NGT NEDIANs Group Tuitions

„‟A PROJECT OF NEDIANS & KURIAN BROTHERS”

MOCK TEST FOR NEDUET ADMISSION TEST (2020-2021)

(Time Allowed: Two Hours)

NAME : ROLL NO.

Section A ( chemistry)

1. Aqua regia is a mixture of

A) HNO3 and H2SO4 B) H2SO4 and NaNO3 C) HCl and HNO3 D) H2O and HCl
2. CuSO4 solution turns blue litmus red because of

formation of A)strong base B)

strong acid C) neutral solution D)

poison

3. When any solid is changed to gas without melting the process is called
A) diffusion B) boiling C) sublimation D) distillation
4. “P1V1 = P2V2 at constant pressure and mass”, is the mathematical expression of
A) Boyles law B) Charles law C) Avogadro‟s hypothesis D) Dalton‟s law
5. Colourless gas with a bad smell of that of rotten eggs is
A) CO2 B) N2 C) H2S D) SO2
6. In gold plating the cathode is made of
A) copper B) Metal to be plated C) Gold D) Silver
7. In any exothermic reaction heat energy is
A) Released B) Absorbed C) taken in by the reactants D) no heat changes
8. Gamma rays have
A) Unit mass and minus charge B) zero mass and zero charge
 C) zero mass and positive charge D) none of these

9. All members of homologous series of Alkenes share a general molecular

formula of A)CnH2n-2 B) CnH2n C) CnH2n+2 D) CH2

10. What will be the volume of the gas at 2 atm if it occupies a volume of 400 ml

at 700 tor, at constant temperature

A) 368 ml B) 184 ml C) 22.4 ml D) 92 ml

11. Brass is an alloy of

A) copper and tin B) gold and copper C) copper and zinc D)
iron and tin
12. Maximum possible number of electrons in an energy level or shell „n‟ is given by
A) 2n² B) 4n² C) 4n D) 2n4

13. The pressure at which one mole of the gas at 0 C occupies a value of one liter is
closest to

A) 1 atm B) 760 mm C) 22.4 atm D) 22.4 ml

151
14. How many neutrons are there in I53
A) 53 B) 98 C) 151 D) 204
15. The formula of calcium carbide is
A) CaCO3 B) CaCN2 C) CaC2 D) Ca(HCO3)2
16. Fluorine, Chlorine, Bromine and Iodine belong to the same group of the

periodic table and they show similarities in properties due to

A) density B) size C) electronic configuration D) boiling point

17. Which of the following molecules will be polar?
A) CH4 B) CO2 C) H2O D) F2
18. Which one of the following give sulphur dioxide when heated in air?
A) sulphuric acid B) iron pyrite C) sodium sulphide D) none of these
19. The molar mass (molecular weight) of NaOH is 40.0. How many grams of

NaOH will be required to prepare 0.01 NaOH solution

A) 40.0 g B) 4.0 g C) 0.40 g D) 0.04 g

20. 20 ml of 0.1 M NaOH is titrated with 0.5 M H2SO4. At the end point, the

burette reading will be

A) 20 ml B) 10 ml C) 5 ml D) 2 ml
21. Under comparable condition if N2O, NO NO2 and N2O5 gases are allowed to

difuse, the gas which will difuse most quickly is

A) N2O5 B) NO C) N2O D) NO2

22. Which of the following statement is true
A) the surface tension of a liquid increases with increase of temperature
B) the surface tension of a liquid decrease with increase of temperature
C) the surface tension of a liquid does not depend upon temperature
D) the surface tension of liquid depends upon the volume of the liquid
O

23. The name of the functional group – C is

OH

A) Carbonyl group B) carboxylic group

C) hydroxyl group D) aldehydic group

24. The formula of Xylene is

A) C6H6 B) C6H5NO2 C) C6H5CH3 D) C6H5OH
25. Amino acids present in protein are important for body growth. Which of the

following cannot be a source of amino acid.

A) Meat B) milk C) beans D) sugar

 SECTION–II
PHYSICS

1. A vector having zero magnitude is called

A) A unit vector B) A position vector C) A negative vector D) A null vector

2. An acceleration of 1 m/s² is produced in a body of mass 1 kg by a force of

A) One pound B) One Newton C) One dyne D) One slug

3. A projectile attains maximum horizontal range when it is projected at an angle of

A) 30 with the horizontal B) 45 with the horizontal
C) 60 with the horizontal D) 90 with the horizontal

4. The SI unit of angular displacement is

A) Meter B) Centimeter C) Kelvin D) Radian

5. Which one of the following can be used to determine the mass of the earth
A) Kepler‟s law B) Newton‟s law of motion C) Coulomb‟s law
D) Newton‟s law of gravitation

6. The weight of man in an elevator moving down with an acceleration of 9.8 m/s²
will become
A) Double B) Half C) zero D) Unchanged

7. The tidal energy is due to the gravitational pull of

A) Mars on water B) Moon on water C) Sun on water D) Jupitor on water

8. A solar cell is device which converts solar energy into

A) Heat energy B) Nuclear energy C) Chemical energy D) Electrical energy

9. If a simple pendulum is shifted from Karachi to Mount Everest, its time period
A) decreases B) Increases C) Remains constant D) Decreases
slightly

10. An average human ear can hear the sound of frequency

A) 200 to 500 Hz B) 20 to 20000 Hz
C) 30000 to 50000 Hz D) Above 50000 Hz

11. If the air pressure is doubled, the speed of sound

A) Decreases by 0.61 m/s B) Increases by 0.61 m/s
C) Increases by 61 cm/s D) Remains unchanged

12. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to

A) Wavelength B) Intensity C) Frequency D) None of these
13. One Angstrom is equal to
 A) 10¯¹ cm B) 10-8 cm C) 10-8 m D) 10¯¹ mm

14. The focal length of a convex lens is

A) Negative B) positive C) either positive or negative D) none of these
15. At constant temperature, if the volume of the given mass of gas is doubled,
then the density of the gas becomes
A) One half B) One fourth C) Double D) remains constant

16. The heat capacity per unit mass of a body is called

A) Heat of fusion B) Latent heat C) specific heat D) Claorie

17. The first law of thermodynamics is merely a statement of

A) Law of conservation of momentum B) Law of conservation of mass
C) Law of conversion of energy D) Charle‟s law

18. Net change in entropy of a system in a Carnot‟s cycle is

A) Negative B) Positive C) Entropy remains the same D) none
of these

19. Electric flux per unit area is a measure of

A) Electric force B) Electric intensity C)
Electric potential D) None of these

20. Which of the following is correct?

A) 1 ampere = 1 coulomb x 1 second B) 1 ampere = 1 second/coulomb
C) 1 ampere = 1 coulomb/1 second D) None of these

21. Find the value of „a‟ if two vectors A = 2iˆ and B = 4iˆ 2 ˆj
are perpendicular to

aˆj k 2k
each other
 A) 20 B) 15 C) 10 D) 5

22. A body of mass 1 kg moving with initial velocity of 1 m/sec is acted upon by a
force for 1 sec. The increase in kinetic energy is
A) 1.0 J B) 2.0 J C) 2.5 J D) 3.0 J

23. A body traveling at constant speed of 2 km/h moves along a circular curve of
radius 1000 m. Its acceleration will be
A) 2 km/h² B) 3 km/h² C) 3.5 km/h² D) 4 km/h²

24. A convex lens of 20 cm, focal length is used to form an erect image which is
twice as large as the object. The position of object from the lens is
A) 5 cm B) 30 cm C) 15 cm D) 20 cm

25. If ten resistances each of 10 ohms are connected in parallel then the total
resistance is
A) 1 ohm B) 5 ohms C) 2 ohms D) 10 ohms

SECTION–III
MATHEMATICS

1. In the draw of a card from a deck of ordinary playing cards, find the
probability that the card is a 7 or a club.
A) 4/3 B) 5/26 C) 6/27 D) 5/6 E) 7/12

2. A particular geography textbook has 10 chapters. An instructor of seminar

course wishes to cover seven of the chapters. How many ways can she do this?
A) 112 B) 260 C) 72 D) 120 E) 700

3. A raffle is entered by 25 people. How many ways can a first and second prize
be a awarded? A) 60 B) 400 C) 500 D) 200 E) 300

4. Which of the following functions is an odd function?

A) f(x) = x3 + 1 B) f(x) = x / (x – 1) C) f(x) = x3 + x
D) f(x) = 2x E) f(x) = cosx

5. If f(x) = x2 + 1 and f(g(x)) = 4x – 3, then g(x) =

√𝑥−1
A) 2√𝑥 − 1 B) 2√𝑥 − 1 C) √𝑥 − 4 D) √4𝑥 + 4 E)
4

6. The identity element in R w.r.t where a 𝑏 = √𝑎2 + 𝑏2, ∀ 𝑎, 𝑏 ∈ 𝑅 is

A) -1 B) 0 C) 1 D) +∞ E) -∞
7. Value of x in log5x = 4logx5 is
A) 25, 1/25 B) 1, -1 C) 0, 1 D) 2, 3 E) 4, 5

8. (2a – 3b)4 = ?
A) 16a4 + 96a3b + 216a2b2 + 216ab3 + 81b4
B) 16a4 - 96a3b + 216ab2 - 216ab3 + 81b4
C) 16a4 - 96a3b + 216a2b2 - 216ab3 + 27b4
D) 16a4 - 96a3b + 216a2b2 - 616a2b + 216ab3 + 81b4
E) 16a4 - 96a3b + 216a2b2 - 216ab3 + 81b4

15
1
9. The term independent of x in the expansion of (𝑥 − is
𝑥2
)
A) -1003 B) -3003 C) -1001 D) 80286 E) -8064

10. Root(s) of x2 – 2z + 2 = 0 is/are

A) 1+i B) 1 – i C) 1 D) -1 E) A & B both

11. The series 1/10 + 1/102 + 1/103 + ……. is

A) Convergent B) Divergent C) Absolute convergent
D) Partial convergent E) Conditional convergent

12. lim𝑥→2(𝑥2 − 5𝑥 + 6) / (𝑥2 − 12𝑥 + 20) = ?

A) 1 B) ½ C) ¼ D) 1/8 E) 1/16
13. The equation of the circle which passes through the point (-2, 4) and has the
same centre as the circle whose equation is x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 23 = 0 is
A) x2 + y2 – 6x + 2y – 15 = 0 B) x2 + y2 – 6x + 8y + 6 = 0 C) x2 + y2 – 4x – 7y = 0
D) x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 52 = 0 E) x2 + y2 – 8x – 3y + 6 = 0

14. Let U = {0,1,2,3} and A = {0,1,2}, B = {1}and C = {2,3} then A B C=?

A) U B) A C) B D) C E) Ø

15. Let U be the universal set and A, B, are the subsets of U then the correct
Venn diagram for (A B)‟ is
A) B) C) D) E) All of these

16. The area of a circle whose center is at (0, 0) is 25π. The circle passes
through all of the following points EXCEPT
A) (-5, 0) B) (5, 5) C) (5, 0) D) (0, 5) E) (0, -5)

17. City B is 8 miles east of City A, City C is 6 miles north of City B, City D is 16
miles east of City C, and City E is 12 miles north of city D. What is the
distance from City A to City E?
A) 10 miles B) 20 miles C) 24 miles D) 30 miles E) 42 miles

18. sinθcosθtanθ + sinθcosθcotθ = ?

A) 0 B) -1 C) 1 D) 2 E) -2

19. If sin37o2= z, then sin74

2
o
equals
A) 2𝑧√𝑧 − 1 B) 2z + 1 C) 2z D) 2z2 – 1 E) 𝑧
√1− 𝑧 2

20. Find the gradient of the curve y = 2x + 1/x at the point (1, 3)
A) –2 B) -1 C) 0 D) 1 E) 2

2 (2𝑥+1)
21. ∫ 𝑑𝑥 = ?
1 𝑥

A) ln2 B) 2 + ln2 C) 2 – ln2 D) 2ln2 E) 2ln3

22. The area enclosed by the curve x = y(4 – y) and the y-axis is
A) 10 2/3 sq units B) 4 1/5 sq units C) 7 1/6 sq units
D) 2 1/3 sq units E) 5 ¼ sq units
23. The nth term of an AP is given by Tn = 7n – 5. The sum of the first
16 terms is A) 872 B) 344 C) 670 D) 896
E) 542

24. The volume of parallelepiped with edges OA, OB and OC where A,B,C are
the points (0,1,1), (-2,1,3), (2,-2,0) is
A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10

SECTION– IV ENGLISH
Direction: In each of the following sentences, a word or phrase is underlined. From the choices
given, select the one word or phrase that best preserves the meaning of the original sentence.
Indicate the correct answer by blackening the corresponding space on the answer grid.

1. Home buyers are proceeding cautiously because of the high interest fields.
A) hastily B) occasionally C) warily D) deliberately

2. Due to the efforts of conservationists and environmentalists, few people are

unaware of the problems of endangered species.
A) obstinate about B) ignorant of C) indifferent to D) adjacent to

3. Shelley‟s famous poem “To a Skylark” praises the bird for its carefree spirit.
A) keen B) harsh C) blithe D) gauche

4. The development of general anesthetics has allowed doctors to operate

without the pain once associated with surgery
A) fear B) protest C) rage D) anguish

5. Severe snowstorms cause power failures in the Northeast every winter.

A) Tornadoes B) Hurricanes C) Blizzards D) Earthquakes

Directions: Choose the best opinion to complete the following sentence:

6. There are four major industries in the area, .

A) each employing over 2,000 workers B) where 2,000 are employed at

7. The success of the play was due to

A) the doctors and how it was produced B) the acting and the production

8. It can be dangerous for one‟s health

A) to diet continually and to avoid exercise B) dieting continually with no
exercise
9. Having studied only English,
A) a foreign language would appeal to me B) I am looking forward to taking a foreign
language

10. The company has invested millions o dollars .

A) so the unemployed can get new jobs B) to create new jobs for the unemployed
Directions: Each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The four underlined parts of the
sentence are marked A, B, C & D. You are to identify the one underlined number of the problem and
mark your answer.

11. Some men see the riot as one more incident leading to a inevitable war.
A B C D
12. Conditions in the country has grown so severe that many refugees have risked death
to escape.
A B C D
13. You must fill out the application form in full and be interviewed before
you will be A B C
considering for the job.
D
14. A man who can win two elections uncontested is a man whose character is
firmly establish. A B C D
15. If anyone happens to call while I am out of the office, please have them leave a
message for me.
A B C D

Direction: Choose the most appropriate preposition:

16. Give an example pertinent the case.

A) with B) in C) for D) to

17. The candidates were tense expectancy.

A) with B) in C) on D) from

18. My voice reverberated _ the walls of the castle.

A) with B) from C) in D) on

19. Are not these slums a disgrace the civic authorities.

A) for B) to C) towards D) on

20. She could not dissociate herself what she said earlier.
A) off B) with C) from D) of
 CRITICAL READING

Instructions: The questions in this group are based on the content of a passage. After reading the
passage, choose the best answer to each question. Answer all questions following the passage on the
basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Questions 21– 25 are based on the following passage:

Most of us use the products of science – railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of
others – without thinking how they came into existence. We take granted, as if we were entitled to
them as a matter of right. We are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and are
ourselves very advanced. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous
ages and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different
thing from saying that we an individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of
absurdity to say that because an engine driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the
engine driver is more advanced than, or is superior to, Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly
correct to say that the engine itself is a more advanced method of locomotion than Plato‟s chariot
was.

21. Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) An engine driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates
(B) Plato or Socrates are in no way inferior to the engine driver
(C) Plato and Socrates surpassed the engine driver in every respect
(D) The engine driver cannot be compared to Plato or Aristotle

22. In this passage, the author mentions Plato and Socrates to emphasize that
(A) They were men of great scholarship
(B) People as individuals in the modern age are not more advanced than
their predecessors.
(C) The engine is a better mode of locomotion than Plato‟s chariot
(D) Plato and Aristotle had greater respect for learning

23. According to the author, the present age is far more advanced than
(A) All the previous ages in some respects
(B) The age of Socrates and Aristotle in some respect
(C) Some of the previous ages in all respects
(D) All the previous ages in all respects

24. Many of us make use of machines

(A) With very little knowledge of their mechanism
 (B) Without any knowledge of their historical significance
(C) With full knowledge of their genesis
(D) Without knowing how they were invented

25. People today are very proud because they live

(A) In a philosophically advanced age
(B) In a materially advanced age
(C) In a scientifically advanced age
(D) In a spiritually advanced age