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Abu Putme P&A 2

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AHMADU BELLO UNIVERSITY


POST UME QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
LIFE SCIENCE
PHAR/DENTISTRY, MEDICINE, NURSING
OCTOBER, 2012

SUBJECT: GENERAL PAPER INSTRUCTION:

Read the following instruction carefully.

1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error is thoroughly erased.

2. Candidates should write their full Names (surname first) JAMB Registration number, paper code, sex Jamb
score, faculty of first and second choice and the Question paper option given to them in the appropriate spaces
on the Answer Sheets.

3. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper

4. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.

1. Which of the following is not true about semi-conductor? (a) moving holes are equivalent to moving
positive charges (b) there is two kinds of charge carried a free electron and a hole (c) the escape of a
valence electron from an atom produces electron hole pair charge carries (d)increases in temperature
increases its electrical resistance.

2. The minimum energy necessary to remove an electron from a given atom to infinity is called ______
(a) Excitation energy (b) ground state energy (c) ionization energy (d) binding energy

3. Find the proglie wavelength of a 0.0kg pellet having a velocity 10m/s (h 6.63 x 1034S) (a) 6.63-34m (b) 6.63 x
10-32m (c) 6.63 x 10-33m (d) 6.63 x 10-35m
4. A step transformer is designed to operate from a 25V supply. If the transformer is 80% efficient, determine
the current in the primary coil when the output terminals are connected to 240V 1 cow lamp (a) 50A (b)4.0A
(c)2.5A (d)2A

5. An object of mass 0.2kg and density 600kgm-3 is suspended with a string so that 1/10 of it is immerged in
paraffin of density 900kgm-3, find the tension in the string (a) 1.0x105mn4 (b) 2.0 x 105ms4 (c) 3.0 x 105ms4
(d)5 x105ms4

6. A rocket burnt fuel at the rate of 20kgs4 and eject it with a velocity of 5.0 x 1 03ms-1 calculate the
thrust exerted by the as on the rocket. (a)1.0 x 105mns4 (b) 2.0 x 105ms4 (c) 3.0 x 105ms4 (d) 105ms4

7. Which of the following pairs co .ndation quantities only? (a)Velocity and gravitational potential
acceleration and field strength (c) momentum and work done ment and mass.

8. One of the limitation of Thomson’s model of the atom is that it does not explain (a) small angle scattering (b)
stability of scattering (c) ionization process (d)the variation of the effectively atomic radius

9. A wire carrying a current J 2.5m in length is placed in a field of flux density 0.12T. What [ne force on
the wire if it is placed at 60° to the field? (a) 30.3N (b)20.5N (0)1 5.3N (d) 10.5N

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10. In the transformer. the magnetization of the core is repeatedly reversed by the alternating magnetic field
resulting in energy dissipation as heat This loss is called (a) Eddy currents loss (b) Hysteresis loss (C) Flux
linkage loss (d) joule heating loss

11. An atom is said to be exited if an election of the atom is (a) in the ground state (b) at infinity (C)
promoted to an energy level higher than its original level (d) having energy value of 0.0cV

12. What happen to a proton number Z and the nucleon number of a nuclide which emits a y-radiation? (a) Z
increases by 1 while A does not change (b) increases by 1 and A increases by I (c)Z and A neither increases
nor decrease (d) Z increase by 1 while A decreases by 1

13. A note that is an OCTAVE higher than a given note of frequency 25hz world has a frequency of (a) 2048Hz
(b) 1024z (c) 12Hz (d) 512Hz
14. A sound wave of the frequency 130Hz and wavelength 2.0m was sproceeded at a distance. d. from a
target and echo was heard at the source 0.5second later. Calculate the values of d (a) 650m (b) 1300m
(c)260.0m (d) 520.0m
15. In an experiment, lead shot contained in a vertical cardboard cylinder falls through 100cm when the
cylinder is invested. Calculate the rise in temperature caused by 100 such inversion. (Specify heat
-1 -1 -2
capacity of lead 1 3jkg k g = 10ms (a) 3.3K (b)4.4K (c)5.5K (d)7.7K

16. The QUALITY and PITCH of musical note depend respectively on (a)frequency and harmonies (b)
overtones and intensity (c) intensity and frequency (d) overtones and frequency

17. A body is project with a velocity with a velocity Vms-1, inclined at angle B to the vertical. Which of the
following give the CORRECT expression for the horizontal component of velocity Vx after time t?
(a)V cos B (b)Vsin B (c)Vg cos B(d) Vtsin B

18. A converging lens has radius of curvature 16.0cm, calculate the power of the lens (a) 0.0625 (b)0. 125
(c) 0.250 (d)0.500

19. If the velocity of light in air is 3.0 x 108ms, find the velocity of light in s medium whose refractive index is
1.5 (a)5.0x108ms4 (b)5.0x107ms4 (c)2.5x108ms4 (d)2x107ms4
20. When an object is at infinity to the pole of a concave mirror the image formed is at (a) principle focus, real
and diminished (b) center of curvature, real and inverted (c) center of curvature, virtual and erect (d)principle
focus, real and erect

21. A total eclipse of the sun is seen when the observer is in the (a) Umbra region of the sun’s shadow (b)
penumbra region (C) Umbra region of the moon’s show (d) penumbra region of the moons shadow.

22. A long drawn sound arising from overlapping reflections together with the original sound which give rise to
the reflections is called (a) Beat(b) Echo (c) diffraction (d) reverberation

23. Which of the following radiation is used for examining the freshness or staleness of eggs in the poultry (a)
Ultraviolet rays (b) X-rays (c) Y-rays (d) radio waves

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24. Which of the following statements is not correct about magnetic radiation? (a) they are quantities en (b) they
are transverse waves (c)they are polarizable (d) they may be deflect in an electronic or a magnetic field

25. A simple cell with amalgamated zinc plate minimizes (a) sparking (b) local (c) Back e.m.f (d)
polarization

26. Which of the following mixture? (a) sea water (b) petroleum (c) urine
(d)

27. Carbon forms two oxides in both oxides is 1.2 if one mole absorbed separately combines with oxygen,
deduces of the oxides (a) CO;CO2 (b)CO2CO3 (c) CO2C2O (d) CO2CO3

28. If 50cm3 of CO2 gas and 50cm3 of measured, at S.T.P calculate the amount gas in moles (molar gas
volume 22.4 dat) (a) 0023mo1 (b) 0.0222mo1 (c)O.0002moI (d) 0.0022mo1

29. How much volume of the ethane would be required to produce 1.12dm3 of carbor1 (IV)on combustion in
sufficient oxygen? 2c2 H6(g)+ 6)2 (G) 4C02(g) + 6H2O (a) 56dm3 (b) 2.24dm of ethane (c)056dm3 of ethane
(d)56dm3 of ethane
30. By how much would the volume have increased when 10dm3 of ozone were converted to oxygen 203(g)
3002(g) (a) 15dm3 (b)19dm3 (c)0.5dm3 (d)5dm3

31. The pressure excreted a gas is as a result of (a) the continuous rand on motion of its particles (b) Bombardment
of the walls of the container by its molecules (c) the collision between the gas molecules (d)the elastic nature
of the gas molecules

32. Which of the following gas will diffuse at the slowest rate? (a)Ammonium (b) Sulphate (IV) oxide (c)
Carbon (II) oxide (d) Nitrogen

33. Element P has an electron configuration of 2.8.6. Element R has an electronic configuration of 2.8.8.1 What
is likely to form if P and R COMBINE? (a) A covalent compound UPR (b) An ionic compound PR 2 (c)An
ionic compound PR (d)An ionic compound P2R

34. Which is the atomic structure of phosphorus with mass number 31?
Protons Neutrons Electrons
A. 15 16 15
B 15 16 16
C. 16 15 15
D. 16 15 16

35. Which metal has the least tendency to form positive ions? (a) Iron (b) Aluminum (c) Sodium (d) Calcium

36. Natural water includes the following except (a) rain water (b) spring (c)pure water (d) lake water

37. Which of the following methods cannot be used to remove permanent hardness in water? (a) addition of
washing soda (b) addition of caustic soda (c) permutit method (d) adding alum to water

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38. If the solubility of sodium tetraoxosulphate (IV) at 30°C is 18g per 100g, how much is
this in gramme per kilograms? (a)18kg per 100g (b)180kg per 100g per 100g (c) l80per 100g
(d)180g per 100g

39. The following are examples of colloid except (a) milk (b) starch in water (c) aerosol spray (d) ammonium
chloride solution

40. The pH of the solution M,N,O, and P are 46,8 and 10, respectively, therefore (a) none of the solutions is acidic
(b) the pH of 0 is made neutral by adding water (c) P is the most acidic solution (d) M is the most acidic
solution

41. Sodium chloride may be obtained from brine by (a) decantation (b)distillation (c) evaporation (d)
sublimation

42. Oil spillage in ponds and creeks can be cleaned by (a) Burning of the oil layer (b) spraying with detergent (c)
spraying with common salt (d)spraying with hot oil

43. Which of the following is a chemical compound? (a) soap (b) milk (c)urine (d) gold

44. Crystallization is a separation method used (a) where purity of the product is important (b) where beauty of
the product is important (c)where one of the product is a solid (d) where the salt cannot be destroyed by heat.

45. Which hydroxide dissolves in water to form an alkaline solution (a)aluminum hydroxide (b)
copper hydroxide (C) copper (II) hydroxide (d) Iron (III) hydroxide

46. Which of the following cannot be used as an oxidizing agent? (a)cracking (b) hydrolysis (c) oxidation
(d) reduction

47. Which of the following cannot be used as an oxidizing agent? (a) K2Cr2 (b)CO2 (c) H2H (d) HNO3

48. What is the number of the pubs of shared electrons in a methane molecule? (a) I (b)2 (c)4 (d) 8

49. The percentage by volume of nitrogen in air is high because (a) nitrogen is relatively inactive (b) nitrogen
supports life (c) nitrogen prevents corrosion of metals (d) nitrogen increases the rate of combustion

50. What quantity of copper will be deposited by the same quantity of electricity that deposited 1 8g of
aluminum (A1 = 27, Cu = 64) (a) 64g (b)32g(c) 16g (d)8g

51 When two genes for the same character (alleles) are contained n the same individuals, the character that shows is
known as (a) important character (b) dominant character (c) superior character (d) controlling character

52. In Nigeria a tropical rain forest can be found in (a) Sokoto (b) Kaduna (c)Abuja (d)Abia

53. The sum total of the biotic and abiotic factors that affect living thing is referred to as: (a) environment (b)
lithosphere (c) hydrosphere (d)atmosphere

54. Hydrometer is an ecological instrument that, measures (a) rainfall (b)humidity (c) temperature (d)
light

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55. Which one of the following is air borne? (a) malaria (b) yellow fever (c)cholera (d)tuberculosis

56. Candida virginalis is a (a) bacterium (b)fungus (C) virus (d) protozoan

57. All of these are vertebrate except (a) lizard (b) rat (c) star fish (d) tilapia

58. A box was left in the lawn for two days. When the box was removed, the grass under had turned yellow due
to lack of (a) carbon dioxide (b) light (c) oxygen (d)water

59. Which of the following deaminates excess amino acids? (a) duodenum (b) ileum (c) liver (d) kidney

60. In which of the following flower part does meiosis occur? (a) anther (b)petal (c) receptacle (d) style

61. When an organism moves its whole body towards a stimulus, the organism is said to exhibit (a) tropic
movement (b) tropic movement (c)tactic movement (d) nastic movement

62. A stable self sustaining environment produced by an interaction between the biotic and abiotic components is
best described as (a) niche (b)a community (c)an ecosystem (d)a habitat

63. Which of the following is not present in the nucleus of a cell? (a)chromosome (b) nucleus (c) genes (d)
mitochondria

64. The release of useful substances from cells of an organism is called? (a)excretion (b) evacuation (c)
metabolism (d) secretion

65. The head of the femur articulates with the pelvic at the (a) Glenoid cavity (b) Olocrono
process (c)Acetabulum (d) Caracoids process

66. The mammalian cervical vertebrae invariably numb

67. What mechanism is responsible for the rise of water to the tops of tall trees? (a)transpiration er (a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 12 (d) 5 pulls (b) root pressure (c)osmosis (d) capillarity

68. Antibodies in mammalian blood are formed by (a) platelets (b) white blood cells (c) red blood cells (d)
liver

69. Which of the following liquids supplies cells in the tissues of a mammal with oxygen and nutrients? (a) blood
(b) plasma (c) serum (d) lymph

70. The cockroach and grasshoppers have mouth parts adapted for (a)sucking (b) piercing and sucking (c)
biting and chewing (d) biting and lapping

71. The sponging and lapping mouth part occurs in (a) butterfly (b) the cockroach (c)the housefly (d) mosquito

72. The following is not an example of a sex-linked character (a) baldness (b)color blindness (c) hemophilia
(d) height

73. Which of these is a vestigal structure? (a) Appendix (b) caccum (c)pancreas (d) sacculus motundus

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74. Which of the following air pollution causes acid rain? (a) sulphur dioxide (b) blend oxide (c) carbon
dioxide (d) hydrogen sulphide

75. Which of the following does not have a well developed tissue? (a) moss (b) fern (c) whiz pering tree (d) maize

ANSWERS GENERAL PAPER


1. D
2. A
3. C
4. A 5. D
6. A 7.
-
8 -
9. -
10. - 11. C
12. A 13.
D 14. A
15. D
16. D
17. A
18. -
19. -
20. -
21. - 51. A
22. D 52. B
23. A 53. A
24. A 54. B
25. - 55. D
26. - 56. B 27. - 57. C 28. D 58.
B
29. C 59. C
30. B 60. A 31. B 61.
A 32. B 62. A 33. B
63. D
34. A 64. D
35. B 65. C
36. C 66. B
37. D 67. - 38. - 68. B
39. D 69. A
40. D 70. C
41. C 71. A 42. B 72. D 43. A 73.
A 44. A 74. A
45. B 75. A
46. -
47. -

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48. - 49. A 50. A
AHMADU BELLO UNIVERSITY
POST UME QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
LIFE SCIENCE
PHAR/DENTISTRY, MEDICINE, NURSING
OCTOBER, 2012

SUBJECT: USE OF ENGLISH INSTRUCTION:

Read the following instruction carefully.


1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error I s thoroughly erased.

2. Candidates should write their full Names (surname first) JAMB Registration number, paper code, sex Jamb
score, faculty of first and second choice and the Question paper option given to them in the
appropriate spaces on the Answer Sheets.

3. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper

4. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.

Read the passage 1 below carefully and answer the questions that follows. Each question carries 2 marks.

PASSAGE 1
The approach to the University is being restructured to case the flow of traffic, give better security and provided an
appropriate introduction to a seat learning of higher learning. The works and services complex is also under
construction, and we intend to move into the completed (major) part of it within the next few weeks. All these project
are being executed with an eye to aesthetes, for we recognize the important influence of a beautiful and health
environment on its inhabitants and feel that a cluster buildings on small space such as we have should be so well
designed as to have a beneficial, psychological and sociological effect all members of the community.

I have gone to these lengths to itemize these examples of current development for two main reasons.

Firstly, to advice you that the road diversions and other physical inconveniences currently being experienced will be
on the increase, because of intense development activity. We therefore appeal to you to bear with us in full knowledge
and consolation that such inconveniences are temporary and will seen yield find tangible results.

Secondly, to demonstrate our capacity for executing approved projects with disputes, and to assure government that
we are up to the task. Indeed, I can assure Government that its ability to disburse fund to us will be more than matched
by our capacity to collect and expand them on executing various worthy projects tin record time.

1. “An eye aesthesis” in this passage means (a) Regard for space (b)Beneficial psychological effect (c)
Regard for health (d) Consideration for beauty.

2. In the passage, the author tries to explain why (a) it is necessary to established the works and services complex
in the university (b) beauty should not be taken into consideration when building on such as small space as
we have (c) the gateway to the University is being rebuilt (d) a major part of the project should be completed
in the next few weeks

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3. From the passage, we can gather that (a) There is not much consideration for the health of
the inhabitants (b) the inconvenience suffered by the inhabitant will be for a while (c) there is
deliberate afford to inconvenient the people (d) project are carried out without approved

4. Unless it can be that the money voted for project of our executive ability (a) the development activity will not
be intense (b) it will not be easy to convince the government of our executive ability (c) it will not difficult to
ask Government for funds (d) the road diversion and other inconveniences will continue.

5. Which of these is NOT among the reason given by the author enumeration of the current development? (a)
To show that we are capable of executing approved projects (b) to convince the government that we can be
trusted with the task (c) the inconvenience currently being experienced will go on indefinitely (d) we are fully
aware of the inconveniences being caused but we do not want you to complain.

Read the passage II below carefully and answer the question that follows. Each question carries 2 marks

Passage II
How can people be sure they are truly marrying people with who are truly compatible once way by taking time to get
to know the other person. Researchers have found that couples seem to go through three stages in this process? First,
each person tries to measure his or her good and bad qualities against these of the others person. People tend to be
drawn to others own seem to have about the same assets and abilities they themselves possess. Second, people look for
compatible beliefs, attitude and interests to support the initial attraction. It is not until the third stage that people reveal
to each other how they handle responsibilities. React to disappointment and cope with a wide variety of situation. They
key to compatibility is for the couple to be sure that they have arrived at this last stage before they think seriously about
marriage, such people are les likely to be unpleasantly surprised than those who marry quickly.

6. The best title for the passage is (a) research on marriage compatibility (b)liabilities and assets in marriage
(c) compatibility in marriage (d)responsibility in marriage

7. “To the unpleasantly surprised” in the passage means to be (a) physically prepare for any eventuality
(b) psychologically (c) seriously shocked by the outcome of the union (d) taken unaware when marriage
is done.

8. From the passage we learn that compatible is measure in terms of(a) good and bad qualities
(b)
adequate knowledge of each other (c) individual responsibility (d) reactions to a variety of situation

9. According to the author, couple get to crucial stage in their relationship (a) when they show their assets and
liabilities (b) when they display responsibility and positive attitude (c) when they look for compatible
beliefs and attitude (d) when they show how they react to circumstances

10. The primary audience(s) for the above passage is: (a) young in married adulate (b) people seeking
compatibility in their partner (c) those who fall in loves at first sight (d)the general public and marriage
counselors.

In question 11 to 24 chose the option nearest in meaning to the word(s) or phrase(s) underlined
11. When the chips are down we will know who’s who have the courage to stand (a) when we get crisis point (b)
in the final analysis (c) when the blocks are lowered (d)when we get to the end of the road

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12. She said boxing in fact her pot aversion (a) something she likes very much (b) something she dislike very
much (C) a hobby she loves to pursue (d) one thing she can’t miss

13. The gateman does his work perfunctorily (a) without commitment (b)with speed (c) grudgingly (d)
enthusiastically

14. If experience is anything to go by this action will prove a political minefield (a) a sources of political
benefit (b) a way out of political trouble (c) it causes for political joy (d) an invitation to political
problems

15. Do you now one of the most astounding events of my life(a) special (b)amazing (c) serious (d)
outstanding

16. Adeniji is suffering from the consequence of alienation (a) confinement (b) isolation (c)
serious (d) imprisonment

17. In my view, the play didn’t come off (a) succeed (b) fail (c) attract applause (d) take place

18. Members of the panel were working at cross purpose (a) in harmony (b)in disunity (c)for selfish purposes (d)
for selfless purposes

19. Joseph is a die-hard criminal (a) hard to kill (b) frank (c) audible (d)talkative

20. I like Jack because he is very outspoken (a) fluent (b) frank (c) audible (d) talkative

21. If your life is a turmoil always courage (a) devastation (b) crisis (c)trial (d) tragedy

22. The young life who distributed political pamphlet on campus was promptly repudiated (a) disowned
(b) arrested (c)warned (d) killed

23. Some children mimic their teachers (a) imitate (b) ridicule (c)tease (d)worship

24. Wealth citizens are often niggardly in their way (a) contemptible (b)beggarly (c) sordid (d) stingy

In each of question 25 and 26, chose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others
25. A. Calendar B. Blackboard C. Suffer D. success 26. A. Madam B.
Convenient C. Contribute D. Embarrass

In each of the following sentences, there is one word or group of words underlined and one gap choose the word or
group of word that is most nearly OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word that will at the same time correctly
fill the gap in this sentences
27. Ireti was able to kindle the fire which my father had to later (a) kill (b)switch (c) extinguish (d) destroy

28. Although the attack of malaria was sudden the cure was their ______ (a)permanent (b) extended
(c) delayed (d) gradual

29. A’ guest should no make derogatory but ____ remarks out of the food he is served by his host (a) closing (b)
complimentary (c) polite (d)appetizing

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30. It is surprising to find her condoning instead of ____ such gross misbehaviour (a) disliking (b) disparaging
(C) harming (d) condemning

31. The general said that raw troops were no good to him, he need veterans (a) season (b) weathered
(c) processed (d) baked

32. Josephine is loquacious her younger sister is _______ (a) polite (b)intelligent (c) considerate (d)tacitum

33. After the long journey we eventually escaped from the turmoil of the city the _____ of the
countryside (a) loneliness (b) relief (c) tranquility (d)stability

34. We would all have been greatly fortified by a meal, but we had only drinks which _____ us (a) poisoned
(b) weakened (c) starved (d) worried

35. In his valedictory address, the professor quoted copiously from his ____ lecture (a) inaugural (b) academic
(c) original (d) scholarly

36. The chairman vacillated in a matter required action (a) courageous (b)decisive (c) reflective

37. At certain times, some insane people appear to be as ___ as you or I (a)normal (b) intelligent (c) sober
(d) sensitive

38. The headmaster criticized John for his use coarse language, but complimented Helen on her _____ behaivour
(a) refined (b) organized (c)pure (d) clean

39. For a speed to have it desired effect, it must be explicit and ____ (a)vague (b)flamboyant (c) wordy
(d) difficult

40. These was chaos in the village police and work for hours before ____ could be resorted (a) quiet (b) law
(c) restraint (d) order

ENGLISH 2012 ANSWER


1. D 21. B
2. C 22. A 3. B 23.
A
4. - 24. D
5. - 25. B 6. C 26.
C
7. C 27. C
8. B 28. D
9. - 29. B
10. D 30. A 11. - 31. D
12. B 32. D
13. A 33. C
14. A 34. B

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15. B 35. A
16. B 36. B
17. D 37. A 18. B 38. A 19. B 39.
A
20. B 40. D

AHMADU BELLO UNIVERSITY


POST UME QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
LIFE SCIENCE
PHAR/DENTISTRY, MEDICINE, NURSING

2013 INSTRUCTION:

1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error is thoroughly erased.

2. Candidates should write their full Names (surname first) JAMB Registration number, paper code, sex Jamb
score, faculty of) first and second choice and the Question paper option given to them in the
appropriate spaces on the Answer Sheets.

3. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper

4. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.

SECTION A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE


Read the following instruction carefully.
From ancient times, people commonly believed that life arose repeatedly by spontaneous generation from non-living
material in addition to parental reproduction for example frogs appeared to arise from damp earth, mice from putrefied
matter, and insects from dew maggots from decaying meat. Warmth, moisture, sunlight, and even starlight often were
mentioned as factors that encourage spontaneous generation of living organisms.
Among the accounts of early efforts to synthesize organism in the laboratory is a recipe for making mice given by the
Belgian plant nutritionist Jean Baptiste Van Helmont (648). If you press a piece of underwear soiled with sweat together
with some wheat in an open jar, after about twenty one days the odour changes and the ferment... changes the wheat
into mice. But what is more remarkable is that the mice which came out of the wheat and underwear were not small
mice, not miniature adults or aborted mice but adult mice emerge”.

In 1861, the great French scientist Lousis Pasteur convinced scientists that living organisms cannot arise spontaneously
from non-living matter. In his famous experiments, Pasteur introduced fermentable material into a flask with a long
Shaped neck that was open to air. The flask was cooled and left undisturbed. No fermentation occurred because all
organisms that entered the open end were deposited in the open neck and did not reach the fermentable material. When
the neck of the flask was removed micro-organisms in the air promptly entered the fermentable material organisms and
their reproductive elements such as eggs and sport. Announcing his results to the French Academy, Pasteur productive
“Never will the doctrine of spontaneous generation arise from this mortal below. All living organisms share a common
ancestor, most likely a population of colonial micro-organism that lived almost four billion years ago. This common
ancestor was itself a product of a long period of preblole assembly of non-living matter including organic molecules
and water to form self-replicating units. All living organisms retain a fundamental chemical composition inherited
from their ancient.

COMMON ANCESTOR

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1. Throughout the passage, the word “spontaneous” can best be taken to mean (a) without reproductive
elements (b) in a medium (c) unthinking (d)free-spirited
2. In Pasteur’s experiment, why was the neck of the flask removed? (a) to allow air to escape (b)to provide access
to remove
3. In the third paragraph, the word “moral” most nearly means (a) Human (b) impermanent (C) fatal (d) earthly
4. The expression “when the neck of the flask was removed” found in the third paragraph can be described as
(a) adverbial clause of time (b)adjectival (c) noun clause (d) adverbial phrase of time
5. In what sense is the use of the word “water” in the last paragraph ironic? (a) it is a medium in which many
living organism thrive (b) it is a relatively low boiling point (C) Pasteur did not mention it specifically in his
description of his experiment (d) it was not one of the ingredients in Helmon’s recipe

Read passage 2 carefully and answer question which follow


When we survey all known human societies we find every where a for of the family some set of people permanent
arrangement by which males assist females in caring for children while they are young. The distinctively human aspect
of the enterprise lies not in the protection the male affords the female and the young. This we share with the primates.
Nor does it lie in the lordly possessiveness of the male over females instead in the nurturing behaviour of the male who
among human beings every where helps provide food for woman and children.
Among our structurally closed analogues the primates the male does not feed the female he may fight to protect her
or to possess her. But he does not nurture her was to fend herself. Somewhere at the dawn of human history some
social invention was under which males started nurturing females and their young. In every known human society,
everywhere in the world, the young male learns that when he grows up one of the things which he must do in order to
be a full member of the society is to escape the burden of feeding females and the young by entering Monasteries and
feeding each other or by entering some profession that their society will classify as giving them a right to be fed, like
the Army and the Navy, or the Buddhist order of Burma. But in spite of such exception, every known human rest firmly
on the learned nurturing behaviour of men.

6. Man differs from other animals because (a) he forms family (b) he cares for children (c) he cares for woman
and children (d) he provide food for woman
7. “The lordly possessiveness” of the male over the females means that the male (a) shows mastery over the
female (b) is more aggressive toward the female (c) claims right over the female (d) protects the
female

8. “Some where at the dawn of history” refers to (a) the beginning of creation (b)the creation of man
(c)the time when man yet monkey (d) the beginning of civilization

9. Man takes it upon himself to feed the females except when (a)he takes up the gun to fight (b)he
became religious (c)join a religion (d)enters some profession

10. According to the passage, a common f4eature of all human communities is (a)the family (b)caring mothers
(c)aggressive father 9d)nurtured woman and children

Read the following passage and select the best option that fills the corresponding gap in the text.

By the 28th week, that is the end of the 7th 11, the focus move around vigorously with the 12 and its heart can be heard
by the 13 its, length is 38cm (15 inches) its weight 100grams, its body is thin, its skin reddish and covered with a 14
coating of creamy, waxy substance, which is manufactured by small in the skin. It can open up its eye, and the 15

Page 13
covering the pupils of the 16 has gone. If it is 17 at this stage it can 18 but with difficulty. It can also cry 19 but 20 its
legs energetically.

(a) (b) (c) (d)


11 Day Week Month Year
12 Stomach Uterus bladder Belly
13 Audience Woman Crowd Doctor
14 Membrane Kicking Plastic Protective
15 Membrane Hand Glass Rubber
16 Eyes Class Mouth Uterus
17 Left Sent Discharged Born
18 Breath See Hear Cat
19 Angrily Weakly Loudly Strongly
20 Walk Wove Wraps Fold

In question 21 – 25, chose among the options the one that the opposite meaning to the world or group of words
underlined in the sentence to fill the missing word(s).

21. One would have expected the students to take to consultation with the school authorities instead of resorting
to____________(a)mediation (b)confrontation (c) arbitration (d) exultation

22. It is surprising that on of the identical is an alcoholic but the other is ____ (a) teetotaler (b) dipsomanic (c)
agoraphobic (d) saboteur

23. While the man is parsimonious his wife is obviously _____ (a) ingenious (b) curious (C) judicious (d)
extravagant

24. The lackadaisical student failed the test out the _____ one passed it well (a) enthusiastic (b)
listless (c) classical (d) obtuse

25. While a sinner will incur the wrath of God, a saint will enjoy the ______ (a) anger (b) anointing (c) favour (d)
pleasure

In question 26 35, from the words lettered A to D, choose the one that completed the sentence
26. The rich man ______ to his wives and children every Monday (a) disperses (b) dispensed
(c)
discusses (d) dispenses

27. If I had known that the man was not a genuine pastor, I would not have ______ too much confidence in him
(a) imposed (b) reposed (c) inputted (d) disposed

28. The poor woman has ____ herself to fate (a) consigned (b) concerned (c) resigned (d) reposed

29. The clergy ____ everyday for the success of the present government (a) are praying (b) is praying (C) pray
(d) prays

30. The young girl ____ mind her language (a) has better (b) hand better (c) have best (d) had best

31. Many a secondary school student _____ afraid of English language examination nowadays (a) are (b) is
(c)was (d)were

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32. The man, with three wives and seven ____just traveled abroad (a) is (b) are (c) has (d) have

33. The lecturer does not his real age (a) seems (b) look (C) appear
(d) resemble

34. I ____ your father to stop going out with politicians: then I changed my mind (a) hand told (b) have told (c)
was going to tell (d) have telling

In question 36-40 a list option is given below every sentence choose the option nearest in meaning to the word or
phrase underlined in the sentence.

36. Are they expecting celestial blessing? (a) terrestrial (b) heavily (c) usually (D) sacrificial

37. The indigent boy is my younger brother’s friend (a) indolent (b) diligent (c) efficient (d) needy

38. Adults seldom visit the new amusement center (a) frequently (b) rarely (c) usually (d) reluctantly

39. Really, life is ephemeral (a) enjoyable (b) difficult (c) transient (d) permanent

40. I want to tell you that Felix has an eccentric mind. (a) shocking (b) versatile (C) narrow (d) critical

GENERAL PAPER
In question 1 to 50, choose the correct answer from option (a) to (d)that following each question.

1. Which of the following is the large single cell in the body? (a) the neutron (b)the ovum (c) liver cell
(d) muscle cell

2. Blue-green algae belong to the phylum (a) cyanophyta (b) sehizophyta (c) chlorophyta (d) chrysophta

3. The concept of antibiotics started with the work of (a) Gregor Mendel (b) Mary Slessor (c) Louis
Pasteur (d)Alexander Fleming

4. The botanical name for yellow yams is (a) dioscorea gayanesis (b) dioscorea rotunda (c) dioscorea
alata (d) dioscorea dumentorum

5. Which of the following tissue are made of dead of cells? (a) Xlyem vessels (b) cambium (c) mesophyll
(d) palisade

6. Which of the following is not in function of the liver (a) storage of iron (b) formation of the bile (c) breakdown
of excess amino acids (d) excretion of urea from the blood.

7. Alkaline pyrogallo; was used in an experiment. That experiment must have been connected with (a)
respiration (b) photosynthesis (c) transportation (d) excretory

8. The enzyme that breaks down cane sugar is (a) lipase (b) ptyalin (c) invertase (d) peptidase

9. The largest single bone in the body is the (a) scapula (b) humerus (c) femur (d) skull

Page 15
10. Auxins are produced in the (a) root and stem apex (b) young leaves and nodes (c) flower bud and apex

11. The hormone, which tones yup the muscles of a person in time of danger, is from the (a) thyroid gland
(b) pancreas (c) adrenal gland (d) sebaceous

12. A diet with a high concentration of iodine will probably be needed by patient suffering from a
malfunction of the (a) thyroid gland (b) adrenal gland (c) nervous system (d) circulatory system

13. The sampling methods is not most often used in ecological study of a habitat because (a) the area to be studied
is usually large (b) some areas are more important than others (c) plants and animals live in small communities

14. Which of the following group of factor is competing a biotic (a) soil, water, bacteria salinity (b) salinity,
tide, plankton turbidity (c) wind, altitude, humility light (d) confers, wind, pH, rainfall.

15. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria and cowpea demonstrate ecological association known as (a) predation (b) parasitism
(c) mutualism (d) commensalism

16. Plants that live in sally water are called (a) hydrophytes (b) xcrophytes (c) halophytes (d) salinophytes

17. A sample of soil was put into a measuring cylinder and water was added to it. After mixture was shaken, the
cylinder was left undisturbed for one hour this experiment was probably performed to: (a) compare the
capillarity of different samples (b) find out the relative densities of different soil particles (c) find out water
retaining capacity of soil (d) demonstrate the presence of air in the soil sample

18. A farmer X working in a swamp did not eat any food nor drank any water, which of these diseases can
he not contact? (a) bilharzias (b) malaria (c) cholera (d) sleeping sickness

19. Which of the following element may be added to drinking water to lessen dental decay (a) calcium (b)
phosphorus (c) fluorine (d)chlorine
20. Aman with normal haemoglobin marries a woman who has sickle cell haemoglobin. They have a child who
has sickle cell trait which o following genotype could be associated with the child’s haemoglobin? (a)
SS (b)AS (c)AO (d)AA

21. Tichlorochnna in a solvent used to remove grease from clothing. How after use is the solvent separate from
the grease (a) chromatography (b) crystallization (c) distillation (d) by filtration

22. Calculate the mass of ZnSO4 produced when excess of ZnCO3 is added to 50.0cm3 of 4.0mol.dm-3 H2SO4 the
equation for the reaction is ZaCO3 + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + CO2 + H2O (Zn = 65, S = 32, OP = 16) (a) 32.2 (b) 37.5
(c) 38.6 (d) 34.3

23. Arrange the following elements of the second period in the order of increase atomic radius lithium, beryllium,
boron carbon (a) carbon, boron, beryllium lithium (b) lithium, beryllium, boron, carbon (c) lithium, carbon,
boron, beryllium (d) carbon, lithium, beryllium, boron

24. Argon is use in gas filled electric lamp because (a) it is radioactive (a) it has low pressure (c)
it is combustible (d) it helps to prevent oxidation

Page 16
25. If 250cm3 of a saturated solution of potassium trioxonitrate (v) at 30°C produced 3.4G of the dry salt,
calculate the solubility of the salt at
30°C (K 39, N 14, 0 16) (a) 0.112mol.dm3 (b) 01118mol.dm3 (c)0.1 24.dm3 (d) 0.1 34moI.dm3

26. A sample of orange juice has a pH of 3.80 what is the mother concentration of hydrogen ion in the juice?
(a) 1/58 x 10 (b) 1.58 x 10 (C) 1.58 x 10 (d) 1.58 x 10

27. Which of the following solution are NOT acids? (a) aluminum chloride (b) zinc chloride (c) copper (II)
tetraoxosulphate (iv) (d) Silver chloride

28. Calculate the current is amperes required to produce 18.Og aluminum in 1.50 hour (Al 27, F 96500C) (a)
33.65 sample (b) 53.74 amperes (c) 37.83 amperes

29. Calculate the oxidation number of chlorine CL907 (a) + 7 (b) +2 (C) +5 (d)+1

30. The two nuclei in the hydrogen molecules are held together by (a) mutual attraction (b)
mutual sharing of the electron charge-cloud (c) a dative covalent bond (d)the two electrons in the
same spin

31. Which of the following statements about catalysis is correct (1) A small amount of catalyst often affects the
rate of a reaction from a long tie (2) A catalyst is always chemical unchanged at the end of a reaction? (3) the
effect of a catalyst is often enhanced by adding promoters; (4) a catalyst is always physically unchanged at
the end of a reaction (5) a catalyst always speeds up the rate of a chemical reaction (a) 1,2,3,4,5, (b) 1,2,3,
only (c) 2,3,4 only (d) 2,4 only

32. When K2Cr2O7 dissolves in water, the following equilibrium is established Cr2O72 (aq) + H2O —---- 2CL042
(aq) 2H1 orange. State the colour observed on adding a few drops dilute H2SO4 in the system (a) orange (b)
yellow (C) pink (d) colourless

33. Which of the following statement is NOT true of hydrogen suiphide? (a).it is a liquid at room temperature (b)
it is a covalent compound (c) it is a weak diabasic acid in aqueous solution (d) it is much stronger reducing
agent than water

34. Which of the following are products of acids hydrolysis of sucrose? (a) fructose and maltose (b) glucose and
cellulose (c) maltose and cellulose (d) glucose and fructose

35. What is the concentration (in molcm-3) of solution containing 0.28g of potassium hydroxide per 100cm 3 of
solution? (K 39, H 1)16)

36. Determine the distance point P (8,5,3) and Q (2,1 -2)(a) 80.3 (b)2.32 (c)15.00(d)8.77

37. One person walks south east at 4m!s and another heads north at 3m/s how far apart are they in 10 second if
they start from the same points simultaneously? (a)80.3m (b)283m (c)64.7m (d)419.7

38. The centre of gravity of a rectangular objects at (a) the intersection of the medians (b)the middle of
the rectangle (c)the intersection of the diagonals (d) any of the vertices

39. A uniform meter rule of weight 1.0N is pivoted at the 40cm mark. A weight of 2.9N is hung from the 1

Page 17
5m mark. Where a weight of 2N must be paled to balanced to rules > (a) 60cm (b) 45cm (c) 55cm (d) 35cm

40. Two plane mirror are inclined at an angles of 60 to each other, determine the number of image in the
two mirror (a) 6(b) 2(c) 5(d) 11

41. When an oil drop gently on a clean surface of area 100cm3 (a)the drop spreads until the firm is 30 molecules
thick (b) the drop spreads to fill exactly are of 100cm (c)the volume of the drop (d)the oil formed is not less
than one molecule thick

42. When illuminated BY a light beam, a smoke particle in oxygen gas can be seen moving in
different direction all the time when viewed in a microscope. This is because (a) the light beam
intensity is not constant (b) the smoke particle is affected by gravity (c) oxygen hit the smoke particle in
different directions (d) the smoke particle has a high speed in oxygen
43. A siren having a ring of 200 holes makes 132 revolutions per minutes. A jet of airs direct on to the set of
holes. Calculate the frequency of the note produced (take the speed of sound in air as 350m/s) (a) 26.400Hz
(b) 1.52Hz(c)44OHz (d) 0.66Hz

4. A concave mirror of focal length 20cm forms an image % the size of the object. Determine the
object. distance (a) 20cm (b) 60cm (c) 100cm (d) 80cm
45. A pool of water is 12 deep; what is its apparent depth? Reaction index of water is 4/2 (a) 16.0m (b)48.0m (C)
9.0m (d) 36.0m

46. In the optical system of the eye and lens camera, which statement is NOT true? Lens is fixed

47. A cell needed 0.30m of the wire of a potentiometer to balance its but only 2.0m to balance it’s p.d. when a
resistance of 4 was connected across its terminals. Calculate the internal resistance of the cell. (a)1.0Ω (b)0.5
Ω (c)1.50 (d)2.0 Ω
48. Which a steady current flow in long solenoid P (a) P settles in North- South direction if freely suspended (b)
but end of P are south pole (c) both end of P are north poles (d) there is only a magnetic field at the ends of
P.

49. A transformer has a 1mary coil of 400 turn and secondary coil two hundred turns if the primary coil is
connected to 24v a.c. mains, calculate the efficiency given that the current in the primary is 3A and in the
secondary 5A(a) 60% (b) 50% (c) 83% (d)62%
50. When a p-n junction of a semi conductor is forward biased (a) a large current is obtained (b)
small current is obtained (c) no current is obtained (d) the current remain the same

ANSWER SEPTEMBER 2013


51. A
70. C
52. 8
53. A 71. A 54. B 72. D
55. D 73. A
56. B
74. A
57. C
58. B 75. A

Page 18
59. C
60. A
61. A 62. A.
63. D
64. D
65. C
66. B
67. - 68. B
69. A

AHMADU BELLO UNIVERSITY


POST UME QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
LIFE SCIENCE
PHAR/DENTISTRY, MEDICINE, NURSING
OCTOBER, 2014

SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE INSTRUCTION:

Read the following instruction carefully.

1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error is thoroughly erased.

2. Candidates should write their full Names (surname first) JAMB Registration number, paper code, sex Jamb
score, faculty of first and second choice and the Question paper option given to them in the
appropriate spaces on the Answer Sheets.

3. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper

4. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.

In question I and 2 an idiom is underlined in each of the sentences, find under each sentence the group of words that
give the nearest meaning to the idiom.

1. Let us now get down to brass tacks (a) dodge the facts(b) tell a lie (C) change the iron to the brass one (d)
face the actual fact

Page 19
2. He talked my head off when I visited him (a) wearied me with talking (b) pushed off his seat (c) had
nothing to say (d) gave himself a headache

In question 3 and 4, select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

3. Do your parents always decry insubordination? (a) speak against (b) tolerate (c) embrace (d) overlook

4. Can you mention any two inimical acts? (a) economical (b) dangerous (c) encourage (d) fantastic

In question 5 and 6, choose the words or set of words that best fit’s the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
5. The magazine was ______ by the government for an offensive publication (a) suspended (b) proscribed (c)
condemned (d) sealed

6. Your mobile phone has ___ many times in the last thirty minutes (a) rang (b) rung (c) been ringing (d)
being rung

Read the passage below and answer question 7 that follow:


Cloning creates serious issues of individually. The cloned person may experience concerns about his or her distinctive
identity, not only because the person will be genotype (genetic make up) and appearance identical to another human
being, but in this case, because he or she may also be twin to the person who is the “father” or mother if one can still
call them that. What would be the psychin burdens of being the “child” or “parent” of your twin? The cloned individual,
moreover, will be saddled with genotype that has already lived. He or she will not be fully a surprise to the world.
People will likely always compare a clone’s performance in life that of the original True, a cloned person’s nurture
and circumstances in life will be different, genotype is not exactly destiny. Still, one must also expect parental and
other efforts to shape this new life after the original or at least to view the child with original vision always firmly in
mind. Why else then would they clone from the star basketball player.
Since, the birth of dolly, there has been a fair amount of doublespeak in this matter of genetic identity. Experts have
rushed in to reassure the public that the clone would in no way be the same person or have any confusion about his or
her identity, they are pleased to point out that the clone of firm star Julia Roberts would not be Julia Roberts, Fair
enough. But one is shortchanging the truth by emphasizing the additional importance of the environment rearing and
social setting; genotype obviously matter plenty. That after all, is the only reason to clone, whether human beings or
sheep. The odds that the clones of basketball star Larry Bird will play basketball are, I submit, infinitely greater than
they are for clones of Jockey Willie shoemaker.

QUESTIONS
7. In line 1 of paragraph 3, “fair” most nearly means (a) pleasing (b) considerable (c) promising (d)
ethical

8. The author agrees that (a) genetic characteristics alone cannot determine a person’s behaviour (b) people
who are cloned from other may have greater professional opportunities (c) cloning human beings is a
greater technological colleague than cloning sheep (d) a formal code of ethical rules will be needed one
can be cloned

Page 20
9. The question at the end of paragraph 2 (“why else... bust place?) chiefly serves to (a) suggest that some issues
are not easily resolved (b) the importance of parents in the life of children (c) imply that cloning might displace
more familiar means of parents in the life of children (d) suggest the value perceived in a person who might
be cleared for cloning.

10. The author mentions two sports stars in order to (a) distinguish between lasting fame and mere celebrity (b)
highlight the need for greater understanding of the athlete’s data (c) suggest that athlete’s special skill
have a genetic component (d) argue against analysis of any sport star’s physical abilities

11. The author uses the word “true” to indicate (a) acknowledgement that the passage’s opening argument are
tensions (b) distrust of those who insist on pursing cloning research (c) recognition of a potential
counterargument (d) conviction about the accuracy of the facts presented.

After each of the sentence in question 12 and 13, is a list of possible interpretations choose interaction most appropriate
for sentences
12. For all he cared, the match was good as lost. This means that (a) he didn’t care, the match was lost (b) he was
almost certain that the match would be lost (c) he was afraid that match would be lost (d) he cared very about
losing the match.

13. It is possible that he has not read that book yet. This means that (a) has certainly not read the book yet (b) has
probably read that book (c) may not have that book yet(d) has still not read that book

In question 14 and 15, choose from the options given in A-D the one which is opposite in meaning to the word
underlined in each of the following sentences.

14. I know you will prefer a colossal amount as monthly salary to a _______ amount even though you are a
bachelor (a) fantastic (b) meager (c) few (d) huge

15. I think the manager should have embarked on actions that would soothe the feeling of the striking workers
instead of uttering statements that could _____ them (a) incense (b) placate (c) stimulate (d) sensitize

SECTION B: GENERAL PAPER


Answer all questions
1. One of the factors that must be considered for safe blood transfusion is (a) social class of the donor (b) rhesus
factors of the recipient (C) age of the recipient (d) nationality of the donor

2. A certain radioactive source emits radiations that were found to be deflected by both magnetic and electric
field. The radiations are (a) infra- red rays (b) x-rays (c) gamma rays (d) beta rays

3. Which of the following is not a contact force? (a) gravity (b) viscosity (c)tension (d) reaction

4. Which of the following has a pure tone2 (a) vibrating string (b) tuning fork (C) siren (d)violin

5. Which of the following mammalian features acts as a shock absorber to be developing embryo?
(a) umbilical cord (b) amniotic fluid (c) placenta (d) amnion

Page 21
6. What is not found in atom? (a) electron (b) molecules (C) neutron (d) proton

7. Which of the following consists of a pair of fundamental qualities only? (a) luminous intensity, time (b)
current, weight (c) mass velocity (d) length, speed

8. A cube of side 20cm floats in water with 15cm of its height submerged. What is the density of the material of
the cube? (a) 1 .85gmcm-3 (b)0.085gmcm-3 (C) 0.75gmcm-3 (d) 0.65gmcm-3

9. The path described by a project motion is (a) convex (b) concave (c)parabolic (d) a straight line

10. Which does not have decolorized bromine water? (a) C2H2 (b) C2H4 (c)C2H6 (d) C3H6

11. The maintenance of a constant internal environmental is called (a)environmental regulation (b) balance in
nature (c) peristalsis (d)homeostasis

12. What change will occur during the electrolysis of brine using carbon electrodes?

13. The theory of use disuse of organs was propounded by (a) Charles Darwin (b) Jean Lamack (c) Louis
Pasteur (d) Robert Hooke

14. Aluminum materials should not be exposed to alkalis because aluminum is (a)basic (b)acidic (c)amphoteric
(d)a reducing agent

15. Which of the following source of energy is renewable? (a)petroleum (b)coal (c)nuclear (d)ocean
waves

16. A certain mass of gas has a volume of 231cm3 at 18ocm and 753cm3 (c)22.43cm3 (d)0.0224cm3

17. Auxins are produced in the (a)petiole of leaves (b)epidermis of roots and shoots (c)parenchyma and shown
(d)apical region of roots and shoots

18. If the solubility of a salt at and 25C is 45gper 1000g of water how much of the salt will be obtained from 50g
of the solution? (a)2.15g (b)20g (c)12g (d)25g

19. If the pH of a solution of dilute hydrochloric acid is given as 2. The concentration of the solution in.

20. Hydra is able to perform all the following except. (a)feeding (b)photosynthesis (c)moving (d)ejection

21. The motion of the prongs of tuning fork can right be described (a)oscillatory (b)translational (c)random
(d)rotational

22. The bleaching action of chlorine in water is because (a)of its reducing property (b)of its oxidizing power
(c)it is (d)it is weak acid

Page 22
23. Spherical bacterial cells in long chains are called (a)staphylococci (b)streptococci (c)cocci (d)bacilli

24. Which of the following crop diseases is caused by a fungus? (a)groundnut rosette (b)black
pod disease of cocoa (c)yam mosaic (d)cassava bright

25. Which of the following crop diseases is caused by a fungus? (a)production of urine (b)production of
bile (c)osmo regulation (d)removal of urea
26. People in the blood group which receive blood from any other group fall into (a)AB blood group (b)O blood
group (c)A blood group (c)B blood group

27. What is formed when starch is completely hydrolyzed (a)fructose (b)glucose (c)lactose (d)maltose

28. Which of the following type of motion is least exhibited by the toy top? (a)random (b)rotational (c)oscillatory
(d)translational

29. Sulfur (a)from two alkaline oxides (b)spontaneously flammable (c)burns with a blue flame
(d)conducts electricity in the molten state

30. Hot water is added to four times its mass of water at 30oC and the resulting temperature 30oC what is the
initial temperature of the hot water? (a)50oC (b)60oC (c)70oC (d)80oC

ANSWERS
ENGLISH 2014 GENERAL PAPER
1.D 6.A 11.A 1.B 6.B 11.D 16.A 21.A 26.A
2.A 7.B 12.A 2.D 7.A 12.D 17.C 22.B 27.B
3.A 8.A 13.C 3.A 8.- 13.B 18. 23.- 28.
4.B 9.C 14.B 4.B 9.C 14.C 19.A 24.- 29.
5.B 10.C 15.A 5.B 10.C 15.- 20.B 25.B 30.C

AHMADU BELLO UNIVERSITY


POST UME QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
LIFE SCIENCE
PHAR/DENTISTRY, MEDICINE, NURSING
AUGUST 2015

SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE INSTRUCTION:


Read the following instruction carefully.
1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error is thoroughly erased.

2. Candidates should write their full Names (surname first) JAMB Registration number, paper code, sex Jamb
score, faculty of first and second choice and the Question paper option given to them in the appropriate
spaces on the Answer Sheets.

3. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper

4. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.


V

Page 23
SECTION A:
From the words lettered A D choose the word which best completes each of the following sentences,
1. The solution to the problem is happily ___________ (a) at hand (b) on hand (C) within hand (d) near hand

2. My grandmother told a story that made me ______ (a) laughing (b) laugh (c) laughed (d) to laugh

3. The principal with all the teachers and students ______ (a) has arrived (b)were arriving (c) have arrived (d)
were to arrive

4. The triplets love ____very much (a) each other (b) one another (c) the other (d) the others

5. The man asked if she her face (a) have run (b) had ran (c) have ran(d)had ran

6 Please_____ the light before you sleep (a) extinguish (b) put out (c) put off (d) switch off

7. The woman ____ the sharp knife from the baby in a subtle way (a) wrested (b) rested (c) wrestled (d) arrested

INSTRUCTION: After each of the sentences below a list of possible interpretation of all or part of the sentence is
given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.

8. The elders felt it was a forlorn hope and vehemently opposed It (a) a dangerous (b) a plan which would
not favour the elder (c) a planless course of action (d) a plan which had very little likelihood of success

9. The sword of Darnodee will be hanging over the council if that party gain control (a) the of justice (b)
imminent danger in the midst of prosperity (c) the man’s influence (d)the curse of God

10. Bisi stole a march on us by beating the gun at the race (a) gained an advantage (b) came last (c) came
first (d)was disqualified

11. Because the principal still refused his permission his staff finally took the bit between their teeth (a) carried
placards (b) got out of control (c) tore up the timetable (d) refused to go to work

12. I took time by the forelock and succeeded in getting a scholarship (a)used force (b) did a clever thing (c)
acted promptly (d) used a cunning means

13. I laughed up my sleeve as he told the tales of his exploits (a) was openly making fun of him (b) was very
pleased (c) laughed (d) was secretly amused

INSTRUCTION: From the words lettered A D, choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined expression as it is used in the sentence.

14. The rioters despoiled the main markets (a) looted (b) destroyed (c) burnt (d) desecrated

15. What happened last night was a novelty (a) a happy occurrence (b) a usual occurrence (c) an unusual
occurrence (d) a sad occurrence

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16. Some people believe that it is ominous for the dog to bark at night (a) giving an evil (b) frighiful (c) sad (d)
evil

17. In a section of the town many people were living in abject poverty (a) degraded (b)
worthless (c) shameless (d) objectionable

18. The contribution of the engineer was priceless (a) invaluable (b) worthless (c) nice (d) exorbitant

19. The young man surmounted all the oppressive measures to break his will (a) overcame
(b)fought (c) renounced (d) defeated

Read the passage below and answer question 20 24 that follows


The premise behind the question seems to be that if one does not unhesitatingly assert belief in evolution, then one
must necessarily believe that God created the world and everything in it in six 24-hour days. But limiting this question
to a stark choice between evolution and creationism does a disservice to the complexity of the interaction between
science, faith and reason.
The heart of the issue is that we can not drive a wedge between faith and reason. I believe wholeheartedly that there
can not be any contradiction between the two. The scientific method, base on reason seeks to discover truths about the
nature of the created order and how it operates, whereas faith deals with spiritual truths. The truths of science and faith
are complementary; they deal with very different questions, but they do not contradict each other because the spiritual
order and the material order were created by the same God.
People of faith should be rational, using the gift of reason that God has given us. At the same time, reason itself cannot
answer every question. Faith seeks to purify reason so that we might be able to see more clearly, not less faith
supplement the scientific method by providing and understanding of values, meaning and purpose.
More than that, faith-not-science can help us understand the breadth of human suffering or the depth of human love.
Faith and science should go together, not be driven apart.
The question of evolution goes to the heart of this issue. If belief in evolution means simply assenting to
microevolution, small changes over time within a species, I am happy to say, as I have in the past, that I believe it to
be true. If one the other hand, it means assenting to an exclusively materialistic, deterministic vision of the world that
holds no place for a guiding intelligence, then I reject it.

20. In this passage, the writer seeks to (a) portray the superiority of science over faith (b) show
the compatibility of faith and science (c) show the complexity of evolution and creationism (d) show the
contradictions of faith and reason

21. The writer’s attitude to the subject of the passage could be described as (a) cynical (b) ambivalent (c)
disapproving (d) conciliatory

22. From the passage, which of the following does the writer support? (a)evolutionary changes within a small
group of organisms (b) the creation of the world in a six 24-hour day (c) without the scientific method, faith
cannot be practice (d) those who believe in creation cannot be good scientists

23. A possible title for this passage is (a) the absurdity of faith without reason (b) science, faith
and reason (c) the complementarily of evolution and creation (d) a deterministic vision of the world

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24. Which of the following idea is NOT true according the passage? (a) both science and faith express various
truths (b) to believe in evolution is to deny the existence of God (c) the world could be better understood by
bridging the gap between reason and faith (d) both science and faith express various truths

INSTRUCTION: From the words lettered A D, choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the
underlined expression as it is used in the sentence.

25. Do you know that the ___ is different from the latter? (a) former (b) beginning (c) latest (d) later

26. While some animals are still extant, some are today (a) distant (b) intant (c) extinct (d) domestic

27. Your brother always speaks euphemistic words to address us but it is characteristic of your sister to
speak _____ words to us (a) few (b) rash (c) harsh (d) police

28. While some activities are enervating some other activities are ____ (a) invigorating (b) exacerbating (c)
immunizing (d) embarrassing

29. We expect the boy to show remorse for the offence he committed, but he remained ____ to the surprise of all
(a) indifferent (b) respectful (c) unrepentant (d) reserved

30. Whereas Bello’s behaviour is erratic, Tito’s manner of doing things is _____ (a) predictable (b) allergic
(c) assertive (d) eccentric

GENERAL PAPER
INSTRUCTION: From the words lettered A D choose the appropriate answer.

1. Which of the following is not a general characteristic of waves? (a) diffraction (b) polarization (c)
reflection (d) refraction

2. The thermometric substance of an absolute thermometer is (a) platinum (b) mercury (c) alcohol (d) helium

3. Which one of the following has the highest specific heat capacity? (a) water (b) liquid hydrogen (c)
copper (d) lead

4. Which of the following sources of energy is non-renewable? (a) tides (b) solar (c) ocean waves (d) biomass

5. What type of electromagnetic radiation can be used to take photographs in the haze? (a) radio waves (b) visible
rays (c) ultraviolet rays (d) infrared rays

6. The difference in mass number (A) of atoms of the same element is due to a difference in (a) proton number
(b) number of electrons (c) neutron number (d) proton and electron number

7. A man hears his echo from a nearby hill 2 seconds after he shouted. If the frequency of his voice is
250Hz and t e wavelength is 1 .20m, how far away is the hill? (a)21 3m (b) 31 5m (c) 335m (d)340m

8. The colour of the positive column in a gas discharge tube is characteristic of the (a) gas and the coating in
the tube (b) pressure of the gas only (c)temperature of the gas only (d) pressure and potential difference

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9. Which of the following pairs of particles each have the same number of electrons as argon? [Ar = 18] (a) Li
and F (b) Na and F (c) Na and F4 (d) and CL

10. A mixture of 0.20 mole of Ar 2.20mole of Na and 0.30 mole of He exerts a total pressure of 2.1 atmosphere.
What is the partial pressure of He in the mixture? (a) 0.70 atmosphere (b) 0.80 atmosphere (c) 0.90 atmosphere
(d) 0.65 atmosphere

11. The poH of a solution is 12.23; calculate the hydrogen ion concentration of the solution (a) 1.52 x 10-2 (b) 1
.69 x 10-2 (c) 1.74 x 10-2 (d)1.87x 10-2

12 Which of the following is an artificial element? (a) plutonium (b) lanthanum (c) uranium (d) lutetium

13. One common fraction may be represented ironically by the equation Ba2+ + So42+ BaSo4 this occurs during
(a) hydrolysis (b) synthesis (c)thermal association (d)double decomposition

14. White phosphorous s stored under water because it (a) is corrosive (b) is corrosive (c) reacts with carbon (iv)
oxide (d) is hydrolyzed by atmospheric moisture

15. When aluminum tetraxosulphate (iv) reacts with excess sodium hydroxide, the formula of one of the
compounds formed is (a)Al Na02 (b)Al (OH)3 (c) NaAl (OH)4 (d) Na3AlO3

16. An alloy of copper and tin used in electrical contracts is (a) brass (B) solder (c) bronze (d)type metal

17 Kerosene and petrol (gasoline) are (a) hydrocarbons with kerosene having bigger molecules (b) hydrocarbons with
petrol having bigger molecules (c) hydrocarbons with the same size molecules but of different shape (d)compounds
of carbon and hydrogen and sulphur for kerosene, but nitrogen for petrol

18. The preparation of ethoxyethane (C2H5OC2H5) form ethanol can be considered as (a) dehydration (b)
oxidation reactions (c) hydrolysis reactions (d) dehydrogenation reactions.

19. Which of the following gives the correct formula of the fatty acid present in palm oil?
(a)CH3(CH2)14COOH (b)CH3(CH2)16OOOH (c)CH3(CH2)15COOH (d)CH3(CH2)17COOH

20. Glycerol had the typical properties of (a) an acid (b) a base (c) an alcohol (d) an ester

21. A certain natural product contains the ester glycerol palmitate soap can be made from this by (a) passing over
activated charcoal (b) boiling with sodium hydroxide (c) mixing with hydrogen (d) heating with glycerine

22. Which of the following is NOT a thermosetting plastic? (a) terylene products (b) phenol
methanol products (c) carbomide methanol products (d) malemine methanol products

23. The trajectory of a projectile motion is (a) ellipsoidal (b) parabolic (c) parabolic (d) spherical

24. A body accelerates from rest with an acceleration of 8ms2 for 10 seconds. Calculate the distance
converted in the 1 0th second (a) 76m (b) 97m (c) 324m (d)400m

Page 27
25. Which of the following infection is unlikely to respond to antibiotics treatment? (a)tetanus (b) measles
(C) typhoid fever (d) ringworm

26. Pest can be controlled without the subsequent danger of polluting the ecosystem by (a) spraying the
ecosystem with pesticide (b) keeping the population of natural enemies constant (c) increasing the
population of natural enemies of the pest (d) eliminating the natural enemies of the pests

27. Autotrophs are also describes as (a) consumers (b) carnivores (c)producer (d) decomposers

28. Which of the following bones is NOT a component of the appendicular skeleton? (a) tibia (b) sacrum (c)
radius (d) humerus

29. If two parents are sickle cell carries then their genotypes would be(a) HbΛ HbΛ and HbΛ HbΛ (b) Hbs
Hbs and Hbs Hbs (c) HbΛ HbΛ and Hbs Hbs (d)HbΛ Hbs and HbΛ Hbs

30. Procaryotic cells are found in (a) monerons (b) algae (c) tracheophytes (d) spirogyra

31. The correct order of classification of human being is (a) animalia, chordate, vertebrata, mammalie, primate,
hominidate, homo and sapiens (b) animalia, vertebrata, mammalie, chordate, primate, homo, sapiens and
hominidee (c) chordate, animalia, vertebrata, mammalie, primate, hominidate, and sapiens (d) animalia,
chordate, vertebrata, primate, mammalian, homo and sapiens

32. Deficiency of sulphur causes (a) poor, weedy growth (b) extremely stunted growth (c) yellowing of
leaves stems become slender (d) weak, stunted growth

33. Vitamin K is important in the (a) formation of enzymes involved in synthesis of amino acid (b) formation of
red blood cells (c) synthesis of blood clothing factors (d) formation of co-enzymes involved in cellular
respiration

34. The following are the components of nucleotides except (a) a five- carbon sugar (B) a six-carbon sugar (c) a
phosphate group (d) an organic nitrogen-containing

35. Which of the following inherited conditions usually shows incomplete dominance? (a) baldness (b) tongue
rolling ability (c) haemophilia (d) sickle cell anaemia

36. Which of the following is not a theory under Darwin’s theory of organic evolution (a) over production (b)
struggle for existence (c) mutation (d) offspring show variations

37. Which of the following does not cause mutation? (a) x-rays (b) mutant (c) ultra-violet light (d) cosmic
radiation

38. Which of the following organisms has homodont dentition? (a) a lizard (b) sheep (c) cat (d) man

39. Which of the following habitats cannot be used for the study of succession? (a) a pond (b) savanna grassland
(c) well cultivated land (d)abandoned farm land

40. Which of the following statement is/are correct


V

Page 28
i. One mole of sodium atoms contains 6.02 x 1023 atoms and weighs 23g ii. One mole of magnesium atoms contains
6.02 x atoms and weighs 24g iii. One mole of oxygen atoms contains 6.02 x 1023 atoms and weighs 16g (a) i and ii
(b) ii and iii (c) i and iii
(d) i, ii and iii

Page 29
ENGLISH
GENERAL PAPER 1.
A
21. D
2. B
3. A 22. A
4. B 23. C
5. D 24. B
6. B
25. A
7. A
8. B 26. C
9. B 27. C
10. A 28. A
11. B
12. C 29. C
13. D 30. A
14. A 31. A
15. C
32. C
16. D
17. B 33. C
18. A 34. B
19. A 35. A
20. B
36. C

37. B

38. A
39. C

40. D

AHMADU BELLO UNIVERSITY


POST UME QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

Page 30
LIFE SCIENCE, PHAR/DENTISTRY, MEDICINE, NURSING WEDNESDAY,
2016

SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE INSTRUCTION:


Read the following instruction carefully.
1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error is thoroughly erased.
2. Candidates should write their full Names (surname first) JAMB Registration number, paper code, sex Jamb
score, faculty of first and second choice and the Question paper option given to them in the
appropriate spaces on the Answer Sheets.
3. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper
4. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.

From the options A D, choose the word that has the same sound as the one underlined.
1. Poor (a) more (b)tore (c) dour (d) door
2. Great (a)cake (b)break (c)team (d)beam
3. Clothe (a) cloth (b) tooth (c)wordy (d)forth
4. Sing (a) goose (b) game (c) banged (d)jungle
5. Machine (a) chancellor (b) bishop (c) character (d) measure

From the option A D provided, choose the one nearest in meaning to the underlined word(s)
6. Many tourists say this country has a bracing climate (a) harsh (b)invigorating (c) benevolent (d) same 7.
After the race, some of the athlete felt completely done in (a) strained (b)satisfied (c)
disappointed (d) exhausted
8. My sister’s husband is very fastidious about his food (a) careful (b)hygienic (c) ravenous (d) particular
9. Because the student failed to obey the regulation restricting movement in the school compound, he
was expelled. (a) answer (b) observe (c) notice (d) understand
10. Peter’s breathing soon became difficult in the thin air of the hills, and there had to be regular pauses for
recreation (a) rewarded (b) rest (c) recovery (d) restoration

From the words lettered. A D, choose the interpretation that gives the correct meaning of the idiom in the sentence or
phrase
11. The teacher said that it was bad to cook the books. This means to (a) write good books for the public to read
and enjoy (b) falsify figures dishonesty (c) willfully destroy a document which contains vital information (d)
publish books as a means of living
12. He is in the first flight of footballers, this means he is (a) in the first team (b) always the
first footballer to score a goal (c) among the best footballers (d)the first footballer to run away
from camp
13. To say that “a rolling stone gather no moss” means (a) an unsteady person is bound to encounter failure
(b) a young person cannot succeed easily in life (c) a person who runs every time cannot live long (d) it
is not good to make a stone roll
14. Osazee scored a brilliant hat trick in the final match of the world cup fiesta. This means that he, (a) won
the prize for the best player (b)failed to score the winning goal (c) had a hat on during the game (d)scored
three successive goals in the match
15. The judge ‘had his hands tied” in the case in which his son was arraigned for a charge of murder. This means
that the judge (a) was withdrawn from the case (b) was handcuffed while the trial lasted (c) could not help
convicting his son (d)was conspicuously partial

In the following sentence, choose from the options A D that best completes the sentences.

Page 31
16. Among the books in the library, he found ___ Bible. (a) an old family brown leather (b) an old brown
leather family (c) a brown leather old family (d) an old leather brown family
17. The poor man lived in ____ house. (a) an old mud-brick large broken down (b) a large old mud-brick
broken down (c) a large old broken
down mud-brick (d) a broken-down old large mud-brick
18. The man donated a ___ machine to our school (a) modern duplicating large red (b) modern large red
duplicating (c) large modern red duplicating (d) red duplicating large modern
19. The beauty pageant was won by a ____ girl (a) beautiful dark and tall (b)tall dark and beautiful (c) dark
tall and beautiful (d) beautiful tall and dark
20. The house___ the kidnappers were kept is being watched by the police (a)which (b)where (c) in where (d) of
which
21. A respectable person should not___ on an agreement. (a) renege (b)disagree (c) honour (d) dispute
22. The little boy ___ to the occasion when he was asked to make a speech at his mother’s funeral. (a)
rose (b) lifted (c) stood (d) fell
23. Do you know the story about the ___ (a) the president’s of Nigeria plane (b) the president’s plane of Nigeria
(c) the president of Nigeria’s Plane (d)the plane of the president’s of Nigeria

Read this passage carefully and then answer the question that follow:
There is always a hustle and bustle of people in a typical city, especially at closing period when shops and offices were
closing and workers were hurrying home, some in their private cars, others trying to catch a commercial vehicle, while
those who couldn’t stand the rush to enter a bus or a cab jump on motorcycles popularly called okada. It was at the
peak of that rush hour that Oshoke arrived in Lagos.
Oshoke had never seen so many people on the streets or so many vehicles on the road, and so when he dropped at the
popular Yaba bus stop, he felt suddenly lost like a man lifted from the ground without any warning or explanation.
Another observation that stupefied him was not just the number of motorcycles that move like a swarm of ants, but
the way each rider appears to be oblivious of any other vehicle or human being around them, posing a grave danger to
life.
In his stupor, somebody tapped his shoulder and all of a sudden, he left empty, the way a young woman feels
when her skirt unexpectedly falls in the middle of a busy street. But he managed to turn to meet the hard cold eyes of
a man glaring at him, ‘what is the problem?’ the voice reminded him of a lions roar. As Oshoke later admitted it was
a perfect voice with which to wake a dead man.
Oshoke was later to learn from the stranger that the taxis had the worst drivers even though drivers generally in the
cities see every other driver as a rival on the road an enemy to be conquered. One minute they would be overtaking
other cars, the next stopping in the middle of the road to pick up fares without any signal to other drivers or road users
of their intentions.
Pedestrians seemed always in danger of their lives as they tried to run across the road whenever there was a lull in the
traffic.
24. How did Oshoke feel as he arrived in Lagos (a) he was so elated that he felt he was walking on air (b) he
became so nervous at once (c) he was simply dazed (d) he was brimful of composure
25. Why was Oshoke bewildered? (a) he thought the stranger would attach him (b) be suddenly felt cold (c) the
rowdiness of Lagos (d) he was frightened because of the car and people in Lagos.
26. According to the passage, the commuters (a) were confused (b) were very wicked (c) were irrational
(d) lack discipline
27. According to the passage (a) passenger are always in danger of crossing the road (b) fares are always in danger
of being knocked down (c) people are always in danger crossing the road (d) people are always crossing the
road.

Page 32
28. From the passage, we can infer that all road users (a) need education (b) must be directed (c) need the right
orientation (d) need to be monitored by the police
From the words lettered A D, choose the word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word
or group of words.
29. Girls these days dress provocatively but the culture requires ___ dressing (a) prodigious (b)
preventive (c) modest (d) productive
30. He did the work perfunctorily instead of (a) perfectly (b) carefully (c) permanently (d) especially

GENERAL PAPER
INSTRUCTION: From the words lettered A D choose the appropriate answer.
1. Which of the following best describes viruses? (a) they grow only inside living cells (b) they possess only
characteristics of living things (c)they can grow on dead cells (d)they cannot be crystallized.
2. Loss of nitrogen in the soil is caused by a process known as (a) putrefaction (b) nitrogen fixation (c)
denitrification (d) nitrification
3. Which of the following represents the Watson-Crick DNA base pair model? (a) G-T (b)T-C (c)T-A (d)
G-A
4. The liver performs ll the following functions EXCEPT (a) regulation of heat (b) formation of cholesterol
(c) removal of red blood cells (d) synthesis of vitamins
5. All but ONE of the following are atmospheric pollutants (a) diesel (b) carbon II oxide (c) sulphur(IV)
oxide (d) hydrogen sulphide
6. On what part of the tongue do we perceive salty taste? (a) front (b) sides (c) back (d) sides and front
7. Maintenance of homeostasis in mammals is a function of all the following except (a) ovaries (b) skin (c) lungs
(d) kidneys
8. Biotechnology has helped to produce plants and animals of these desirable features, EXCEPT (a) greater
resistance to pest and diseases (b) higher susceptibility to infections (c) better nutritional value (d) early
yielding varieties
9. Insects which undergo complete metamorphosis are those that (a) have the four distinct stages in their life
cycle (b) do not have the larval stage (c) have larva stage and pupa which resemble the adult (d) their eggs
hatch to produce nymphs
10. The type of storage organ found in ginger is called (a) bulb (b) cutting (c)tuber (d) rhizome
11. The geotropic response of a seedling is detected with (a) clinostat (b) thermostat (c) a seech disc (d) an
auxanometer
12. The substrate in cellular respiration is (a) sucrose (b) glucose (c) glycogen (d) adenosine diphosphate
13. Good example of roughage containing food material is (a) orange juice (b) corn flower (c) carrot (d) egg yolk
14. The World Health Organization defines good health as (a) a state of physical and mental well-being (b)
the absence of deformities (c) absence of diseases (d) a state of physical, mental and social well-being
15. The state at which chromosomes move towards the opposite poles during mitosis is (a) prophase (b)
metaphase (c) telophase (d) anaphase
16. Which of the following can sublime (a) water (b) ink (c) iodine (d)hydrogen
17. A certain compound on analysis gave 2.02g of carbon, 0.35g of hydrogen and 2.68g of oxygen. If the
molecular mass is 90, calculate the molecular mass (a) CH2O (b) C2H4O2 (c) C3H6O3 (d) C4H8O4
18. Isotopy is due to differences in the number of (a) atomic mass (b)molecular mass (c) protons (d) neutrons
19. Chlorine is a — (a) colourless gas (b) greenish liquid (C) yellow gas (d)greenish yellow gas
20. Calcium carbide reacts with water to form ethyne, what mass of calcium carbide (grams) would react to give
1.12dm3 of ethyne at STP?[Ca,40, C12, 11] (a)60g (b)64g (c)32g (d)32g
21. 5.3g of silver rioxpnitrate (V)was dissolved in 5Ocm-3 of water at 25°C. Calculate the solubility of the salt in
moldm3 [Ag = 108, n = 14, 0 = 16] (a) 0.3l2mol dm3 (b) 0.03lmol dm3 (c) 0.062mol dm3 (d) 0.623mo1 dm3

Page 33
22. Which of the following decompositions are correct?
(a) Ag2CO3(s) Ag2O(2) + CO2(g)
(b) 2PbCO3(s) 2Pb(s) + 2C02(g)+ O2(g)
(c) 2NaNO3(s) 2NaNO2(S) + O2(g)
(d) Ag2CO3(s) (S) + CO2(g)
AgO

23. In the reaction of aqueous solution of HCL and NaOH, the heat change is heat of (a) solution (b)
neutralization (C) formation (d) displacement
24. Which of the following gas is colourless and odourless? (a) NO2 (b) N2O (c) CO2 (d) a and c
25. The two hydrocarbon used as lower and upper standards for petrol are (a) isooctane and benzene (b)
heptane and acopenatane (c) heptane and 2,2,4 rimethlpentane (d) heptane and acopenatane
26. Benzene community undergoes ___ reactions (a) addition (b) climination (c) substitution (d)
amendment

27. Under high pressure, real gasses delvate from compliance with gas laws because their molecules (a)
experience repulsive forces (b) have become more energetic (c) have become less energetic (d) collide
inclastically
28. Which of the 3d, 4s, 4p, 4d has the lowest energy? (a) 3d (b)4s (c)4p (d)4d
29. One of the causes of algae growth in rivers is the presence of (a) heavy metals (b) pesticides (c) phosphates
from detergents (d) high particulate loading
30. Phenolphthalein solution at pH 2.5 is (a) yellow (b) pink (c) red (d) colourless
31. Which of the following is a vector quantity? (a) distance (b) speed (c) energy (d) weight
32. Calculate the work done by a bricklayer who lifted cement block of mass 10kg from the floor to a
height of 2.5m (acceleration due to gravity 9.8ms-2 (a)294.0J (b)215.0J (c)30.0J (d)25.0J
33. Find the potential energy of a diver of mass 75kg at a height of 10m above a swimming
pool (acceleration due to gravity = 9.8m2) (a)7.35KJ (b) 9.41 KJ (c) 8.82KJ (d) 0.75KJ
34. Determine the wavelength of fundamental note of a guitar string of length 65cm long (a) 65cm (b)
260cm (c) 195cm (d) 130cm
35. Find the combined resistance of two wires each of resistance 8-ohms when they are connected in parallel
(a) 16-ohms (b) 4-ohms (c) 20ohms (d) 12-ohms
36. A force of 300N was used to pull a load of mass 40kg at a steady speed up an inclined of length 6.2m and
vertical height 3.5m. Determine the velocity ratio (a) 0.57 (b) 1.31(c) 1.57(d) 1.77
37. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about pressure (a) Unit of pressure is Nm1 (b) pressure in a liquid
increases with depth (c) pressure at any point in a liquid acts in all directions (d) pressure in the ratio of force
acting normally per unit area.
38. 120cm3 of gas was collected at 20°C and 745mm of mercury pressure. Find the volume of gas at standard
temperature and pressure (a)1605.7cm3 (b)917.8cm3(c)305.1cm3(d)109.6cm3
39. A metal of length 30cm is heated until its temperature rises by 60°C to a new length of 30.04cm. Calculate its
linear expansivity (a) 4.44 x 10-5 K-1 (b) 22.22 x 10-5 K-1 (c) 3.33 x 10-5 K-1 (d) 1.52 x 10-5 K-1
40. Which of the following statements is NOT correct? (a) molecules of a liquid are stationary (b) atoms combine
to form molecules (c) the molecules of matter are in constant motion (d) Brownian motion is an evidence of
particle nature of matter.
41. Determine elastic constant of a spring if a force of 1 N stretches it by
2.7cm (a)0.4Nm1 (b)40.4Nm1 (c)37.0Nm1 (d)40.ONm1
42. Which of the following objects is NOT in stable equilibrium? (a) a car with wide base and low centre of
gravity (b) a ball in the middle of a bowl (c) a car with narrow base and high centre of gravity (d) a cone
resting on its base

Page 34
43. Which of the following is not true of boiling? (a) temperature is constant during boiling (b) occurs throughout
the entire volume of the liquid (c) takes place at all temperatures (d) it is change from liquid in vapour at the
boiling point
44. A swimming pool viewed directly from above its surface appears to be
12m deep. Find the real depth. (refractive index of water (a) 16m (b)20m (c)10m (d)24m
45. A transformer has 500 turns in the primary coil and 400 turns in the secondary coil. Find the voltage in
the secondary coil when the primary coil is connected to a 2.20V main (a) 132V (b) 160V (c) 176V
(d)182V

Page 35
1. D 2. A
3. B 4. 23. A 24. C
5. D 6. A 25. C 26. A
7. C 8. D 27. C 28. D
9. D 10. B
29. B 30. D
11. D 12. B
13. A 14. D 31. C 32. D
15. B 16. B 33. C 34. B
17. A 18. B
35. A 36. B 19. A 20. A
21. B 22. A 37. A 38. B
39. A
40. D
1.D 40D
20.A
2.A
3.B 21.C 41.C
4.E 22.D 42.B
5.D 23.A 43.A
6.A
24.D 44.A
7.NO ANSWER
8.A 25.B 45.B
9.A 26.B 46.B
10.B
27.A 47.C
11.C
12.C 28.B 48.D
13.D 29.C 49.A
14.A 30.D 50.B
15.D
31.B
16.D
17.B 32.B
18.B 34.---
19.C 34.A

35.B

Page 36
36.C
BIOLOGY 2005 37.D
51.B

52.D 60.D38 .D 68.B


53.A 61.C39 .D 69.A
54B
62.C 70.C
55.D
56.B 63.D 71.C
57.C 64.D 72.D
58.B 65.C 73.A
59.C
66.B 74.A
2005 ENGLISH
67.A 75.A
LIFE SCIENCE MEDICAL SURGERY AND PHARMACY

Page 37
1.A
2.B 11.C 21.B 31B
3.B 12.D 22.A 32.D
4.A
13.D 23.D 33.A
5.A
6.C 14.D 24.A 34.C
7.D 15.A 25.C 35.-
8.D 16.A 26.D 36.B
9.9
17.D 27.A 37.-
10.A
18.B 28.C 38.D
19.C 29.D 39.C
BIOLOGY 20.D 30.B 40.B
1.B
2.- 11 .C 21.C 31.B 41.B
3.D 12.A 22.A 32.A 42.C 4.A 13.A 23.A 33.A 43.B
5.B 14.C 24.D 34.D 44.B
6.D
7.A 15.C 25.D 35.D 45.C
8.C 16.C 26.A 36.D 46.D
9.C 17.B 27.B 37.B 47.-
10.A 18.C 28.B 38.C 48.-

ENGLISH 2016

1.C 18.B 26. A


9. B
2. A
3. B 10.D 19.B 27. C
4. B 11. B 20. B 28. C
5. D 12. C 21. A 29. C
6.B 22. A
13. A
7. D
8. A 14.D 23C
15. C 24. C 16. A 25. A

Page 38
17. B 30. B

AHMADU BELLO UNIVERSITY


BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES
POST UNIVERSITIES MATRICULATION EXAMINATION SCREENING
2017

Time Allowed: 1h 15mm


INSTRUCTION: Read the following instruction carefully.
1. Use an HB pencil to shade in your answer, ensure that any shading error is thoroughly erased.
2. Candidates should write their full Names (surname first) JAMB Registration number, paper code, sex, jamb
score, faculty of first and second choice and the Question paper option given to them in the
appropriate spaces on the Answer Sheets.
3. Attempt all questions. Each candidate must submit the answer sheet with the question paper
4. The use of calculator and/or similar electronic devices is NOT allowed.

SECTION A: ENGLISH
INSTRUCTION: Choose the word or group of words that is nearest in meaning to the underlined expression as it is
used in the sentence.

1. He has been inundated with work (a) over whelmed with (b) unhappy with (c) unconcerned about (d)
interested in

Page 39
2. The Vice Chancellor has approved a new allowance, an incentive for all the lecturers. (a) an advance (b) a
package (c) an encouragement (d) a reward

3. Although the speech was impromptu it was very well received (a) prepared (b) advertised (c) read
out(d) not prepared for

4. My appeal to the lecturer for help was futile (a) successful (b) accepted (c) without success (d) realistic

5. What happened last week at the meeting vindicated my earlier position (a) disagreed with (b) proved (c)
dismissed (d) voided

6. Tonia was accused of immodest dressing (a) loud (b) poor (c) indecent (d) costly

7. Let me tell you, David is one student with an impeccable character (a)faultless (b) bad (c) interesting
(d) deviant

INSTRUCTION: Choose the word or group of words that is opposite in meaning to the underlined expression as it is
used in the sentence.
8. He was very discreet about the number of university entrance examinations he was written (a) secretive
(b) open (c) sure (c) uncertain

9. Ofure told the congregation that she married a doting man (a) a loving (b)a funny (c) uncaring man (d) nagging

10. My pastor preaches humility without matching it with action (a) salvation (b) pride (c) kindness (d) modesty

11. He gave a nebulous description of the university campus (a) clear (b)vague (c) short (d) detailed

12. I was intrigued by the manner in which the goal was scored (a) fascinated by (b) uninterested in (c)
embarrassed (d) disappointed by

INSTRUCTION: Choose the option which best completes each of the following sentences.
13. The President visited the town with a view to things for himself (a) see (b) seen (c) seeing (d) having seen

14. Jide and Kemi quarreled last week and haven’t ____ yet (a) made it out (b) made up (c) made out(d) made
it up

15. It’s time we ____ away with poor leadership (a) do (b) done (c) did (d) have done

16. It was ____ on the evening news (a) broadcasted (b) being broadcasted (c) been broadcast (d) broadcast

17. The pepper was poorly ___ (a) ground (b) grinded (c) grounded (d) grind

Read the passage below and answer question I 5that follows

The tunes are familiar. Across our beautiful motherland, rascals are beating the drums of hooliganism and gangsterism.
The Armed Forces which is adept at this were again asked to pay an exemplary fine for brutality. This time they shifted
their criminality down South where the crime of their victim was for asking and innocuous question. The law lecturer

Page 40
at the gate of a Navy Barrack asked a naval rating if guest at an expected wedding would be permitted to pack their
cars along the road. The rating perhaps felt insulted that a bloody civilian had the nerve to ask him a stupid question
right at the barrack gate. He dragged the lecturer out from his car and hit him with the butt of his gun. The man passed
out but that was not the end of the ordeal, other naval personnel poured out to hit and whip him with belts. When other
citizens expressed fears that the man might be killed, they were also attacked by the
‘gallant’ men of the disciplined force. It is good that the Honourable Judge of the High Court has awarded Nl5Omillion
damages to the man. The Judge lamented that Nigerians are gradually becoming endangered species in their own
country.

18. What was the ‘offence’ that led to the beating of the man? (a) he packed his car along the road (b) he drove
as far as the barrack gate (c) he asked the naval rating a question (d) he mocked the naval rating

19. ‘An innocuous question’ in the passage means ___ (a) an offensive question (b) an upsetting question
(c) an indirect question (d) a question that is not intended to offend.

20. The man ‘passed out’ means ___ (a) the man died (b) the man became unconscious (c)the man ran away
(d) the man fell down

21. From the passage the writer is ___ (a) happy with military-civilian relationship (b) unhappy with military-
civilian relationship (c) unhappy that civilian do not respect the military (d) happy that the military displays force
when necessary

22. The message of the writer is that ___ (a) the Nigerian Navy is a gallant and discip!’9ed force (b) the civilians
often deserve the treatment they get from the military (c) the Nigerian Navy is a force of hooligans and gangsters
(d)the fine handed down by the honourable judge was unnecessary.

INSTRUCTION: After each of the sentences below, a list of possible interpretations of all or, part of the sentence is
given. Choose the interpretation that you consider most appropriate for each sentence.

23. The problem with Fatai is that he has a finger in every pie. This means that ___ (a) Fatai love eating all kind
of pies (b) Fatai is involved in too many activities (c) Fatai prepares good pies (d) Fatai steals things

24. Peter’s grandmother has kicked the bucket. This means that ___ (a) Peter’s grandmother is dead (b) Peter’s
grandmother is on admission in a hospital (c) Peter’s grandmother is very strong (d) Peter’s grandmother has retired
from work.

25. I had a night out with Dickson. This means that ___ (a) Dickson and I spent the night reading (b) Dickson
and I had an evening of fun and enjoyment (c) Dickson and I were awake all night (d) Dickson and I quarreled
all night.

26. I am going for a work out this evening. This means that ___ (a) I am planning to steal this evening (b) I am
going back to my office for work this evening (c) I am going for physical exercise this evening (d) I am going to visit
a friend this evening.

Page 41
27. Regarding admission into University of IBADAN, I resign myself of fate. This means that ____ (a) I am
prepared for whatever happens (b) I am prepared to consult fortune tellers (c) lam prepared to contest the outcome
(d) I depend on what my pastor tells me.

28. Michael took the English language examination for granted. This means that _____ (a) he assumed the
examination would be easy (b) he expected the examination would be difficult (c) he did not worry about the outcome
of the examination (d) he know he was going to fail the examination.

29. I can say that our State Governor is angling for a second from his party. This means that ____ (a) the governor
is rejecting a second term (b) the governor is indirectly asking for a second term (c) the governor is being asked to
run for a second term by his party against his will (d)the governor is angry over a second term issue.

30. Moses has been booted out of his job by his employers. This means that ____ (a) Moses has been transferred
by his employers to another location (b) Moses has been promoted by his employers (c) Moses has been sacked by
his employers (d) Moses has been commended by his employers.

SECTION B: GENERAL PAPER (BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES)


1. Which of the structures listed below is peculiar to the axis vertebra? (a) Centrum (b) Prezygapophysis (c)
Lateral spine (d) Odontoid
2. A plant which has a horizontal underground steam is a ___ (a) Rhizome (b) Creeper (c)Tuber (d) Bulb
3. Epigeal germination can be found in ___ (a) groundnut (b) sorghum (c)millet (d) maize
4. The mammalian organ which acts both as a digestive an as an endocrine organ is the ___ (a) liver (b) pancreas
(c) spleen (d) adrenal gland

5. Which of the following does a virus have in common animal cell? (a)Glycogen (b) Starch (c) Nucleus (d)
DNA

6. Spirogyra, Euglena and Chiamydomonas share many characteristics except___ (a) growth (b) mobility
(c) reproduction (d) irritability

7. Parastic forms are not found among ___ (a) molluscs (b) nematodes (c)annelids (d) plathyhelminthes

8. A good example of dipiobastic organism is ___ (a) hydra (b) insect (c) roundworm (d) amoeba

9. What is the number of an ent if its atom contains 10 protons, 10 electrons and 12 net ) 32 (b) 22(c) 20(d) 10

10. The loss of water crystallization to the atmosphere by some crystalline salts is known as (a) efflorescence (b)
effervescence (c) deliquescence (d) phobrescence

11. Carbon is often de n the exhaust pipe of cars because of the ___ (a)Dehydrogenation of petrol (b)
incomplete combustion (c) Presence of additives (d) Presence of carbon in petrol

12. Plastics are polymers whose production techniques involve all except (a)high pressure (b) low pressure (c)
salting (d) high temperature

13. Which of the following gases is produced when ammonium trioxonitrate (V) is heated with
sodium hydroxide? (a) Oxygen (b) Ammonia (c)Nitrogen (IV) oxide (d) Hydrogen

Page 42
14. How many grammes of HCl wifl be required to react with 10g of NaOH (H = 1, Cl = 35.5. Na=23, 0 = 16)?
(a) 9.125g (b) 4.6g (c)10.lg(d)18.4g

15. The bond formed between H2O and H to form the hydroxonim ion is ___ (a) co-ordinate covalency
(b) electrovalent (c) covalent (d) ionic

16. Common salt is dissolve in water and the mixture is evaporated. The vapour given off is condensed. The
condensed vapour is a ___ (a) solute (b) suspension (c) solvent (d) solution

17. When some substances are heated, the change directly in gases without appearing in the liquid state. An
example is___ (a) copper(b) iodine (c)sodium (d) sulphur

18. What is the IUPAC name of the compound KMnO4? (a) Potassium manganate (b) Potassium tetraoxo
manganate (VII) (c) Potassium trioxomanganate (IV) (d) Potassium Oxomanganate (IV)

19. Which of the following is the dimension of pressure? (a) MLT2 (b) ML- 1T2 (c)ML-3 (d)ML-2T-2

20. Which of the following statements is or are correct about a car moving round a circular track at a uniform
speed? (i) its velocity is uniform (ii) it undergoes an acceleration (iii) The friction between its tyres and the
ground provides necessary centripetal force (a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (i) only (c) (iii) only (d) (ii) only

21. A body initially at rest is accelerated at a rate of 0.2ms2 for 5s under a constant force of 50N, the work
done on the body is ___ (a) 50J (b) 2.5J (c) 125J (d) 250J

22. The formation of clouds result directly from ___ (a) vaporization (b)fusion (c) condensation (d)
sublimation

23. Replenishing soil nutrients involves one of the following (a) leaching (d) (b)cover crooping (c) bush burning
Grazing

24. For a wire of a specific material, which of the following will give the lowest resistance in a circuit’? (a)
A short, thick wire (b) A short, thin wire (c)Along thin wire (d)Along thick wire

25. A change in temperature of 45cC is equivalent to a change in temperature on the Kelvin scale of ___
(a) 25K (b) 318K (c) 45K (d) 81K

26. A disease that cause abortion in cattle at the first stage of pregnancy is ___ (a) milk fever (b) brucellosis
(b)pneumonia (d) foot and mouth disease

27. Which of the following instruments is used to measure relative humidity? (a) Barometer (b)
Hydrometer (c) Manometer (d) Hygrometer

28. Which of these statements is correct about cathode rays? They are fast moving ____ (a) atoms (b) protons
(c) neutrons (d) electrons

29. On a day when humid, is very high, evaporation from a water pond will be ___ (a) r’ D)slow(c)zero (d)fast

Page 43
30. The cells that surrounded the stomata are called ____ (a) stomata cells (b)epidermal cells (c) guard cells (d)
pilliferous layer

Page 44
31. On the induction of new students in a certain school, 800 students turned up at the open emony, 600 students
turned up for the novelty match and that a total of 1234 students altogether in the school. How many students
attended ceremonies if a student attended at least one of the functions? (a)1400 (b) 1660 (c) 140 (d) 166

32. In how many ways can a committee of 5 comprising of 3 males and 2 females be formed from 6 males and
4 females? (a) 20 ways (b) 6 ways (c) 12 ways (d) 120 ways

33. Which of the following is not an exterior angle of a regular polygon?


(a)24° (b)18° (c)15° (d)180°
34. If the square root of x2 + 9 =x+ 1, solve for x. (a)5 (b)4 (c)3 (d)1
35. Simplify3/5÷ (217x419) (a)415 (b)7110 (c)617 (d)2116
36. Which of these animals is radically symmetrical? (a) Squid (b) Snail (c)Hydra (d) Earthworm
37. A food substance was treated with a few drops of Sudan II solution and red colouration was obtained. The
food contained ___ (a) starch (b)vitamins (c) protein (d) fat
38. Members of the phylum protozoa use the contractile vacuole to ____ (a)reproduce (b) remove excess
food (c) digest food (d) remove excess water
39. The primary and secondary hosts of Bilharzia are ___ dog(b) man and snail (c)fish and snail (d) snail and
dog (a) man and
40. Which of the following statements is true of blood group and blood transfusion? (a) Group B can donate to
Group B only (b) Group AB can donate to all (c)Group A can donate to Group A only (d)Group AB is the
universal recipient

Page 45
ANSWER ENGLISH ANSWERS GENERAL PAPER

1. A 16. D 1. D 16. C 31. D


2. C
17. A 2. A 17. B 32. -
3. D
4. C 18. C 3. - 18. - 33. D
5. B 19. D 4. B 19. B 34. B
6. C 35. B
20. B 5. D 20. -
7. A
8. B 21. B 6. B 21. C 36. C
9. C 22. C 7. A 22. C 37. D
10. B 23. B 8. A 23. B 38. D
11. D
24. A 9. - 24. A 39. B
12. B
13. C 25. B 10. A 25. B 40. D
14. D 26. C 11. B 26. B
15. C 27. A 12. B 27. D

28. C 13. B 28. D


29. B 14. - 29. B
30. C 15. A 30. C

AHMADU BELLO UNIVERSITY


POST UNIFIED TERTIARY MATRICULATION SCREENING
2019
Time allowed: lHr l5mins
JAMB REG. NO
INSTRUCTIONS
Read the following instructions carefully
1. Use HB pencil to shade your answers. Ensure that any shading in error is thoroughly erased.
2. Candidates should ensure the Question paper type given to them in the appropriate space in the answer sheet.
3. Write your JAMB registration number on the question paper in the space provided at the top of page 1.
4. The use of calculators and/or similar devices is not allowed.
SECTION 1: ENGLISH
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow

Page 46
This book consists of lectures given by me at Cambridge. Though they have been largely written, I have kept a good
deal of their original lecture form, as being (I hope) rather less formal and less dogmatic. For to dogmatism, those who
write on language seem for some reason, particularly prone; and I should like to make it clear at once that, if at times
I have put my views strongly, I do not forget that such matters of taste must remain mere matters of opinion. In addition,
I have included a good many specimen passages from various authors. Perhaps I have quoted too much. But a book on
style without abundant examples seems to me as ineffectual as a book on art, or biology, without abundant illustrations.
Many of these passages are in French. That may be Gallomania on my part: and I must apologize if they trouble some
readers. But some ability to read French prose does seem to me most desirable to anyone who would write well in
English. I have tried to choose pieces not too difficult in syntax or vocabulary. And in these days less than ever can we
afford to be insular.
1. Our understanding of the last sentence is that we (a) can now afford to be insular (b) can be insular in the
future (c) cannot afford to be insular (d)must never be insular.
2. To write English well, the author says it is helpful to (a) be able to write French fairly well (b) be able to read
French fairly well (c) know French thoroughly (d) be able to read English well.
3. According to the author (in this preface) the book is (a) the original version of his Cambridge lectures (b) a
revised version of his Cambridge lectures (c) an imitation of his Cambridge lectures (d) a negation of his
Cambridge lectures.
4. The author says that writers on language are (a) inclined to be dogmatic (b) opposed to dogmatism (c) unlikely
to be dogmatic (d) resolved to be dogmatic.
5. In the author’s opinion, a book on style (a) can do with few examples (b)need not have any examples (c) is a
book on art (d) will be ineffectual with sufficient examples.
Each of the following sentences has a list of options A D following it. Choose which option best interprets the
sentence.
6. Ade told George that if he were as rich as him, he would have travelled overseas. This means that (a) Ade is
not as rich as George therefore he did not travel overseas. (b) Ade is not as rich as George but he travelled
overseas (c) Ade is not rich, therefore, he stole to travel (d) George is rich but did not travel overseas.
7. Had her father not died, Edo would have left for London. This implies that Ede (a) went to London after the
death of her father (b) did not go to London because her father died (c) would like to go to London when her
father dies (d)would like to go to London after father dies.
8. Would you have helped him if he had asked you? This implies that (a) he did not ask so you didn’t help him
(b) he asked you (c) he asked you and you helped (d) he asked you but you didn’t help.
9. If Musa applies for scholarship, he will be able to go to law school. This means that Musa (a) is attending law
school (b) has the opportunity of attending law school (c) could not attend law school (d)has applied fora
scholarship to attend law school.
10. Had Mr. Opoku not changed his manager, his business would not have been ruined. This tells us that (a) Mr.
Opoku changed his manager and his business was not ruined (b) the new manager ruined Mr. Opoku’s business
(C) the new manager almost ruined Mr. Opoku’s business (d Mr. Opoku changed his manager after his business
had been ruined.
Select the best option (from A D) to complete each of the following sentences.
11. At the height of the storm, the savages tried to —the angry gods by offering sacrifices. (a) instigate (b) appall
(c) vilify (d) propitiate
12. You should paragraph in order to make your essay more (a) delete... succinct (b) en1arge... .redundant (c)
remove... .discursive (d) revise ……abstrus
13. Only the fear of immediate vents the country from launching an attack. (a) reprisal (b) urrender (c) truce (d)
surveillance.
14. A diligent scholar, she devoted herself to the completion of the book. (a)assiduously (b) ingenuously (c)
theoretically (d)voluminously
15. He was to success, painting not for the sake of fame or monetary reward but for the sheer love of art. (a)
indifferent to (b) destined for (C) avid (d)enamored of.

Page 47
16. When the news of his the enemy was known, he was hanged in an effigy. (a) contempt for (b) enmity toward
(c) collusion with (d) conspiracy against.

In each of the following sentences there is one word underlined and one gap. From the list of words lettered A to
D, choose the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.
17. The testimony of the witness was so vague that it was difficult to learn details of the case. (a) real (b)true
(c)factual (d) specific.

Page 48
18. The man’s speech is rather verbose it needs to be more (a) detailed (b) concise (c) reduced (d) interesting
19. Obiora was a notorious hunter who defied the king’s orders not to hunt near the city. (a) illustrious (b) brave
(c) anonymous (d) intelligent
20. Although Paul had been accused of the crime, he was later (a) discharged (b) released (c) exonerated (d)
dismissed.
21. False modesty is really a form of (a) arrogance (b) humility (c)extravagance (d) incompetence
22. Although I have forgotten the title of the book, I the story very well. (a) can recognize (b) can construct (c)
can recollect (d) can review.
23. Cameras were once as unwieldy as are now (a) attractive (b) cheap (c)compact (d) efficient.

In Questions 24 27 choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined.


24. Had she known he was a highway robber, she would not have married him. This means (a) she married him
before she knew he was a robber (b) she knew he was a robber when she married him (c) she did not marry
him because he was a robber (d) she refused to marry the man when she knew he was a robber.
25. The ingenious scheme of the robber broke down because if the efficiency of the police. Ingenious here means
(a) suspicious (b) ambitious (c) deceitful (d) clever.
26. Jide is being forced to go to Lagos tomorrow. This means that Jide (a) will go to Lagos (b) must go to Lagos
(c) wishes to go to Lagos (d) is going to Lagos.
27. It is sheer fantasy to believe that there could ever be a miscalculation by any nation that has atomic weapons.
Fantasy here means (a) dream (b) hope (c) nonsense (d)joke
In Questions 28 30 select the wrongly select word.
28. (a) quiet (b) believe (c) proceed (d) precede
29. (a) disappointed (b) embarrassed (c) equipped (d) rhythm
30. (a) occurrence (b) surprise (C) personnel (d) possess
Fill in the blank spaces with the most appropriate of options A D
31. I am disappointed the way you conducted yourself at the party. (a)by (b)for (c)dueto (d)at
32. When we were coming back from the picnic last Friday, there on Eko Bridge. (a) were many traffics (b) was
much traffic (c) were plenty traffic (d)were lots of traffic
33. I have refused to give him my pen because I don’t want him to it again. (a)loss (b)loose (c)lose (d)lost.
Choose the option that has the same vowel sound as the one underlined in the given word.
34. Jewel (a)fluent (b) dare (c)wear (d)few.
35. After (a)black (b)about (c)Last (d)baker
36. Done (a) gone (b) dove (c) born (d) burn\
37. Clerk (a)have (b)back (c)search (d)palm
38. Steak(a)tape (b)stick (c)peak (d)hard

ENGLISH ANSWERS 2019


1. C
21. A
2. D
3. A 22. D
4. C 23.
5. D 24. A
6. A

Page 49
7. B 25. D
8. A 26. B
9. D 27. A
10. B
28. B
11. D
12. A 29. B
13. B 30. A
14. B 31. A
15. C
32. D
16. B
17. C 33. D
18. B 34 A
19. B 35. C
20. C
36. A
37. C
38. B

Page 50
SECTION 2: GENERAL PAPER
1. A-Rattusrattus b-Agamaagama c-Buforegularis d-Tilapia zilli. The order of evolutionary advancement of the
above vertebrates is (a) d, c,b,a.(b)d,b,a,c. (c)c,b,a,d.(d)b,c,d,a.
2. Which of the following is likely to have a higher concentration of mitochondria? (a) white blood cell
(b) egg cell (c) sperm cell (d) red blood cell.
3. Which of these diseases is not caused by virus? (a) Maize rust (b)Rinder pest (c) Newcastle (d) Cassava
mosaic.
4. Metabolic production carried out in the (a) kidney (b)pancreas (c) liver (d) s
5. If a nursing mother ‘L producing enough milk, her hormonal system is probably deficient in (a) Prolactin (b)
Oestrogen (c) Insulin (d)Thyroxine
6. Nervous control differs from hormonal control in that the former (a) is a slower process 1’‘ involves only
chemical reaction (c) produce shortter des (d) has no specific pathway
7. The two key cations involved in the action potential of nervous transmissions are (a) mg2+ (b) Na and Fe2+ (C)
Na and K (d) Na and mg2+
8. A boy who is fond of swimming in a pond finds himself passing urine with traces of blood. He is likely to
•have contacted (a) Onchocerciasis (b) Poliomyelitis (c)Tetanus (d) Schistosomiasis
9. The presence of a large number of mitochondria in a cell indicates that (a)it has little cytoplasmic content (b)
the cell is dormant (c) the cell is very active (d)the respiration is poor
10. If the cerebellum of a person is slightly damaged, which of the following will be impaired? (a) vision (b)
walking (C) digestion (d) breathing
11. Herbs differ from shrubs because they (a) are only perennials (b) useful to herbalists (c) do
not produce fruits (d) do not become woody
12. Which of the following represents the evolutionary sequence in these plants? (i) mango plant (ii) mosses (iii)
spirogyra (iv) ferns (v)whistling pine (a) iii, ii, iv, v and I (b) iii, iv, v, i and ii (C) ii, iv, I, iii and y (d)iv, ii,
iii, v and i
13. By which process does oxygen pass from the alveoli of the lungs into the blood? (a) excretion (b)
osmosis (c) diffusion (d) transpiration
14. The aspects of growth in living organisms include all the following processes. except (a) reversible
increase in size (b) increase in dry weight (c) increase in number of cells (d) irreversible increase in
length
15. Which of these excretory products is not to be found in mammals? (a)carbon dioxide (b) mineral salt
(c) ammonia (d) urea
16. Which of the following organism is a producer (a) yeast (b) fungus (c)rhizopus (d) spirogyra
17. Changes in energy flow. between organisms in a habitat can be represented by p (a) pyramid of biomass
(b)flow chair (c) food web (d) pyramid of energy
18. Important abiotic factors which affect all plants and animals in the habitat are (a) rainfall and relative humidity
(b) temperature and rain fall (c)salinity and relative humidity (d) temperature and turbidity
19. Which of the following factors may not affect living organisms in an aquatic habitat? (a)
light (b)turbidity (c).pH (d)humidity
20. The accepted concept for the theory of Natural selection does not include (a) tendency for organism
to overproduce (b) struggle for existence (c)survival of the fittest (d) use and disuse of body parts
21. Which of the following pair of structure does not perform the similar function (a) lungs and spiracles (b)
root hair and mammalian hairs (c) feathers and scales (d) contractile vacuole and kidney
22. Which of the following is not an evidence of evolution? (a) anatomy (b)genetics (c) behavior (d) fossils

Page 51
23. Find the variance of the numbers K, K÷1, K+2. (a) 2/3 (b) 1 (c) K+1 (d)(K+1)2
24. Find the positive value of x if the standard deviation of the numberl,x+1, 2x+1 is V (a)1 (b)12 (c)3 (d)4
25. If x=7 = M + N what is 3n-4m
(x+3)(x-4) x+3 x-4 (a)7 (b)5 (c)8 (d)6
26. Calculate sin (A+B) if sin A =3/5 and cos B-5/1 3 where both A and B are acute (a) 33/65 (b)48/65 (15/65
(d63165
27. Find tan x given that tan (x+45)=2 (a>4 (b) 1/3 (c)2/3 (d)
28. Express5x-12 impartial fraction (a)_3.— (- (X-2)(X-3) (cjf @).23+.3
29. Evaluate 6(2x +3)dx (a) 18 (b)50 (c) 12 (d)36
30. Find the coordinates of the minimum point for the equation y= 4t2—40t- i- 300 (a)(15, 100) (b)(5 200) (c)(4,
100) (d)(4, 300)
31. 0.0075 mole of Calcium trioxocarbornate (iv) is added to 0.015 mole of a solution of hydrochloric acid. The
volume of gas evolved at s.t.p is (molar volume of gas at stp 22.4dm 3) (a) 224cm3 (b) 168cm3 (c)
112cm3 (d) 1 00cm3
32. What is the general formula of carbohydrates? (a) CH2O (b) C(H2O) (c)C6H1OO5 (d) C6H1206
33. A neutral water molecule (H20) has an electric dipole moment of
6.2 x 1030cm. how far apart the molecule centers of positive and negative charge? (a)4.9pm (b)2.9pm
(c) 3.9pm (d) I .9pm
34. What mass of sodium hydroxide is required to make 500cm3 of 0.2m solution? (Na =23, 0= 16, H=1)
(a)20g (b)10g (c)4g (d)2g.
35. 2NHCl + Ca(OH)2 -_.. 2NH3 + CaCI2 + 2H20. From the equation, calculate the mass of calcium
hydroxide needed to decompose 50g of ammonium (a) 20.00g (b) 34.57g (c) 75.1.Og (d)42. 13g.
36. Calculate the current that must be passed into a solution of chromium (iii) salt for one hour in order to
deposit 1 .2g of Chromium
{Cr= 51} (a) 3.50 amperes (b) 2.30 amperes (c) 1.89 amperes (d) 1.52 amperes
37. Find the angle between P and E when the torque on a dipole is a maximum (a) 180° (b) 90° (c)45° (d) 30° 38.
Choose the correct statement (a) Electric potential is a scalar (b) Electric potential is a vector (c) Electric
potential is neither a scalar noravector (a)a and b (b)b (c)a (d)band
39. An electron in the atmosphere is moved upward through displacement 520cm by an electrostaticforce due
to an electric field
150NIC. Take the charge on the electron to be 1.6 x 1019C. Calculate the work done on the electron.
(a) -1.2 x 10J (b) 1.2 x 10J (c)1.6x1016J (d)-1.6x1015J
40. The full meaning of WWW in internet surfing is (a) wide wide web (b)world wide web (c)wide world
web (d)world web wide
41. Which country has just produced the fastest moving train in the world? (a)USA (b)Germany (c)China
(d)Japan
42. Who was Nigeria’s eighth military ruler? (a) Olusegun Obasanjo (b)Muhammadu Buhari (c)
Abdusalam Abubakar (d) Sanni Abacha.

ANSWERS FOR PUME BIOLOGICAL SCIENCES . 2018


1. A
2. C
The concentration of mitochondrium is highest in sperm cells, since it provide
energy for it to swim
3A

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4. C
The linear deiminate protein into urea, also can metabolized urea, but the kidney excretes it out of the body.
5. A
6. C
7. C
Na+ and K+ are the only ions that causes action potential in nervous transmission.
8A
9.C 20.D 31.C
10.B 21.B 32A
11.D 22.C 33C
12.A 23.D 34.B
13.C 24.A 35.13
14.B 25.C 36.A
15.C 26.D 37.B 16.D
27.B 38.B
17.C 28.B 39.C
18.B 29.B 40B
19.D 30.B 41.C
WORKINGS
24. Y+u+1+2u+ 1 = 6
3r + 3 = 6
3n = 3
n=1 n+7

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(n + 3) (n -4)

m + n n+3 n-4
m(n-4)+n(n+3)=n+7 letn
=4
m(4- 4)+n(4+3)=4.2
7n= 11
n= n=157
7 n2
Let n =3
M(-3- 4)+n(-3+3)-3+7
-7m=4
m=-4 m=2-O.57, 7
:. 3x2(-O.57x4)
6-0-2 mxrn
6+2=8m

26. Calsin(A+B)
SinA=3/5andCosB5/13
Sin (A+ B)
SinAcos B + Sin B cosA
3X5+12X4 15

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5 1313 5 48
15 +48
65 65
=63/65

27. Findtan n giventhattan(x+45)2


Solution
Tan n +tan45= 2
1 -tan ntan45
Tann+1 =2
- tan n x 1

Tann+1 =2-2tann
Tann+2tann=2—1
Tan n = 1
Tan n= 1/3

28. Express 5u-12 in ... solution


(u-2)(u -3)
A+ B
U-2 U-3
A(u -3)+B(u - 2)=5u -12
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Letu=3 V
A(3-3)+B(3 -2)=15 -12
O+B=3
B=3
Also let u
A(2-3)+B(2.-2)=10 -12
A=-2
A=2
Since A=2andB=3
:.2 + 3
U-2 u-3

29. (6
(2u+3)dn
Solution
2n+3n+C x
u2 + 3u + c
Fins
62+3(6)= 12+3(1)
36+18-(1 +3) 54 -4 =
50.

30. Y=4t2-40+300 y=8t-40


dt

dy =8t-40
dt 8(t-5)=0 t=5
Insert
y =4t2-40t+ 300
y=4(52)—4O(5)+300 y=
100—200+300 -100+300
200
:. (5T 200)

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