BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI 2021 THPT NGUYỄN KHUYẾN

ĐỀ 1
I. LISTENING (2.0 pts)
PART 1: Questions 1-5 (1.0 pt)
You will hear a woman and a man talking about their work at the library. Complete the information
below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. You will hear the
conversation twice.
CITY LIBRARY
Head Librarian: Mrs. Phillips
Hours: (1) __________________________to 4:30
Books
Ground floor: (2) ______________________________
Second floor: Adult collection
Third floor: (3) ______________________________
Book carts
Brown cart: books to re-shelve
Black cart: books to (4) _________________________
White cart: books to (5) ________________________
PART 2: Questions 6-10 (1.0 pt)
You will hear part of a radio interview with Martin Middleton, who makes wildlife programmes for
television. For questions 6-10, choose the best answer (A, B or C). You will hear the conversation twice.
6. When he visited Borneo, Martin __________________________________________
A. made a programme about life on the river.
B. had no fixed expectations.
C. became more interested in filming old buildings.
7. Since the early 1960s, wildlife filming has become ____________________________
A. more organised. B. more relaxed. C. more creative.
8. When he takes a holiday, Martin prefers to ___________________________________
A. relax by the sea.
B. travel for a particular reason.
C. stay in comfortable surroundings.
9. Martin thought that the holiday-makers he saw in the Dominican Republic were_______
A. risking their health. B. wasting opportunities. C. lacking entertainment.
10. According to Martin, tourism _____________________________________________
A. should be discouraged. B. is well managed. C. can be a good thing.
II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)
For questions 11- 40, choose the option (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the following sentences.
11. The chemical _______ from cars and factories make the air, water and soil dangerously dirty.
A. pollution B. polluted C. pollute D. pollutants
12. Mr Evans has _______ a valuable contribution to the development of the school.
A. done B. created C. caused D. made
13. Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is ______.
A. by the age of five it is quite well established
B. well established quite by the age of five
C. by the age of five and quite well established
D. quite well established by the age of five
14. The dogs next door keep barking. It’s really _______.
A. annoying B. annoyed C. annoyance D. annoy
15. The flood resulted ________ many thousands of deaths.
A. about B. from C. in D. on
16. Two students, Bill and Bob, are talking about their teacher, Ms Young. Choose the most suitable response to
fill in the blank in the following exchange.
Bill: “Ms Young always grades fairly.”
Bob: “_______”
A. I can’t say that it does. B. Actually, she is the second best.
C. Really? How could that be? D. I couldn’t agree with you more.
17. The public library _______ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing research.
A. is opening B. is open C. is opened D. is being opened
18. _______ better working conditions.
A. What’s interesting the workers most is B. What interests the workers most is
C. What interest the workers most is D. What’s interested the workers most is
19. Does anyone know _______ that jacket might be?
A. whose B. who C. whom D. why
20. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of flourides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel
of teeth.
A. containing B. in which containing C. contains D. contained
21. The football match was so dull that most of the _______ left at half time.
A. viewers B. audience C. lookers D. spectators
22. Daisy: Is swimming under water very difficult?
Tom: No, it’s just a matter _______ able to control your breathing. A. to be B. that you are C. of being D. being
23. Linda and Maya are talking to each other. Choose the most suitable response to fill in the blank in the
following exchange.
- Linda: Do you mind the window being open?
- Maya: _______. It’s much too cold.
A. I’m afraid I don’t B. No, I don’t C. Yes, please D. Yes, I do mind
24. The school was closed for a month because of serious _______ of fever.
A. outbreak B. outcome C. outburst D. outset
25. Declared an endangered species in the United States, _______.
A. the ginseng root has been gathered almost to the point of extinction
B. people have gathered the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction
C. the near extinction of the ginseng root is due to excessive gathering
D. gathering the ginseng root almost to the point of extinction
26. Many newer cars have a much lower fuel _______.
A. consuming B. consumer C. consummation D. consumption
27. John: I _______ about buying a new car recently.
Peter: Really? What sort of car?
A. thought B. have been thinking
C. have thought D. had been thinking
28. Before you sign the contract, _______ in mind that you won’t be able to change anything later.
A. hold B. retain C. bear D. reserve
29. Europe’s share of the world population has sharply _______ from 21.7 to 12.8 percent.
A. declined B. reached C. increased D. maintained
30. There was an accident at the crossroads _______ midnight last night.
A. on B. at C. for D. in
31. ______ had the van turned the corner than the wheel came off.
A. No longer B. No sooner C. Hardly D. Scarcely
32. _______ James wanted to show his wife that he bought her a very expensive diamond ring.
A. How love B. It is how the love
C. How much love D. It was how much love
33. Determining the mineral content of soil samples is an exacting process; _______ experts must perform
detailed tests to analyze soil specimens.
A. therefore B. so that C. however D. afterward
34. One man _______ outside his country is tipped to become the new president.
A. little knowing B. little known C. to know little D. to be little known
35. _______ further riot to occur, the government would be forced to use its emergency powers.
A. Should B. Were C. Did D. Had
36. _______ of transportation has given someone the idea for a new type of toy.
A. Mostly forms B. Most every form C. Almost forms D. Almost every form
For questions 37 - 38, choose the option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
37. There was not total agreement, but by and large, the members agreed that the new rules were necessary.
A. fortunately B. generally C. sadly D. coincidentally
38. The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching reseach to determine the psychological
effects of using drugs.
A. refined B. prevalent C. extensive D. tentative
For questions 39 - 40, choose the option (A, B, C or D) to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
39. Pure water is often a fairly rare commodity that requires significant energy to produce.
A. sanitary B. contaminated C. flawless D. clean
40. He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occured at the annual meeting in May.
A. rudeness B. politeness C. encouragement D. measurement
III. READING (3.0 pts)
PART 1: For questions from 41- 50, read the text below and decide which option (A, B, C, or D) best fits
each of the numbered gaps. (1.0 pt)
THE EARLY DAYS OF FOOTBALL
Football became the game we know today during the reign of Queen Victoria in the nineteenth century. So many
different (41) _______ of the game were being played in Britain at that time, that in 1863 the Football
Association was formed in order to draw up and agree the (42) _______ of the game.
Throughout the country new football (43) ______ were built and the development of the railways (44) ______
that football teams and their fans could travel to the matches. In 1888, the Football League was (45) _______ up
with twelve clubs, and football became a national sport, (46) _______ to rugby by many people as the more
popular game of the two.
Sometimes people played the game in just a field. In one town, Burnley, in the north of England, the field had a
river (47) ______ along the side of it in which players took baths after matches. People stood on banks made
from earth and it was not until the early 1900s that (48) ______ stands were built. The players would have had
two wooden (49) ______ for the goal with tapes across the top instead of a crossbar, and nets were not (50)
______ until 1891.
41. A. methods B. conditions C. ways D. forms
42. A. techniques B. rules C. laws D. lines
43. A. places B. lands C. grounds D. courses
44. A. meant B. helped C. intended D. said
45. A. put B. got C. made D. set
46. A. wanted B. favoured C. preferred D. liked
47. A. running B. lying C. moving D. causing
48. A. accurate B. right C. proper D. correct
49. A. pins B. nails C. points D. posts
50. A. composed B. invented C. completed D. presented
PART 2. For questions 51 - 60, read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C, or D best fits
each of the questions. (1.0 pt)
SURFACE WATER AND GROUND WATER
Ensuring the reliability and purity of the water supply is one of the more significant challenges facing an ever
growing world population. Unfortunately, only about 3% of the
world’s total water supply is fresh; the rest is sea water and is unusable for most of our purposes. Furthermore,
of that 3%, three fourths are largely inaccessible because it exists as frozen ice locked in the polar ice caps or as
glaciers high in mountains. The remaining percentage of fresh water that is available for human use exists in two
forms: surface water and ground water.
Surface water is found in rivers, lakes, and man-made reservoirs fad by either rainfall or snowmelt. Surface
water makes up nearly 80% of all the water utilized by humans, primarily due to its accessibility. Nearly every
river or lake in the world contains one or more pumping stations to divert a portion of its flow to nearby
population centers. However, surface water supplies present several disadvantages. First, surface water is easily
polluted. Chemical pollution from the air enters surface water in the form of rain, and ground pollution is either
dumped directly into lakes and rivers or washed into them by rainwater. In addition, biological pollution caused
by the dumping of raw sewage into a water source, can lead to dangerous levels of bacteria. Another problem is
relying on surface water is that its supply is highly variable. Water levels in lakes and rivers can fall drastically
in periods of severe drought. In places that are prone to extended dry periods, such as Australia or much of
California, some rivers are even known to occasionally run dry due to a combination of drought and overuse.
The other primary source of fresh water is ground water. Although ground water is estimated to be as much as
50 times more abundant than surface water, it constitutes only 20% of all the fresh water used by humans, and
much of this usage occurs in rural areas. This is a reflection of the relative difficulty in obtaining ground water.
Ground water exists in underground deposits known as aquifers, layers of porous rock in the Earth. As rainwater
sinks into the ground it eventually reaches the aquifer where it is absorbed, much as a kitchen sponge absorbs
water.
To obtain ground water, a well must be drilled down to the level of the aquifer, and then the water must be
pumped to the surface. Aquifers occur at different depths in different areas, and the deeper the aquifer, the more
difficult and more expensive it is to extract its water. Furthermore, if water is taken from an aquifer at a higher
rate than it is recharged naturally, its level will drop, necessitating ever deeper wells. This also creates problems
with ground stability. As water is drained out of an aquifer, the ground naturally tends to sink and compress,
leading to greater risk of subsidence and landslides. Since aquifers are fed through a slow acting system of
drainage, they have much slower recharge rates than surface water resources and are easily overtaxed. Therefore,
ground water is generally only used when surface water is unavailable, even though ground water is far more
abundant.
Like surface water, ground water can also become polluted, although not as easily. The soil that water sinks
through before reaching the aquifer acts as a natural filter, leaching out some of the pollutants. Furthermore, the
lack of oxygen in the aquifer generally restricts the growth of bacteria, so most ground water can be utilized
safely without treatment. However, pollution can enter an aquifer when pollution sources are buried
underground, such as they are in landfills. In other areas, the presence of heavy metal, nearly all of which are
highly toxic in the human body, may render ground water undrinkable.
51. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of fresh water EXCEPT:
A. It makes up a minute proportion of the world’s total water supply.
B. Its supply is endangered by the melting of the ice caps.
C. Much of it is unavailable for human use.
D. Its reliable supply is a growing problem in the world.
52. What is the source of most surface water?
A. Melting glaciers.B. Underground springs. C. Precipitation. D. Filtration of seawater.
53. Based on the information in paragraph 2, what can be inferred about most population center?
A. They have grown to sixes unsustainable by current water resources.
B. They always contribute to great levels of pollution in surface water.
C. They generally can be found in close proximity to a source of surface.
D. They are unable to cope with rising levels of bacteria in surface water.
54. The word prone in the passage is closest meaning to __________.
A. inclined B. experienced C. recognized D. associated
55. According to paragraph 2, what causes increases in bacteria in surface water?
A. The dumping of human and animal waste.
B. Increased industrial pollution.
C. Overexploitation of a surface water source.
D. Drops in the overall level of a surface water source.
56. The word porous in the passage is closest meaning to __________.
A. sodden B. permeable C. absorptive D. submerged
57. In paragraph 3, the author mentions the abundance of the ground water in order to ______
A. suggest that it may offer a solution to the world’s water needs.
B. explain the lack of surface water in many areas.
C. explain why it is only used in rural areas.
D. contrast with its relatively low usage by humans.
58. According to paragraph 4, increased danger of subsidence is caused by __________
A. the holes created by large numbers of wells.
B. the compression of water in an aquifer.
C. excessive drops in the level of an aquifer.
D. landsides beneath an aquifer.
59. According to paragraph 5, bacteria are generally not a concern in ground water because _____
A. heavy metals prevent their growth.
B. there is not enough air to support them.
C. they are filtered out before they reach the aquifer.
D. bacteria would make the water undrinkable.
60. Which of the following can be inferred from paragraph 5 about heavy metals?
A. They are generally water soluble. B. They cannot be filtered out of water.
C. They only occur in aquifers. D. They can be detected by their foul taste.
PART 3. For questions 61 - 70, read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, or C on your answer
sheet to identify whether the statements are true, false or not given. (1.0 pt)
People appear to be born to compute. The numeral skills of children develop so early and so inexorably that it is
easy to imagine an internal clock of mathematic maturity guiding their growth. Not long after learning to walk
and talk, they can set the table with impressive
accuracy - one plate, one knife, one spoon, one fork, for each of the five chairs. Soon they are capable of noting
that have placed five knives, spoons, and forks on the table and a bit later, that this amounts to fifteen pieces of
silverware. Having thus mastered addition, they move on to subtraction. It seems almost reasonable to expect
that if a child were secluded on a desert island at birth and retrieved seven years later, he or she could enter a
second-grade mathematics class without any serious problems of intellectual adjustment.
Of course, the truth is not so simple. This century, the work of cognitive psychologists has illuminated the subtle
forms of daily learning on which intellectual progress depends. Children were observed as they slowly grasped -
or, as the case might be, bumped into-concepts that adults take for granted, as they refused, for instance, to
concede that quantity is unchanged as water pours from a short stout glass into a thin one. Psychologists have
since demonstrated that young children, asked to count the pencils in a pile, readily report the number of blue or
red pencils, but must be coaxed into finding the total. Such studies have suggested that the rudiments of
mathematics are mastered gradually and with effort. They have also suggested that the very concept of abstract
numbers- the idea of a oneness, a twoness, a threeness that applies to any class of objects and is a prerequisite for
doing anything more mathematically demanding than setting a table- is itself far from innate.
61. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The development of mathematical ability in children
B. Trends in teaching mathematics to children
C. The use of mathematics in child psychology.
D. The fundamental concepts of mathematics that children must learn.
62. It can be inferred from the passage that children normally learn simple counting _______.
A. soon after they learn to talk B. by looking at the clock
C. when they begin to be mathematically mature D. after they reach second grade in school
63. The word illuminated in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to __________.
A. illustrated B. clarified C. accepted D. lighted
64. The author implies that most small children believe that the quantity of water changes when it is transfered to
a container of a different __________.
A. color B. quality C. shape D. weight
65. According to the passage, when small children were asked to count a pile of red and blue pencils, they
__________.
A. counted the number of pencils of each color
B. guessed at the total number of pencils
C. counted only the pencils of their favorite colors.
D. subtracted the number of red pencils from the number of blue pencils
66. The word They in bold in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. studies B. mathematicians C. children D. pencils
67. The word prerequisite in bold in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to __________.
A. reason B. theory C. requirement D. technique
68. The word itself in bold in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. the concept of abstract numbers B. the total
C. any class of objects D. setting a table
69. With which of the following statements would the author be LEAST likely to agree?
A. Children learn to add before they learn to subtract.
B. Children naturally and easily learn mathematics.
C. Most people follow the same pattern of mathematical development.
D. Mathematical development is subtle and gradual.
70. Where in the passage does the author give an example of a hypothetical experiment?
A. Line 3-7 B. Line 7-9 C. Line 11-14 D. Line 17-20
IV. WRITING (2.0 pts)
PART 1: Questions 71-80, finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the
same as the sentence printed before it. There is an example at the beginning (0). (1.0 pt)
0. The last time I saw my sister was three years ago.
It's three years since I last saw my sister.
71. Thanks to Laura’s support, I was able to finish the project.
Had it_____________________________________________________________.
72. It might be a good idea to use honey instead of sugar.
Why _____________________________________________________________?
73. Experts think that all dogs evolved from wolves.
All dogs___________________________________________________________.
74. When I was young, I read a lot of comic books.
I used ____________________________________________________________.
75. Driving at that speed is dangerous, whether you are an experienced driver or not.
However__________________________________________________________.
76. I find his handwriting very hard to read.
I have ____________________________________________________________.
77. The only way to eliminate world terrorism is by untied opposition.
Only by__________________________________________________________.
78. Using public transport saves energy as well as reduces pollution.
Not only__________________________________________________________.
79. Vietnamese people celebrate Tet as the greatest occasion in a year.
It is Tet___________________________________________________________.
80. When you lie, some gestures can show you are lying.
Some gestures _____________________________________________________.
PART 2: Questions 81-90, combine given sentences as directed to make meaningful ones. There is an
example at the beginning (0). (1.0 pt)
0. The film was very boring. I fell asleep. (so...that)
=> The film was so boring that I fell asleep.
81. Lucy paid a visit to the local orphanage. She then decided to donate part of her savings to the children there.
(Using perfect participle)
______________________________________.
82. Everyone was surprised that the singer had very little money when he died. (Using relative pronoun which)
___________________________________________.
83. Although it rained torrentially all day, we all enjoyed the excursion. (Using despite)
__________________________________________.
84. "Shall I carry your suitcase, Lan?” said Nam. (Using reported speech with "to infinitive")
___________________________________________.
85. They didn’t look after the children properly. (Using cleft sentence in passive voice)
_____________________________________________.
86. The reading table is in the corner of the room. I put my books on it. (Using relative clause with preposition)
_________________________________________.
87. If you work harder now, you won't have to do so much later. (Using double comparison)
______________________________________________.
88. She didn’t have breakfast. She feels hungry now. (Using conditional sentence)
__________________________________________________.
89. Only a few of the movies are suitable for the children. The movies are shown on Channel. (Using a reduced
relative clause)
_______________________________________.
90. Whether or not Tom speaks Spanish, I think he should still visit Madrid. (Using even if)
______________________________________________.
 ĐÁP ÁN
LISTENING (2.0 pts)
Part 1: Questions 1-5 (5 câu x 0,2đ)
Questions 1- 5:
1. 8:30 2. reference books 3. children’s books 4. be repaired/ repair 5. be sold/ sell
Part 2: Questions 6-10. (5 câu x 0,2đ)
6.B 7.A 8.B 9.B 10.C
LEXICO- GRAMMAR (3.0 pts)
Questions 11-40 (30 câu x 0,1đ)
11D 12D 13D 14A 15C 16D 17B 18B 19A 20A 21D 22C 23D 24A 25A
26D 27B 28C 29A 30B 31B 32D 33A 34B 35B 36D 37B 38C 39B 40B
READING (3.0 pts)
Part 1. (10 câu x 0.1đ)
41D 42B 43C 44A 45D 46C 47A 48C 49D 50B
Part 2. (10 câu x 0,1 đ)
51B 52C 53C 54A 55A 56C 57D 58C 59B 60A
Part 3. ( 10 câu x 0,1 đ)
61A 62A 63B 64C 65A 66A 67C 68A 69B 70B
SECTION IV: WRITING (2.0 pts)
Part 1. (10 câu x 0,1đ)
71. Had it not been for Laura’s support, I would not have been able to finish the project.
or: Had it not been for Laura’s support, I could not have finished the project.
72. Why don't you/we try using honey instead of sugar?
or: Why don't you/we use honey instead of sugar?
73. All dogs are thought to have evolved from wolves.
74. I used to read a lot of comic books (when I was young).
75. However experienced a driver you are/ may be, driving at that speed is dangerous.
76. I have difficulty (in) reading his handwriting.
77. Only by united opposition can/will/could we eliminate world terrorism.
or: Only by united opposition can/will/could world terrorism be eliminated.
78. Not only does using public transport save energy but it also reduces pollution.
79. It is Tet that Vietnamese people celebrate as the greatest occasion in a year.
or: It is Tet that is celebrated as the greatest occasion in a year.
80. Some gestures can give you away when you lie.
81. Having paid a visit to the local orphanage, Lucy decided to donate part of her savings to the children there.
82. The singer had very little money when he died, which surprised everyone.
83. Despite the torrential rain all day, we all enjoyed the excursion.
84. Nam offered to carry Lan's suitcase/ the suitcase for Lan.
85. It was the children that/ who weren't looked after properly.
86. The reading table on which I put my books is in the corner of the room.
87. The harder you work now, the less you will have to do later.
or: The harder you work now, the more you won't have to do later.
88. If she had had breakfast, she wouldn’t feel hungry now.
89. Only a few of the movies shown on Channel are suitable for the children.
90. Even if Tom doesn't speak Spanish, I think he should still visit Madrid.
Thank you for your cooperation!
 ĐỀ 2
PART A. LISTENING. (Each recording will be played TWICE)
Section 1.
Questions 1-4: Listen and select the correct answer from the choices given. Write A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet.
1. Where is Mr. Garcia living?
A. Private accommodation                                                 B. With friends          
C. Self-catering university accommodation                      D. Catered university accommodation
2. Why doesn’t he like his accommodation?
A. The food is not good.                                                    B. The meals are at inconvenient times.
C. He doesn’t like his cohabitants.                                    D. It’s on the university campus.
3. Where are Mr. Garcia and his friends from?
A. Costa Rica, Spain, Bolivia                                            B. Ecuador, Spain, Mexico
C. Mexico, Columbia, Spain                                              D. Spain, Brazil, Argentina
4. What kind of place are they hoping to find?
A. A house with a garden next to the university               
B. A flat or a house next to the university
C. A house not too near to the university                  
D. A flat or a house not too near to the university
Questions 5-7: Listen and complete the details below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR
NUMBERS.
Name:                               Manuel Garcia
Current address:             (5) ___________________
Telephone number:         0453672348
Email address:                 (6) ___________________
Age:                                   19
Gender:                             Male
Smoker?                            No
Budgeted monthly rent:  (7) ___________________
Questions 8-10: Listen and select the correct answer from the choices given. Write A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet.
8. Why can Mr. Garcia expect a small reduction in rent?
A. The salesman like him.                                      B. There is no contract.
C. July is a good month to move in.                      D. He and his friends will stay all year.
9. How much is the accommodation agency’s fee for Mr. Garcia?
A. ½ month’s rent              B.  1 month’s rent       C. 1 ½ month’s rent                D. There’s no fee
10. Which items does Mr. Garcia consider necessary?
A. Kitchen utensils, washing machine, Internet connection
B. Washing machine, Internet connection, TV
C. DVD player, TV, Internet connection
D. Shower, TV, washing machine
Section 2.
Questions 11-14: Listen and complete the sentences below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS
AND / OR A NUMBER.
11. “Canadian Clean Air Day” will be held on __________.
12. Air pollution may be responsible for __________ deaths every year in Canada.
13. The sector most responsible for smog- producing pollutants is __________.
14. Scientists now know that even __________ of pollutants can be harmful.
Questions 15-20: Listen and complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.
Reducing Air Pollution
Individual action
 Respond to the (15) __________ Challenge.
 Walk, cycle or car- pool to work.
 Use public transit.
 (16) _____________________.
 (17) _____________________ your domestic equipment.
Government action
 Emission reduction in the (18) _____________________ region of US and Canada.
 Move towards (19) _____________________ (e.g. less Sulphur in gasoline & diesel).
 Reduction of pollutants from (20) _____________________ and power plants.
PART B. PHONETICS.
Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words. Identify your answer by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. A. terrific                            B. childbearing            C. tsunami                   D. enthusiast
2. A. advertise                         B. difficulty                C. history                    D. introduce
3. A. ancestor                          B. admirable                C. comparable             D. interpret
4. A. colleague                        B. degree                     C. language                 D. subject
5. A. delicacy                          B. internship                C. inventory                D. interrupt
PART C. LEXICO - GRAMMAR.
Section 1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer (A, B, C or D).
1.  It's surprising how few people can_________ between margarine and butter.
A. diagnose                      B. distinguish                         C. separate                             D. estimate
2. The scheme sounds excellent in theory, but it's totally_________ in a country like this.
A. inaccessible                  B. impracticable                      C. insoluble                            D. impassable
3. This evidence should prove ________ that he was telling the truth.
A. once and for all                                                         B. now and then 
C. over and above                                                          D. from time to time
4.  In China’s largest psychiatric facility, there is a serious lack of resources but the staff try hard to _________
this in their treatment of the patients.
A. make up for                 B. go in for                             C. put up with                        D. set in for
5.  Of all the factors affecting agricultural yields, the weather is the one_________ the most.
A. that influences farmers                                                 B. farmers that is influences
C. why farmers influence it                                             D. it influences farmers
6.  It is necessary that he _________ of his old parents.
A. takes care                     B. to take care                         C. take care                            D. took care
7.  Mrs. Smith: “There's someone at the door.”  - Mary: “_________ it.”
A. I answer                       B. I'm answering                     C. I answered                         D. I'll answer
8. Alex: “John has found a new girlfriend.”        - Jan: “________”
A. So has he                     B. Oh, so he has                      C. Well, so does he                D. He has so
9. It is still a good idea to know how to type. _________ many technological advances in typewriters and word
processors, a skilled operator remains indispensable.
A. In spite of                    B. Because of                         C. In case of                           D. In addition to
10. They ________ the play last night as they went to a football match instead.
A. couldn’t see                                                                 B. might have seen                
C. mustn’t have seen                                                        D. can’t have seen
Section 2. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets.
FLAMENCO DANCE
The essence of flamenco is song, often accompanied by the guitar and improvised dance. Music and dance can
be placed into specific groups. These categories are usually located across a continuum with subjects dealing
with the profound to those that are light-hearted. ___________ (1. TYPE), the themes of death, anguish and
despair, in contrast to love, gaiety and the countryside are __________ (2. DRAMA). In flamenco dance, the
men’s steps are intricate, with toe and heel clicking. Footwork in women’s dancing is of less importance, with
the ___________ (3. GRACE) use of hands and body taking ___________ (4. PRECEDE). In the dance, the
arm, hand and foot movements closely resemble those of classical Hindu dance. Essential to traditional flamenco
is the performer’s interpretation of the dance ____________ (5. HINDER) by the emotion of the music.
Performances are often accompanied by rapid hand clapping, finger snapping and ___________
(6. ENCOURAGE) shouts. The dancers themselves frequently employ finger snapping in complex rhythms
including the use of castanets. This dance form was __________ (7. PROFESSION) in the 19th century, when
Romany people first began to perform in cafes. In this environment, _________ (8. DEPART) from the
traditional form occurred. Unfortunately, the pressures of the ___________ (9.  COMMERCE) stage meant that
rehearsed routines replaced the __________ (10. SPONTANEOUS) of the original flamenco performances.
Section 3. The following passage contains 5 errors. Identify and correct them.
The big majority in students who make well in the Cambridge Proficiency Examination have learnt to use a good
monolingual dictionary effectively. Such dictionaries provide information, not just about the meanings of words
but about their pronunciation and grammar as well. A student who studies how to use a dictionary effectively
will be possible to work independently for much of the time, and will gain considerable insight into the workings
of the English language. He or she will be able to confirm the meanings of the words in a text which contextual
clues are insufficient, pronounce words accurately by studying the phonetic transcriptions, and use words
accurately both when speaking or writing. Make sure you make room for at least one good monolingual
dictionary on your bookshelf- and then make sure you use it on a regular basis!
No Line Mistake Correction
0 1 in of
1
2
3
…
PART D. READING.
Section 1. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer by writing the letter A, B, C or D on
your answer sheet.
DIET AND EXERCISE
             Many people seem to believe that there is a magic diet formula that will guarantee weight loss. [1] This
is a fallacy. Most fad diet, if followed conscientiously, will result in weight loss due to the reduction in calories.
[2] However, they are nearly always too monotonous and sometimes too unhealthy to be followed in the long
term. [3] Worse, fad dieters who don't become physically active and learn to eat sensibly will eventually regain
the weight they lost, and often even more. [4]
            Some of the most popular fad diet in recent years have been low-carbohydrate programs, which work by
making the body produce ketons. Ketons are normal and efficient source of energy for the human body. When
the intake of carbohydrate is severely restricted, body fats are broken down into fatty acids that can be used as
fuel. The fatty acids may be incompletely metabolised, yielding ketons. When your body is producing ketons,
and using them as fuel, this is called ketosis. Most diets based on ketosis do not limit the consumption of protein,
fat, or total calories. As a result, their fat content tends to be very high. Promoters claim that ketosis will lead to
increased metabolism of unwanted fat, even if the calories are not reduced. This is not entirely true; calorie
reduction is likely to occur because of the diet's lack of appealing foods. This is not conductive to forming
sensible eating habits.
            The major widely used low-carbohydrate diet is the one advocated by the late Robert Atkins M.D, of
New York City. Under the Atkins program, the dieter is permitted to eat unlimited amounts of non-carbohydrate
foods "when hungry". The American Medical Association and many individual experts have warned that the
unlimited intake of saturated fat under Atkins food plan can increase the dieter's risk of heart disease. In 2000,
researchers at the University of Kentucky did a computer analysis of a week's worth of sample menus and
reported several alarming findings: the diet contained 59% fat; it provided fewer servings of grains, vegetables,
and fruits than recommended by most nutritionists, and while it can produce short-term weight loss, long-term
use is likely to increase the risk of both cardiovascular disease and cancer. The weight loss usually doesn't last,
either. As ketosis begins, weight will be shed quickly, giving the misleading impression that significant fat
reduction is taking place. In fact, most of the weight loss is water rather than fat; the lost water is regained
quickly when a normal diet is resumed. Appetite, which is often reduced during ketosis, also returns.
            Atkins advocated his diet for more than 30 years and claimed that more than 60,000 patients treated at his
centre had used his diet as their primary protocol for losing weight. Yet he never published any study in which
people who used this program were monitored over a period of several years. Besides the dubiousness of its
effects in the long term, the Atkins diet shares another shortcoming of all fad diets: inflexibility. People are
different, with different health problems and genetic characteristics, and no single diet is right for everyone.
            An additional downside to the recent craze for low-carbohydrate diets is that it has encouraged food
companies to market low-carbohydrate foods for people who want to "watch their carbs". Most of these foods
are much higher in fat than the foods they are designed to replace. "Low carb" advertising is encouraging both
dieters and non-dieters to eat high-fat foods, which is exactly the opposite of medical and nutrition authorities
have been arguing for decades. Following a low-carbohydrate diet under medical supervision may make sense
for some people, but a population-wide increase in fat consumption would be a public health disaster.
1. What is the topic of the passage?
A. How to succeed with the Atkins Diet              
B. Weight loss through carbohydrate reduction
C. Problems with fad diets                                   
D. The dangers of a high-fat diet.
2. Which is the best place for the following sentence?
 "In order to lose weight you must eat less, or exercise more, or do both"
A. [1]                                              B. [2]                           C. [3]                           D. [4]
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the author thinks fad diets in general ______.
A. are always bad for you because they contain too much fat.
B. can be unhealthy in the long term and have too little variety.
C. are effective and safe if used under a doctor's supervision .      
D. usually result in long-term weight loss.
4. Which of the following is an effect of ketosis?
A. Long-term weight loss                                      B. Loss of water from the body
C. Increase in appetite                                           D. Greater energy
5. The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. diets                               B. ketons                     C. calories                   D. ketosis
6. The word “conscientiously” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. consciously                    B. scientifically          C. correctly                  D. severely
7. The phrase “is not conductive to” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. does not prevent                                                            B. makes easier                     
C. is not consistent with                                                     D. does not encourage
8. It can be inferred that the author's biggest objection to the Atkins diet is that ______.
A. it has led to "low-carb" advertising                   B. (s)he believes it causes cancer
C. it leads to higher fat consumption                     D. it has not been thoroughly studied
9. The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to ______.
A. downside                       B. craze                       C. diet                         D. food
10. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the underlined sentence in the passage?
A. Ketosis causes weight loss at first, leading people to wrongly believe that they are losing fat.
B. Ketosis causes the rapid loss of fat at first, which leads to a false belief that the loss will be permanent.
C. The process of ketosis quickly misleads people into thinking that they are losing weight.
D. Ketosis causes rapid weight loss, but only in the early days of the diet.
 Section 2. Read the passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
Blue Whales
            Blue whales, the world's largest animals, have been sighted again in British waters for the first time in at
least twenty years. Indications that a population of blue whales was (1) _____ the waters west of Scotland came
for the first time from the United States Navy, (2) _____ surveillance system picked up the songs of a lot of
different whales.
            American zoologists subsequently identified the blue whale song among them. Now marine biologist,
Carol Booker, has actually seen a blue whale there herself. She has no doubt about what she saw, because they
have distinctive fins which are very small for (3) _____ size. She says, 'Worldwide they were almost extinct and
(4) _____ seemed they had completely vanished from the North Atlantic, so you can imagine how I felt actually
seeing (5) _____! However, it is certainly (6) _____ soon to say if it is an indication of a population recovery.'
She goes (7) _____ to say, 'What it does show (8) _____ the importance of this area of the ocean for whales, and
how essential it is to control pollution of the seas.'
Bigger than any dinosaur known to man, blue whales are the largest animals ever to have lived on earth. A blue
whale is more than six metres long (9) _____ birth and, when (10) _____ grown, its heart is the same height as a
tall man and weighs as much as a horse.
Section 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to complete the following passage by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
The Changing Earth
            Although the earth was formed about 4,500 million years ago, human beings have inhabited it for less
than half a million years. Within this time, population has increased hugely and people have had a vast (1) _____
upon the earth. They have long been able to (2) _____ the forces of nature to use. Now, with modern technology,
they have the power to alter the balance of life on earth.
            Reports back from the first astronauts helped dispel the dangerous (3) _____ that the world had no
boundaries and had limitless resources. Moreover, ecologists have shown that all forms of life on earth are
interconnected, so it (4) _____ that all human activity has an effect on the natural environment.
In recent years, people have been putting the environment under stress. As a result, certain (5) _____ materials
such as timber, water and minerals are beginning to (6)_____short. Pollution and the (7) _____ of waste are
already critical issues, and the (8) _____ of the environment is fast becoming the most pressing problem (9)
_____ us all. The way we respond to the challenge will have a profound effect on the earth and its life support
(10) _____.
1. A. imprint B. indication C. impression D. impact
2. A. put B. make C. place D. stand
3. A. judgment B. notion C. reflection D. concept
4. A. results B. follows C. complies D. develops
5. A. raw B. coarse C. crude D. rough
6. A. turn B. come C. go D. run
7. A. disposal B. displacement C. dismissal D. disposition
8. A. state B. situation C. case D. circumstance
9. A. encountering B. opposing C. meeting D. confronting
10. A. projects B. systems C. methods D. routines
PART E. WRITING
Section 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the similar meaning to the
original one.
1. The director and the chief accountant did not get on well.
     The director was not on __________________________.
2. We cannot see animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
     There is an ____________________________________.
3. I shall never lend Robert any money, no matter what happens.
     Under _____________________________________.
4. I was annoyed by his refusal to listen to reason.
     What______________________________________.
5. We cannot make any comparison with her sacrifice.
     Nothing ____________________________________.
Section 2. Essay writing:
“The best way to reduce youth crimes is to educate their parents with parental skills.”
To what extent do you agree or disagree?
Write an essay within 250 words to express your own idea.
 ĐÁP ÁN
PART A. LISTENING. (4 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
 Section 1. (2 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. 35c Campus Lane
6. garcianuk@email.uk 7. £ 200-250/ 200 to 250 pounds 8. D 9. A 10. B
Section 2. (2 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
11. June 6th 12. 5,000 13. transportation 14. low levels 15. Commuter
16. plant trees 17. upgrade 18. border 19. clean(er) fuels 20. factories
PART B. PHONETICS. (1 pt: 0.2p/each correct answer)
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. D
PART C. LEXICO - GRAMMAR. (5 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
Section 1: (2 pts: 0.2p/each correct answer)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. A 5. A
6. C 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. D
Section 2 (2 pts: 0.2 /each correct answer)
1. Typically 2. dramatized 3. graceful 4. precedence 5. unhindered
6. encouraging 7. professionalized 8. departure 9. commercial 10. spontaneity
Section 3 (1 pt: 0.2 /each correct answer)
No Line Mistake Correction
1 1 make do
2 3 studies learns
3 4 possible able
4 6 which where
5 7 or and
PART D. READING. (6 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)
Section 1 (2 pts: 0.2 /each correct answer)
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. A
Section 2 (2 pts: 0.2 /each correct answer)
1. inhabiting 2. whose 3. their 4. it 5. one
6. too 7. on 8. is 9. at 10. fully
Section 3 (2 pts: 0.2 /each correct answer)
1. D 2.A 3.B 4.B 5.A 6.D 7.A 8.A 9.D 10.B
PART E. WRITING. (4 pts)
Section 1. (1 pt: 0.2p/each correct answer)
1. The director was not on good terms with the chief accountant.
2. There is an absence of animals in a vast area after the forest fire.
3. Under no circumstances shall/will I lend Robert any money.
4. What annoyed me was his refusal to listen to reason.
5. Nothing can be compared with her sacrifice. 
Section 2. Essay Writing (3.0 pts)
The mark is based on the following criteria:
1. Content (1,2 pts)
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required.
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively. 1,2 pts
2. Organization and presentation (0,7 pt)
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity.
b. The essay is well-structured. 0,7 pt
3. Language (0,7 pt)
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structure appropriate to level of English 0,7 pt
language of gifted students.
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures.
4. Punctuation, spelling and handwriting (0,4 pt) 0,4 pt
a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
 b. Legible handwriting.

ĐỀ 3
PART 1: LISTENING
I. Questions 01 – 10. You are going to hear somebody giving their opinion about the media and its influence
on society. For questions 01 – 10, complete the sentences with a word or short phrase.
 The three forms of media are TV, radio and (01) ____________________
 Politicians use the media during political (02) ____________________
 Entertainers use it to stay in the (03) ____________________
 The percentage of people who did not have a particular point of view about the privacy of
celebrities was (04) ____________________
 The most influential form of media is (05) ____________________
 We can be deceived by TV when we are shown carefully selected (06) ____________________
 Some TV stations turn true events into (07) ____________________
 A newspaper had to pay (08) ____________________ for printing lies about a pop singer.
 Sometimes a paper can avoid being sued if it makes a public (09) ____________________
 There are two kinds of newspaper; the “quality” papers and the (10) ____________________

II. Questions 11 – 14. Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
After high school some people travel, find a(n) (11) ________________ or take on temporary work to save
money for further education.
If you decide to go straight on to more study, to start with you should think about your (12)
__________________. You’ll also need to consider whether your (13) ________________ will help you
eventually get a good job. After course selection, you should decide on study goals: how many papers to take
and what (14) _________________ you want to achieve.
Questions 15 – 20.  Where would you go for information or resources?
Write the correct letter A, B, or C next to questions 15 – 20.
A. from an Internet website
B. in the form of personal advice or guidance
C. on the availability of financial assistance

15. Higher Education Providers                     16. Apprenticeship Scheme

17. School Careers Advisor                            18. Career Services
19. Student Support Association                    20. Libraries
PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
01. How long have you been looking for_________?
A. employee                B. employer                             C. employment            D. employ
02. To_________ photography professionally requires a lot of skills.
A. do                           B. make                                   C. commit                   D. carry
03. We made her an excellent offer, but she_________ it.
A. turned                     B. rejected                               C. accepted                 D. denied
04. It must have been painful to him to stand there and watch his efforts going_________.
A. down the drain       B. off the peg                          C. on the shelf             D. off the old block
05.  That old building is going to be_________ and a new library will be built in its place.
A. pushed off              B. pulled down                       C. pushed in                D. pull through
06. You are not allowed to bring coffee into the examination room, _________?
A. do you?                  B. aren’t you?                         C. don’t you?              D. are you?
07. When we met that day in Paris, I didn’t know that he was married_________ Barbara.
A. with                                    B. to                                        C. in                            D. of
08.  He looked me_________ in the eye as though he hoped to draw something out of me.
A. long                                    B. longly                                 D. lengthy                   D. lengthily
09. He has decided to buy a_________ for his son on the boy’s twenty-first birthday.
A. German sports posh                                               B. posh German sports           
D. posh sports German                                               D. German posh sports
10. It is cheaper to travel by air in_________.
A. second hand           B. style                                    C. savings account      D. economy class
11. Members of the rock group were asked to modify their behavior_________ leave the hotel.
A. or else                     B. unless                                  C. lest                          D. in case
12. The stage design was _________, but unfortunately the acting wasn’t so impressive.
A. out of this world     B. out of mind                         C. out of the blue        D. out of sight
13. Richard has invited Ann to his study group tonight, but she has refused. What would Richard be most likely
to say in response to Ann’s refusal?
Ann: “I’m afraid I can’t go tonight. I’m just not in the mood for it!”
Richard: “_______________!”
A. Off you go              B. You are out                         C. Suit yourself           D. Good for you
14. _________ to the Senate than he began to face some of the realities of being a U.S. senator: the heavy work
load; maintaining two households, being away from his family.
A. No sooner had Obama been elected                      B. No sooner Obama had been elected
C. No sooner had Obama elected                               D. No sooner Obama had elected
15. Richard is asking Ann about quantum physics, but Ann doesn’t know the answer to his question. What would
Ann be most likely to say?
Richard: “So, Ann, do the electrons in a pair spin in two opposite directions or not?”
Ann: “_______________!”
A. Mind your own business                                        B. Whatever floats your boats
C. This is way below me                                            D. Search me
16. Vietnam’s renowned rocker Tran Lap, _________ died of cancer on 17 March 2016, will be honored with a
posthumous medal for his contribution to the country’s music industry.
A. that                         B. who                                     C. whom                     D. whose
17. The Vietnamese Fisheries Association has issued a_________ of China’s illegal ban on fishing in the East
Sea.
A. declamation            B. defamation                         C. denunciation           D. devaluation
18. _________ growing concern about unsafe food, many foreign and local firms are exploring opportunities to
produce safe food in the country.
A. Amid                      B. Despite                               C. Regardless of         D. According to
19. Hue locals consider Buddha’s birthday to be an important local holiday and will take time_________ from
their daily schedules for pagoda trips and prayer.
A. out                          B. away                                   C. off                          D. down         
20. Through generations, despite many _________, some Huong Canh families have successfully preserved their
traditional job of clay pot and tile making.
A. out and about         B. odds and ends                    C. ins and outs D. ups and downs
II. Find one mistake in each of the following sentences by choosing A, B, C or D. Write your answers on your
answer sheet.
21. The issue was so controversial, but they were able to settle it in the end of the discussion.
A. was                         B. but                          C. able                         D. in the end
22. It cost him fortune to divorce her but at the end of the day he was more than happy because he made the right
choice.
A. fortune                    B. at the end                C. was more than        D. made
23. Studies by B.F. Skinner indicate that reward positively reinforces behavior and makes that behavior likely
more to recur.
A. Studies by              B. reinforces                C. and                         D. likely more
24. A food additive is any chemical that food manufacturers intentional add to their products.
A. additive                  B. that                         C. intentional              D. products
25. Although the old fisherman was exhausted, but he managed to reel the giant marlin in by nightfall.
A. fisherman               B. but                          C. to reel                      D. nightfall
III. Complete the following passage with the correct form of the word given in CAPITALS to the right of each
line.

The king in the car park 26. RECENT

          We are used to reading about mysteries in detective novels, but a real-life 27. DISCOVER
mystery was (26)__________ solved by archaeologists when they found a
skeleton under a car park in a British city. The (27)__________ of the remains 28. INTERESTING
was of particular (28)__________ as they turned out to be those of the famous 29. TRADITION
King of England, Richard III. (29)__________, most monarchs have a formal
30. BURRY
(30)__________ and their bones are placed in cathedrals or abbeys, but the final
resting place of Richard had been (31)__________. The search to find his body 31. KNOW
had been a long one. Now, (32)__________ have formally identified the bones 32. SCIENCE
as those of Richard, comparing his DNA with that of another (33)__________.
Tests have also proven that Richard’s spinal deformity was not as bad as they
had (34)__________ thought. However, his reputation of being a 33. DESCEND
(35)__________ still stands and the mystery of what really happened to his two
nephews remains unsolved. 34. ORIGIN
35. CRIME

PART 3: READING
I. Read the following passage then choose the options among A, B, C or D that best completes the blanks.
Write your answers in your answer sheet.
CHANGING COUNTRIES
            Seeking a new life and hoping for a significant (1)_________ in their standard of living, foreign workers
began flocking into Western Europe during the 1950s. In Britain, some of the first immigrants arriving
(2)_________ the West Indies and the Indian subcontinent were welcomed by brass bands, but the dream of a
new life soon (3)_________ sour for many.
            Attracted by the promise to earn good money and learn new skills, the reality they found was often one
of (4)_________ wages and, in many (5)_________, unemployment.  There were times when the newcomers
encountered open hostility; in 1958, riots (6)_________ out in Notting Hill, west London, when gangs of white
youths began taunting immigrants.
Yet despite the (7)_________ difficulties they encountered, many foreign workers did manage to  (8)_________
to their new conditions, settling in their new adopted country and prospering. Their contribution had the effect
not only of speeding up the (9)_________ of economic change in the post- war period, it also (10)_________
Western Europe into a multiracial society.
            01. A. switch               B. change                    C. modification           D. variation
            02. A. from                 B. to                            C. in                            D. at
            03. A. turned               B. converted               C. switched                 D. moved
            04. A. little                  B. small                       C. short                       D. low
            05. A. occasions          B. examples                 C. ways                       D. cases
            06. A. broke                B. carried                    C. came                       D. started
            07. A. several              B. high                         C. numerous                D. heavy
            08. A. fit                     B. adjust                      C. match                      D. suit
            09. A. growth              B. motion                    C. pace                                    D. step
            10. A. transformed      B. transferred              C. modified                 D. shifted
II. Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions.
            Icebergs are among nature’s most spectacular creations, and yet most people have never seen one. A
vague air of mystery envelops them. They come into being somewhere-in faraway, frigid waters, amid
thunderous noise and splashing turbulence, which in most cases no one hears or sees. They exist only a short
time and then slowly waste away just unnoticed.
          Objects of sheerest beauty, they have been called. Appearing in an endless variety of shapes they may be
dazzlingly white, or they may be glassy blue, green or purple, tinted faintly or in darker hues. They are graceful,
stately, inspiring in calm, sunlit seas. But they are also called frightening and dangerous, and that they are, in the
night, in the fog, and in storms. Even in clear weather one is wise to stay a safe distance away from them. Most
of their bulk is hidden below the water, so their underwater parts may extend out far beyond the visible top.
Also, they may roll over unexpectedly, churning the waters around them.
          Icebergs are parts of glaciers that break off, drift into the water, float about awhile, and finally melt.
Icebergs afloat today are made of snowflakes that have fallen over long ages of time. They embody snows that
drifted down hundreds, or many thousands, or in some cases maybe a million years ago. The snows fell in polar-
regions and on cold mountains, where they melted only a little or not at all, and so collected to great depths over
the years and centuries.
          As each year’s snow accumulation lay on the surface, evaporation and melting caused the snowflakes
slowly to lose their feathery points and become tiny grains of ice. When new snow fell on top of the old, it too
turned to icy grains. So blankets of snow and ice grains mounted layer upon layer and were of such great
thickness that the weight of the upper layers compressed the lower ones. With time and pressure from above, the
many small ice grains joined and changed to larger crystals, and eventually the deeper crystals merged into a
solid mass of ice.
11. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A.  The Melting of Icebergs                           B. The Nature and Origin of Icebergs
C.  The Size and Shape of Icebergs                D. The Dangers of Icebergs
12. The author states that icebergs are rarely seen because they are___________.
A. surrounded by fog                                      B. hidden beneath the mountains
C. located in remote regions of the world      D. broken by waves soon after they are formed
13. The passage mentions all of the following colors for icebergs EXCEPT___________.
A. yellow                    B. blue                         C. green                                   D. purple
14. According to the passage, icebergs are dangerous because they___________.
A. usually melt quickly                                   B. can turn over very suddenly
C. may create immense snowdrifts                D. can cause unexpected avalanches
15. According to the passage, icebergs originate from a buildup of___________.
A. turbulent water       B. feathers                   C. underwater pressure           D. snowflakes
16. The formation of an iceberg is most clearly analogous to which of the following activities?
A. Walking on fluffy new snow, causing it to become more compact and icy
B. Plowing large areas of earth, leaving the land flat and barren
C. Skating across a frozen lake and leaving a trail behind
D. Blowing snow into one large pile to clear an area
17. In paragraph 4, the expression "from above" refers to___________.
A. sunlit seas                                                   B. polar regions          
C. weight of mountains                                   D. layers of ice and snow
18. The attitude of the author toward icebergs is one of
A. disappointment      B. humor                     C. disinterest                           D. wonder
19. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to___________.
A. bad weather                                                B. icebergs being frightening and dangerous
C. clear weather                                              D. how icebergs look in the seas
20. The word merged in the last sentence is closest in meaning to___________.
A. became                   B. combined                C. included                             D. consisted
III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only one word in each space.
Write your answer on your answer sheet.
            Bells have been in existence for a long time. They were used by the Chinese about 6,000 years ago and
the oldest bell ever found is (21)__________ 7,000 years old. Today, we live in a world of mass
(22)__________ and reliable clocks, so it is easy to forget what an essential part of everyday life bells
(23)__________ to be.
Bells told people of happy events, such as weddings and (24)__________ or, sometimes had to announce
(25)__________ events such as a death or a funeral.  Sometimes bells were used for giving people
(26)__________ of an enemy’s approach or spreading the good news (27)__________ victory.
In many places today, bells are perhaps most (28)__________ associated with announcing when religious
services are going to (29)__________ place. They are also frequently rung during (30)__________ and continue
to play a part in many people’s lives.
PART 4: WRITING
I.  Complete the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly as the first sentence. The word provided
(if any) must not be altered in any way.
01. Celine has always been fond of classical music.                                                  (taste)
→ Celine________________________________________________________________________.
02. They cannot watch this film because they are not adults yet.                              (under)
→ Since_________________________________________________________________________.
03. It’s a pity you didn’t ask us to spend more time with you.
→ If only ________________________________________________________________________.
04. Your essays should be submitted by the 30th of June.
→ The deadline_________________________________________________________________.
05. She hasn’t spoken much since the day she met the President.
→ Little___________________________________________________________________________.
II. Essay writing.
Vietnamese educators are divided on whether the current system of high schools for the gifted should be
maintained. Whilst some argue that the system may promote unhealthy competition or unnecessary stress among
students, and therefore should be abolished, many others have praised the merits of those schools and voiced
strong approval of their existence.
What advantages can schools for the gifted offer to their students and to the society?
Write an essay of 250 to 300 words to prove your ideas.
 ĐÁP ÁN
A. Hướng dẫn chung khi chấm thi:
- Tổng điểm bài thi theo thang điểm 20.
- Giám khảo chấm đúng theo đáp án này đối với các phần PART 1, PART 2, và PART 3.
- Phần PART 4. I. giám khảo liên hệ người ra đề để thống nhất nếu thí sinh có đáp án khác với đáp án đã cho mà
giám khảo vẫn muốn công nhận điểm cho thí sinh.
- Phần PART 4. II. giám khảo vận dụng hướng dẫn để chấm.
B. Đáp án cụ thể:
PART 1: LISTENING (4 points; 0.2 point/ 1 correct answer)
I. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer)01. newspapers 02. campaigns              03. public eye              04.
4%             05. TV 06. images/ pictures     07. fiction/ lies 08. £1,000,000 09. apology      10. tabloids
II. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer) 11. job             12. career goals            13. qualification(s)       14.
grades        15. A16. C                17. B                            18. A                            19. B                20. C
PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5 points)
I. 3 points (0.15 point/ 1 correct answer) 01. C   02. A   03. B   04. A   05. B   06. D   07. B   08. A   09. B   10. D
11. A   12. A   13. C   14. A   15. D   16. B   17. C   18. A   19. C   20. D
II. 0.5 point (0.1 point/ 1 correct answer)
21. D   22. A   23. D   24. C   25. B
III. 1.5 points (0.15 point/ 1 correct answer) (không phân biệt chữ in hoa hay in thường)
26. RECENTLY 27. DISCOVERY 28. INTEREST 29. TRADITIONALLY 30. BURIAL
31. UNKNOWN 32. SCIENTISTS 33. DESCENDANT 34. ORIGINALLY 36. CRIMINAL
PART 3: READING (6 points; 0.2 point/ 1 correct answer)
I. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer) 01. B   02. A   03. A   04. D   05. D   06. A   07. C   08. B   09. C   10. A
II. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer) 11. B   12. C   13. A   14. B   15. D   16. A   17. D   18. D   19. B   20. B
III. 2 points (0.2 point/ 1 correct answer)
21. around 22. communication 23. used 24. births 25. unpleasant
26. warnings 27. of 28. commonly 29. take 30. celebration
PART 4: WRITING (5 points)
I. Rewriting (2 points; 0.4 point/ 1 correct answer)
01. → Celine has always had a taste for classical music.
02. → Since they are under age, they cannot watch this film.
03. → If only you had asked us to spend more time with you.
04. → The deadline for your essays is the 30th of June.
05. → Little has she spoken since the day she met the President.
II. Essay writing (3 points)
- Contents: good, clear, logic and coherent: 2 points
- Good grammar structures, vocabs: 0.5 point
- Good spelling and correct form: 0.5 point
 ĐỀ 4
Part 1: Circle the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in each
group. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
1. A. arrow                B. loud                                   C. moldy                    D. poultry
2. A. basilisk             B. bison                                 C. basic                      D. basin
3. A. subtlety             B. indebtedness                    C. bombard               D. combing
4. A. benevolent       B. content                              C. molecules             D. technique
5. A. conscience       B. bronchitis                         C. shuttle                   D. chauffeur
Part 2: Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from that of the others in each line. Circle A, B,
C or D to indicate your answer. (5 pts)
6. A. comic                B. clementine            C. climax                   D. thermonuclear
7. A. diligent             B. dimension             C. action                    D. innate
8. A. characterize     B. absence                 C. datum                    D. charcoal
9. A. solicitor             B. separately             C. spacious                D. sequence
10. A. parachute       B. armchair               C. accent                    D. accidentally
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Circle A, B, C or D to indicate your
answer. (20 pts)
11. Assembly lines are useful for producing a large _____ of identical products.
A. quality                         B. quantity                C. quandary              D. qualification
12. Only the _____ of the building is going to be remodeled.
A. insides                         B. interior                  C. indoors                  D. inner
13. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _____ to me.
A. indifference               B. disinterest             C. importance           D. interest
14. After years of neglect there was a huge _____ program to return the city to its former glory.
A. restoration                 B. preservation         C. conservation        D. refurbishment
15. The assistant suggested _____ the next day when the manager would be there.
A. we are coming back             B. to come back                   
C. we will come back          D. we came back
16. I never get a _____ of sleep after watching a horror film.
A. wink                            B. blink                      C. night                                  D. ounce
17. As it was Christmas, the _____ at church was much larger than usual.
A. audience                    B. convention           C. congregation                    D. grouping
18. The sheep were huddled into a _____ to protect them from overnight frosts.
A. cage                            B. kennel                   C. hutch                     D. pen
19. The jury _____ the defendant “not guilty”.
A. gave                            B. returned                C. subscribed             D. found
20. Many _____ crafts such as weaving are now being revived.
A. customary                  B. habitual                 C. traditional             D. ordinary
21. He managed to finish his thesis under the _____ of his tutor.
A. guidance                    B. help                       C. aid                          D. assistance
22. Mr. Henry was given a medal in _____ of his service to his country.
A. gratitude                     B. knowledge            C. recognition           D. response
23. Everyone knows about pollution problems, but not many people have _____ any solutions.
A. thought over              B. come up with       C. looked into           D. got round to
24. You _____ as well seek for a fish in the tree as try to do that.
A. must                            B. would                    C. should                   D. might
25. _____ calculations have shown that the earth’s resources may run out before the end of the next century.
A. Raw                             B. Rude                      C. Crude                    D. Blunt
26. By the time you receive this letter, I _____ for China.
A. will have left             B. have left                C. would have left    D. will leave
27. Prizes are awarded _____ the number of points scored.
A. resulting from            B. adding up              C. presented to          D. according to
28. The needs of gifted children in schools have long been _____ neglected.
A. dolefully                    B. woefully               C. idly                         D. pathetically
29. I must take this watch to be repaired; it _____ over 20 minutes a day.
A. increases                    B. gains                      C. accelerates           D. progresses
30. It had been a trying afternoon, _____ at about six o’clock in the television breaking down.
A. culminating               B. leading                  C. arriving                 D. finalizing
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the
right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
According to some (0) _____ (SCIENCE), high-risk sports can be particularly (31) _____ (VALUE)
for certain types of people. Such activities help them to learn that being (32) _____ (FRIGHT)
doesn’t mean that they have to lose control. The recent fashion for jumping from bridges attached to
a (33) _____ (LONG) of elastic rope, known as “bungee jumping”, has now been tried by over one
million people (34) _____ (WORLD) and interest in it is continuing to grow.
Before the special elastic rope (35) _____ (TIGHT) around them, jumpers reach speeds of nearly
160kph. First-timers are usually too (36) _____ (TERROR) to open their mouths, and when they are
finally (37) _____ (LOW) safely to the ground, they walk around with broad smiles on their faces,
saying (38) _____ (REPEAT) how amazing it was. However, for some people, it is only the (39)
_____ (EMBARRASS) of refusing to jump at the last minute that finally persuades them to conquer
their fear of (40) _____ (HIGH) and push themselves off into space.
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the
space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. (10 pts)
Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are designed to
measure acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The
proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude
tests are designed and measure a person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example,
vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or musician.
However, all mental tests are in some sense achievement tests because they assumption some sort of
past learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or situations. The difference between
achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intention use.
Part 4: Fill in each of the gaps with the correct preposition or particle. Write your answers in the numbered
spaces provided below the passage. (10 pts)
            The show was fully booked (51) _____ for weeks, and when it opened last night, the public poured (52)
_____ and very soon the London Arts Center was packed (53) _____. But why? What did they come to see?
They came to see human beings take (54) _____ circus animals, men in cat suits who stood (55) _____ for real
lions and tigers. The show was put (56) _____ by its creators to protest (57) _____ traditional circuses and to
send a message about cruelty to animals. The show was timed to tie (58) _____ with the National Protection of
Animals Week. It was a good idea, but the standard of the performances was third-rate and an embarrassing
number of people simply walked (59) _____ before it ended. There were some amusing moments when the
performers sent (60) _____ typical circus folks, but overall it was a dismal show. Despite the large turnout for
the show’s first night, I doubt it will attract many people during the rest of its seven-day run.
 Part 5: Complete each sentence with the correct form of ONE of the phrasal verbs below. Write your answers
in the numbered spaces provided below the passage. Each verb is used only once. (10 pts)
try out slip up carry on get by put out
take after get down look up go through turn down
61. If you’re finding it difficult to _____ on your salary, why don’t you ask for a raise?
62. I know what you’re _____ and I feel really sorry for you.
63. In many ways you _____ your father.
64. If you _____ you’ll get into trouble.
65. I proposed to her but she _____ me _____.
66. You’d better _____ your cigarette because smoking isn’t allowed in here.
67. If you _____ working so hard, you’ll make yourself ill.
68. Stop worrying about it. Don’t let this failure ____ you _____.
69. The car’s in quite good condition but you can _____ it _____ before you make any decision to buy,
70. When I was in New York, I was able to _____ several old friends I hadn’t seen for years.
Part 6: Insert A, AN, THE or Ø (zero article) where necessary. Write your answers in the numbered spaces
provided below the passage. (10 pts)
Suddenly (71) _____ blackbird flew to (72) _____ top of (73) _____ beach. She perched way up on  (74) _____
topmost twig that stuck up thin against (75) _____. Then she commenced to sing.
Her little black body seemed only (76) _____ tiny dark speck at that distance. She looked like (77) _____ old
dead leaf. But she poured out her song in (78) _____ great flood of rejoicing through (79) _____ whole forest.
And (80) _____ things began to stir.
III. READING COMPREHENSION
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. Circle A, B, C
or D to indicate your answer. (10 pts)
            The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested that
human tears are (81) _____ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment we
enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or
uncomfortable. As they (82) _____, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when
they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (83) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since
recent research into tears has shown that they (84) _____ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting
sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (85)
_____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (86) _____ activity. Because some
people still regard it as a (87) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This
kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (88) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them
than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable –
(89) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (90) _____ “weepies”. It seems that
people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.
81. A. witness                       B. evidence               C. result                                 D. display
82. A. evolve                         B. change                   C. develop                             D. alter
83. A. better                          B. fine                         C. good                                  D. well
84. A. contain                       B. retain                     C. hold                                   D. keep
85. A. construct                    B. achieve                 C. provide                             D. produce
86. A. curing                         B. treating                  C. healing                              D. improving
87. A. hint                             B. symbol                  C. feature                               D. sign
88. A. release                         B. rid                          C. loosen                               D. expel
89. A. consider                     B. remark                   C. distinguish                        D. regard
90. A. named                         B. entitled                  C. subtitled                            D. called
Part 2: Read the following passage and fill the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the space
provided below the passage. (10 pts)
            New technologies, like all technologies, are morally neutral. (91) _____ their advent makes the world a
better place or not depends on the uses to which they are (92) _____. And that, (93) _____ turn, depends upon
the decisions of many people, especially of politicians, managers, trade (94) _____ leaders, engineers and
scientists. The new technologies, cheap, flexible, dependent on knowledge and information as their main input,
can (95) _____ human beings from many of their current constraints for example constraints of resources and
geography. (96) _____ the new technologies could also (97) _____ those with power to control their fellow
citizens even more effectively than in the (98) _____ efficient dictatorships of the past. The new technological
society will (99) _____ colossal demands on our imagination and ingenuity and on the capacity (100) _____ our
institutions to respond to new challenges.
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 101 to 110. (10 pts)
Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying oxen
traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned.
The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had
expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the
“Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States,
the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it
would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that
familiarblue jointt grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless.
Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed
themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient
features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama
grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of
summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And
they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this
way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for
themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they
trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional
rains of spring. The dry summer air-cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.
 101. What does the passage mainly discuss?
        A. A type of wild vegetation                B. Western migration after Civil War
        C. The raising of cattle                         D. The climate of the Western United States
102. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?
        A. Most history book include the story of the train.
        B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
        C. The driver of the train invented the story.               D. The story of the train may not be completed
factual.
103. The word “they” in line 4 refers to _____.
        A. plains                       B. skeletons              C. oxen                     D. Americans
104. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?
           A. Many had settled there by the 1860’s.                        
B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
            C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.  
D. It was not discovered until the late 1800’s.
105. The word “barren” in line 7 is closed in meaning to _____.
        A. lonely                       B. uncomfortable                 C. infertile                D. dangerous
106. The word “preferred” in line 8 is closed in meaning to _____.
        A. favored                    B. available                           C. ordinary               D. required
107. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph?
           A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.    
B. It had to be imported into the United States.
           C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.        
D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
108. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
        A. Mesquite grass          B. Bluejoint grass   C. Buffalo grass       D. Grama grass
109. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
        A. They contain little moisture          B. They have tough stems
        C. They can be grown indoors           D. They are not affected by dry weather
110. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by_____.
        A. eating only small quantities of grass.       B. continually moving from one grazing area to another.
        C. naturally fertilizing the soil.          D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground.
IV. WRITING (6/20 points)
Part 1: Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before
it
111. Customs officials are stopping more travelers than usual this week.                 
→ An increased ________________
112. I left without saying goodbye as I didn’t want to disturb the meeting.   
→ Rather ________________
113. My decision to get up and dance coincided with the band’s decision to stop playing. → The moment
________
114. He never suspected that the bicycle had been stolen.                                
→ At no time ________________
115. How could I help, except to offer to lend her some money?                                
→ Other ________________
Part 2: Use the word(s) given in the brackets and make any necessary additions to complete a new sentence in
such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of
the given word(s).
116. To this day no one has equaled his achievements in the field of technology. (unsurpassed)
→ To this day ……………………………………………in the field of technology.
117. Peter grimaced as he swallowed the foul-tasting medicine. (pulled)
→ Peter ……………………………………………….the foul-tasting medicine.
118. It’s unfortunately that the construction of the building will not be finished as originally planned. (longer)
→ The construction of the building …………………………………… unfortunate.
119. What he told me made me very curious to hear the rest of the history. (appetite)
→ What he told me ………………………………………………………….. the story.
120. They chose not to drive because they thought there would be too much snow. (fear)
→ They chose ………………………………………………….…. too much snow.
 ĐÁP ÁN
I. PHONETICS: 1/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)
1. B    2. A            3. C                  4. C              5. B
Part 2: (5 x 0.1 = 0.5)          
6. D    7. B            8. A                  9. A               10. D
II. LEXICO – GRAMMAR: 6/20 points
Part 1: (20 x 0.05 = 1)
11. B   12. B            13. A             14. A              15. D    16. A   17. C            18. D             19. D     20. C
21. A   22. C            23. B             24. D     25. C            26. A   27. D            28. B             29. B     30. A
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)           
31. value → valuable           36. terror → terrified
32. fright → frightened       37. low → lowered
33. long → length    38. repeat → repeatedly
34. world – worldwide        39. embarrass → embarrassment
35. tight → tightened           40. high → heights
Part 3: (10 x 0.1 = 1)                       
41. acquiring → acquired   46. vocation → vocational
42. explicitness → explicitly          47. like → as
43. few → a few       48. assumption → assume
44. and → to             49. certainly → certain
45. but → to              50. intention → intended
Part 4: (10 x 0.1 = 1)                       
51. up 52. in              53. out              54. off               55. in
56. on 57. against      58. in                59. out               60. up
Part 5: (10 x 0.1 = 1)                       
61. get by     62. going through      63. take after 64. slip up      65. turned down
66. put out     67. carry on   68. get down  69. try out      70. look up
 Part 6: (10 x 0.1 = 1)                      
71. a           72. the          73. a                        74. the               75. the            76. a           77. an           78. a        
79. the               80. Ø
III. READING COMPREHENSION: 4/20 points
Part 1: (10 x 0.1 = 1)           
81. B          82. C             83. C              84. A             85. D            86. C          87. D             88. B              89.
A             90. D
Part 2: (10 x 0.1 = 1)           
91. whether  92. put            93. in  94. union       95. free            96. but           97. enable      98. most         99.
make        100. of
Part 3: (10 x 0.2 = 2)           
101. A          102. B             103. C              104. D               105. C            106. A           107. C             108.
B              109. D               110. B
IV. WRITING: 6/20 points
Part 1: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
111. An increased number of travellers is being stopped by customs officials this week.
112. Rather than disturb the meeting, I left without saying goodbye.
113. The moment I decided to get up to dance, the band decided to stop playing.
114. At no time did he suspect that the bicycle had been stolen.
115. Other than to offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
Part 2: (5 x 0.2 = 1)
116. his achievements are unsurpassed.  
117. pulled a face as he swallowed.
118. will take longer than originally planned, which is.       
119. whetted my appetite for the rest of.
120. not to drive for fear of.
 ĐỀ 5
PART A. Phonetics: (5.0 point)
Question I:  Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose main stress pattern is different from
the others. (2.0 point)
1.   A. Perform                        B. Campus                  C. Mountain                D. Equal
2.   A. Information      B. Contaminate           C. Mathematics           D. Politician
Question II:  Circle one letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced
differently from that of the others. (3.0 point)
3. A. Closure               B. Pleasure                  C. Conclusion             D. Pressure
4. A. Walked               B. Threatened             C. Passed                    D. Forced
5. A. Streets                B. Phones                    C. Books                     D. Makes

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (45.0points)

Question I: Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
(15.0 points).
1.. …………  the time you get to the theatre, the play will have finished.
A. Until                                   B. In                            C. By                           D. On
2. They are going to make ……………  excursion next month.
A. a two-week                         B. two-weeks                          C. two weeks'              D. a two-week
3. He refused to give up work , …………… he had won a million pounds.
A. despite                                B. however                  C. even though            D. as though
4. The new system didn’t …………... expectations.
A. catch up with                      B. bring about             C. come across            D. come up to
5. The newspaper report contained …………… important information.
A. many                                  B. another                   C. an                            D. a lot of
6. You ……………  better be careful not to miss the train.
A. would                                 B. should                     C. had                         D. did
7. Helen asked me ……………  the film called “Stars Wars”.
A. have I seen                         B. have you seen         C. If I had seen            D. if had I seen
8. She had no …………  of selling the clock. It had belonged to her grand mother.
A. intention                 B. meaning                              C. interest                    D. opinion
9. I’m really looking forward ……………  to university.
A. to go                       B. go                                       C. going                      D. to going
10. Let’s go dancing, ……………?”   -  “Yes, let’s”
A. will we                   B. do we                                  C. don’t we                 D. shall we
11. I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just……., please.
A. few                         B. a few                                  C. little                        D. a little.
12. They are very happy to have received a(n) ....... of 500 dollars from a foreign company.
A. charity                    B. donation                             C. hospital                   D. organisation
13.  were so late that we ……………  had time to catch the train.
A. nearly                    B. almost                                  C. hardly                   D. mostly         
14. Many species of animals have become …… due to the irresponsible activities of people.
A. endanger                B. dangerous                           C. danger                    D. endangered
15.- “Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?”       - “………….”
A. Anything will do    B. Yes, please                         C. Never mind             D. I don’t mind
Question II: Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the words in capital letters. (10.0 point)
1. Earth Hour is a ...................event organized to raise people’s awareness about the need to take action on
climate change.                                                                                                                                 (WORLD)
2. Solar energy, wind power and water power are ...................sources of energy.               
(ALTERNATE)
3. This organization is very concerned about the……..............of the rain forests.                       (DESTROY)
4. In Western countries, electricity, gas, and water are not luxuries but ................ .            
(NECESSARY)                                                                                                                       
5. Two…….......from the group “Friends of the Earth" are talking to the students.             
(REPRESENT)
6. What does it mean to say “ the world is ……… ?                                                            
(OVERPOPULATE)
7. Seven ………countries have arrangements to deliver EMS items.                                               (ADD)
8.Petroleum is the most ………used energy source, supplying about 40% of the planet’s
energy.            (COMMON)
9. My farther is very good at………people singing with his guitar and I admire him very
much.            (ACCOMPANY)
10. Mother’day occurs ……… on the second Sundy in May.                                                           (ANNUAL)
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

The horse and carriage is a thing of the past,  but love and marriage are still with us and
still closely interrelating. Most American marriages, particular first marriages uniting 0. __ interrelated ____
young people, are the result of mutual attraction and affection rather with practical
considerations. 1. ________________
In the United States, parents do not arrange marriages for their children. Teenagers 2. _________________
begin date in high school and usually find mates through their own academic and social 3. _________________
contacts. Though young people feel free to choose their friends from different groups,
almost choose a mate of similar background. This is due partly to parental guidance. 4. _________________
Parents cannot select spouses for their children, but they can usually influence choices 5. _________________
by voicing disapproval for someone they consider suitable.
6. _________________
However, marriages of members of different groups (interclass, interfaith, and
interracial marriages) are increasing, probably because of the greater mobile of today's 7. _________________
youth and the fact that they are restricted by fewer prejudices as their parents. Many 8. _________________
young people leave their hometowns to attend college, serve in armed forces, or pursue
a career in a bigger city. One away from home and family, they are more likely to date 9._________________
and marry outside their own social group. 10._________________
Question III: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. UNDERLINE the mistake and WRITE THEIR
CORECT FORMS in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example ( 10.0
points)

Question IV: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10pt )

1. A - Stop! You (not see)  ……………… the notice?
    B - I see it but I can’t read it. What it (say) ………….. ?
2. That man was a little mad. He always (try) …………….to improve that the earth was flat.
3. Something tells me that you (not listen) …………….to a single word I have said in the past ten minutes.
4. I’m so confused that I don’t know what (do) …………………..  .
5. Smith had a lucky escape. He (kill)  ……………………………. .
PART D. READING (30.0 points)
Question I:  Fill in each numbered blank with ONE appropriate word: ( 10.0 points)
Books give us all the information (1)…………..a man. They show his interest. They are the (2)………to his
mind. All the richers of the world lose their importance in the face of books. A man with money and (3)……..
Books is a poor man. Books have become so cheap that a library can easily be made. Money spent on good
books is never (4)……………. It is a pleasure to read good books. Thus man gains both efficiency and wisdom.
You can(5)…… your library with the expenditure of only a few hundred rupees.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
Question II:  Read the passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the 
questions  (10.0 points )
     Large animals that inhabit the desert have evolved a number of adaptations for reducing the effects of
extreme heat. One adaptation is to be light in color, and to reflect rather than absorb the Sun's rays. Desert
mammals also depart from the normal mammalian practice of maintaining a constant body temperature. Instead
of trying to keep down the body temperature deep inside the body, which would involve the expenditure of
water and energy, desert mammals allow their temperatures to rise to what would normally be fever height, and
temperatures as high as 46 degrees Celsius have been measured in Grant's gazelles. The overheated body then
cools down during the cold desert night, and indeed the temperature may fall unusually low by dawn, as low as
34 degrees Celsius in the camel. This is an advantage since the heat of the first few hours of daylight is absorbed
in warming up the body, and an excessive build-up of heat does not begin until well into the day.
     Another strategy of large desert animals is to tolerate the loss of body water to a point that would be fatal for
non-adapted animals. The camel can lose up to 30 percent of its body weight as water without harm to itself,
whereas human beings die after losing only 12 to 13 percent of their body weight. An equally important
adaptation is the ability to replenish this water loss at one drink. Desert animals can drink prodigious volumes in
a short time, and camels have been known to imbibe over 100 liters in a few minutes. A very dehydrated person,
on the other hand, cannot drink enough water to rehydrate at one session, because the human stomach is not
sufficiently big and because a too rapid dilution of the body fluids causes death from water intoxication.
     The tolerance of water loss is of obvious advantage in the desert, as animals do not have to remain near a
water hole but can obtain food from grazing sparse and far-flung pastures. Desert-adapted mammals have the
further ability to feed normally when extremely dehydrated, it is a common experience in people that appetite is
lost even under conditions of moderate thirst.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
            A. Weather variations in the desert                            B. Adaptations of desert animals
            C. Diseased of desert animals                                     D. Human use of desert animals.
2. According to the passage, why is light coloring an advantage to large desert animals?
            A. It helps them hide from predators                         B. It does not absorb sunlight as much as dark colors
            C. It helps them see their young at night                    D. It keeps them cool at night
3. The word "maintaining" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
            A. measuring                           B. inheriting                C. preserving               D. delaying
4. The author uses of Grant's gazelle as an example of
            A. an animal with a low average temperature           
            B. an animal that is not as well adapted as the camel
            C. a desert animal that can withstand high body temperatures
            D. a desert animal with a constant body temperature
5. When is the internal temperature of a large desert mammal lower?
            A. Just before sunrise                                                 B. In the middle of the day
            C. Just after sunset                                                      D. Just after drinking
6. The word "tolerate" in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
            A. endure                    B. replace                                C. compensate             D. reduce
7. What causes water intoxication?
            A. Drinking too much water very quickly                  B. Drinking polluted water
            C. Bacteria in water                                                    D. Lack of water.
8. What does the author imply about desert-adapted mammals?
            A. They do not need to eat much food.                      B. They can eat large quantities quickly
            C. They easily lose their appetites.                             D. They can travel long distances looking for food.
9. Why does the author mention humans in the second paragraph? 
            A. To show how they use camels.                              B. To contrast them to desert mammals.
            C. To give instructions about desert survival.                        D. To show how they have adapted to desert
life.
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an adaptation of large desert animals?
            A. Variation in body temperatures                             B. Eating while dehydrated
            C. Drinking water quickly                                          D. Being active at night.
QuestionIII:  Read the following passage and circle the most suitable answer (A,B,C or D) for each space:
(10.0 point)
     The computer is undoubtedly one of the most (1) ...................... and important  inventions   of the twentieth
century. Boring or time-consuming jobs which, in the past, would have been carried out by hundreds of workers
can now be done by one small computer. However, the (2)......................... of the computer has not been entirely
problem-free. Many people feel that we are already too dependent on computers. They think that computers
themselves are becoming too powerful, and that people are no longer in control of them.
One of the problems with a computer is that, like any other machines, it can   (3).......................... If a computer
is damaged, the information it is storing can be lost. If a computer program has a(n)  (4)......................... in it, the
computer’s calculation can be seriously (5)...........................  . A faulty program in a hospital or police computer
could cause terrible mistakes.
1. A. shocking                 B. amazing                  C. astonishing             D. surprising
2. A. usage                      B. experiment              C. introduction            D. operation
3. A. break up                 B. break down             C. break into               D. break out
4. A. foul                         B. abnormality                        C. wrongdoing            D. error
5. A. devalued                B. affected                  C. fooled                     D. broken
       PART E. WRITING (20.0 points)
Question I:  Finish each second sentence so that it has similar meaning to the first sentence, using the clues
at the beginning of each sentence. There’s an example at the beginning (0). (5.0  points)
0.  Can you close window, please?     à        Would you mind closing the window?
1. “I am sorry that I broke the glass” said Jim.
=> Jim apologised …………………………………………………………………………….. .
2. I really think you ought to take some exercises.
=> It is high time ………………………………………………………………………………
3. If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
=> The sooner …………………………………………………………………………………. 
4. The demand was so great that they had to reprint the book immediately.
=> So …………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. I prefer going out for a meal to staying at home.
=> I’d rather ……………………………………………………………………………………..
Question II: Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way. (5.0
pts)
1. They have discovered some interesting new information.                                                 (LIGHT)
=> …………………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches.                                                     (BANNED)
=> …………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. I really want to see her again.                                                                                 (DYING)
=> …………………………………………………………………………………………………….                     
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her.                                        (EYES)
=>………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. We are looking forward to watching the program.                                                (WAIT)
=>………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Question III: Write an essay (about 150 words) on the following topic:  (10.0 points)
     In the future, students may have the choice of studying at home by using technology such as computers or
television or of studying at traditional schools. Which would you prefer? Use reasons and specific details to
explain your choice.
A- ĐÁP ÁN:
PART A: PHONETICS (5 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. B

PART B: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (45 điểm)

Question I.( 15 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. D
6. C 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. D
11. D 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A
Question II. (10 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. worldwide 2. alternative 3. destruction 4. necessities 5. representatives
6. overpopulated 7. additional 8. commonly 9. accompanying 10. annually
Question III; (10 điểm – Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm - nếu tìm được lỗi mà sửa không đúng thì cho 0.5 điểm)
MISTAKES CORRECTIONS MISTAKES CORRECTIONS
1. particular particularly 6. suitable unsuitable
2. with than 7. of between/ among
3. date dating/ to date 8. mobile mobility
4. almost most 9. as than
5. for of 10. one once

Question IV: ( 10 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)

1. Don’t you see/ does it say 4. should been done
2. Was always trying 5. Could have been killed
3. haven’t been listening

PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)

Question I: (  10điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)
1.about 2.index 3.without 4.wasted 5.form
Question II. ( 10 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. B 2.C 3.C 4.A 5.A
6. B 7.D 8.D 9. B 10.D
Question III. (  10 điểm -Mỗi câu đúng 2 điểm)
1.B 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.B
 PART D: WRITING (20 pts)
Question I (5 điểm - Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. Jim apologised for breaking the glass.
2. It is high time you took some exercises.
3. The sooner we can solve the problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
4. So great was the demand that they had to reprint the book immediately
5. I’d rather go out for a meal than stay at home.
Question II (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm)
1. Some interesting new information has come to light
2. Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches.
3. I'm dying to see her again.
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her.
5. We can't wait to watch the program.
Question III. Essay: (10 điểm)
Marking criteria:
+ Task completion (4 điểm)
Tuỳ theo khả năng hoàn thành về bố cục và những yêu cầu nội dung cho mỗi phần ( mở bài,thân bài,kết luận)
giám khảo có thể chấm từ 1-4 điểm.
+ Grammatical accuracy and spelling 3 điểm:  bài viết không có lỗi chính tả và từ ba lỗi ngữ pháp trở xuống
được cho 3 điểm tối đa. Cứ 4 lỗi chính tả hoặc ngữ pháp trừ 1 điểm (Trừ không quá 3 điểm).
- Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – 3 điểm:
Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm.