45 =
+ = …….(1)
In ADC,
tan 60 =
=
x= …………(2)
From (1) & (2)
y + 30 =
y= = 41.1m
1

x=
=1.73 (41.1)
= 71.1m
Hence, Height of the tower is 71.1 m and the original distance BC is 71.1 m.

218
 5
36. + = -3
2 2
6A + 5B = - ………(1)
+ =-6
2 2
3A + 7B = - …………….(2)
(2) x 2 = > 6A + 14B = -12 …..( )
(1) - (3) - 9B = 9
B=-1
6A - 5 = -3
2
A=
1
=
1 1
=
2
+ 2 = …………….(4)
1
=-1
2
x – 2y = -1……………(5)
(4) - (5) 4y = 4
y=1
x+2=3
x=1

***************

219
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 4

PART –A
SECTION – I 16 x 1 = 16
1. Two numbers are in the ratio 21:17. If their HCF is 5, find the numbers
OR
If p and q are two co prime numbers, then find the HCF and LCM of p and q.
2. If x = is a solution of a quadratic equation: x2 + kx – 6 = 0, then find the value of
k.
3. If and are the roots of the equation x2-p(x+1)-c=0, then find the value of
( +1)( +1).
4. State whether the quadratic equation (x- )2-2(x+1)=0 have two distinct real roots.
5. What is the distance between two parallel tangents of a circle of radius 7cm?
6. PQ is a tangent drawn from a point P to a circle with centre O and QOR is a diameter
of the circle such that∠ POR = 1100. Find ∠OPQ.
7. Find the area of the largest circle that can be drawn inside a square of side 14cm.
OR
The circumferences of two concentric circles forming a ring are 88cm and 66cm
respectively. Find the width of the ring.
8. Which term of the AP: 84, 80, 76, 72……….. will be the first negative term?
9. Three numbers are in A.P, and their sum is 24. Find the middle term.
10. A series is given by 51 + 50 + 49+…………+21. How many terms are there in this
series?
11. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the same height.
Find the ratio of their volumes.
OR
How many bags of grain can be stored in a cuboid granary 12m x 6m x 5m. If each
bag occupies a space of 0.48m3?
12. A solid sphere of radius 10cm is moulded into 8 spherical solid balls of equal radius,
then find the radius of each ball.
13. The average monthly salary of 15 workers in a factory is `285. If the salary of the
manager is included, the average becomes `355. What is the manager’s salary?
14. The mean of 25 observations is 9. If each observation is increased by 4, then find the
new mean.
15. The class mark of a frequency distribution are 6, 10, 14, 18, 22, 26, 30. Find class
size.
OR
The mean and the median of same data are 24 and 26 respectively. Find mode of
same data.
16. Two unbiased dice thrown. Find the probability that the total score is more than 5.
OR
Find the probability that a leap year should have 52 Tuesday.

220
 SECTION-II
17. Cards on which numbers 1, 2, 3 .......... 100 are written (one number on one card and
no number is repeated), put in a bag and are mixed thoroughly. A card is drawn at
random.
(i) What is the probability that card taken out has a odd number?
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.49 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.51
(ii) What is the probability that card taken out has a two digit odd number?
(a)0.23 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.56 (d) 0.34
(iii) What is the probability that card taken out has a odd number which is multiple
of 11?
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.10 (c) 0.12 (d) 0.06
(iv) What is the probability that card taken out has an odd number which is not less
than 70?
(a)0.13 (b) 0.14 (c) 0.12 (d) 0.15
(v) What is the probability that card taken out has an odd number which is not
multiple of 11?
(a) 0.25 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.40 (d) 0.45
18. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium is a multi-purpose sports stadium and a very popular
sports stadium of Delhi. It has a capacity to seat 60,000 people. It is the third largest
multi-purpose stadium in India and owned by the Indian Olympic Association. In
2010, the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium was the main stadium for XIX Commonwealth
Games; a major sporting 2020-21 event. Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium is conducting the
annual sports competition soon. The curator of the stadium is tasked to figuring out
the dimensions for carving out some areas allotted for a hockey court and a shooting
range, as shown in the figure below.

The shapes of the hockey court and the shooting range are square and triangle
respectively. Both of the courts have a common edge that touches the centre of
stadium. The construction of the shooting range is such that the angle to centre is 900.
The radius of the stadium is 180 metres. On the basis of the above information,
answer any four of the following questions:

221
 (i) What is the area allotted to shooting range?
(a) 12, 600 m2 (b) 22, 000 m2 (c) 20, 000 m2 (d) 16, 880 m2
(ii) What is the area allotted to hockey court?
(a) 12, 600 m2 (b) 22, 000 m2 (c) 20, 000 m2 d) 16, 880 m2
(iii) If the team of the curators managing the stadium likes to allot space for some
more sports, how much area is available to them?
(a) 85, 600 m2 (b) 95, 800 m2 (c) 60, 040 m2 (d) 76, 980 m2
iv) If the boundaries of the hockey court and shooting range are to be fenced, then
what is the required length of the fence?
(a) 200( 2 + 5 3) m (b) 200( 2 + 3 ) m
(c) 200( 2 + 5 ) m (d) 200( 2 + 3 3) m
(v) If the cost of fencing is Rs 6 per metre, what is the total cost of fencing?
(a) Rs 2400( 2 + 3 ) (b) Rs 1200( 2 + 5 )
(c) Rs 1200( 2 + 3 ) (d) Rs 2400( 2 + 5 )
19. John and Priya went for a small picnic. After having their lunch Priya insisted to
travel in a motor boat. The speed of the motor boat was 20 km/hr. Priya being a
Mathematics student wanted to know the speed of the current. So she noted the time
for upstream and downstream. She found that for covering the distance of 15 km the
boat took 1 hour more for upstream than downstream.
(i) Let speed of the stream be x km/hr. then speed of the motorboat in upstream
will be
(a) 20 km/hr (b) 20 + x km/hr (c) 20 - x km/hr (d) 2 km/hr
(ii) What is the relation between speed distance and time?
(a) speed = (distance )/time (b) distance = (speed )/time
(c) time = speed X distance (d) none of these
(iii) Which is the correct quadratic equation for the speed of the current?
(a) x 2+ 30x- 200 = 0 (b) x 2+ 20x- 400 = 0
(c) x 2+ 30x- 400 = 0 (d) x 2- 20x- 400 = 0
(iv) What is the speed of current?
(a) 20 km/hour (b) 10 km/hour (c) 15 km/hour (d) 25 km/hour
(v) How much time boat took in downstream?
(a) 90 minute (b) 15 minute (c) 30 minute (d) 45 minute
20. Mahesh works as a manager in a hotel. He has to arrange seats in hall for a function.
A hall has a certain number of chairs. Guests want to sit in different groups like in
pairs, triplets, quadruplets, fives and sixes etc. When Mahesh arranges chairs in such
pattern like in 2’s, 3’s, 4’s 5’s and 6’s then 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 chairs are left respectively.
But when he arranges in 11’s, no chair will be left.

222
 (i) In the hall, how many chairs are available?
(a) 407 (b) 143 (c) 539 (d) 209
(ii) If one chair is removed, which arrangements are possible now?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
(iii) If one chair is added to the total number of chairs, how many chairs will be left
when arranged in 11’s.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(iv) How many chairs will be left in original arrangement if same number of chairs
will be arranged in 7’s?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
(v) How many chairs will be left in original arrangement if same number of chairs
will be arranged in 9’s?
(a) 8 (b) 1 (c) 6 (d) 3

PART-B
n
21. Can the number 6 , n being a natural number, end with the digit 5? Give reasons.
22. If the point C(-1,2) divides internally the line segment joining A(2,5) and B(x,y) in
the ratio 3:4, find the coordinates of B.
OR
The centre of a circle is (2a-1, 7) and it passes through the point (-3,-1). If the
diameter of the circle is 20units. Then find the value(s) of a.
23. The sum of n terms of an AP is (5n2-3n). Find the AP and hence find its 10th term.
OR
Find the 9th term from the end (towards the first term) of the A.P. 5,9,13, …, 185.
24. Draw a line segment AB of length 8cm. Draw circles of radii 4cm and 3cm with A
and B as centres respectively. Construct tangents to each circle from the centre of the
other circle.
25. Prove that sin6 +cos6 +3sin2 cos2 =1
26. Two concentric circles of radii a and b (a>b) are given. Find the length of the chord
of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle.
27. Prove that + is an irrational.
28. If the roots of the equation (a-b)x2+(b-c)x+(c-a)=0 are equal, show that c,a and b are
in A.P
OR
In an A.P if sum of its first n terms is 3n2+5n and its kth term is 164, find the value of
k
29. How many spherical lead shots each 4.2cm in diameter can be obtained from a
rectangular solid of lead with dimensions 66cm x 42cm x 21cm?
OR
Find the volume of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out of a cube whose
edge is 18cm.
30. In ∆ABC, AD is perpendicular to BC. Prove that AB2+CD2=BD2+AC2

223
31. Calculate the median for the following data:
Class intervals Number of students
Less than 20 0
Less than 30 4
Less than 40 16
Less than 50 30
Less than 60 46
Less than 70 66
Less than 80 82
Less than 90 92
Less than 100 100
32. Prove that =
33. If the median of the following frequency distribution is 32.5. Find the values of F1
and F2.
Classes Frequency
0-10 F1
10-20 5
20-30 9
30-40 12
40-50 F2
50-60 3
60-70 2
Total 40
34. A man is standing on the deck of a ship 8m above the water level. He observes that
the angle of elevation of the top of a hill is 600 and the angle of depression of the base
of the hill is 300. Calculate the distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the
hill.
OR
A boy standing on a horizontal plane finds a kite flying at a distance of 150m from
him at an angle of elevation of 300. A girl standing on the roof of 30m high building
finds the angle of elevation of the same kite to be 450. Both boy and girl are on the
opposite side of the kite. Find the distance of the kite from the girl.
35. Water in a canal, 6m wide and 1.5m deep, is flowing with a speed of 10 km/h. How
much area will it irrigate in 90 min, if 8cm of standing water is needed?
36. Solve for x and y:
+ +

***********

224
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 4

PART – A
Section – I
1. 21 x 5 = 105
17 x 5 = 85
Numbers are 105 and 85
OR
HCF = 1
LCM = pq

2. ( )2 + k( )–6=0
3 + k( ) -6 = 0
K=
=
2
3. - p( +1) – c = 0
2
- p - p -c = 0
=
=
( +1) = + + +1
= - p -c + p + 1
=1–c

4. ( - )2 -2 ( +1) = 0
2
-2 x + 2 -2 -2 = 0
2
– 2( +1) =0
b2 – 4ac = [ -2 ( + 1)]2 – 4(1) (0)
= 4( + 1)2
= 4( + 1 + 2 )
= 12 + 8 0
Quadratic equation has two distinct real roots

5. Distance between two parallel tangents = 2r

= 14cm

6. In OPQ + PQO = POR [Exterior angle property]

OPQ + 900 = 1100
OPQ = 200

225
7. Diameter of the circle = 14cm
Radius = 7cm
Area of the largest circle = x7x7
= 154 cm2
OR
2 r1 = 88cm
r1 =
= 14 cm
2 r2 = 66cm
r2 =
= 10.5cm
Width of the ring = r1 - r2
= 3.5cm

8. an 0
84 + (n -1) (-4) 0
84 – 4n + 4 0
- 4n + 88 0
88 4n
22 n
23rd term is the first negative term

9. a – d + a + a+ d=24
3a = 24
a=8
Hence middle term is 8

10. an = a + ( n – 1)d
21 = 51 + (n – 1) (-1)
21 - 51 = (n -1) (-1)
- 30 = (n -1) (-1)
n – 1 = 30
n = 31
There are 31 terms in the given series.

11. r2h : r3: r2h

h: r:h [r = h]
: :1
1:2:3
OR

226
 Volume of the cuboid granary = 12 x 16 x 5
= 960m3
No. of bags can be stored =
= 2000

12. Volume of a solid sphere = 8 volume of spherical balls

=8( )
=8
3=
10 8
=
=5
Hence, radius of the ball is 5cm

13. Sum of the salary of 15 workers = 15 x 285

= `4275
Sum of the salary of 16 workers = 16 x 355
= `5680
Manager’s salary = 5680 – 4275
= `1,405

14. Sum of observations = 25 x 9

= 225
New sum = 225 x 25 x 4
= 325
New mean =
= 13

15. Class size = 4

OR
Mode = 3 median – 2 mean
= 26(3) - 24(2)
= 78 – 48
= 30

16. P(Total score is more than 5) = =

OR
P(52 Tuesday in a leap year) =

227
 Section – II

17. i) 0.5
ii) 0.45
iii) 0.05
iv) 0.15
v) 0.45

18. i) 20,000m2
ii) 20,000m2
iii) 85,600m2
iv) 200(2+3 )m
v) 1200(2+3 )m

19. i) (20 -x)km/hr

ii) distance = speed/ time
iii) x2 + 30x – 400 = 0
iv) x = 10km/hr
v) 30 minutes

20. i) 539
ii) 2
iii) 1
iv) 0
v) 8

21. 6n = (2 x 3)n
For any number ending with 5, the prime factor 5 should be there in its prime
factorization .By fundamental theorem of arithmetic, above prime factorization is
unique.
But 6 has only 2 and 3 as prime factors.
Hence, 6n can never end with digit 5 for any natural number n.

22. (-1,2)=( , )
= -1
x = -5
=2
y = -2
Hence, coordinate of B is(-5,-2)
OR

228
 (2a -1 + 3)2 + ( 7 + 1)2 = 102
(2a + 2)2 + 82 = 102
4a2 + 4 + 8a = 100 – 64
4a2 + 8a – 32 = 0
a2 + 2a – 8 = 0
a = 2, a = 4

23. Sn = 5n2 – 3n
= S1 = 2
S2= 5 (22) – 3(2)
= 20 – 6
= 14
= S 2 - S1
= 12
A.P : 2, 12, 22, 32.
= a + 9d = 2 + 9(10) =92

OR
Here First term, a = 5
Common difference, d = 9 – 5 = 4
Last term, l = 185
nth term from the end = l – (n – 1)d
9th term from the end = 185 – (9 – 1)4
= 185 – 8 × 4
= 185 – 32
= 153
Hence, 9th term from the end is 153.

24.

229
25. We know that
Sin2 +cos2 =1
(Sin2 +cos2 3=13
(Sin2 )3+( cos2 )3+3 Sin2 cos2 (Sin2 +cos2 =1
Sin6 +cos6 +3 Sin2 cos2 =1
Hence proved.

26.
BC =
Length of the chord = 2

27. Let + be a rational number

+ = where b 0, a and b are integers
= -
( )2=( - )2

2= +3-2

2 = +1

Here, is a rational number. Since a and b are integers.

is also a rational number. But this contradicts the fact that is irrational.
is an irrational number.

28. (a-b)x2+(b-c)x+(c-a)=0
b2-4ac=0 [∵ Roots are equal]
2
(b-c) -4(a-b)(c-a)=0
b2+c2-2bc-4(ac-a2-bc+ab)=0
b2+c2-2bc-4ac+4a2+4bc-4ab=0
(b+c-2a)2=0
b+c-2a=0
b+c=2a
b-a=a-c
a,b,c are in A.P
OR

230
 Sn=3n2+5n
S1=8
S2=22
a1=8
a2=22-8
=14
d=6
ak=a+(k-1)d
164=8+(k-1)6
156=(k-1)6
k=27
Hence, value of k is 27.

29. Volume of cuboid = n(Volume of sphere)

66×42×21=n× × ×2.1×2.1×2.1

n=
n=1500
Hence, number of spherical lead shots is 1500.
OR
Diameter of the base of right circular cone=18cm
Radius=9cm
Height of the cone=18cm
Volume of the cone= πr2h cu.units

= ×3.14×9×9×18
=1526.04cm3

30. In ∆ADC
AC2=AD2+CD2
In ∆ADB
AB2=AD2+BD2
AB2-AC2=BD2-CD2
AB2+CD2=BD2+AC2
Hence proved.

231
31.
C.I f c.f
Less than 20 0 0
20-30 4 4
30-40 12 16
40-50 14 30
50-60 16 46
60-70 20 66
70-80 16 82
80-90 10 92
90-100 8 100
= 50

Median = l + h

= 60+ ×10
= 62

32.
=
=
=
=

=
Hence proved.

33.
C.I f cf
0-10 F1 F1
10-20 5 5+F1
20-30 9 14+F1
30-40 12 26+F1
40-50 F2 26+F1+F2
50-60 3 29+F1+F2
60-70 2 31+F1+F2

232
 31+F1+F2 = 40
F1+F2 = 9
32.5 = 30+
2.5 =
15.0 = (6-F1)5
3 = 6-F1
F1 = 3
F2 = 6

34

In
tan60 =
=
h= --------(1)
In
tan30 =
=
x=8 --------( 2)
Sub (2) in( 1)
h = 24
Distance of the hill from the ship = 8 m
Height of the hill = 24 +8
=32m

OR

233
 In
sin30 =
BE = 75m
In
BF = 45m
sin45 =
x = 45 m
Distance of the kite from the girl is 45 m

35. Width of the canal = 6m

Deep of the canal = 1.5m
Quantity of water reached the field in 90 min = Volume of the water in the canal
when length is 15 km
l1b1h1=l2b2h2
l1b1× = 15000×6×1.5
l1×b1 =
Area irrigated = 1,687,500 m2

36. =X

=Y
15X+22Y=5 -------(1)
40X+55Y=13 -------(2)
(1)×5, 75X+110Y=25 -------(3)
(2)×2, 80X+110Y=26 -------(4)
-5X = -1 [(3) – (4)]
X=
3+22Y = 5
Y=
x-y = 5
x+y = 11
2x = 16
x=8
y=3

***********

234
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 5

PART –A
Section – I 16 x 1 = 16
2
1. Find the zeroes of the polynomial p(x)= 4x – 12x + 9
2. In ABC , D and E are points on sides AB and AC respectively
such that DE // BC and AD : DB = 3:1. If EA =6.6cm then find AC. .
3. If 2k+1, 6, 3k + 1are in AP, then find the value of k.
OR
If the sum of n terms of an AP is 2n + 5n , then find the 2nd term.
2

4. If x = a, y = b is the solution of the pair of equations x – y = 2 and x + y= 4, then find

the values of a and b.
5. Find the radius of the largest right circular cone that can be cut out from a cube of
edge 4.2 cm.
6. The circumference of a circle exceeds its diameter by 180cm. Find its radius.
7. A bag contains 40 balls out of which some are red, some are blue and remaining are
black. If the probability of drawing a red ball is and that of blue ball is , then find
the number of black balls.
OR
Rahim tosses two different coins simultaneously. Find the probability of getting at
least one tail.
8. If cot = , then find the value of
9. Write whether the rational number will have terminating decimal expansion or a
non terminating repeating decimal expansion.
OR
Write the HCF of the smallest composite number and the smallest prime number.
10. Find the value(s) of k, if the quadratic equation
3x2 - k +4 = 0 has equal roots.
OR
If -5 is a root of the quadratic equation 2x2 + px – 15 = 0 and the Quadratic equation
p(x2 + x) + k = 0 has equal roots, then find the value of k.
11. In the given figure ABCD is a rectangle. Find the value of x and y.

12. If ax2 + bx +c = 0 has equal roots, find the value of c.

13. In the given figure , PA and PB are tangents to the circle drawn from an external
point p. CD is the third tangent touching the circle at Q. If PA = 15cm, find the
perimeter of PCD.

235
 OR
In the given figure the Quadrilateral ABCD circumscribes a circle
With centre O. AOB = 1150, then find COD.

14. To divide a line segment AB in the ratio 5:7 , first a ray AX is drawn such that
BAX is an acute angle and then at equal distances. Points are marked on the ray.
Find the minimum number of these points.
15. Find the value of ( sin300 + cos600 )
16. A single letter is selected at random from the ‘PROBABILITY’. Find the probability
that it is a vowel.

SECTION – II 4 x 4 = 16
17. Shalvi wants to organize her birthday party. She was happy on her birthday. She is
very health conscious, thus she decided to serve fruits only.
She has 36 apples and 60 bananas at home and decided to serve them. She want to
distribute fruits among guests. She does not want to discriminate among guests so
she decided to distribute equally among all.

(i). How many maximum guests Shalvi can invite?

(a) 12 (b) 120 (c) 6 (d) 180
(ii). How many apples and bananas will each guest get?
(a) 3 apple 5 banana (b) 5 apple 3 banana
(c) 2 apple 4 banana (d) 4 apple 2 banana
(iii). Shalvi decide to add 42 mangoes also. In this case how many maximum guests
Shalvi can invite?
(a) 12 (b) 120 (c) 6 (d) 180
(iv). How many total fruits will each guest get?
(a) 6 apple 5 banana and 6 mangoes (b) 6 apple 10 banana and 7mangoes
(c) 3 apple 5 banana and 7 mangoes (d) 3 apple 10 banana and 6mangoes
(v). If Shalvi decide to add 3 more mangoes and instead 6 apple, in this case how many
maximum guests Shalvi can invite?
(a) 12 (b) 30 (c) 15 (d) 24

236
18. Dipeshbought3notebooksand2pensforRs.80.HisfriendRameshsaidthatpriceofeach
notebook could be Rs. 25. Then three notebooks would cost Rs.75, the two pens
would cost Rs. 5 and each pen could be for Rs. 2.50. Another friend Amar felt that
Rs. 2.50 for one pen was too little. It should be at least Rs. 16. Then the price of
each notebook would also be Rs.16.
Lokesh also bought the same types of notebooks and pens as Dipesh. He paid 110
for 4 notebooks and 3 pens
(i). Let the cost of one notebook be x and that of pen be y .Which of the following set
describe the given problem?
(a). 2x + 3y =80 and 3x + 4y = 110
(b). 3x +2y =80 and 4x +3y =110
(c ). 2x +3y = 80 and 4x +3y = 110
(d). 3x + 2y =80 and 3x +4y =110
(ii). Whether the estimation of Ramesh and Amaris applicable for Lokesh?
(a) Ramesh’s estimation is wrong but Amar’s estimation is correct.
(b) Ramesh’s estimation is correct but Amar’s estimation is wrong.
(c) Both estimation are correct.
(d) Ramesh’s estimation is wrong but Amar’s estimation is also wrong.
(iii). What is the exact cost of the notebook?
(a) Rs10 (b) Rs20 (c) Rs16 (d) Rs24
(iv). What is the exact cost of the pen?
(a) Rs10 (b) Rs20 (c) Rs16 (d) Rs24
(v). What is the total cost if they will purchase the same type of 15 notebooks and 12
pens?
(a) Rs410 (b) Rs 200 (c) Rs420 (d) Rs 240
19. Radio towers are used for transmitting a range of communication services including
radio and television. The tower will either act as an antenna itself or support one or
more antennas on its structure, including microwave dishes. They are among the
tallest human-made structures. There are 2 main types: guyed and self-supporting
structures.
On a similar concept, a radio station tower was built in two sections A and B. Tower
is supported by wires from a point O. Distance between the base of the tower and
point O is 36 m. From point O, the angle of elevation of the top of section B is 30c
and the angle of elevation of the top of section A is 45c.

237
 On the basis of the above information, answer any four of the following questions:
(i). What is the height of the section B?
(a) 2 3m (b) 12 2m (c). 8 3m (d). 4 m
(ii). What is the height of the section A?
(a). 12(2- m (b). 24 (2- m (c). 12 (3- 3 )m (d). 24 ( m
(iii). What is the length of the wire structure from the point O to the top of the section A?
(a). 32 m (b).24 m (c). 28 m (d). 36 m
(iv). What is the length of the wire structure from the point O to the top of section B?
(a). 12 m (b). 24 m (c). 28 m (d). 16 m
(v). What is the angle of depression from top of tower to point O?
(a). 30c (b). 45c (c) 15c (d). 75
20. A human chain is to be formed in concentric form of radius 56m and 63 m at India
Gate. But the organizer has some problems, he wants you to solve his problems. Give
answer to his questions by using information in the question

(i) The circumference of circular chain of radius 56 m is

(a) 352m (b) 176 m (c) 704m (d) 88m
(i) The area covered by circular chain of radius 56 m is
(a)5544m2 (b) 3850m2 (c) 9856m2 (d) 12474m2
(ii) If each person is given two metres of space to stand, find how many persons can be
accomodated in the chain of radius 56m.
(a) 126persons (b) 176persons (c) 156persons (d) 186persons
(iii) He wants to include one more concentric circle with a radius of 63 m, the
circumference of the new circle willbe
(a) 156m (b) 396 m (c) 176m (d) 288m
(v) How many more persons can he accommodate on the new circle?
(a) 198 persons (b) 156 persons (c) 176 persons (d) 186 persons

PART – B
Section – III 6 x 2 = 12
2 3 3
21. If two positive integers p and q are written as p = a b and q = a b: a,b are prime
numbers then verify : LCM(p,q) x HCF(p,q) = pq.
22. Draw a line segment of length 6cm. Using compass and ruler, find a point c on it
which divides in the same ratio 3:4.
23. If 7sin2A + 3cos2A = 4, show that tanA =
OR
Prove that: + = 2secA

238
24. In the given figure ,XY and X1Y1 are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O
and another tangent AB with point of contact C intersecting XY at A and X1Y1 at B.
0
Prove that .

25. The coordinates of the points P and Q are respectively (4, -3) and (-1,7) . Find the x -
coordinate of a point R on the line segment PQ Such that = .
OR
Find the ratio in which the point (-3, k) divides the line segment joining the points (-
5,-4) and (-2,3). Also find the value of k.
26. Find k, if the sum of the zeroes of the polynomial
x2 – (k+6)x + 2(2k -1) is half of their product.

Section – IV 7 x 3 = 21
27. In a seminar, the number of participants in Hindi, English and Mathematics are 60,84
and 108 respectively. Find the minimum number of rooms required if in each room
the same number of participants are to be seated and all of them being of the same
subject.
28. In the given figure, ABPC is a quadrant of a circle of radius 14cm and a semicircle is
drawn with BC as diameter. Find the area of the shaded region.

29. Show that in a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the
squares of the other two sides.
OR
P is the mid point of the side BC of ABC, Q is the mid point of AP,BQ when
produced meets AC at L. Prove that AL = AC.
30. The following distribution shows the daily pocket allowance of children of a locality.
The mean pocket allowance is Rs.18. Find the missing frequency k.
Daily pocket
allowance 11- 13 13- 15 15- 17 17- 19 19-21 21-23 23-25
(in Rs)
Number
3 6 9 13 k 5 4
Of children

239
31. Using the Quadratic formula, solve the following equation for x: abx2 + (b2 – ac)x –
bc = 0
OR
The difference of two natural numbers is 5 and the difference of their reciprocals is
. Find the numbers.
32. A tree breaks due to storm and the broken part bends so that the top of the tree
touches the ground making an angle 30 with it. The distance between the foot of the
tree to the point where the top touches the ground is 8m. Find the height of the tree.
33. The mean of the following frequency distribution is 57.6 and the number of
observation is 50. Find the missing frequencies F1and F2.
class 0 - 20 20 - 40 40 - 60 60 - 80 80 - 100 100 - 120
frequency 7 F1 12 F2 8 5

Section – V 3 x 5 = 15
34. The angle of depression of the top and bottom of a building 50 metre high as
observed from the top of a tower are 300 and 600 respectively. Find the height of the
tower and also the horizontal distance between the building and the tower.
OR
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower 30m high from the foot of another tower
in the same plane is 600 and the angle of elevation of the top of the second tower
from the foot of the first tower is 300.
Find the distance between the two towers and also the height of the other tower.
35. A hemispherical depression is cut from one of a cubical wooden block of edge 21cm,
such that the diameter of the hemisphere is equal to the edge of the cube. Determine
the volume and total surface area of the remaining block.
36. A person can row 8km upstream and 24 km downstream in 4 hours. He can row
12km downstream and 12km upstream in 4 hours. Find the speed of the person in
still water and also the speed of the Current.

***********

240
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 5

PART A (SECTION – I)
1.

x= ,
2. In ABC DE BC

=
=
EC = 2.2cm
AC = AE + EC = 6.6 + 2.2 = 8.8cm
3. K=2
OR
- = 18 – 7 = 11
4. x = 3, y = 1 a = 3, b = 1
5. r = 2.1 cm
6. 42cm
7. No. of black balls = 10
OR
P (getting at least one tail) =
8. =
9. = 0.09333 ………

So, it is a non-terminating repeating decimal expansion.

OR
HCF (2,4) = 2
10. K= 4
OR
K= Since p = 7
11. x = 22 and y = 8
12. C=
13. Perimeter of PCD = PC + CD + DP
= PC + CQ + QD + DP
= PA + PB
= 15 + 15
= 30cm
Since tangents PA and PB are from same external point P.

241
 OR
Since AOB = OD
COD = 115 (Vertically opposite angles)
14. 5 + 7 = 12
15. sin 30 + cos 60 = =1
16.

SECTION – II
17. i) a) 12
ii) a) 3 apples 5 bananas
iii) c) 6
iv) b) 6 apples 10 banana and 7 mangoes
v) c) 15

18. i) b) 3x +2y = 80 and 4x + 3y = 110

ii) d) Ramesh’s estimation is wrong but Amar’s estimation is also wrong
iii) b) Rs. 20
iv) a) Rs. 10
v) c) Rs. 420

19. i) a) 12 m
ii) c) 12(3- )m
iii) d) 36 m
iv) b) 24 m
v) b) 45c

20. i) a) 352m
ii) c) 9856
iii) b) 176 Persons
iv) b) 396m
v) a) 198 Persons

PART B
SECTION – III
21. LCM (p,q) HCF (p,q) =
=
=( )( )
= pq

242
22.

AC : CB = 3 : 4

23. 7 A+3 A=4

3 A+4 A+3 A=4
3 A A) + 4 A=4
3 1+4 A=4
4 A=4–3=1
A=
Sin A = = Sin 30
A = 30
And cos A = cos 30
tan A= =
OR
LHS = +
=

=
= =
= 2Sec A = RHS
LHS = RHS

24.

In
OP = OC (Radii of same circle)

243
 AP = CA (Length of two tangents)
AO=OA (Common)
by SSS congruency criterion
[∵ cpct]
Similarly we can prove that
Now Co interior angles
2 2 =180

In AOB,

Hence proved

25.

Since =
=
 =
 R divide PQ in the ratio 3:2
x- coordinate (abscissa) of R
=
= =1

(OR)

Let Q divides AB in the ratio (ʎ: 1), then

X – Coordinate of Q, -3 =
=2
Required Ratio = 2:1
= =

Sum of the zeroes of the Quadratic Polynomial = =

=k+6
Product of the zeroes of the Quadratic Polynomial = =
= 2(2k-1)

244
 By A.T.Q
K+6= 2(2K-1)
K=7

Section - IV
27. HCF OF 60, 84 and 108
60 =
84 = 7
108 =
HCF = 3 = 12
Minimum no. of rooms required =
=
= 21 rooms
Minimum no. of rooms required = 21

28. Let AC = r
In ACB, = +
BC = AC
BC = r

Required area = r r+ -
= = 98

29.

Given a right angle triangle ABC , right angled at B.

To prove : = +
Construction : Draw BD AC
Proof : In ∆ ADB and ∆ABC
ADB = ABC (90° each)
BAD = CAB (common)
∆ ADB ~ ∆ ABC by A . A Similarity axiom
Now, =
= AD x AC ……………………(1)

245
Similarly ∆ BDC ~ ∆ ABC
= CD x AC ………..(2)
Adding (1) and (2)
+ = AD x AC + CD x AC
+ = AC x (AD + CD)
+ =
Hence proved
OR

Given : In ∆ ABC,
P is the midpoint of BC and Q is the mid-point of AP
BQ when produced meets AC at L
To prove : AL = AC
Construction
Draw PM BL meeting AC at M
Proof : In ∆ BLC, PM | BL (from Construction)
= [ BPT]
But BP = PC (given)
=1
⇨ LM = MC …………..(1)
Now, consider ∆ APM, Q is the midpoint of AP and QL | | PM
=
But AQ = QP
= 1 ⇨AL = LM ………..(2)
So from (1) and (2)
AL = LM = MC
AC = AL + LM + MC
AC = AL+ AL + AL
= 3AL
AL = AC
Hence Proved.

246
30.
Daily Pocket allowance No. of children Mid-point
di = xi-18
(in ) ( ) ()
11-13 3 12 -6 -18
13-15 6 14 -4 -24
15-17 9 16 -2 -18
17-19 13 18=a 0 0
19-21 K 20 2 2k
21-23 5 22 4 20
23-25 4 24 6 24
= 40 + k = 2k-16
By assumed mean method
Mean = =a+ ∑
18 = 18 +
⇨k=8

31. We have ab + – ac ) x – bc = 0
A = ab, B= -ac, c = - bc
x=

x=

x=

x=

x= (or) x=
x= or x =
x= or x =

(OR)
Let the two natural numbers be x & y . According to the question the difference of
numbers x- y = 5
Difference of their reciprocals
Putting the value of (1) in (2)

+ 5y

247
32.

Let the original height of the tree = OP

In Right

33. Given that = 50, = 57.6

Class
Interval
0 - 20 10 7 70
20-40 30 f1 30f1
40-60 50 12 600
60-80 70 f2 70f2
80-100 90 8 720
100-120 110 5 550

248
 Mean

Section V
34.

In

In

From 1& 2

(as PR = BG and BG= 50m)

TR = TP + PR = 75m
Height of the tower = 75m
Distance between building and tower

249
 (OR)

Consider

Now consider

CD = 10m
Thus the height of the other tower = 10 m
The distance between two towers BD = 10

35.

Edge of the cube = A = 21 cm

For hemisphere = r = cm
T.S.A of Cube before depression is cut out = 6 = 6(21
Surface area of the face cut – off = =
C.S.A of the hemisphere = 2 =2 ×
Required surface area = 6 (21 - × +2 ×
= 6 × 441 +

250
 = 2646 + ×
= 2992.5 c
Volume of the remaining solid = volume of cube – volume of hemi sphere
= (21 -
= 6835.5

36. Le he perso ’s speed of rowing in still water be x km|h and speed of the
current y km| h.
Speed of boat in downstream (x+ y) km|h
Speed of boat in downstream=(x-y) km|h
Time=

ATQ + = 4 ------------------- ①

And + =4 --------------------②

Let u = and v =
From ① d ② become
8 v + 24 u = 4 -------------------③
12 v + 12 u = 4 -------------------④
Solvi g ③ d ④ we set
4 u → u= =

u=

→ = → ----------⑤
Subs i u e i ③ we ge
8 v + 24 x =4
8v+2=4
→ v=

→ = → x-y =4 ----------------⑥
Solve ⑤ d ⑥ we ge
x = 8; y = 4
Hence the speed of the person in still water = 8 km|h and speed of the current =
4 km|h.

*************

251
 SCIENCE

Duration: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

(i) The question paper comprises four sections A, B, C and D. There are
36 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Section–A - question no. 1 to 20 - all questions and parts thereof are
of one mark each. These questions contain multiple choice questions
(MCQs), very short answer questions and assertion - reason type
questions. Answers to these should be given in one word or one
sentence.

(iii) Section–B - question no. 21 to 26 are short answer type questions,

carrying 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the
range of 30 to 50 words.

(iv) Section–C - question no. 27 to 33 are short answer type questions,

carrying 3 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the
range of 50 to 80 words.

(v) Section–D – question no. - 34 to 36 are long answer type questions

carrying 5 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the
range of 80 to 120 words.

(vi) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been

provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the
alternatives in such questions.

(vii) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should be

drawn.
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1

SECTION-A
No. Questions Marks
1. If an element X is placed in group 14, what will be the formula and 1
nature of bonding of its chloride?
OR
Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between Manganese
dioxide and hydrochloric acid.
2. What is vinegar? 1
3. C3 H8 belongs to the homologous series of 1
(a) Alkanes
(b) Alkens
(c) Alkynes
(d) Cycloalkanes
4. What is the unit of refractive index ? 1
5. How much work is done in moving a charge of 2 C from a point of 118V 1
to a point of 128V?
6. What is the cause of dispersion of light passing through a prism? 1
OR
What is the power of sunglasses?
7. A steady current of 5A is flowing through a conductor AB. Will there be 1
any current induced in the circular wire of radius 1 m? Why?

8. Draw magnetic field lines around a current carrying circular loop. 1

9. When a current-carrying conductor is kept in a magnetic field, state 1
the position when maximum force acts on it.
OR
What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors
each of R/5?
10 If the patient is advisable for EEG, and has hypertension; this means he is 1
most likely to suffer from a severe ailment of which system?
11. Name the component of blood which helps in the coagulation of blood. 1
OR
In the five level food chain, if the amount of energy available at third level
is 20 KJ. What would be the energy available at the producer level?
12. State the function of epiglottis. 1
OR
State the function of liver in the process of digestion.
13. Which is the site for complete absorption of food in human digestive 1
system? Give reason for your choice.

252
 For question numbers 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion
(A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
14. Assertion (A):Pure water is neither acidic nor basic 1
Reason(R) : the pH of a solution is inversely proportional to the
concentration of hydrogen ions in it
15. Assertion: Ozone is a molecule formed by three atoms of oxygen 1
Reason:At the higher levels of the atmosphere, ozone performs an
essential function.
OR
Assertion: Both father and mother contribute practically equal amounts of
genetic materials to the child
Reason: For each trait in the child there will be two versions paternal and
maternal DNA
16. Assertion: If one bacterium divides then two resultant bacteria divide 1
again to generate four individual bacteria which will be highly identical.
Reason: It is due to asexual reproduction
Answer Q. No 17 - 20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any
four sub-parts in these questions.
17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17(i) to 17 (v). 1x4
When you hear the word respire, you probably think of breathing.
When you breathe, you are taking in oxygen with each inhale and releasing
carbon dioxide with each exhale. This gaseous exchange is important for
respiration, but while breathing is a physical process, respiration can be
thought of as more of a chemical process. All organisms, from a single
bacterial cell to a coral reef colony to a blue whale, undergo respiration.
Food molecules absorbed after digestion are taken in, broken down, and
the energy freed in the process is used to power the organisms movements
and physiological functioning. Respiration is the biochemical process in
which the cells of an organism obtain energy by combining oxygen and
glucose, resulting in the release of carbon dioxide, water, and ATP (the
currency of energy in cells).
17(i) Raw materials for respiration are :
(a) Glucose and CO2
(b) glucose and O2
(c) Glucose and fructose
(d) glucose and sucrose

253
17 Respiration differs from the process of combustion in the fact
(ii) (a)All the energy stored in glucose is released at once due to combustion.
(b) All energy stored in glucose is gradually released due to combustion.
(c) Comparatively large quantity of energy is produced due to combustion.
(d) The carbohydrates act as the combustion substance.
17 Respiration is a/ an:
(iii) (a) Anabolic process
(b) physical process
(c) Catabolic process
(d) biophysical process
17 Respiration is a process in which:
(iv) (a) Energy is used up
(b) energy is stored in the form of ATP
(c) Energy is released and stored in the form of ATP
(d) Energy is not released at all
17 Respiration is a/an :
(v) (a) Endothermic process
(b) exothermic process
(c) Anabolic process
(d)endogenic process
18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18 (i) to 18 (v). 1x4
Metallic Character
The ability of an atom to donate electrons and form positive ion (cation)
is known as electropositivity or metallic character. Down the group,
metallic character increases due to increase in atomic size and across the
period, from left to right electropositivity decreases due to decrease in
atomic size.
Non-Metallic Character
The ability of an atom to accept electrons to form a negative ion (anion) is
called non-metallic character or electronegativity. The elements having
high electro-negativity have a higher tendency to gain electrons and form
anion. Down the group, electronegativity decreases due to increase in
atomic size and across the period, from left to right electronegativity
increases due to decrease in atomic size.

254
18 Which of the following correctly represents the decreasing order of
(i) metallic character of Alkali metals plotted in the graph?
a) Cs>Rb>Li>Na>K
b) K>Rb>Li>Na>Cs
c) Cs>Rb>K>Na>Li
d) Cs>K>Rb>Na>Li
18 Hydrogen is placed along with Alkali metals in the modern periodic table
(ii) though it shows non-metallic character
a) as Hydrogen has one electron & readily loses electron to form negative
ion
b) as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form
positive ion
c) as Hydrogen can gain one electron easily like Halogens to form
negative ion
d) as Hydrogen shows the properties of non-metals
18 Which of the following has highest electro negativity?
(iii) (a)a) F
b) Cl
c) Br
d) I
18 Identify the reason for the gradual change in electro negativity in halogens
(iv) down the group.
a) Electro negativity increases down the group due to decrease in atomic
size
b) Electro negativity decreases down the group due to decrease in
tendency to lose electrons
c) Electro negativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic
radius/ tendency to gain electron decreases
d) Electro negativity increases down the group due to increase in forces of
attractions between nucleus & valence electrons
18 Which of the following reason correctly justifies that “Fluorine (72pm)
(v) has smaller atomic radius than Lithium (152pm)”?
a) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size increases down the group
b) F and Li are in the same period. Atomic size increases across the period
due to increase in number of shells
c) F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size decreases down the group
d) F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius
decreases from left to right.

255
19 Read the following and answer any four questions from 19 (i) to 19 (v): 1x4
Electricity requires an electric path to flow and there are many
conducting materials used for this purpose. There are non-conducting
materials which are used as insulation during working on live-lines.
Permanent indoor wiring is responsible for bringing electricity
throughout your home. In house wiring of the switches, holders and
sockets should be fixed on wooden/sunmica boards and blocks.
Nowadays, there are many semiconducting materials which are used to
reduce the voltage and also drop the current flow. This will reduce our
consumption of electrical energy.
19 In which combination household wiring is done?
(i)
19 Write down the properties of copper and aluminium and about their
(ii) applications in electrical wiring.
19 Write the equation relating power to voltage and current, for an electrical
(iii)resistance. Also, describe what physical form this dissipated energy
usually takes
19 Calculate the energy consumed in kWh by 1500 W electric geyser in 3
(iv) hrs in a day.
19 Define the S. I. Unit of electric current.
(v)
20 Read the following and answer any four questions from 20 (i) to 20 (v): 1x4
I. Analyse the following observation table showing variation of image
distance (v) with object distance (u) in case of a convex lens and
answer the questions that follow, without doing any calculations:
S. Object distance u Image distance v
No. (cm) (cm)

1 – 90 + 18

2 – 60 + 20

3 – 30 + 30

4 – 20 + 60

5 – 18 + 90

6 – 10 + 100

20 State the lens formula.

(i)
20 Write the serial number of that observation which is not correct. How
(ii) did you arrive at this conclusion?

256
20 Take an appropriate scale to draw ray diagram for the observation at S.
(iii) No. 2.
20 Under what condition does a biconvex lens of glass having a certain
(iv) refractive index act as a plane glass sheet when immersed in a liquid?
20 How many no. of rays are needed to get a clear image of an object?
(v)

SECTION B
21 Draw a well-labelled diagram of stomatal apparatus. 2
OR
Mention any two differences between pepsin and trypsin.
22 What is the similarity in mammals and bird’s heart? Give the reason also. 2
23 Give a test that can be used to confirm the presence of carbon/ CO2 in a 2
compound
OR
With a valency of 4, how is carbon able to attain noble gas configuration
in its compounds?
24 The laboratory preparation of chlorine gas involves the reaction between 2
aqueous hydrochloric acid and manganese dioxide as per the below
equation.
MnO2 +4HCl →MnCl2+Cl2 + 2H2O
(a) Name the type of the above reaction.
(b) Which substance is oxidised? Which substance is oxidizing agent?
25 Draw a neat labelled diagram of dispersion of light through a prism 2
26 V-I graph for 2 wires A & B are shown in the figure. If both wires are of 2
same length and same thickness which of the two is made of a material of
high resistivity? Give justification for your answer.

SECTION C
27 What are the three events that happen during the process of 3
photosynthesis? Give in brief.
OR
Explain the main steps of urine formation in human beings.

257
28 How are genes responsible for controlling the characteristics? Explain 3
with the help of an example.
29 In the past few decades, the yield and quality of our food grains has 3
increased. But it has also been found that the grains like wheat and rice,
the vegetables and fruits obtain from our agricultural land contain varying
amounts of pesticide residues. State the reason to explain how and why
does it happen?
30 Write balanced chemical equations for the following reactions: 3
(a) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium carbonate.
(c) Carbon dioxide is passed through lime water
31 In the following table, are given eight elements A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H 3
(here letters are not the usual symbols of the elements) of the Modern
Periodic Table with the atomic numbers of the elements in parenthesis.

1. What is the electronic configuration of F?

2. What is the number of valence electrons in the atom of F?
3. What is the number of shells in the atom of F?
4. Write the size of the atoms of E, F, G and H in decreasing order,
5. State whether F is a metal or a non-metal.
6. Out of the three elements B, E and F, which one has the biggest atomic
size
32 2g of ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube. 3
(i) List any two observations.
(ii) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place.
(iii) ‘Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
33 Find the current drawn from the battery by the network of four resistors 3
Shown in the figure.

258
 SECTION D
34 a) State the chemical properties on which the following uses of baking 5
soda are based:
(i) as an antacid
(ii) as a soda acid fire extinguisher
(iii) to make bread and cake soft and spongy.
b) How is washing soda is obtained from baking soda? Write balanced
chemical equation?
OR
(a) A solution has a pH of 7. Explain how you would you :
(i) increase its pH
(ii) decrease its pH
(b) If a solution changes the colour of the litmus from red to blue, what
can you say about its pH ?
(c) What can you say about the pH of a solution that liberates carbon
dioxide from sodium carbonate ?
35 (a) Differentiate between pollination and fertilization. Mention the site and 5
product of fertilization in a flower.
(b) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a pistil showing growth of pollen tube
and its entry into the ovule.
36 (i) Define the following terms in the context of spherical mirrors: 5
(a) Pole
(b) Center of curvature
(c) Principal focus.
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the reflected ray in each of the
following cases.
A ray of light incident on a convex mirror:
(a) strikes at its pole making an angle θ with the principal axis.
(b) is directed towards its principal focus.
OR
With the help of a neat labeled diagram explain the principle and working
of an electric motor with the help of a diagram. What is the function of a
split ring commutator?

***********

259
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 1

Section A
1. XCl4. (The element X of group 14 will have 4 valance electrons. so it shares the 4
electrons forming covalent bond with Cl)
OR
MnO2 + 4 HCl -MnCl2 + 2 H2O + Cl2
2. A 5- 8% solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar (1 M)
3. Alkenes
4. No unit
5. 20 J
6. Change in the speed of light (when it travels from air to prism and then to air)
OR
Zero
7. No. The steady current flowing through the wire produces constant magnetic field
near the coil and hence no current is induced in it.
8.

Or, Equivalent diagram showing magnetic field due to circular loop.

9. Force on the conductor is maximum when the conductor is placed perpendicular to
the magnetic field.
OR
R/25
10. Blood circulatory system.
11. Platelets. 1
OR
2000KJ 1

260
12. The function of epiglottis is to cover the mouth of trachea (or wind pipe) when we
swallow food so that the food may not enter the trachea (or wind pipe). 1
OR
(i) This secretes bile juice helps in emulsifying fat. 0.5
(ii) This alkaline bile juice make acidic food alkaline in nature. 0.5
13. Small intestine. 0.5
It has numerous villi for absorption. 0.5
14 (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
15. Ans: A 1
OR
Ans: A 1
16. Ans: A 1
17. (i) (b) glucose and O2 1
17. (ii) (b) All energy stored in glucose is gradually released due to combustion. 1
17. (iii) (c) Catabolic process 1
17. (iv) (c) Energy is released and stored in the form of ATP 1
17. (v) (b) exothermic process 1
18. (i) Cs>Rb>K>Na>Li
18 (ii).b) as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to form positive ion
18 (iii) a) F
18 (iv) c) Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in atomic radius/
tendency to gain electron decreases
18 (v) d) F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic size/radius
decreases from left to right.
19 (i) Parallel Combination
19 (ii) Copper and Aluminium have low resistivity and high conductivity. Hence they
are preferred in making electric wiring.
19 (iii) P=VI (0.5)
HEAT (0.5)
19 (iv) E = P X t = 1500 x 3 = 4500 J = 4.5kWhr
19 (v) 1A is the current when 1 C of charge flows through a given area in 1 s.
20 (i) 1/f = ( 1/v ) – ( 1/u )
20 (ii) Observation (6) Since v should be negative for object placed between P & F
20 (iii)

20 (iv) When Refractive index of lens = Refractive index of liquid no refraction takes
place and the combination acts like a glass sheet.
20 (v) Two

261
 Section – B

21. 2
OR
Pepsin is secreted in the stomach and acts only under acidic condition. 1
Trypsin is secreted in pancreas and acts under alkaline condition. 1
22. They have evolved a four-chambered heart with two atria and two ventricles. 1
One of the main benefits of this type of circulatory system is that it allows the
separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. 1
23. Burn compound in air/ oxygen; Gas evolved turns lime water milky (1M)
Equation
OR
• Due to self linking ability of carbon/catenation
• Since carbon has a valency of four it can form bonds with four other atoms of
carbon or atoms of some other mono-valent element.
• Due to small size of carbon it forms very strong and (or) stable bonds with other
elements.
24. redox reaction
HCl is oxidised to Cl2 and MnO2 is oxidising agent.
25.

(Diagram (1) Label –(1) )

26. Slope of V-I Graph = Resistance R
Here, Slope of Graph A > Slope of Graph B (1)
I.e., RA > RB
Since ρ α R, for given length and area,
ρA > ρB

Section – C
27. (i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll. 1
(ii) Conversion of light energy to chemical energy and splitting of water molecules
into hydrogen and oxygen. 1
(iii) Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates. 1

262
 OR
There are three main steps of urine formation: glomerular filtration, reabsorption, and
secretion. (with explanation) 3×1= 3
28. The genes control the characteristic by making a specific protein. Genes are the
segment of DNA that contains information to form RNA which ultimately forms
protein. Each gene contains two alleles and this instructs the cell to make protein for
expression of traits. 4×0.5= 2
If the plant has gene for green seeds then it will make protein which will give green
colour to seeds. 1
29. “Biomagnification or biological magnification is the process of accumulation of
certain chemicals in living organisms to a concentration higher than that occurring in
the inorganic, non-living environment.” 1
The contaminants might be pesticides such as polychlorinated biphenyls and DDT. 1
These substances are taken up by the organisms through the food they consume.
When the organisms in the higher food chain feed on the organisms in the lower food
chain containing these toxins, these toxins get accumulated in the higher organisms.
1
30.
Ans 1 M for each equation

31.
F has electronic configuration 2, 8, 2.
F has 2 valence electrons.
There are three shells in ‘F’.
H > G > F > E is decreasing order of size of atbms.
‘F’ is a metal.
‘B’ is having biggest atomic size among B, E and F.
32. Green colour of Fe SO4 disappears and reddish brown solid is formed.
Smell of burning sulphur.
(ii) Decomposition reaction

33. Equivalent Resistance RS = 10 + 10 + 10 = 30

RP =

I =

263
 Section- D
34
(a) (i) It is weakly basic in nature and naturalize hyperacidity.
(ii) It liberates CO2 with H2SO4, which extinguish fire.
(iii) It liberates CO2 on heating which makes bread and cake soft and sponge.(3M)

(2M)
OR
B. (a) The solution with pH 7 is neutral. Its pH can be increased by adding a small
amount of base like sodium hydroxide. Basic solutions have pH more than 7.
Similarly, pH can be decreased by adding small amount of acid like hydrochloric
acid. Acidic solutions have pH less than 7. (2)
(b) The change in colour of litmus from red to blue indicates that the solution is of
basic nature with pH more than 7. (1)
(c) Carbon dioxide can be liberated by reacting sodium carbonate solution with acid
like dilute hydrochloric acid. This shows that the solution is of acidic nature with pH
less than 7. (1)
35. (a) Pollination is a process of transferring of pollens from one flower to another. It is
a physical process. 1
Fertilization is the process of the fusion of male gametes and female gametes of
plants. It is a biological process. Only flowering plants undergo the process of
pollination, while fertilization is the common process of almost all living being. 1
The site of fertilization is ovule/ ovary 0.5
The product of fertilization is a zygote. 0.5

(b) 2
36. (i) a. Pole : Geometric centre of the spherical mirror (1)
b. Centre of curvature: Centre of a sphere of which the spherical mirror makes a
part.Light passing through the centre of curvature passes undeviated after reflection.
(1)
c. Principal focus: Point on the principal axis on which the parallel beam of light after
reflection passes through. (1)

264
(ii) a.

OR
Electtric Motor
Diagram (1)
Principle (1)
Working (2)
Split ring are the two half rings which reverses the direction of current in the
armature coil for every half rotation. (1)

***********

265
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2

SECTION – A
1. Define olfactory indicators?
OR
What is POP? Name its chemical Name and Formula
2. Describe amphoteric oxides ? Name one example.
3. Which of the following belongs to homologous series of alkynes
a) C6H6 b) C2 H4 c) C2 H6 d ) C3 H4
4. What is the nature of the image formed by a concave mirror if the magnification
produced by the mirror is +3?
5. Find the power of a concave lens of focal length 2m.
6. A positively charged particle (alpha – particle) projected towards west is deflected
towards north by a magnetic field. Find the direction of magnetic field.
OR
Study the following electric circuit and find the current flowing in the circuit.

7. Redraw the diagram given below in your answer book and show the direction of the
light ray after refraction from the lens.

8. Define One volt.

9. What is the commercial unit of electric energy? Represent it in terms of joules.
OR
Write the function of voltmeter in an electric circuit?
10. Name the information source of making proteins in the cell.
11. What will likely to be happen if the number of villi increases in the intestine?
OR
Decomposers have a great role in the ecosystem. Justify.
12. State the relevance of ten percent law in an ecosystem.
OR
State the role of diaphragm in our respiratory system.
13. In a food chain comprising frogs, insects, a snake and grass, which one of the
organisms is likely to have maximum concentration of harmful non-biodegradable
chemicals in the body.

266
 For question numbers 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given- one labeled
Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
14. Assertion : According to Mendeleev, periodic properties of elements are periodic
functions of their Atomic numbers
Reason : atomic number is equal to number of protons
15. Assertion: Some bacteria and fungi have a specific enzyme to breakdown the wastes.
Reason : Plastic is broken down by the action of some bacteria.
OR
Assertion: CFCs are used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers.
Reason: Now CFCs are not used anywhere all over the world.
16. Assertion: Sexual reproduction includes gamete formation through meiosis and
fertilisation.
Reason: Meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes to half in male and female
gametes.

17. Read the following and answer any four questions from 17 (i) to 17 (v).
Breakdown of pyruvate using oxygen takes place in the mitochondria. This process
breaks up the three-carbon pyruvate molecules to give three molecules of CO2. The
other product is water.
17(i) Lack of oxygen in muscles often leads to cramps among cricketers. This result due to
(a) Conversion of pyruvate to ethanol (b) Conversion of pyruvate to glucose
(c) Conversion of glucose to pyruvate (d) Conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
17(ii) Which pathway of breaking down of glucose produces maximum energy?
(a) Fermentation (b) Aerobic respiration
(c) Anaerobic respiration (d) Breathing
17(iii) Where does the first step, i.e. the break-down of glucose a six carbon molecule, into
three carbon molecule take place?
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Mitochondria (c) Nucleus (d) Chloroplast
17(iv) The correct sequence of anaerobic reactions in yeast is:
(a) Glucose → Pyruvate (Mitochondria) → Ethanol+ Co2
(b) Glucose → Pyruvate (Mitochondria)→ Lactic acid
(c) Glucose → Pyruvate (cytoplasm)→ Lactic acid
(d) Glucose → Pyruvate (cytoplasm)→ Ethanol+ Co2
17(v) Pyruvate gets converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide in
(a) Muscles (b) Yeast (c) Bones (d) Heart

267
18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(1) to 18(v).
The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present
in the outermost shell. The term atomic size' refers to the radius of an atom. The
atomic size is the distance between the centre of the nucleus and the outermost shell
of an isolated atom. The atomic radius decreases as we move from left to right along
a period in a periodic table
(i) Choose the elements that belong to the same period?
Element P Q R
Atomic number 2 10 7
(a) P, Q (b) Q ,R (c) R ,P (d) P, Q and R
(ii) Electronic configuration of an atom of an element is 2,8,2 . To which group does it
belong?
(a) 4th group (b) 6th group (c) 3rd group (d) 2nd group
iii) The electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 1. Identify the element
a)Na b) K c) Ca d) O
iv) Arrange the following elements in the order of their increasing atomic size : O, F and
N.
(a) O, F, N (b) N, F, O (c) O, N, F (d) F, O, N
(v) The atomic numbers of the elements Na, Mg. K and Ca are 11, 12, 19 and 20
respectively .Which element will have the largest atomic radius?
(a) Mg (b) Na (C) K (d) Ca

19. Read the following and answer any four questions from 19(i) to 19(v).
The refractive index of four media A, B, C and D are given in the following table:
Medium A B C D
Refractive Index 1.33 1.50 1.52 2.40
(i) If light travels from one medium to another, the change in speed will be
(a) Minimum as light move from medium A to C
(b) Minimum as light moves from medium B to C
(c) Minimum as light moves from medium C to D
(d) All of these
(ii) More dense the object
(a) less the light refracts (b)less the light reflects
(c) more the light refracts (d) more the light reflects
(iii) Refractive index is equal to
(a) speed of light in material / speed of light in vacuum
(b) speed of light in material / speed of light in air
(c)speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in material
(d) speed of light in vacuum / speed of light in air

268
(iv) If light travels from one medium to another, in which case the change in speed will
be maximum?
(a) When light move from medium A to D
(b) When light move from medium A to B
(c) When light move from medium C to D
(d) None of the above
(v) Light bends in all materials at
(a) equal angles
(b) different angles
(c) angles always greater than angle of incidence
(d) angles always less than angle of incidence

20. Read the following and answer any four questions from 20(i) to 20(v).
Electricity is the transfer of electrons from one atom to another. Electrons have a
negative charge and are at times attracted to atoms that have a positive charge.
Electrons orbit in an area that surrounds the nucleus of an atom. Electrons then
sometimes jump to the shell of nearby atoms as they orbit. Hence jumping or
movement of electrons creates electric current. Current is what flows through electric
wires and power electronic devices from light bulb to televisions.
(i) When electric current is passed, electrons move from
(a) high potential to low potential (b) low potential to high potential
(c) in the direction of electric current (d) none of these
(ii) Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Electric cell : (b) Resistor:

(c) Open plug key: (d) Rheostat:

(iii) Coulomb is the SI unit of
(a) charge (b) current (c) potential difference (d) resistance
(iv) Three resistors of 1 Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω are connected in parallel. The combined resistance
should be
(a) greater than 3 Ω (b) less than 1 Ω
(c) equal to 2 Ω (d) between 1Ω and 3 Ω
(v) The following graph shows current versus volage values of some unknown
conductor. What is the resistance of the conductor?

(a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω (c) 8 Ω (d) 1 Ω

269
 SECTION - B
21. Give a short note on spore formation in Rhizopus.
OR
Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline.
Will this plant remain healthy long? Give reasons for your answer.
22. Why does absorption of digested food occurs mainly in the small intestine?
23. Write the name and formula of the second member of the carbon compounds having
functional group —OH.
OR
Explain the following:
(a) Diamond does not conduct electricity.
(b) Diamond is used for making tools for cutting and drilling.
24. The following observations were made by a student on treating zinc and iron with the
given salt of solutions:
Sample CUSO4 FeSO4 ZnSO4
Zn Reaction occurs Reaction occurs ------------
Fe Reaction occurs ----------- No reaction
(a) State the reason for the following statements:
(i) Reaction occurred when Zn was added to FeSO4, solution.
(ii) Addition of Fe to Zn, does not cause any reaction.
(b) Write the chemical equation for the following
(i) Addition of Zn in FeSO4, solution.
(ii) Addition of Fe to CuSO4, solution.
25. At what distance should an object be placed from a convex lens of focal length 18 cm
to obtain an image at 24 cm from it on the other side. What will be the magnification
prodced in this case?
26. Find the net resistance of the network of four resistors shown in the figure. If the
combination is connected across a battery of 4 V, find the current through the circuit.

SECTION - C
27. A red coloured flowering plant denoted by RR is cross bred with that of white
coloured flowering plant denoted by rr.
(a) State the colour of flowers you would expect in their F1 generation.
(b) What must be the percentage of white flowering plants in F2 generation after F1
plants are self pollinated?
(c) Which of these traits is recessive?
OR
How can you help in reducing the problem of waste disposal? Give any three
methods.

270
28. What do you mean by double circulation in human beings? Why is it important?
Name the group of animals with double circulation.
29. (a) List two important functions of human kidney.
(b) Name the procedure used in the working of an artificial kidney
30. In the following table, six elements A, B,C, D ,E and F of the modern Periodic Table
with atomic number 3 to 18 are given:
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A E G
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
B C D F
(a) Write the electronic configuration of C
(b) State whether F is a metal or a non-metal
(c) The graph below is depicting the relation between atomic number and atomic
radius of a period
Explain why has element D smaller size than element C?

31. 2 g of lead nitrate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube

(a) Write down any two observations
(b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place
(c) Write the chemical equation for the reaction
32. Give reasons for the following:
a) Aluminium foils are used to wrap food items.
(b) Connecting wires are made of copper.
(c) Potassium is stored in kerosene oil.
33 .(a) What is the cause of dispersion of white light through a glass prism?
(b) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the path of light when two identical glass
prisms are arranged together in inverted position with respect to each other and a
narrow beam of white light is allowed to fall obliquely on one of the faces of the
prisms.

271
 SECTION-D
34. (a) Suraj observed that when metal compound "X" reacts with dilute H2SO4 to
produce effervescence the gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. If one of the
compounds formed is calcium sulphate, then what is 'X' and the gas evolved? Also,
write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction which occurred.
(b) (i) How does NaHCO3, help to relieve indigestion in stomach?
(ii) Rajeev’s father is a farmer. He treats the soil with quicklime or calcium
carbonate. What is the nature of soil? Why does he treat the soil with quicklime?
OR
Sudha conducted an experiment wherein she used few pieces of marble with dilute
HCI in a test tube. She observed the evolution of gas. The evolved gas was then
passed through lime water:
(a) What change would be observed in lime water?
(b) Write balanced chemical equation for the above change.
(c) Vishal learnt in his science class that few compounds contain hydrogen bur are
not categorised as acids. Justify his learning by giving one example.
35. (a) Give the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction.
(b) Give two important reasons for adopting contraceptive methods.
(c) What are the functions performed by the testis in human beings?
36. (a) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines through and around a current carrying
loop of wire. Mark the direction of (i) electric current in the loop (ii) magnetic field
lines
(b) How would the strength of magnetic field due to current carrying loop be affected
if (i) radius of the loop is reduced to half its original value? (ii) strength of current
through the loop is doubled?
OR
State Ohm’s law. Write the necessary conditions for its validity. How is this law
verified experimentally? What will be the nature of graph between potential
difference and current for a conductor? Name the physical quantity that can be
obtained from this graph.

***********

272
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 2

SECTION A
1. Olfactory indicators are those substance whose smell changes when they are mixed
with an acidic or basic solutions
OR
POP stands for Plaster of Paris. Its chemical name is calcium sulphate hemihydrate
and chemical formula is CaSO4 1/2 H2O
2. The metal oxides which behave like basic as well as acidic due to the presence of
both metallic and non-metallic characteristics are known as amphoteric oxides. For
example, zinc oxide, aluminium oxide, etc.
3 (d)
4. The nature of this image is virtual, erect and enlarged.
5. power of lens p = 1/f
P=-0.5D
6. Upward (Fleming’s Left Hand Rule)
OR
Rs = R1 + R2
= 10 + 20 = 30 Ω
I = V / Rs = 3 / 30 = 0.1 A
7.

8. When 1 joule of work is done in carrying 1 C of charge from infinity to a point in an

electric field, then potential is said to be 1 V.
9. The commercial unit of electric energy is kilowatt-hour (kWh)
1kWh = 3.6 X 106 J
OR
Voltmeter is used to measure the potential difference across the conductor in the
circuit.
10. DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) 1
11. Villi increase the internal surface area of the intestinal walls making available a
greater surface area for absorption. 1
OR
Decomposers clean up the dead material by processing it and returning the nutrients
to the soil for the producers. 1
12. According to ten per cent law, only 10 per cent of the energy entering a particular
trophic level of organisms is available for transfer to the next higher trophic level. 1
OR
Diaphragm expands downwards into the abdomen thus increasing chest cavity, This
allows the lungs to expand as we inhale. As the diaphragm contracts upwards thus
decreasing the chest cavity, it allows the air to expel from the lungs. 1

273
13. Snake 1
14. b
15. Ans: C. Assertion is true and Reason is false 1
OR
Ans: A
16. Ans: A 1
17. (i) D 1
(ii) B 1
(iii) A 1
(iv) D 1
(v) B 1
18. Ans. (i)(b) Q and R have same number of electron shell, that is why they belong to
same period.
(ii) (d) The number of electrons in the last shell is 2. So atom 2, 8, 2 belongs to 2nd
group
(iii).Na
(iv) (d) Atomic size decreases when we move from left to right along a period in a
periodic table.
(v) (C) Element K has the largest atomic radius as atomic size increases down the
group.
19. (i) b
19. (ii) c
19. (iii) c
19. (iv) a
19. (v) b
20. (i) b
20. (ii) c
20. (iii) a
20. (iv) b
20. (v) a

SECTION B
21. The body of the fungus is composed of the hyphae which develop the sporangium.
The sporangium is a swollen structure at the tip of the filaments bearing the spores
1
The spores are tough and resistant structures which are dispersed by the breaking of
the sporangium. When the conditions are favorable, then these spores germinate and
develop to form new fungal filaments. 1
OR
The leaves of a healthy plant coated with vaseline will not remain healthy(0.5 m)
because the vaseline coating will block the stomata. As a result, The plant would not
get oxygen for respiration. (0.5m) It would not get carbon dioxide to carry out
photosynthesis. The upward movement of water and minerals would be hampered
due to lack of transpiration. 1

274
22. Maximum absorption occurs in small intestine due to following reasons (i) digestion
is completed in small intestine (0.5m) (ii) inner lining of small intestine is provided
with villi which increases the surface area to ensure better absorption. (1m) (iii) wall
of intestine is richly supplied with blood vessels (which lake the absorbed food to
each and every cell of the body). (0.5M)
23.

OR
(a) No free electrons 1
(b) Diamond has the highest thermal conductivity of any known substance. 1
24. (a) (i) Zn is mare reactive than Fe. Therefore, it displaces Fe from FeSO4, solution to
form ZnSO4 and thus, the reaction had occurred.
(ii) Fe is less reactive than Zn. Therefore, the former cannot displace the solution.
Thus, the reaction didn't occur in this case
(b) (i) Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe
(ii) Fe + CuSO4 FeSO4 +Cu
25. f = +18 cm,
V = 24 cm
1/f = (1/v) – (1/u)
1/u = (1/v) – (1/f)
= (1/24) – (1/18) = - (1/72)
u = - 72 cm ---------------------------- (1)
magnification m= + (v / u)
= 24 / (-72)
= -1 / 3 ------------------------- (1)
26. Equivalent resistance
R = ((1/R1 )+( 1/R2)) + ((1/R1 )+( 1/R2))
= [1 / [(1/ 10) + (1/10)] ]+ [1/ [(1/ 10) + (1/10)] ]
R = (10 / 2) + (10/2) = 10 Ω
Current I = V / R = 4 / 10 =0.4 A

SECTION C
27. (a) All are red flowering plants in F1 generation. 1
(b) In F2 generation, only 25% plants will have white flowers.1
(c) White colour of flowers is the recessive trait. 1
OR
(i) By minimising the use of disposable plastic items 1
(ii) By recycling the non-biodegradable waste 1
(iii) By converting organic waste into compost 1
28. The circulatory system in which blood passes through the heart twice the pulmonary
circuit and the systemic circuit is called double circulation. 1
It helps in keeping the oxygenated and deoxygenated blood separate and maintains
the constant body temperature. 1
Group of animals having double circulation - birds and mammals. 1

275
29. (i) To remove toxic waste such as urea from the blood and produce urine 1
(ii) To control water balance and levels of mineral ions in the body 1
(b) The procedure used in the working of an artificial kidney in place of normal
kidney is called dialysis 1
30. (a) Electronic configuration of element C is 2, 8, 2. 1
(b) F is a non-metal because it has 7 electrons in its outermost shell 1
(c) In a periodic table while moving from left to right across a period or horizontal
row, the atomic radius or size decreases and the atomic number increase. So, D has
smaller size than C. 1
31. Ans. (a) Emission of brown fumes 1
(ii) It is an endothermic reaction. 1
(b) Thermal decomposition 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + 02. 1
32. (a) Aluminium foils are used to wrap food items because aluminium is a highly
malleable element and it doesn't react with food 1
(b) Connecting wires are made up of copper because copper is a good conductor of
electricity 1
(c) Potassium reacts readily with oxygen and water. A lot of heat is generated in the
reaction. It is, therefore, stored in kerosene oil. 1
33. (a) The dispersion of white light occurs because white light travels at different speeds
through the prism and hence the composite colours split at different angles inside the
prism. --------(2)
(b)

-------(1)
34. X is calcium carbonate and the gas evolved is CO2,.
CaCO3 + H2SO4CaSO4+ H2O + CO2 2
(b) (i) NaHCO3, is an antacid. It helps to relieve indigestion that is caused by the
formation excess acid in the stomach by neutralising it because it is a base. 1
(1) The soil is acidic in nature and this acidic pH doesn't favour the growth of crop
plan Rajiv's father adds quicklime (CaO) to soil so as to neutralise the soil acidity
which in turn increases the fertility of crop yield. The approximate pH 7 is optimum
for the growth of plants. 2
OR
(a) Lime water will turn milky due to the formation of calcium carbonate. 1
(b) Ca(OH)2, (aq) + CO2, (g) → CaO2 (s) + H20(l) 1
(c) Take a beaker of 250 ml and place two carbon electrodes fixed with the help of
cork. 3
• Connect the carbon electrodes to the two terminals of a 6 volt battery as shown in
figure.
• Now add some water containing ethanol and put the switch ON.
• Repeat the experiment with glucose solution.

276
 Observation: The bulb will not glow and the needle of ammeter will not show
deflection because glucose and ethanol do not conduct electricity
Conclusion: The experiment shows glucose and ethanol do not ionise in aqueous
solution that is, they do not give H+ ions, therefore cannot conduct electricity. Thus,
glucose and ethanol are not categorised as acids.

35 (a)(i) Off springs produced as a result of sexual reproduction are genetically diverse,
this genetic diversity generates greater variations in the population. Evolution is
possible because of sexual reproduction
(ii) Increased adaptability to the surroundings as a result of variations hence greater
survival chances
(iii) Sexual reproduction leads to the formation of new species. 2 (any 2 points)
(b) 1.To prevent unwanted pregnancies.
2.To control population rise or birth rate.
3.To prevent the transfer of sexually transmitted diseases. 2 (any 2 points)
(c) It produces male gametes called sperms. (0.5)
It produces a hormone called testosterone which controls the development of
reproductive organs and secondary sexual characters. (0.5)
36. (a)

--------------- (1)
(b) (i) increases twice
B α 1/R
B1 / B2 = R2 / R1 = ½
B2 =2 B1 -------------- (2)
(ii) increases twice
Since B α I
B2 / B1 = I2 / I1 = 2 I / I = 2
B2 = 2B1 -------------- (2)
OR
Ohm’s Law:
When the physical conditions such as temperature remains the same, the current
flowing through the conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference
applied across the ends of the conductor.

277
IαV or V α I
V / I = Constant
V = IR --------------(1)
Necessary condition for validity of Ohm’s law is that physical condition such as
temperature of the conductor remains same. --------------(1)

Procedure: Experiment to verify ohm's law

Procedure :
1. Connect the various components as.
2. Close the key, so that current begins to flow in the circuit.
3. Note down the potential difference (V) across the conductor PQ of resistance R
shown by the voltmeter and the corresponding current (I) shown by the ammeter.
4. Now move the knob of rheostat so that the current in the circuit increases.
5. Again note down the potential difference (V) across the conductor R in the
voltmeter and current in the circuit shown by ammeter.
6. Repeat the experiment five times by increasing the current in the circuit by moving
the knob of the rheostat in steps. -----------------(1)
S.NO Potential Difference (V) Current (I) V/ I

The value of V/I = R (constant) ---------------(1)

Plot a graph between V and I by taking V along X- axis along. We get a straight line
passing through origin.

Conclusion : From the graph between V and I, we conclude that I = V / R , which is

Ohm's law. Hence Ohm's law is verified experimentally. --------(1)

***********

278
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3

Section - A
1. What happens when quick lime is added to water?
OR
Name and state the law which is applicable when we balance a chemical equation?
2. Name the acid present in the following:
(a) Tomato
(b) Vinegar
3. Which of the following forms the basis of the modern periodic table?
(a)Atomic mass (b) Atomic number
(c) Number of nucleons (d) All of the above
4. A lamp rated 100 W and 10 V connected to mains electric supply. What current is
drawn from the supply line, if the voltage is 220 V?
5. What does the direction of thumb indicate in the right-hand thumb rule?
6. What are the two factors on which lateral displacement of an emergent ray from a
glass slab depends?
OR
Why are the heating elements of electric appliances made up of Nichrome?

7. Why do two magnetic lines of force never intersect each other?

8. When a news paper is seen through a lens, its print appears smaller. Name the type of
lens.
9. Under what condition, a concave mirror can form a real image larger than the actual
object?
OR
What is the phenomenon responsible for increasing the apparent length of the day by
4 min?
10. What is the role of seminal vesicles in the human body?
OR
If a plant is releasing carbon dioxide and taking in oxygen during the day, does it
mean there is no photosynthesis occurring? Justify your answer.
11. All the parts of the plant perform respiration individually. Give reason.
12. Give a step being taken to limit the damage of ozone layer.
13. A harmful chemical enters a food chain comprising of rat, wheat plant, snake and
eagle. Which one of these organisms will have maximum concentration of harmful
chemicals in its body and why?
OR
If a plant absorbs 13500 J of energy from the sun, how much energy will be available
to tiger in the following food chain? Plant → Rabbit → Tiger

For question numbers 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given one labelled
Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason(R). Select the correct answer to
these questions from the codes (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) as given below
a) Both Assertion & Reason are True &amp; Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
b) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.

279
c) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
d) Both Assertion and Reason are False
e) Assertion is false but Reason is True

14. Assertion: Baking soda is used for making food substances crispy during cooking.
Reason: The chemical name of baking soda is Sodium hydrogen carbonate
15. Assertion: Traits like eye colour or height are inherited traits
Reason: Inherited traits are not transferred from parents to young ones.
OR
Assertion: Diffusion does not meet high energy requirement of multicellular
organisms.
Reason: Diffusion is a fast process but only occurs on the surface of a body
16. Assertion: Sex determination in humans is controlled by chromosomes
Reason: Human male contains two types of chromosomes

Q.NO 17 -20 contain five sub-parts each. You are expected to answer any four
sub-parts in these questions.
17. In human being, the holozoic nutrition takes place in five steps. Alimentary canal is a
long tubular structure running from mouth to anus in which digestion and absorption
of food takes place. It has three associated glands which also help in digestion
process.
17.(i) Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?
(a) Mouth → Stomach → Small intestine → Oesophagus → Large intestine
(a) Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Large intestine→ Small intestine
(c) Mouth → Stomach → Oesophagus → Small intestine → Large intestine
(d) Mouth → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine
17.(ii) If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the
mouth cavity will be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into aminoacids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins
17.(iii) The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric
acid, choose the correct one
(a) Pepsin (b) Mucus (c) Salivary amylase (d) Bile
17.(iv) Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
(a) Stomach (b) Small intestine
(c) Large intestine (d) Oesophagus
17.(v) Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following
(a) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
(b) Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
(c) Trypsin and lipase digests fats
(d) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase digests emulsified fat droplets

18. Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(i) to 18(v).
Atoms of eight elements A, B, C, D, E, F G and H have the same number of electronic
shells but different number of electrons in their outermost shell. It was found that
elements A and G combine to form an ionic compound. This compound is added in a

280
 small amount to almost all vegetable dishes during cooking. Oxides of elements A
and B are basic in nature while those of E and F are acidic. The oxide of D is almost
neutral.
(i) To which group period of the periodic table, do the listed elements belong?
(a) 2nd period (b) 3rd period (c) 4th period (d) 5th period
(ii) What happens in their metallic character when one moves from A to G?
(a) Gradually decreases (b) Gradually increases
(c) Remains same (d) none of these
(iii) Which two of these elements could definitely be metals
(a) A and B (b) B and C
(c) C and D (d) A and D
(iv) Which one of the eight elements is most likely to be found in gaseous state at room
temperature?
(a) A (b) B (C) D (d) H
(v) If the number of electrons in the outermost shell of elements C and G are 3 and 7
respectively. Write the formula of the compound formed by the combination of C
and G.
(a) CG (b) CG2 (c) CG3 (d) C2G3

19. Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v).
A magnet has a north and south pole. The north pole of a magnet will attract the
south pole of a magnet. The north pole of a magnet will repel the north pole of
another magnet. The south pole will repel the south pole of a magnet. In short, like
poles repel and unlike poles attract.
The area surrounding a magnet is called its magnetic field. The magnetic field of a
magnet is an invisible field which is created by its magnetism. Magnets may also be
used to convert an unmagnetised piece of magnetic material, such as an iron nail, into
a magnet. This is done by rubbing it with a magnet by magnetization. The magnets
thus obtained are called temporary magnets.
19.(i) AB is a current – carrying straight conductor placed in the plane of the paper. What is
the direction of magnetic field produced by it at P?

(a) Into the plane of paper

(b) Out of the plane of paper
(c) Upwards
(d) downwards
19.(ii) The magnetic field inside a current carrying long straight solenoid is
(a) Infinity (b) zero (c) uniform (d) non uniform
19.(iii) A soft iron bar is inserted inside a current - carrying solenoid. The magnetic field
inside the solenoid will
(a) Decrease (b)increase (c)become zero (d) remain the same

281
19.(iv) The shape of magnetic field lines produced by a current carrying straight conductor
is:
(a) Straight lines (b) concentric circles
(b) (c) zig-zag lines (d) both (a) and (b)
19.(v) Which of the following law is used to specify the direction of magnetic field due to
a current carrying conductor?
(a) Fleming’s right hand rule
(b) Fleming’s left hand rule
(c) Right hand thumb rule
(d) None of the above

20. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 19 (i) to 19 (v):
Light scattered by fine particles whose size is comparable to the wavelength of light.
This can be demonstrated by a simple experiment. A few drops of sulphuric acid are
added to a glass tank containing sodium thiosulphate solution. An intense beam of
white light is passed through the tank and the emergent beam allowed to fall on a
screen. Due to the action of the acid, Sulphur is precipitated in the form of tiny
particles. The emergent beam is found to be orange-red in color, indicating that the
blue and the violet color are removed by scattering.
20. (i) Danger signals are marked in red color because red color is
(a) Least scattered by smoke or fog
(b) Most scattered by smoke or fog
(c) Most absorbed by smoke or fog
(d) Faster through smoke or fog
20. (ii) The sky appears blue during day time because
(a) Blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(b) Ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(c) Violet and blue lights are scattered more than the light of other colors by the
atmosphere.
(d) Light of other colors are scattered more than the Violet and blue lights by the
atmosphere
20. (iii) Twinkling of stars is due to
(a) dispersion of light
(b) atmospheric refraction
(c) scattering of light
(d) internal reflection of light

20.(iv) Scattering caused by the microscopic solid particles suspended in liquid or gas is
called
(a) Dispersion
(b) Atmospheric refraction
(c) Raman effect
(d) Tyndall effect
20. (v) Cloud appears white as
(a) Light is least scattered the least
(b) Red color is scattered the most
(c) Blue color is scattered the most
(d) All the colors of white light are scattered equally away.

282
 Section B
21. Why is it dangerous to sleep under a tree at night? Explain.
OR
Define blood pressure. In which type of blood vessels it is much greater in compare to
others?
22. Describe in brief the role of lungs in the exchange of gases.
23. A student detected the pH of four unknown solutions A. B, C and D as follows 11, 5, 7
and 2. Predict the nature of the solution
OR
When a drop of orange Juice is added to pure water, how the pH value vary for water?
If a drop of lemon juice is also added, will there be any more change in the pH value?
24. What is observed when a solution of potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of
Lead nitrate? Name the type of reaction. Write a balanced chemical equation to
represent the chemical reaction.
25. A narrow beam PQ of white light is passing through a glass prism ABC as shown in
the diagram.

Trace it on your answer sheet and show the path of the emergent beam as observed on
the screen E.
(i) Write the name and cause of the phenomenon observed.
(ii) Where else in nature is this phenomenon observed?
(iii) Based on this observation, state the conclusion which can be drawn about the
constituents of white light.
26. A wire of resistance 5 Ω is bent in the form of a closed circle. What is the effective
resistance between the two points at the ends of any diameter of wire A.
Section C
27. List three characteristics of lungs which make it an efficient respiratory surface.
OR
An experiment given by Mendel shows the following cross, answer the given
questions based on it.
Round, Yellow × Wrinkled, green
RR YY rryy
(i) What types of seeds were produced in F1 generation?
(ii) Give phenotypic ratio of progeny in F2 generation after self fertilisation of
F1?
(iii) Give the dominant and recessive traits in above cross.
28. The sex of a child is determined by what it inherits from the father. Justify it with the
help of a simple flow chart.
29. What are trophic levels? Give an example of a food chain and state the different
trophic levels in it.
30. (a) What is meant by periodicity in properties of elements with reference to the
periodic table?
(b) Why do all the elements of the same group have similar properties?

283
 (c) How will the tendency to gain electrons change as we go from left to right across
a period?
31. (a) What are 'groups" and periods' in the periodic table'
(b) Two elements M and N belong to group I and II respectively and are in the same
period of the periodic table. How do the following properties of M and N vary?
(i) Sizes of their atoms (ii) their metallic characters
(iii) Their valencies in forming oxides (iv) Molecular formulae of their chlorides.
32. Write chemical equation reactions taking place when carried with the help of
balanced chemical equation
(a) Iron reacts with steam
(b) Magnesium reacts with dilHCl
(c) Copper is heated in air
33. An object 2 cm in size is placed 30 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15
cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to get a
sharp image? What will be the nature and the size of the image formed? Draw a ray
diagram to show the formation of the image in this case.

Section D
34. (a) What do you understand by the term Hydrated salts
(b) Give two examples of hydrated salts which are coloured and state their chemical
formula.
(c) Give two examples of hydrated salts which are white and state their chemical
formula
OR
(a) Write one example for each of decomposion reaction carried out with help of
(i) Electricity (ii) Heat (iii) Light
(b) Which of the following statements is correct and why copper can displace silver
from silver nitrate and silver can displace copper from copper sulphate solution.
35. (a) What are the sexually transmitted diseases? Name four such diseases.
Which one of them damages the immune system of human body?
(b) Explain the following terms: (i) Implantation (ii) Placenta.
36. Three bulbs each having power P are connected in series in an electric circuit. In
another circuit, another set of three bulbs of same power are connected in parallel to
the same source.
(a) Will the bulbs in both the circuits glow with the same brightness? Justify your
answer.
(b) Now let one bulb in each circuit get fused. Will the rest of the bulbs continue o
glow in the circuit? Give reason.
(c) Representing each bulb by a resistor, draw circuit diagram for each case.
OR
When a high resistance voltmeter is connected directly across a resistor its reading is
2 V. An electric cell is sending the current of 0.4 A (measured by an ammeter) in the
electric circuit in which a rheostat is also connected to vary the current.
(a) Draw an equivalent labeled circuit diagram for the given data.
(b) Find the resistance of the resistor.
(c) Name and state the law applicable in the given case. A graph is drawn between a
set of values of potential difference (V) across the resistor and current (I) flowing
through it. Show the nature of the graph thus obtained.

284
 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 3

SECTION A
1 Quicklime reacts with water vigorously to produce slaked lime and a large
amount of heat
OR
Law of conservation of mass: Mass can neither be created nor be destroyed
during a reaction
2 (a) Oxalic acid (b) Acetic acid
3 (b) Atomic number
4 P =100 W, V=220 V
P = VI
I = P/V = 100 / 220 = 0.45 A
5 Direction of electric current
6 Angle of incidence, thickness of glass slab, refractive index of glass slab (any
two)
OR
Nichrome has high resistivity and high melting point and hence produces more
heat due to joules heating effect.
7 If two magnetic field lines intersect at a point, there should be two directions of
magnetic field at that point which is not possible.
8 Concave lens
9 Object placed between principal focus and centre of curvature.
OR
Atmospheric refraction
10 It secretes alkaline secretions
which lower the pH of semen and provide nourishment. 1
OR
No, it does not mean that photosynthesis is not taking place. During the
day, carbon dioxide released by plants during respiration is used up
for photosynthesis, and some of the oxygen released during photosynthesis is
used for respiration by the plants.
11 During respiration, in different plant parts, significantly less exchange of gas
takes place. Hence, each part nourishes and fulfils its own energy requirements. 1
Consequently, leaves, stems and roots of plants separately exchange gases.
Leaves possess stomata – tiny pores, for gaseous exchange. The oxygen
consumed via stomata is used up by cells in the leaves to disintegrate glucose into
water and carbon dioxide.
12. To limit the damage to the ozone layer, the release of CFCs into the atmosphere
must be reduced. CFCs used as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers should be
replaced with environmentally-safe alternatives. Also, the release of CFCs
through industrial activities should be controlled.(Any one point 1m)
13 Eagle, It is the top carnivore 0.5+0.5
OR
1.35J 1
14 b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

285
15 Ans: C 1
OR
Ans: C
16 Ans: B 1
17 (i) D
17(ii) B
17(iii) B
17(iv) B
17(v) D
18(i) (b) The listed elements belong to third period; it includes
Na, Mg, Al, Si, P, S, CI and Ar
18(ii) (a) The metallic character gradually changes to non-metallic character.
18(iii) (a) Compound A (Na) and B (Mg) are definitely metals as their oxides are basic
in nature
18(iv) (iv) (d) Element H (Ar), is likely to be found in gaseous state at room temperature
as it is 5th element of the group so it would have 8 electrons in its outermost shell
which the electronic configuration of a noble gas
18(v) (b) They will form CG3. i.c., AlCI3, (aluminium chloride).
19(i) A
19(ii) C
19(iii) B
19(iv) B
19(v) C
20(i) A
20(ii) C
20(iii) B
20(iv) D
20(v) D
21 It is not advisable to sleep under a tree at night, because during the night, without
the presence of sunlight the process of photosynthesis is unable to take place in
the leaves of the tree. Oxygen is a by-product of photosynthesis. So at night trees
only respire, giving out carbon dioxide. Hence, the air around the tree becomes
rich in CO2 due to which the person sleeping might suffer from some problems. 2
OR
Blood pressure: The force that blood exerts against the wall of a vessel is called
blood pressure. 1
This pressure is much greater in arteries. 1
22 The lungs are the organs that are responsible for gas exchange. 1The lungs are
also responsible for removing carbon dioxide from the blood. 1
23 A is basic, 'B' is acidic, 'C" is neutral and 'D' is strongly acidic in nature
OR
Orange and lemon have citric acid, hence, the pH value for water will decrease
because acids have less pH
24 Yellow precipitate of led iodide is formed. It is precipitation reaction.
Pb( NO3)2 (aq) + 2KI (aq) → Pbl2 (s) + 2KNO3 (aq) It is also called double
displacement reaction.

286
25

(0.5)
The name of the phenomenon is Dispersion. The phenomenon of splitting of
white light into its component colours while passing through a prism is known as
Dispersion of light. The angle of refraction is different for different components
of white light because of difference in speed of light when travelling through the
medium. This results in the refraction of different colors of the light at different
angles and thus results in formation of the spectrum. (0.5)
(ii) This phenomenon of dispersion is observed when a rainbow is formed.-(0.5)
(iii) The conclusion which can be drawn from the constituents of white light is
that white is light is composed of seven colors which are: Red, Orange, Yellow,
Green, Blue, Indigo and White. (0.5)

26 The diametrically opposite points divides the resistance into half of the total
resistance.
Resistance of each semi circle R1 = R2 = = 2.5 Ω ---------(1)
These resistances are connected in parallel. ---------
(0.5)
So, equivalent resistance Req = = = 1.25Ω --------- (0.5)

Section C
27 (i) Thin wall: The air sac walls are very thin so that gases can quickly diffuse
through them. Oxygen is absorbed into the blood and carbon dioxide is given out
from the lungs to be exhaled out. 1
(ii) Large surface area: The surface area for gases to diffuse through in human
lungs is roughly the same as a tennis court. The alveoli help to increase the
surface area for absorption of oxygen. 1
(iii) Good blood supply: The air sacs or the alveoli have a large capillary network
so that large volumes of gases can be exchanged. More the flow of blood, more
gaseous exchange. Moist: The air sacs are moist with mucus so that gases can
dissolve before diffusing. 1
OR
(i) Round and Yellow 1
(ii) 9:3:3:1 1
(iii) Dominant Trait-Round and yellow, Recessive traits - Wrinkled and green 1

28 Women have a pair of sex chromosomes XX while men have XY set of sex
chromosomes. All children will inherit an X chromosome from their mother
regardless of whether they are boys or girls. The sex of the children will be
determined by what they inherit from their father. A child who inherits an X
chromosome from her father will be a girl, and one who inherits a Y-chromosome

287
 from him will be a boy. 2

1
29 Trophic levels : The steps or levels of the food chain occupied by different living
organisms are called trophic levels. 2
Grass → Goat→ Tiger → Vulture
(Producers)(Herbivore)(Carnivore)(Secondary/Top carnivore)1
30 (a) The repetition of same properties after definite interval is called periodicity in
properties
(b) It is because they have same valence electrons therefore, have similar
properties.
(c) Tendency to gain electrons increases from left to right in a period because
atomic size goes on decreasing and effective nuclear charge increases
31 Ans.(a) The vertical columns in the periodic table are called 'groups'. The
horizontal rows in the periodic table are called 'periods'.
(b) (i) 'M' and "N' belong to same period but group I and II. Therefore, 'N' will be
smaller than "M' as atomic size goes on decreasing from left to right.
(ii) M' is more metallic than 'N'. Metallic character goes on decreasing from left
to right as tendency to lose electrons decreases due to decrease in atomic size.
(iii) Their valencies are 1 and 2 respectively in forming oxides. Valency goes on
increasing first and then decreases.
(iv) MCI, NCl2, are molecular formulae of their chlorides
32

33 u= -30 cm
h= 2 cm
F= -15 cm
1/v+1/u=1/F
1/v=1/F-1/u
1/v=(1/-15 )-(1/-30)
1/v=(1/-15)+(1/30)
1/v=(-15+30)/-450
1/v=15/-450
v=-450/15
v=-30cm (1)
m=h'/h=-v/u
h'/2=-(-30)/-30
h'/2=30/-30

288
 -30h'=60
h'=60/-30
h'=-2cm (1)
The image is real and inverted. The size of image is equal to the object size

(1)
34 Ans. (a) crystalline salts containing water of crystallisation are called hydrated
salts.
(b) Coloured hydrated salts are : (1) Copper sulphate pentahydrate, CuSO4.5H2O.
It is blue in colour.
(ii) Ferrous sulphuteheptahydrate, FeSO4.7H20. It is green in colour
(c) White hydrated salts are:
(i) Sodium carbonate decahydrate, Na2CO3 IOH2O
(ii) Zine sulphate heptahydrate, ZnSO47H20.
(OR)

35 (a) The infectious diseases that spread from infected to a health person by sexual
contact are called sexually transmitted diseases. 1
(i) HIV-AIDS (ii) Warts
(iii) Syphilis (iv) Gonorrhea 1
HIV-AIDS damages the immune system of human body. 1
(a) (i) Implantation: The embryo enters the uterus at the stage of the blastocyst
and becomes attached to the wall of the uterus, where it is to perform its
subsequent development. This attachment of the blastocyst to the uterine wall is
known as implantation. 1
(ii) Placenta: It is a temporary organ built up of maternal and foetal tissues
jointly. It serves for the transport of nutrients from the tissues of the mother with
those of the embryo as well as the exchange of gases between the tissues of the
two. 1
36 (a) No the bulb in the two circuits will not glow with the same brightness.
Because the resistance of the parallel circuit will be less than the series circuit,
consequently electric current through the series circuit will be less than the
parallel circuit. Thus, bulbs in the parallel circuit will glow with more brightness.
(1.5)
(b) Break down of any one of the components in a series circuit results in break in
the circuit. But it does not happen in case of parallel circuit. So, the bulb will not
glow in series circuit, but rest of the bulbs will continue to glow in parallel
circuit. (1.5)

289
c) (1 + 1 )
OR
(a)

(1)
(b) By Ohm’s Law,
V=IR
R=V/I
= 2 / 0.4 = 5 A (1)

(c) Ohm’s law : When the physical conditions such as temperature etc. remain
same, the current flowing through the conductor is directly proportional to the
potential difference applied across the ends of the conductor, i.e., (1)

(1)
where R is constant of proportionality and is called resistance of the wire. Since
current varies linearly with potential difference, the graph between V and I will
be a linear in nature as shown

(1)

***********

290
 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 4

SECTION – A
1 Green layer is gradually formed on a copper plate left exposed to air for
a week in bathroom. What could this green substance be?
OR
Why does calcium float in water?
2 Balance the following chemical equation
BaCl2(aq) + Al2(SO 4)3(aq) → BaSO4(s) + AlCl3(aq)
3 How will you test for the gas which is liberated when hydrochloric acid
reacts with an active metal?
(a) With pop sound (b) Hissing sound
(c) Lime water test (d) By smell
4 An object at a distance of 15 cm is slowly moved towards the pole of a
concave mirror. The image will get
(a) shortened and real (b) enlarged and real
(c) enlarged and virtual (d) diminished and virtual
5 An electric heater of resistance 8 Ω draws 15 A from the service mains 2
hours. Calculate the rate at which heat is developed in the heater.
6 An electron does not suffer any deflection while passing through a
region of uniform magnetic field. What is the direction of magnetic
field?
OR
What type of core is used inside a solenoid to make an electromagnet?
7 Name the phenomenon due to which we get light from the sun before
sunrise.
8 A circular coil carrying current is held in horizontal plane. In which
direction will be its magnetic field?
9 “The refractive index of carbon disulphide is 1.45”. What is the meaning
of this statement in relation to speed of light?
OR
Why does a ray of light passing through centre of curvature get reflected
along the same path?
10 Arteries are thick walled and have no valves. Justify. 1
OR
The walls of human heart are asymmetrical. Give the valid reason
11 Why ozone layer is called a protective layer for us? 1
12 Why were kulhads replaced with paper cups for tea in trains? 1
OR
If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which event in the mouth
cavity will be affected?
OR
13 How herbivores do digest grass but human cannot?

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 For question numbers 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given- one
labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of
the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
14 Assertion : Metals are sonorous
Reason: They are generally brittle in solid state. They break into pieces
when hammered.
15 Assertion: Biotic components of an ecosystem continuously require
energy to carry on the life processes
Reason: Abiotic components are the non-living factors of the ecosystem.
OR
Assertion: Reduction in weight of the organisms due to less diet is
genetically controlled.
Reason: Traits which are not inherited for generations do not cause
evolution.
16 Assertion: saliva contains salivary amylase
Reason: Pepsin digests lipids
Read the following and answer any four questions from 17 (i) to 17
(v).
17 The human heart is a muscular organ made up of cardiac muscles. It is a
four-chambered organ to prevent intermixing of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood. A thick wall muscle called septum that separates
the two sides left and right of the heart
17(i) The upper two chambers and lower two chambers are called
(a) Ventricles and auricles respectively (b) Auricles and ventricles
respectively
(c) Ventricles and valves respectively (d) Arteries and veins
respectively
17(ii) The artery which carries de-oxygenated blood from the heart into lungs
is called
(a) Pulmonary artery (b) Hepatic artery
(c) Renal artery (d) All arteries
17(iii) Pulmonary vein brings
(a) Oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart
(b) De-oxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
(c) Oxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
(d) de- Oxygenated blood from the lungs to the hear
17(iv) Tricuspid valve is found between
(a) Right auricle and right ventricle (b) left auricle and left ventricle
(c) right auricle and left ventricle (d) left auricle and right
ventricle

292
17 (v) The de-oxygenated blood from the body organs first enters
(a) Into the right atrium of the heart through vena cava
(b) Into left atrium of the heart through vena cava
(c) Into the right ventricle of the heart through vena cava
(d) Into the right atrium of the heart through aorta
18 Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(1) to 18(v).
Observe the data given in the table and answer questions based on table
and related concepts.
Ionisation energy is energy required to remove an electron from an
isolated gaseous atoms. It helps to decide tendency to lose electrons.
Electronegativity depends upon tendency to attack shared pair of
electron towards itself.
ELEMENTS Ionisation Elements Electronegativity
Group 1 Energy Group 17
-1
Li 520KJmol F2 4.0
-1
Na 426KJmol Cl2 3.2
K 419 KJmol-1 Br2 2.9
Rb 403 KJmol-1 I2 2.6
Cs 374 KJmol-1
i) Arrange group 1 elements in the increasing order of reactivity,
ii) Name the liquid element in group 17
iii) Which is the most electronegative element in group 17?
iv) What happens to the tendency to lose electrons down the group?
v) What type of compound will be formed between Na and Br2?
19 Read the following and answer any four questions from 19(i) to 19(v).
In 1827, a German physicist George Simon Ohm found out the
relationship between the current flowing in a metallic wire and the
potential difference across its terminals. He derived that at constant
temperature, the potential difference (V) across the ends of a metallic
wire in an electric circuit is directly proportional to the current (I)
flowing through it. This is called Ohm’s law.
Mathematically, V α I( at constant T)
V = R x I where R is a constant called resistance
19(i) The resistance whose V-I graph is shown below is

(a) 5/3 Ω (b) 3/5 Ω (c) 5/2 Ω (d) 2/5 Ω

19(ii) The temperature of a conductor is increased. The graph best showing the
variation of its resistance is

293
19(iii) Calculate the current flow through the 10 Ω resistor in the following
circuit,

(a) 1.2 A (b) 0.6 A (c) 0.2 A (d) 2.0 A

19(iv) A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three
samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1, R2 and R3 respectively as
shown in the figure. What is the relation between these resistors?

(a) R1 = R2 = R3 (b) R1 > R2 > R3 (c) R3 > R2 > R1 (d) R2 > R3 > R1
19(v) A piece of wire of resistance R is drawn to double its length. The new
resistance is
(a) R (b) 2R (c) 4R (d) R/4
20 Question numbers 20(i) to 20(v) are based on the table related to the
values of absolute refractive index of different material mediums. Study
the table and answer any four of the questions that follow.

20(i) Name the medium having highest optical density

20(ii) Find the medium with lowest optical density
20(iii) You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of these does the
light travel fastest?
20(iv) In which of the mediums mentioned in table does the light travel
slowest?
20(v) If the speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m/s, find its speed through Benzene.
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 SECTION - B
21 Draw a labelled diagram to show nutrition in Amoeba. Give one more 2
example of unicellular organism
OR
What is lymph? What is its function? 2
22 Draw a neat diagram of excretory system of human beings and label on 2
it: Left kidney, Urinary bladder
23 (a) Explain the formation of ionic compound CaO with electron dot
structure.
(b) Name the ions present in this compound
OR
What is baking powder? How it makes the cake spongy?
24 State reason for the following statements
(i) Tap water conducts electricity whereas distilled water does not.
(ii) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue litmus red whereas
dilute hydrogen chloride does
25 A wire of length 3 m and area of cross-section 1.7 x 10-6 m2 has a
resistance 3 x 10-2Ω. (a) Write the formula for resistivity of the wire and
its unit? (b) Calculate the resistivity of the wire.
26 Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of light through a glass prism.
Mark on it (a) the incident angle, (b) the angle of refraction,(c) the angle
of emergence and (d) the angle of deviation

SECTION - C
27 If we cross pure bred tall pea plant with pure-bred dwarf pea plant we 3
will get pea plants of F1 generation. If we now self-cross the pea plant of
F1 generation, then we obtain pea plants of F2 generation.
(a) What do the plants of F1 generation look like?
(b) State the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in F2 generation.
(c) State the type of plants not found in F1 generation but appeared in F2
generation, mentioning the reason for the same
OR
How is the sex of the child determined in human beings?
28 Draw the sectional view of the human heart and label on it the following: 3
Aorta, Pulmonary arteries, left ventricle and right auricle Diagram+
Labelling
29 Draw a simple diagram of a nephron and label the following parts with 3
their correct names. (a) Both the arterioles (b) The cup shaped structure
(c) Henle’s loop (d) Both the convoluted tubules.
30 A solution of a substance used for white washing. 3
(a) Name the substance and write its formula.
(b) Write a balanced reaction of the substance "A formed with water
31 Nitrogen (Atomic No7) and phosphorus (Atomic No. 15) belong to
group 15 of the periodic table. Write the electronic configuration of the
given two elements. Which will be more electronegative and why?
32 You are given samples of three metals. Sodium, magnesium and copper.
Suggest any two activities to arrange them in order of decreasing
activity.
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33 A convex mirror used for rear view of an automobile has radius of
curvature` of 3 m. If a bus is located at 5 m from the mirror find the
position, nature and size of the image
34 a) Anita dropped few pieces of marble in dilute HCl contained in a test
tube then she passes evolved gas through limewater
(1) What change would be observed in limewater?
(2) Write a balanced chemical equation for the above change
b) Mention the pH of aqueous solution of the following salts as 7, more
than 7, less than 7. KCI, Na2CO3, NH4 CI, NaNO3
c) Name one weak acid and one strong acid.
OR
(a) What is meant by term pH of a solution? The pH of rain water
collected from no cities "A' and 'B' were found to be 6.0 and 5.0
respectively. The water of which city will be more acidic
(b) What is the colour of FeSO4 7H20 crystals? What happens when it is
heated?
35 a) Why should a woman avoid frequent pregnancies? Justify your answer
by giving valid biological reasons.
(b) Explain the following methods of contraception and provide one
example :
(i) Barrier method (ii) Chemical method (iii) Split rings.
36 Two coils C1 and C2 are wrapped around a non-conducting cylinder.
Coil C1 is connected to a battery and key and C2 with galvanometer G.
On pressing the key (K), current starts flowing in the coil C1 State your
observation in the galvanometer:

(i) When key K is pressed on

(ii) When current in the coil C1 is switched off.
(iii) When the current is passed continuously through coil C1
(iv) Name and state the phenomenon responsible for the above
observation.
(v) Write the name of the rule that is used to determine the direction
of current produced in the phenomena.
OR
With the help of a ray diagram describe in brief, an activity to show that
a magnetic field is produced by a current carrying circular coil. Draw a
diagram to show the pattern of magnetic field lines in this case

**************

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 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 4

SECTION-A
1 It is due to the formation of basic copper carbonate [CuCO3Cu(OH)2).

OR
It is because hydrogen gas is formed which sticks to surface of calcium, therefore it
floats.

2 BaCl2 (aq) + Al2(SO4)3(aq) → 3BaSO4(s) + 2AlCl3(aq)

3 (a) Bring a burning matchstick near the gas. It burns with 'pop' sound showing that it
is hydrogen.
4 (c) enlarged and virtual
5 P = I2 R = 15 x 15 x 8 = 1800 W
6 Magnetic field is along the direction of motion of the electron.
OR
Soft iron core
7 Atmospheric refraction
8 Magnetic field acts along the direction perpendicular to the plane of the coil.
9 Speed of light in carbon disulphide decreases by a factor of 1.45
OR
Ray passing through the centre of curvature strikes the mirror along the normal.
Since, angle of incidence = angle of reflection = 0, the ray retraces the path.
10 The arteries are “thick walled blood vessels” that carry the oxygenated ‘blood’ from
the ‘heart to the other parts’ of the body, the heart pumps blood under high
pressure and hence to withstand this pressure the ‘arteries are thick-walled’.
OR
The heart muscle is asymmetrical as a result of the distance blood must travel in the
pulmonary and systemic circuits. Since the right side of the heart sends blood to the
pulmonary circuit it is smaller than the left side which must send blood out to the
whole body in the systemic circuit.
11 The ozone layer or ozone shield is a region of Earth’s stratosphere that absorbs most
of the Sun’s Ultraviolet radiation.
12 Plastic cups are non-biodegradable and harm the environment friendly. They were
thus replaced by Kulhads. Making Kulhad made of clay on a large scale resulted in
the loss of top fertile soil. Now, disposable paper cups are used because - the paper
can be recycled, it is biodegradable and is eco-friendly material which does not
cause environmental pollution.
OR

297
 Amylase is the enzyme that catalyses the hydrolysis of starch into simple sugars. So
if salivary amylase is lacking in saliva, the breakdown of starch is affected.
13 Digestion of cellulose takes a longer time. Herbivores have a longer small intestine
that releases cellulase enzyme to allow complete digestion of cellulose. Due to the
absence of enzyme cellulase and having a shorter intestine humans cannot digest
cellulose.
14 (c) meaning of sonorous:
1. Capable of giving a deep and resonant sound
2. makes a ringing sound when hit
15 Ans: B
OR
Ans: D( A is false, R is True)
16 Ans: C
17 (i) B
17(ii) A
17(iii) A
17(iv) A
17(v) A
18 (i) Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs
18 (ii) Bromine
18 (iii) Fluorine
18 (iv) Increases
18 (v) Ionic
19( i) B
19(ii) A
19( iii) B
19( iv) C
19( v) C
20(i) Diamond
20(ii) Air / vacuum
20(iii) Water
20(iv) Diamond
20(v) 2 x 108 m/s

298
 Section B

21

Diagram 1m+ Labelling 0.5m

Paramoecium etc., 0.5m
OR
Lymph is similar to blood plasma but colorless and contains less protein. 1
Function of lymph is to carry absorbed digested fat from intestine and it also drains
excess fluid from extra cellular space back into the blood. 1
22 Diagram + Labelling 2
23

Ca2+ and O2-

OR
Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and tartaric acid. When mixed with water
the sodium hydrogen carbonate (baking soda) reacts with tartaric acid, as a result,
carbon dioxide gas is liberated. This carbon dioxide is trapped in wet dough and
bubbles out slowly making the cake soft and spongy. 2 M
24 i) tap water contains ions which conduct electricity, distilled water does not conduct
as it does not contain ions 1

ii) Dry HCl does not form ions but HCl gives H+ and Cl- 1
25
(a) ---------------(0.5)
Unit – Ohm-m ---------------(0.5)
(b)
ρ = (3 x 10-2 x 1.7 x 10-6) / 3
= 1.7 x 10-8 Ohm-m ---------------(1)

299
26

Section C
27 (a) All plants of F1 generation will be tall. 1
(b) 3:1 (3 tall : 1 dwarf) 1
(c) Dwarf trait is recessive trait which was not expressed in the F1 generation, but
this recessive trait reappeared in the F2 generation after self-pollination, in 25%
plants. 1
OR
The sex of a child in humans is genetically determined. The genes inherited from the
parents decide whether the child will be a boy or a girl. The last pair of
chromosomes, i.e. sex chromosomes in women are XX while in a man these are XY.
So, all the children will inherit an X-chromosome from their mother and X or Y
chromosome from their father. The child who inherits an X-chromosome from father
will be a girl, and the child who inherits a Y-chromosome from father will be a boy.
3
28 Diagram +Labelling 3
29 Diagram +Labelling
30 (a) Substance is quicklime or calcium oxide. Its formula is Cao
(b) Calcium oxide reacts with water to form slaked lime or calcium
hydroxide.

31 Electronic configuration

Nitrogen will be more electronegative than phosphorus because electronegativity

decreases on moving down the group

300
32 Activity 1: Sodium reacts with cold water vigorously to form sodium hydroxide
and hydrogen gas

Magnesium does not react with cold water but with hot water to form magnesium
!hydroxide and hydrogen gas.

Hence sodium is more reactive than magnesium.

33 R= +3m
u = -5 m
f = R/2 = 3 / 2 = 1.5 m
Using mirror formula,
1/f = 1/v + 1/u
1/v = 1/f -1/u
= (1/1.5) –(1/(-5))
v= 7.5/6.5
=+1.15 m
Magnification m = h’ / h = -v/u
= -1.15 / (-5)
= + 0.23
Image is virtual, erect and diminished by a factor of 0.23
34 (1) Limewater will turn milky.
(2) Cu(OH)2 (aq) + CO2(g)  CaCO3(s) + H20(l)
(b) KCl and NaNO3has pH= 7
Na2 CO3, has pH > 7
NH4Cl has pH <7
(c) Weak acid = CH3COOH and strong acid = H2SO4
OR
(a) The pH of a solution is defined as negative algorithm of H+ion concentration. It
determines the strength of acid and base properly.
Rain water with pH = 5 is more acidic.
(b) FeSO4.7H20 is pale green in colour. It becomes dirty white on heating.
FeSO4.7H20 → FeSO4+ 7H20
If it is heated strongly Fe2O3 and SO2 SO3, gases will be formed.

301
35 (a) Frequent pregnancies by women are avoided due to the following reasons:
(i) It has adverse effect on the health of women.
(ii) It increases the rate of the population of our country.
(b) (i) Barrier method: In this method, the fertilization of ovum and sperm is
prevented with the help of barriers. Barriers are available for both males and
females. Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber that are used to cover penis in
males and vagina in females.
(ii) Oral pills- It changes hormonal balance that led to delay ovulation and hence egg
is not fertilized
(iii) The combined hormonal contraceptive vaginal ring is self-administered once a
month. Leaving the ring in for three weeks slowly releases hormones into the body,
mainly vaginally administered estrogen and/or progesterone the same hormones used
in birth control pills. These hormones work mostly by stopping ovulation and
thickening the cervical mucus, creating a barrier preventing sperm from fertilizing an
egg.
36 (i) When key is pressed on, the galvanometer needle deflects momentarily in one
direction. (1)
(ii) When the current in the coil C1 is switched off, the galvanometer needle
deflects again momentarily but in opposite direction to that in the previous case. (1)
(iii) When current is passed continuously through coil C1, no deflection is observed
in the galvanometer. (1)
(iv) The phenomenon responsible for the above observations is electromagnetic
induction. The process, by which a changing magnetic field in a conductor induces
a current in another conductor placed nearby, is called electromagnetic induction.(1)
(v) Fleming’s right hand rule is used to determine the direction of current
produced in the phenomena of electromagnetic induction. (1)
OR
Magnetic field produced by a current carrying circular coil.
(1) A rectangular cardboard having holes is taken and a circular coil having large
number of turns is inserted in the cardboard. The coil should be inserted in the
cardboard in such a manner that the coil is normal to the plane of the cardboard.
(2) The ends of the coil are connected in series with a battery, a key and a rheostat.
(3) Then iron filings are sprinkled uniformly on the cardboard.
(1) Now the key is plugged.
(4) On tapping the cardboard gently, the circular magnetic field lines near the current
carrying loop are observed. On moving away from the circular loop, the concentric
circles representing magnetic field lines become bigger and bigger. At the centre of
the circular loop, the magnetic field lines are straight. (4)

(1)

***********

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 SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 5

SECTION – A
1 What change in colour is observed when white silver chloride is left
exposed to sunlight? State the type of chemical reaction in this change
OR
Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium
chloride and silver nitrate indicating the physical state of the reactants and
the products.
2 Which gas is evolved when Na2CO3 is heated?
3 How many covalent bonds does ethane (CH4) have?
(a) Six (b) Seven (C) Eight (d) Nine
4 On what factors does the direction of force experienced by a conductor
when placed in a magnetic field depend?
5 State a condition for no refraction of light entering from one medium to
another.
6 Is the position of a star as seen by us its true position? Justify your
answer.
OR
State the factors on which the strength of an electromagnet depends.
7. When a conducting wire is stretched to double of its initial length, then
which property of conducting wire increases?
(a) Resistivity
(b) Resistance
(c) Volume
(d) Density
8 The sky appears dark to passengers flying at a very high altitude. Why?
9 A bulb when cold has 1 Ω resistance. It draws a current of 0.3A when
glowing from a source of 3V. Calculate the resistance of the bulb when
glowing and explain the reason for the difference in resistance.
OR
Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass is 1.6 and absolute
refractive index of glass is 1.5. Find out the absolute refractive index of
diamond.
10 What is the effect of DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate on the 1
reproduction process?
OR
Describe the role of alveoli in exchange of gases during respiration.
11 What is a gene? 1
12 Why does the stem of plants show two-way mode of transportation?
13 What is the role of chlorophyll during photosynthesis? 1
OR
If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which event in the mouth will
be affected?

303
 For question numbers 14, 15 and 16, two statements are given- one
labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below:
(a)Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b)Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c)A is true, but R is false.
(d)A is false, but R is true.
14 Assertion: White silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.
Reason: Decomposition of silver chloride in the presence of sunlight take
place to metal and chlorine gas
15 Assertion: An ecosystem consists of biotic and abiotic components
Reason: If you visit a garden you will find different types of biotic
components only in the garden
OR
Assertion: Pyruvate is a three carbon molecule
Reason: It is prepared in cytoplasm as a first step to cellular respiration.
16 Assertion: The waste we generate is all biodegradable.
Reason: Non-biodegradable wastes pollute the environment.
17 Haemodialysis is a way of replacing some of the functions of your
kidney, if your kidneys have failed, by using a machine to filter and clean
your blood. Blood is pumped out of your body to the machine where it is
passed through a series of tiny tubes, in an artificial kidney or dialyser.

17 (i) Under normal conditions, which one is completely

reabsorbed in the renal tubules?
(a) Urea (b) Uric acid (c) Salts (d) Glucose
17(ii) Urine produced in kidney passes through:
(a) Urethra (b) Ureters (C) Nephron (d) Urinary bladder
17 (iii) The kidneys in human beings are a part of the system
for: (a) Nutrition (b) Respiration (c) Excretion (d)Transportation
17(iv) Urine is expelled out after storing in:
(a) Ureters (b) Urinary bladder (c) Urethra (d) Kidneys
17(v) Artificial removal of metabolic wastes is called:
(a) Ultrafiltration (b) Dialysis (C) Osmoregulation (d) Diapedesis

18 Read the following and answer any four questions from 18(i) to 18(v).
Electronegativity is a measure of an able to attract shared electrons to
itself. On the periodic table, electronegativity generally increases as you
move from left to right across a period and decreases as you move down a
group. Down a group, the number of energy level (n) increases. So there
is a greater distance between the nucleus and outermost shell. This results

304
 in a larger atomic radius. Ionic radius is the distance from the nucleus to
the inner edge of the electron cloud of an ion

18 (i) For elements C, N, O, and F the correct order of the atomic radii is:
(a) C < N < 0 < F (b) F < O < N < C
(c) N > C > 0 > F (d) F > O > C > N
18 (ii) Elements in the same group have
(a) Same electronegativity (b) Same valance electrons
(c) Same number of shells (d) Same atomic size
18 (iii) On moving across the period, atomic size of the element
(a) first increases and then decreases
(b) first decreases and then increases
(c) decreases
(d) increases
18 (iv) The number of valance shell of an atom indicates:
(a) The reactivity of the elements
(b) The group to which an element belongs
(c) The period to which an element belongs
(d) All of these
18 (v) Which of the following pairs of elements belongs to the same period?
(a) Na, K (b) Ca. Ba (c) F , Cl (d) S,Cl

19 Read the following and answer any four questions from19 (i) to 19(v).
A continuous path between the terminals of a source of electric energy
and other electrical components along which the electric current flows is
called an electric circuit. Electric current is the amount of charge flowing
through a particular area in unit time. In an electric circuit the direction of
electric current is taken as opposite to the direction of the flow of
electrons. S.I Unit of electric current is Ampere. Ammeter is a device
used to measure electric current in an electric circuit.
19 (i) A charge of 100 C flows through a bulb in 5 minutes. The current flowing
through the bulb is
(a) 500 A (b) 100 A (c) 20 A (d) 0.3 A

19 (ii) A circuit has a charge of 21 C moving through it in 30 s. Which electrical

component in the circuit, if present, will show the current?

305
 (a) Voltmeter will show a current of 6 A
(b) Ammeter will show a current of 0.7 A
(c) Rheostat will show a current of 0.7 A
(d) Resistor will show a current of 0.35 A
19 (iii) How many electrons can pass through an electric lamp in one minute if
the current is 300 mA?
(a) 1.125 x 1020 (b) 1.125 x 1019
(c) 1.125 x 1017 (d) 3.125 x 1020
19 (iv) A conducting wire carries 1021 electrons in 4 minutes. What is the current
flowing through the wire?
(a) 40 A (b) 7 A (c) 4 A (d) 0.7 A
19 (v) A current of 0.5 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb for 10
minutes. Find the amount of electric charge that flows through the circuit.
(a) 150 C (b) 300 C (c) 600 C (d) 500 C
When a ray of light travelling through a certain medium (say air) strikes a
smooth polished opaque surface, it bounces back off the surface into the
original medium (say air) in another direction. This phenomenon is called
reflection of light. To locate the position of an image formed by a
spherical mirror, we will use only two such rays of light reflected from
the mirror. A concave mirror forms either a real or a virtual image
depending on the position of an object. But a convex mirror always forms
a virtual, erect and diminished image of a real object.
20 (i) The image shows reflection of light on a mirror.

Based on the figure

(a) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
(b) The angle of incidence is greater than the angle of reflection
(c) The angle of incidence is lesser than the angle of reflection
(d) Can’t predict from the figure.
20 (ii) Which of the following statement is true?
(a) The beam of incident light after reflection diverges at unequal angles.
(b) The sum of angle of incidence and reflection is always greater than
90˚.
(c) The reflected light is less bright than the incident light
(d) The angle of incidence and reflection are equal
20 (iii) An object is placed at C in front of concave mirror. The image produced
is
(a) Beyond C (b) at C
(c) between F and O (d) behind the mirror
20(iv) Rani placed a juice bottle at a distance of 20 cm in front of a convex

306
 mirror which has a focal length of 20 cm. where is the image formed?
(a) At a distance of 10 cm in front of the mirror
(b) At a distance of 10 cm behind the mirror
(c) At focus in front of the mirror
(d) At focus behind the mirror
20(v) Samir conducts an activity using a concave mirror with the focal length of
10 cm. He placed the object 15 cm from the mirror. Where is the image
likely to form?
(a)at 30 cm behind the mirror (b) at 30 cm in front of the mirror
(c)at 6 cm behind the mirror (d)at 6 cm in front of the mirror

SECTION - B
21 Draw a diagram of human respiratory system and label on it:
Diaphragm, Larynx.
OR
List the differences between arteries and veins.
22 Humans have well-developed excretory system to remove waste material 2
out of the body. But such intricate system is not found in plants. How do
they get rid of respiratory and waste metabolic waste materials? Explain
briefly.
23 Which types of compound does carbon generally form? Why is the
compound formed by carbon is exceptionally stable?
OR
Raju took ghee in a beaker and heated it. Ghee readily melts and easily
boils too, but when he tries to pass electricity through ghee, It does not
conduct electricity: Give reason for his observation
24 What is a neutralisation reaction? Give two examples
25 Consider the following diagram in which M is a mirror and P is an object
and Q is its magnified image formed by the mirror.

State the type of the mirror M and one characteristic property of the
image Q.
26 Explain with the help of a labelled diagram the distribution of magnetic
field due to a current through a circular loop. Why is it that if a current
carrying coil has ‘n’ turn, the field produced at any point is n times as
large as that produced by single turn?

SECTION - C
27 How does Mendel’s experiment show that traits are inherited 3

307
 independently?
OR
In a dihybird cross, Mendel crossed seeds with round green trait with
wrinkled yellow seeds. The F1 generation thus formed was self-pollinated
and the following results were obtained. Round yellow 317 Round green
109 Wrinkled yellow 103 Wrinkled green 34. Analyse the results and
determine the genotype of F1 generation. Also describe the Mendel’s law
which governs such results in pea plants.
28 List out the points why did Mendel choose pea plant for his Experiments. 3
29 Express the process of breakdown of glucose in the form of 3
Chemical equations, in a cell
(i) In the presence of oxygen (ii) In the absence of oxygen
30(a) Why is photosynthesis considered as an endothermic reaction?
(b) Give an example each of thermal decomposition and photochemical
decomposition reactions .Write relevant balance chemical equation also
31 An element placed in 2nd group and 3rd period of the periodic table,
burns in the presence of oxygen to form a basic oxide
(a) Identify the element
(b) Write the electronic configuration.
(c)Draw the electron dot structure for the formation of its oxide
32 Name two metals which react violently with cold water. Write any three
observations you would make when such a metal is dropped in water.
How would you identify the gas evolved, if any during reaction?
33 A wire is cut into three equal parts and then connected in parallel with the
same source. How will its
(i) resistance and resistivity gets affected?
(ii) How would the total current and the current through the parts change?

SECTION-D

34 A compound X which is prepared from gypsum has the property of

hardening when mixed with a proper quantity of water.
(a) Identify the compound X
(b) Write the chemical equation for its preparation.
(c) For what purpose it is used in hospital
(d) What happens when gypsum is heated above 100 C. Give the
chemical equation for the reaction.

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 OR
Consider the following salt:
Na 2CO3, NaCl, NH4CI, CH3COONa, K2SO4, (NH4)2 SO4
Which of these salts will give?
(a) Acidic solutions (b) Neutral solutions
( c) Basic or alkaline solutions and why explain all of these brief.

35 Write a short note on different modes of reproduction as given below:

(i) Tissue culture (ii) Spore formation
(b) Draw a diagram of longitudinal section of a flower and label
the reproductive parts of it.

36 (i) A wire of resistivity is stretched to double its length which has its
new resistivity . Give reason for your answer.
(ii) Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting of a battery of three
cells of 2V each, a 5 Ω resistor, 8 Ω resistor and 12 Ω resistor and a plug
key all connected in series.
(iii) Two wires, one of copper and other of manganese have equal lengths
and equal resistances. Which is thicker? (Given that resistivity of
manganese is lower than that of copper.)
OR
(i) What is meant by power of a lens?
(ii) Define its SI unit.
(iii) You have two lenses A and B of focal lengths +10 cm and -10 cm,
respectively. State the nature and power of each lens.
(iv) If the above lenses are placed in contact find the effective focal
length of the combination.
(v) Which of the two lenses will form a virtual and magnified image of an
object placed 8 cm from the lens? Draw a ray diagram to justify your
answer.

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 ANSWER KEY - SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER - 5

1. Silver chloride becomes grey. It is a photochemical decomposition reaction.

OR

2. CO2
3. 7
4. Direction of current and magnetic field
5. (i) Normal incidence
(ii) Medium 1 and medium 2 are having same refractive index ( any one )
6. No. Position of the star seen is apparent due to atmospheric refraction.
OR
(i) Current through the solenoid
(ii) No.of turns of solenoid
(iii) Nature of the core (soft iron)
7. (b) Resistance
8. No atmosphere at high altitudes and hence no scattering takes place.
9. R = V/ I = 3/ 0.3 = 10 Ω
As the temperature of the filament increases due to joule’s heating effect, resistance
of the filament of the bulb also increases.
OR
nd/g = nd / ng = 1.6
ng = 1.5
nd =1.6 x 1.5 = 2.4
10. The DNA copying which is not perfectly accurate in the reproduction process results
in variations in populations for the survival of species. If the variation are more
drastic then the DNA will not be able to function properly leading to the death of the
cell.
OR
(i) moving air in and out of your lungs (ventilation)
(ii) oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange (diffusion)
(iii) pumping blood through your lungs (perfusion)
11. Gene is the unit of inheritance. It is the part of a chromosome which controls the
appearance of a set of hereditary characteristics from parents to children.
12. The stems of the plant has both the processes going on simultaneously. The nutrients
and water is carried to the leaves by the help of xylem in the stems of the plants.
The phloem of the plants serves the function of transporting the food which is
produced by the leaves of the plants.
13. The sunlight energy absorbed by chlorophyll is used to combine carbon dioxide and
water in the green leaves to produce food.
OR
Digestion of glucose gets affected.
14 a. both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.
15. Ans: C

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 OR
Ans: A
16. Ans: D
17. (i) d
17. (ii) a
17. (iii) c
17. (iv) b
17. (v) b
18. (i) (b) F <0 <N< C
(ii) (b) Same valence electron
(iii) (c) decreases
(iv) (c) The period to which an element belongs
(v) (d) S, Cl
19 (i) D
19 (ii) B
19 (iii) A
19 (iv) D
19 (v) B
20 (i) A
20 (ii) D
20 (iii) B
20 (iv) B
20 (v) B

Section B
21. Diagram+ Labelling
OR
Arteries
(i) Arteries carry oxygenated blood, away from the heart except pulmonary artery
(ii) These are mostly deeply situated in the body
(iii) These are thick-walled, highly muscular except arteries of cranium and vertebral
column
Veins
(i) Veins carry de-oxygenated blood, towards heart except pulmonary veins.
(ii) These are superficial in location
(iii) These are usually thin-walled. (Any two differences 2)
22. (i) Plants get rid of gaseous waste products, ie, oxygen during photosynthesis and
carbon dioxide during respiration through stomatal pores found on leaves.
(ii) Excess of water is also excreted from the plant body through the stomatal pores
and from the surface of fruits and stems by transpiration. (iii) Solid waste gets
removed by shedding of leaves, peeling of bark and felling of fruits.
23. Carbon generally forms covalent compound. The stability of carbon compounds is
attributed to the small size of carbon atom. Due to the small size of carbon atom, the
nucleus holds the shared pair of electrons more effectively, thus making the bond
stronger

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 OR
Ghee is a saturated hydrocarbon or we can say that it is a carbon compound with
covalent bond. Covalently bonded molecules are seen to have strong bonds within
the molecule, but inter-molecular forces are small. This gives rise to the low melting
and boiling points of these compounds. Since the electrons are shared between atoms
and no charged particles are formed, such covalent compounds are generally poor
conductors of electricity, that's why ghee didn't conduct electricity
24. The reaction between acid and base to form salt and water is called neutralisation .

25. As the object placed between the pole and the principal focus in front of the mirror
produces virtual, erect and magnified image, the mirror is Concave in nature. ---------
(1)
Image is virtual, erect and magnified -------------------(1)
26. The pattern of the magnetic field lines near the wires of the coil are concentric
circles. The diameter of these circles goes on increasing as we move away from the
wire. At the centre of the circular loop, the field lines are nearly straight and parallel.
-------------(0.5)
If the coil has ‘n’ turns, the field at the centre of the loop points along the same
direction and hence add up to n times ----------------(0.5)

-----------(1)

Section C
27. Mendel carried out dihybrid crosses by crossing two pea plants differing in
contrasting traits of two characters. For example he crossed a pea plant having
yellow coloured and round seed with another pea plant bearing green coloured and
wrinkled seed. In the F2 generation, he got the pea plants with two parental and two
recombinant phenotypes as yellow round and green wrinkled (parental) and yellow
wrinkled and green round (recombinant). This indicated that traits separated from
their original parental combinations and got inherited independently.
OR
The dominant traits in pea plant are round shape of seed and yellow colour of seeds
According to law of dominance, only dominant traits are expressed in F1 generation.
Thus the progeny would be round and yellow in heterozygous condition. The
genotype of F1 progeny is ReYy. The given pattern of inheritance governs the
Mendel's law of independent assortment. In F2 generation, all the four characters
were assorted out independent of the others. It is reflected by the ratio 9:3:3:1 an
given data. Therefore, Mendel proposed that a pair of alternating or contrasting
characters behaves independently of the other pair

312
28. 1. Pea plants have a large no. of contrasting characters.
2. The lifespan of pea plant is quite small which makes it suitable for carrying out
experiments.
3. It is easier to cross pollinate and self pollinate pea plants.
4. They have good resistance to diseases and have an ideal survival rate.
5. They are easy to emasculate and cultivate.
29. In all the pathways, the first step is break down of glucose, a six carbon molecule,
into a three carbon molecule called pyruvate. This process occurs in the cytoplasm of
the cell.
(i) In the presence of oxygen : In aerobic respiration, break down of pyruvate
using oxygen takes place in mitochondria. It breaks down into carbon dioxide,
water and lots of energy is released.
(ii) In the absence of oxygen : In the absence of oxygen, pyruvate is converted
into ethanol and carbon dioxide which is also called fermentation.
(iii) In yeast
In the absence of oxygen → CH,OH + CO2 + Energy
Sometime anaerobic respiration also occurs in our muscle cells, when there is
lack of oxygen. i.c., during vigorous muscular activities. At that time pyruvate
is converted into lactic acid.

30. (a) Photosynthesis is considered as an endothermic reaction because in this reaction

beat energy from the sun is absorbed

31. (a) Group 2 = valance election 2

Period 3 = no or shells are 3
Therefore, atomic number is 12. Element is magnesium (Mg) 1
(b) 2, 8, 2
(c) The electron dot structure for the formation of MgO

32. Sodium and potassium are two metals that react violently with cold water.
Three observations when such a metal is dropped in water are:
1. Reaction is highly exothermic. i. e huge amount of heat is produced

313
 2. Hydrogen gas is evolved in the reaction.
3. A small explosion takes place because the heat produced in the reaction burns the
hydrogen gas. hydrogen can be identified by the ‘pop’ sound it makes while
burning
33. (a) Let Resistance of a wire = R Ω
When cut into 3 equal parts

Resistance of each part =

When connected in Parallel, net resistance Rp:

-------------------------------- (1)
(b)Resistivity will remain same. --------------------------------- (1)
(c)Current through each part will be tripled the previous and total current in the
circuit will be 9 times. --------------------------------- (1)
34. The compound prepared from gypsum on heating it at 100 is known as Plaster of
Paris. Its chemical formula is CaSO4. 1/ 2 H2O 2
Hence, its chemical name is calcium sulphate hemihydrate. The chemical equation
for its preparation is as follows:
The compound plaster of Paris is prepared by heating gypsum at 120 C.
CaSO4.2H2O → CaSO4.1/2H2O + 3/2H2O 2
Plaster of Paris is used in hospitals mainly as plaster for supporting fractured bones in
the right position. In dentistry, it is used for making casts 1
OR
(a) Acidic solutions: NH4Cl,(NH4)2SO4.
(b) Neutral solutions: NaCl,K2SO4.
(c) Basic solutions: Na2CO3,CH3COONa. 3
a) Na2CO3is a basic salt therefore; it will provide a basic solution.
Sodium Carbonate is the disodium salt of carbonic acid with the alkalinizing
feature. When suspended in H2O, sodium carbonate produces carbonic acid and
sodium hydroxide.
b) NaCl is a neutral salt therefore; it will provide a neutral solution.
Sodium chloride generally recognized as salt is an ionic mixture with the
achemical equation NaCl expressing a ratio of sodium and chloride ions.
c) NH4Cl is an acidic salt therefore; it will provide an acidic solution.
d) CH3COONa. Is a basic salt therefore, it will provide a basic solution. 2
35. (i) Tissue culture: The production of new plants from a small piece of plant tissue
removed from a growing tip of plant in a suitable growth medium (culture or jelly
like synthetic medium) is called tissue culture. 1
(ii) Spore Formation:
In spore formation, the parent plant produces 100 of microscopic reproductive units
called “spores” within the spore case. When the spore case burst, then the spores
spread into air. When these air borne spores land on food or soil, under favorable

314
 condition they germinate and produce new plants for example: Most of the fungi
such as Rhizopus (bread mould), mucor, bacteria, non-flowering plants, ferns and
mosses. 1
(b) Diagram + Labelling 3
36. (i) Resistivity of a material of wire depends on the nature of the material but not on
its dimensions. Hence stretching a wire does not affect its resistance –(1)
(ii)

----------------(2)
(iv) Resistivity ρ = RA / L ---------------(1)
Since the two wires are of equal length and thickness, Copper having higher
resistivity, copper wire will be thicker than the manganese wire. -------------(1)
OR
(i) Power of lens is known as the inverse of the focal length of the lens measured in
meter(m). -------------(1)
(ii) S.I unit of power = Dioptre (D) -------------(1)
(iii) fA = + 10 cm which is convex in nature
fB = - 10 cm which is concave in nature ---(1)
PA = 1/ fA = + 0.1 D
PB = 1/ fB = -0.1 D
(iv) When the lenses are placed in contact,
P = PA + PB = + 0.1 - 0.1=0
F = 1/ P = infinity -------------(1)
(v) Convex lens A will produce virtual magnified erect image when placed at 8
cm.( between pole and focus)

-------(1)

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315