JEE - Mock Test-34 (VRPT-4 JEE Mains)

Questions

1. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v collides with a stationary particle of mass 2m. After collision, they stick
together and continue to move together with velocity
v
(a)
2
(b) v
v
(c)
3
v
(d)
4

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: For a planet, if the ratio of mass of the planet to its radius increases, the escape velocity from the planet also
increases.
Statement II: Escape velocity is independent of the radius of the planet.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(b) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect
(c) Both Statement I and statement II are correct
(d) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

3. Three forces F1 = 10 N, F2 = 8 N, F3 = 6N are acting on a particle of mass 5 kg. The forces F2 and F3 are applied
perpendicularly so that particle remains at rest. If the force F1 is removed, then the acceleration of the particle is:
(a) 2 ms–2
(b) 7 ms–2
(c) 0.5 ms–2
(d) 4.8 ms–2

4. The distance between two plates of a capacitor is d and its capacitance is C1, when air is medium between the plates. It a
2d
metal sheet of thickness 3 and of the same area as plate is introduced between the plates, the capacitance of the capacitor
C2
becomes C2. The ratio C is
1
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:1
(c) 3:1
(d) 4:1

5. A wire of resistance 160 Ω is melted and drawn in a wire of one-fourth of its length. The new resistance of the wire will be
(a) 16 Ω
(b) 40 Ω
(c) 640 Ω
(d) 10 Ω

6. Electric potential at a point 'P' due to a point charge of 5×10–9 C is 50 V. The distance of 'P' from the point charge is:
1
(Assume, 4πε = 9 × 10 + 9Nm 2C − 2)
0
(a) 3 cm
(b) 9 cm
(c) 0.9 cm
(d) 90 cm
7. A
Two forces having magnitude A and 2 are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of their resultant is:
5A
(a)
2
√5A
(b)
4
2
√ 5A
(c)
2
√ 5A
(d)
2

8. For particle P revolving round the centre O with radius of circular path r and angular velocity ω, as shown in below figure,
the projection of OP on the x-axis at time t is

( )
(a) x(t) = rsin ωt +
6
π

(b) x(t) = rcos ωt +

( )
6
π

( )
(c) x(t) = rcos ωt − ω
6
π

(d) x(t) = rcos(ωt)

9. x+1
A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of 150 m/s. The ratio of velocity after 3s and 5s is x . The value
of x is _________.
{take g = 10 m/s2}
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) –5
(d) 10

10. Match List I with List II

LIST I LIST II
A. Torque I. ML–2T–2
B. Stress II. ML2T–2
C. Pressure gradient III. ML–1T–1
D. Coefficient of viscosity IV. ML–1T–2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
11. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift vehicles of mass 5000 kg. The area of cross section of the cylinder carrying
the load is 250 cm2. The maximum pressure the smaller piston would have to bear is [Assume g = 10 m/s2]:
(a) 2 × 10+6 Pa
(b) 2 × 10+5 Pa
(c) 20 × 10+6 Pa
(d) 200 × 10+6 Pa

12. Young's moduli of the material of wires A and B are in the ratio of 1:4, while its area of cross sections are in the ratio of 1:3.
If the same amount of load is applied to both the wires, the amount of elongation produced in the wires A and B will be in
the ratio of
[Assume length of wires A and B are same]
(a) 1:12
(b) 36:1
(c) 12:1
(d) 1:36

13. The Thermodynamic process, in which internal energy of the system remains constant is
(a) Isothermal
(b) Isochoric
(c) Adiabatic
(d) Isobaric

14. Give below are two statements:

Statement I: When the frequency of an a.c. source in a series LCR circuit increases, the current in the circuit first increases,
attains a maximum value and then decreases.
Statement II: In a series LCR circuit, the value of power factor at resonance is one.
In the light of given statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
(c) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are False.

15. An emf of 0.08 V is induced in a metal rod of length 10 cm held normal to a uniform magnetic field of 0.4 T, when moves
with a velocity of:
(a) 20 ms–1
(b) 0.5 ms–1
(c) 3.2 ms–1
(d) 2 ms–1

16. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 20 MHz propagates in free space along x-direction. At a particular space and
→ →
time, E = 6.6ĵ V / m. What is Bat this point?
(a) 2.2 × 10 − 8îT
(b) − 2.2 × 10 − 8k̂T
(c) 2.2 × 10 − 8k̂T
(d) − 2.2 × 10 − 8îT
17. The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown below. The transition corresponding to emission of shortest wavelength is

(a) B
(b) C
(c) A
(d) D

18. When one light ray is reflected from a plane mirror with 30° angle of reflection, the angle of deviation of the ray after
reflection is:
(a) 120°
(b) 110°
(c) 130°
(d) 140°

19. A mass m is attached to two strings as shown in figure. The spring constants of two springs are K1 and K2. For the
frictionless surface, the time period of oscillation of mass m is

K1 + K2

√
1
(a) 2π m

K1 − K2

√
1
(b) 2π m

m
(c)
2π
√
K1 + K2

m
(d)
2π
√ K1 − K2

20. The width of fringe is 2 mm on the screen in a double slits experiment for the light of wavelength of 400 nm. The width of
the fringe for the light of wavelength 600 nm will be:
(a) 3 mm
(b) 2 mm
(c) 4 mm
(d) 1.33 mm

21. A ring and a solid sphere rotating about an axis passing through their centers have same radii of gyration. The axis of
2
rotation is perpendicular to plane of ring. The ratio of radius of ring to that of sphere is
√ x
. The value of x is _______.

22. →
A force F = (2 + 3x)îacts on a particle in the x direction where F is in newton and x is in meter. The work done by this force
during a displacement from x = 0 to x = 4m, is _____J.
23. In the given figure the total charge stored in the combination of capacitors is 100 μC. The value of 'x' is _______________.

24. 10 resistors each of resistance 10Ω can be connected in such as to get maximum and minimum equivalent resistance. The
ratio of maximum and minimum equivalent resistance will be __________.

25. Figure below shows a liquid being pushed out of the tube by a piston having area of cross section 2.0 cm2. The area of cross
section at the outlet is 10 mm2. If the piston is pushed at a speed of 4 cm s–1, the speed of outgoing fluid is ______ cm s–1

26. A steel rod has a radius of 20 mm and a length of 2.0 m. A force of 62.8 kN stretches it along its length. Young's modulus of
steel is 2.0 × 1011N/m2. The longitudinal strain produced in the wire is _________ × 10–5

27. A series combination of resistor of resistance 100Ω, inductor of inductance 1H and capacitor of capacitance 6.25 μF is
connected to an ac source. The quality factor of the circuit will be __________

28. A straight wire carrying a current of 14 A is bent into a semicircular arc of radius 2.2 cm as shown in the figure. The
magnetic field produced by the current at the centre (O) of the are. is __________ × 10–4T

29. r2
The radius of 2nd orbit of He+ of Bohr's model is r1 and that of fourth orbit of Be3+ is represented as r2. Now the ratio r is
1
x : 1. The value of x is __________

30. A bi convex lens of focal length 10 cm is cut in two identical parts along a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. The
power of each lens after cut is _________ D.

31. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: 5f electrons can participate in bonding to a far greater extent than 4f electrons
Reason R: 5f orbitals are not as buried as 4f orbitals
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A is true but R is false
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(d) A is true but R is false
32. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Boron is extremely hard indicating its high lattice energy
Statement II: Boron has highest melting and boiling point compared to its other group members.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

33. Match List I with List II

List I (Coordination complex) List II (Number of unpaired electrons)

A. [Cr(CN)6]3– I. 0

B. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ II. 3
C. [Co(NH3)6]3+ III. 2

D. [Ni(NH3)6]2+ IV. 4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
34.

A is the above reaction is:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

35. The standard electrode potential of M + / M in aqueous solution does not depend on
(a) Ionisation of a gaseous metal atom
(b) Sublimation of solid metal
(c) Ionisation of a solid metal atom
(d) Hydration of a gaseous metal ion
36. The product formed in the following multistep reaction is:
( i ) B 2H 6 , ( ii ) H 2O 2 , NaOH
CH 3 − CH = CH 2 →
( iii ) PCC , ( iv ) CH 3MgBr

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

37. If the radius of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is a , then de Broglie’s wavelength of electron in 3rd orbit is
o
(a) 3πa o
πa o
(b)
6
πa o
(c)
3
(d) 6πa o

38. Which of the following statements are not correct?

A. The electron gain enthalpy of F is more negative than that of Cl.
B. Ionization enthalpy decreases in a group of periodic table.
C. The electronegativity of an atom is independent of the atoms bonded to it.
D. Al2O3 and NO are examples of amphoteric oxides.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and D Only
(b) A, C and D Only
(c) B and D Only
(d) A, B, C and D

39. Incorrect method of preparation for alcohols from the following is:
(a) Reaction of alkyl halide with aqueous NaOH
(b) Ozonolysis of alkene
(c) Reaction of Ketone with RMgBr followed by hydrolysis
(d) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkene
40. Compound from the following that will not produce precipitate with AgNO3 is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

41. The descending order of acidity for the following carboxylic acid is-
A. CH3COOH
B. F3C—COOH
C. ClCH2—COOH
D. FCH2—COOH
E. BrCH2—COOH
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) E > D > B > A > C
(b) B > D > C > E > A
(c) B > C > D > E > A
(d) D > B > A > E > C
42. The major product formed in the Friedel-Craft acylation of chlorobenzene is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

43. For a chemical reaction A + B → Product, the order is 1 with respect to A and B.

Rate mol L–1 S–1 [A] mol L–1 [B] mol L–1
0.10 20 0.5
0.40 x 0.5
0.80 40 y

What is the value of x and y?

(a) 160 and 4
(b) 80 and 2
(c) 40 and 4
(d) 80 and 4
44. 2IO – + xI– + 12H+ → 6I + 6H O
3 2 2
What is the value of x?
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 2

45. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: A solution of the product obtained by heating a mole of glycine with a mole of chlorine in presence of red
phosphorous generates chiral carbon atom.
Reason R: A molecule with 2 chiral carbons is always optically active.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A is false but R is true
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

46. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 2.18 × 10–18 J. Its energy in the third Bohr orbit is
_______
1
(a) th of this value
9
1
(b) of this value
27
(c) One third of this value
(d) Three times of this value

47. The difference between electron gain enthalpies will be maximum between:
(a) Ar and Cl
(b) Ar and F
(c) Ne and F
(d) Ne and Cl

48. The total number of stereoisomers for the complex [Cr(ox) ClBr]3– (where ox = oxalate) is:
2
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

49. Match List I with List II

List I (Natural Amino acid) List II (One Letter Code)

(A) Arginine (I) D
(B) Aspartic acid (II) N
(C) Asparagine (III) A
(D) Alanine (IV) R

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(b) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV
(c) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(d) A – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II
50. Compound A from the following reaction sequence is:

(a) Benzoic Acid

(b) Aniline
(c) Phenol
(d) Salicylic acid

51. The number of following factors which affect the percent covalent character of the ionic bond is ______
(A) Polarising power of cation
(B) Extent of distortion of anion
(C) Polarisability of the anion
(D) Polarising power of anion

52. The maximum number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom from the following species is ________
ClO3–, XeF4, SF4 and I3–

53.
[ ]
Number of ambidentate ligands in a representative metal complex M(en)(SCN) 4 is _______.
[en = ethylenediamine]

54. t87.5 is the time required for the reaction to undergo 87.5% completion and t50 is the time required for the reaction to
undergo 50% completion. The relation between t87.5 and t50 for a first order reaction is t87.5 = x × t50
The value of x is ________. (Nearest integer)

55. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half cells are given below: NO − + 4H+ + 3e– → NO(g) +
3
2H2O Eθ = 0.97 V
V2+(aq) + 2e– → V Eθ = –1.19 V
Fe3+(aq) + 3e– → Fe Eθ = –0.04 V
Ag+(aq) + e– → Ag(s) Eθ = 0.80 V
Au3+(aq) + 3e– → Au(s) Eθ =1.40 V
−
The number of metal(s) which will be oxidized by NO 3 in aqueous solution is _______

56. In Chromyl chloride, the oxidation state of chromium is (+) ______

57. Solution of 12 g of non-electrolyte (A) prepared by dissolving it in 1000 mL of water exerts the same osmotic pressure as
that of 0.05 M glucose solution at the same temperature. The empirical formula of A is CH2O. The molecular mass of A is
_________ g. (Nearest integer)

58.
( )
Values of work function W 0 for a few metals are given below

Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag
W o / eV 2.42 2.3 2.25 3.7 4.8 4.3

The number of metals which will show photoelectric effect when light of wavelength 400nm falls on it is ______
Given: h = 6.6 × 10 − 34Js
e = 3 × 10 8ms − 1
e = 1.6 × 10 − 19C
59. In an electrochemical reaction of lead, at standard temperature, if E 0 2 + 0
Volt and E Pb 4 + / Pb = n volt. Then
0
Pb / Pb = m ( ) ( )
the value of E Pb 2 + / Pb 4 + is given by m – xn. The value of x is ____. (Nearest integer)
( )
60. Consider the graph of Gibbs free energy G vs Extent of reaction. The number of statement/s from the following which are
true with respect to points (a), (b) and (c) is ______

A. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and (b)

B. Reaction is at equilibrium at point (b) and non-spontaneous at point (c)
C. Reaction is spontaneous at (a) and non-spontaneous at (c)
D. Reaction is non-spontaneous at (a) and (b)

61.
The coefficient of x 5 in the expansion of 2x 3 −
( 1
3x 2 ) 5
is

(a) 9
80
(b)
9
26
(c)
3
(d) 8

62.
( )(
If 2nC 3 : nC 3 = 10 : 1, then the ratio n 2 + 3n : n 2 − 3n + 4 is )
(a) 27 : 11
(b) 2: 1
(c) 65 : 37
(d) 35 : 16

63.
Let A = { 1 + 2isin θ
}
θ ∈ (0, 2π) : 1 − isin θ is purely imaginary . Then the sum of the elements in A is

(a) 3π
(b) 2π
(c) π
(d) 4π

64.

[ ]
1 2 3
Let for A = α 3 1 , |A| = 2. If |2 adj(2 adj(2A))| = 32 n, then 3n + α is equal to
1 1 2
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 11
65. For the system of linear equations
2x − y + 3z = 5
3x + 2y − z = 7
4x + 5y + αz = β,
Which of the following is NOT correct?
(a) The system is inconsistent for α = − 5 and β = 8
(b) The system has infinitely many solutions for α = − 5 and β = 9
(c) The system has infinitely many solutions for α = − 6 and β = 9
(d) The system has a unique solution for α ≠ − 5 and β = 8

66. The sum of the first 20 terms of the series 5 + 11 + 19 + 29 + 41 + . . . is

(a) 3520
(b) 3450
(c) 3420
(d) 3250

67. The number of arrangements of the letters of the word “INDEPENDENCE” in which all the vowels always occur together
is
(a) 33600
(b) 14800
(c) 18000
(d) 16800

68. In a bolt factory, machines A, B and C manufacture respectively 20%, 30% and 50% of the total bolts. Of their output 3, 4
and 2 percent are respectively defective bolts. A bolt is drawn at random from the product. If the bolt drawn is found the
defective, then the probability that it is manufactured by the machine C is
3
(a)
7
5
(b)
14
2
(c)
7
9
(d)
28

69. 9
Let the mean and variance of 12 observations be 2 and 4 respectively. Later on, it was observed that two observations were
m
considered as 9 and 10 instead of 7 and 14 respectively. If the correct variance is n , where m and n are coprime, then m + n
is equal to
(a) 316
(b) 317
(c) 314
(d) 315

70. A square piece of tin of side 30 cm is to be made into a box without top by cutting a square from each corner and folding up
the flaps to form a box. If the volume of the box is maximum, then its surface area (in cm2) is equal to
(a) 800
(b) 900
(c) 675
(d) 1025

71. The area of the region enclosed by the curve y = x 3 and its tangent at the point (− 1, − 1) is
19
(a)
4
31
(b)
4
27
(c)
4
23
(d)
4
72. Let f and g be two functions defined by

f(x) =
{ x + 1,
|x − 1|,
x<0
x⩾0
and g(x) =
{ x + 1,
1,
x<0
x⩾0
Then (gof)(x) is
(a) Continuous everywhere but not differentiable at x = 1
(b) Differentiable everywhere
(c) Not continuous at x = − 1
(d) Continuous everywhere but not differentiable exactly at one point

73. dy
If 2x y + 3y x = 20, then dx at (2, 2) is equal to:

(a) −
( 3 + log e8
2 + log e4 )
(b) −
( 2 + log e8
3 + log e4 )
(c) −
( 3 + log e4
2 + log e8 )
(d) −
( 3 + log e16
4 + log e8 )
74.
() 1 1 2
Let 5f(x) + 4f x = x + 3, x > 0. Then 18∫ f(x)dx is equal to:
1
(a) 5log e2 − 3
(b) 10log e2 + 6
(c) 5log e2 + 3
(d) 10log e2 − 6

75. α 23 + β 23 + α 14 + β 14
Let α, β be the roots of the quadratic equation x 2 + √6x + 3 = 0. Then is equal to
α 15 + β 15 + α 10 + β 10
(a) 729
(b) 81
(c) 72
(d) 9

76. x+2 y z−5 x−4 y−1 z+3

The shortest distance between the lines 1 = − 2 = 2 and 1 = 2 = 0 is
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 7
77. Let A be the point (1, 2) and B be any point on the curve x 2 + y 2 = 16. If the centre of the locus of the point P, which
divides the line segment AB in the ratio 3 : 2 is the point C(α, β), then the length of the line segment AC is
2√ 5
(a)
5
3√ 5
(b)
5
6√ 5
(c)
5
4√ 5
(d)
5

78. The area of the quadrilateral ABCD with vertices A (2, 1, 1), B (1, 2, 5), C (–2, –3, 5) and D (1, –6, –7) is equal to
(a) 54
(b) 9√38
(c) 48
(d) 8√38

79. The sum, of the coefficients of the first 50 terms in the binomial expansion of (1 − x) 100, is equal to
(a) − 99C 49
(b) 101C 50
(c) 99C 49
(d) − 101C 50

80. The total number of three-digit numbers, divisible by 3, which can be formed using the digits 1, 3, 5 8, if repetition of digits
is allowed, is
(a) 22
(b) 21
(c) 20
(d) 18

81. Let [x] be the greatest integer ⩽ x. Then the number of points in the interval (− 2, 1), where the function
f(x) = |[x]| + √x − [x] is discontinuous, is

82.
Let [α] denote the greatest integer ⩽ α. Then [√1 ] + [√2 ] + [√3 ] + … + [√120 ] is equal to ____.
83. The sum of all those terms, of the arithmetic progression 3, 8, 13, . . . , 373, which are not divisible by 3, is equal to _____.

84. The largest natural number n such that 3 n divide 66 ! is ______.

85. 2.4
[ ]
Let [t] denote the greatest integer function. If ∫ x 2 dx = α + β√2 + γ√3 + δ√5, then α + β + γ + δ is equal to ___.
0

86. dy 4x x+2
If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation dx + y= 5 , x > 1 such that
(x −1 )
2
(x −1 )
2 2

2
( )
y(2) = 9 log e 2 + √3 and y (√2 ) = αloge (√α + β ) + β − √γ, α, β, γ ∈ N, then αβγ is equal to
87. The number of points, where the curve f(x) = e 8x − e 6x − 3e 4x − e 2x + 1, x ∈ R cuts x-axis, is equal to ______

88.
{ | | }
The number of elements in the set n ∈ Z : n 2 − 10n + 19 < 6 is ______
89.
( ) ( ) ( ) 4
If the solution curve of the differential equation y − 2log ex dx + 2xlog ex dy = 0, x > 1 passes through the points e, 3

( )
and e 4, α , then α is equal to ______.

90. For x ∈ (− 1, 1], the number of solutions of the equation sin − 1x = 2tan − 1x is equal to
Given: 4
 Answer Key

1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. D
7. D 8. B 9. A 10. B 11. A 12. C
13. A 14. A 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. A
19. C 20. A 21. 5 22. 32 23. 5 24. 100
25. 80 26. 25 27. 4 28. 2 29. 2 30. 5
31. B 32. A 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. D
37. D 38. B 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. A
43. B 44. C 45. C 46. A 47. D 48. B
49. C 50. B 51. 3 52. 3 53. 4.00 54. 3
55. 3 56. 6 57. 240 58. 3.00 59. 2.00 60. 2.00
61. B 62. B 63. D 64. D 65. C 66. A
67. D 68. B 69. B 70. A 71. C 72. D
73. B 74. D 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. D
79. A 80. A 81. 2.00 82. 825.00 83. 9525.00 84. 31.00
85. 6.00 86. 6.00 87. 2.00 88. 6.00 89. 3.00 90. 2.00
 Solutions

1. (C)

Applying conservation of linear momentum

→ →
⇒ Pi = Pf
mv + 2m × 0 = (3m) v'
∴ mv = 3mv'
v
v′ = 3

2. (D)
2GM M
Vc =
√ R
⇒ Vc ∝
√ R

M
As R increases ⇒ Vc increases
Statement (1) is correct
1
Also V c ∝
√R
As Vc depends upon R
⇒ Statement (2) is incorrect

3. (A)
→ → →
Resultant of F 2 and F 3should be opposite to F 1
10
a = 5 = 2 m / s2

4. (C)
2d
K metal sheet = ∞, t = 3
∈ 0A
C1 = d
∈ 0A ∈ 0A
C2 = t = 2d = 3C 1
d−t+ k d− 3
+0
C2
C1
=3

5. (D)
Volume = Constant
A 1L 1 = A 2L 2
L
A 1L = A 2 4
4A 1 = A 2
ρL 1 ρL 2
R1 = A R2 = A
1 2
R2 L 2A 1 L A1
R1
= A L = 4 4A L
2 1 1
1
R 2 = 16 R 1 = 10 Ω
6. (D)
KQ
VP = r
9 × 10 9 × 5 × 10 − 9
50 = r
45 9
r = 50 = 10 = 0.9m = 90cm

7. (D)

( )
→ → →
F = F1 + F2

|F | = √F21 + F22 + 2F1F2cos90 ∘

→

A2 A√5
=
√ A2 + 4 = 2

8. (B)

(
x(t) = rcos ωt + 30 ∘ )
x(t) = rcos(ωt + π / 6)

9. (A)
→ → →
v =u+at
V = 150 – 10t
V(3) = 150 – 30 = 120
V(5) = 150 – 50 = 100
120 x+1 6
100
= x
= 5 ⇒x=5
10. (B)
→ → →
A. Torque ⇒ τ = r × F

[
[τ] = [L] MLT − 2 ]
⇒ ML 2T − 2
F MLT − 2
B. Stress = A ⇒
L2
−1 −2
[stress] = ML T
ΔP
C. Pressure gradient = ΔX
[F/A] MLT − 2
⇒ [L]
⇒
L3
⇒ ML − 2T − 2
D. Coefficient of viscosity ⇒ F = 6πηrv
MLT − 2 = [η] L 2T − 1
[η] = ML − 1T − 1

11. (A)
Force = mg = 5000 g
Area of cross section = 250 cm2 = 250 × 10–4 m2
Force
maximum pressure = area of cross section
5000g 20 × g
= = = 2 × 10 6Pa
250 × 10 − 4 10 − 4

12. (C)
FL
ΔL = AY
ΔL A AB YB
ΔL B
= A Y = 12
A A

13. (A)
T = constant ⇒ U = constant

14. (A)
Both statements are correct. Theory based.

15. (D)

Induced emf = B/v

( )
⇒ 0.08 = 0.4 100 v
10

⇒ v=
( )
0.08 × 10
0.4
⇒ v = 2m / s
16. (C)
→
E = 6.6ĵ
v = 20 MHz
c = 3 × 10 8î
→

|E |
→

|B | =
→
c
= 2.2 × 10 − 8T

Ê × B̂ = ĉ
→
B = 2.2 × 10 − 8k̂T

17. (D)
hc 1
ΔE = λ ⇒ λα ΔE
For shortest wavelength, energy gap should be maximum.
So, correct choice is transition from n = 3 to n = 1.

18. (A)

δ = 180 ∘ − 60 ∘ = 120 ∘

19. (C)

On displacing m to right by x
F = – (k1x + k2x) = –(k1 + k2)x

F
a= m = −
( )
k1 + k2

k1 + k2
m
x = − ω 2x

√
2π m
∴ ω= m
⇒ T = ω = 2π
√ k1 + k2

20. (A)
Dλ
Fringe width (β) = d
β2 λ2
⇒ β = λ
1 1
β2 600nm 3
⇒ 2mm = 400nm = 2
⇒ β 2 = 3mm
21. (5)
2 2
For ring I = mR 1 = mK 1
∴ Radius of gyration K1 = R1
For solid sphere
2
I ′ = 5 m ′ R 22 = m ′ K 22
2
∴ Its radius of gyration = K 2 =
√ R
5 2

∵ K1 = K2
2
∴ R1 =
√ R
5 2

R1 2
∴ R =
2 √ 5

∴x=5

22. (32)
4
W = ∫ (2 + 3x) dx
0

[ ]
4
3x 2
= 2x + 2
0
=8+3×8
= 32 J

23. (5)
Charge on C 1 is Q 1 = 2 × 10 = 20μC (i)
Charge on C 2 is Q 2 = x × 10 = 10xμC (ii)
Charge on C 3 is Q 3 = 3 × 10 = 30μC (iii)
Total charge 20 + 10x + 30 = 100
⇒x=5

24. (100)
Maximum resistance occurs
When all the resisters are connected in series combination
∴ Rmax = 10 R
Here R = 10 ohm
Minimum resistance occurs
When all the resistance are connected in parallel combination
R
R min = 10
R max
∴ R = 100
min

25. (80)
By equation of continuity
A 1V 1 = A 2V 2
2×4
V2 = = 80 cm / s
10 × 10 − 2
26. (25)
62.8 × 10 3
stress π × ( 0.02 ) 2
Strain = Y
=
2 × 10 11
62.8 × 10 3
=
3.14 × 4 × 10 − 4 × 2 × 10 11
= 2.5 × 10 − 4
= 25 × 10 − 5

27. (4)
XL ωL
Quality factor = R = R
1 1 10 3
ω= = = 2.5 = 400 / sec
√LC √1 × 6.25 × 10 − 6
400 × 1
Q-factor = 100
=4

28. (2)
μ 0I 4π × 10 − 7 × 14
B at O = 4R =
4 × 2.2 × 10 − 2
= 2 × 10 − 4T

29. (2)
n2
r∝ z
r He + 22 × 4 1
r Be 3 +
= 2×4×4 = 2

30. (5)

Let power of each part is P1, then

1
P1 + P1 = P = f
1
2P 1 = 0.1 = 10
P1 = 5D

31. (B)
5f orbital not buried as 4f orbitals so electron present in 5f orbital experience less nuclear attraction than electron present in 4f
orbital. Hence electrons of 5f orbital can take part in bonding to a far greater extent.

32. (A)
Boron is non- metallic in nature. It is extremely hard and black coloured solid. It exists in many allotropic forms. Due to very
strong crystalline lattice, boron has unusually high melting point and boiling point.
33. (C)
For option (A)
Cr+3 : 3d3
CN– → SFL
No. of unpaired electrons = 3
For option (B)
Fe+2 : 3d6
H2O:WFL
No. of unpaired electrons = 4
For option (C)
Co+3 : 3d6
NH3 : SFL
No. of unpaired electrons = 0
For option (D)
Ni+2 : 3d8
NH3 : SFL
No. of unpaired electrons = 2

34. (A)

35. (C)
Factual

36. (D)

37. (D)
a 0n 2
(r3)H = Z = a0 × 32 = 9a0
2πr = nλ
⇒ 2π × 9a0 = 3λ
⇒ λ = 6πa0
38. (B)
Electronegativity of an element depends on the atom with which it is attached.
NO = neutral oxide
Al2O3 = amphoteric oxide

39. (B)
Ozonolysis of alkene, gives aldehyde, ketone & carboxylic acid.

40. (C)

41. (B)
1
Acidic strength ∝ + I effect
Acidic strength ∝ − I effect
F > Cl > Br –I effect order
A)

B)

⇒ 3, –I group
C)

D)

E)

So option B > D > C > E > A

42. (A)

Chlorine is ortho/para directing, para is major.

43. (B)
r = K[A]1[B]1
0.1 = K(20)1 (0.5)1 …(i)
0.40 = K(x)1 (0.5)1 …(ii)
0.80 = K(40)1 (y)1 …(iii)
From (i) and (ii)
x = 80
From (i) and (iii)
y=2

44. (C)
Number of atoms of iodine on reactant side = number of atoms of Iodine on product side
2+x=6×2
x = 10
−
2IO 3 + 10I– + 12H+ → 6I2 + 6H2O

45. (C)
1)

2) Meso compound are optically inactive.

46. (A)
− 2.18 × 10 − 18Z 2
En =
n2
1
i.e. E n ∝
n2

47. (D)
Cl has the most negative ΔHeg among all the elements and Ne has the most positive ΔHeg.
48. (B)
[Cr(ox)2ClBr]3–
No. of isomers-

This structure has plane of symmetry, So no optical isomerism will be shown.

This structure does not contain plane of symmetry, So two forms d as well as l will be shown.

49. (C)
Factual

50. (B)

51. (3)
(a), (b) and (c) are factors which affect the percent covalent character of the ionic bond according to Fajan’s rule
52. (3)

53. (4.00)
[M(en)(SCN)4]

Ambidentate ligand means two ligand site,

so ambidentate ligand is SCN–.
Ans: 4

54. (3)
12.5 A0
A t = A 0 × 100 = 8 [87.5% complete]
t1 / 2 t1 / 2 t1 / 2
A0 A0 A0
A0 → 2 → 4 → 8
t87.5 = 3t1/2
∴x=3

55. (3)
−
Metal having lower SRP than 0.97V will be oxidised by NO 3 .

56. (6)
CrO2Cl2x – 4 – 2 = 0
Oxidation State = +6

57. (240)
For Isotonic solutions
π1 = π 2
⇒ C1 = C2
12
x
= 0.05[x → Molar Mass of A]
x = 240

58. (3.00)
1240
E(ev) = 400 = 3.1 ev
Mg, Cu, Ag
Ans. 3
59. (2.00)
0 0
Pb2+ +2e– → Pb, ∆G 1 = –2FE 1
0 0
Pb4+ + 4e– → Pb, ∆G 2 = –4FE 2
0 0
Pb2+ → Pb4+ + 2e–, ∆G 3 = –2FE 3
0 0 0
∆G 3 = ∆G 1 – ∆G 2
0
–2FE 3 = 2F(2n – m)
0
E 3 = m – 2n = m – xn
Hence x = 2

60. (2.00)
For, Spontaneous process dG < 0
For, Equilibrium dG = 0
For, Nonspontaneous process dG > 0
∴ A Wrong
B Correct
C Correct
D Wrong

61. (B)

(2x 3 −
1
3x 2 ) 5

T r + 1 = 5C r 2x 3
5−r −1 r
3x 2( )
= 5C
(2) 5−r
( )
r ( − 3 ) r (x)
15 − 5r

∴ 15 − 5r = 5
∴ r=2

T 3 = 10 9 x 5
()8

80
So, coefficient is 9

62. (B)
2n
C3 2n ( 2n − 1 ) ( 2n − 2 )
nC = 10 ⇒ n(n−1) (n−2)
= 10
3

( )(
So n 2 + 3n : n 2 − 3n + 4 = 2 )
63. (D)

1 + 2isin θ 1 + isin θ
Let z = 1 − isin θ × 1 + isin θ
( 1 + 2isin θ ) ( 1 + isin θ )
z=
1 + sin 2θ
For purely imaginary Re(Z) = 0
1 − 2sin 2θ
∴ =0
1 + sin 2θ
1
sin 2θ = 2
1
sinθ = ±
√2
π 3π 5π 7π
θ = 4, 4 , 4 , 4
Sum of the elements in A = 4π
64. (D)

[ ]
1 2 3
A= a 3 1
1 1 2
|A| = 2
1(6 − 1) − 2(2α − 1) + 3(α − 3) = 2
5 − 4α + 2 + 3α − 9 = 2
−α − 4 = 0
α= −4
8|adj(2 adj(2A))|

| (
8 adj 2 × 2 2adj(A) )|
8 |adj (2 adj(A) )|
3

8 |2 adj(adj(A)) |
6

2 (2 ) |adj(adj)|
3 6 3

2 3.2 18|A| 4
5
( )
2 21.2 4 = 2 25 = 2 5 = (32) 5
n=5
α= −4

65. (C)

| |
2 −1 3
Δ= 3 2 − 1 = 7(α + 5)
4 5 α

| |
5 −1 3
Δ1 = 7 2 − 1 = 17α − 5β + 130
β 5 α

| |
2 5 3
Δ2 = 3 7 − 1 = − 11β + α + 104
4 β α

| |
2 −1 5
Δ3 = 3 2 7 = 7(β − 9)
4 5 β
For infinitely many solutions
Δ = Δ1 = Δ2 = Δ3 = 0
For α = − 5 and β = 9
Hence option (c) is incorrect.
66. (A)
S 20 = 5 + 11 + 19 + 29 + . . .
Let T r = ar 2 + br + c
T1 = a + b + c = 5
T 2 = 4a + 2b + c = 11
T 3 = 9a + 3b + c = 19
a = 1, b = 3, c = 1
20 20 20
Hence S 20 = ∑ r 2 + 3 ∑ r + ∑ 1 = 3520
r=1 r=1 r=1

67. (D)
Vowels: I, 4E
Consonants: 3N, 2D, P, C
Total ways of arranging taking vowels together
8! 5!
= 3!2! × 4!
= 16800

68. (B)

()
P D
C 0.5 × 0.02
= 0.2 × 0.03 + 0.3 × 0.04 + 0.5 × 0.02

5
= 14

69. (B)

9
Given mean (xˉ ) = 2
9
12 × 2 + 7 + 14 − 9 − 10 14
xˉ new = 12
= 3 . . . . (i)
Given, σ 2 = 4

()
∑ xi2 9 2
σ2 = 12 − 2

∑ xi 2
81
4 = 12 − 4
∑ xi2 97
12
= 4
2
∑ x i = 291
Now,
∑ xi2( )
new
= 291 − 9 2 − 10 2 + 7 2 + 14 2 = 355

∑ xi2( )
( )
2 new
∴ σ new = 12
− xˉ new 2

2
σ new = 12 −
355
() 14 2
3
281
= 36 (from eq. (i))
70. (A)

Volume (V) = x(30 − 2x) 2

dV
dx
= (30 − 2x)(30 − 6x) = 0
x = 5 cm
Surface area = 4 × 5 × 20 + (20) 2 = 800 cm2

71. (C)

Equation of tangent: y + 1 = 3(x + 1)

i.e., y = 3x + 2
Point of intersection with curve (2, 8)
2
((3x + 2) − x )dx =
27
So Area = ∫ 3
4
−1

72. (D)

{
x + 1, x<0
f(x) = 1 − x, 0⩽x<1
x − 1, 1⩽x

g(x) =
{ x + 1,
1,
x<0
x⩾0

g(f(x)) =
{ x + 2,
1,
x< −1
x⩾ −1
∴ g(f(x)) is continuous everywhere
g(f(x)) is not differentiable at x = − 1
Differentiable everywhere else

73. (B)
2x y + 3y x = 20

[ y
2x y x + (lnx)y ′ + 3y x ] [ ]
xy ′
y
+ lny = 0

y′ =
− ( 12ln 2 + 8 )
12 + 8ln 2
= −
( )
2 + log e8
3 + log e4
74. (D)

5f(x) + 4f x
() 1

1
= x +3
1
. . . . (1)

Replace x → x

()
5f x
1
+ 4f(x) = x + 3 . . . . (2)

Eq. (1) × 5 − eq. (2) × 4

1
f(x) = 9 x − 4x + 3
( 5
)
( )
21 5
I = 18∫ 9 x − 4x + 3 dx = 10log e2 − 6
1

75. (B)

− √6 ± √6 − 12 − √6 ± √6i
α, β = 2
= 2
3πi
= √3e ± 4

Required expression

=
( √3 ) 23 ( 2cos
69π
4 ) + ( √3 ) 14 ( 2cos
42π
4 )
( √3 ) 15 ( 2cos
45π
4 ) + ( √3 ) 10 ( 2cos
30π
4 )
(√3 )8 = 81
76. (A)
Given lines
x+2 y z−5 x−4 y−1 z+3
1
= −2 = 2 & 1 = 2 = 0
Formula for shortest distance

| |
x2 − x1 y2 − y1 z2 − z1
a1 b1 c1
a2 b2 c2

S.D. =

| |
î ĵ k̂
a1 b1 c1
a2 b2 c2

| |
6 1 −8
1 −2 2
1 2 0
54
= = 6 =9

| |
î ĵ k̂
1 −2 2
1 2 0
77. (B)

12cos θ + 2
5
= h ⇒ 12cosθ = 5h − 2
12sin θ + 4
5
= k ⇒ 12sinθ = 5k − 4
Squaring and adding
144 = (5h − 2) 2 + (5k − 4) 2

( ) ( )
x− 5
2 2
+ y− 5
4 2 144
= 25

( )
Centre ≡
2 4
5 5
, ≡ (α, β)

√( ) ( )
AC = 1− 5
2 2
+ 2− 5
4 2

9 36 √45 3√ 5
=
√ 25
+ 25 = 5 = 5

78. (D)

→
AB ≡ (− 1, 1, 4)
→
AD ≡ (− 1, − 7, − 8)

| |
→ → î ĵ k̂
AB × AD = − 1 1 4
−1 −7 −8

= 20î − 12ĵ + 8k̂

1
A1 = 2 √(20) 2 + (− 12) 2 + (8) 2 = 2√38

| |
î ĵ k̂
CB × CD = 3 5 0 = − 60î + 36ĵ − 24k̂
3 − 3 − 12
1
A 2 = 2 (60) 2 + (36) 2 + (− 24) 2 = 6√38
√
∴ Area = A 1 + A 2 = 8√38
79. (A)

(1 − x) 100 = C 0 − C 1x + C 2x 2 − C 3x 3 + . . . C 99x 99 + C 100x 100

⇒ C 0 − C 1 + C 2 − C 3 + . . . . − C 99 + C 100 = 0

(
2 C 0 − C 1 + C 2 + . . . − C 49 + C 50 = 0 )
1
C 0 − C 1 + C 2 + . . . . C 49 = − 2 100C 50
1 100 ! 1 100 × 99 !
− 2 50 ! 50 ! = − 2 × 50 ! 50 ! = − 99C 49

80. (A)
(1, 1, 1) (3, 3, 3) (5, 5, 5) (8, 8, 8)
(5, 5, 8) (8, 8, 5) (1, 3, 5) (1, 3, 8)
3! 3!
Total number = 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 ! + 2 ! + 3 ! + 3 ! = 22

81. (2.00)

Need to check at doubtful points

discontinuous at x ∈ I only
At x = − 1 ⇒ f − 1 + = 1 + 0 = 1 ( )
( )
⇒ f −1 − = 2 + 1 = 3

At x = 0 ⇒ f 0 + = 0 + 0 = 0( )
( )
⇒ f 0− = 1 + 1 = 2
At x = 1
Discontinuous at two points

82. (825.00)

[√1 ] + [√2 ] + [√3 ] + . . . [√120 ]

⇒ 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 3 + . . . + 3 = 7 times
+ 4 + 4 + . . . + 4 = 9 times + . . . . .10 + 10 + . . . . . + 10 = 21 times
10
⇒ ∑ (2r + 1). r
r=1
10 10
⇒ 2 ∑ r2 + ∑ r
r=1 r=1
10 × 11 × 21 10 × 11
⇒2× 6
+ 2
⇒ 770 + 55
⇒ 825

83. (9525.00)
Required sum = (3 + 8 + 13 + 18 + . . . + 373) − (3 + 18 + 33 + . . . + 363)
75 25
= 2 (3 + 373) − 2 (3 + 363)
= 75 × 188 − 25 × 183
= 9525

84. (31.00)

[]66
3
+
[][]
66
3 2 +
66
33
= 22 + 7 + 2 = 31
85. (6.00)
2.4

0
[ ]
∫ x 2 dx

1 √2 √3 √4 √5 2.4
= ∫ 0 dx + ∫ 1 dx + ∫ 2 dx + ∫ 3 dx + ∫ 4 dx + ∫ 5 dx
0 1 √2 √3 √4 √5
= 9 − √2 − √3 − √5
∴ α = 9, β = − 1, γ = − 1, δ = − 1
∴ α+β+γ+δ=6

86. (6.00)

dy 4x x+2
dx
+ y= 5 ,x > 1
( x2 − 1 ) ( x2 − 1 ) 2

4x
I.F. = e ∫ x 2 − 1 dx
I.F. = x 2 − 1 ( ) 2

((
⇒ d y. x 2 − 1 )) 2
=
(x −1 )
x+2

2
5
2
(
. x2 − 1 ) 2

((
⇒ ∫ d y. x 2 − 1 ) )=∫
2

(
x+2

x2 − 1 )
1
2
dx . . . . (1)

( ) √x 2 − 1 + 2ln (x + √x 2 − 1 ) + C
2
y x2 − 1 =

⇒ C = − √3

( ) √x 2 − 1 + 2ln (x + √x 2 − 1 ) − √3
2
So x 2 − 1 =

⇒ αβγ = 6

87. (2.00)
Let e 2x = t
⇒ t 4 − t 3 − 3t 2 − t + 1 = 0

⇒ t2 +
( ) 1
2
t
− t+ t
1
−3=0

⇒ t+ t
( ) ( ) 1 2
− t+ t
1
−5=0

1 1 + √21
⇒t+ t = 2
Two real values of t.

88. (6.00)
− 6 < n 2 − 10n + 19 < 6
⇒ n 2 − 10n + 25 > 0 and n 2 − 10n + 13 < 0, n ∈ 5 − 2√3, 5 + 2√3 [ ]
n ∈ R − [5]
∴ n ∈ [1.3, 8.3]
⇒ n = 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8
89. (3.00)
dy y 1
dx
+ 2xln x = x
1
I.F. = e ∫ 2xln x dx = √lnx
1
y√lnx = ∫ x √lnxdx
1
Put lnx = t 2 ⇒ x dx = 2t dt
⇒ y√lnx = ∫ 2t 2dt
3
2 ( ln x ) 2 2
y√lnx = 3
+3

(e , α ) satisfies curve
4

∴ α=3

90. (2.00)