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UG Model Questions and Answers

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Model Questions for B.

Tech and Undergraduate Programs in Health Sciences


Part 1 Physics

1. The constant
0

0
has the same dimension as
a) reciprocal of velocity b) square of velocity
c) velocity d) reciprocal of square of velocity

2. If mass of electron is9.11x10-
31
kg, the number of electrons in 10g will be
a) 6x10
28
b) 4.5x10
24
c) 1.1x10
28
d) 1.09x10
27

3. The number of significant figures in 0.00450 are
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 7

4. A particle is moving with a velocity v = K(yi+xj), where K is a constant. The general
equation for the path described by the particle is
a)y=x
2
+constant

b) y
2
=x+constant

c)x y=constant d) y
2
=x
2
+constant

5. A Wheel has moment of inertia 1 kg m
2
about its vertical axis .It rotates at a rate of 60
rpm about this axis. The torque which can stop the wheels rotation in a minute is
a) /12 b) /15 c) /18 d) /30

6. A particle has an initial velocity of 3i+4j and an acceleration of 0.4i+0.3j.Its speed
after 10s is
a) 7 units b) 8.5 units c) 10 units d) 72 units

7. Motion of planets in the solar system is an example of the conservation of
a)mass b) linear momentum c) angular momentum d) energy

8. The velocity with which a projectile must be launched so that it escapes earths
gravitational field, does not depend on
a) mass of the earth b) mass of the projectile
c) radius of the projectiles orbit d) gravitational constant

9. An object is immersed in a fluid. For the object to become invisible it should
a) behave as a perfect reflector b) absorb all light falling on it
c) have refractive index 1


A 1
d) have refractive index exactly matching with the surrounding fluid

10. A particle is vibrating in simple harmonic motion with an amplitude 0.04 m. At what
displacement from the equilibrium position is its energy half potential and half
kinetic?
a) 1 cm b) 2 cm c) 2 2 cm d) 2 cm.

11. A lady wearing high heel shoes balances on a single heel. The heel is circular with a
diameter 0.8 cm. The pressure exerted by the heel on the horizontal floor is 7.8 106
N/m
2
. The mass of the lady is
a) 40kg b) 50kg c) 60kg

d) 10kg

12. Dettol can reach fine cavities formed in wounds to clean because
a) Surface tension of Dettol is greater than that of water
b) Surface tension of Dettol is equal to that of water
c) Dettol is highly viscous
d) Dettol is less viscous

13. Temperature of human body is 98.4 F. The corresponding temperatures on the
celsius scale and kelvin scale are
a) 0C and 273K b) 273 K and 17C
c) 36.9C and 309.9 K d) 17.2C and 120.2 K.

14. If the sun becomes twice as hot,
a) the output radiant energy will be sixteen times larger
b) it will radiate predominantly ultraviolet
c) it will radiate monochromatic radiation
d) it becomes dark.

15. When water is heated convection currents occur because
a) warm water is heavier than coldwater
b) heat pushes the water up
c) warm water is less dense than coldwater
d) cold water is less dense than warm water


A 2
16. Velocity of light in a transparent medium is2 /3 of that in air. The refractive index of
the medium is

a) 0.67 b) 1.1 c) 1.5 d) 0.12.

17. The source of energy for the sun to radiate is
a) fission b) thermo-electric power
c) fusion d) photoelectric effect.

18. At a distance 4 metre from a lamp the intensity of illumination is 6 lux. The
illuminating power of lamp is
a) 22 candela b) 9 candela c) 28 candela d) 96 candela.

19. If a star moves away from the earth, the spectral line of the star
a) shifts toward the red end of the spectrum
b) shifts toward the violet end of the Spectrum
c) does not shift
d) disappears

20. In the case of a parallel plate capacitor,when the distance between the two plates is
reduced to one third and the area of the plate doubled, the capacitance
a) remains the same b) is doubled
c) increases to five times d) increases to six times

21. If two identical point charges separated by 3 m experience a force of 10 newton, then
the individual charge is
a) 100 C b) 10C c) 1C d) 0.1 C

22. A magnetic material has a magnetization of 3200 A/m and flux density of 14 10
4

weber/m
2
. The magnetizing force is
a) 10 A/m b) 200 A/m c) 3000 A/m d) 300 A/m.

23. The vertical component of earths magnetic field is zero at
a) magnetic equator b) magnetic poles
c) geographic poles d) at 90 latitude.

A 3
24. Photon is a
a) quantum of matter b) positively charged particle
c) negatively charged particle d) quantum of light.

25. The elementary particles having rest mass equal or greater than that of nucleons are
a) mesons b) leptons c) photons d) baryons.

26. The ratio of specific charge of proton and -particle is
a) 2 : 4 b) 2 : 1 c) 1 : 4 d) 4 : 1.

27. Positive rays
a) cannot ionise gases
b) have no effect on photographic plate
c) cannot penetrate even through substances of small thickness
d) can disintegrate metals or cause Sputtering

28. When X-rays pass through air, they
a) produce light track in the air b) ionise the gas
c) produce fumes in air d) accelerate gas atoms.

29. Which of the following has largest deBroglie wavelength , provided all have equal
velocity?
a) CO
2
molecule b) NH
3
molecule c) proton d) O
2
molecule.

30. The conversion of one element into another by bombarding the nucleus is called
a) natural radioactive b) chain reaction
c) cosmic radiation d) artificial transmutation

31. The most important advantage of nuclear energy is
a) less time is required to generate the energy
b) a small nuclear fuel is sufficient to produce huge amount of energy
c) less safety measures are sufficient
d) many operational difficulties are not there



A 4
32. An increase of temperature of a semiconductor decreases
a) the resistivity b) the band gap
c) the conductivity d) size of the semiconductor.

33. In an n-type semiconductor, the position of the Fermi level
a) is lower than the centre of the energy gap
b) is at the centre of the energy gap
c) is higher than that of the energy gap
d) can be anywhere depending on the doping concentrates.

34. At 0 K, germanium is a
a) conductor b) insulator
c) superconductor d) semiconductor.

35. A p-type silicon crystal is electrically
a) positive b) negative
c) neutral d) either positive or negative.

A 5
Part 2 - Chemistry

36. The real gas behave like an ideal gas when
a) temperature and pressure are low
b) temperature is low or pressure is high
c) temperature is high or pressure is low
d) temperature and pressure are high

37. The compound in which P remains in the +3 oxidation state is
a) P
2
O
5
b) P
4
O
10
c) P
4
O
6
d) H
3
PO
4


38. What is the co-ordination number for Cr in K
3
[Cr(C
2
O
4
)].3H
2
O?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 5

39. The secondary valency of Co in [Co (en)
2
Cl
2
]
+
is
a) 6 b) 4 c) 2 d) 8

40. Which of the following ligands forms a Chelate ?
a) Acetate b) Oxalate c) Cyanide d) Ammonia

41. Identify the least stable among the following
a) Li
-
b) Be
-
c) B
-
d)C
-


42. Paschen series are produced when electrons from the outer orbits jump to
a) 2
nd
orbit b)3
rd
orbit c) 4
th
orbit d) 5
th
orbit

43. The series of line present in the visible region of the hydrogen spectrum is
a) Lyman b) Balmer c) Paschen d) Brackett

44. The bond order of N
2
molecule is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 2.5

45. The bascity of Phosphorous acid , Orthophosphoric acid and Metaphosphoric acid
are respectively
a) 3,2and1 b)2,3 and 1 c) 2,1 and 3 d) 1,2 and 3
A 6
46. Change in enthalpy for the reaction 2H
2
O
2
(l) 2H
2
O(l)+ O
2
(g), if heat of formation of
H
2
O
2
(l)and H
2
O(l) are -188 KJ /mol, and -286 KJ /mol respectively is
a) -196 KJ /mol b) 196 KJ /mol c) 948 KJ /mol d) -948 KJ /mol

47. Water is a
a) Protophobic solvent b) protophilic solvent
c) amphiprotic solvent d) aprotic solvent

48. Which of the following has the lowest pH value
a) 1M HCl b) 1M NaOH c) 1M H
2
SO
4
d) 1M C
2
H
5
OH

49. Which among the following rate constant indicates first order reaction?
a) 2 x 10
-5
sec
-1
b) 2 x 10
-5
mol lit
-
sec
-1

c) 2 x 10
-5
mol
-2
lit
2
sec
-1
d) 2 x10
-5
mol
-1
lit sec
-1


50. The tyndall effect associated with colloidal particles is due to
a) Presence of electrical charge b) scattering of light
c) absorption of light d) reflection of light

51. Which one of the following is lyophilic colloid?
a) Milk b) gum c) fog d) blood

52. Which of the following aqueous solutions will conduct current quite well?
a) Glycerol b) HCl c) Sugar d) pure water

53. The emf of the cell reaction is positive when the free energy of the cell reaction is
a) +ve b)-ve
c) zero d) cannot be predicted

54. Which of the following reactions occurs at the anode when the electrolysis of CuCl
2
is
carried out using Pt electrode?
a) CuCu
2+
+ 2e
-
b) 2Cl
-
Cl
2
+ 2e
-
c) 2H
2
OO
2
+ 4H
+
d) 2CuCu
+
+ e
-=


55. The amount of electricity required to deposit one mole of aluminium from a solution
of AlCl
3
will be
a) 0.33 Faraday b) 1 Faraday c) 3 Faraday d) 1.33 Faraday
A 7
56. The element with highest electrical conductivity is
a) Gold b) silver c) copper d) mercury

57. The conductivity of N/10 KCl solution at 20C is 0.0212 ohm
-1
Cm
-1
and the
resistance of the cell containing this solution at 20C is 55 ohm. The cell constant is
a) 4.616 cm
-1
b) 1.66 cm
-1
c) 2.173 cm
-1
d) 3.324 cm
-1


58. Which is the missing particle in the following nuclear reaction,
3
7
Li +
1
2
H
3
8
Li + ?
a )Proton b) deuteron c) positron d) -particle

59. Which of the following has highest n/p ratio?
a)
16
Ne b)
16
O c)
16
F d)
16
N

60. Which of the following is used as neutron absorber in the nuclear reactor?
a) Water b) deuterium c) tritium d) cadmium

61. Which of the following alkenes gives only acetic acid on oxidation with hot
conc.KMnO
4
?
a) Ethylene b) 1-Butene c) Propene d) 2-Butene

62. The number of structural isomers of alcohols with molecular formula C
4
H
9
OH is
a) 5 b)4 c) 3 d)6

63. Lucas test is used to determine the type of
a) Alcohols b) amines c) acids d) carbohydrates

64. Check the incorrect statement
a) Tartaric acid is present in grapes b) citric acid is a tricarboxylic acid
c) formic acid is present in insect bites d) acetic acid is present in sour milk

65. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?
a) It is a reducing sugar b) it has a pyranose form
c) it is a disaccharide d) it is a polyalcohol



A 8
66. With which of the following diseases is vitamin K associated?
a) Rickets b) Coagulating property of blood
c) Scurvy d) Sore throat

67. Which of the following is insecticide?
a) DDT b) TNT c) TNB d) aspirin

68. Caprolactum is the starting material for
a) Nylon-6 b) terylene c) nylon-6,10 d) nylon-6,6

69. F
2
C=CF
2
is a monomer of
a) Teflon b) glyptal c) nylon-6 d) buna-S

70. PVC is stronger than PE due to one of the following reasons
a) Presence of lumps of Cl atoms in the side chain
b) Belongs to thermosetting plastic
c) Belongs to thermoplastic
d) Presence of cross linked structures


A 9
Part 3 Mathematics


71. If x is small that x
3
and higher powers of x may be neglected then
(1+x)
32
-[1+
1
2
x
3
(1-x)

may be a i ated as pprox m


a) 1 -
3
8
x
2
b) Sx +
3
8
x
2
c) -
3
8
x
2
d)
x
2
-
3
8
x
2

72.
If x = o
n

n=0
, y = b
n
,

n=0
z = c
n

n=0

where a,b,c are in AP and |a|<1, |b|<1, |c|<1 then x,y,z are in
a) GP b) AP
c) Arithmetic-Geometric Progression d) HP

73. The angle between the lines 2x=3y=-z and 6x=-y=-4z is
a) 0 b) 90 c) 45 d) 30

74. If the plane 2ax-3ay+4az+6=0 passes through the midpoint of the line joining the
centres of the spheres
x
2
+y
2
+z
2
+6x-8y-2z=13 and x
2
+y
2
+z
2
-10x+4y-2z=8, then a equals
a) -1 b) 1 c) -2 d) 2

75. Let o = i - k, b = xi +] + (1 - x)k, and c = yi + x] + (1 + x - y)k , then
[ o b c ] depends upon
a) only y b) only x c) both x and y d) neither x nor y

76. The value of ]
cos
2
x
1+u
x
n
-n
J , o > u is x
a) o n b)
n
2
c)
n
u
d) 2n

77. The normal to the curve x = o(cos 0 + 0 sin0) , y = o(sin0 - 0 cos 0) at any point
0 is such that
a) It passes through the origin
b) It makes angle
n
2
+ he x - oxis 0 with t
c) It passes through (o
n
2
, -o)
d) It is at a constant distance from the origin
A 10

78. The value of cot [cosec
-1

5
3
+ ton
-1

2
3
is
a)
4
17
b)
5
17
c)
6
17
d)
3
17


79. The differential equation of the family of circles with fixed radius 5 units and centre
on the line y=2 is
a) (y - 2)
2
y

2
= 2S -(y - 2)
2
b) (x - 2)
2
y

2
= 2S -(y - 2)
2

c) (x - 2)y

2
= 2S - (y - 2)
2
d) (y - 2)y

2
= 2S - (y - 2)
2


80. The quadratic equations x
2
- 6x + o = u and x
2
- cx + 6 = u have one root in
common. The other roots of the first and second equations are integers in ratio 4:3.
Then the common root is
a) 3 b) 2 c) 1 d) 4

81. The mean of the numbers a,b,8,5,10 is 6 and the variance is 6.80. Then which one of
the following gives possible values of a and b?
a) a=1, b=6 b) a=3, b=4 c) a=0, b=7 d) a=5, b=2

82. Let R={(3,3), (6,6), (9,9), (12,12), (6,12), (3,9), (3,12), (3,6)} be a relation on the set
A={3,6,9,12}. The relation is
a) reflexive and transitive only b) reflexive only
c) an equivalence relation d) reflexive and symmetric only

83. The solution of the differential equation
d
dx
=
x+
x
satisfying the condition y(1) = 1
is
a) y = xc
(x-1)
b) y = x lnx + x c) y = lnx + x d) y = x ln x +x
2


84. If a line makes an angle
n
4
with the positive directions of each of x-axis and y-axis,
then the angle that the line makes with the positive direction of z axis is
a)
n
6
b)
n
3
c)
n
4
d)
n
2


85. n posite to the point P(1,u) on the circle The poi t diametrically op
x
2
+ y
2
+ 2x + 4y -S = u is
a) (-3,-4) b) (3,4) c) (3,-4) d) (-3,4)
A 11

86. If o
2
+b
2
+c
2
= -2 and f(x)=_
1 +o
2
x (1 + b
2
)x (1 + c
2
)x
(1 +o
2
)x 1 + b
2
x (1 +c
2
)x
(1 + o
2
)x (1 + b
2
)x 1 + c
2
x
_ then f(x) is a
polynomial of degree
a) 1 b) 0 c) 3 d) 2

87. The value of Su C
4
+ S6 -r C
3
6
=1
is
a) 55 C
4
b) 55 C
3
d) 56 C
3
d) 56 C
4


88. Suppose the cubic x
3
-px +q has three district real roots where p>0 and q>0, then
which one of the following holds
a) the cubic has minima at both pS pS and
b) the cubic has maxima at pS both and pS
c) the cubic has minima at pS a pS nd maxima at
d) the cubic has minima at -pS and maxima at pS

89. The first two terms of a geometric progression add upto 12. The sum of the third and
fourth term is 48. If the terms of the geometric progression are alternatively positive
and negative then the first term is
a) 12 b) 4 c) -4 d) -12

90. If the straight lines
x-1
k
=
-2
2
=
z-3
3
and
x-2
3
=
-3
k
=
z-1
2
intersect at a point then
the integer k is equal to
a) 2 b) -2 c) -5 d) 5

91. The equation of the tangent to the curve y = x +
4
x
2

, that is parallel to x axis, is
a) y=1 b) y=2 c) y=3 d) y=0

92. If the vectors o = i - ] + 2k, b = 2i + 4] +2k and c = zi + ] + pk are mutually
orthogonal, then (z, p) =
a) (2,-3) b) (-2,3) c) (3,-2) d) (-3,2)

93. If y
n
= (x + y)
m+n
, then
d
dx
x
m
is
a)
x+
x
b) xy c)
x

d)

x

A 12

94. If (o + [) =
4
5
cos and sin o - [) =
5
13
( , where o, [
n
4
u , then tan 2 = o
a)
56
33
b)
19
12
c)
20
7
d)
25
16


95. lim
n-
j
1
2
scc
2

1
n
2
+
2
n
2
scc
2

4
n
2
+ .
1
n
scc
2
e uals 1[ q
a)
1
2
sec 1 b)
1
2
coscc 1 c) tan 1 d)
1
2
tan 1

96. If, in a frequency distribution, the mean and the median are 21 and 22 respectively,
then its mode is approximately
a) 22.0 b) 20.5 c) 25.5 d) 24.0

97. Let A = _
S S
u S
u u S
_. If |A
2
|=25, then | | equals
a) S
2
b) 1 c)
1
S
, d) 5

98. A pair of dice is thrown independently three times. The probability of getting a score
of e actly 9 thrice is x
a)
1
729
b)
8
9
c)
8
729
d)
8
243


99. For the Hyperbola
x
2
cos
2

2
sn
2

= 1, which of the following remains constant when


varies?
a) Eccentricity b) Directrix
c) Abscissa of vertices d) Abscissa of foci

100. The sum of the series
1
2!
-
1
3!
+
1
4!
upto infinity is
a) c
-2
b) c
-1
c) c
-1
2
d) c
1
2


101. A value of c for which the conclusion of Mean Value Theorem holds for the function
( lo
c
x on the interval [1,3] is x) = g
a) 2 log
3
c b)
1
2
log
c
S c) log
3
c d) log
c
S


A 13
102. If o = i +] + k, b = i - ] + 2k and c = xi + (x - 2)] -k. and the vector c lies in the
plane of o anu b, then x equals
a) 0 b) 1 c) -4 d) -2

103. I n-zero complex numbers such that f z
1
and z
2
are two no
|z + z
2
| = |z
1
| + |z
2
|, th arg z
1
- arg z
2
is equal to
1
en
a)
n
2
b) n c) 0 d) -
n
2


104. If the roots of the equation x
2
- bx + c = u be two consecutive integers, b
2
-4c
equals
a) -2 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

105. If A
2
- A + I = u, then the inverse of A is
a) A+I b) A c) A-I d) I-A

A 14
Part 4 Biology

71. Name the organ that stores surplus red blood cells
a) Pancreas b) Spleen c) Liver d) Kidneys

72. Which is not a bacterial disease affecting animals?
a) Anthrax b) Leptospirosis c) Histoplasmosis d) Tuberculosis

73. Karyotyping
a) Identification of different cell lines b) Chromosome duplication
c) Arrangement of chromosomes d) DNA fragmentation

74. The smallest particle of a substance that is capable of independent existence is
a) Atom b) Electron c) Molecule d) Proton

75. Which of the following statements concerning platelets is INCORRECT. Platelets
a) contain DNA
b) have little ability to synthesize proteins
c) are roughly disk-shaped
d) are between 1/2 and 1/3 the diameter of the red cell

76. Which of the following is NOT part of a neuron?
a) Synapse b) Axon c) Nissl bodies d) Dendrite

77. Tissue differentiation begins at which stage?
a) Zygote b) Blastula c) Morula d) Gastrula

78. Among these which one is Organophosphorus Pesticides?
a) Dichloromethane b) Malathione c) Chloroform d) Carbamide

79. How many nucleotides make up a codon?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 1

80. The purity of an enzyme at various stages of purification is best measured by
a) Total protein b) Total enzyme activity
c) Specific activity of the enzyme d) Percent recovery of protein
A 15
81. The movement of water upward in xylem vessels is most directly related to
a) Wall pressure b) Transpiration
c) Turgor pressure d) Cytoplasmic streaming

82. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of the kingdom
plantae?
a) They are multicellular
b) They possess bilateral symmetry
c) They are nonmotile
d) There is an alternation of haploid and diploid generations

83. The major component of a plant cell wall is a product formed from the dehydration
synthesis of
a) Fatty acids b) Amino acids
c) Nucleotides d) Monosaccharides

84. The most important ozone depleting factor in the stratosphere is
a) CH
4
b) CFC c) N
2
O d) CO

85. Pesticide with very low biodegradation and strong affinity for fatty tissues are
a) Organo phosphates b) Pyrethrodids
c) Organochlorides d) Allerthrin

86. AZT (azidothymidine) is the drug of choice for
a) Tuberculosis b) Cholera c) AIDS d) SARS

87. The phenotypic ratio of incomplete dominance is
a) 3:1 b) 1:1 c) 1:2:1 d) 9:3:3:1

88. Antigenic determinants of variable regions are referred as
a) Isotype b) Allotype c) Idiotype d) Fc receptors

89. One gene one enzyme hypothesis was proposed by
a) Beadle and Tatum b) Waldeyer c) Johansen d) Balbiani


A 16
90. Which of the following is NOT a mode of genetic exchange within a bacterial
population?
a) Conjugation b) Transformation
c) Transduction d) Translation

91. Virus reproduces by
a) Undergo transformation b) Infect a cell
c) Form a latent virus d) Undergo conjugation

92. 2-phospho glyceric acid is converted to phosphoenol pyruvic acid by
a) Phosphoglyceric mutase b) Phosphoglyceric kinase
c) Enolase d) Pyruvic kinase

93. Which among the following organisms does not cause disease in plants
a) Pseudomonas b) Agrobacterium
c) Xanthomonas d) Clostridium

94. Which of the following actions is not related to plant tissue culture?
a) Reduction b) Oxidation
c) Active halogen d) Heavy metal poisoning

95. Water potential is equal to
a) + TP b) s + p c) + WP d)

96. In Gram Staining, Gram's iodine act as
a) Counter stain b) Primary stain
c) Secondary stain d) Mordant

97. Lysosomes are reservoirs of
a) Fat b) RNA
c) Secretary glycoproteins d) Hydrolytic enzymes

98. Which of these auxin eradicates weeds
a) 2,4 Dichloro phenoxy acetic acid b) Indole 3 Acetic acid
c) Ethylene d) Abscisic acid

A 17
99. Prothrombin synthesis in liver requires
a) Zinc b) Potassium c) Calcium d) Vit K

100. Find the correctly matched pathogenic protozoans with its diseases
a) Leishmania tropica skin leishmaniasis
b) Giardia intestinalis amoebiasis
c) Leishmania donavani - African sleeping sickness
d) Trypanosoma gambiens kala azar

101. Posterior pituitary hormones are:
a) Vasopressin and CRH b) Oxytocin and ACTH
c) TRH and FSH d) ADH and Oxytocin

102. Which of these is an essential amino acid?
a) Alanine b) Arginine
c) Serine d) Lysine

103. Which of the following is non homopolysaccharides
a) Cellulose b) Starch
c) Glycogen d) Heparin

104. Ammonium ion is released by
a) Arginase b) Glutaminase
c) Glutamate dehydrogenase d) Glutamate hydrolase

105. Inability to understand, speak or read is
a) Dyslexia b) Ataxia
c) Disconnection syndrome d) Aphasia

106. Which of the following has the highest pH?
a) Gastric juice b) Saliva
c) Bile in the gallbladder d) Pancreatic juice

107. Recommended vaccines for rabies
a) BCG b) HDCV c) MMR d) DPT

A 18
108. All these conditions are sex chromosome disorders except:
a) Super female b) Downs syndrome
c) Turner syndrome d) Kline filter syndrome


109. Nodules with nitrogen-fixing bacteria are present in
a) Gram b) Mustard c) Wheat d) Cotton

110. Stable conformation means
a) Maximum energy b) Binding energy
c) Minimum energy d) Interaction energy

111. Holliday junctions are otherwise called as
a) Tight Junction b) Gap Junctions
c) Recons d) Introns

112. The correct structure of a nucleotide is:
a) Phosphate-ribose-adenine
b) Phospholipid-sugar-base
c) Phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar
d) Adenine-thymine or guanine-cytosine

113. The gas that is most responsible for the greenhouse effect on Earth is
a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen d) Ozone

114. Which material accounts for the greatest percentage of the weight of solid waste?
a) Food waste b) Paper
c) Plastic d) Yard waste

115. Which is incorrect?
a) Stem cells are self-renewable
b) Stem cells can proliferate
c) Stem cells can differentiate
d) Stem cells has indefinite lifespan

A 19
116. Adenovirus
a) is a double stranded DNA virus
b) is implicated in acute retinal necrosis
c) causes conjunctivitis which responds well to oral acyclovir
d) RNA containing virus

117. The attachment of the embryo to the uterus is called
a) Gestation b) Implantation
c) Fertilisation d) Menstruation

118. Which of the following is a non renewable resource?
a) Solar Energy b) Flora and fauna
c) Hydrocarbon fuel d) Nuclear power

119. Birds differ from bats in absence of
a) Homeothermy b) Tracheae
c) Four-chambered heart d) Diaphragm

120. Which is the most important source of food and fodder?
a) Algae b) Lichen c) Fungi d) Cereal

***************

A 20
A 21
Answer Key
Physics Chemistry Math Biology
1 c 36 c 71 c 71 b 106 d
2 c 37 c 72 d 72 c 107 b
3 a 38 c 73 b 73 c 108 b
4 d 39 a 74 c 74 c 109 a
5 b 40 b 75 d 75 a 110 c
6 d 41 b 76 b 76 a 111 c
7 c 42 b 77 d 77 d 112 a
8 b 43 b 78 c 78 d 113 b
9 d 44 c 79 a 79 a 114 b
10 c 45 b 80 b 80 c 115 d
11 a 46 a 81 b 81 b 116 a
12 d 47 c 82 a 82 b 117 b
13 c 48 c 83 b 83 d 118 c
14 a 49 a 84 d 84 b 119 d
15 c 50 b 85 a 85 c 120 d
16 c 51 b 86 d 86 c
17 c 52 b 87 d 87 c
18 d 53 b 88 c 88 c
19 a 54 b 89 d 89 a
20 d 55 c 90 c 90 d
21 a 56 b 91 c 91 b
22 d 57 b 92 d 92 c
23 a 58 a 93 d 93 d
24 d 59 d 94 a 94 c
25 b 60 d 95 d 95 b
26 b 61 d 96 d 96 d
27 d 62 b 97 c 97 d
28 b 63 a 98 d 98 a
29 c 64 d 99 d 99 d
30 d 65 c 100 b 100 a
31 b 66 b 101 a 101 a
32 a 67 a 102 d 102 d
33 c 68 a 103 c 103 d
34 c 69 a 104 d 104 c
35 c 70 a 105 d 105 b

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