Manipal UGET Medical 2012 Previous Year Paper With Solutions

anip I
Medical Entrance Exam
Solved Paper 20 2
Physics
1. An ideal monoatomic gas is taken thorough the
theromodynamic states A -> B ~ C -> D via the
paths shown in the figure. If V A, VB, V c and V D
represent the internal energy of the gas in states
A, B, C and D respectively, then which of the
following is not true?
~ 2p
(f)
(f)
fE
a..
----------ACJB-
p ---------DI1
I
1
2T
Temperature _ _
(a) V A =V D
(c) VB =V c
(b) VB < V A
(d)Vc>VD
2. The external diameter of a 314 m long copper

tube is 1.2 cm and the internal diameter is 1 cm.
Calculate its resistance if the specific resistance
of copper is 2.2 x 10-8 n-m
(a) 5.0 x 10-2 n
(b) 4.4 x 10-2 n
(c) 3.14 x 10-2
(d) 2.2 x 10-2 n
3. A voltmeter of range 2 V and resistance 300 n

cannot be converted into ammeter of range
(a) 1 A
(b) 1 rnA
(c) 100 rnA
(d) 10 rnA
4. If a magnet is suspended at an angle 30 to the
magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes angle
of 45 with the horizontal. The real dip is
(a) tan- 1 (.)312)
(b) tan- 1 (.)3)
(c) tan- 1 (3/.J2)
(d) tan- 1 (21.)3)
5. Which quantity is increased in step-down

transformer?
(a) Current
(b) Voltage
(c) Power
(d) Frequency
6. Beyond which frequency, the ionosphere bends
any incident electromagnetic radiation but do
not reflect it back towards the earth?
(b) 40 MHz
(a) 50 MHz
(c) 30 MHz
(d) 20 MHz
7. In intrinsic semiconductor at room temperature
number of electrons and holes are
(a) equal
(b) zero
Cd) infinite
(c) unequal
8. What should be the velocity of an electron so
that its momentum becomes equal to that of a
photon of wavelength 5200 A?
(a) 700 mls
(b) 1000 m/s
(c) 1400 mls
(d) 2800 mls
9. A radioactive element has half-life period of
600 yr. After 3000 yr, what amount will remain?
(a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
2.
16
2.
32
10. An electric motor runs on DC source of emf

200 V and draws a current of 10 A. If the
efficiency be 40%, then the resistance of
armature is
(a) 2n
(b) 8n
(c) 12 n
(d) 16n
11. A capacitor having capacity of 2.0 /-IF is charged
to 200 Vand then the plates of the capacitor are
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Solved Paper 2012
connected to a resistance wire. The heat

produced in joule will be
(a) 2 x 10-2
(b) 4 x 10-2
(c) 4 x 10 4
Cd) 4 x 1010
12. In the Wheatstone's network given, P := 100,

Q = 200, R = 150, S:= 300, the current
passing through the battery (of negligible
internal resistance) is
16. The potential of a large liquid drop when eight

liquid drops are combined is 20 V. Then, the
potential of each single drop was
Ca) 10 V
Cb) 7.5 V
Cc) 5 V
Cd) 2.5 V
17. Water lises in plant fibres due to

Ca) capillarity
(c) fluid pressure
(b) viscosity
Cd) osmosis
18. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the

pressure is found to be inversely proportional to
the fourth power of the volume. Then, the ratio
of specific heats is
(a) 1
(b) 1.33
(c) 1.67
Cd) 1.4
19. The volume of a nucleus is directly proportional

to
(a) A
-=t1 f-I_---..J
6V
(b) zero
(d) 0.72 A
(a) 0.36 A
Cc) 0.18 A
13. Two tangent galvanometers A and B have coils

of radii 8 cm and 16 cm respectively and
resistance 8
each. They are connected in
parallel with a cell of emf 4 V and negligible
internal ressistance. The deflections produced
in the tangent galvanometers A and Bare 30
and 60 respectively. If A has 2 turns, then B
must have
(a) 18 turns
(b) 12 turns
(c) 6 turns
Cd) 2. turns
14. A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic

wire of cross-sectional area 4 x 10-. 6 m 2. If the
density of charge carriers of the wire is
26
5 x 10
m- 3 , the drift velocity of the electrons
will be
Cb) 1.56 x 10-2 ms- 1
(a) 1 x 10 2 ms- 1
(c) 1.56 x 10-3 ms- 1
Cd) 1 x 10-- 2 ms- 1
15. A single slit Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is

formed with white light. For what wavelength
of light, the third secondary maximum in the
diffraction pattern coincides with the second
secondary maximum in the pattern for red light
of wavelength 6500 A7
(a) 4400 A
(b) 4100 A
(c) 4642.8 A
Cel) 9100 A
(c)
-fA
(where, A := mass number of the nucleus)

20. A Carnot's engine has an efficiency of 50% at
sink temperature 50C. Cillculate the
temperature of source.
(a) 133C
(b) 143C
(c) 100"C
Cd) 373C
21. What is the Q-value of the reaction?
p + 7Li __> 4He + 4He
The atomic masses of 1 I-~ 4 He and 7 Li are

1.0078254u, 4.0026034u and 7.016004u
respectively
(a) 17.35 MeV
(b) 18.06 MeV
(c) 177.35 MeV
Cd) 170.35 MeV
22. The water of volume 4 m3 at the height 20 m is
pressed by 2 x lOs N pressure. The work done by
motor is
(b) 16 x lOS J
(a) 8 x10 s J
(c) 12x10 s J
(d) 32xl0 5 J
23. The wavelength of Ko. line in copper is 1.5 A.

The ionisation energy of K electron in copper is
(a) 11.2 x 10. 17 J
(b) 12.9 x 10- 16 .J
(c) 1.7 xlO-IS.J
(d) 10 xl0- 16 .J
24. A proton is moving in a uniform magnetic field B

in a circular path of radius a in a direction
perpendiCUlar to Z axis along which tleld B
exists. Calculate the angular momentum. If the
radius is a and charge on proton is c.

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(a)
Be
2"
a
(c) a2eB
Cd) aeB
25. Curie-Weiss law is obeyed by iron

(a) at curie temperature only
(b) at all temperatures
(c) below curie temperature
(d) above curie temperature
26. When light is incidence on a diffraction grating,

then the zero order maximum will be
(a) spectrum of the colours
(b) white
(c) one of the component colours
(d) absent
27. The wavelength of first line of Balmer series is
6563 A. The wavelength of first line of Lymen
series will be
(a) 1215.4 A
(b) 2500 A
(c) 7500 A
(d) 600 A
28. The reactance of inductance at 10 4 Hz is 10 4 n.
Its reactance at 2 x 10 4 Hz will be
(a) 104 n
(c) 3
x 10 4
(b) 2x10 4 n
(d) 4 x 10 4 n
29. In adiabatic process, the work done by system is

50 J, then
(a) the temperature of the system will be
increase 50 J
(b) the temperature of the system will be
constant
(c) the internal energy of the system will be
increase 50 J
(d) the internal energy of the system will be
decrease 50 J
30. The ozone layer is important because
(a) it prevents the cooling of each at night
(b) it prevents the IR rays coming from the
space
(c) it prevents UV rays from the meteors
coming from the space
(d) it prevents the UV rays and micro rays the
coming from the space
31. If resonant frequency is f and capacity become
4 times, then resonant frequency will be
(a)
(b) 2f
(c)
(d)
1
4
Solved Paper 2012
I3
32. If two soap bubbles of different radii are

connected by a tube, then
(a) air flow from bigger bubble to the smaller
bubble till sizes become equal
(b) air flow from bigger bubble to the smaller
bubble till sizes are interchanged
(c) air flow from smaller bubble to bigger
(d) there is no flow of air
33. The hardness of X-rays by coolidge tube
depends upon
(a) filament current
(b) air pressure in tube
(c) material of target
Cd) potential between target and cathode
34. A launching vehicle carrying an artificial
satellite of mass m is set for launch on the
surface of the earth of mass M and radius R. If
the satellite is intended to move in a circular
orbit of radius 7R, the minimum energy
requirlOcl to be spent by the launching vehicle on
the satellite is
(Gravitational constant = G)
(a) GMm
R
(c)
CiMn!.
7R
13GMm
(b) -,--,--
14R
(d) GMm
l4R
35. The displacements of two particles of same mass

executing SHM are represented by the
equations
Xl
= 4 Sin( lOt + -~) and x2 = Scos(wt).
The value of (0 for which the energies of both the

particles remain same is
(a) 16 unit
(b) 6 unit
(c) 4 unit
(d) 8 unit
36. The excess pressure inside a spherical soap
bubble of radius 1 cm is balanced by a column
of oil (specific gravity = 0.8), 2 mm high, the
surface tension of the bubble is
(a) 3.92 N/m
(b) 0.0392 N/m
(c) 0.392 N/m
(d) 0.00392 N/m
37. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards

with initial velocity 4 ms- 1. The cross-sectional
area of the tap is A. The flow is steady and
pressure is constant throughout the stream of
water. The distance h vertically below the tap,

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Solved Paper 2012
where the cross-sectional area of the stream

becomes (~) A, is (g == 10 m/s2)
(a) 0.5 m
(b) 1 m
(c) 1.5 m
(d) 2.2 m
38. The diameter of objective of a telescope is 1m.

Its resolving limit for the light of wavelength
4538 A, will be
(a) 5.54 x 10- 7 rad
(b) 2.54 x 10-4 rad
v
(a) -
(c) 6.54 x 10-7 rad

(d) None of the above
39. The potential difference between two parallel
plates is 10 4 V. If the plates are separated by
0.5 cm, the force on an electron between the
plates is
(a) 32 x 10- 13 N
(b) 0.32 x 10- 13 N
(c) 0.032 X 10-13 N
(d) 3.2 x 10- 13 N
40. A body of mass '19. '" 4 kg moves at Sf mls and

another body of mass m2 == 2 kg moves at
lOi m/s.The kinetic energy of centre of mass is
(a) 300 J
(b) 500 J
3
(c) 400 J
3
(d) ~OO J
3
41. Two block of masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are

connected by a metal wire going over a smooth
pulley. The breaking stress of metal is
~~ x 10 6 N/m2 . What should be the minimum

311:
radius of wire used if it should not break?
(g==10m/s 2 ).
(a) 0.5 mm
(c) 1.5 mm
44. The path difference, time difference and phase

difference between two successive zones will be
'A T
(a) -, - and 11:
(b) 'A, T and n
2 2
'A T
11:
'A T
(c) - - and(d) -, - and 2n
2' 2
2
2 2
45. At what speed should a source of sound move so
that stationary observer finds the apparent
frequency equal to half of the original
frequency?
(b) 1 mm
(d) 2 mm
42. In the Young's double slit experiment,

intensities of black and bright fringes are 1 and
4 respectively, the ratio of amplitudes of sources
will be
(a) 1:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 3: 1
(d) 1: 4
43. If inductance and resistance of chocke coil are
XL and R respectively, then
(b) XL R
(a) XI. ==R
(c) XLR
(d) X L ",=
2
(c) v
4
(b) 2v
(d) v
46. At inductance 1 H is connected in series with an

AC source of 220 V and 50 Hz. The inductive
resistance (in ohm) is
(a) 211:
(b) SOn
(c) lOOn
(d) 1000n
47. If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a

closed vessel is increased by 0.4%, the increases
in temperature is 1C. The initial temperature of
the gas is
(a) 25C
(b) 250C
(c) 250 K
(d) 2500C
48. If a van der Waal's gas expands freely, then final
temperature is
(a) less than the initial temperature
(b) equal to the initial temperature
(c) more than the initial temperature
(d) less or more than the initial temperature
depending on the nature of the gas
49. The de-Broglie wavelength of a proton
(charge == 1.6 x 10- 19 C,mass
'" 1.6 x 10-27 kg) accelerated through
potential difference of 1 kV is
(a) 600 A
(b) 0.9 x 10-12 m
(c) 7 A
(d) 0.9 nm
50. A radioactive element forms its own isotope

after 3 consecutive disintegrations. The
particles emitted as
(a) 3p-particles
(b) 2P -particles and 1 a.-particle
(c) 2p-particles and 1 y-particle
(d) 2a.-particles and 1 p-particle

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51. A step-down transformer reduces the voltage of
a transmission line from 2200 V to 220 V. The
power delivered by it is 880 Wand its efficiency
is 88%. The input current is
(a) 4.65 rnA
(b) 0.045 A
(c) 0.45 A
(d) 4.65 A
52. If Al and A2 are the wavelengths of the first
members of the Lyman and Paschen series
respectively, then "I : A2 is
(a) 1: 3
(b) 1: 30
(c) 7: 50
(d) 7: 108
53. Identify the operation performed by the circuit
given below
A---d~'\ A
~,/~_
i~y
,L//
S'-.'~
Bo---C=:L/
(a) NOT
(c) OR
(b) AND
(d) NAND
54. In a transistor, the collector current is always

less than the emitter current because
(a) collector side is reverse biased and the
emitter side is forward biased
(b) a few electrons are lost in the base and only
remaining ones reach the collector
(c) collector being reverse biased, attracts less
electrons
(d) collector side is forward biased and emitter
side is reverse biased
55. A rectangular vessel when full of water, takes

10 min to be emptied through an orifice in its
bottom. How much time will it take to be
emptied when half filled with water?
(a) 9 min
(c) 5 min
Solved Paper 2012
Is
(b) 7 min
(d) 3 min
56. The term liquid crystal refers to a state that is

intermediate between
(a) clystalline solid and amorphous liquid
(b) crystalline solid and vapour
(c) amorphous liqUid and its vapour
(d) a crystal immersed in a liquid
57. A wave travelling in air falls on a glass plate. It is

partly reflected and partly refracted. The phase
difference between the reflected and refracted
waves is
(a) zero
(b)
IT
(c)
(d)
2IT
IT
58. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of

intensities f and 4f are superposed. The
maximum and' minimum possible resulting
intensities are
(a) Sf and 0
(b) Sf and 3f
(c) 9f and f
(d) 9f and 31
59. The light of wavelength 5000 'A falls on a

photosensitive plate of work function 1.9 eV.
The
kinetic energy of the
emitted
photoelectrons is
(a) 0.58 eV
(b) 2.48 eV
(c) 1.24 eV
(d) 1.18 eV
60. A galvanometer can be converted into a
voltmeter by connecting
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) low resistance in series
(c) high resistance in parallel
(d) high resistance in series
Chemistry
1. Benzaldehyde condenses with N,N-dimethyl
aniline in the presence of anhydrousZnC1 2 to give
(a) azodye
(b) malachite green
(c) buffer yellow
(d) None of these
2. The general formula C nH 21P 2 could be for open

chain
(a) diketones
(c) diols
(b) carboxylic acids

(d) dialdehydes
3. Which of the following is used widely in the

manufacture of lead storage battery?
(a) Arsenic
(b) Lithium
(c) Bismuth
(d) Antimony

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Solved Paper 2012
4. On passing 3A of electricity for 50 min 1.8 g

metal deposits. The equivalent mass of metal is
(a) 9.3
(b) 19.3
(c) 38.3
(d) 39.5
12. The number of sodium atoms in 2 moles of

sodium ferrocynanide is
(a) 12 x 10 23
(b) 26 x 1023
(c) 34 xI 0 23
(d) 48 x 10 23
5. Saturated solution of KNO 3 is used to make salt

bridge because
(a) velocity of K+ is greater than that of N0 3
13. Which of the following statement in relation to

the hydrogen atom is correct?
(a) 3s, 3p and 3d orbitals all have the same
energy.
(b) 3$ and 3p-orbitals are of lower energy than
3d-orbital.
(c) 3p-orbital is lower in energy than 3d-orbital.
(d) J.,-orbital is lower in energy than3p-orbital.
(b) velocity of N0 3 is greater than that of K'

(c) velocity of both K+ and N0 3 are nearly
same
(d) KN0 3 is soluble in water
6. For which order half-life period is independent
of initial concentration?
(a) Zero
(b) First
(c) Second
(d) Third
14. Which of the following is not tetrahedral?

(a) BF4
Cb) NH;;
(c) C01-
(d) SO~-
7. Sodium phenoxide reacts with CO 2 at 400 K and

4-7 atm pressure to give .
(b) . salicylaldehyde
(a) cathechol
(c) salicylic acid
(d) sodium salicylate
15. Considering x-axis as the internuclear axis,

which out of the following will not form a sigma
bond.
(a) Is and Is
(b) Is and 2px
(c) 2py and 2py
Cd) Is and 2s
8. The rate constant for the first order reaction is

60 s--1. How much time will it take to reduce the
16. The chlorination of methane is an example of

(a) addition
(b) elimination
(c) substitution
(d) chain reaction
concentration of the reactant to ~th value?

16
(b) 4.6 x 10 4 s
(a) 4.6 x 10-2 S
(d) 4.6 x 10-4 s
(c) 4.6 x 10 2 s
9. The rate of reaction

CCl 3 CHO + NO ---7 CHCl 3 + NO + CO
is equal to rate == k[CCI 3 CI-IO][NO]. If
concentration is expressed in mol L- l , the unit
of k is
(a) L mor-ls l
(b) mol 1;-1 s-1
(c) L2 mor- 2 s-1
(d) s--1
10. When phenolic ether is heated with HI it yields

(a) alkyl halide + aryl halide + water
(b) alkyl halide -I- phenol
(c) alcohol + aryl halide
(d) None of the above
11. Which of the following is not correct?
(a) Milk is naturally occurring emulsion
(b) Gold sol is a lyophilic sol
(c) Physical adsorption decreases with rise in
temperature
(d) Chemical adsorption is unilayered.
17. Reactivity towards nucleophilic addition

reaction of (I) HCHO (II) CH:P-IO (III)
CH3COCH3 is
(a) II> III> I
(b) III> II> I
(c) I> II> III
Cd) 1> II <III
18. Which of the following is active species in
sulphonatiol1 of benzene?
(a) S03
(b) S03
Cc) S03
CeI) HS04:
19. Which of the following can't be used in

Friedel-Craft's reaction?
(a) FeCI 3
(b) FeBr2
(c) AlCl 3
(d) NaCl
20. The order of reactivities of methyl halide in the
formation of Grignard reagent is
(a) CH 3Cl> CH 3Br > CH31
(b) CH3I> CH3Br> CH 3CI
(c) CH3Br> CH3I > CH 3CI
(d) CH3Br> CH 3Cl > CH3I
21. The product formed when toluene is heated in
light with Cl 2 and in absence of halogen carrier is
(a) chlorobenzene
(b) gammexene
(c) benzotrichloride
Cel) DDT

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22. If the pressure on a NaCI structure is increased,
then its coordination number will
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) remain the same
23. If the bond dissociation energies of XY, X 2 and
Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of
1 : 1 : 0.5 and !lH f for the formation of XY is
-200 kJ mol-I, the bond dissociation energy of
X 2 will be
(a) 400 kJ mor- 1
(b) 300 kJ mol- 1
(c) 200 kJ mol- 1
(d) 800 kJ mol- 1
24. The enthalpies of all the elements in their

standard states are
(a) unity
(b) zero
(c) < 0
(d) different for each element
25. A reaction, A
-I-
----7
-I-
D -I- q is found to
have a positive entropy change. The reaction

will be
(a) possible at high temperature
(b) possible only at low temperature
(c) not possible at any temperature
Cd) possible at any temperature
26. Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to CO 2 is
393.5 IeJ mol-I. The heat released upon
formation of 35.2 g of CO 2 from carbon and
is
(molar
mass
of
dioxygen
gas
CO 2 = 44 g mol-I)
(a) 3.148 kJ
(c) 314.810
(b) 31.48 kJ
(d) 3148 kJ
27. Work done during isothermal expansion of one
mole of an ideal gas from 10 atm to 1 atm at
300 K is
(a) 4938.8 J
(b) 4138.8 J
(c) 5744.1 J
(d) 6257.2 J
28. Which of the follovving is not a conjugate
acid-base pair?
(a) I-IPO~-, P01(b) H 2P0 4, HPO~
(c) H 2P0 4, HS P0 4
(d) HZP0 4, PO~-
Solved Paper 2012
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
I&7
(b) (ii), (iii),,(iv)

(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iii), (iv)
30. A litre of solution is saturated with AgCI. To this

solution if 1.0 x 10-4 mole of solid NaCl is
added, what will be the [Ag+] assuming no

volume change?
(a) More
(b) Less
(d) Zero
(c) Equal
31. Aqueous solution of sodium cyanide is
(a) acidic
(b) amphoteric
(c) basic
(d) neutral
32.. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
S03(g)
is KG == 4.9
S02(g)
-I-~ 02(g)
2
10-2. The value of Kc for the
reaction
2S0 2 (g)
+ 02(g)
~ 2S0 3 (g)
will be
(a) 416
Cb) 2.40 x 10- 3
(c) 9.8 x 1Q:-2
Cd) 4.9 x 10-2
33. In the reaction,

Agj) + Hj)2 - 1 2Ag -I- Hj) -I- 02
Hj)2 acts as
(a) a reducing agent (b) oxidising agent
(c) bleaching agent
(d) None of these
34. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other
they unites to form one cube. Which of the
following forces are responsible to hold them
together?
(a) Ionic interaction
(b) van del' Waal's forces
(c) Covalent interaction
(el) Hydrogen bond formation
35. Red lead is
(a) PbC0 3
(c) PbO z
36. Which gas

hydrolysed?
(a) CH 4
(c) C 2H 6
(b) Pb 30 4
is
Cd) PbS0 4
liberated when At[C 3
(b) C 2H z
(d) CO 2
is
29. Which of the following will not function as a

3'7. When zeolite which is hydrated sodium
buffer solution?
aluminium silicate is treated with hard water,
(i) NaCI and NaOH
the
sodium ions are exchanged with
(ij) NaOH and NH 4 0H
(a)
H+ ions
(iii) CH 3 COONH 4 and HCI
(b) Mg2+ ions
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Solved Paper 2012
(c) Ca 2+ ions
(d) both Ca 2+ and Mg2+
38. A codon has a sequence of A and specifies a

particular B that is to be incorporated in to C
What are A, B, C?
ABC
(a) 3 bases amino acid
carbohydrate
(b) 3 acids carbohydrate protein
(c) 3 bases protein
amino acid
(d) 3 bases amino acid
protein
39. Proteins when heated with conc. HN0 3 give a

yellow colour. This is
(b) acid base test
(a) Hoppe's test
(d) xanthoprotic test
(c) Biuret test
40. Codon is present in
(a) t-RNA
(c) fats
(b) m-RNA
(d) r-RNA
41. Amylopectin is a polymer of
(a) CI.-D glucose

(c) lactose
(b) CI.-D fructose

(d) amylose
42. Which one of the following statements is

wrong?
(a) The repeating monomer units in bakelite
are phenol and formaldehyde
(b) Low density polythene is an example of
branched chain polymers
(c) Homopolymer contains a single type of
monomer.
(d) Vulcanization is the process of heating
natural rubber with carbon
43. Parkinson's disease is linked to abnormalities in
the levels of dopamine in the body. The
structure of dopamine is
(,)
~~H
OH
(b)
~~~~'NH2
OH
~ t~OOH
~OH
OH
Cd)
~~~H2
OH
44. Which of the following is a natural dye?

(a) Alizarin
(b) Malachite green
Cd) Martius yellow
(c) Phenolphthalein
45. Mn 2+ can be converted into Mn 7 + by reacting
with
(a) Pb0 2
(b) SnC1 2
(d) Cl 2
(c) S02
46. Which of the following compounds show optical
isomerism?
(a) [Co(CN)6]3(b) [Cr(Cz0 4 h]3(c) [ZnCl 4]2-
(d) [CuCNH 3 )4]2+
47. Which of the following represents a chelating

ligand?
(a) HzO
(b) Cl(c)
ow
(d) DMG
48. When alkyl halide is heated with dry AgzO, it

produces
(a) ester
(b) ether
(c) ketone
Cd) alcohol
49. The best reagent to convert pent-3-en-2-ol into
pent-3-en-2-one is
(a) pyridinium chlorochromate
(b) chromic anhydride in glacial acetic acid
(c) acidic dichromate
(d) acidic permanganate
50. During the process of electrolytic refining of
copper, some metals present as impurity settle
as "anode mud". These are
(a) Fe and Ni
(b) Ag and Au
(c) Pb and Z11
Cd) Se and Ag

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51. Which of the following is not a peroxy acid?

(a) Perphosphoric acid
(b) Pernitric acid
(c) Perdisulphuric acid
(d) Perchloric acid
52. Chlorine is liberated when we heat
(a) KMn04 + NaCI
(b) Pb 2(N0 3 )4 + Mn02
(c) KzCrz07 + Mn02
(d) K2Crz07 + HCI
53. In which case Raoult's law is not applicable?
(b) 1 M urea
(a) 1 M NaCI
(d) 1 M sucrose
(c) 1 M glucose
54. Increasing the temperature of an aqueous
solution will cause
(a) decrease in molarity
(b) decrease in molality
(c) decrease in mole fraction
(d) decrease in % w/w
55. To neutralize completely 20 mL of 0.1 M

aqueous solution of phosphorus acid (H 3P0 3 ),
the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH solution
required is
(a) 20 mL
(b) 30 mL
(c) 40 mL
(d) 50 mL
56. 138 g of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 72 g of
water. The ratio of mole fraction of alcohol to
water is
Solved Paper 2012
(b) 1: 2
(d) 1: 1
(a) 3: 4
(c) 1: 4
LiAlH4
----'-';>
A + CH 3COOH
H 0+
~ B+HzO
In the above reactions A and B respectively are
(a) CH3COOC 2Hs, C 2HsOH
(b) CH3CHO, C2HsOH
(c) C 2HsOH, CH 3CHO
(d) C2HsOH, CH 3 COOC 2Hs
58. Acetyl bromide reacts with excess of CH3Mg1
followed by treatment with a saturated solution
of NH 4CI gives
(a) acetone
(b) acetamide
(c) 2-methyl-2-propanol
(d) acetyl iodide
59. Reaction of aniline with acetyl chloride in the
presence of NaOH gives
(a) acetanilide
(b) p-chloroaniline
(c) red dye
(d) aniline hydrochloride
60. Which of the following is a biodegradable
polymer?
(a) Polythene
(b) Bakelite
(c) PHBV
Cd) PVC
Biology
1. Striped muscles are
(a) syncytial
(c) binucleate
(b) uninucleate
(d) anucleate
(c) proto nephridia

(d) Malpighian tubules
4. Which of the following structure is related with

vision in rabbits?
2. Regarding blood circulation, it may be said that
(a) Hippocampus
in Pheretima the dorsal vessel is a
(a) collecting vessel in first two segments and
(b) Corpus albicans
distributing vessel in other
(c) Corpus callosum
(b) distributing vessel in the first five segments
(d) Corpora quadrigemina
and collecting vessel in other
5. Which of the following cells are useful for
(c) collecting vessel in thirteen segments and
feeding in sponges?
distributing vessel in intestinal region
(a) Thesocytes
(b) Collar cells
(d) distributing vessel in first thirteen segments
(c) Pinacocytes
(d) Sclerocytes
and collecting vessel in intestinal region
6. The methods of dispersal in Amoeba is
3. Flatworms excrete through
(a) locomotion
(b) sporulation
(a) kidney
(c)
encystment
(d)
binary fission
(b) nephridia
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10 i
Manipal (Med.)
Solved Paper 2012
7. Which of the following factors has little effect on

blood flow in arteries?
(a) Heart beat
(c) Blood pressure
(c) Skeletal muscle contraction
(d) Total cross sectional area of vessel
8. Telomerase is an enzyme, which is

(a) repetitive DNA
(b) RNA
(c) simple protein
(d) ribonucleoprotein
9. Synapsis occur between
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
a male and female gamete

mRNA and ribosomes
spindle fibres and centromere
two homologous chromosomes
10. What is not true for genetic code?

(a) A codon in mRNA is read
non-contiguous fashion
(b) It is nearly universal
(c) It is degenerate
(el) It is non-ambiguous
in
11. A sequential expression of set of human gene

occurs when steroid molecule binds to the
(b) Messenger RNA
(a) transfer RNA
(c) DNA sequence
(d) ribosome
12. Sidde cell anaemia is
(a) an autosomallinkecl dominant trait
(b) caused by substitution of valine by glutamic
acid in the f)-globin chain of haemoglobin
(c) caused by a change in base pair of DNA
(d) characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs
with a nucleus
13. A common test to find the genotype of a

hybrid is
(a) crossing of one F2 progeny with male parent
(b) crossing of one Fz progeny with female
parent
(c) studying the sexual behaviour of Ii
progenies
(d) crossing of one [i. progeny with recessive
parent
14. Phenetic classification is based on
(a) sexual characteristics
(b) the ancestral lineage of existing organisms
(c) observable characteristics of existing
organisms
(d) denelogram based on DNA characteristics
15. What is true for individuals of same species?

(a) Live in same niche
(b) Live in same habitat
(c) Interbreeding
(d) Live in different habitat
16. For retting of jute the fermenting microbe used
is
(a) methophillic bacteria
(b) butyric acid bacteria
(c) Helicobacter pylori
Cd) Streptococcus lactis
17. Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between

tRNA and mRNA during bacterial protein
synthesis?
(a) Neomycin
(b) Streptomycin
(c) Tetracycline
Cd) Erythromycin
18. Earthworms have no skeleton but during
burrowing, the anterior end becomes turgid and
acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to
(a) coelomic fluid
(b) blood
Cd) setae
(c) gut peristalsis
19. Senescence as an active developmental cellular
process in the growth and functioning of a
flowering plant, is indicated in
(a) leaf abscission
(b) annual plants
(c) floral parts
(d) All of the above
20. Glycolate induces opening of stomata in
(a) presence of oxygen
(b) low CO 2 concentration
(c) high CO 2 concentration
(d) absence ofCO z
21. Which one occurs both eluring cyclic and
non-cyclic modes of photophosphorylation?
(a) Involvement of both PS-I and PS-II
(b) Formation of ATP
(c) Release of O 2
Cd) Formation of NADPH
22. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve
tube members is supported by
(a) P-proteins
(b) mass flow involving a carrier and ATP
(c) cytoplasmic streaming
Cd) root pressure and transpiration pull

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23. The overall goal of glycolysis, Krebs' cycle and
the electron transport system is the formation of
(a) ATP in small stepwise units
(b) ATP in one large oxidation reaction
(c) sugars
(d) nucleic acids
24. Tendons or ligaments are
(a) connective tissue (b) vascular tissue
(c) epithelial tissue
(d) skeletal tissue
25. DaJwin's finches represent
(a) morphological variation
(b) geographical isolation
(c) climatic variation
(d) reproductive isolation
26. Territoriality occurs as a result of
(a) predation
(b) parasitism
(c) symbiotism
(d) competition
27. The type of joint between humerus and radius
bone is called
(a) gliding joint
(b) saddle joint
(c) pivot joint
(d) hinge joint
28. The nucleus is separated from surrounding
cytoplasm by a nuclear membrane, which is
(a) single layered with pores
(b) single layered without pores
(c) double layered with pores
Cd) double layered without pores
29. In mammals, histamine is secreted by

(a) fibroblasts
(b) histiocytes
(c) lymphocytes
(d) mast cells
30. Species is a
(a) group immediately below a phylum
(b) closely related interbreeding population
(c) taxonomic division of similar genera
(d) closely related non-breeding population
31. The use of DDT is banned now-a-days because it
is
(a) very costly
(b) not available
(c) inflammable
(d) not degraded easily
Solved Paper 2012
11
33. In which of the following there is no defect in

the sex chromosome?
(a) Turner's syndrome
(b) Down's syndrome
(c) Colour blindness
Cd) Klinefelter's syndrome
34. When a cell is fully turgid, which of the
following will be zero?
(a) Wall pressure
(b) Osmotic pressure
(c) Turgor pressure
(d) Water potential
35. Embryo development from nucellus and
integument is lmown as
(a) apospOly
(b) apogamy
(c) apomixis
Cd) adventive embryol1Y
36. Acid rain is due to increase in atmospheric
concentration of
(a) Ozone
(b) CO 2 and CO
(c) S03 and CO
(d) S02 and nitrogen oxide
37. Which of the given is a long day plant?
(b) Spinach
(a) Glycine max
(c) C!lIysanthemum
Cd) Tobacco
38. Life span of A.scaris is
(a) 3 to 6 months
(c) 1 year
(b) 9 to 12 months
(d) 2 to 5 months
39. Which of the following is false fruit?

(b) Apple
(a) Mango
Cd) Jack fruit
(c) Banana
40. FAD acts as an e- acceptor in between
(a) fumaric and malic acid
(b) succinic and fumaric acid
(c) malic and oxaloacetic acid
Cd) citric and isocitric acid
41. Pigment iodopsin is contained in
(a) rod cells
(b) cone cells
(c) anacrine cells
(d) horizontal cells
32. Which of the following represents Klinefelter's

syndrome?
42. Sexual dimorphism is absent in
(a) XX
(b) XO
(a) Ascomycetes
(b) Deuteromycetes
Educational Services Pvt. Ltd
(c) XY
Cd) TransWeb
XXY
(c) Basidiomycetes
(d) Phycomycetes
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121 Manipal (Med.)
Solved Paper 2012
43. Botanical name of peat moss is

(a) Sphagnum
(b) Funaria
(c) Anthoceros
(d) Polytrichum
44. The flowers of OxaZis open during the day and
close at night. Such type of movement is
(a) photonasty
(b) nyctinasty
(c) phototropic
(d) seismonastic
45. Silent valley is tropical evergreen forest located
in
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(d) Odisha
(c) Maharashtra
46. Vitamin-C was first vitamin to be produced by

fermentation process using
(a) Penicillium
(b) E. coli
(c) Yersenia pestis
(d) Acetobactor
47. The functional unit of DNA molecule that codes
for particular gene product is
(a) cistron
(b) exon
(c) intron
(d) gene
48. Total number of biodiversity hot spots in the
world are
(a) 24
(b) 12
(c) 34
(d) 52
49. Which of the following is exotic species?
(a) Parthenium
(b) Lantana
(c) Eichhornia
(d) All of these
50. In transgenics, expression of trans gene in target
tissue is determined by
(a) enhancer
(b) transgene
(c) promotor
(d) reporter gene
51. When CO 2 concentration in blood increases,
breathing becomes
(a) shallower and slow
(b) there is no net effect on breathing
(c) slow and deep
(d) faster and deeper
52. Cancer cells can easily be damaged by radiation
than normal cells because they are
(a) starved on mutation
(b) undergoing rapid division
(c) different in structure
(d) non-dividing
53. Which of the following is not correctly

matched?
(a) Glossina pa/palis - Sleeping sickness
(b) Culex
- Filariasis
(c) Aedes aegypti
- Yellow fever
(d) Anopheles culifacies - Leishmaniasis
54. A free living nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium

which can also form symbiotic association with
the aquatic fern Azolla is
(a) Tolypothrix
(b) Chlorella
(c) Nostoc
Cd) Anabaena
55. Which of the follo~ing hormones is not a
secretion product of human placenta?
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) Prolactin
(c) Oestrogen
(d) Progesterone
56. The fangs of python which pulled out can

(a) not come again
(b) come again with half the length
(c) come again with same length
(d) come again with double length
57. The wings of bat, locust and pigeon are the
examples of
(a) vestigial organs
(b) analogous organs
(c) homologous organs
(d) exoskeletal structures
58. Heart lacks sinus venosus in
(a) fishes
(b) mammals
(c) amphibians
(d) echinoderms
59. Krebs' cycle takes place in
(a) cytoplasm
(b) chloroplast
(c) nucleus
(d) mitochondria
60. In which of the following plants, leaf apex
changes into tendril?
(a) Gloriosa
(b) smilax
(c) Pisum sativum
(d) Australian Acacia

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61. The plants having vascular tissue but lacking
seeds are placed under
(a) algae
(b) bryophytes
(c) pteridophytes
(d) gymnosperms
62. The rate of transpiration in plants is dependent
upon
(a) temperature and soil
(b) light and temperature
(c) wind, temperature and light
(d) light, temperature, atmospheric humidity
and wind
63. A plant hormone used for inducing
morphogenesis in plant tissue culture is
(a) ethylene
(b) gibberellin
(c) cytokinin
(d) abscisic acid
64. Which of the following minerals helps in N2
fixation?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Manganese
(d) Molybdenum
65. What is the similarity between fly, mosquitoes
and cockroach?
(a) All have 13 chambered heart
(b) All have 4 pairs of legs
(c) All have closed circulatory system
(d) All belong to class-Insecta
66. Protein present in cartilage is
(a) chondrin
(b) oesein
(c) cartilagin
(d) ossein
67. Insectivorous plants usually survive in
(a) water rich soil
(b) N2 deficient soil
(c) N2 rich soil
(d) sugar deficient medium
68. Spore of Funaria, on germination gives rise to
(a) protonema
(b) embryo
(c) antheridia
(d) archegonia
69. The function of a vessel is
(a) conduction of food
(b) conduction of water and minerals
(c) conduction of hormones
(d) All of the above
70. Multiplication of DNA is called
(a) translation
(b) replication
Solved Paper 2012
113
(c) duplication
(d) transcription
71. The pigment sensitive for red and far red light is
(a) chlorophyll
(b) phytochrome
(c) cytochrome
(d) carotene
72. Lemon is sour due to the presence of
(a) acetic acid
(b) carbonic acid
(c) citric acid
(d) sulphuric acid
73. The type of vertebrae in the sub order Ophidia is
(a) acoelous
(b) procoelous
Cc) heterocoelous
(d) amphicoelous
74. Removal of anthers at the time of plant breeding

is called
(a) emasculation
(b) antherris
Cc) pollination
(d) fertilization
75. Haemoglobin is a
(a) protein
(b) fibrous protein
(c) globular protein
Cd) enzyme
76. LPP-1 is a
Ca) bacterium
(c) bacteriophage
77. Hormogonia are
structures of
Ca) Ulothrix
(c) Spirogyra
Cb) fungus
Cd) cyanophage
vegetative reproductive
Cb) Oscillatoria
Cd) Cham
78. Evolutionary history of an organisms is known

as
(a) Phylogeny
(b) Ancestry
(c) Palaeontology
(d) Ontogeny
79. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary

hormone known as
(a) FSH
(b) GH
(c) prolactin
Cd) LH
80. In which of the following fruits, the edible part
is the aril?
(a) Apple
Cb) Pomegranate
(d) Litchi
(c) Orange

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141
Manipal (Med.)
Solved Paper 2012
English
Directions (0. Nos. 1-5) In the following questions
some of the sentences have errors and some have none.
Find out which part of the sentence has. an error. The
letter of that part is your answer. If there is no en'or, the
answer is (d).
1. Last night I dream (a)/1 was a Sheikh on the
169td floor (b)/ofBUIj Khalifa. (c)/No error. (d)
2. As soon as (a)/the lion saw the deer (b)/he
began to run after it. (c)lNo error. Cd)
3. The police asked us (a)labout our movements
(b)/on a night of the crime. (c)/No error. (d)
4. Did he tell you (a)/why he hasn't (b)lcome
yesterday? (c)lNo enOL (d)
5. It was a pleasant (a)lfour hours drive (b)/from
Pune to Nakhik. (c)/No error. (d)
sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an
appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for
each question. Choose for con'ect alternative out of the four.
6. He travelled all ...... the world when he was
eighty years old.
(b) over
(a) in
(d) of
(c) with
7. Dr. Sharma concluded his speech ...... stressing
on 'Buddha's teachings of the importance of
charity.
(b) with
(a) by
(c) at
(d) in
8. Shivaji Maharaj fought ...... every kind of
aggression.
(b) to
(a) against
(c) with
.cd) at
9. Don't depend ...... others; you must stand on
your own feet.
(b) on
(a) upon
(c) to
(d) for
10. Our life promises a lot ...... pleastlre and we
must learn to enjoy it.
(a) with
(b) for
(c) of
(d) at
out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best
expresses the meaning of the given word.
11. Benevolent
(a) beneficial
(c) helpful
(b) kind
(d) supportive
12. Ancestors
(a) extinct tribes

(c) forefathers
(b) relatives
(d) old people
13. Embrace
(a) impress
(c) embarrass
(b) except
Cd) accept
14. Meek
(a) light hearted
Cc) submissive
Cb) serious
Cd) begins
15. Sufficient
(a) full
(c) enough
(b) complete
Cd) less
Direction (0. Nos. 16-20) In the following questions

choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
16. Gloomy
(a) radiant
(c) melodious
(b) fragrant
(d) illusory
17. Bleasing
(a) dull
(c) hurt
(b) curse
(d) harsh
18. Accomplish
(a) fail
(c) disagreeable
(b) improper
Cd) scatter
19. Famous
(a) obscure
(c) lenient
(el) fabulous
Cb) eminent
20. Orderly
(a) unclear
(c) chaotic
(b) valueless
(d) incomplete

four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed
in bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which
best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.
21. Helena was over head and ears in love with
Demetrius.
(b) completely
(a) carefully
(d) cautiously
(c) brilliantly
22. Gopi work by fits and starts.
(a) consistently
(b) irregularly
(c) in high spirits
(d) enthusiastically
23. Naresh Goyal had to stand on his feet very
early in his life.
(a) to be physically strong
(b) to l'e independent

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Manipal (Med.)
(c) to stand erect
(d) to be successful
24. The possession of Jerusalem is a bone of
contention between Israrel and Palestine.
(a) a subject of peace
(b) a subject of trade
Cc) a subject of dispute
Cd) a subject of exports
25. My friend turned a deafear to my tale of loss
and refused to help me.
(a) paid no heed
(b) went for away
(c) listened carefully
(d) turned his ear away
Directions (0. Nos. 26-30) In the following questions a

part of the sentence is printed in bold. De/aware given
alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b) and (c) 1Vhch
may improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case no improvement is needed your
answer is (d).
26. The strong breeze blew his hat away.
(a) The strong air
(b) The strong breath
(c) The strong wind
(d) No improvement
27. The Japanese are hardly working people.
(a) Ii hard working people
(b) a hardJy working people
(c) hard working people
(d) No improvement
28. The monkey was seated at the foot of a tree.
(a) bottom
(b) end
(c) root
(d) No improvement
29. My father lives on Delhi.
(a) in Delhi
(b) at Delhi
(c) inside Delhi
(d) No improvement
Solved Paper 2012
115
30. He will come instantaneously.

(a) just now
(b) presently
(c) instantly
(d) No improvement

out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be
substituted for the given words/sentence.
31. Instruments to measure atmospheric pressure
(a) metronome
(b) compass
(c) pedometer
(d) barometer
32. One who tends to take a hopeful view of life
(b) creator
(a) magnate
(c) pacifist
(d) optimist
33. Belonging to all parts of the world
(a) common
(b) universal
(c) worldly
(d) international
34. To be known for bad acts
(a) famous
(b) notorious
(c) criminal
(d) terrorist
35. Words of similar meaning
(a) homonyms
(b) pseudonyms
(c) antonyms
(d) synonyms

groups offour words are given. In each group, one word
is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.
36. (a)
(c)
37. (a)
(c)
38. (a)
(c)
39. (a)
(c)
40. (a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
Cd)
onvelope
envalope
character
character
dnmkeness
durnkness
surprise
suprise
comitee
committie
envelope
envelap
charecter
chaerecter
drunkenness
drunkennes
supprise
surprize
committee
commitee
Answers
Physics
11. Cb)
1. (b)
2. C')
12. (a)
21.
31.
41.
51.
32. (e)
42. (b)
52. Cd)
(a)
(a)
(c)
Cc)
22. (b)
3.
13.
23.
33.
43.
53.
(b)
(b)
(b)
Cd)
Cb)
(b)
4.
14.
24.
34.
44.
54.
(d)
(b)
(c)
(b)
(a)
(b)
5.
15.
25.
35.
45.
55.
(a)
(e)
(d)
(el)
(el)
(b)
6.
16.
26.
36.
46.
56.
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
(c)
(a)
7.
17.
27.
37.
47.
(a)
(a)
(a)
(b)
(b)
57. (c)
"'No option is correct.

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8.
18.
28.
38.
48.
58.
Cc)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)
(e)
9. Cd)
19.
29.
39.
49.
59.
(a)
(d)
(d)
(b)
(a)
10.
20.
30.
40.
50.
60.
(c)
(d)
(el)
(c)
(b)
(d)
16 i Manipal (Med.)
II/J
Solved Paper 2012
Chemistry
1. (b)
2. (b)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. Ce)
6. (b)
7. (d)
8. Ca)
9. Ca)
10. Cb)
11. (b)
12. Cd)
13. (a)
14. Ce)
15. Ce)
16. Ce)
17. (e)
18. (a)
19. Cd)
20. (b)
26. Ce)
27. (e)
28. Cel)
29. Ca)
30. (b)
21. (e)
22. Ca)
23. (d)
24. Cb)
25. (d)
31. (e)
32. Ca)
33. (a)
34. Cd)
35. (b)
36. Ca)
37. (d)
38. Cd)
39. Cd)
40. Cb)
41. (a)
42. (d)
43. (d)
44. Ca)
45. Ca)
46. Cb)
47. Cd)
48. (b)
49. (b)
50. (b)
51. (d)
52. (d)
53. (a)
54. Ca)
55. (e)
56. Ca)
57. Cd)
58. Ce)
59. (a)
60. Ce}
9. Cd)
10. Ca)
Biology
1. (a)
2. Cd)
3. Ce)
4. (d)
5. Cb)
6. (e)
7. Cel)
8. (d)
11. (e)
12. Cb)
13. (d)
14. (e)
15. Ce)
16. (b)
17. (e)
18. Ca)
19. Cd)
20. (b)
21. Cb)
22. (b)
23. (a)
24. (a)
25. (b)
26. Cel)
27. (d)
28. Ce)
29. Cd)
30. (b)
31. (d)
32. Cd)
33. Cb)
34. Ce)
35. (d)
36. (el)
37. Cb)
38. (b)
39. (b)
40. Cb)
41. Cb)
42. (b)
43. Ca)
44. (a)
45. (a)
46. Cd)
47. (a)
48. (e)
49. Cel)
50. Cel)
51. Cd)
52. Cb)
53. (d)
54. (d)
55. (b)
56. Ce)
57. (b)
58. Cb)
59. (d)
60. (a)
61. (e)
62. (d)
63. (e)
64. (d)
65. (d)
66. Ca)
69. Cb)
70. (b)
72. (e)
73. (b)
74. Cal
75. (e)
76. Cd)
67. Cb)
77. (b)
68. (a)
71. (b)
78. (a)
79. (a)
80. (d)
English
1. (a)
2. (d)
3. Ce)
4. (b)
5. Cb)
6. (b)
7. Ca)
8. (a)
9. (b)
10. Ce)
11. (b)
12. Ce)
13. (d)
14. Ce)
15. (e)
16. Ca)
17. Cb)
18. (a)
19. Ca)
20. (e)
21. (b)
22. (d)
23. (b)
24. (e)
25. (a)
26. (e)
27. Ce)
28. (e)
29. (a)
30. Cel)
31. (d)
32. Cd)
33. (b)
34. Cb)
35. Cd)
36. (b)
37. (a)
38. (b)
39. (a)
40. (b)
Hints & Solutions

Physics
1. Internal energy of a gas
U
U B =U c
=:? nRT
2
U B >U A
U c >U D
where, R is constant.
Thus, for a given number of moles of the same
gas
U=T
2. Given, length 1= 314 m

Specific resistance p = 2.2 X 10- 8 Q-m
External diameter
From the graphs, we conclude that

U A =U D
Dl =
1.2 X 10-2 m
Internal diameter D2 = 1 X 10-2 111

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Manipal (Med.)
As resistance of tube R = Pl.
A
or
or
R=
pi
n[Dl- D~]
3.
[ =2A
g
300
117
h
8. Momentum, p = mv = I
h
v=-
or
mA
6.62 x 10-34
4x2.2x10-8 x314
n[(1.2)2 - (1.0)2] X 10-4
=0.2Q
Solved Paper 2012
v=------~--------~
9.1
X 10-31 Xi
5.2 x 10-7
6.62x 104
9.1 x 5.1
=>
v=------
=>
v = 1400 mls
9. We know that
=2x1000mA
300
=20 rnA
3
Ig
Given, t = 3000 yr, T = 6000 yr

n = 3000 = 5
600
= 6.67 rnA
As range of ammeter cannot be decreased but

can be increased only, therefore, the instrument
cannot be converted to measure the range 1 rnA.
4.
t
T
n=-
:0 =Gr
:0 =(~r =:2
Then,
5:'
tan 0
tanv = - cose
tan 45
cos 30
tan 0'
'.13/2
to. Input power = VI = 200 x 10

= 2000 W
40
Output power = x 2000 = 800 W
100
Power loss in heating the armature
= 2000 - 800
-J3
0'
= tan-
= 1200 W
1
(~)
5. In step-down transformer, voltage decreases

and corresponding current increases.
[2R
= 1200
or
10 x 10
6. The ionosphere can reflect electromagnetic

waves of frequency less than 40 MHz but do not
reflect electromagnetic waves of frequency
more than 40 MHz.
7. At room temperature, due to thermal vibrations,
the few bonds of intrinsic semiconductor are
broken and producing equal number of
electrons and holes in the semiconductor.
R =12Q
or
11. Heat produced in a wire is equal to energy

stored in capacitor.
H
= .!CV2
2
= .! x (2 x 10-6 ) x (200i
2
= 10-6 x 200 x 200

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18 i Manipal (Med.)
Solved Paper 2012

16 x..fi
8 xl
F3 x 2 == N-;;--
12. The balanced condition for Wheatstones bridge
P
Q
is
NB ==12turns
--=-
14. Drift velocity, va == _1_

neA
as is obvious from the given values.

No, current flows through galvanometer is zero.
Now, P and R are in series, so
Resistance, Rl == P + R
5
va ==-----26
(5 x 10 ) x (1.6 x 10-- 19 ) x (4 x 10- 6 )
== 10 + 15= 2512
(2n + l)AD
15. x==----
Resistance R 2 == R + S
= 20
-I-
2a
.
30= son
Net resistance of the network as Rl and R 2 are in

parallel
(4+1)D
For red lIght x == - - - - x 6500

2a
For unknown wavelength of light,
x == (6 + l)D x A
i == V == 0.6 == 0.36 A
R
x 10-2 ms- 1
== 1.5b
Similarly, Q and S are in series, so
50
2a
13. Current in tangent glavanometer

2rH
1==--- tan 8
!loN
... (i)
Accordingly,
5 x 6500 :=: 7 x -A
A ==~ x 6500
7
=4642.8 A
16. Volume of 8 drops == Volume of big drop
l-:3
4
ref"
3) x 8 == :34 reR 3
2r==R
... (i)
According to charge conservation

Here, Rl and R2 are in parallel
1
1
1
==--+R net Rl R2
==R2+Rl==8+~
RIR2
8x8
8q=Q
We have
or
R net == 4.(2
I==V=='==lA
I-rence,
From Eq. (i), we get
N
"4. ~.<:n
NA
8 A ==
=>
=>
~- tan_~ == !lo~
2H
1i3 taI~ 8 B
NB
... (ij)
1.1:=2
V2
11
20
21'
V2
I'
V2 == 10V
17. The rise or fall of liquids in vertical capillary

tubes is called capillarity. Water in plant fibres
rises due to same phenomenon.

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18. Equation of an adiabatic process is
Given,
... (i)
mi = 1.007825 + 7.016004
= 8.023829 u
k
p = V4
3
and the total mass of final particles
Ie
(constant)
pV 4 / 3 = k
... (ij)
p3 V 4 =
mf = 2 x 4.002603
8.005206 u
Difference between initial and final mass of

particles
Comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get

4
Y = - = 1.33
t.m = mi
where, Ro = 1.2 x 10-15 m
Q = (t.m)c 2
2 n[R oA1!3]3
0.018623 x 931.5
=17.35MeV
4rrR3A
3
0
22. Work W = mgh + t.pV

= Vpgh
VocA
=16x10sJ
. d'lOmsatwn
. . energy E = he
23. ReqUIre
.
Ie
11=-QJ
Q1 - (22
'1=---QJ
lF1
6.6 x 10- 34 x 3 x 10 8
1.54 x 10- 10
= 12.9 x 10-- 16 J
Q2
QJ
as
11 = 1
... (i)
24. Under uniform magnetic field, force evB acts on

proton and provides the necessary centripetal
mv 2
force - a
mv 2
--=evB
a
aeB
v=-_m
where, T 2 is temperature of sink and Tl is the

temperature of the sources.
Here,
11
+ t.pV
=4xl03 x10x20+(2x10s)x4
Net work done per cycle

20. '1 = --- - Total amount of heat absorbed per cycle
or
0.018623 u
The Q-value is given by
Volume of nucleus (V) = 4 rrR 3
or
mf
= 8.023829 - 8.005206
19. Radius of nucleus R = RoAl/3
119
21. The total mass of the initial particles
constant
p VY
Solved Paper 2012
50%
'1'2 = SOC == 273 + 50
Now, angular momentum
= 323K
Putting these values in Eq. (i), we get

50 = 1- 323
100
'1'}
'1' = 646 K= 373C
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J = r xp
=axmv
J=axm (
J = a2eB
aeB\
-;-j
20 I Manipal (Med.)
Solved Paper 2012
25. Ferromagnetic substance obeys Curie-Weiss law

above its curie temperature.
26. When light is incident on a diffraction grating,
then zero order principal maximum will have
only white colour.
27.
ALymen
ABaimer
(12 -~2)
2-~2) =
= (11
34. The energy of artificial satellite at the surface of
the earth
GMm
R
When the satellite is intended to move in a

circular orbit of radius 7 R, then energy of
artificial satellite
=_! GMm
E2
27
2 7R
The minimum energy required

E =E1 -E2
= _ GMm +
5
ALymen = 27 x /cBalmer
27
= 1215.4
XL ocf
4 sin
Xl =
If frequency is double, thet). rehctance will be

double.
EI
dQ =dU + dW
=
Therefore, the internal energy of system will

decrease.
f'
The energy of this equation

E2
2 2
mro2a2
1
2
mro2 x 5 x 5
2
According to question
El =E 2
4C, then
1
= -
= -
2rc-vLC
= 2rc.J4LC
mxl0xl0x4x4
x2=5cos(cot)
30. The ozone layer is important because it prevents

the UV rays and micro rays coming from the
space.
When capacitance
The second equation of displacement
dU =-50 J
=!2 mrolal
=
For adiabatic process dQ = 0

dU + dW
(lOt + ~)
The energy of this equation
29. From first law of thermodynamiCs
(GMm)
7R
35. The equation of displacement
= coL = 2rcfL
31. Frequency,
-14GMm + GMm
14R
13GMm
14R
~ x 6563
28. XL
- mcu2 x 5 x 5 = m x 10 x 10 x 4 x 4
2
2
2 10xl0x4x4
CO2 =
5x5
2:
32. Air flow from smaller bubble to bigger as the

pressure in smaller bubble is higher.
33. The hardness of X-rays depends upon the its
wavelength. Which depend upon potential

difference between target and cathode.
or
cu~
CO2
2 x2 x4 x4
~2 x 2 x 4 x 4
2 x 4 8 unit

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Manipal (Med.)
36. The excess pressure of soap bubble
4T
R
4T
hpg = R
40.
p=
or
C':
vCM
4 x 5i + 2 x 10i
4+2
T = Rhpg
vCM
1 x 10-2 x 2 x 10-3 x 0.8 x 10 3 x 9.8
40i
6
20;
=3 1
The kinetic energy
4
K
= 0.0392N/m
37. The equation of continuity

A11'l = A 2v 2
v2
.! mv 2
2
1
20 x 20
= - x C4 + 2) x - - - 2
3x3
=.! x 6 x 20 x 20
2
A xV2
3
A x4 =
6 ms- 1
41. Breaking stress
pg~ + .! P1'l2 = P + pgh2 + .! pv~
or gCh1
2.1 CV22
h2 )
3x3
K = 400 J
From Bernoulli's theorem,

p+
I 21
drr
d12
I1q -- + m2-=
dt
dt
rl1r + m2
= hpg)
Solved Paper 2012
.
A
= 40 x106 N/m2
3rc
2
VI)
According to question
g xh
= 1 [(6i C4i] [.:

2
hI - h2
= h]
40 x106 = 3 x10
3rc
rcr2
1
10xh=-[36-16]
r2
h = 20
20
or
9-4 x 10 6
r=1.5x10- 3 m
=1.5mm
1m
42. E
38. Resolving limit
de = 1.22A
a
1.22 x 4538 x 10- 10
ka
=>
E oca 2
or
a~
af
1
=
5.54 x 10-7 rad
eV
39. The force F = -
or
1.6 x 10-19 x 10 4
0.5
=
x 10-2
3.2 x 10- 13 N
El
= E2
al
a2
43. Inductance and resistance of choke coil are high

and low respectively.
Therefore,

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XL R
221
Manipal (Med.)
Solved Paper 2012
44. The phase difference, path difference and time

difference between two successive zone are
IT,
~
2
and !.- respectively.

2
=>
2
v+
or
880
Pi
Pi =1000 W
n(~--)
v+vs
88
100
--=--
n
2
45. Here, frequency n'
We have,
51. Efficiency of transformer,

Output power
11=
Input power
Input current, I p
...z.
Vi
1000
2200
=2
=0.45 A
v, =v
or
46. Inductive reactance XL
52. For first line of Lyman series,
= O)L
111
=2rrvL
=- 21t x 50 xl
100
..
1 and 112 = 2
~l =R (!2- 2~)
IT
=R (1
47. We have, p ocT

p
~+ (f~~) p
T
T+1
~)
3R
4
For first line of Paschen series
250C
III =
48. On free expansion of van der Waal's gases, final

temperature will be less than initial
temperature.
3 and 112
:;
~ R (;2 - 4~)
R
49. According to de-Broglie hypothesis

A
p.
=!:.p
(J:.9 -..!..)
16
7R
144
=-J2rr:ri = 72mqV
leI
7R
A2
144
3R
-=----x
6.6 x 10--34
A=-r=======~======~~=====
) x 1000
7
108
53. The output of the circuit is,
6.6 x 10-34
7.
10-='22
16-x
y=A+B
=A-B
=- 0.9 x 10 .. 12 m
50. To form its own isotope atomic number (Z)

should remain same.
So, the emission of one a-particle and two
l3-particles will maintain the Z same.
where, o.-partide = 2He 4 ; l3-particle = _1l3
=AB
(.:
A =A
and
B =B)
which is the OUtpllt of an AND gate.

54. Due to forward bias at the emitter-base
junction, the majority charge carrier electrons of
emitter get repelled from the negative terminal
and move towards base. Some of these electrons

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combine with the majority charge carrier holes
present in the base and most of the electrons
reach the collector, crossing the collector-base
junction. This implies that collector current is
always le~;s than the emitter current due to the
reason (b).
55. If Ao is the area of orifice at the bottom below
the free surface and A that of vessel, time t taken
to be empited the tank,
:of!
2012123
Therefore, phase difference between

reflected wave and refracted phase is again IT.
IT.
58. Maximum intensity,
Imax = cji; + .jT~i

eJi + 141)2
== 91
Minimum intensity Imin
cji; - .jT;)2
(J] -
.J4i )2
59. The energy of photon E =
~~=~
:z -~H~~2
.~~
'A
= 123~~ eV
'A
E = !.?37~
5000
~=J2
= 2.48 eV
t2
The kinetic energy of equation of photoelectric
J2
tz
=
10
r;:;
"\12
Ek =E - W
= 0.58 eV
= 5,,2
60. To convert a moving coil galvanometer into a

voltmeter a high resistance is connected in
series with it.
",7 min
57. TL.e incident wave and reflected wave are
always in phase whereas incident wave and
refracted wave has phase different of IT.
Chemistry
H
I
H C
=O + 2
Benzaldehyde
1. C6
@0
N<
CH3
CH 3
N,N dimethyl aniline
N<CH
CH3
N<CH
CH 3
Malachite green
2. Cn H2rP2 is the general formula for open chain

carboxylic
acid
and
ester.
e.g.,
if
n = 3=> C 3 H 60 2
Acid -
CH 3CH 2COOH
Ester -
CH 3COOCH 3
3. Antimony is used in making lead storage

batteries because lead containing antimony is
harder and more resistant to the action of acids
than ordinary lead.
Eit
4. Wmetal
96500
Ex 3 x 50 x 60
96500
6500
E =2..
xw
3 x 50 x 60
E = .?6500 xJ.~
3 x 50 x 60

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19.3
241
Manipal (Med.)
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2 x4 x 6.023 xl0 23
= 48 x 10 23 atoms
5. Velocity of both K+ and N0 3 is nearly the same.
6. For first order reaction, t1/2 is independent of

initial concentration.
0.693
tl/2=-k
ONa
7.
ONa
+ CO2
Sodium phenoxide
400 K
4-7 atm
pressure
reOON'
"
Sodium salicylate
This reaction is known as Kolbe's reaction.

8. t = 2.303 log [A]o
If[A]O = 1 then [A] = .

16
=
9. Rate
2.303 log 16
60
dx
hybridisation. It has triangular planar structure

while BE!, NH4: and SO ~- have tetrahedral
stnlcture.
15. 2py and 2py will not form a cr-bond because on
taking x-axis as internuclear axis 2py and 2py
H) C=O> H~> C=O> ~C> C=O
dt x[CCI 3CHO][NO]
14. In CO~- ion, the C-atom undergoes sp2
17. Aldehydes and ketones readily undergo

nucleophilic addition reaction. The reactivity
decreases as the + I effect of alkyl group
increases.
4.6 x 10-2 s
dt
S-l
3d-orbitals will have the same energy W.r.t. Is

orbital.
16. Halogenation of alkanes in the presence of

sunlight or heat is an example of free radical
substitution.
= dx = k[CCI 3CHO][NO]
k
13. Hydrogen atom is in lsI and the 3s, 3p and
orbitals overlap sideway (lateral overlapping)

resulting in the formation of a IT-bond.
[A]
mol L- 1
x mol L- 1 x mol L- 1
H3C
18. Sulphonation of benzene is carried out by S03

(electrophile) .
L mol- 1 s-1
19. FeCI 3, FeBr2 and AlCI 3 are used in

Friedel-Craft's reaction because they act as
Lewis acid since they are electron deficient in
nature. However cations such as Na+, K" have a
10. Alkyl halide and phenol is obtained.
+ CH31
Phenol
Methyl
iodide
11. Gold sol is a lyophobic sol.

12. Sodium ferro cyanide, Na4[Fe(CN)6] contains
four sodium atoms.
Number of Na atoms = Number of moles x
number of atoms per molecule x Avogadro
number
very little tendency to accept electrons due to

inert gas configuration. Therefore, can't be used
in Friedel-Craft reaction.
20. Order of electronegativities of halogens are
F> CI > Br> 1.
Hence, the order of reactivities of methyl halide
in the formation of Grignard reagent is
CH3I> CH3Br > CH 3Cl.

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Heat released in the formation of
h::, ~CI -~~I I
21.
44gCO z
35.2
g
CO = 393.5 kJ x 35.2g
z
44g
chloride
= 314.8 kJ
27. W
High P
22. NaCI structure
6 : 6 coordination '760 K
number
23. X z + Yz
-~
Benzal
chloride
8 : 8 coordination
number
If BE of (X - Y) = a
HzP0 4 + HzO ~ H30+
+ HPO~
+ HzO
~ H30+
a
a+
2
2a
24. The enthalpies of all elements in their standard

states are taken as zero. The standard state of an
elementary substance means the most stable
form of that substance at 298 K temperature and
1 bar pressure.
AgCI ~ Ag + + CIX
x
X + 1 x 10-4
-X
31. Basic, because it is a salt of strong base and

weak acid.
32. Equilibrium constant for the reaction,
SOz(g)+.!Oz(g)~
2
For the given reaction, Ali = - ve as it is

exothermic, f:..S = + ve then f:..G = - ve. So, the
reaction will be spontaneous at all the
temperatures.
COz(g);
44g
S03(g)
[( = ___1__
c
4.9 x 10-z
and for 2S0 z(g) + 0z(g)

[( _ (
c -
25. f:..G= Ali -Tf:..S
+ HzP0 4
29. Because buffer solutions are mixture of weak

acid or weak base and their salts.
a = + 800 kJ
26. C (s)+ 0z(g)
Bas~
+ PO~--
After NaCI is added
-400 =-~
2
or
Acid z +
That's why Ag+ will be less.
200 kJ
.. - 400 (for 2 moles XY)
HPO-- + HzO ~ H30+
H3 P0 4
30.
then BE of (X -X) = a
a
and BE of (Y - Y) = 2
2.303 nRT log Pi

Pz
28. Acid1 + Basez
CsCI structure
Ali = (BE)x_x + (BE)y_y - 2(BEh_y
= 2.303 x 1 x 8.314 x 300 x log 10

= 5744.1 J
2XY
Ali f = (X-Y) =
393.51<J
Heat released in the formation of
Toluene
Benzotrichloride
125
4.9 x10-z
2S0 3 (g)
JZ
104
--z = 416.49
(4.9)
(Reduction, oxidising agent)
33. AgzO + HzO z -> 2Ag + HzO
(Oxidation, reducing agent)
MI = -393.5 kJ mol- 1
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34. Two ice cubes when pressed over each other get
unite due to H-bond formation.
35. Pb 30 4 is red lead (sindur).
36. AI 4C 3 on treating with water gives methane
(CH 4 ) gas.
37. Zeolite when treated with hard water exchange

Ca 2+ and Mg2+ ions (present in hard water)
48. Alkyl halide on reaction with dry silver oxide

gives ether.
2~Y
+ AgP -----+ R-O-R + 2AgX
Alkyl halide
49. CH 3 -
ether
H-CH=CH-CH 3 - >
T
OH
CH 3 -C -CH=CH--CH 3
II
with Na + ions.
38. A codon is a specific sequence of 3 adjacent
bases on a strand of DNA or RNA that provides
genetic code information for a particular amino
acid.
39. Proteins which consists of a-amino acid

containing benzene ring e.g., tyrosine give
xanthoprotic test.
40. Codon is present in mRNA. It is responsible for
translation.
41. Amylopectin is a polymer of a-D glucose. It
consists of branched chains of a-D glucose
involving about 1000 or more units per
molecule.
42. Vulcanization is the process of heating natural
rubber with sulphur in order to develop some
specific qualities such as abrasion resistance,
heat resistance and elasticity.
43. Dopamine is produced in several areas of brain.
If the amount of dopamine increases in the
brain, the patient: may be affected with
Parkinson's disease.
44. Alizarin is a natural dye.
45. Strong oxidising agents such as Pb0 2 oxidise
Mn 2+ to MnO:) or Mn+7.
Only suitable reagent is chromic anhydride in

glacial acetic acid. Other will also affect
)C =C< bond.
50. During electrolysis, noble metals like Ag, Au and
Pt are not affected and separate as anode mud
fTOm impure anode.
51. Perchloric acid is not a peroxy acid while other

given acids are examples of peroxy acids.
52. K2Cr207 + 14HCI -----+ 2KCI + 2CrCI 3
+ 7Ht) + 3CI 2
53. Raoult's law is not applicable if the total number
of particles of solute changes in the solution due
to association or dissociation.
54. An increase in temperature increases the
volume of the solution and thus, decreases its
molarity.
55. H3 P0 3 is a dibasic acid.
Nl \'1 (acid)
N 2V2 (base)
0.1 x 2 x 20 = 0.1 x 1 x V2
0.1 x 2 x 20
V2 = -_._-----0.1 xl
=40 mL
46. [Cr(C 20 4 )3]3- shows optical isomerism

because its mirror image is not superimposable.
56. Number of moles of C 2Hc,OH = 13~

.
46
47. DMG is a polydentate ligand which binds the

central atom nickel forming a ring like structure.
72
Number of moles of H20 = -18

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Mole fraction,
XC2H OH
5
=-~
Solved Paper 2012127
58. CH3-?J-Br + CH3MgI
3+ 4
-------1
CH3--?J-CH3
Acetyl bromide
7
Mole fraction,
XHzO = __
4_
XC21!SOH
xH20
3+ 7
CH 3
=2
7
= ,}!2 = 2
417
I
I
CH-3 -C-OMgI
CH 3
CH 3
I
I
CH 3 -C-OH
CH 3
H 0+
CH3CH;PH + CH 3COOH ~ CH 3 COOC 2 HS

(A)
2-methyl-2-propanol
(B)
+ H 20
+ HCI
60. PHBV is a biodegradable polymer.
Biology
1. The term 'syncytial tissue' refers to animal
tissues formed by fusion of cells, commonly
during emblyogenesis, to form multinucleate
masses of protoplasm. In striated muscle, such
syncytium is present in the form of cylinder.
2. Dorsal blood vessel of earthworm is the largest
blood vessel. It occurs mid dorsally above the
alimentary canal and nll1S from one end of the
body to other. It collects blood from various
parts behind the 13th segment, however in the
first thirteen segments, it behaves a distributing
channel.
3. Protonephridia are probably the earliest type of
nephridia and are found in flatworms also.

These consist of a network of fine tubles which
run along the length of the animal at each side
and open to the surface by minute
nephrid ipores.
4. Corpora quadrigemina, are two pairs of
spherical optic lobes, representing the dorsal
part of midbrain. In rabbit, it is associated with

vision.
5. The choanocyte (also called collar cells) line the
cavity of water canal of sponges. These are
ovoid cells with one end embedded in the
mesophyil and the other exposed. The exposed
end bears a flagellum, surrounded by a coilar,
which is made up of adjacent microvilli. The
microvilli are connected to each other by
delicate micro-fibrils, forming the fine filtration
device for straining food particles from the
water.
6. During unfavourable conditions, Amoeba starts
forming the cysts, this process is known as
encystment During encystment, a number of
organelles such as cillia and flagella are
reabsorbed and the Goigi apparatus secretes the
cyst wall material, which is carried to the
surface of Amoeba in vesicles. Cyst of Amoeba
blown far and wide along the wind where
Amoeba hatch out of these in favourable
conditions.

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whereas skeletal muscle contraction mainly aids

the blood flow in veins.
8. Telomerase is an enzyme composed of both
RNA and protein, and as such may be an
evolutionary link between systems using
ribozymes and those using purely protein
enzymes.
9. In zygotene of prophase-I, homologous
chromosome pair up. This is called synapsis
during which one chromosome of the pair
comes from male parent and the other from
female parent.
10. The general features of genetic code are
(i) The genetic code is written in linear form,
using the ribonucleotide bases that
compose mRNA molecule as letters.
(ii) Each word of codon consists of three
letters, i.e., the codon is triplet.
(iii) The genetic code inside the cell medium is
said to be non-ambiguous.
(iv) The code is degenerate, i.e., a given
amino acid can be specified by more than
one codons.
(v) The codon contains start and stop
signals.
(vi) The code is said to be commaless
(continuous).
(vii) The code is non-overlapping.
11. Sequencial expression of gene occurs when
steroid binds to DNA. It acts as an inducar. HBE
element is present known as hormone binding
element.
12. Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by a change in a
single base pair of DNA (substitution of valine
by glutamic acid in the ~-globin chain of
haemoglobin). It is a genetic disease reported
from negroes. The individuals of siclde-cell
anaemia are immune to malaria.
13. Test cross, i.e., crossing of Ii progeny to the
recessive parent is used to find genotype of the
progeny.
14. Phenetics is also known as numerical
taxonomy. It dictates taxonomic affinities
entirely on the basis of measurable similarities
and differences.
15. According to the biological concept of species, a

species is a group of organisms which can
interbreed freely in nature and produce fertile
offspring.
16. Retting is a controlled microbial clecomposition
of pectin without simultaneoustlecomposition
of fibres. Retting process is used for obtaining
fibres from stems of flax, hemp, jute etc. For this
purpose, stems of fibre yielding plants are
immersed in water for long period where
decomposition sets in. Retting is facilitated by
anaerobic butyric acid bacteria such as
Clostridium botulinum, Clostridium tetani and
Clostridium
perfringens.
These
bacteria
primarily decompose the plant pectin thus,
freeing the fibres. If process of retting continues
for a long time then cellulose fermenting
bacteria develop and destroy the fibres.
17. Tetracycline interferes with the attachment of
tRNA carrying the amino acid to the
mRNA-ribosome complex preventing the
addition of amino acids to the growing
polypeptide chain. Streptomycin interferes
with the initial steps of protein synthesis by
changing the shape of 30 S proton of 70 S
prokaryotic ribosome.
Erythromycin reacts with 50 S portion of the
70 S prokaryotic ribosome.
18. The body cavity (coelom) of earthworm is filled
with an alkaline, colourless or milky coelomic
fluid containing water, salts some proteins and
of
coelomic
corpuscles,
four
types
i.e., phagocytes, mucocytes, circular nucleated
cells and chloragogen cells. During burrowing,
the coelomic fluid becomes turgid and acts as
hydraulic skeleton.
19. Senescence can be defined as "the sum of
deteriorative processes, which naturally
terminate the functional life of an organisms".
Senescence is not confined only to whole plant,
it may be limited to a particular plant organ
such as leaf and flower or cells such as pholem
and xylem. Abscission is natural shedding of
leaves, foliage branches, fruits, floral parts etc.
According to Leopold (1967) abscission is a
senese nee phenomenon.

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20. Light causes photosynthesis which leads to
reduction in CO 2 concentration -> synthesis of
glycolate -> oxidation of glycolate -> ATP
synthesis -> activation of K+ pump -> movement
of K+ in guard cells -> movement of water into
guard cells -> swelling of guard cells -> opening
of stomata.
21. Cyclic photophosphorylation is that type of
light energised ATP synthesis in which electron
expelled by excited photo centre is returned to it
after passing over a chain of electron carriers.
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation is that type
of light energised ATP synthesis in which
electron expelled by excited photo centre does
not return to them. It involves two
Photochemical Systems (PS-I and PS-II) and
produces assimilatOlY power (ATP and
NADPH.)
22. According to mass flow hypothesis, the
transport of organic solutes takes place from
source to sink, this transport also depends on
metabolic energy.
23. Glycolysis, Krebs' cycle and electron transport
system are meant for ATP synthesis in different
steps. ATP is the energy currency of cell.
Solved Paper
2012129
29. Mast cells are special cells found is connective

tissue. They secrete three substances
heparin-anticogulant,
histamine-vasodilator
and serotonin-vasoconstrictor.
30. According to the biological concept of sepcies, a
species is a group of organisms which can
interbreed freely in nature and produce fertile
offsprings which rarely breed with organisms of
other species in a natural environment.
31. DDT (Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane)
either does not degrade or degrade extremely
slowly in the natural environment. DDT is still
detected after 24 years. It's half life period is up
to 10 years. So, the use of DDT is banned
now-a-days.
32. Dr. HF Klinefelter in 1942 described
Klinefelter'S syndrome. It occurs in men due to
an extra 'X' chromosome thus, having genetic
constitution 'XXY'. This is trisomy but of sex
chromosome or allosome. It usually results
from non-disjunction and is expressed by small
penis, absence of body hairs, gynaecomastia etc.
24. Tendons are white fibrous connective tissues,

made up of collagen protein and connect bones
with skeletal muscles.
33. Down's syndrome (mongolian idiocy) is a

congenital disorder caused by trisomy of
chromosome 21, often by non-disjunction. It is
characterised by mental retardation, simian
palm, as mongoloid facial features.
Ligament is a modified elastic connective

tissue, which is made up of elastic yellow fibres.
Ligaments form connection between bone to
bone.
Turner's syndrome is due to monosomy of sex

chromosome, i.e., XO. It was described by
Turner 1938.
25. There are thirteen types of finches described by

Darwin. They are geographically isolated and
found in Galapagos Island of South Pacific.
Colour blindness is a recessive sex linked (X)

trait in which affected individual can not
distinguish red colour from green colour.
26. The social interaction of competitors result in

the establishment of territory or territoriality by
the successful competition. The territory
distribution depends on feeding, mating, caring
of young ones also.
Klinefelter's syndrome is due to an extra

X-chromosome to man (male), i.e., trisomy of
sex chromosome.
27. The joint between humerus and radius bone is

hinge joint. The movement in this joint is
unidirectional. This joint is also called as
gingul um.
28. The nuclear membrane of the nucleus which
separates nucleus and cytoplasm is double
membrane and porous.
34. When a cell becomes turgid, the increase in

turgor pressure resists the entry of water into
the cell.
\jf
cell- TP cell = - OP cell
\1' cell = TP cell- OP cell
At equiliblium
~J
cell
= TP cell- OP cell = zero.

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Solved Paper 2012
35. The development of an embryo directly from

any diploid sporophytic cell (e.g., cell of
nucellus, integument etc.,) is called adventive
embryony.
36. Acid rain is caused by large scale emission of
nitrogen oxides (NO x ), sulphur oxides (SOx),
volatile organic carbons and HCI from thermal
power plants, industries and automobiles.
Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur combine with
water and oxygen and form nitric acid and
sulphuric acid, respectively.
3
2NO -I- - 02 ---)- N)s

2
N20 S -I- H20 ---)-
2HN0 3
2S0 2 + 02 ---)- 2S0 3

2H~04
(Sulphuric acid)
37. Long day plants flower in photoperiod more

than critical day length, e.g., Hyacyamus niger,
radish, Beta vulgaris, Spinacea (spinach) lattuce,
etc.
38. Lifespan of Ascaris in the host is 9 to 12 months.
39. False fruits are developed when some other
floral parts participate in the formation of fruits,
e.g., in apple, thalamus is modified to form a
fruit. Mango is drupe.
40. FAD acts as an e- acceptor in between succinic

and fumaric acid.
41. Cone cells contain the light sensitive pigment
iodopsin. It is found in retina of all diurnal

vertebrates. Cones are specialised to transmit
infcrmation about colour and responsible for
visual activity of eye.
42. Sexual
dimorphism
Deuteromycetes.
is
absent
46. Acetobactar are of commercial importance. They

are used in the production of vineger by
converting ethanol in wine to acetic acid.
47. The term cistrol1 is used to describe the locus
responsible for generating a protein. It can also
be defined as the segment of DNA that contains
all infonnation for production of single
polypeptide.
48. A biodiversity hot spot is biogeographic region
with a significant reservoir of biodiversity that is
threatened with destruction, high levels of
species richness and high degree of endemism.
Initially, 25 biodiversity hotspots were
identified but subsequently nine more have
been added to the list, bringing the total number
of biodiversity hotspots in the world to 34.
(Nitric acid)
2S0 3 -I- 2H) ---)-
45. Silent valley is located in Kerala. The area under

this was historically explored in 1847 by
botanist Robert Weight.
in
43. Sphagnum is known as peat mass. The partially

decomposed Sphagnum accumulates to form
compressed mass called peat.
44. Photonasty is the response produced by plants
in response to availability of light.
49. All of these are exotic species.

50. Reporter genes are used to determine whether
a particular DNA construct has been successfully
introduced into a cell.
51. When CO 2 concentration is blood increases,
breathing becomes faster and deeper. The effect

of increased CO 2 is to decrease the affinity of
haemoglobin for 2'
52. Cancer is caused by loss of control over cells

reproduction capacity so easily damaged by
radiation.
53. Leishamaniasis or kala azar is caused by

Leishmania. donovani. It spreads by sand fly. It is
also known as dum-dum fever.
54. Anabaena is a free living N 2 fixing
cyanobacterium which can form symbiotic
association with the qua tic fern Azalia.
55. Prolactin is secreted by anterior pituitary gland.

It stimulates mammary gland development
during pregnancy and lactation after child birth.
56. Fangs of python arc maxillary teeth located on
maxilla. If the fangs are once taken out, they can
come out again with the same length.

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I 31
57. The organs which have different embryonic

origin but perform same function are called as
analogous organs, e.g., wings of bat and
insects.
63. Cytokinin is also known as cell division

hormone as it brings about the process of cell
division in plants. The ratio of cytokinin to auxin
control the process of cell differentation.
The organs which have same embryonic origin

but adapted to perform different functions are
known as homologous organs, e.g., wing of bat
and forelimb of humans.
A higher cytokinin to auxin ratio brings about

the shoot formation while a higher auxin to
cytokinin ratio brings about root development.
When both of these are present in relatively
equal quantities although the cells divide but
fail to differentiate.
58. Sinus venosus refers to the chamber of heart

present between veins and right atria. In
mammals, it has disappeared as it has been
absorbed in right atrium.
59. In aerobic respiration, the pyruvic acid which is
produced as a result of glycolysis is further
oxidized into CO 2 and water after passing
through a series of reactions. This series of
reactions takes place in the matrix of
mitochondria and is known as Krebs' cycle,
after the name of it's discoverer.
60. In wild pea (Lathyrus aphaca) , whole leaf is
transformed into tendril. In Pisum sativum,
terminal leaflet, while in Gloriosa, leaf apex is
transformed into tendril.
61. Pteridophyta is a group of non-seed forming,
vascular cryptogams, i.e., these contain vascular
tissues for the conduction of minerals and water
but do not produce seeds.
The main plant body of these plants is diploid
called sporophyte which produces spores after
meiosis. These spores on germination give rise
to gametophytic plant which produces gametes.
Fusion between male and female gametes
produces a diploid zygote which produces
diploid sporophytic stage.
62. Transpiration is a physical as well as
physiological process in which water is
evaporated in the form of vapour ftom aerial
parts of plants, particularly with the help of
structures known as stomata. Stomata usually
open during day time (i.e., light). Increase in
temperature increases the rate of transpiration.
High atmospheric humidity reduces the process
of transpiration and moving air (wind)
increases the rate of transpiration.
64. The enzyme complex nitrogenase has two

components, (a) a large Mo-Fe protein
conslstmg
of four
subunits
(enzyme
nitrogenase) (b) a smaller Fe protein consisting
of two subunits (nitrogenase reductase).
65. Cockroach, housefly, mosquitoes etc., all belong
to class Insecta of the phylum- Arthropoda.
These contain three pairs of legs (total six) for
locomotion.
66. Cartilage is the most important vertebrate
connective tissue. The cells of cartilage, called
chondrocytes are surrounded by an amorphous
matrix which is known as chondrin. Chondrin
contains glycoproteins, basophilic chondroitin
and fine coll;::gen fibres.
67. Insectivorous plants can survive in N2 deficient
soil as they trap N2 from the insects.
68. Spore of Funaria on germination, gives rise to
protonema.
69. Vessels present in xylem are responsible for
conduction of water and minerals from soil to
the top of the plant.
70. Multiplication of DNA is called replication.
Replication means formation of equal and
opposite form or carbon copy. Duplication is
formation of exactly same type. Transcription is
writing the message of DNA in the form of
mRNA and translation means decoding the
message of mRNA into proteins.
71. Phytochrome is the pigment of activity of red
and far red light. The activity results in
photoperiodism.
72. Citric acid present in lemon is responsible for its
sourness.

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73. The vertebrae of the members of the order

squamata are procoelous. The order includes
two sub-orders-Sauria (lizards), Ophidia
(snakes).
74. Emasculation means removal of anthers or
stamens or killing of pollen grains of a flower
without affecting in any way, the female
reproductive organs. It is done to prevent the
self-fertilization pollination means falling of
pollen grain on the stigma of flower.
Fertilization means fusion of male gamete and
female gamete and anthesis means flowering
(opening of floral buds).
75. Haemoglobin is a globular protein. It is carrier
of oxygen in blood.
76. LPP-l is the first cyanophage, discovered by
Safferman and Morris. It Infects Lynbya,
Phromidium and Plectonema (blue-green algae).
77. Oscillatoria is a myxophycean alga which
reproduces by means of hormogonia.
Hormogonia are broken filaments which give
rise to new filaments under favourable
conditions.
78. Phylogeny is the origin and diversification of

any taxon or the evolutionary history of its
ongm and diversification. It is usually
represented as diagrammatic phylogenetic tree,
i.e., dendrogram.
Palaentology is the study of fossils, ontogeny is
the whole course of an individual's development
and life history.
79. Sertoli cells are the cells that line the
seminiferous tubules in the testis. These cells
protect the spermatids and convey nutrients to
both the developing and mature spermatozoa.
Sertoli cells are regulated by FSH as FSH
receptors are confined to Sertoli cells.
80. Aril is the edible part in the fruit of litchi. The
aril is an accessory seed covering often formed
from the outgrowth at base of the ovule.
Fleshy thalamus is the edible part of apple
(Pyrus malus).
Juicy testa is the edible part of pomegranate
(Prmica granatum).
Endocarpic juicy hairs are the edible part of
orange (Citrus sp).

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anip I

Medical Entrance Exam

2. The external diameter of a 314 m long copper

(b) 4.4 x 10-2 n

(c) 3.14 x 10-2

(d) 2.2 x 10-2 n

3. A voltmeter of range 2 V and resistance 300 n

(d) tan- 1 (21.)3)

5. Which quantity is increased in step-down

10. An electric motor runs on DC source of emf

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Solved Paper 2012

connected to a resistance wire. The heat

12. In the Wheatstone's network given, P := 100,

16. The potential of a large liquid drop when eight

17. Water lises in plant fibres due to

18. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the

19. The volume of a nucleus is directly proportional

13. Two tangent galvanometers A and B have coils

14. A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic

Cd) 1 x 10-- 2 ms- 1

15. A single slit Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is

(where, A := mass number of the nucleus)

The atomic masses of 1 I-~ 4 He and 7 Li are

23. The wavelength of Ko. line in copper is 1.5 A.

24. A proton is moving in a uniform magnetic field B

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25. Curie-Weiss law is obeyed by iron

26. When light is incidence on a diffraction grating,

29. In adiabatic process, the work done by system is

Solved Paper 2012

32. If two soap bubbles of different radii are

35. The displacements of two particles of same mass

= 4 Sin( lOt + -~) and x2 = Scos(wt).

The value of (0 for which the energies of both the

37. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards

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Solved Paper 2012

where the cross-sectional area of the stream

38. The diameter of objective of a telescope is 1m.

(c) 6.54 x 10-7 rad

(d) 3.2 x 10- 13 N

40. A body of mass '19. '" 4 kg moves at Sf mls and

41. Two block of masses of 1 kg and 2 kg are

~~ x 10 6 N/m2 . What should be the minimum

44. The path difference, time difference and phase

42. In the Young's double slit experiment,

46. At inductance 1 H is connected in series with an

47. If the pressure of an ideal gas contained in a

50. A radioactive element forms its own isotope

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54. In a transistor, the collector current is always

55. A rectangular vessel when full of water, takes

Solved Paper 2012

56. The term liquid crystal refers to a state that is

57. A wave travelling in air falls on a glass plate. It is

58. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of

59. The light of wavelength 5000 'A falls on a

2. The general formula C nH 21P 2 could be for open