Physics: A G A W

500 MOST WRONGLY ATTEMPTED
NEET QUESTIONNAIRE
PHYSICS
1. A 50 Hz alternating current of peak value 1A flows through the primary coil of a transformer. If the
mutual inductance between the primary and secondary be 1.5 H, then the mean value of the induced
voltage is
(a) 75 V
(b) 150 V
(c) 225 V
(d) 300 V
2. A capacitor is connected to a cell of emf E and some internal resistance r. The potential difference across
the
(a) Cell is E
(b) Cell is < E
(c) Capacitor is < E
(d) Capacitor is > E
3. 3 4
Given aμ g = 2
and aμ w = 3 . There is an equiconvex lens with radius of each surface equal to 20 cm.
There is air in the object space and water in the image space. The focal length of lens is
(a) 80 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 10 cm
4. A body of mass 2 kg has an initial velocity of 3 m/s along OE and it is subjected to a force of 4 N in a
direction perpendicular to OE (x axis). The displacement of body from O after 4 sec.
(a) 12 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 8m
(d) 48 m
5. A heavy small-sized sphere is suspended by a string of length l. The sphere rotates uniformly in a
horizontal circle with the string making an angle θ with the vertical. Then, the time-period of this conical
pendulum is
l
(a) t = 2π
√ g
lsin θ
(b) t = 2π
√ g
lcos θ
(c) t = 2π
√ g
l
(d) t = 2π
√ gcos θ
6. A body of mass 1 kg is rotating in a vertical circle of radius 1m, What will be the difference in its kinetic
energy at the top and bottom of the circle? (take g = 10 ms-2)
(a) 10 J
(b) 20 J
(c) 30 J
(d) 50 J
7. A mass m is released from a distance 2R from center on the axis of a fixed ring of mass M and radius R.
Speed of mass m at distance R from center of ring is
(a) v = √ ( √)
GM√2
R
1−
2
5
(b) v = √ ( √)
2GM
R
1−
2
5
(c) v = √ ( √)
GM
2R
1−
2
5
(d) v = √ ( √)
GM
R
1−
2
5
8. Two identical piano wires, kept under the same tension T, have a fundamental frequency of 600Hz. The
fractional increase in the tension of one the wires will lead to occurrence of 6 beats s − 1 when both the
wires oscillate together would be :
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.02
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.04
9. 10 gm of ice at – 20°C is dropped into a calorimeter containing 10 gm of water at 10°C, the specific heat
of water is twice that of ice. When equilibrium is reached, the calorimeter will contain (specific heat of
water = 1 cal/gm)
(a) 20 gm of water
(b) 20 gm of ice
(c) 10 gm ice and 10 gm water
(d) 5 gm ice and 15 gm water
10. Moment of inertia of a uniform annular disc of internal radius r and external radius R and mass M about
an axis through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is:
1
(a)
2
M(R 2 − r 2)
1
(b)
2
M(R 2 + r 2)
M ( R4 + r4 )
(c)
2 ( R2 + r2 )
1 M ( R4 + r4 )
(d)
2 ( R2 − r2 )
11. A triangular loop PQR, carrying current i, is placed in uniform magnetic field B as shown in figure. The
length of side PQ is L. Then correct option regarding magnetic force is
(a) The force on side PQ is (iBL) and directed into the page.
(b) The force on side PQ is (iBL) and directed out side the page
(c) The force on side PR is (iBL) and directed into the page.
√3
(d) The force on side PR is iBL and directed into the page.
2
12. An object is projected with a velocity of 20 m/s making an angle of 45° with horizontal. The equation
for trajectory is y = Ax − Bx 2, where y is height and x is the horizontal distance. A and B are constants.
The ratio A : B (in m) is
(Take, g = 10 m/s2 )
(a) 1 : 5
(b) 5 : 1
(c) 1 : 40
(d) 40 : 1
13. A particle is thrown with speed u at an angle of 45o from the horizontal on a plane ground. Find the
( ) √2u
magnitude of change in velocity, between the initial instant (t = 0) and the final instant t = 10 . (Take
g = 10 m/s2)
(a) u√2
(b) Zero
u
(c)
√2
(d) u
14. A projectile is thrown up with initial speed u at angle θ with the horizontal. It just crosses a tower
horizontally. The tower is 100 m high and the foot of the tower is at 200 m from the point of projection.
The angle of projection θ is
(a) 30º
(b) 45º
(c) 60º
(d) 70º
15. →
( )
A body is rotating with angular velocity ω = 3 î − 4ĵ + k̂ . The linear velocity of a point having
( )
position vector →r = 5 î − 6ĵ + 6k̂ is:
(a) 6 î + 2ĵ − 3k̂
(b) 18 î + 13ĵ − 2k̂
(c) − 18 î − 13ĵ + 2k̂
(d) 6 î − 2ĵ + 8k̂
16. If the angular momentum of a rotating body about a fixed axis is increased by 10%, then its kinetic
energy will be increased by
(a) 11%
(b) 25%
(c) 20%
(d) 5%
17. Consider an electron in the nth orbit of a hydrogen atom in the Bohr model. The circumference of the
orbit can be expressed in terms of de-Broglie wavelength λ of that electron as
(a) 0.529nλ
(b) nλ
(c) 13.6nλ
(d) √nλ
18. An open pipe is in resonance in its 2nd harmonic with tuning fork of frequency f 1. Now, it is closed at
one end. If the frequency of the tuning fork is increased slowly fromf 1, then again a resonance is
obtained with a frequency f 2. If in this case the pipe vibrates nth harmonic, then
3
(a) n = 3, f 1 = f 2
4
5
(b) n = 3, f 2 = f 1
4
5
(c) n = 5, f 2 = 4 f 1
3
(d) n = 5, f 2 = f 1
4
19. Moment of inertia of a rod of mass m and length l about its centre is I. If one-fourth of its length is cut
away, then moment of inertia of the remaining rod about one of its end will be
3
(a) I
4
9
(b) I
16
27
(c) I
64
27
(d) I
16
20. A ball rolls off the edge of a horizontal table-top 4 m high. If it strikes the floor at a point 5 m
horizontally away from the edge of the table, what was its speed at the instant it left the table?
(a) 2.5 ms − 1
(b) 3.5 ms − 1
(c) 5.5 ms − 1
(d) 6.5 ms − 1
21. A transverse sinusoidal wave of amplitude a, wavelength λ and frequency n is travelling on a stretched
string. The maximum speed of particle is (1/10) th the speed of propagation of the wave. If a = 10 − 3m
and υ = 10ms − 1, then λ is given by
(a) λ = 2π × 10 − 2m
(b) λ = 10 − 3m
10 4
(c) n = Hz
2π
(d) n = 10 4Hz
22. The speed of a uniform spherical shell after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h from rest
is:
10gh
(a)
√ 7
6gh
(b)
√ 5
4gh
(c)
√ 5
(d) √2gh
23. A car sometimes overturns while taking a turn. When it overturns, then correct statement is
(a) The inner wheel which leaves the ground first
(b) The outer wheel which leaves the ground first
(c) Both the wheels leave the ground simultaneously
(d) Either wheel leaves the ground first
24. Two masses m1 = 5 kg and m2 = 10 kg, connected by an inextensible string over a frictionless pulley, are
moving as shown in the figure. The coefficient of friction between the block and the horizontal surface is
0.15. The minimum weight m that should be put on top of m2 to stop the motion is:
(a) 10.3 kg
(b) 18.3 g
(c) 23.3 kg
(d) 43.3 kg
25. A body of mass 2 kg starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration. It acquires a velocity 20 ms-1
in 4s.
The power exerted on the body at 2 s is
(a) 50 W
(b) 100 W
(c) 150 W
(d) 200 W
26. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i,on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be
small) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism is μ, then the
angle of incidence i, is nearly equal to
(a) μA
μA
(b)
2
A
(c)
μ
A
(d)
2μ
27. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas (initial temperature T0) is made to go through the cycle abca as
shown in the figure. If U denotes the internal energy, then choose the wrong option:
(a) U c − U a = 21RT 0
(b) U c − U a = 10.5RT 0
(c) U b − U a = 4.5RT 0
(d) U c − U b = 6RT 0
28. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a velocity of 400 ms-1 strikes a wooden block of mass 2
kg which is suspended by a light inextensible string of length 5 m. As a result, the centre of gravity of
the block is found to rise a vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it emerges out
horizontally from the block will be
(a) 80 ms-1
(b) 120 ms-1
(c) 160 ms-1
(d) 100 ms-1
29. A Ge specimen is doped with Al. The concentration of acceptor atoms is − 10 21atoms / m 3. Given that the
intrinsic concentration of electron hole pairs is, the concentration of electrons in the specimen is
(a) 10 17 / m 3
(b) 10 15 / m 3
(c) 10 4 / m 3
(d) 10 2 / m 3
30. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process described by the equation PV3 = constant. The
heat capacity of the gas during this process is
5
(a) R
2
(b) 2R
(c) R
3
(d) 2 R
31. In the given figure, a = 15m / s 2 represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise
direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is
(a) 5.0 m/s

(b) 5.7 m/s
(c) 6.2 m/s
(d) 4.5 m/s
32. Current in the circuit will be
5
(a) A
40
5
(b) A
50
5
(c) A
10
5
(d) A
20
33. Three liquids of densities ρ 1, ρ 2 and ρ 3 (with ρ 1 > ρ 2 > ρ 3), having the same value of surface tension
T, rise to the same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of contact θ 1, θ 2 and θ 3 obey
π
(a) 0 ⩽ θ 1 < θ 2 < θ 3 <
2
π
(b) < θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < π
2
π
(c) π < θ 1 < θ 2 < θ 3 <
2
π
(d) < θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < 0
2
34. A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius r. The magnetic field changes with time
→
dB
at a rate dt . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop 2 of radius R is outside the region of
magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the e.m.f. generated is
→ →
(a) dB dB
− dt πr 2 in loop 1 and − dt πR 2 in loop 2
→
(b) − dB
dt
πR 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
→
dB
(c) − πr 2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
(d) Zero in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
35. Which of the following combination should be selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit.?
(a) R = 25 Ω, L = 2.5 H, C = 45 μF
(b) R = 15 Ω, L = 3.5 H, C = 30 μF
(c) R = 25 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 45 μF
(d) R = 20 Ω, L = 1.5 H, C = 35 μF
36. A slab of stone of area 0.36 m 2and thickness 0.1 mis exposed on the lower surface of steam at100 ∘ C. A
block of ice at 0 ∘ Crests on the upper surface of the slab. In one hour, 4.8 kgof ice is melted. The thermal
conductivity of slab is (Take, latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 10 5 J kg − 1)
(a) 1.24 Jm − 1s − 1 ∘ C − 1
(b) 1.29 Jm − 1s − 1 ∘ C − 1
(c) 2.05 Jm − 1s − 1 ∘ C − 1
(d) 1.02 Jm − 1s − 1 ∘ C − 1
37. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then, which of the following statement is NOT
true?
(a) Open end will be anti-node.
(b) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated.
(c) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated.
(d) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends.
38. A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net field E
at the centre O, is
q
(a) ĵ
4π 2ε 0r 2
q
(b) − ĵ
4π 2ε 0r 2
q
(c) − ĵ
2π 2ε 0r 2
q
(d) ĵ
2π 2ε 0r 2
39. Two satellites of mass m1 and m2 (where m1 is greater than m2) are going around the earth in the orbit of
radius r1 and r2 (r1 > r2), then the correct relation of the velocities will be
v1 v2
(a) = r
r1 2
v
(b) 1 < v 2
(c) v 1 = v 2
(d) v 1 > v 2
40. Two resistances R 1 and R 2 are joined as shown in the figure to two batteries of e.m.f. E 1 and E 2. If E 2 is
short-circuited, the current through R 1
(a) E 1 / R 1
(b) E 2 / R 1
(c) E 2 / R 2
(d) E 1 / (R 2 + R 1)
41. A liquid with coefficient of volume expansion γ is filled in a container of a material having the
coefficient of linear expansion α. If the liquid overflows on heating, then
(a) γ= 3α
(b) γ> 3α
(c) γ< 3α
(d) γ= 2α
42. In an AC circuit potential difference across an inductance and resistance connected in series are 16 volt
and 20 volt respectively. Then the total potential difference across the circuit will be
(a) 25.6 volt
(b) 35.5 volt
(c) 53.5 volt
(d) 12.5 volt
43. Certain amount of heat is given to 100 g of copper to increase its temperature by 21 ∘ C. If the same
amount of heat is given to 50 g of water, then the rise in its temperature (in oC) is (specific heat
capacity of copper = 400 Jkg − 1K − 1and that for water = 4200 Jkg − 1K − 1)
(a) 4 ∘ C
(b) 5.25 ∘ C
(c) 8 ∘ C
(d) 6 ∘ C
44. An alternating voltage is connected in series with a resistance R and an inductance L. If the potential
drop across the resistance is 200 V and across the inductance is 150 V, then the applied voltage is
(a) 350 V
(b) 250 V
(c) 500 V
(d) 300 V
45. Work done during isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from 10 atm to 1 atm at 300 K is
(Gas constant = 2)
(a) 938.8 cal.
(b) 1138.8 cal.
(c) 1381.8 cal.
(d) 1581.8 cal.
46. There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane of the paper. An irregular
shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a circular loop in the plane of the paper. Then,
(a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction
(b) current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction
(c) AC is induced in the loop
(d) No current is induced in the loop
47. A single slit of width 0.20 mm is illuminated with light of wavelength 500 nm. The observing screen is
placed 80 cm from the slit. The width of the central bright fringe will be:
(a) 1 mm
(b) 2 mm
(c) 4 mm
(d) 5 mm
48. A coil of area 80 square cm and 50 turns is rotating with 2000 revolutions per minute about an axis
perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.05 Tesla. The maximum value of the e.m.f. developed in it?
(a) 200π volt
10π
(b) volt
3
4π
(c) volt
3
2
(d) volt
3
49. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of same length and the same material is shown in figure.
The thinnest wire is represented by line
(a) OC
(b) OD
(c) OA
(d) OB
50. A body weighs 200 N on the surface of the earth. How much will it weigh half way down to the centre
of the earth?
(a) 200 N
(b) 250 N
(c) 100 N
(d) 150 N
51. Two particles of charge –4 μC and + 4 μC are placed at the points A(1, 0, 4) and B(2, –1, 5) located in an
electric field E = 0.20 î V / C. Then, torque acting on the dipole (formed of these charges) will be
(a) 2.31 × 10–6 N-m
(b) 1.13 × 10–6 N-m
(c) 7.11 × 10–6 N-m
(d) 7.04 × 10–6 N-m
52.
( 2πt
)
The equation of the displacement of a particle is given by y = 10sin 30 + α ; if displacement is 5 cm at
t = 0 , then the total phase at t = 7.5 second will be

2π
(a) rad
3
2π
(b) rad
5
π
(c) 3 rad
π
(d) rad
6
53. An electron is moving in a circular path under the influence of a transverse magnetic field of
3.57 × 10 − 2T. IF the value of e/m is 1.76 × 10 11C / kg, the frequency of revolution of the electron is
(a) 100 MHz
(b) 62.8 MHz
(c) 6.28 MHz
(d) 1 GHz
54. The ·maximum height attained by a projectile is increased by 10% by increasing its speed of projection
without changing the angle of projection. The percentage increase in the horizontal range will be
(a) 20%
(b) 15%
(c) 10%
(d) 5%
55. A proton is projected with a speed of 3 × 10 6m / s horizontally from east to west. An uniform magnetic
field of strength 2 × 10 − 3T exist in the vertically upward direction. What would be the acceleration of
proton?
(a) 11.6 × 10 11m / s 2
(b) 17.4 × 10 11m / s 2
(c) 5.8 × 10 11m / s 2
(d) 2.9 × 10 11m / s 2
56. The different lines in the Lyman series have their wavelengths lying between (nearly)
(a) zero to infinite
(b) 900 Å to 1215 Å
(c) 1250 Å to 1550 Å
(d) 500 Å to 1000 Å
57. In an experiment on photoelectric effect the frequency ν of the incident light is plotted against the
stopping potential V 0. The work function of the photoelectric surface is given by (e is electronic charge)
(a) OB × e in eV
(b) OB in volt
(c) OA in eV
(d) The slope of the line AB
58. Two metallic plates of equal lengths and thermal conductivities k1 and k2 are put together such that their
ends coincide. If their cross-sectional areas are the same, then the equivalent thermal conductivity of the
combination will be :
k 1k 2
(a)
k1 + k2
2k 1k 2
(b)
k1 + k2
k1 + k2
(c)
2
(d) √ k 1k 2
59. A certain mass of hydrogen is changed to Helium by the process of fusion. The mass defect in fusion
reaction is 0.02866 u. The energy liberated per nucleon is
(given 1 u = 931 MeV)
(a) 2.67 MeV
(b) 26.7 MeV
(c) 6.675 MeV
(d) 13.35 MeV
60.
[ ]
Let E = E 0sin 10 6x − ωt be the electric field of plane electromagnetic wave travelling in vacuum, the
value of ω is
(a) 0.3 × 10 − 14rad s − 1
(b) 3 × 10 − 14rad s − 1
(c) 3 × 10 15rad s − 1
(d) 3 × 10 14rad s − 1
61. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength λ, the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting
3λ
wavelength is changed to 4 , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will become
3
(a) v
√ 4
4
(b) v
√ 3
3
(c) less than v
√ 4
4
(d) greater than v
√ 3
62. In the figure, magnetic energy stored in the coil is
(a) zero
(b) infinite
(c) 25 J
(d) 50 J
63. A ball is projected from the ground at angle θ with the horizontal. After 1s it is moving at angle 45o with
the horizontal and after 2 s it is moving horizontally. What is the velocity of projection of the ball?
−1
(a) 10√3 m s
(b) 20√3 m s − 1
(c) 10√5 m s − 1
(d) 20√2 m s − 1
64. A block of mass 5 kg is moving horizontally at a speed of 1.5 ms-1. A vertically upward force 5 N acts
on it for 4 s. What will be the displacement of the block from the point where the force starts acting?
(a) 2 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 8 m
(d) 10 m
65. A cube made of material having a density of 0.9 × 10 3 kg / m 3 floats between water and a liquid of
density 0.7 × 10 3 kg / m 3, which is immiscible with water. What fraction of volume of the cube is
immersed in water?
1
(a)
3
2
(b)
3
3
(c)
4
3
(d)
7
66. An inductor is connected to a battery through a switch. Induced emf is e1 when the switch is pressed and
e2 when the switch is opened. Then
(a) e1 = e2
(b) e1 > e2
(c) e1 < e2
e1
(d)
e2
67. A slide projector gives a magnification of 10. If it projects a slide of dimensions 3cm × 2cm onto a
screen, the area of the image on the screen will be
(a) 6 cm2
(b) 60 cm2
(c) 600 cm2
(d) 6000 cm2
68. When a metal wire elongates by hanging a load Mg on it, the gravitational potential energy of mass M
decreases by Mgl. This energy appears
(a) As elastic potential energy completely
(b) As thermal energy completely
(c) Half as elastic potential energy and half as thermal energy
(d) As kinetic energy of the load completely
69. Equal volumes of monoatomic and diatomic gases at the same temperature are given equal quantities of
heat. Then
(a) The temperature of diatomic gas will be more
(b) The temperature of monoatomic gas will be more
(c) The temperature of both will be zero
(d) Nothing can be said
70. If an electric current i as a function of time t is given as i = t2 (for 0 < t ⩽ T), then RMS value of the
current for time 0 to T is
(a) T2
T2
(b)
√2
T2
(c)
2
T2
(d)
√5
71. Electrons of mass m with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cutoff
( )
wavelengths λ 0 of the emitted X - ray is
2h
(a) λ 0 =
mc
2m 2c 2λ 3
(b) λ 0 =
h2
(c) λ 0 = λ
2mcλ 2
(d) λ 0 =
h
72. A body of mass m starts from rest and moves with a velocity v = a√x. Then the work done by all the
forces on the body in time t is (x is distance travelled)
1
(a)
4
ma 2t 2
1
(b)
8
ma 4t 2
1
(c)
4
ma 4t 2
1
(d)
8
ma 2t 2
73. Originally the Young’s double slit experiment was performed with white light, in which central maxima
for all colours in the fringe pattern overlap each other at centre. Assume that wavelength of blue light is
520 nm and that of red light is 780 nm. The value of x for which xth bright red band coincides with (x +
1)th blue band is
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
74. The wavelength λ of a photon and the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron has the same value. Find the
ratio of energy of photon to the kinetic energy of electron in terms of mass m, speed of light c and
Plank’s constant (h).
(a) λmc / h
(b) hmc / λ
(c) 2hmc / λ
(d) 2λmc / h
75. A block is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A time dependent force F = Kt2 is applied horizontally
on the block. Here K is a positive constant. Then acceleration time graph of block is best represented by
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
76. The objective lens of a compound microscope produces magnification of 10. In order to get an overall
magnification of 100 when image is formed at 25 cm from the eye, the focal length of the eye lens
should be
(a) 4 cm
(b) 10 cm
25
(c) cm
9
(d) 9 cm
77. Two point charges q A = 3μC and q B = − 3μC are located 20cm apart in vacuum. What is the electric
field at the mid-point O of the line AB joining the two charges?
(a) 0
→
(b)
2.7 × 10 6N / C
along OB
→
(c) 6
3.6 × 10 N / C along OA
→
(d)
5.4 × 10 6N / C along OB
78. The area of cross-section of the wider tube shown in figure is 800 cm2. If a mass of 12 kg is placed on
the massless piston, the difference in height i.e h in the level of water in the two tubes is:
(Density of water = 1000 kg/m3) and (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 10 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 2 cm
79. The potential difference between points x and y in the circuit shown in figure is
(a) 8V
(b) 10 V
(c) 20 V
(d) 40 V
80. When a ferromagnetic material is placed in a magnetizing field, then intensity of magnetization is 5000
times the magnetizing field intensity. Then relative permeability of material is
(a) 5 × 104
(b) 5 × 105
(c) 4999
(d) 5001
81. A ray of light falls on a solid transparent sphere as shown in figure. The ray emerges from the sphere
parallel to AB. The refractive index of material of sphere is
3
(a)
2
(b) √2
(c) √3
(d) 2
82. Assertion Two circular discs of equal mass and thickness made of different materials, will have same
moment of inertia about their central axes of rotation.
Reason Moment of inertia depends upon the distribution of mass in the body
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
83. A ball is thrown vertically up from the ground with a speed of 35 m/s at t = 0. Find the time instant at
which it crosses the height of 60 m for the first time after it was thrown. (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) t = 3 sec
(b) t = 4 sec
(c) t = 7 sec
(d) t = 1 sec
84. In the circuit shown, the power consumed by the bulb B1 long time after the key K is closed is (inductor
is ideal)
(a) 5W
(b) 10 W
(c) 20 W
(d) 40 W
85. 2
The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about an axis passing through the centre of gravity is 5 MR 2,
then its radius of gyration about a parallel axis at a distance 2R from first axis is
(a) 5R
22
(b)
√ 5
R
5
(c) R
2
12
(d)
√ 5
R
86. Assuming Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, the wavelength of α-line of Balmer series is λ. The
wavelength of α-line of Lyman series is
27
(a) λ
128
5λ
(b)
27
27
(c) λ
32
5λ
(d)
36
87. The temperature, at which the root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecules equals their escape
velocity from the earth, is closest to :
[Boltzmann Constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 J/K
Avogadro Number NA = 6.02 × 1023
Radius of Earth: 6.4 × 106 m
Gravitational acceleration on Earth = 10 m s–2]
(a) 800 K
(b) 3 × 105 K
(c) 104 K
(d) 650 K
88. How much water should be filled in a container 28 cm in height, so that it appears half filled when
viewed from the top of the container (given that μ ω = 4 / 3)
(a) 8.0 cm
(b) 10.5 cm
(c) 16.0 cm
(d) None of the above
89. →
Two point charges + q 1and + q 2 separated by distance ‘d’ exert a net force F 1 on a point charge +q kept
on the line joining the two charges at a distance d/4 from q 1. On mutually interchanging the positions of
→
the charges q 1 and q 2, the third charge +q kept at the same point experiences a net force F 2. If
|F1 | = 2 |F2 | then the ratio q1 / q2 may be

→ →
(a) 17 / 11
(b) 19 / 11
(c) 9 / 13
(d) 7 / 13
90. An object is placed at distance of 10 cm from a co-axial combination of two lenses A and B in contact.
The combination forms a real image three times the size of the object. If lens B is concave with a focal
length of 30 cm. The nature and focal length of lens A is
(a) convex, 12 cm
(b) concave, 12 cm
(c) convex, 6 cm
(d) convex, 18 cm
91. In the following combination of gates, how many sets of values of A, B, C and D can yield 1 for X?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) more than 6
92. A dynamometer D is attached to two bodies of masses M = 6 kg and m = 4 kg. Forces F = 20 N and f =
10N are applied to the masses as shown. The dynamometer (spring balance) reads.
(a) 10 N
(b) 20 N
(c) 6N
(d) 14 N
93. A large metal sheet carries an electric current along its surface. Current per unit length is λ.
Magnetic field induction near the metal sheet is

(a) λμ 0
λμ 0
(b)
2
λμ 0
(c)
2π
μ0
(d)
2πλ
94. The potential difference across the terminals of a battery is 10 V when there is a current of 3A in the
battery from the negative to the positive terminal. When the current is 2A in the reverse direction, the
potential difference becomes 15 V. The internal resistance of the battery is
(a) 2.5 Ω
(b) 5.0 Ω
(c) 2.83 Ω
(d) 1 Ω
95. Consider P-V diagram for an ideal gas shown in figure
Out of the following diagrams, which represents the T-P diagram
(a) (iv)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)
96. If the force acting on a body is inversely proportional to its speed, the kinetic energy of the body is
(a) constant
(b) directly proportional to time
(c) inversely proportional to time
(d) directly proportional to square of time
97. A person can see an object clearly only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order
to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens,
the person has to use, will be
(a) Concave, -0.25 diopter
(b) Concave, -0.2 diopter
(c) Convex, +0.15 diopter
(d) Convex, +2.25 diopter
98. When the temperature of a rod increases from t tot + Δt, its moment of inertia increases from I toI + ΔI.
If αbe the coefficient of linear expansion of the rod, then the value of ΔI / Iis
(a) 2αΔt
(b) αΔt
αΔt
(c)
2
Δt
(d)
α
99. Two electric point dipoles of moments p and 64p are placed in opposite direction on a line at a distance
of 25 cm. The electric field will be zero at point between the dipoles whose distance from the dipole of
moment p is:
(a) 5 cm
25
(b) cm
9
(c) 10 cm
4
(d) cm
13
100. Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will
reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is
(a) +4 V
(b) -1 V
(c) -3 V
(d) +3 V
101. A block of mass 3 kg is at rest on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. The magnitude of net
force exerted by surface on the block will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 26 N
(b) 19.5 N
(c) 10 N
(d) 30 N
102. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature.
One of these is at 100oC, while the other one is at 0o C. If the two bodies are brought into contact, then
assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is
(a) more than 50o C
(b) less than 50 C but greater than 0oC
(c) 0oC
(d) 50oC
103. A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4cm × 2cm) to (5cm × 4cm). If the work done is 3 × 10-
4J, the value of the surface tension of the liquid is
(a) 0.125 N m-1
(b) 0.2 N m-1
(c) 8.0 N m-1
(d) 0.250 N m-1
104. A half wave rectifier is being used to rectify an alternating voltage of frequency 50 Hz. The number of
pulse of rectified current received in one second will be
(a) 200
(b) 100
(c) 25
(d) 50
105. Two identical conductors of Copper and Aluminium are placed in an identical electric field. The
magnitude of induced charge in the Aluminium is
(Electric conductivity of Copper is greater than Aluminium)
(a) Less to that in copper
(b) Equal to that in copper
(c) Greater to that in copper
(d) Zero
106. Current I0 flows through solenoid of length L having N number of turns, when it is connected to DC
emf. If a charged particle is projected along the axis of solenoid with a speed V0 , then the force on the
charged particle in the solenoid
(a) Becomes zero
(b) Remains same
(c) Decreases
(d) Increases
107. The charge on a capacitor of capacitance 10μFconnected in steady state as shown in the figure is
(a) 20μC
(b) 15μC
(c) 10μC
(d) Zero
108. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total
gain in the Binding Energy in the process is :
(a) 804 MeV
(b) 216 MeV
(c) 0.9 MeV
(d) 9.4 MeV
109. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with an angular frequency of 2 rad/sec. Velocity of the
body at 20 m displacement, when amplitude of motion is 60 m, will be
(a) 113 m/s
(b) 56.5 m/s
(c) 119 m/s
(d) 93 m/s
110. Consider a spherical shell of radius R at temperature T. The black body radiation inside it can be
U
considered as an ideal gas of photons with internal energy per unit volume u = V ∝ T 4 and pressure
1
()
U
p = 3 V . If the shell now undergoes an adiabatic expansion the relation between T and R is :
1
(a) T ∝
R
1
(b) T ∝
R3
(c) T ∝ e −R
(d) T ∝ e − 3R
111. A box 'A' is lying on the horizontal floor of the compartment of a train running along horizontal rails
from left to right. At time 't', it decelerates. Then the reaction R at time t by the floor on the box is given
best by :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
112. A galvanometer of resistance, G Ω is shunted by a resistance S Ω. To keep the main current in the
circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is
G2
(a)
(S+G)
G
(b)
(S+G)
S2
(c)
(S+G)
SG
(d)
(S+G)
113. A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg and radius 4 cm is rotating about its axis at the rate of 3 rpm. The torque
required to stop after 2π revolution is:
(a) 2 × 10 − 3N m
(b) 12 × 10 − 4N m
(c) 2 × 10 6N m
(d) 2 × 10 − 6N m
114. A soap bubble, having radius of 1 mm is blown from a detergent solution having a surface tension of
2.5 × 10–2 N/m. The pressure inside the bubble is equal to the pressure at a point Z0 below the free
surface of water in a container. Taking g = 10 m/s2, density of water = 103 kg/m3, the value of Z0 is:
(a) 10 cm
(b) 1 cm
(c) 0.5 cm
(d) 100 cm
115. Four particles each of mass m are placed at the corners of a square of side length l. The radius of
gyration of the system about an axis perpendicular to the square and passing through its centre is
l
(a)
√2
l
(b)
2
(c) l
(d) √2l
116. A source of frequency ν gives 5 beat/s when sounded with a frequency 200 Hz. The second harmonic of
source gives 10 beat/s when sounded with a source of frequency 420 Hz. The value of ν is :
(a) 200 Hz
(b) 210 Hz
(c) 205 Hz
(d) 195 Hz
117. A beam of natural light falls on a system of 6 polaroids, which are arranged in succession such that
each polaroid is turned through 30° with respect to the preceding one. The percentage of incident
intensity that passes through the system will be
(a) 100 %
(b) 50 %
(c) 30 %
(d) 12 %
118. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around the earth. A second satellite is launched
into an orbit of radius (1.01)R. The period of the second satellite is larger than that of the first one by
approximately
(a) 0.5 %
(b) 1.0 %
(c) 1.5 %
(d) 3.0 %
119. The maximum load a wire of length L and cross sectional area A can withstand, without breaking is W.
L
The maximum load that another wire of same material, length 2 and cross sectional area A can
withstand, without breaking is
(a) 2W
W
(b)
2
(c) 4W
(d) W
120. A 100 Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100 Ω reactance are connected in series across a 220 volt source.
When the capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the displacement current is
(a) 11 A
(b) 4.4 A
(c) 11√2A
(d) 2.2 A
121. A body of mass m is projected at an angle θ to the horizontal with initial velocity u from ground. The
mean power developed by the gravity over the time of flight T.
(a) mgu sinθ
(b) mgu cosθ
(c) mg (gT - u)
(d) zero
122. Two identical parallel plate capacitors are connected in series to a battery of 100V. A dielectric slab of
dielectric constant 4.0 is inserted between the plates of second capacitor. The potential difference across
the capacitors will now be respectively
(a) 50 V, 50 V
(b) 80 V, 20 V
(c) 20 V, 80 V
(d) 75 V, 25 V
123. An electron and a proton are in a uniform electric field, the ratio of the acceleration of electron to that
of proton will be
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) The ratio of the mass of proton to that of electron
(d) The ratio of the mass of electron to that of proton
124. A block of mass m = 2 kg is placed in equilibrium on a moving plank accelerating with acceleration
a = 4m / s 2. If coefficient of friction between plank and block is μ = 0.2, then the frictional force acting
on the block is:
(a) 8 N
(b) 6 N
(c) zero
(d) 4 N
125. ε 0n 2h 2
The electron of a hydrogen atom revolves round the proton in a circular nth orbit of radius r n =
πme 2
e2
with a speed v n = 2ε nh . The current due to the circulating charge is proportional to
0
(a) e 2
(b) e 3
(c) e 5
(d) e 6.
Answer Key
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. B
7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. D 12. D
13. A 14. B 15. C 16. C 17. B 18. C
19. D 20. C 21. A 22. B 23. A 24. C
25. B 26. A 27. A 28. B 29. A 30. C
31. B 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. A
37. D 38. C 39. B 40. A 41. B 42. A
43. A 44. B 45. C 46. A 47. C 48. C
49. C 50. C 51. B 52. A 53. D 54. C
55. C 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. C 60. D
61. D 62. C 63. C 64. D 65. B 66. C
67. C 68. C 69. B 70. D 71. D 72. B
73. D 74. D 75. B 76. C 77. D 78. C
79. A 80. D 81. C 82. A 83. A 84. B
85. B 86. B 87. C 88. C 89. B 90. C
91. D 92. D 93. B 94. D 95. C 96. B
97. A 98. A 99. A 100. C 101. D 102. A
103. A 104. C 105. B 106. A 107. A 108. B
109. A 110. A 111. C 112. A 113. D 114. B
115. A 116. C 117. D 118. C 119. D 120. D
121. D 122. B 123. C 124. D 125. C
SOLUTIONS
1. (D)
Time period on AC
1 1
T= n
= 50
s
T
Time interval Δt for current to decrease from 1A to zero = 4
T 1 1 1
∴ Δt = 4
= 50
× 4
= 200
s
Change in current, ΔI = 0 − 1 = − 1 A
Mean induced emf, e = − M

()
ΔI
Δt
−1
= − 1.5 × 1 = 300 V
200
2. (A)
When a capacitor is fully charged then no current us drawn by it. When no current flows in the circuit,
potential difference across the cell = emf of cell = potential difference across the capacitor.
3. (B)
aμ w ( aμ g − 1 ) ( aμ g − aμ w )
f
= R1
− R2
( ) ( )
3
2
−1
3
2
−3
4
= 20
− − 20
1 1 1
= 40
+ 120
= 30
4
∴f= 3
× 30 = 40 cm
4. (B)
The acceleration of the body Perpendicular to OE is

F 4
a = m = 2 = 2 m/s 2
Displacement along OE,
s 1 = vt = 3 × 4 = 12m
Displacement Perpendicular to OE
1
s 2 = 2 at 2
1
= 2 × 2 × (4) 2 = 16 m
The resultant displacement
2 + s22
s=
√s 1
= √144 + 256
= √400
s = 20 m
5. (C)
Radius of circular path in the horizontal plane
r = lsinθ
Resolving T along the vertical and horizontal directions, we get
Tcosθ = Mg. . . (i)
Tsinθ = Mrω 2 = M(lsinθ)ω 2
Or T = Mlω 2. . . (ii)
Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get
1 lω 2 g
cos θ
= g or ω 2 = lcos θ
∴ Time period
2π lcos θ
t = ω = 2π
√ g
6. (B)
Velocity at the top is √gr and that at the bottom is √5 gr.
Hence, required difference in kinetic energy

1
= 2 m[5gr − gr] = 2gmr
= 2 × 10 × 1 × 1 = 20J
7. (A)
From Energy conservation,

Mm Mm 1
−G = −G + 2 mv 2
√R2 + ( 2R ) 2 √R 2 + R 2
or,
GMm
R { 1
√2
−
√5
1
} 1
= 2 mv 2
or,
2GM
√2R { √}
1−
2
5
= v2
or, v = √ ( √)
GM√2
R
1−
2
5
8. (B)
v 1 T
n = 2L = 2L
√ μ
Δn 1 ΔT
n
= 2 T
use Δn = 6 n = 600Hz
6 1 ΔT
600
= 2 T
ΔT 1
T
= 50 = 0.02
9. (C)
Heat lost by water in lowering temperature from
10 ∘ C to 0 ∘ C
Q 1 = 10 × 10 × 1 = 100 cal
Heat taken by ice = 100 cal
Heat required to raise the temperature of ice from -20oC to 0oC:
Q2 = 10 × 0.5 × [0 – (– 20)] = 100 cal
As heat given by water in cooling up to 0°C is only just sufficient to increase the temperature of ice from –
20°C to 0°C, hence mixture in equilibrium will consist of 10 gm ice and 10 gm water at 0°C.
10. (B)
I of given disc = I of disc of radius R - I of disc of radius r
( ) ( )
1 1
I = 2 ρ πR 2 R 2 − 2 ρ πr 2 r 2
Also,
(
M = ρ πR 2 − πr 2 )
{ }= ( )
1 1 M
⇒ I = 2 ρπ R 4 − r 4 2
R 4 − r4
( R2 − r2 )
( )
1
= 2 M R2 + r2
11. (D)
( )
→ → →
F=I L×B
Force on arm PR
→
( )
F = I Lcos30 ∘ Bsin90 ∘ ĵ × î ( )
√3
( )
→
F = 2 (ILB) − k̂ .
12. (D)
Standard equation of projectile motion
gx 2
y = xtanθ −
2u 2cos 2θ
Comparing with given equation

g
A = tanθ and B =
2u 2cos 2θ
A tan θ × 2u 2cos 2θ
So, B = g
= 40 m
(As, θ = 45 ∘, u = 20m / s, g = 10m / s 2 )

13. (A)
2usin ( 45 )
T= g
√2u
T = 10
|Change in velocity| = u√2
14. (B)
Since the ball crosses the tower horizontally, R = 2 × 200 m and H max = 100 m
u 2sin 2θ
g
= 400 . . . (1)
u 2sin 2θ
2g
= 100 . . . (2)
2sin 2θ
From (1) and (2), =4
sin 2θ
2.2sin θcos θ
or, =4
sin 2θ
or, cotθ = 1
or, θ = 45 ∘
15. (C)
Body is rotating with angular velocity,
→
ω = 3î − 4ĵ + k̂
→
Position vector, r = 5î − 6ĵ + 6k̂
Linear velocity,
→
⇒→
v = ω × →r
→
⇒ v = − 18î − 13ĵ + 2k̂
16. (C)
L2
Kinetic Energy (K) = 2I
ΔK ΔL
or, K = 2 L
ΔK
or, K × 100% = 2(10%)
ΔK
or, K × 100% = 20%
17. (B)
nh
We know, mvr = 2π
nh
or, r = 2πmv
n
or, r = 2π p
()
h
n
or, r = 2π (λ)
Circumference = 2πr
n
= 2π. 2π λ
= nλ
18. (C)
For open pipe, f 1 = 2 2l

()
υ υ
= l
() υ
For closed pipe, f 2 = n 4l , n = 1, 3, 5, 7, . . . . .
f 2 > f 1........(1)
n
So, f 2 = 4 . f 1
for n=5 equation (1) will be satisfied

19. (D)
ml 2
Original moment of inertia, I = 12 ,
New moment of inertia, I ′ =

( 3m / 4 ) ( 3l / 4 ) 2
3
27
= 64
( )
ml 2
3
27
= 16 I
20. (C)
1
Using, h = 2 gt 2, we have
1
h AB = 2 gt 2AC
2h AB
√
2×4
or t AC = g
=
√ 9.8
= 0.9s
Further, BC = vt AC
BC 5
or v = t = 0.9 = 5.55 ms − 1
AC
21. (A)
v 10
Maximum velocity, v max = aω = 10 = 10 = 1 ms − 1
10 3
⇒ aω = a × 2πn = 1 ⇒ n = 2π ( ∵ a = 10 m ) −3
Since v = nλ
v 10
⇒λ= n = 3 = 2π × 10 − 2m
10 / 2π
22. (B)
(K ⋅ E) i = 0
(K ⋅ E) f = 2 MV
1
2
( )
1+
K2
R2
2
K=
√ 3
R [For spherical shell]
1
(K ⋅ E) f = 2 MV 2 1 + 3 ( ) 2 5
= 6 MV 2
Loss in PE = Gain in KE
5
Mgh = 6 MV 2
6gh
V=
√ 5
23. (A)
Hint: Overturning occurs on roads when the car tries to change directions by making sharp turns. It often
occurs in the case of vehicles whose center of gravity is higher from the surface of roads.
Consider a car moving in a straight line and it suddenly takes a sharp turn towards the right. Now the upper
portion of the car still tends to go in the straight path due to inertia i.e., according to Newton's first law of
motion. Put the lower portion starts moving right because Me driving wheel has been turned accordingly. If
the inertial force on the upper portion is higher, it provides torque on the car's center of gravity so that it
overturns.
The overturning will always take place by lifting off the inner wheels from the ground on the curved path.
The limiting case for a four-wheeler to begin overturn is given as:
Let us consider weight of the object to be Mg
'N' is the total normal reaction, 'F' is the total friction force and 'G' is the center of gravity.
If 'v' is the velocity and 'r' is the radius, then the distance between the wheels can be written as 2a.
The frictional force provides the necessary centripetal force
mv 2
F= r
At the beginning of overturn, the inner wheels hit off from the ground. The pressure on the ground due to
inner wheels become zero and so the normal reaction on inner wheels is zero.
N 1 + N 2 = 0 + N 2 = N 2 = mg
On considering the center of gravity,
N2 × a = F × h
Substituting the values in above equation, we get
mv 2
mg × a = r × h or
√rga
V max = h
If the speed goes beyond the maximum velocity, overturning takes place. Therefore, the correct answer for
the given question is option (A).
Note:The radius of the turn of the inner wheel is less than the radius of turn of the outer wheel, so the
maximum
24. (C) speed of Me inner wheel is also less than that of the outer wheel which makes the inner wheel to
leave the ground first .
To stop the motion,
(
m 1g = T = μ m + m 2 g )
m1
⇒ μ − m2 = m
5
⇒ 0.15 − 10 = m
⇒ m = 23.3 kg
25. (B)
v = u + at ⇒ 20 = 0 + a × 4 ⇒ a = 5ms − 2
F = ma = 2 × 5 = 10N
Velocity at 2s: v 1 = at = 5 × 2 = 10 ms − 1
Power = Fv 1 = 10 × 10 = 100W
26. (A)
Refractive index,
sin i sin i
μ = sin r ⇒ μ = sin A
In case of small angle,

i
μ= A
Angle of incidence, i = μA
27. (A)
P 0V 0 4P 0V 0 8P 0V 0
To = R
, Tb = R
= 4T o, T c = R
= 8T o
3R
Here, n = 1 and C V = 2 ( ∵ monoatomicgas)
Now, U b − U a = nC v(T b − T a) = 4.5RT o
U c − U b = nC v(T c − T b) = 6RT o
U c − U a = nC v(T c − T a) = 10.5RT o
28. (B)
Applying momentum conservation

10 10
1000
× 400 + 0 = 2v 1 + 1000 × v 2
⇒ 4 = 2v 1 + 0.01v 2 … (1)
Applying work energy theorem for block
W = ΔKE
1
⇒ 2 × 10 × 0.1 = 2 × 2 × v 21
Putting the value of v1 in equation (1)
4 = 2 × 1.4 + 0.01 v 2 ⇒ v 2 = 120 m / s
29. (A)
Concentration of hole pairs: n h = 10 19 / m 3
Concentration of electron pairs: n e = ?
Concentration of acceptance atom: n A = 10 21 / m 3
2
n h = n An e
(10 ) 19 2
= 10 21 × n e
n e = 10 17 / m 3
30. (C)
PVx = constant (Polytropic process)
Heat capacity in polytropic process is given by
[C = CV + 1 − x
R
]
Given that PV3 = constant
⇒ x = 3 ….. (1)
Also, gas is monatomic, so f = 3 ….. (2)
by formula
fR R
C = 2 + 1−x
3 R
C = 2R − 2 = R
31. (B)
v2
∘
a cos30 = a c = R
√3
⇒ v 2 = aR × 2 ⇒ v 2 = 32.47 ⇒ v ≃ 5.7m / s
32. (B)
D 2 is in forward biasing and D 1 is in reverse biasing
5 5
i = 30 + 20 = 50 A
33. (A)
2Tcos θ
h= ρgr
As r, h, T are same
cos θ
⇒ ρ
= constant
cos θ 1 cos θ 2 cos θ 3
⇒ ρ1
= ρ2
= ρ3
As ρ 1 > ρ 2 > ρ 3
⇒ cosθ 1 > cosθ 2 > cosθ 3
⇒ θ1 < θ2 < θ3
As water rises ⇒ θ must be acute
π
So, 0 ⩽ θ 1 < θ 2 < θ 3 < 2
34. (C)
For loop 1
() ()
→ →
dB dB
ε ind = − A dt cos0 ∘ = − πr 2 dt
For Loop 2, ε ind = 0 as no flux linkage
35. (B)
For better tuning Q-factor must be high.
() √
ω 0L 1 L 1 L
∴Q= R = = R
√LC R C
R and C should be small and L should be high.

36. (A)
δQ KA
δt
= L T1 − T2 ( )
KA
⇒ Q = L T1 − T2 t ( )
∵ Q = mL f
KA
∴ L (T1 − T2 )t = mLf
mL f × L
⇒ K=
(
A T1 − T2 t )
4.8 × 3.36 × 10 5 × 0.1 4.8 × 3.36
K = 0.36 × 100 × 3600 = 0.36 × 36
= 1.24 J / m / s / ∘ C
KA
⇒ Q = L T1 − T2 t ( )
∵ Q = mL f
KA
(
∴ L T 1 − T 2 t = mL f )
mL f × L
⇒K=
(
A T1 − T2 t )
4.8 × 3.36 × 10 5 × 0.1 4.8 × 3.36
K = 0.36 × 100 × 3600 = 0.36 × 36
∘
= 1.24 Jm − 1s − 1 C − 1
37. (D)
In the study of the vibration of a pipe open at both the ends, the displacement node is pressure antinode. So,
1
the pressure change will be maximum at the length 2 and the pressure variation will be minimum at both
ends. The odd and even harmonics will be present in the vibration.
38. (C)
q
dq = π dθ
∫ dE x = 0
E net = ∫ dE y
= ∫ dE sinθ
kq π
= ∫ sinθ dθ
πr 2 0
2kq q
E net = =
πr 2 2π 2ε 0r 2
→ q
E net = − 2 ĵ
2π 2ε 0r
39. (B)
GMm mv 2
= r
r2
1
⇒ v2 ∝ r
v1 r2
⇒ v =
2
√ r1
<1
v1 < v2
40. (A)
After short circuiting, R2 becomes meaningless. So circuit becomes
41. (B)
If γ= 3α liquid does not overflow.
If γ> 3α liquid overflows.
If γ< 3α liquid level decreases in container.
42. (A)
IX L = 16, IR = 20
2
√
V = I Z = I XL + R2
V = √ (I X ) + (I R)
L
2 2
V= √20 2 + 16 2
V = 25.6V
43. (A)
The amount of heat supplied is given by the relation
Q = mcΔT
Here, m = 100g = 0.1kg, c = 400 J / kg − K,
ΔT = 21Kfor copper.
Thus, Q = 0.1 × 400 × 21 = 840J
Hence, 840 = 0.05 × 4200 × ΔT ⇒ ΔT = 4 ∘ C
44. (B)
V 2R + V 2L
Applied voltage, V =
√
∴ V= √(200)2 + (150)2 = 250 V
45. (C)
P1
W = + 2.303 nRT log P
2
10
W = 2.303 × 1 × 2 × 300log 1 = 1381.8 cal.
46. (A)
Due to change in the shape of the loop, the magnetic flux linked with the loop increases. Hence, current is
induced in the loop in such a direction that it opposes the increase in flux.
47. (C)
Width of central bright fringe.
2λD 2 × 500 × 10 − 9 × 80 × 10 − 2
= d = = 4 × 10 − 3m = 4mm.
0.20 × 10 − 3
48. (C)
Max. emf = nABω
2π 4π
= 50 × 0.008 × 0.05 × 2000 60 = 3 V
49. (C)
For the same load wire with maximum elongation has minimum cross-section area.
FL
As AY = Δx
1
F, L, Y are fixed so A ∝ Δx
⇒ OA is thinnest
50. (C)
Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d from surface of earth
( )
g′ = g 1 − R
d
. . . (1)
Where g = acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface

Multiplying by mass 'm' on both sides of (1)
( )( )
mg ′ = mg 1 − R
d
d= 2
R
( )
= 200 1 − 2R
R 200
= 2 = 100N
51. (B)
Given, A(1, 0, 4) and B(2, − 1, 5)
→
[
∴ AB = (2 − 1)î + (− 1 − 0)ĵ + (5 − 4)k̂ ]
→
[
AB = î − ĵ + k̂ ]
→ →
Torque, τ = →
p×E
→
[ (
τ = 4 × 10 − 6 î − ĵ + k̂ ) ] × 0.20î
( )
→
τ = 8 × 10 − 7 k̂ + ĵ
Magnitude of torque,
√
τ = 8 × 10 − 7 1 2 + 1 2
τ = 1.131 × 10 − 6N - m
52. (A)
At t = 0, y = 10sinα
π
⇒ 5 = 10sinα ⇒ α = 6
2πt 2π × 7.5 π 2π
At t = 7.5 s, Phase angle = 30 + α = 30
+ 6 = 3 rad
53. (D)
eB
f = 2πm
1.76 × 10 11 × 3.57 × 10 − 2
f= 2 × 3.14
9
f = 10 Hz or 1 GHz
54. (C)
H and R both are proportional to u2. Hence, percentage increases in horizontal range will also be 10%.
55. (C)
Given, speed of proton, v = 3 × 10 6m / s
Magnetic field, B = 2 × 10 − 3T
Now, force (magnetic) on proton,
F = qvBsinθ
= 1.6 × 10 − 19 × 3 × 10 6 × 2 × 10 − 3 × sin90 ∘
= 3.2 × 3 × 10 − 16 = 9.6 × 10 − 16N
∴ Acceleration of proton,
F 9.6 × 10 − 16 9.6
a= m = = 1.67 × 10 11m / s 2
1.67 × 10 − 27
= 5.74 × 10 11m / s 2 = 5.8 × 10 11m / s 2

56. (B)
For Lyman series, the wavelength of lines is obtained from the relation
1
υˉ = λ = R 2 − 2
1 n ( ) 1 1
We will get a line with shortest wavelength corresponding to transition from n = ∞ to n = 1
1
Hence λ = R 1 − 2
S n ( )
1 1
=R
( )
∘ 1 10 10 ∘
λ S in A = R = 10967700 = 911A
For longest wavelength we will have n = 2
1
Hence λ = R 1 − 4
L ( ) 1 3
= 4R
4 4 × 10 10 ∘
λ = 3 R = 3 × 10967700 = 1215A
57. (A)
According to Einstein’s equation.
hν = ϕ 0 + K max
Where, ϕ 0is the work function.
⇒ hν = ϕ 0 + eV 0
hν ϕ0
⇒ V0 = e − e
Comparing with equation, y = mx + c
ϕ0
⇒ We get intercept c = − e
In the graph intercept on y-axis is − OB
ϕ0
∴ − OB = − e
⇒ ϕ 0 = OB × e
58. (C)
1 1 1
R eq
=R +R
1 2
2K eqA K 1A K 2A
L
= L + L
2K eq = K 1 + K 2
K1 + K2
K eq = 2
59. (C)
Given that
Mass defect =Δm=0.02866u
Total energy= E= Δmc2
=0.02866×931MeV
=26.68 MeV
Energy liberated per nucleon = E/A
26.68
= 4
=6.678 MeV
60. (D)
2π
k = λ , ω = 2πf, c = fλ ⇒ ω = kc
Here, k = 10 6
ω = kc = 10 6 × 3 × 10 8 = 3 × 10 14rad / s
61. (D)
1 hc
2
mv 2 = λ − ϕ
1 hc 4hc
2
mv ′ 2 = ( 3λ / 4 ) − ϕ = 3λ − ϕ
4
Clearly v ′ >
√ 3
v
62. (C)
V 10
Current in the circuit, i = R = 2 = 5A
∴ magnetic energy stored in the coil,
1 1
U = 2 Li 2 = 2 × 2 × (5) 2 = 25 J
63. (C)
x and y components are as follows:
x = ucosθt and v x = ucosθ
1
y = usinθt − 2 gt 2. . . . . . . . . . . . . . (1)
v y = usinθ − gt. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (2)
The horizontal component of speed v x is always constant.
So the speed is minimum when the vertical component v y = 0
Putting this in equation 2
usinθ = 2g. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (3)
The ball is moving at angle 45 ∘ direction of velocity of the project at time t = 1 s

vy usin θ − g × 1
Then tan45 ∘ = 1 = v = ucos θ
x
⇒ ucosθ = g. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (4)
From equation 3 & 4
tanθ = 2
2
sinθ =
√5
1
cosθ =
√5
and u = √5g
= √5 × 10 m/s
u = 10√5 m/s
64. (D)
5
Upward acceleration = 5 = 1m / s 2
Upward displacement covered in 4s

1
y = 2 at 2
1
= 2 × 1 × (4) 2 = 8m
Horizontal displacement covered in 4s
x = vt = 1.5 × 4 = 6m
∴s= √x 2 + y 2 = √6 2 + 8 2
= √36 + 64 = 10 m
65. (B)
Let l = side of the cube
x = side of cube immersed in water
l − x = side of cube immersed in liquid
According to law of flotation,
( )
l 3 × 0.9 × 10 3 × g = l 2 × x × 1 × 10 3g + l 2(l − x) × 0.7 × 10 3g
l × 0.9 = x + (l − x) × 0.7
Or 0.3x = 0.2 l
x 2
Or l = 3
volume immersed in water xl 2 2

volume of the cube
= = 3
l3
66. (C)
When the switched is closed, the current grows in the circuit but due to self inductance of the inductor the
growth is slow. On opening the switch the current suddenly decreases to zero on account of the infinite
resistance of the circuit. Thus, rate of growth of the current is lower as compared to the rate of decay.
67. (C)
Area of the image
= (3 × 10) × (2 × 10)
= 600 cm2
68. (C)
When a metal wire elongates by hanging a load Mg on it, decrease in potential energy of load = Mgl
(where l = elongation in metal wire)
Elastic potential energy stored in stretched wire

1
= 2 × Mgl
1
Difference of Mgl and 2 Mgl appears as heat energy in the stretched wire.
1 1
∴ energy appearing as heat = Mgl − 2 Mgl = 2 Mgl
69. (B)
The temperature of monoatomic gas will be more because their heat capacity will be low as they depend on
degree of freedom.
70. (D)
i = t 2.
Heat produced in time 'T'
T
Q = ∫ 0 i 2Rdt
T
= R∫ 0 t 4dt
T5
Q=R5
2 RT 5
Again i rmsRT = 5
T4
i rms =
√ 5
T2
or, i rms =
√5
71. (D)
h h
λ= p ⇒p= λ
p2 h2
E = 2m =
2mλ 2
hc
Also in X − ray, E = λ
0
hc h2 2mcλ 2
∴ λ = ⇒ λ0 = h
0 2mλ 2
72. (B)
v = a√x
( )
dv 1 dx
Acceleration a ′ = dt = a. .
2√x dt
1
or, acceleration = a. .v
2√ x
1
or acceleration = a. . a√x
2√ x
a2
= 2.
Now, v = a√x
dx
or, dt = a√x
dx
or, = adt
√x
Integrating,
dx
∫ x0 = ∫ t0adt
√x
or, 2√x = at
at
or, √x = 2
a 2t 2
or, x = 4
x
Now, W = ∫ 0Fdx
x a2
or, W = ∫ 0m 2 dx
ma 2
or, W = 2 x
ma 2 a 2t 2
or, W = 2 . 4
1
or, W = 8 ma 4t 2.
73. (D)
Position of n th bright fringe,

nλ 0D
yn = d
According to the problem,

xλ RD ( x + 1 ) λ bD
d
= d
or, xλ R = (x + 1)λ b
(
or, x λ R − λ b = λ b )
λb
or, x = λ − λ
R b
520
or, x = 780 − 520
or, x = 2.
74. (D)
The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron,
h h
λ = mv ⇒ v = mλ . . . . . (i)
Energy of photon,
hc
E P = λ (since, λ is same) . . . . (ii)
Kinetic energy of photon to kinetic energy of electron

hc
Ep λ 2hc
= E = =
λmv 2
()
e 1
2
mv 2
Substituting the value of v from. Eq. (i), we get

Ep 2hc 2λmc
= E = = h
( )
e h 2
λm mλ
75. (B)
F = Kt 2
k
or, a = m t 2
or, a is proportional to t 2,
Since the horizontal plane is rough it will experience a frictional force, so graph is not starting from origin.
76. (C)
m = mo × me ⇒ m = mo × 1 + f
e ( ) D
⇒ 100 = 10 × 1 + f
e ( ) 25 25
⇒ f e = 9 cm
77. (D)
If EA and EB be the electric fields at point O due to qA and qB respectively. Then
1 qA
E A = 4πε . 2
0 ( OA )
3 × 10 − 6
=9× 10 9 ×
( 0.1 ) 2
2.7 × 106 N/C along OB
1 qB
And E B = 4πε . 2
0 ( OB )
3 × 10 − 6
9
= 9 × 10 ×
( 0.1 ) 2
= 2.7 × 106 N/C along OB
E R = EA + EB
ER = 2.7 × 106 + 2.7 × 106
= 5.4 × 106 N/C along OB
78. (C)
mg
ρgh = A
12
h = 0.08 × 1000 = 0.15 m = 15 cm
79. (A)
V x − V B = 40 V
V y − V D = 32 V
Now B and D are at same potential.
V x − V B − V y + V B = 40 − 32
Vx − Vy = 8 V
80. (D)
M
( )
Magnetic susceptibility λ m = H
λ m = 5000
( ) (
Relative permeability μ r = λ M + 1 )
μ r = 5001
81. (C)
Snell’s law at A,
sin60 ∘ = μsinr . . . (1)
Snell's law at pt. D,
μsinr = sin2r . . . (2)
from eq. (2) and (1)
sin60 ∘ = sin2r
r = 30 ∘
μsin30 ∘ = sin60 ∘
μ √3
or, 2 = 2
or, μ = √3
82. (A)
The moment of inertia is given by I = Σmr2.
The moment of inertia depends on the mass and distribution of mass w.r.t. the axis of rotation in the body, so
that moment of inertia of two circular discs having equal mass and thickness made of different material will
be same.
83. (A)
1
60 = 35t + 2 (− 10)t 2
t 2 − 7t + 12 = 0
t = 3, 4
Ans: t = 3
84. (B)
We know that after a long time an inductor acts like a wire.
V2 ( 10 ) 2
Power consumed (P) = R = 10
= 10 W
85. (B)
According to the theorem of parallel axis,
I = I CG + M(2R) 2
where I CG = M. I. about an axis through the centre of gravity.

2 22
I = 5 MR 2 + 4MR 2 = 5 MR 2
22 22
or MK 2 = 5 MR 2 ⇒ K =
√ 5
R
86. (B)
For Balmer series λ = R 2 − 2

2 n2
1
[ ] 1 1
For alpha line of Balmer series,
1
λα
= R 4 − 9 n2 = 3 [ ]
1 1
1
λα
= R 36 ()5
= λ.
1
for α − line of Lyman series
1
λ′ α
=R
[ ]
12
1
−
1
22
n 1 = 2.
1 3
or, = 4 R.
λ′ α
4
or, λ α′ = 3R .
′ 5
or, λ α = 27 λ.
87. (C)
v e = v rms
3RT
√ M
= 11.2 km / s
3 × 8.314T
√ 2 × 10 − 3
= 11.2 km / s = 11.2 × 10 3 m / s
[ ∵ Mass of one mole of a molecule of H 2 is 2 × 10 − 3 kg ]

On solving, we get
T = 10 4 K
88. (C)
Let it be filled to height 'h' cm. Then the part not in water is (21-h) cm.
So the apparent depth of the filled portion must be (21-h) cm.

real depth
apparent depth
= refractive index of water
h 4
28 − h
= 3
h = 16 cm
Hence, 16 cm water should be filled in a container.
89. (B)
d d 3d
Using Coulomb's law of forces, using 4 distance from one charge and d − 4 = 4 from 2nd charge we find
that net force will be difference of two forces as both will be in opposite directions (since the charge q is in
between both charges)
F 1 = 4π ∈
0
1
[ ] 16q 1q
d2
−
16q 2q
9d 2
F 2 = 4π ∈
0
1
[ ] 16q 2q
d2
−
16q 1q
9d 2
|| ||
¯ ¯ q1 19
Setting F 1 = 2 F 2 and solving we get q = 11
2
90. (C)
v
∴ Magnification, m = u = − 3
v = − 3u = 30 cm
Focal length of co-axial combination,
1 1 1 1
f1
+f = v −u
2
1 1 1 1 4
− 30 + f = 30 + 10 = 30
2
1 4 1
f2
= 30 + 30
1 4+1 5
f2
= 30 = 30
30
f 2 = 5 = 6 cm
Hence, lens A is convex lens.
91. (D)
X=P+Q
Any combination that makes either P or Q or both 1 is valid.
92. (D)
Acceleration of system,
F−f 20 − 10
a = M + m = 6 + 4 = 1 ms − 2 (towards left)
Let F0 be the reading of dynamometer, then equation of motion of mass m would be,
F 0 − f = ma
⇒ F 0 = f + ma = 10 + (4)(1) = 14 N
93. (B)
We see a cross section of the sheet in the diagram below where current is coming out of the plane of the
paper.Applying Ampere's circuital law in the closed loop as shown in figure. Consider the length of upper
and lower sides to be l, and length of right and left sides be w, then we see that B.w will be zero for right and
left sides as magnetic field will be negligible inside the plate and B. l will be equal to Bl because magnetic
field will be parallel to upper and lower sides.
2Bl = μ 0(λ l), here (lambda l is the total current enlosed)
μ 0λ
∴ Magnetic field induction, B = 2
94. (D)
We know terminal potential difference across a cell is given by
V = E - i r where r is the internal resistance of the cell and current direction inside the cell is from negative to
positive,
and
V = E + i r when current direction is from positive to negative inside the cell
E − 3r = 10 . . . . (i)
E + 2r = 15 . . . . (ii)
Solving these two equations we get,
r = 1Ω
Hence, answer is (d).
95. (C)
V ↑ P ↓, T = Constant, from 1 to 2 in curve (iii) P ↓ from 1 to 2
96. (B)
1
Fα v
λ
F = v , λ : constant
dv λ v t
ma = m dt = v ⇒ m∫ 0v dv = λ∫ 0dt
||
v
v2 1
m 2 = λ|t| t0 ⇒ 2 mv 2 = K. E = λt
0
K. E ∝ t
97. (A)
As we want to correct myopia. So, far point must go to infinity.
v = − 4m, u = − ∞, P = ?
1 1 1 1 1
P = f = v − u = − 4 − ∞ = − 0.25D
(-) implies concave mirror
98. (A)
Ml 2
Moment of inertia of a rod, I = 12
On differentiating w.r.t. l, we get
M
dI = 12 2ldl
M
dI 12
2ldl
∴ I = Ml 2
12
dI dl
⇒ I = 2 l = 2αΔt
99. (A)
Suppose neutral point N lies at a distance x from dipole of moment p or at a distance (25 – x) from dipole of
64 p.
At N (at neutral point)

|E. F. due to dipole(1)| = |E. F. due to dipole(2)|
1 2p 1 2 ( 64p )
⇒ 4πε . 3 = 4πε ⋅
0 x 0 ( 25 − x ) 3
1 64
⇒ = ⇒ x = 5 cm
x3 ( 25 − x ) 3
100. (C)
1 2
eV = 2 mv max = hv − ϕ 0
2 = 5 − ϕ 0 ⇒ ϕ 0 = 3eV
In second case
eV s = 6 − 3 = 3 eV ⇒ V s = 3V.
∴ V AC = − 3V
101. (D)
As 3kg block is at rest on the incline
∴ Net force exerted by surface on the block will balance weight mg.
Then
→ → →
F net = N + F s
|Fnet | = 3g
→
= 3 × 10 = 30N
102. (A)
Let θ be the final common temperature. Further, let Sc and Sh be the average heat capacities of the cold and
hot (initially) bodies respectively (where Sc < Sh given)
From, principle of calorimetry,
Heat lost = Heat gained
(
S h × 100 ∘ C − θ = S cθ )
Sh 100 ∘ C
∴θ= × 100 ∘ C =
( )
Sc
Sh + Sc
Sc
( )
1+ S
Sc
∵ Sh
<1 ∴1+ Sh
<2
100 ∘ C
∴θ> 2
or θ > 50 ∘ C
103. (A)
W = T(2∆A)
W 3 × 10 − 4
⇒T= 2ΔA
= = 0.125N m − 1
2 × 12 × 10 − 4
104. (C)
In Half wave rectifier, number of rectified current pulse in 1 sec = f/2
= 25
As it allows only positive half cycle to pass.
105. (B)
As aluminium and copper are metals, their mobile electrons move under the influence of the external field
until they reach the surface of the metal and collect there. External electric fields induce surface changes on
metal objects that exactly cancel the field within. Since the field applied is same in both case, the induced
charge will be the same.
Hence, the magnitude of induced charge in the aluminium will be the same as that of copper.
106. (A)
F = q vB sinθ
For θ = 0 ∘ or 180 ∘ ,
F=0
107. (A)
In steady state potential difference across capacitor = 2V.
So charge on capacitor Q = 10 × 2 = 20 μC
108. (B)
(240)(7.6Mev) + ΔQ = (120)(8.5Mev) + (120)(8.5Mev)
⇒ ΔQ = 240(8.5 − 7.6)Mev
= 216Mev
109. (A)
√
v = ω A2 − x2
v = 2√60 2 − 20 2
= 113m / s
110. (A)
U
V
∝ T 4 ⇒ U = CVT 4
U CT 4
P = 3V = 3
dQ = 0 ⇒ dU = − dW
d(CVT 4) = − PdV
dT dV
T
= − 3V
1 1
lnT = − 3 lnV + lnC′ ⇒ TV 3 = C ′
1
( )
⇒ T 3 πR 3
4 3
= C ′ ⇒ TR = Const
111. (C)
The floor applies 2 forces on the box. Normal reaction force and frictional force.
The direction of the normal reaction force is upwards. (this is to counter the gravitational force which acts
downwards).
Friction acts to prevent relative motion and relatively trian is moving towards right, so friction acts towards
the left and normal reaction force acts upwards. The resultant force will be as in option C
112. (A)
After shunting galvanometer, net resistance of galvanometer;
GS
⇒ G ′ = G+S
Now a resistance (R) is connected in series combination with galvanometer, so net resistance of the system
will be;
⇒ R net = G ′ + R
To keep current unchanged net resistance should remain the same as G;
GS
⇒ G= +R
G+S
GS G2
⇒ R=G− =
G+S G+S
113. (D)
work energy theorem.
( )
1
W = 2 I ω 2f − ω 2i θ = 2π revolution
= 2π × 2π = 4π 2 rad
2π
ωi = 3 × rad / s
60
1 1
⇒ − τθ =
2
×
2 ( 2
mr 2 0 2 − ω i )
) (− 3 × )
2π 2
(
1 1 2
2
× 2 × 2 × 4 × 10 − 2 60
⇒ −τ=
4π 2
⇒ τ = 2 × 10 − 6Nm.
114. (B)
4T
Excess pressure = R , Gauge pressure = ρgZ 0
4T
P0 + = P 0 + ρgZ 0
R
4T
Z0 =
R × ρg
4 × 2.5 × 10 − 2
Z0 = m
10 − 3 × 1000 × 10
Z 0 = 1cm
115. (A)
l
The distance of mass from the center of square is r =
√2
So the total moment of inertia of system I = 4mr 2 = 2ml 2
Let the radius of gyration be k
l
I = 2ml 2 = 4mk 2 ⇒ k =
√2
116. (C)
Beat frequency = |ν - ν'|
According to question ,
| ν - 200 | = 5 ...(1)
and | 2ν - 420 | = 10 ...(2)
If ν is greater than 200, then
|ν - 200 | = ν - 200 = 5
ν = 205
Clearly ν = 205 satisfies equation (2) .
Now , if ν is less than 200, then
|ν - 200 | = - (ν - 200) = 5
ν = 195
Clearly , ν =195 does not satisfy equation (2).
Therefore, ν = 205
117. (D)
Let I 0 be the intensity of incident light wave.
The incident wave oscillates in all directions. After passing through the first Polaroid,
the intensity is the average of intensity of all waves emerging from the Polaroid, following Malus' Law.
I0
( )
Hence, I 1 = I 0 cos 2θ avg = 2
Now this wave is polarized in one direction. This now enters the second Polaroid to again follow Malus' Law
with θ = 30 ∘
Hence, I 2 = 2
I0
() √3
2
2
()
√3
I0 10
This occurs till the sixth Polaroid to get the final intensity I 6 = 2 2
I6
Hence I = 12%
0
118. (C)
In the problem orbital radius is increased by 1%.
Time period of satellite T ∝ r 3 / 2
3
Percentage change in time period= 2 (% change in orbital radius)
3
= 2 (1%) = 1.5 %
119. (D)
F W
As breaking stress = Force (Weight) per unit area i.e A or A , breaking stress is independent of original length
‘L’.In the given case Area A is same for both the wires, so maximum load that could be held would remain
same for both the wires.
120. (D)
E0 220√2
(id ) max = (ic ) max = Z
=
√1002 + 1002
220√2
⇒ id( )
max
=
100√2
= 2.2A
121. (D)
W Gravity = 0 (As vertical displacement is zero, so work done by gravity is zero)
∴ P mean = 0 mean power by gravity is zero
122. (B)
Since the capacitors are in series, charges will be same on both capacitors. To find charge on the capacitors,
we find equivalent capacitance and find charge on it which will be same as charge on individual capacitors.
From that charge we can find the potential across each capacitor by using Q= CV
C × 4C 4C
C eq = ( C + 4C ) = 5
4C
Q = C eq. V = 5 × 100 = 80C
Q 80C
Hence V 1 = C = C = 80V
1 1
80C
and V 2 = 4C = 20V
123. (C)
qE ae mP
a= m ⇒ a = m
P e
124. (D)
Driving force w.r.t. platform = ma = 2 × 4 = 8N
And resisting force = f lim = μN
= 0.2 × 2 × 10 = 4N
Here resisting force is not sufficient to keep the block at rest w.r.t plank hence the block will slide on plank
and friction force will be 4N.
125. (C)
2π × ε 0n 2h 2
2πr πme 2
Time period of electron, T = = e2
υ
2ε 0nh
2
4ε 0n 3h 3
T=
me 4
e e me 5
Current, i = T
= 2 ⇒i= 2 i. e. , i ∝ e 5
4ε 0n 3h 3 4ε 0n 3h 3
me 4
ʶʻʸˀʼˆˇ˅ˌ
1. Which is the product of the following reaction?
(a) CH3CH = O
(b) racemic (2R, 3R) and (2S, 3S)-2,3-butanediol
(c) cis-2,3-epoxybutane
(d) meso-2,3-butanediol
2. Consider the reaction 4NO ( g ) + O (g) → 2N O ( g ) ΔH = − 111kJ. If N O

2 2 2 5 r 2 5 (s) is formed instead of
N2O5 (g) in the above reaction, the ΔHr value will be
[Given ΔHsublimation of N2O5 is 54 kJ mol-1]
(a) -165 kJ
(b) +54 kJ
(c) +219 kJ
(d) -219 kJ
3. (I) H2O2 + O3 → H2O + 2O2 (II) H2O2 + Ag2O → 2Ag + H2O + O2 Role of hydrogen peroxide in the
above reactions is respectively:
(a) reducing in (I) and (II)
(b) oxidizing in (I) and (II)
(c) oxidizing in (I) and reducing in (II)
(d) reducing in (I) and oxidizing in (II)
4. Identify (Z) in the following reaction series :

PBr 3 Alc. KOH H 2 SO4 ,room temp.
Ethanol −−−→ (X) −−−−−→ (Y ) −−−−−−−−−−→ (Z )

H 2 O,heat
(a) CH2 = CH2

(b) CH3CH2OH
(c) CH3CH2OSO3H
(d) C2H5OC2H5
5. Given
The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these compounds will be in the order as:

(a) II > I > III
(b) I > II > III
(c) III > II > I
(d) II > III > I
6. When a primary amine reacts with C H C l in the presence of ethanolic KOH, then the product is
3
(a) an isocyanide
(b) an aldehyde
(c) a cyanide
(d) an alcohol
7. The hydrogen ion concentration of a 0.006 M benzoic acid solution is (K a = 6 × 10

−5
)
(a) 0.6 × 10 −4
(b) 6 × 10 −4
(c) 6 × 10 −5
(d) 3.6 × 10 −4
8. C H 3 Br + N u
−
→ C H 3 − N u + Br
−
The decreasing order of the rate of the above reaction with nucleophiles (N u −
) A to D is
A) P hO B) AcO C) OH D) C H
− − −
3O
−
(a) D>C>A>B
(b) D>C>B>A
(c) A>B>C>D
(d) B>D>C>A
9. If the equivalent conductivities of F e and S O

3+ 2−
4
ions is 68 S cm
2
eq
−1
and 80 S cm 2
eq
−1
respectively.
The molar conductance of F e (S O ) is
2 4 3
(a) 148 S cm mol 2 −1
(b) 444 S cm mol 2 −1
(c) 888 S cm mol 2 −1
(d) 592 S cm mol 2 −1

10. Given that at 25°C,
3+ − 2+ ∘
Cr (aq) + e → Cr (aq) , E = −0.424V
2+ − ∘
Cr (aq) + 2e → C r (s) , E = −0.900V
Calculate the following:
E° at 25°C for C r 3+
(aq) + 3e
−
→ C r (s) .
(a) -0.74 V
(b) + 0.74 V
(c) -1.324 V
(d) -0.476 V
11. The gas phase reaction 2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g) is an exothermic reaction. The decomposition of N2O4, in
equilibrium mixture of NO2(g) and N2O4(g), can be increased by:
(a) addition of an inert gas at constant pressure.
(b) lowering the temperature
(c) increasing the pressure
(d) addition of an inert gas at constant volume.
12. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl alcohol (C H 3 OH ) is supplied. What is the mole fraction of
methyl alcohol in the solution?
(a) 0.100
(b) 0.190
(c) 0.085
(d) 0.050
13. From compounds given below which do not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction ?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
14. Which of the following is not correctly matched with the given example?
(a) An element of first transition series which has highest second ionization enthalpy - Cu
(b) An element of first transition series with highest third ionization enthalpy - Zn
(c) An element of 3d series with the lowest enthalpy of atomization - Zn
(d) Last element of third transition series-Cd.
15. The amount of dibasic acid present in 100 mL of an aqueous solution to give 0.1 N strength is [mol. wt.
= 200]
(a) 0.5 g
(b) 1 g
(c) 1.5 g
(d) 2 g
16. Potassium dichromate is prepared from:

(a) chromate obtained by the fusion of chromite ore with sodium carbonate in free access of air
(b) pyrolusite which is fused with potassium hydroxide in the presence of air
(c) iron pyrites by the fusion with potassium carbonate in presence of moisture
(d) chromite ore by the fusion with potassium carbonate in presence of moisture
17. Which one of the following orbitals does not have electron density along the axes?
(a) 3px
(b) 3dxy
(c) 3s
(d) d 2
x −y
2
18. If solubility product of H gS O is 6.4 × 10

4
−5
, then its solubility is
(a) 8 × 10 mole/litre
−3
(b) 6.4 × 10 mole/litre

−5
(c) 6.4 × 10 mole/litre

−3
(d) 2.8 × 10 mole/litre

−6
19. The shape of (CH3)3N is pyramidal because

3
(a) nitrogen forms three sp hybridised sigma bonds with carbon atoms of methyl groups and there is
one non-bonding electron pair
2
(b) nitrogen forms three sp hybridised sigma bonds with carbon atoms of methyl groups and fourth
orbital forms pi bond
(c) nitrogen has five valencies which are arranged in pyramidal shape.
(d) the unpaired electron present on nitrogen is delocalized.
20.
The oxidation number of Cr in [Cr(C6H6)2] is
(a) +2
(b) +6
(c) +3
(d) 0
21. The transition element that has lowest enthalpy of atomisation is:
(a) Fe
(b) Cu
(c) V
(d) Zn
22. The following data are for the decomposition of ammonium nitrite in aqueous solution :
The order of the reaction is

(a) zero
(b) one
(c) two
(d) three.
23. Rate of a reaction can be expressed by Arrhenius equation as, k = Ae −E/RT

. In this reaction, E
represents
(a) The energy above which all the colliding molecules will react
(b) The energy below which colliding molecules will not react
(c) The total energy of the reacting molecules at a temperature, T
(d) The fraction of molecules with energy greater that the activating energy of the reaction
24. dil.N aOH Δ
Acetaldehyde −−−−−−→ A −→ B. Here ′

B
′
is
(a) Crotonaldehyde
(b) Cinnanaldehyde
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) Aldol
25. Which of the following statements about primary amines is ‘False’?

(a) Alkylamines are stronger bases than ammonia
(b) Alkylamines are stronger bases than aryl amines
(c) Alkylamines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols
(d) Arylamines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols
26.
Product (Z) may be(here Cl2 in excess)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
27. Br2 /P (i) KC N
C H 3 C OOH −−−→ X −−−−−→ Y , Y is identified as

+
(ii) H 3 O
(a) Succinic acid

(b) Malonic acid
(c) Glycolic acid
(d) ∝ -Hydroxy propionic acid
28. Identify the incorrect IUPAC name.

(a) (CH3CH2)2NCH3 = N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine
(b) (CH3)3CNH2 = 2-Methylpropan-2-amine
(c) CH3NHCH(CH3)2 = N-Methylpropan-2-amine
(d) (CH3)2CHNH2 = 2, 2-Dimethyl-N-Propanamine
29. In the reaction:
N a 2 S2 O 3 + 4C l2 + 5H 2 O → N a 2 S O 4 + H 2 S O 4 + 8H C l, the equivalent weight of N a 2 S2 O 3 will
be: (M = molecular weight of N a 2 S2 O 3 )
(a) M/4
(b) M/8
(c) M/1
(d) M/2
30. The IUPAC name for K2[Cr(CN)2O2(O2)NH3] is:

(a) Potassium amminedicyanotetraoxo chromium (III)
(b) Potassium amminedicyanodioxygendioxo chromate (IV)
(c) Potassium amminedicyanosuperoxoperoxo chromate (III)
(d) Potassium amminedicyanodioxoperoxo chromate (VI)
31. H N O3
D-glucose −−−−→ (A), product (A) is

Δ
(a) D-gluconic acid

(b) D-Glucitol
(c) D-Fructose
(d) D-Glucaric acid
32. Which of the following phrases are not correctly associated with an SN1 reaction?
I) Rearrangement is possible
II) Rate is affected by solvent polarity
III) The strength of the nucleophile is important in determing rate
IV) The reactivity series is tertiary > secondary > primary
V) Proceeds with complete inversion of configuration
(a) III, V
(b) V only
(c) II, III, V
(d) III only
33. What is the degree of unsaturation of the following compound?
(a) 13
(b) 16
(c) 14
(d) 10
34. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction?
(a) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu0
(b) 3 MnO42– + 4H+ → 2MnO4– + MnO2 + 2H2O
Δ
(c) 2K M nO −→ K M nO + M nO + O
4 2 4 2 2
(d) 2M nO + 3M n
−
4
2+
+ 2H O → 5M nO
2 2 + 4H
⊕
Select the correct option from the following

(a) (a), (b) and (c)
(b) (a), (c) and (d)
(c) (a) and (d) only
(d) (a) and (b) only
35. Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ have ionic radii in the increasing order as
(a) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
(b) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
(c) La3+ = Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
(d) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
36. Among the following, the alkene on ozonolysis giving rise to only one aldehyde as the product, is:
(a) 1─butene
(b) Prop─1─ ene
(c) 2─ butene
(d) 2─ methyl ─ prop ─1 ─ ene
37. In the given reaction
the product P is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
38. HgCl and I both when dissolved in water containing I- ions the pair of species formed is
2 2
(a) H gI , I
4
2− −
(b) Hg2I2,I-
(c) H gI , I
2
−
(d) HgI2,I-
39. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of absorption in the visible region for the complexes of
Co3+ is:
(a) Co(H2O)6]3+,[Co(NH3)6]3+,[Co(en)3]3+
(b) Co(NH3)6]3+,[Co(en)3]3+,[Co(H2O)6]3+
(c) Co(en)3]3+,[Co(NH3)6]3+,[Co(H2O)6]3+
(d) Co(H2O)6]3+,[Co(en)3]3+,[Co(NH3)6]3+
40. A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an
unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol, forms a beautiful coloured compound C with the
molecular formula C12H10N2O. The structure of compound A is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
41. The osmotic pressure of a 5% solution of cane sugar 150oC is ?

(a) 4 atm
(b) 3.4 atm
(c) 3.55 atm
(d) 5 atm
42.
obtained by chlorination of n-butane, will be

(a) meso-form
(b) racemic mixture
(c) d-form
(d) ℓ-form
43. Diborane (B2H6) reacts independently with O2 and H2O to produce, respectively;
(a) B2O3 and H3BO3
(b) B2O3 and [BH4]–
(c) H3BO3 and B2O3
(d) HBO2 and H3BO3
44.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
45. S 1 & S 2 Product are same in (excluding stereoisomer)

N N
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
46. The total number of primary amines possible for the formula C4H11N is :
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
47. Most basic hydroxide among the following is

(a) Lu(OH ) 3
(b) Eu(OH ) 3
(c) Y b(OH ) 3
(d) C e(OH ) 3
48. Calculate entropy change when 5 moles of an ideal gas expands reversibly and isothermally from an
initial volume of 5 litre to 50 litre at 27°C.
(a) 190.15 J K-1
(b) 95.73 J K-1
(c) 87.25 J K-1
(d) 90.13 J K-1
49. Two mole of an ideal gas is expanded isothermally and reversibly from 1 litre to 10 litre at 300K . The
enthalpy change (in kJ ) for the process is
(a) 11.4 kJ
(b) –11.4 kJ
(c) 0 kJ
(d) 4.8 kJ
50. The power of halides of boron to act as Lewis acids decreases in the order:
(a) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3
(b) BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(c) BCl3 > BF3 > BBr3
(d) BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3
51. Mercury is a liquid metal because

(a) it has a incompletely filled s− orbital
(b) it has a small atomic size
(c) it has a completely filled d−orbitals that prevents d − d overlapping of orbitals
(d) it has a completely filled d−orbitals that causes d − d overlapping of orbitals
52. Geometry of methyl free radical is?

(a) Pyramidal
(b) Planar
(c) Tetragonal
(d) Linear
53. The following compounds can be distinguished by
(a) Neutral FeCl3

(b) Ammonical AgNO3
(c) 2, 4-DNP
(d) NaHCO3 solution
54. Acetamide reacts with P2O5 to give

(a) Methyl cyanide
(b) Methyl cyanate
(c) Ethyl cyanide
(d) None of these
55. Assertion: tert-butyl alcohol undergoes acid catalysed dehydration readily than propanol.
Reason: 3° alcohols do not give Victor-Meyer’s test.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
56. The first order rate constant for the decomposition of N O is 6.2×10-4s-1. Then half - life of the N O
2 5 2 5
decomposition is
(a) 1117.7 sec
(b) 111.7 sec
(c) 228.4 sec
(d) 168.9 sec
57. A ⇌ B, ΔH = (−) 10kJ /mol, Ea(f ) = 50 kJ /mol, then Ea of B → A will be
(a) 40 kJ/mol
(b) 50 kJ/mol
(c) –50 kJ/mol
(d) 60 kJ/mol
58. The weight of Silver (At. Wt. = 108) displaced by a quantity of electricity which displaces 5600 ml of
O2 at STP will be
(a) 54.0 g
(b) 108.0 g
(c) 5.4 g
(d) 10.8 g
59. A monoprotic acid in a 0.1 M solution ionizes to 0.001%. Its ionisation constant is
(a) 1.0 × 10 −3
(b) 1.0 × 10 −6
(c) 1.0 × 10 −8
(d) 1.0 × 10 −11
60. An aromatic ether is not cleaved by HI even at 525 K. The compound is

(a) C6H5OCH3
(b) C6H5O – C6H4(CH3)
(c) C6H5OC3H7
(d) Tetrahydrofuran.
61. 1.0g of Magnesium is burnt with 0.56 g of O2 in closed vessel. Which reactant is left in excess and how
much? (At.wt. Mg = 24; O = 16)
(a) Mg, 0.44 g
(b) O2, 0.28 g
(c) Mg, 0.16 g
(d) O2, 0.16 g
62. For the reaction: X O ( l ) → 2 XO ( g ) ΔU = 2.1kcal, ΔS = 20cal K− 1 at 300 K, Hence, ΔG is

2 4 2
(a) 9.3 k cal
(b) -9.3 k cal
(c) 2.7 k cal
(d) -2.7 k cal
63. Which of the following will not be soluble in Sodium hydrogen carbonate?
(a) 2, 4 , 6 - trinitrophenol
(b) Benzenesulphonic acid
(c) o- Nitrophenol
(d) Benzoic acid
64. Among the following complexes the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is
(a) [C o(H O) ]
2
6
2+
(b) [C o(H O) ]
3+
2 6
(c) [M n(H O) ]
3+
2 6
(d) [F e(H O) ]
3+
2
6
65. The emf of the cell;

Zn|Zn2+ (0.001 M)||Fe2+ (0.01 M)|Fe at 298K is 0.3495 V. the value of equilibrium constant for the cell
reaction is
(a) exp (0.32/0.0295)
(b) exp (0.3495/0.0295)
(c) 10(0.32/0.0295)
(d) 10(-0.32/0.0295)
66. Equivalent mass of chlorine molecule in the equation

3Cl2 + 6NaOH → 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O
(a) 42.6
(b) 35.5
(c) 59.1
(d) 71
67. Consider the reaction 2A + B →Products, when conc. of B alone was doubled, half-life did not
changed, when conc. of A alone was doubled, The rate increased by two times the unit of rate constant
for this reaction is
(a) s-1
(b) L. mol-1.s-1
(c) no unit
(d) mol.L-1.s-1
68. Assuming that, water vapour is an ideal gas, the internal energy change (∆U), when 1 mol of water is
vapourized at 1 bar pressure & 100°C, (given: molar enthalpy of vapourization of water at 1 bar & 373
K = 41 kJmol–1 & R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1) will be:
(a) 41.00 kJmol–1
(b) 3.7904 kJmol–1
(c) 4.100 kJmol–1
(d) 37.898 kJmol–1
69. The major product (70% to 80%) of the reaction between m-dinitrobenzene with (NH4)2S is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
70. The ionization constant of HCN at 298 K is 4.8 × 10

−9
. The ionization constant of its conjugate base is
(a) 4.8 × 10 −9
(b) 2.08 × 10 −5
(c) 2.08 × 10 −6
(d) 6
71. In the reaction sequence:

Air/hv C6 H 6 /Anhydrous AlCl3
CHCl 3 −−−−→ [X] −−−−−−−−−−−−−→ Y;

excess
'Y' will be
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
72. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with temperature (T ) are given below. The plot that
follows Arrhenius equation is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
73. Which of the following order is INCORRECT for ionic radius of lanthanides?
(a) Eu(63) > Gd(64)
(b) Yb (70) > Lu (71)
3+ 3+
(c) Am (95) > U (92)

3+ 3+
(d) Ce (58) < Pm (61)

3+ 3+
74. Which of the following compounds will most easily produce a precipitate with AgNO3 ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
75. The graph between |ψ| 2

and r (radial distance) is shown below. This represents:
(a) 3s orbital
(b) 2s orbital
(c) 1s orbital
(d) 2p orbital
76. The freezing point of 1 molal NaCl solution assuming NaCl to be 100% dissociated in water is(Kf for
water is 1.86 K kg mol1-)
(a) –1.86°C
(b) –3.72°C
(c) +1.86°C
(d) +3.72°C
77. Which of the following is the strongest base in water?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
78. Bond angle decreases except when

(a) N H is converted to NH3
+
(b) N H is converted to N
−
2
−
3
(c) S O is converted to SO2

3
(d) CO2 is converted to C O

−2
79. Which kind of isomerism is exhibited by CoBr2Cl.4NH3 ?

(a) Geometrical and ionization
(b) Geometrical & optical
(c) Optical and ionization
(d) Geometrical only
80. The increasing order of nitration of the following compounds is :
(a) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)

(b) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
(c) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
(d) (a) < (b) < (d) < (c)
81. Increasing value of magnetic moments of

(I) [Fe(CN)6]4– (II) [Fe(CN)6]3–, (III) [Cr(NH3)6]3+, (IV) [Ni(H2O)4]2+ is
(a) I < II < III < IV
(b) IV < III < II < I
(c) II < III < I < IV
(d) I < II < IV < III
82. If 0.5 mol of BaCI2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of Na3PO4 , the maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2
that can be formed is
(a) 0.7
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.30
(d) 0.10
83. Benzaldehyde on reaction with acetophenone in the presence of sodium hydroxide solution gives (after
heating)
(a) C H C H = C H C OC H
6 5 6 5
(b) C H C OC H C H
6 5 2 6 5
(c) C H C H = C H C H
6 5 6 5
(d) C H C H (OH )C OC H
6 5 6 5
84. Which have maximum pKa in following?

(a) CH3 – COOH
(b)
(c)
(d) CHCl2 – COOH
85. Considering a reaction

− − − −
Cl + 6OH → C lO + 3H 2 O + 6e
3
5 A current used for 131.3 hours yielded 350 g of KClO3. Calculate the current efficiency.
(a) 70 %
(b) 60 %
(c) 90 %
(d) 50 %
86.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
87. Number of possible isomers (including stereoisomers) with molecular formula C4H8 is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
88. Which of the following hexoses will form the same osazone when treated with excess of phenyl
hydrazine?
(a) D-glucose, D-fructose and D-galactose
(b) D-glucose, D-fructose and D-Mannose
(c) D-glucose, D-mannose and D-galactose
(d) D-fructose, D-mannose and D-galactose
89. The pH at which an acid indicator with K a

−5
= 10 changes colour when the indicator concentration is
M is
−3
10
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 10
90. Which of the following compound is most likely to follow E1cB mechanism when treated with
C2H5ONa in ethanol?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
91. Equivalent weight of M nO in acidic, neutral and basic media are in ratio of :
−
(a) 3 : 5 : 15
(b) 5 : 3 : 1
(c) 5 : 1 : 13
(d) 3 : 15 : 5
92. The reagent used for the following conversion,

CH3CH2COOH → CH3CH2CH3 is
(a) LiAlH4
(b) amalgamated zinc and concentrated HCI
(c) red phosphorus and concentrated HI
(d) soda lime
93. Low spin tetrahedral complexes are not formed because

(a) for tetrahedral complexes, the CFSE is lower than pairing energy
(b) for tetrahedral complexes, the CFSE is higher than pairing energy
(c) electrons do not go to eg in case of tetrahedral complexes
(d) tetrahedral complexes are formed by weak field ligands only
94. Which of the following salts undergoes anionic hydrolysis?

(a) CuSO4
(b) Na2CO3
(c) NH4Cl
(d) FeCl3
95.
In this molecules, π -electron-density is more on

(a) C1 and C3
(b) C2 and C4
(c) C2 and C3
(d) C1 and C4
96. Two reactions, R and R have identical preexponential factors. Activation energy of R exceeds that of
1 2 1
R by 10 kJ mol . If k and k are rate constants for reactions R and R respectively at 300 K, then
−1
2 1 2 1 2
ln(k /k )is equal to

2 1
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 8
97. K of the salts AB, AX and M Y are 4.0 × 10−8, 3.2 × 10−14 and 2.7 × 10−15 respectively at
sp 2 3
o
temperature 25 C.
AB(s) ⇌ A +B
2+
(aq)
2−
(aq)
AX2(s) ⇌ A 2+
(aq)
+ 2X −
(aq)
M3Y(s) ⇌3M +
(aq)
+Y 3−
(aq)
The solubility order of these salts in water in mol litre−1 is in the order
(a) AB > AX2 < M3Y
(b) M3Y > AX2 > AB
(c) AX2 > M3Y > AB
(d) AB > M3Y > AX2
98. A compound which does not give a positive test in Lassaigne's test for nitrogen is:
(a) urea
(b) hydrazine
(c) azobenzene
(d) phenyl hydrazine
99. At 25° C, the pH of solution containing 0.10 M sodium acetate and 0.03 M acetic acid is [pKa of acetic
acid = 4.57]
(a) 3.24
(b) 4.59
(c) 5
(d) 6.67
100. Consider the following reaction:

Br2 /N aC l
C H3 − C H = C H2 −−−−−−→
Product of the reaction will be

(a) Only 1-bromo-2-chloropropane
(b) Only1, 2-dibromopropane
(c) Only-2-bromo-1-chloropropane
(d) 1-bromo-3-chloropropane
101. Which of the following pairs constitutes a buffer?

(a) HNO2 and NaNO2
(b) NaOH and NaCl
(c) HNO3 and NH4NO3
(d) HCl and KCl
102. pH of 10-8 M KOH is
(a) 8
(b) 7.04
(c) 6.98
(d) 6
103. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is k, the time (t) required for the completion of 99% of the
reaction is given by:
(a) t = 6.909/k
(b) t = 4.606/k
(c) t = 2.303/k
(d) t = 0.693/k
104. If 1021 molecules are removed from 200 mg of CO , then the number of moles of CO left are
2 2
(a) 2.88 × 10-3
(b) 28.8 × 10-3
(c) 0.288 × 10-3
(d) 1.66 × 10-2
105. 5% solution of sucrose is isotonic with 1% solution of a compound X then the molecular weight of
compound X is
(a) 32.4
(b) 68.4
(c) 121.6
(d) 34.2
106. Among the following complexes the one shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is
(a) [Mn(H2O)6]3+
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
(c) [Co(H2O)6]2+
(d) [Co(H2O)6]3+
107. The major organic product in the following reaction is ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
108. The percentage of pyridine (C H N) that forms pyridinium ion (C H N+H) in a 0.10 M aqueous
5 5 5 5
pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 × 10-9) is
(a) 0.013%
(b) 0.77%
(c) 1.6%
(d) 0.0060%
109. The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the following species is

(a) C N > C H > Br > N H
−
6
−
5
−
3
(b) Br > C N > N H > C H

− −
3 6
−
(c) C N > Br > C H > N H

− −
6
5
−
3
(d) N H > C N > Br > C H

3
− −
6
−
110. The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is
because the
(a) Rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
(b) Rate is independent of the surface coverage
(c) Rate of decomposition is very slow
(d) Rate is proportional to the surface coverage
111. Which of the following is inter pseudo halogen compound?

(a) HSCN
(b) ICN
(c) BrF3
(d) C2N2
112.
(a) Ph – CH = CH – CH3
(b) Ph – CH2 – CH = CH2
(c)
(d)
113. If uncertainity in position and velocity are same, then uncertainity in the momentum will be
−−
(a) 1
m
√
h
4π
−−
(b) m√
h
4π
−
−−−
(c) √
4πm
h
−−
−
(d) √
hm
4π
114. Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl will be (en = ethylenediamine) ?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
115.
Product (A) is:
(a)
(b) Ph – NH2
(c) Ph – NH – CH3
(d) Ph – CH2 – NH2
116. The total number of possible isomers (including stereo, structural and cyclic) for the molecular formula
C4H8 is
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 5
117. H2 O P olymerisation
In the following reaction A −−→ B −−−−−−−−−→ 3-D polymer (C) if C is Silicone, A and B are
(−H 2 O)
(a) R2SiCl2 and R2Si(OH)2

(b) R2SiCl2 and R2Si = O
(c) RSiCl3 and RSi(OH)3
none of these
(d)
118. The hybridization of central metal ion and shape of wilkinson’s catalyst is
(a) sp d,trigonal bipyramidal
3
(b) sp ,tetrahedral
3
(c) dsp ,square planar

2
(d) d sp ,octahedral
2 2
119. The acid which has a peroxy linkage is

(a) Sulphurous acid
(b) Pyrosulphuric acid
(c) Dithionic acid
(d) Caro’s acid
120. Which of the following will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne?
(a) Na
(b) HCl
(c) O2
(d) Br2
121. The charge required to reduce 1 mole of Cr O 2- ions to Cr3+ is -
2 7
(a) 96500 C
(b) 2 × 9650 C
(c) 3 × 96500 C
(d) 6 × 96500 C
122. Co ∣
∣ Co
2 +
(C 2 )∣
∣ ∣
∣ Co
2 +
(C 1 )∣
∣ Co for this cell, ΔG is negative if:
(a) C2 > C 1
(b) C1 > C 2
(c) C1 = C 2
(d) unpredictable
123. The strength (in g/mL) of 11.2 volume solution of H O is: [Given that molar mass of H = 1 g mol–1
2 2
and O = 16 g mol–1]
(a) 13.6%
(b) 3.4%
(c) 34%
(d) 1.7%
124. A hypothetical reaction; A2 + B2 → 2AB follows the following mechanism

A2 ⇌ A + A ............................ fast
A + B2 → AB + B ............. slow
A + B → AB ...................... fast
The order of the overall reaction is
(a) 2
(b) 3/2
(c) 1
(d) 0
125. Assertion: Sucrose undergoes mutarotation.

Reason: Sucrose is a disaccharide.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Answer Key
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. A
7. B 8. A 9. C 10. A 11. A 12. C
13. D 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. A
19. A 20. D 21. B 22. B 23. B 24. A
25. D 26. D 27. B 28. D 29. B 30. D
31. D 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. B 36. C
37. B 38. A 39. C 40. A 41. D 42. B
43. A 44. B 45. B 46. D 47. D 48. B
49. C 50. B 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. A
55. B 56. A 57. D 58. B 59. D 60. B
61. C 62. D 63. C 64. D 65. C 66. A
67. B 68. D 69. B 70. C 71. C 72. A
73. D 74. B 75. B 76. B 77. D 78. B
79. A 80. C 81. D 82. D 83. A 84. A
85. A 86. C 87. D 88. B 89. A 90. B
91. A 92. C 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. C
97. D 98. B 99. C 100. A 101. A 102. B
103. B 104. A 105. B 106. B 107. C 108. A
109. A 110. D 111. B 112. A 113. D 114. A
115. B 116. A 117. C 118. C 119. D 120. A
121. D 122. B 123. B 124. B 125. D
ˆ˂ʿˈˇʼ˂ˁˆ
1. (D)
meso-2,3-butanediol
2. (D)
4N O 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2N2 O 5 (g) ΔH r = 111K J
2N2 O 5 (g) → 2N2 O 5 (s) ΔH S = (−54 × 2) K J
4N O 2 (g) + O 2 (g) → 2N2 O 5 (g) ΔH r = −219K J
3. (A)
H2O2 + O3 → H2O + 2O2
H2O2 is oxidised to O2. Hence, it acts as reducing agent.
0
+1
−2
H 2 O 2 + A g2 O −−−−−→ 2 A g + H 2 O + O 2
Reduction
4. (B)
5. (C)
Enthalpy of hydrogenation
1
∝
Stability of C ompound
6. (A)
7. (B)
Initial concentration = 0.006 M ⇒ K a
= 6 × 10
−5
equilibrium reaction.
C H C OOH ⇌C H C OO
− +
6 5 + H
6 5
O initial
C O
Cα
C (1−α) Cα
Ka = C α
2
(∵ 1 − α ≈ 1) for weak electrolyte
−−− − −−−−
−5
;α ;α
Ka 6×10 −1
α = √ = √ = 10
C 0.006
∵ [H
+
] = C α = 0.006 × 10
−1
= 6 × 10
−4
M.
8. (A)
The order of nucleophilic nature is
− − − −
C H3 O > OH > P hO > AcO
Because more negative charge concentrated on atom better will be nucleophile.
9. (C)
the n-factor for Ferric sulphate = 6
The molar conductance = 6 × Eq. conductance = 6 × (68 + 80) = 888S cm mol
2 −1
10. (A)
Applying Hess’s Law:
11. (A)
2NO2(g) ⇌ N2O4(g); ∆H = –ve
By the addition of inert gas at constant pressure, volume increases, so reaction moving in backward direction
and decomposition of N2O4 increases
12. (C)
Mole fraction of solute = n
N +n
n = number of moles of solute
N =number of moles of solvent
where solute is methyl alcohol, solvent is water.

Given n = 5.2, N = 1000
= 55.55
18
∴ Mole fraction = 5.2
5.2+55.55
= 0.085
13. (D)
Friedel craft reactions are electrophilic substitution reaction .The Benzoic acid do not undergo Friedel craft
reaction it deactivates the aromatic ring towards electrophilic substitution to occur.
Also it react wit aniline do not give favourable product as catalyst is lewis acid react with aniline and product
deactivate the reaction.
14. (D)
Hg is the last element of third transition series.
15. (B)
We know
m 1000
N ormality (N ) = ×
Eq.mass V (cc)
Normality(N)
m = required mass
eq. mass = equivalent mass
V= volume of solution
N = 0.1 , basicity = 2
mol.mass 200
Equivalent mass = = = 100
basicity 2
equivalent mass
Putting the value we have
m 1000
0.1 = ×
100 100
m=1g
16. (A)
4FeCr2 O4 + 8Na2 CO3 + 7O2 → 8Na2 CrO4 + 2Fe2 O3 + 8CO2
Chromite ore Sodium chromate (yellow)
+ +
2Na2 CrO4 + 2H → Na2 Cr2 O7 + 2Na + H2 O
Na2 Cr2 O7 + 2KCl → K2 Cr2 O7 + 2NaCl

Potassium dichromate
17. (B)
In 3dxy orbitals, lobes are in-between x and y axes. In the other given orbitals electron density will be along
the axes.
18. (A)
++ −−
H gS O 4 → Hg + SO
4
x x
−−− −−−−−−−−
Ksp = x
2
;x ;
= √Ksp x = √6.4 × 10
−5
x = 8 × 10
−3
mole/litre.
19. (A)
Nitrogen forms three sp3 hybridised sigma bonds with carbon atoms of methyl groups and there is one non-
bonding electron pair.
20. (D)
[Cr(C6H6)2]
(x + 0) = 0
x=0
21. (B)
Since Zn is not a transition element so transition element having the lowest atomisation energy out of Cu,
V, Fe is Cu as it has the least number of unpaired electrons i.e. 1 electron.
22. (B)
V∞
k =
2.303
t
log gives constant value of k .
V ∞ −V t
Hence, it is 1st order reaction.

23. (B)
Product given by colliding molecules should have energy equal to or greater than E (activation energy).
24. (A)
Crotonaldehyde
H3C–HC = HC – CHO
It is prepared from acetaldehyde by aldol condensation:
25. (D)
Not all arylamines give phenol.
26. (D)
27. (B)
+
Br2 /redP KC N H /H 2 O
C H 3 C OOH −−−−−→ BrC H 2 C OOH −−−→ C N C H 2 C OOH −−−−−→ H OOC − C H 2 − C OOH

Acetic acid H .V .Z Succinic acid Malonic acid
28. (D)
29. (B)
+2 +6
Na2 S2 O3 → Na2 SO4
The total change in oxidation number = 4 x 2 = 8

mol.wt. M
∴ ENa = =
2 S2 O3 V.f 8
30. (D)
Potassium amminedicyanodioxoperoxo chromate (VI)
31. (D)
32. (A)
The strength of the nucleophile is not a factor in determining rate of SN1 reaction.
Proceeds with racemization
33. (A)
Degree of unsaturation of a compound is calculated by the sum of numbers of rings and pi bonds in the
compound. In the given compound four rings and 9 double bonds are present.
34. (D)
+1 +2 0
+1 2(+) 0
(a) 2C u → Cu + C u } Disproportionation
+6 +7 +4
2(−) −
(+)
(b) 3 M nO + 4H → 2 Mn O + M nO 2 + 2H 2 O} Disproportionation
4 4
+7 Δ +6 +4 0
−2
(c) 2 K M nO −
→ K 2 M nO 4 + M nO 2 + O2 } ∴ N ot a disproportionation
4
+7 +2 +4
(d) 2M nO
−
4
+ 3M n
2(+)
+ 2H 2 O → 5M nO 2 + 4H
⊕
} not disproportion reaction.
35. (B)
Atomic number of elements:
La3+ (57), Ce3+ (58) Pm3+ (61), Yb3+ (70)
They are the member of Lanthanoid series as elements from 58 to 71 are related to Lanthanum. And, in this
series as ‘Z’ increases, the size of element decreases (also applicable to their ionic form) due to poor
shielding of electrons in 4f subshell known as Lanthanoid contraction.
Thus, arranging them in decreasing order of ionic Radius
La3+ > Ce3+ > Pm3+ > Yb3+
36. (C)
Only symmetrical alkenes upon ozonolysis give one product. Among the given alkenes, only 2 ─ butene is a
symmetrical alkene and undergoes ozonolysis in the following manner. Option C is correct.
O3 ,Zn
dust
C H3 C H = C H C H3 −−−→ 2C H 3 C H O
Acetaldehyde (aldehyde)
37. (B)
38. (A)
H gC l2 and I both when dissolved in water containing I

2
−
ions the pair of species formed is H gI
4
2−
, I
3
−
.
− −
I2 + I → I
3
H gC l2 + 4I
−
→ H gI
4
2−
+ 2C l
−
.
39. (C)
The order of the ligand in the spectrochemical series
H2O < NH3 < en
Thus, wavelength absorbed will be in the opposite order
i.e., [C O(en) ] < [C o(N H ) ] < [C o(H O) ]
3
3+
3
6
3+
2
6
3+
40. (A)
41. (D)
Osmotic pressure (π) = CRT
where C is the concentration of the solution
5/342
∴ π = × 0.0821 × (150 + 273)
0.1
5/342
= × 0.0821 × 423
0.1
⇒ π = 5 atm.
42. (B)
Chlorination of alkanes is a free-radical reaction. Since the intermediate free radical is planar (sp2 hybridised)
it can be attacked on either side of the face forming racemic mixture
43. (A)
B2H6 + 3O2 → B2O3 + 3H2O
B2H6 + 6H2O → 2H3BO3 + 6H2
44. (B)
45. (B)
46. (D)
47. (D)
Due to lanthanide contraction, the size of M 3+
ions [Lu 3+
, Eu
3+
, Yb
3+
and C e 3+
decreases and thus, the
]
basic strength of their hydroxides decreases.

The order of size of given M ions is 3+
3+ 3+ 3+ 3+
Ce > Eu > Yb > Lu
∴ The order of basic strength of hydoxides is

C e(OH ) > Eu(OH ) > Y b(OH ) > Lu(OH )
3 3 3 3
(most basic)
48. (B)
∆S = 2.303 nR log
V2
V1
= 2.303 x 5 x 8.314 log 50
5
= 95.73 JK–1
49. (C)
ΔH = nC p ΔT
The process is isothermal therefore

ΔT = 0 ; ∴ ΔH = 0
50. (B)
Back bonding in B-X follows the order
B - F > B - Cl > B - Br
So,
BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 : e– deficiency order
51. (C)
The electronic configuration of mercury (80) is [Xe] 4f , 5d , 6s 10 10 2
Its d−subshell is completely filled, thus it prevents the overlapping of d−orbitals

(d − d overlapping). Hence, it is liquid metal at room temperature.
52. (B)
No. of hybrid orbital = No. of σ bonds + No. of lone pair = 3 + 0 = 3, So hybridisation is sp2 and geometry is
planar.
53. (B)
Ph−CD=O gives silver mirror with ammonical AgNO3 but Ph−COCH3 does not give silver mirror with
ammonical AgNO3
54. (A)
(Here, R = Methyl group)
55. (B)
Alcohol which forms the more stable carbocation undergoes dehydration more readily. Since tert-butyl
alcohol forms more stable tert-butyl cation, therefore, it undergoes dehydration most readily than propanol.
3° alcohols do not give Victor-Meyer’s test.

56. (A)
0.693
t 1 = −4
= 1117.7 sec
2 6.2×10
57. (D)
Since, ∆H = −10 kJ i.e. reaction is exothermic
Ea(b) = Ea(f) − ∆H
= 50 −(−10)
= 60 kJ
58. (B)
eqts of Ag = eqts of O2
w 5.6
=
108 5.6
w = 108 g
59. (D)
2
2 −5 −11
Ka = C α = 0.1 × (1 × 10 ) = 1 × 10
60. (B)
Option (b) is not cleaved by HI as the bond is strengthened by resonance.
61. (C)
2 Mg (1g) + O2 (0.56g) → 2MgO
32g oxygen reacts with = 2 × 24g Mg
0.56g oxygen reacts with = 0.84g Mg
Mg is in excess
Mg left = 1-0.84 = 0.16 g
62. (D)
ΔH = ΔU + Δng RT
= 2.1 × 1000 + 2 × 2 × 300
= + 3300 cal
ΔG = ΔH − TΔS = 3300 − 300(20)
= 3300 − 300 × 20
= -2700 cal
= -2.7 k cal
63. (C)
The acids that are stronger than H2CO3 react with sodium bicarbonate to give carbon dioxide. Such acids are
soluble in sodium hydrogen carbonate.
So, o- Nitrophenol is weaker acid as compared to H2CO3 .It is not soluble.

64. (D)
In [F e(H , Fe is in + 3 O.S.
3+
2 O) ]
6
∴ Fe ⇒ 3d6 4s2 (outer E.C.)

Fe ⇒ 3d5 4s0 (outer E.C.)
∵ H2O is a weak Field Ligand, pairing to e-1s is not possible

CFT for [F e(H 2 O) ]
6
3+
CFSE = neg × 0.6Δ0 − n × 0.4Δ0 t2

g
= 2 × 0.6Δ0 − 3 × 0.4Δ0
= 1.2Δ0 − 1.2Δ0 = 0
65. (C)
1st calculate EO of cell, from
−3
∘
0.059 10
0.3495 = E − log
−2
2 10
∘
E = 0.3495 − 0.0295 = 0.32
0.059
T hen, 0.32 = log K
2
0.32
log K =
0.0295
(0.32/0.0295)
K = 10
66. (A)
It is a disproportionation reaction of chlorine
Equivalent mass of chlorine molecule = +
M
2
M
10
=
3M
= 42.6
67. (B)
The reaction is 1st order w.r.t ‘A’ alone & again 1st order w.r.t ‘B’ alone Total order = 1 + 1 = 2 = n ,
1−n −1 −1 −1 −1
K = (conc) sec = sec = lit. mol sec
68. (D)
∆U = ∆H –∆ngRT
= 41000 – 1 x 8.314 x 373
= 37898 J mol–1
= 37.898 kJ mol–1
69. (B)
(NH4)2S brings a selective reduction of one of the two ‒ NO2 groups at m-position.
70. (C)
Ka × Kb = Kw
= 2.08 × 10-6
−14
Kw 1×10
∴ Kb = = −9
Ka 4.8×10
71. (C)
72. (A)
k = Ae
−E a /RT
=
eEa
A
/RT
Thus, as T increases, the exponential factor in the denominator decreases or
Ae
−E a /RT
increases. Hence, k increases exponentially as T increases.
73. (D)
3+ 3+
(c) Am and U belongs to actinoid series
The ionic radii of lanthanides decreases from La+3 to Lu+3

3+ 3+
(d) Ce > Pm (correct order of size)
74. (B)
75. (B)
The given probability density curve is for 2s orbital due to the presence of only one radial node. 1s and 2p
orbital do not have any radial node and 3s orbital has two radial nodes. Hence, option (b) is correct.
76. (B)
77. (D)
In this compound lone pair of N is nondelocalized. Above all, the N atom is sp3-hybridized and hence, this N
is most basic.
78. (B)
(−)
N H2 is bent shaped while −
N3 is linear.
79. (A)
[Co(NH3)4BrCl]Br – cis and trans
[Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl – cis, trans and ionisation.
80. (C)
Nitration is electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction. Methoxy and amino groups are strongly activating
groups. Methyl group is weakly activating group.
Since among methyl and methoxy group, methoxy group is more reactive than methyl group, (c) is more
reactive than (d).
Even-though amino group is strongly activating group, it gets protonated in presence of acid) to form
anilinium ion which is strongly deactivating. Hence, (a) is less reactive than (c) and (d).
Chloro group is deactivating group. so (b) has least reactivity.
Note:
The activating groups increases the electron density on benzene ring and increases the rate of electrophilic
aromatic substitution reaction. The deactivating groups decreases
the electron density on benzene ring and decreases the rate of electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction.
81. (D)
Hence answer is (d), i.e. I < II < IV < III
82. (D)
3 BaCI2 + 2 Na3PO4 → Ba3 (PO4)2 + 3 NaCI
Limiting reactant is Na3PO4
0.2 mol Na3PO4 will give Ba (P O ) = × 0.2
3 4
2
1
2
= 0.1 mol
83. (A)
O
(i)N aOH (aq.) ||
C 6 H 5 C H O + C H 3 C OC 6 H 5 −−−−−−−−→ C 6 H 5 − C H = C H − C − C 6 H 5
(ii)H eating Benzyl acetophenone
This is aldol condensation.
84. (A)
Acetic acid is weakest, because +I effect from methyl group decrease acidic strength.
85. (A)
Number of coulomb used =5 x 131.3 x 3600
6 × 96500 coulomb ≡ 1mole of KClO3
≡ 122.5g
5×131.3×3600
5 × 131.3 × 3600 ≡ × 122.5 = 500 g
6×96500
Actual deposit = 350 g

Current efficiency = 350
500
× 100 = 70%
86. (C)
87. (D)
Molecular formula is C4H8. The degree of unsaturation = 1.
Hydrocarbons with molecular formula C4H8 represent alkenes and cycloalkanes.
Alkanes:
Cycloalkanes:
Number of possible isomer with molecular formula C4H8 = 6
88. (B)
D-glucose, D-fructose and D-mannose form the some osazone treated with excess of phenyl hydrazine
because they differ only 1st and 2nd carbon atoms which are transformed to same form.
89. (A)
+ −
H In ⇌ H + In
+ −
[H ][I ]
n
Ka =
[H In ]
Ka [H In ]
+
[H ] = −
[I ]
n
−
[I ]
n
pH = pKa + log
[H In ]
When indicator changes colours [I −

n ] = [H In ]
−
[I ]
i.e., n
[H In ]
= 1
pH = pKa = 5
90. (B)
Due to the presence of electron withdrawing group in the compound intermediate carbanion is stabilized.
Compound B forms resonance stabilized carbanion after abstraction of β—H hence, favours the most to
E1cB mechanism.
91. (A)
92. (C)
Red phosphorus and concentrated HI is used, because it is a very strong reducing agent
93. (A)
Crystal field stabilization energy for tetrahedral complexes is less than pairing energy hence they do not to
pair up to form low spin complexes.
94. (B)
CO32– + 2H2O ⇌ H2CO3 + 2OH–
95. (B)
96. (C)
−E a /RT
k 1 = Ae 1
−E a /RT
k 2 = Ae 2
k2 1
(E a − E a )
= e RT 1 2
k1
k2 Ea1 − Ea2
ln =
k1 RT
3
10 × 10
= ≈ 4
8.314 × 300
97. (D)
−−−
= 2 × 10−4. Solubility of AX2 = √ = 2 × 10−5.
−−− Ksp
Solubility of AB = √K
3
sp
4
−−−
= 1× 10−4.
Ksp
Solubility of M3Y = √ 4
27
98. (B)
Hydrazine has no carbon atom. Therefore, on fusing with Na+ metal, it does not form any NaCN which is the
primary requirement of Lassaigne’s test.
99. (C)
pH = pKa + log [salt] / [acid] = 4.57 + log 3.3 = 5
100. (A)
101. (A)
H N O is a weak acid and N aN O is a salt of weak acid (H N O
2 2 2)
with strong base (NaOH)
102. (B)
In very dilute solutions, [OH-] of water 10-7 M is also considered.
[OH-] in 10-8 MKOH = 10-8 M + 10-7 M = 1.1 × 10-7 M pOH = 6.95 pH = 7.04
103. (B)
First order rate constant is given as,
[A 0 ]
2.303
k = log
t [A]
t
99% completed reaction,

2.303 100
k = log
t 1
2.303 2
= log 10
t
2.303
k = × 2 log 10
t
2.303 4.606
t = × 2 =
k k
4.606
t =
k
104. (A)
105. (B)
Molar conc. of cane sugar solution:
5 1000 50
= × =
342 100 342
Molar conc. of solution X = 1
molar mass
×
1000
100
10
=
molar mass
10
molar mass
or=
50
342
molar mass = 68.4 g/mole
106. (B)
Fe+3 = d5 = t e , 3
2g
2
g
= 3(-4Dq) + 2(+6Dq)=0 (CFSE)
107. (C)
108. (A)
Pyridine (C5H5N) is a weak base
2
Kb = C α
− −−−−−
−9
1.7×10
α = √
0.1
−4
α = 1.30 × 10
−4
%α = 1.30 × 10 × 100
%α = 0.013%
109. (A)
Trans effect order C N −
> C6 H
−
5
−
> Br > N H3
110. (D)
The decomposition of PH3 on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction because rate is proportional to
the
surface coverage.
111. (B)
F2, Cl2, Br2, I2 = Halogens
ICl3, ICl = Inter halogen
CN–, SCN– = Pseudo halogen
ICN = Inter pseudo halogen
112. (A)
Extended conjugation favour the product
113. (D)
Given that Δx = Δv
h
Δx × m Δv =
4π
−
−−−
m Δv
2
=
4π
h
; Δv = √
h
4πm
−
−−− −−
−
h hm
Δp = mΔv = m√ = √
4πm 4π
114. (A)
115. (B)
This is Hoffmann bromamide degradation reaction.

116. (A)
117. (C)
118. (C)
Wilkinson’s catalyst, (P h 3 P ) RhC l
3
+ 8 0
Rh = [K r] 4d s
i.e., dsp hybridization.

2
Rh atom in Wilkinson’s catalyst is dsp hybridized giving a square planar shape to the molecule.
2
119. (D)
Sulphurous acid
Pyrosulphuric acid
Dithionic acid
Caro’s acid is H2SO5 which contains one S – O – O – H peroxy linkage. It is also known as
permonosulphuric acid.
120. (A)
Na metal reacts with terminal alkynes because in terminal alkynes the terminal hydrogen is most acidic due
to sp hybridisation. So, sodium (Na) metal is used to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne as 2-butyne
does not contain acidic terminal hydrogen.
Na
1
CH3 CH2 C ≡ CH −→ CH3 CH2 C ≡ CNa + H2 ↑
2
Na
C H3 − C ≡ C − C H3 −
−→ No reaction
121. (D)
2− − 3+
C r2 O + 6e → 2C r
4
1 mole of C r O 2
2−
7
requires = 6 Faraday charge
= 6 × 96500 C
122. (B)
For conc. cell E0cell = 0
If Ecell is negative, free energy will be positive and cell reaction is not possible and vice-versa.
0.0591 C1
Ecell = log
n1 C2
C1 > C2
Ecell is positive, free energy will be negative.
123. (B)
11.2 V strength of H2O2 means,
11.2 L of O2 is liberated at STP.
1
H2 O 2 → H2 O + O2
2
11.2 L of O2 at STP = 0.5 mol

No. of moles of H2O2 = 1 mol
i.e., 1 L of given H2O2 solution has 1 mole of H2O2 (i.e., 34 g)
34
Strength = × 100 = 3.4%
1000
124. (B)
Rate= k[A] [B2]
125. (D)
Sucrose does not undergo mutarotation. Glucose and fructose shows mutarotation because they have two
forms α andβ . It is fact that sucrose is a disaccharide. Therefore, assertion is false but reason is true.
500 MOST WRONGLY ATTEMPTED
NEET QUESTIONNAIRE
BIOLOGY
1. In Frog, bidder’s canalis found in _____ ____.
(a) Testes
(b) Kidneys
(c) Ovaries
(d) Lungs
2. Read the statements (i - iv) and choose the correct option.

(i) Increase in melanised moths after industrialization in Great Britain is proof of Natural Selection
(ii) More individuals acquiring mean character value cause disruption
(iii) Change in allelic frequency leads to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
(iv) Genetic drift changes allelic frequency in future generations
(a) (ii) is correct
(b) (i) is correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iii) are correct
3. Assertion: In testis, the immature male germ cells called spermatogonia produce sperms by spermatogenesis that begins at
puberty.
Reason: The spermatogonia present on the inside wall of seminiferous tubules multiply by meiotic division and increase in
numbers.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(d) If both assertion and reason are false
4. Assertion: Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for.
Reason: Dominance depends as much on the gene product and the production of a particular phenotype from this product.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
5. Regions of root from base to tip are

(a) Maturation zone - Cell division zone - Elongation zone
(b) Maturation zone - Elongation zone - Cell division zone
(c) Cell division zone - Elongation zone - Maturation zone
(d) Elongation zone - Cell division zone - Maturation zone
6. Consider the following four statements (1 – 4) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only:
1. In Fabaceae family flowers are actinomorphic.
2. In Fabaceae and Liliaceae families the ovary is inferior.
3. In Liliaceae family leaves are ex-stipulate.
4. In Liliaceae and Solanaceae family placentation is axile.
(a) Statements 2, 3 and 4
(b) Statements 1, 2
(c) Statements 3, 4
(d) Statements 1, 3, and 4
7. The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are collectively called
(a) Phelloderm
(b) Phellogen
(c) Periderm
(d) Phellem
8. Thinning of cotton, cherry and walnut is hastened by the application of:

(a) Zeatin
(b) Ethephon
(c) Kinetin
(d) ABA
9. Which is incorrectly matched?
(a) Adenine derivative – Kinetin
(b) Terpenes - IAA
(c) Carotenoid derivative – ABA
(d) Indole compounds – IBA
10. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and genotypes are
(a) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 16
(b) phenotypes – 9; genotypes – 4
(c) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 8
(d) phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9
11. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show

(a) Host specificity
(b) Narrow spectrum application
(c) Effects on non-target pathogens
(d) Utility in IPM programme
12. The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with oxaloacetic acid and water to yield citric acid. The
reaction is catalysed by the enzyme
(a) Citrate decarboxylase
(b) Citrate dehydrogenase
(c) Citrate synthase
(d) Citrate
13. Which of the following taxonomic categories are correctly matched to their standard termination of names with respect to
the biological classification of plants?
I. Division – phyta
II. Class – opsida
III. Order – ales
IV. Family – idea
(a) I, II, IV
(b) I, II, III
(c) II, III, IV
(d) I, II, III, IV
14. Vexillary aestivation is characteristic of the family
(a) Liliaceae
(b) Solanaceae
(c) Brassicaceae
(d) Fabaceae
15. Removal of auxin source demonstrates that leaf abscission is ______ by auxin, and apical dominance is ______ by auxin.
(a) promoted, promoted
(b) inhibited, inhibited
(c) promoted, inhibited
(d) inhibited, promoted
16. Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) Aspergillus, Claviceps and Neurospora are Ascomycetes.
(ii) Mycelium of Phycomycetes is aseptate and coenocytic.
(iii) Sexual reproduction in Phycomycetes takes place by zoospores (motile) or by aplanospores (non-motile).
(a) Only (i)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
17. Which of the following is incorrect about the haplontic life cycle?
(a) Gametophytes are the dominant phase in this life cycle
(b) Sporophytes are free-living
(c) Spores are haploid in nature and form gametophytes by mitotic division
(d) Zygote acts as sporophyte
18. What is false about heartwood?

(a) It conducts water
(b) It gives mechanical support to the stem
(c) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls
(d) It is dark brown due to deposition of organic compounds
19. Read the following statements carefully

A. The cells of the permanent tissues do not generally divide further
B. Permanent tissues having many different types of cells are called simple tissues
C. Permanent tissues having all cells similar in structure and function are called complex tissues.
Among these statements
(a) A and B are correct, but C is incorrect
(b) B and C are correct but A is incorrect
(c) A and C are incorrect but B is correct
(d) B and C are incorrect but A is correct
20. C3 plants show CO2 saturation at about ___ μl/L.

(a) 36
(b) 360
(c) 450
(d) 10
21. Characteristics found in the cells of the meristematic zone is/are:

(a) The cells of this region are rich in protoplasm, and possess small inconspicuous nuclei
(b) Their cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal connections
(c) Both (a) and (b)
22. In a human sperm, besides autosomes the chromosome complement contains

(a) X and Y
(b) Either X or Y
(c) Y only
(d) X only
23. When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic model is given as dN/dt
= rN(1-N/K)
(a) When N/K is exactly one
(b) When N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat
(c) When N/K equals zero
(d) When death rate is greater than birth rate
24. The amino acid substituted in sickle cell anaemia is

(a) Glutamic acid for valine in the alpha chain
(b) Glutamic acid for valine in the beta chain
(c) Valine for glutamic acid in the alpha chain
(d) Valine for glutamic acid in the beta chain
25. In a polluted environment, maximum pollution will occur in
(a) Producers
(b) Primary consumers
(c) Secondary consumers
(d) Tertiary consumers
26. Read the following five statements (i – v) and answer the question.
(i) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte.
(ii) In Ginkgo, male gametophytes are not independent.
(iii) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum.
(iv) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous.
(v) The spores of slime molds lack cell walls.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
27. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given
Column I Column II
i Selaginella a Psilopsida
ii Equisetum b Lycopsida
iii Adiantum and Pteris c Sphenopsida
iv Dryopteris d Pteropsida
(a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

(b) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c,
(c) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
(d) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-d
28. Read the given below statements:

1. The axillary bud later develops into a branch.
2. The leaf is attached to the stem by the leaf base and may bear two lateral small leaf-like structures called stipules.
3. The lamina or the leaf blade is the green expanded part of the leaf with veins and veinlets.
4. The shape, margin, apex, surface and extent of incision of the lamina are the same in different leaves.
5. In some leguminous plants, the leaf base may become swollen, which is called the petiole.
How many of the above statements are true?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4
29. Assertion: In C4 plant photorespiration does not occur.

Reason: C4 plants have a mechanism that increases the concentration of CO2 at the enzyme site.
30. Assertion: The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable and to some extent depends on the
prevailing temperature and humidity.
Reason: In some members of Rosaceae, Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of
their release, and in some cereals such as rice and wheat, they maintain viability for months.
31. The nature and properties of soil in different places vary; it is dependent on the i. Climate
ii. Weathering process
iii. Whether soil is transported or sedimentary
iv. How soil development occurred
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) i, iii and iv
(d) i, ii, iii and iv
32. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement 1 : Volvox forms spherical colony.
Statement 2 : Volvox colony is made up of non-motile cells.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
(b) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect
(c) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
(d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
Statement 1: In human ABO blood grouping, there are 3 different alleles, 3 Genotypes and 4 phenotypes.
Statement 2: Human ABO blood grouping is the result of the presence of protein polymers on the plasma membrane of
red blood cells.
(d)
Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect
Statement 1: BOD refers to the amount of oxygen that would be released by the micro-organisms, if all the organic matter
in one litre of water were oxidised by bacteria.
Statement 2: Primary treatment of sewage is a physical process of removal large and small particles.
35. Which one of the following pair is not a conservation method included under in-situ conservation?
(a) National park, Sacred grooves
(b) Sanctuary, National parks
(c) Botanical garden, Wildlife safaris
(d) Biosphere reserve, Sanctuary
36. The floral characters of Liliaceae are

(a) Six tepals, zygomorphic, six stamens, bilocular ovary, axile placentation
(b) Tetramerous, actinomorphic, polyphyllous,unilocular ovary, axile placentation
(c) Bisexual, actinomorphic, polyandrous, superior ovary, axile placentation
(d) Bisexual, zygomorphic, gamophyllous, inferior ovary, marginal placentation
37. Select the option that correctly identifies the labelling A, B and C in the given figure showing a section of root apical
meristem.
(a) A – Cortex, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap

(b) A – Protoderm, B – Cortex, C – Root cap
(c) A – Hypodermis, B – Epidermis, C – Cortex
(d) A – Tunica, B – Protoderm, C – Root cap
38. Out of a population of 800 individuals in F2 generation of a cross between yellow

round and green wrinkled Pea plants, what would be a number of yellow and wrinkled seeds
(a) 800
(b) 400
(c) 200
(d) 150
39. Given below is the flowchart of sewage treatment. Identify B,C and D and select the correct option.
(a) B-Increased BOD; C-Activated sludge; D-Aerobic sludge digesters

(b) B-Reduced BOD; C-Activated sludge; D-Anaerobic sludge digesters
(c) B-Activated sludge; C-Reduced BOD; D-Anaerobic sludge digesters
(d) B-Mechanical agitation C-Reduced BOD; D-Aerobic sludge digesters
40. The type of life-cycle in which there is no free-living sporophyte and the dominant, photosynthetic phase in such plants is
the free-living gametophyte. We are talking about
(a) Haplontic life cycle shown in Volvox and some species of Chlamydomonas
(b) Diplontic life cycle as shown in seed-bearing plants
(c) Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in bryophytes and pteridophytes
(d) Haplo-diplontic life cycle as shown in Kelps
Statement 1: 390-430 range wavelength (in mm) is called photosynthetically active radiation (PAR).
Statement 2: Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from organic substances.
42. In _________, a dominant and independent haploid gametophyte alternates with a short-lived, dependent sporophyte.
(a) Algae
(b) Bryophytes
(c) Pteridophytes
(d) Gymnosperms
43. Identify the floral diagram shown below as well as related plants of its occurrence and select the right option for the two
together?
(a) Family – Lialiaceae; Plant - Onion

(b) Family – Cruciferae; Plant - Onion
(c) Family – Fabaceae; Plant - Pea
(d) Family – Solananceae; Plant – Ashwagandha
44. In dicot stem the layer referred as starch sheath is

(a) Epidermis
(b) Hypodermis
(c) Endodermis
45. Find the correct statements.

A. Cytokinins help in delaying leaf senescence by promoting nutrient mobilisation
B. Auxins induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes
C. Ethylene avoids germination in peanut seeds
D. Gibberellins delay seed production in conifers
(a) A and C only
(b) A and D only
(c) B and C only
(d) A and B only
46. In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the type of given pedigree.
(a)
X-linked dominant
(b)
Autosomal dominant
(c) X-linked recessive
(d)
Autosomal recessive
47. Mr. X is eating curd/yogurt. For this food intake in a food chain, he should be considered as occupying
(a) First trophic level
(b) Second trophic level
(c) Third trophic level
(d) Fourth trophic level
48. Heterospory is found in some members of ___ and all members of ___.
(a) Bryophyta, Pteridophyta
(b) Pteridophyta, Bryophyta
(c) Bryophyta, Gymnospermae
(d) Pteridophyta, Spermatophyta
49. Assertion: During the oxidative decarboxylation process, two molecules of NADH are produced from the metabolism of
two molecules of pyruvic acid.
Reason: CO2 is consumed in the reaction to obtain acetyl CoA as a product.
Statement 1 : Euglena can be considered as a plant due to the presence of chlorophyll.
Statement 2 : Euglena cannot be classified on the basis of two kingdom system of classification.
Statement 1 : The stem tubers are the swollen ends of specialised underground stem branches, which help in vegetative
propagation of the plant.
Statement 2 : Solanum tuberosum is an example of a stem tuber which stores inulin as the main reserve food material.
Statement 1 : In an aquatic ecosystem, pyramid of biomass is inverted.
Statement 2 : Biomass depends upon reproductive potential and longevity of individuals.
Statement 1: In female cockroach, the 7th sternum is boat shaped and along with 8th and 9th sterna forms a brood or
genital pouch.
Statement 2: In male cockroach, the genital pouch is bound by dorsally 9th and 10th sterna and vertically by 9th terga.
54. The first Chipko movement was inspired by

(a) Sundar Lal Bahuguna, in Garhwal, Himalaya, 1974.
(b) Amrita Devi Bishnoi, 1731.
(c) Ramesh Chandra Dagar, Sonipat Haryana, 1973.
(d) Ahmed Khan Bangalore city 1986.
55. Read the following statements (I-IV) and answer the question which follows
I. In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living.
II. Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous.
III. Sexual reproduction in Fucus, and Volvox is oogamous.
IV. The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
56. Following table summarizes the differences between a monocot root and a dicot root.
Characters Monocot root Dicot root

(i) Vascular bundle Polyarch i.e. more than 6 vascular bundles Diarch to hexarch i.e., 2-6 vascular bundles
(ii) Cambium Absent Present, so secondary growth occurs
(iii) Pith Poorly developed Well developed large pith
(iv) Activity of pericycle Gives rise to secondary roots and cork cambium Given rise to lateral roots only
Pick up the wrong differences and select the correct option.

(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
57. Well developed pith is found in

(a) Monocot root and monocot stem
(b) Monocot stem and dicot root
(c) Monocot root and dicot stem
(d) Dicot root and dicot stem
58. Stomata close when the guard cells:

(a) Lose water
(b) Photosynthesis begins and the internal CO2 concentration decreases
(c) Gain chloride ions
(d) Become turgid
Statement 1: BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the biodegradable organic matter.
Statement 2: Antibiotics have no effect on viruses because viruses have no metabolism of their own.
Statement 1: In a certain taxon of insects have 18 chromosomes and others have 18 chromosomes. The 17 chromosome
bearing are males and 18 chromosome bearing are females.
Statement 2: In sickle cell anaemia valine is replaced by glutamic acid.
Statement 1: In angiosperms, each cell of the embryo sac is haploid.
Statement 2: In angiosperms, embryo sac formation is preceded by meiosis.
62. Consider following sets of some animals. The set that consists of all animals belonging to the same phylum is:
(a) Pila, Aplysia, Chaetopleura
(b) Pinctada, Loligo, Apis
(c) Anopheles, Dentalium, Chaetopleura
(d) Hirudinaria, Locusta, Sepia
63. Prothallus of fern produces

(a) Gametes
(b) Spores
(c) Both (a) and (b)
Statement 1: Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh habitats.
Statement 2: Presence of peptidoglycan in cell wall help archaebacteria to survive in extreme conditions.
Statement 1: The aquatic organisms in which the osmotic concentration and temperature of body change according to the
ambient conditions of water are referred to as conformers.
Statement 2: Aquatic organisms are able to maintain homeostasis through thermoregulation and osmoregulation by
physiological or behavioural means.
66. Rate of photosynthesis does not depend upon:

(a) Quality of light
(b) Intensity of Light
(c) Duration of Light
(d) Temperature
67. The development of male gametophyte in angiosperms is :

(a) Partly in-situ in anther and partly ex-situ on stigma
(b) Fully in-situ in anther
(c) Fully ex-situ on stigma
(d) Possible in-vitro only
68. Microbes which acts as biofertilizers are

(a) Free living nitrogen fixing bacteria-Rhizobium
(b) Free living nitrogen fixing bacteria-Azospirillum
(c) Mycorrhiza formed by the algae of the genus Glomus
(d) Root nodule bacteria-Azotobacter fix atmospheric nitrogen in paddy fields
69. Assertion: The constantly dividing cells, both at the root apex and the shoot apex, represent the meristematic phase of
growth.
Reason: The cells in the meristematic region are deficient in protoplasm, and possess small inconspicuous nuclei.
70. Which of the following statement(s) regarding energy flow is/are false?
I. Detritus food chain begins with dead organic matter
II. In an aquatic ecosystem, the detritus food chain is the major conduit for energy flow
III. In a terrestrial ecosystem a larger fraction of energy flows through the grazing food chain
IV. Producers belong to the first trophic level of the food chain
(a) II and III only
(b) III and IV only
(c) I and IV only
(d) I and II only
71. Match the columns I, II and III, and choose the correct combination from the options given
(a) a-1-K, b-2-1

(b) a-1-L, b-2-K
(c) a-2-K, b-1-L
(d) a-2-L, b-1-K
72. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ZW-ZZ type of sex determination?
(a) It occurs in birds and some reptiles
(b) Females are homogametic and males are heterogametic
(c) 1 : 1 sex ratio is produced in the offsprings
(d) Only females can form different types of gametes while males can't
73. Given diagram shows a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
Maximum crossing over will occur between genes

(a) A and a, D and d
(b) C and d, c and D
(c) B and c, b and C
(d) A and d, a and D
74. Match the columns
Column I Column II
a. GA (i) Promotes nutrient mobilisation
b. CK (ii) Inhibitor of plant metabolism
c. ABA (iii) Promotes bolting
d. C2H4 (iv) Root hair formation
(a) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

(b) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(c) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
(d) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
75. A leaf ‘A’ of 5 cm2 grows upto 10 cm2 in an hour, another leaf ‘B’ of 50 cm2 grows up to 55 cm2 in the some time. The
relative growth rates of leaf B and A, respectively. are
(a) 10% and 50%
(b) 50% and 10%
(c) 100% and 10%
(d) 10% and 100%
76. Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are

(a) T-DNA
(b) BAC and YAC
(c) Expression vectors
(d) T/A cloning vectors
77. Select the correct option matching with characteristics of each group.
(a) i, ii and iii are correct

(b) i and iv are correct
(c) All are correct
(d) Only iii is correct
78. In Mollusca gills (feather - like) has the functions

(a) Respiratory and circulatory
(b) Circulatory and excretory
(c) Excretory and respiratory
(d) Excretory, respiratory and circulatory
79. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to Periplaneta americana.
(a) Nervous system located dorsally, consists of segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal connectives
(b) Males bear a pair of short thread-like anal styles
(c) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules present at the junctions of midgut and hindgut
(d) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts
80. Phallic organ in cockroach is related to :
(a) Male excretory system
(b) Male reproductive system
(c) Female excretory system
(d) Female reproductive system
81. Which of the following groups is formed of only the hermaphrodite organisms?
(a) Earthworm, tapeworm, housefly, frog
(b) Earthworm, tapeworm, sea horse, housefly
(c) Earthworm, leech, sponge, roundworm
(d) Earthworm, tapeworm, leech, sponge
82. Which one represents the correct number of each type of vertebrae?
(a) Lumbar-4, Coccygeal-1, Thoracic-12, Cervical-5
(b) Sacral-2, Thoracic-7, Cervical-1, Lumbar-5
(c) Cervical-7, Lumbar-5, Thoracic-12, Sacral-5
(d) Coccygeal-4, Lumbar-7, Cervical-5, Thoracic-12
83. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only ‘Y’ pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y
and provides their explanation.
(a) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum
(b) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to the vertebral column and sternum at the two ends.
(c) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to the vertebral column but are free on the ventral side.
(d) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to the vertebral column but are free on the ventral side.
84. Select the correct matching of the type of joint with the example:
(a) Types of Joint-Cartilaginous joint, Example- Between frontal and parietal
(b) Types of Joint- Pivot joint, Example- Between third and fourth cervical vertebrae
(c) Types of Joint- Hinge joint, Example- Between humerus and pectoral girdle
(d) Types of Joint- Gliding joint, Example- Between carpals
85. In which of the following stages of a cell cycle, the newly formed DNA molecules are not distinct but intertwined?
(a) S phase of interphase
(b) G2 phase of interphase
(c) Both S and G2 phases of interphase
(d) G1, S, and G2 phases of interphase
86. Centrioles undergo duplication during (i) of (ii) and begin to move towards opposite poles of the cell during (iii) stage of
(iv) .
(a) (i)-S phase, (ii)-Interphase, (iii)-Prophase, (iv)-Mitosis
(b) (i)-S phase, (ii)-Interphase, (iii)-Anaphase, (iv)-Mitosis
(c) (i)-Prophase, (ii)-Mitosis, (iii)-Metaphase, (iv)-Mitosis
(d) (i)-Prophase, (ii)-Mitosis, (iii)-Anaphase, (iv)-Mitosis
87. Assertion: Use of chitinase enzyme is necessary for isolation of DNA from yeast cells but not in case of Spirogyra.
Reason: Fungal cell wall is made up of fungal cellulose or chitin.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.
88. Select the correct statements regarding the characteristics of acquired immunity.
(i) Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for acquired immunity
(ii) It produces a primary response of low intensity.
(iii) Active and passive immunity are types of acquired immunity
(iv) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and natural killer cells are involved in acquired immunity
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
89. Match the columns | and I, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
a. Opioids 1. Snorting and injection
b. Cannabinoids 2. Inhalation and oral ingestion
c. Coka alkaloids 3. Snorting
(a) a-1, b-2, c-3

(b) a-3, b-2, c-1
(c) a-2, b-1, c-3
(d) a-1, b-3, c-2
90. Escherichia coli with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in the non-radioactive medium for two
generations. The percentage of bacteria with radioactive DNA is
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 12.5%
91. A reduction in the quantity of oxygen evolution during photosynthesis may be observed at
(a) Light having wavelength more than 680 nm
(b) Light having wavelength less than 680 nm
(c) Light having wavelength 560 nm
(d) Light having wavelength less than 360 nm
92. Assertion: The chromosomal disorders are caused due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one or more
chromosomes.
Reason: Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome(s),
called polyploidy.
93. Assertion: Law of segregation is based on the fact that the alleles do not show any blending and that both the characters
are recovered as such in the F2 generation.
Reason: Though the parents contain two alleles during gamete formation, the factors or alleles
of a pair segregate from each other such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors.
94. Assertion: The quasifluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.
Reason: This ability to move within the membrane is called fluidity and is important for cell
growth.
95. Consider the following statements with respect to the C4 pathway and select the correct ones.
(i) Mesophyll cells possess both RuBisCO and PEPcasc enzymes.
(ii) Initial CO2 fixation occurs in mesophyll cells.
(iii) Final CO2 fixation occurs in bundle sheath cells.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
96. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among the following:

(1) Selaginella and Salvinia
(2) Psilotum and Salvinia
(3) Equisetum and Salvinia
(4) Lycopodium and Selaginella
97. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A: Late wood has fewer xylary elements with narrow vessels.
Reason R: Cambium is less active in winters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is true, but R is false.
(c) A is false, but R is true.
(d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
98. Family Fabaceae differs from Solanaceae and Liliaceae. With respect to the stamens, pick out the characteristics specific
to family Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
(a) Polyadelphous and Epipetalous stamens
(b) Monadelphous and Monothecous anthers
(c) Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
(d) Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
99. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
a. Opioids 1. Snorting and injection
b. Cannabinoids 2. Inhalation and oral ingestion
c. Coka alkaloids 3. Snorting
(a) a-1,b-2,c-3
(b) a-3,b-2,c-1
(c) a-2,b-1,c-3
(d) a-1,b-3,c-2
100. In a population, the percentage of homozygous recessive genotype is 36%. Calculate its aa genotype, frequency of a and
A, frequency of AA and Aa. Here A is completely dominant over a.
(a) aa=0.16, a=0.06, A= 40, AA= 0.16, Aa=0.48
(b) aa=0.36, a=0.6, A= 0.4, AA= 0.16,Aa=0.48
(c) aa=0.16, a=6, A= 4.0, AA= 01.6, Aa=04.8
(d) aa=0.36, a=0.8, A= 0.8, AA=0.16, Aa=0.45
101. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.
(a) a-condenser, b-to vacuum pump, c-electrode, d-spark discharge, e-boiling water, f-gases
(b) b-condenser, a-to vacuum pump, d-electrode, c-spark discharge, f-boiling water, e-gases
(c) b-condenser, a-to vacuum pump, c-electrode, d-spark discharge, e-boiling water, f-gases
(d) b-condenser, a-to vacuum pump, c-electrode, d-spark discharge, f-boiling water, e-gases
102. Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are:

(a) Small and directional
(b) Small and directionless
(c) Random and directionless
(d) Random and directional
103. Assertion: In the test tube baby programme, ova from the wife/donor (female) and sperms from the husband/donor
(male) are collected and are induced to form zygote under simulated conditions in the laboratory.
Reason: The zygote or early embryos could then be transferred into the fallopian tube and embryos with more than 8
blastomeres, into the uterus to complete its further development.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Statement 1 : Small amount of urea enters the thick segment of henle's loop which is transported back to interstitium by
collecting tubules.
Statement 2 : Collecting tubules and thick segment of Henle's loop are permeable to urea.
Statement 1: Meselson and Stahl experiment in 1958 shows 0 : 1 : 7 ratio of heavy, hybrid and light densities of DNA
molecules in E.coli in 80 minutes.
Statement 2: They grew E.coli. is a medium containing radioactive isotope. 15N.
106. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this
feature?
A. They do not need to reproduce
B. They are somatic cells
C. They do not metabolize
D. All their internal space is available for oxygen transport.
(a) Only D
(b) Only A
(c) A, C and D
(d) B and C
107. Which of the following factors is responsible for the formation of concentrated urine?
(a) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards inner medullary interstitium in the kidneys
(b) Secretion of erythropoietin by Juxtaglomerular complex
(c) Hydrostatic pressure during glomerular filtration
(d) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
108. Assertion: A primary spermatocyte completes the first meiotic division (reduction division) leading to formation of two
equal, haploid cells called secondary spermatocytes, which have only 23 chromosomes each.
Reason: The secondary spermatocytes undergo the second meiotic division to produce four equal, haploid spermatids.
109. Assertion: During the follicular phase, the primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle
and simultaneously the endometrium of the uterus regenerates through proliferation.
Reason: The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular phase, and stimulates
follicular development as well as secretion of estrogens by the growing follicles.
110. In frogs, a triangular structure called _____ joins the right atrium of the heart.
(a) Conus arteriosus
(b) Vena cava
(c) Sinus venosus
(d) Sinus arteriosus
111. Which animal is commonly called a tusk shell ?

(a) Loligo
(b) Sepia
(c) Octopus
(d) Dentalium
112. Select the correctly matched example of bony fishes with their common names:
(a) Betta - Fighting fish
(b) Clarias - Magur
(c) Pterophyllum - Angelfish
(d) All of the above
113. The long slender bone of the clavicle with two curvatures is
(a) Radius and ulna
(b) Collar bone
(c) Tibia and fibula
(d) Spine and acromion
114. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa, and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this
data, the frequency of allele A in the population is :
(a) 0.6
(b) 0.7
(c) 0.4
(d) 0.5
115. Match the components of lac-operon of Escherichia coli and find out the correct combination.
a Structural gene p. Binding site for repressor protein

b. Operator gene q. Codes for repressor protein
c Promoter gene r. Induces lactose transport from the medium
d. Regulator gene s. Codes from enzyme proteins
t. Binding site for RNA-polymerase
(a) a-q, b-t, c-p, d-r

(b) a-r, b-s, c-t, d-p
(c) a-s, b-p, c-t, d-q
(d) a-t, b-s, c-q, d-p
116. In the DNA segment of six coils, 22 bp are linked by two hydrogen bonds. How many cytosine bases would be present?
(a) 22
(b) 38
(c) 44
(d) 76
117. Assertion: Androgens acts at the Leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of LH hormone.
Reason: Luteinising hormone stimulates the process of spermatogenesis.
118. Consider the following four statements (i) - (iv) and select the option that correctly identifies the true (T) and false (F)
ones.
(i) Micturition is carried out by a reflex.
(ii) ADH helps in water elimination making the urine hypotonic.
(iii) Protein -free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the Bowman's capsule.
(iv) Glucose is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule.
(a) (i)-T, (ii)-F, (iii)-T, (iv)-T
(b) (i)-T, (ii)-T, (iii)-F, (iv)-F
(c) (i)-F, (ii)-F, (iii)-F, (iv)-T
(d) (i)-F, (i))-T, (iii)-F, (iv)-T
119. Recognise the given figure and find out the correct labels.
(i) ‘A’ is the fine branch of renal vein.

(ii) ‘B’ carries blood towards the glomerulus.
(iii) ‘C’ is the tuft of capillaries formed by the ‘A’.
(iv) ‘D’ is the highly coiled network of renal tubule.
Which of the above statement is correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) only
120. Assertion : The kidneys have built in mechanisms for the regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR).
Reason: ANF can cause vasoconstriction and thereby increasing blood pressure.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true
121. Identify the following type of blood cells and mark the correct option.
(a) A-Monocyte, B-Eosinophil, C-Neutrophil, D-Basophil, E-Blood platelets

(b) A-Monocyte, B-Basophil, C-Neutrophil, D-Blood platelets, E-Eosinophil
(c) A-Basophil, B-Blood platelets, C-Monocyte, D-Eosinophil, E-Neutrophil
(d) A-Basophil, B-Blood platelets, C-Eosinophil, D-Neutrophil, E-Monocyte
122. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome indicates

(a) Transcription is occurring
(b) DNA replication is occurring
(c) The DNA is condensed into a chromatin Fibre
(d) The DNA double helix is exposed
123. For DNA fingerprinting, DNA is obtained from-

(a) White blood corpuscles
(b) Hair root cells
(c) Body secretions
(d) All the above
124. Several genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or _______ have been identified in normal cells which, when activated
under certain conditions, could lead to ______ transformation of the cells.
Complete the above paragraph by selecting correct sequence of words
(a) regulatory genes, proto oncogenic
(b) foreign genes, proto oncogenic
(c) proto oncogenes, oncogenic
(d) oncogenes, Proto oncogenic
125. Which of the following is incorrect for the animal given in the diagram?
(a) Dioecious
(b) Internal fertilization
(c) Indirect development
(d) Marine
126. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?
(a) Double ventral nerve cord – Leech
(b) Pharyngeal gill slits absent in embryo – Chameleon
(c) Fertilisation external – Scorpion
(d) Post-anal tail – Octopus
127. Regulation of kidney function of Juxtaglomerular Apparatus (JGA) involves certain steps given below. Arrange them in
the correct order
1) Release of enzyme renin
2) Release of aldosterone from adrenal gland
3) Reabsorption of Na+ and water at DCT
4) Decrease in blood pressure and blood volume.
5) Conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotension II.
(a) 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
(b) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
(c) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2
(d) 4, 1, 5, 2, 3
128. Assertion: The ovulation (ovulatory phase) is followed by the luteal phase during which the remaining parts of the
Graafian follicle transform as the corpus luteum.
Reason: The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of luteinising hormone which is essential for maintenance of the
endometrium.
129. Due to discovery of which of the following in 1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world:
(a) m-RNA, t-RNA, r-RNA synthesise proteins
(b) In some virus RNA is genetic material
(c) RNA has enzymatic property
(d) RNA is not found in all cells
130. Which of the following is true wrt continental drift?

(a) Due to continental drift all present day sea were formed
(b) Due to continental drift South America separated from North America
(c) Due to continental drift animals of east Africa overridden by animals of North America
(d) Due to continental drift, animals of South America were overridden by animals of North America
131. The site where mature lymphocytes interact with antigens and then proliferate to become effector cells is ______.
(a) Spleen and lymph nodes
(b) Bone marrow only
(c) thymus only
(d) both b and c
132. Assertion: PCR is routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients and is being used to detect mutations in
genes in suspected cancer patients.
Reason: The major disadvantage of PCR is that it cannot identify other genetic disorders.
133. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
A Cartilaginous fishes (i) Usually external fertilization
B Bony fishes (ii) Internal fertilization
(iii) Mostly oviparous
(iv) Some are viviparous
(v) Direct development
(a) A → (i), (iii), (v); B → (i), (ii)

(b) A → (ii), (iv); B → (i), (iii), (v)
(c) A → (iii), (v); B → (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) A → (i), (ii), (iv); B → (iv), (v)
134. Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(d) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
135. Bivalents in meiosis are

(a) Tetrad
(b) Pairs of non-homologous chromosomes
(c) Pairs of several chromatids
(d) Pairs of homologous chromosomes
(a) a-adenine, b-thymine, c-adenylic acid, d-uridylic acid

(b) a-adenine, b-uracil, c-adenosine, d-uridine
(c) a-guanine, b-thymine, c-adenosine, d-uridine
(d) a-adenine, b-cytosine, c-adenylic acid, d-uridylic acid
137. Assertion: An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred to as untranslated
regions (UTR).
Reason: The UTRs are present at only 5′ end (before start codon).
(a) a-serine, b-glycine, c-alanine

(b) a-glycine, b-serine, c-alanine
(c) a-glycine, b-alanine, c-serine
(d) a-alanine, b-serine, c-glycine
139.
The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the __1____ through ____2__. The __1__ leave the testis and open into
___3___.
(a) 1.rete testis, 2.vasa efferentia, 3.epididymis
(b) 1.vasa efferentia, 2.rete testis, 3.epididymis
(c) 1.vasa efferentia,2.epididymis,3.rete testis
(d) 1.epididymis,2.rete testis,3.vasa efferentia

140. Which of the following will lead to transformation, as shown by the experiments of Avery, MacLeod and McCarty?
(a) Protein from heat-killed S-strain
(b) DNA from heat-killed S-strain along with DNase
(c) DNA from heat-killed S-strain
(d) RNA from heat-killed S-strain
141. Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another in the transduction process is through
(a) Conjugation
(b) Bacteriophage
(c) Another bacterium
(d) Physical contact between donor and recipient strain
142. Bt corn has been made resistant to corn borer disease by the introduction of the gene---
(a) Cry I Ab
(b) Cry II Ab
(c) ampR
(d) Trp
143. Assertion: Presence of more than one recognition site within the vector simplifies the process of genetic engineering.
Reason: In addition to ori, the vector requires a rop site, which helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants
and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants.
144. How many of the following statements are related to bone ?

A. It is a specialized connective tissue having hard and pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres
which give bone its strength.
B. It is the main tissue that provides structural frame to the body.
C. It supports and protects softer tissues and organs.
D. The bone cells, osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae.
E. They also interact with smooth muscles attached to them to bring about movements
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
145. A centriole-like structure, from which the cilium and the flagellum emerge, is the:
(a) Centrosome
(b) Basal body
(c) Axoneme
(d) Vimentin
146. Cell would normally proceed to mitosis without interruption

(a) Once it has entered the S phase
(b) Once it has entered the G2 phase
(c) At any time during cell division activity
(d) None of these
147. Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from body tissues into the blood is present as
(a) Bicarbonate in blood plasma and RBCs
(b) Free CO2 in blood plasma
(c) 70% carbamino-haemoglobin and 30% as bicarbonate
(d) Carbamino-haemoglobin in RBCs
148. Atherosclerosis is caused by deposition of

(a) Calcium
(b) Fat and cholesterol
(c) Deposition of fibrous tissue
149. Assertion: In eukaryotes, the chromosomal organisation is much more complex and there is a set of positively charged,
basic proteins called histones.
Reason: Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues such as leucine and asparagine.
150. Which one of the following is a marine fish?

(a) Rohu
(b) Hilsa
(c) Catla
(d) Common carp
Statement 1 : All triploblastic animals are eucoelomates.
Statement 2 : They have a false coelom.
Statement 1: In Anaphase I, sister chromatids move to the opposite pole by splitting of centromere.
Statement 2: In Metaphase I, the bivalent chromosomes align at the equatorial plate.
Statement 1 : Respiration is most efficient in the insects, among the invertebrates.
Statement 2 : In the insects, air is carried directly to the cells by tracheoles.
Statement 1 : Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilise the movements of the joint.
Statement 2 : This is caused due to uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossification of articular cartilage.
155. Saturated fatty acids possess ______ bonds between carbon atoms and are _____ at room temperature.
(a) Single, solids
(b) Double, solids
(c) Single, liquids
(d) Double, liquids
156. Assertion: RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates the process of transcription. Reason: The RNA polymerase
is only capable of catalysing the process of elongation.
Statement 1: Secondary structure is necessary for many biological activities of proteins, like forming an active site in
enzymes.
Statement 2: The difference in average energy content of product from that of its transition state is called activation
energy.
Statement 1: Aldosterone hormone has membrane bound receptors.
Statement 2: PTH is a hyperglycemic hormone.
Statement 1: Insertional inactivation of the lac Z gene forms colourless recombinant colonies.
Statement 2: Restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts between A and T at GAATTC.
160. Bicuspid and tricuspid valve opens when

(a) Blood from the pulmonary artery and vena cava flows into the left and right ventricles, respectively
(b) Blood from the pulmonary vein and vena cava flows into left and right ventricles, respectively
(c) Blood from the pulmonary vein and vena cava flows into left and right atrium, respectively
(d) Oxygen from the pulmonary vein and vena cava flows into left and right atrium, respectively
161. Cu-T is an intrauterine contraceptive device. From the following mentioned statements select the option that correctly
defines the role of Cu.
(a) Cu ions make uterus unstable for implantation
(b) Cu ions suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing capacity of the sperms
(c) Cu ions make cervix hostile to sperms
(d) All of these
Statement 1: A bivalent of meiosis I consists of four chromatids, two centromeres and four kinetochores.
Statement 2: G1 phase does not show DNA replication.
Statement 1: Puncture in the chest cavity, without any damage in lungs will lead to cessation of breathing.
Statement 2: In Emphysema, the respiratory muscles are found to be damaged.
Statement 1: A diabetes mellitus patient excretes glucose in urine even when he is kept on carbohydrate free diet.
Statement 2: Adrenaline directly affects the AV node of heart.
Statement 1 : Subcutaneous implantation of synthetic progesterone prevents pregnancy for about 5 years.
Statement 2 : A tiny amount of progesterone is steadily released from the inserts into the blood.
Statement 1: In prokaryotes the predominant site for control of gene expression is transport of mRNA.
Statement 2: DNA polymerase is able to continuously add new nucleotides on the leading strand while it must keep
starting over on lagging strand.
Statement 1: Thorn and tendril of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita represent homology based on convergent evolution.
Statement 2: When more than one adaptive radiation appear to have occurred in an isolated geographical area, it is called
as divergent evolution.
168. Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes provide

(a) humoral immunity
(b) cellular immunity
(c) cellular barriers
(d) acquired specific immunity
169. The polysaccharides made up of glucose monomers are

(a) Sucrose, lactose, maltose
(b) Chitin, glycogen, starch
(c) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
(d) Starch, inulin, peptidoglycan
170. Four different steps that occur during meiosis are given below
(i) Complete separation of homologous chromosomes
(ii) formation of the synaptonemal complex
(iii) bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial plate
(iv) Crossing over and recombination
Select the correct sequential arrangement of these steps
(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(b) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
(c) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i)
(d) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
171. Thyroid secretion ________ during cold weather which helps to compensate for the increased heat loss
(a) Rises
(b) Decreases
(c) Remain normal
(d) Fluctuates
172. The correct order in which cells are made competent for transformation is
(a) Heat shock - Calcium chloride treatment - Chill - Heat shock
(b) Calcium chloride treatment - Chill - Heat shock
(c) Calcium chloride treatment - Chill - Heat shock - Chill
(d) Heat shock - Calcium chloride treatment - Chill
173.
Select the correct option:
Nervous tissue is made up of neurons and neuroglial cells.

Which of the following statements about these two cells is/are false?
(i) Neuroglia makes up more than one-half of the volume of neural tissue in our body.
(ii) Neuroglia protects and supports neurons.
(iii) When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly travels along its cytosol.
(iv) The arrival of the disturbance at the neuron's endings triggers stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons or other
cells.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
174. A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its
characteristic mentioned.
A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its
characteristics.A. Telophase1. Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reformsB. Late anaphase2.
(a) Telophase – Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms
(b) Late anaphase – Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, Golgi complex not present
(c) Cytokinesis – Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells
(d) Telophase – Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet
175. All the following statements represent essential stages that takes place during meiosis, except
(a) Two successive divisions without any DNA replication occurring between them.
(b) Formation of chiasmata and crossing over.
(c) Segregation of homologous chromosomes.
Number of chromosomes in daughter cells after meiosis II is reduced to half but the amount of DNA remains the
(d)
same.
176. In a phosphodiester bond, a phosphate group is bonded through ester linkages with
(a) 5’ C of the sugar residue of its own nucleotide and 2’ C of the sugar residue of the next nucleotide
(b) 5’ C of the sugar residue of its own nucleotide and 3’ C of the sugar residue of the next nucleotide
(c) 3’ C of the sugar residue of its own nucleotide and 5’ C of the sugar residue of the next nucleotide
(d) 2’ C of the sugar residue of its own nucleotide and 5’ C of the sugar residue of the next nucleotide
177. Which of the following is incorrect about the given graph?
(a) This curve is called the Oxygen dissociation curve

(b) The part “A” represents percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen
(c) The part “B” represents partial pressure of carbon dioxide (mm Hg)
This curve is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pCO2, H+ concentration, etc.
(d)
178. Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced?
(a) Chromosome 1
(b) Chromosome 11
(c) Chromosome 21
(d) Chromosome X
179. Which of the following statements is true with respect to AUG ?

(a) It plays dual role
(b) It is an initiator codon
(c) It codes for methionine
180. Assertion: The strand with polarity 5'→3' is replicated discontinuously.

Reason: The polymerization of DNA strands by DNA polymerase occurs only in one direction.
(a) The assertion is a true statement, but the reason is false.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
181. Assertion: Any protein encoding gene if expressed in a heterologous host, is called a recombinant protein.
Reason: If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to an antibiotic (e.g., ampicillin) is transferred into E. coli
cells, the host cells become transformed into ampicillin-resistant cells.
Statement 1: In Carcharodon, mouth is located ventrally and skin contains minute cycloid/ctenoid scales.
Statement 2: Exocoetus has terminal mouth and four pairs of gills without operculum.
Statement 1: High pCO2 high H+ concentration and low temperature leads to dissociation of oxygen from
oxyhaemoglobin.
Statement 2: A chemosensitive area adjacent to pneumotaxic centre in the pons is highly sensitive to CO2 and Hydrogen
ions.
Statement 1: Cholecystokinin acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and inhibits the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and
bile juice.
Statement 2: Insulin acts mainly on hepatocytes and adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilisation.
Statement 1: Genetic code is degenerate, non overlapping and non ambiguous.
Statement 2: The first phase of translation is Amino acylation of m.RNA.
Statement 1: A population will not exist in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium if individuals mate selectively.
Statement 2: Disruptive selection operates to eliminate intermediate phenotypes.
187. Which of the following represents the mRNA language?

(a) Transcription unit
(b) Amino-acyl tRNA
(c) Triplet codons in the genetic code
(d) Degeneracy of the genetic code
188. A bundle of nodal fibers, which continues from the AVN which passes through the atrioventricular septa to emerge on
the top of the interventricular septum is called:
(a) Right and left bundle
(b) Atrio-ventricular bundle (AV bundle)
(c) Purkinje fibers
(d) Both (b) and (c)
189. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 spermatozoon?
(a) 40
(b) 100
(c) 200
(d) 400
190. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at
(a) 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(b) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
(c) The 5' (upstream) end
(d) The 3' (downstream) end
191. Which of the following is true about downstream processing?

(a) Formulation of a drug can happen only after clinical trials
(b) Downstream processing may continue after the product has been marketed
(c) The quality control procedure of different products is more or less similar
(d) Preservatives are added to a product before downstream processing is complete and the product is ready for market
192. Which of the following is/are not the characteristics of the class Osteichthyes?
(i) Body is streamlined and mouth is terminal.
(ii) Gills are covered by operculum.
(iii) Skin covered with cycloid and placoid scales.
(iv) Many of them are viviparous.
(a) (iv) only
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
193.
The contraceptive “SAHELI”
(a) Is an IUD
(b) Increases oestrogen concentration, preventing ovulation
(c) Blocks oestrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing implantation
(d) Is a post-coital contraceptive

194. Triglycerides are fatty acid esters of glycerol, which are formed by the esterification of ____ molecule(s) of fatty acids
with ____ molecule(s) of glycerol.
(a) One, two
(b) One, three
(c) Three, one
(d) Two, one
195. Assertion : Hardy-Weinberg principle explains the variations occurring in population and species over a number of
generations.
Reason : Hardy-Weinberg principle is applicable only when genetic drift occurs.
Statement 1: The cells of connective tissues except bone secrete fibres.
Statement 2: Fibres provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue.
Statement 1 : The final reabsorption of water from the urine into the blood occurs through the collecting duct of a
mammalian nephron resulting in the production of hyperosmotic urine.
Statement 2 : The loop of Henle creates a sodium gradient in the interstitial fluid.
198. Which of the following is more abundant in SER?

(a) Cisternae and vesicles
(b) Cisternae and tubules
(c) Tubules and vesicles
(d) Cisternae
Statement 1: The protein part of the enzyme is called apoenzyme and non-protein part of the enzyme is called co-factor.
Statement 2: Zinc is a co-factor for the proteolytic enzyme carboxypeptidase.
Statement 1: The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diplotene.
Statement 2: Diplotene is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata.
Statement 1: Renal cells are involved in stimulating the formation of RBCs.
Statement 2: The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney produce erythropoietin.
Statement 1: E.coli having pBR322 with DNA insert at BamHI site cannot grow in medium containing tetracycline.
Statement 2: Recognition site for PvuI present in tetR region of pBR322.
203. Primitive Man who built up dwelling huts and buried its dead was
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Ramapithecus
(c) Homo erectus
(d) Neanderthal man
204. Some nucleic acids that behave like enzymes are called---
(a) Lysozyme
(b) Ribozyme
(c) Ligase
(d) Deoxyribonuclease
Statement 1: Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection is a specialised procedure to form an embryo in vivo.
Statement 2: Gamete intra fallopian transfer is a procedure where a woman does not have a suitable environment for
fertilisation and development and thus require a surrogate mother.
Statement 1: More individuals acquiring peripheral character values at both the ends of the distribution indicates
disruptive natural selection.
Statement 2: More individuals acquiring values other than the mean value indicates directional natural selection.
207. Read the following statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Same kind of sticky ends are produced when a DNA has been cut by different restriction enzymes.
(ii) Exonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA.
(iii) Hind II was the first-restriction endonuclease to be isolated.
(iv) A bacteriophage has the ability to replicate within bacterial cells by integrating its DNA with bacterial DNA.
(v) Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector facilitates the gene cloning.
(a) (i), (iii) and (v)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
208. Nowadays it is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to hybridize its
complementary DNA in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because:
(a) Mutated gene does not appear on a Photographic Film as he probe has no complementarity with it
(b) Mutated gene does not appear on Photographic film as the probe has complementarity with it
(c) Mutated gene does not appear on a Photographic film
(d) Mutated gene completely and clearly appears on a photographic film
209. Given below are statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: cortical and juxtamedullary, based on their relative position in cortex and
medulla.
Reason R: Juxtamedullary nephrons have short loop of Henle, whereas cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle.
In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(b) A is true, but R is false
(c) A is false, but R is true
(d) Both A and R are true, but R is the correct explanation of A
210. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person. The P-wave represents the
(a) Contraction of both the atria

(b) initiation of the ventricular contraction
(c) Beginning of the systole
(d) End of systole
211. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Basophils are the most abundant cells of the total WBCS.
B. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin.
C. Basophils are involved in inflammatory response.
D. Basophils have kidney-shaped nucleus.
E. Basophils are agranulocytes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) C and E only
(b) B and C only
(c) A and B only
(d) D and E only
212. Match list I with list II.
List I List II
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bones
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
(d) Vertebral column (iv) Triangular flat bone
(a) (a) → (iv), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (i)

(b) (a) → (iv), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i)
(c) (a) → (i), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iv)
(d) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i)
213. During the muscular contraction which of the following events occur?
(a) ‘H’ zone disappears
(b) ‘A’ band widens
(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
(d) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP releasing the ADP and Pi.
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) (b) (c) (d) (e) only
(b) (b) (d) (e) (a) only
(c) (a) (c) (d) (e) only
(d) (a) (b) (c) (d) only
214. Which of the following is a correct match for disease and its symptoms?
(a) Arthritis - Inflamed joints
(b) Tetany – high Ca+ level causing rapid spasms
(c) Myasthenia gravis - Genetic disorder resulting in weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle
(d) Muscular dystrophy - An autoimmune disorder causing progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle
215. Match the following hormones with the respective disease:
Column I Column II
A. Insulin (i) Addison’s disease
B. Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
C. Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
D. Growth Hormones (iv) Goitre
(v) Diabetes mellitus
Select the correct match:

(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(b) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(c) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(d) A-(v), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
216. Which of the following are not the effects of Parathyroid hormone ?
a. Stimulates the process of bone resorption.
b. Decreases Ca2+ level in blood
c. Reabsorption of Ca2+ by renal tubules
d. Decreases the absorption of Ca2+ from digested food
e. Increases metabolism of carbohydrates.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) (a) and (c) only
(b) (b) (d) and (e) only
(c) (a) and (e) only
(d) (b) and (c) only
217. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(a) Colin MacLeod - Gave unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material
(b) Taylor – Proved the semi-conservative mode of DNA replication in prokaryotes
(c) Meselson and Stahl – Proved that eukaryotic chromosomal DNA follow semi-conservative mode of replication
(d) Frederick Griffith – Discovered the phenomenon of transformation
218. Assertion: A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule is allowed to hybridise to its
complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography.
Reason: The clone having the mutated gene will hence not appear on the photographic film, because the probe will not
have complementarity with the mutated gene.
219. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(i) The universe is almost 20 million years old.
(ii) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the universe.
(iii) Considering the size of earth, universe is indeed a speck.
(iv) Big bang theory attempts to explain the origin of universe
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) only (i)
220. Synaptonemal complex is formed during stage of meiosis I
(a) Leptotene
(b) Pachytene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Zygotene
221. Mesorchium in a frog is the fold of membrane extending between ____ and ____.
(a) Liver and kidneys
(b) Stomach and intestines
(c) Liver and stomach
(d) Kidneys and testes
222. X is the right granted by a government to an inventor to prevent others from commercial use of his invention. When ‘X’
is granted for biological entities and for products derived from them, these are called Y.
Read the above paragraph and identify X and Y.
(a) X - patent, Y - biopatent
(b) X - piracy, Y - biopiracy
(c) X - patent,Y - biopiracy
(d) X - piracy, Y - biopatent
223. Select the incorrect statement regarding the human semen/sperms.

(a) Plasma membrane envelops the whole body of sperm.
(b) The acrosome is filled with an elongated haploid nucleus that helps in the fertilization of the ovum.
(c) The human male ejaculates about 200 to 300 million sperms during coitus.
(d) For normal fertility, at least 60 percent of sperm must have a normal shape and size.
224. Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smaller
(a) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(b) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(c) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
(d) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
225. Which of the following statements about genetic code is correct?

(a) It is triplet, universal, ambiguous and degenerate
(b) It is triplet, universal, non ambiguous and degenerate
(c) It is triplet, universal, ambiguous and non degenerate
(d) It is triplet, universal, non ambiguous and non degenerate
226. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents;
(a) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes the character in the population
(b) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(c) Disruptive as it splits the population into two one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(d) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
227. Three carp fishes- Catla, Labeo and Cirrhina, can be grown together in the same pond more economically as they have
(a) Positive interactions
(b) Commensalism
(c) No competition for food
(d) Symbiosis
228. Some of the characteristics of Bt cotton are

(a) Long fibre and resistance to aphids
(b) Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests
(c) High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipteran pests
(d) High yield and resistance to bollworms
229. Select the incorrect statement regarding mitochondrion.
Mitochondrion is a typically sausage-shaped or cylindrical having a diameter of 0.2-1.0µm (average 0.5 µm) and
(a)
length 1.0-4.1 µm
(b) Cristae in mitochondria serve as sites for oxidation-reduction reaction
(c) The mitochondrion divide by fission

(d) The outer membrane forms a number of infoldings called the cristae (sing: crista) towards the matrix
230. Centrioles undergo duplication during (i) of (ii) and begin to move towards opposite poles of the cell during (iii) stage of
(iv) .
(a) (i)-S phase, (ii)-Interphase, (iii)-Prophase, (iv)-Mitosis
(b) (i)-S phase, (ii)-Interphase, (iii)-Anaphase, (iv)-Mitosis
(c) (i)-Prophase, (ii)-Mitosis, (iii)-Metaphase, (iv)-Mitosis
(d) (i)-Prophase, (ii)-Mitosis, (iii)-Anaphase, (iv)-Mitosis
231. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding chitin?

(a) It is a storage polysaccharide.
(b) It is a homopolysaccharide.
(c) It is a constituent of arthropod exoskeleton and fungal cell wall.
(d) It can hold I2 molecules in the helical portion.
232. Assertion: Bt toxin gene has been cloned from the bacteria and been expressed in plants to provide resistance to insects
without the need for insecticides.
Reason: The Bt toxin protein exists as inactive protoxins, but once an insect ingests the inactive toxin, it is converted
into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilises the crystals.
233. Who concluded, based on his studies on plant tissues, that the presence of cell wall is a unique character of plant cells?
(a) Mathias Schleiden
(b) Theodore Schwann
(c) Rudolph Virchow
(d) Robert Hooke
234.
Organelle X bears ribosomes on its outer surface. Organelle X and organelle Y together give rise to organelle Z which is
often referred to as 'suicide bag' of cells. Identify organelles X, Y and Z and select the incorrect option regarding them.
(a) Organelle X takes part in formation of proteins

(b) Organelle Z is bound by single membrane
(c) Organelle Y is the main site of cellular respiration
(d) Organelle Z is involved in autophagy
235.
Which of these hormones is not secreted by pars distalis?
(a) ACTH
(b) TSH
(c) PRL
(d) MSH
236. The same amino acid sequence of a polypeptide chain can be represented by more than one type of nucleotide sequence
in mRNA. It explains which property of genetic code?
(a) Universal nature
(b) Degeneracy
(c) Unambiguous
(d) Comma-less or continuous
237. A DNA strand is directly involved in the synthesis of all the following except:
(a) t-RNA molecule
(b) m-RNA molecule
(c) another DNA strand
(d) Protein synthesis
238. Assertion : Louis Pasteur showed that in flasks open to air, new living organisms appeared in the heat-killed yeast
culture.
Reason : Life arises only from pre-existing life.
239. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, when N14 DNA molecules were grown in a medium with heavy nitrogen N15
(a) Half the daughter DNA molecules in Generation I had both light strands and the remaining half were hybrids
(b) Half the daughter DNA molecules in Generation I had both heavy strands and the remaining half were hybrids
(c) All the daughter DNA molecules in Generation II had both heavy strands
(d) All the daughter DNA molecules in Generation I were hybrids
240. Which of following contains the key tools for recombinant DNA technology?
(i) Restriction endonucleases, ligases, vectors
(ii) Ligases, host organism, polymerase enzymes
(iii) Vectors, Taq polymerase, primers
(iv) Restriction exonucleases, ligases, primers, bioreactors
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
241.
What happened when heat-killed S cells along with live R cells were injected into mice?
(a) Mice died and showed live R cells
(b) Mice died and showed live S cells
(c) Mice died and showed dead R cells
(d) Mice survived and showed live R cells
242. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 5' end of hn RNA in a process of

(a) Tailing
(b) Splicing
(c) Capping
(d) Telomerization
243. In Rana tigrina, the ventricle opens into the ____ on the ventral side of the heart.
(a) Superior vena cava
(b) Conus arteriosus
(c) Inferior vena cava
(d) Sinus venosus
244. Which of the following is a single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule and is used to detect
mutated genes.
(a) RNAi
(b) Probe
(c) Plasmid
(d) Primer
245. RNA interference involves

(a) Synthesis of cDNA and RNA using reverse transcriptase
(b) Silencing of specific MRNA due to complementary RNA
(c) Interference of RNA in synthesis of DNA
(d) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
246. Match column-I (enzyme) with column-II (Characteristic/activity) and select the correct answer from codes given below.
Column-I Column-II
A. DNA polymerase (i) Cleaves the ends of linear DNA
B. Exonuclease (ii) Breakdown of fungal cell membrane
C. Protease (iii) Replication of DNA
D. Chitinase (iv) Made only by eukaryotic cells
(v) Degradation of proteins
(a) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)

(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(ii)
247. In a cardiac muscle tissue, the signal of contraction received by one cell is sufficient to stimulate the neighbouring cell to
contract as well. This is possible because
(a) Presence of cell junctions
(b) Presence intercalated discs
(c) Presence of communication junctions
(d) All of these
248. The number of ATP molecules that can be formed by complete oxidation of a single pyruvic acid molecule is_____.
(a) 6
(b) 2
(c) 15
(d) 30
249. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding chitin?

(a) It is a storage polysaccharide
(b) It is a homopolysaccharide
(c) It is a constituent of arthropod exoskeleton and fungal cell wall
(d) It is the second most abundant carbohydrate on earth
250. If 2n = 4, then identify the figures A, B and C, as per the following codes and select the correct option.
Anaphase of meiosis 1 = (i)
Anaphase of mitosis = (ii)
Anaphase meiosis II =(iii)
(a) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iii)

(b) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i)
(c) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii)
(d) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii)
Answer Key
1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C
7. C 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. C 12. C
13. B 14. D 15. D 16. B 17. B 18. A
19. D 20. C 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. D
25. D 26. A 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C
31. D 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. C 36. C
37. A 38. D 39. B 40. A 41. D 42. B
43. D 44. C 45. D 46. D 47. C 48. D
49. C 50. A 51. B 52. A 53. B 54. B
55. C 56. C 57. C 58. A 59. A 60. B
61. C 62. A 63. A 64. B 65. B 66. C
67. A 68. B 69. C 70. A 71. C 72. B
73. D 74. B 75. D 76. B 77. A 78. C
79. B 80. B 81. D 82. C 83. A 84. D
85. C 86. A 87. A 88. A 89. A 90. B
91. A 92. C 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. A
97. D 98. D 99. A 100. B 101. D 102. C
103. B 104. D 105. B 106. A 107. A 108. B
109. A 110. C 111. D 112. D 113. B 114. A
115. C 116. B 117. D 118. A 119. D 120. C
121. C 122. C 123. D 124. C 125. B 126. A
127. D 128. C 129. C 130. D 131. A 132. C
133. B 134. B 135. A 136. B 137. C 138. C
139. B 140. C 141. B 142. A 143. D 144. B
145. B 146. A 147. A 148. D 149. C 150. B
151. D 152. C 153. A 154. A 155. A 156. B
157. D 158. D 159. B 160. C 161. B 162. A
163. B 164. B 165. A 166. C 167. D 168. C
169. C 170. C 171. A 172. C 173. C 174. A
175. D 176. B 177. C 178. A 179. D 180. B
181. B 182. D 183. D 184. C 185. B 186. A
187. C 188. B 189. C 190. B 191. A 192. B
193. C 194. C 195. D 196. C 197. A 198. C
199. A 200. D 201. A 202. B 203. D 204. B
205. D 206. A 207. C 208. A 209. B 210. A
211. B 212. B 213. C 214. A 215. B 216. B
217. D 218. B 219. C 220. D 221. D 222. A
223. B 224. C 225. B 226. B 227. C 228. D
229. D 230. A 231. A 232. B 233. B 234. C
235. D 236. B 237. D 238. A 239. D 240. B
241. B 242. C 243. B 244. B 245. B 246. D
247. D 248. C 249. A 250. A
OL IO
1. (B)
The bidder's canal is found inside the kidney of a male frog. It receives sperms from testes via a number of vasa efferentia. The
testis of the frog is very close to the bidder canal. The bidder's canal carry the sperms.
2. (C)
The correct statements among the given options that relate accurately to evolutionary concepts are:
(i) The increase in melanised moths after industrialization in Great Britain is indeed proof of Natural Selection. This
phenomenon, known as industrial melanism, is a classic example of how environmental changes can lead to changes in
populations due to natural selection.
(iv) Genetic drift does change allelic frequency in future generations, particularly in small populations, by random sampling of
alleles.
The statements (ii) "More individuals acquiring mean character value cause disruption" and (iii) "Change in allelic frequency
leads to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium" are not accurately stated. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is maintained in a population
that is not evolving, and any change in allelic frequency due to factors like genetic drift, mutation, migration (gene flow),
natural selection, or non-random mating will disrupt this equilibrium.
Therefore, the correct option is (3) (i) and (iv) are correct.
3. (C)
The assertion accurately describes spermatogenesis, where spermatogonia, the immature male germ cells, produce sperms
starting at puberty. However, the reason is false because spermatogonia multiply by mitotic division to increase in numbers and
only some of them undergo meiotic division to form sperms.
4. (A)
The assertion that dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product it encodes is true. Dominance describes the
relationship between alleles of a gene in terms of their phenotypic expression, rather than a property of the gene or allele itself.
It's about how alleles interact within the context of the whole organism's biology, not a fixed characteristic of the alleles.
The reason provided is also true and correctly explains the assertion. Dominance does depend on the gene product (the protein
or enzyme produced by a gene) and how this product contributes to producing a particular phenotype. The interaction between
different gene products and their quantities can influence whether an allele is dominant, recessive, or codominant in the
context of specific traits.
Therefore, the correct answer is (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
5. (B)
The region of roots from base to tips are the Maturation zone - Elongation zone - cell division zone. The base of the root is
defined as the maturation zone which contains the vascular cylinder and root hair. The elongating cells complete their
differentiation into the tissues of the primary body in this zone. In the elongation zone, the cellular expansion is responsible for
pushing the root cap and apical tip forward through the soil. The cell division zone contains apical Meristem cells which give
rise to the primary body of the plant. It's an area under and behind the root cap.
6. (C)
In Fabaceae family flower is complete, bisexual, zygomorphic, hypogynous, bracteate/ ebracteate. In the Fabaceae and
Liliaceae family the ovary is superior.
7. (C)
• In hypodermis or outer cortical cells, a layer which becomes meristematic is known as cork cambium or phellogen.
• This phellogen also cuts off cells both on its outer side and inner side.
• The cells cut off on the outer side are phellem or cork cells and cells cut off on inner side are phelloderm or secondary cortex.
• Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm collectively constitute periderm.
• The function of periderm is protective (because at maturity epidermis ruptures and hence the function is performed by
periderm).
8. (B)
Thinning of fruits means an increase in the rate of abscission of fruit abscission or fruit drop. Ethephon, a commercial
preparation of ethylene promotes thinning of fruits in cotton, cherry, and walnut.
9. (B)
Kinetin is an artificial cytokinin which is an adenine derivative. ABA or Abscisic acid is a carotenoid derivative. As the name
suggests, IBA or Indole-3- butyric acid is an indole derivative. IAA (Indole-3- acetic acid) is also an indole derived compound
and both IAA and IBA are natural auxins.
10. (D)
The dihybrid cross is a cross between two different genes means a cross between two different characters. In F2 generation - 4
phenotypes are present (yellow round, Green round, yellow wrinkled, and green wrinkled) and 9 genotypes are present
(1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1)
11. (C)
Nucleopolyhedrovirus (NPV) belongs to the family of baculovirus. These are species-specific and affect insects and
arthropods. They have no negative impact on plants, mammals, birds, fishes, and non-target insects. Baculoviruses
(Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show any effect on non-target pathogens.
12. (C)
The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl groups with oxaloacetic acid and water to yield citric acid. The reaction
is catalysed by the enzyme Citrate synthase.
13. (B)
Family names of plants end with the suffix 'ae' as depicted in 'Poaceae'.
Suffix for division is 'phyta', e.g. 'Pteridophyta'.
Class names for algae end with 'phyceae' while for other plants it ends with the suffix 'sida'.
Order names of plants end with the suffix ' for example, plant families like Convolvulaceae, Solanaceae are included in the
order Polymoniales mainly based on the floral characters.
Thus, In the given question I, II, and III are correct.
14. (D)
A characteristic of the family Fabaceae is vexillary aestivation. In it, two lateral petals (wings), which in turn overlap two
anterior petals (keel), overlap the posterior largest petal (standard).
15. (D)
Shedding of mature leaves from the stem or ripe fruits from the stem is called abscission. Generally, a layer of tissue is formed
at the base of the organ. This layer of tissue is called the abscission zone. Abscission zone does not occur when the
concentration of auxin is high, particularly when the gradient of auxin is steep i.e., more auxin on distal side and less auxin on
proximal side. The abscission zone formation occurs rapidly when the auxin gradient becomes slight or neutral. Moreover, the
plant hormone ethylene is found to promote the abscission. Thus, a high concentration of auxin prevents the formation of the
abscission layer and the phenomenon is controlled by the concentrations of auxin and ethylene. Apical dominance is promoted
by auxin.
16. (B)
Asexual reproduction in Phycomycetes takes place by zoospores (motile) or by aplanospores (non-motile).
17. (B)
Gametophytes are the dominant phase in this life cycle. Sporophytes don’t have a free-living existence. Spores are haploid in
nature and form gametophytes by mitotic division. Zygote acts as Sporophyte that forms spores.
18. (A)
Heartwood does not conduct water. So, statement in option a is false. All other statements are true.
19. (D)
The classification of the cells based on the ability of division was into Meristematic and permanent. Permanent cells usually do
not divide, they may de-differentiate to form secondary meristematic tissues. Simple tissues are made up of a single type of
cells while complex tissues are formed of different types of cells. Permanent tissues having all cells similar in structure and
functions are called simple tissues.
20. (C)
An increase in CO2 concentration increases the rate of photosynthesis. But a higher concentration of CO2 can inhibit
photosynthesis. In the atmosphere, there is 0.03-0.04% concentration of CO2. An increase in concentration up to 0.05% can
increase the rate of photosynthesis. Beyond this level it becomes damaging. The C3 plants show saturation at 450 μl/L (450)
ppm and the C4 plants show saturation at 360 μl/L (360 ppm) of CO2 concentration in the atmosphere.
21. (B)
In the meristematic zone, the cells are rich in protoplasm but possess large conspicuous nuclei, whereas the cell walls are
primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmata connections therefore option (b) is correct.
22. (B)
In humans, there are 23 pairs of chromosomes, out of which 22 pairs are autosomes and one pair consists of sex chromosomes.
The sex chromosomes can be of two types, X and Y. Therefore, a gamete (male gametesperm) contains one autosome from
each of the 22 pairs and either an X or a Y.
23. (A)
When N/K is exactly equal to one, the product of rN(1-N/K) becomes zero, and hence dN/dT equals zero. When N/K equals
zero dN/dt equals rN. When N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat, the resultant product nears zero but is not equal to
zero.
24. (D)
Valine for glutamic acid in the beta chain
25. (D)
An increase in the concentration of toxic chemicals takes place at successive trophic levels. This happens because a toxic
substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolized or excreted and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic
level. This is known as biomagnification. Therefore, in a food chain, the tertiary consumer which is at the highest trophic level
will bear the maximum concentration of the pollutant.
26. (A)
Statement (i) and (ii) are correct.
Riccia is a liverwort in which the simplest sporophyte consists of capsule only while Polytrichum is moss in which sporophyte
consists of foot, seta & capsule. Volvox is a freshwater green colonial alga. Reproduction is both sexual and asexual. Sexual
reproduction is oogamous. Slime moulds are consumer decomposer protists. They possess characteristics of plants (cellulosic
cell wall), animals (phagotrophic nutrition) and fungi (spores).
27. (D)
The columns show the classes in Pteridophytes and species belonging to it. Selaginella belongs to the class Lycopsida.
Equisetum is a species of class Sphenopsida (Equisetopsida). Class Pteropsida (also called Filicopsida) includes Adiantum,
Dryopteris and Pteris. Psilopsida does not include any of the species given in Column I and thus, option (d) is the correct one.
28. (B)
The shape, margin, apex, surface, and extent of incision of lamina varies in different leaves. In some leguminous plants, the
leaf base may become swollen, which is called the pulvinus. The petiole help hold the blade to light. Long thin flexible
petioles allow leaf blades to flutter in wind, thereby cooling the leaf and bringing fresh air to the leaf surface.
29. (A)
This takes place when the C4 acid from the mesophyll is broken down in the bundle cells to release CO2. This results in
increasing the intracellular concentration of CO2, in turn, this ensures that the RuBisCO functions as a carboxylase minimising
the oxygenase activity. So, Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
30. (C)
Once they are shed, pollen grains have to land on the stigma before they lose viability if they have to bring about fertilisation.
The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable and to some extent depends on the prevailing temperature
and humidity. In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release, and in
some members of Rosaceae, Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, they maintain viability for months. So, Assertion is true, but
Reason is false.
31. (D)
Soil is defined as the surface layer of the earth formed by weathering of rocks. The nature and properties of soil in different
places vary; it is dependent on the climate, weathering process (the process in which large rocks finally break into soil
particles), type of the soil, whether the soil is transported or sedimentary, and also how soil development occurred.
32. (B)
Statement 1: Volvox forms spherical colony. This statement is correct. Volvox is a genus of green algae that forms
distinctive, spherical colonies. Each colony is a cooperative assembly of thousands of cells, with a small number of
reproductive cells and the majority being somatic (vegetative) cells, all embedded in a gelatinous matrix.
Statement 2: Volvox colony is made up of non-motile cells. This statement is incorrect. The cells in a Volvox colony are
indeed motile; they have flagella, which they use to swim in a coordinated fashion. The movement of flagella in a
synchronized manner allows the entire colony to move through the water.
33. (C)
Statement 1: In human ABO blood grouping, there are indeed 3 different alleles (IA, IB, and i), but the number of
genotypes and phenotypes doesn't match the statement. There are 6 genotypes (IAIA, IAi, IBIB, IBi, IAIB, ii) and 4
phenotypes (A, B, AB, O), making the statement incorrect.
Statement 2: Human ABO blood grouping is indeed the result of the presence of protein polymers on the plasma
membrane of red blood cells. More specifically, these are glycoproteins and glycolipids that act as antigens, determining
the blood group based on the specific sugars attached to these proteins and lipids. This statement is correct.
34. (C)
Statement 1: BOD, or Biochemical Oxygen Demand, refers to the amount of oxygen required by micro-organisms to
oxidize organic matter in one liter of water. It does not refer to oxygen being released but rather the oxygen consumed
by bacteria and other microorganisms during the decomposition of organic materials. Therefore, this statement is
incorrect.
Statement 2: Primary treatment of sewage is indeed a physical process that involves the removal of large and small
particles from the sewage through screening, sedimentation, and sometimes grit removal. This step physically separates
solids from the sewage water without involving biological or chemical treatments. Therefore, this statement is correct.
35. (C)
Botanical garden, Wildlife safaris
36. (C)
In Liliaceae, flower is complete, bisexual, bracteate, trimerous, actinomorphic, hypogynous. Perianth is with 6 tepals, in two
whorls 3 + 3, (polyphyllus or gamophyllous), often united into tube, valvate aestivation, odd tepal is anterior. Androecium is
with 6 stamens, arranged in two whorls 3 + 3, polyandrous, epiphyllous, anther is dithecous, basifixed or versatile. Gynoecium
with tricarpellary, syncarpous, superior ovary, axile placentation, trilocular.
37. (A)
• The tip of the root is covered by a root cap, also called calyptra which can regenerate.
• Inner to it, is a layer of protoderm which helps in giving rise to new cells.
• Cortex is a layer present after the layer of protoderm. Cortex is made up of parenchymatous cells which usually performs the
function of Storage.
38. (D)
150
39. (B)
In secondary treatment, large aeration tanks are used for the mixing of microorganisms called flocs with the sludge which is
done with the help of mechanical agitators. Flocs decrease the BOD of sludge by breaking down the organic matter. After
sedimentation, these are passed as inoculum in the activated sludge and finally passed through an anaerobic sludge digester for
biogas formation.
40. (A)
Kelps are brown algae and they have a haplontic life cycle. The sporophytic generation in the haplodiplontic life cycle of both
Bryophyta and Pteridophyta are free living. The dominant photosynthetic independent phase of the life cycle in seed-bearing
plants is the sporophytic generation. The dependent sporophyte on the independent, dominant, photosynthetic, gametophyte is
represented by the haplontic life cycle in algae such as Volvox, Spirogyra and Chlamydomonas.
41. (D)
400-700 range of wavelength is PAR. Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy from inorganic chemicals.
42. (B)
ln bryophytes, a dominant, independent, photosynthetic, thailoid or erect phase is represented by a haploid gametophyte and it
alternates with the short-lived multicellular sporophyte totally or partially dependent on the gametophyte for its anchorage and
nutrition.
43. (D)
The given floral diagram is that of the Solananceae family. It is also known as the potato family. Around 2000 species of
dicotyledonous plants belong to this family. In Solananceae, the flower is bracteate, ebracteolate, actinomorphic (radial
symmetry), bisexual, sepals are 5 and they are fused (gamosepalous), petals are 5 and they are fused (gamopetalous), statens
are 5 and they are epipetalous (stamens are attached to petals), anthers dithecous, gynoecium is bicarpellary, syncarpous,
superior ovary.
44. (C)
The innermost layer of the cortex is called the endodermis. The cells of the endodermis are rich in starch grains. The layer is
also referred as the starch sheath.
45. (D)
Cytokinins help in delaying leaf senescence by promoting nutrient mobilisation

Auxins induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes
Ethylene initiates germination in peanut seeds
Spraying juvenile conifers with GAs hastens the maturity period, thus leading to early seed production.
Sentences A and B are correct, C and D are incorrect.
46. (D)
In the pedigree chart given above, the inherited condition must be recessive in nature since only some offsprings are affected
and not all. But this cannot be an X-linked recessive condition, since a male child is also affected (males receive X
chromosome only from the mother). Therefore, this condition must be an autosomal recessive condition.
47. (C)
Curd or yogurt is the product of a cow which is a primary consumer and placed in the second trophic level. In that case, Mr. X
eating this curd will be placed in the third trophic level because he feeds on the product of the second trophic level animal.
48. (D)
Pteridophytes mostly are homosporous (Lycopodium, Equisetum) but some members are heterosporous like Selaginella,
Isoetes, and Marsilea. The gymnosperms are heterosporous only, while Bryophytes are homosporous.
49. (C)
During oxidative decarboxylation, two molecules of acetyl CoA, two molecules of CO2 and two molecules of NADH + H+ are
produced. CO2 released in this reaction represents the first of the three CO2 in pyruvate degradation. So, Assertion is true, but
Reason is false.
50. (A)
Statement 1: Euglena can be considered as a plant due to the presence of chlorophyll.
This statement is correct. Euglena is a unicellular organism that contains chlorophyll, allowing it to perform photosynthesis
like plants. However, it also exhibits characteristics of animals, such as the ability to move using a flagellum.
Statement 2: Euglena cannot be classified on the basis of two kingdom system of classification.
This statement is incorrect. In the two kingdom system of classification, organisms are classified into either the Plantae or
Animalia kingdom. While Euglena exhibits characteristics of both plants and animals, it was historically classified in the
Plantae kingdom due to its ability to photosynthesize. Therefore, it can be classified within the two kingdom system.
51. (B)
1. Statement 1: The stem tubers are the swollen ends of specialized underground stem branches, which help in vegetative
propagation of the plant.
This statement is correct. Stem tubers, such as those found in potatoes, are indeed swollen ends of specialized
underground stem branches. These tubers store nutrients and have buds that can sprout into new plants, facilitating
vegetative propagation.
2. Statement 2: Solanum tuberosum is an example of a stem tuber which stores inulin as the main reserve food material.
This statement is partially Incorrect. Solanum tuberosum, commonly known as the potato, is indeed an example of
a stem tuber. Potatoes store starch as their main reserve food material, not inulin. Therefore, this part of the
statement is incorrect. However, the fact that Solanum tuberosum is a stem tuber is accurate.
52. (A)
Statement 1: In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is inverted.
This statement is generally correct. In many aquatic ecosystems, the pyramid of biomass can be inverted. This means that the
biomass (total mass of living organisms) of primary producers (like algae) is less than the biomass of consumers (like fish).
This is often due to the rapid turnover rate of phytoplankton and the efficiency of energy transfer between trophic levels.
Statement 2: Biomass depends upon reproductive potential and longevity of individuals.
This statement is also correct. Biomass refers to the total mass of living organisms in a given area or ecosystem. The biomass
of a population is influenced by factors such as reproductive potential (how quickly individuals reproduce) and longevity (how
long individuals live). Higher reproductive potential and longer lifespans generally result in greater biomass accumulation
within a population.
53. (B)
Statement 1: In female cockroach, the 7th sternum is boat shaped and along with 8th and 9th sterna forms a brood or genital
pouch.
This statement is correct. In female cockroaches, the 7th sternum, along with the 8th and 9th sterna, forms a brood or genital
pouch where eggs are stored before being laid.
Statement 2: In male cockroach, the genital pouch is bound by dorsally 9th and 10th sterna and vertically by 9th terga.
This statement is also correct. In male cockroaches, the genital pouch is bound dorsally by the 9th and 10th sterna and
vertically by the 9th terga. This pouch is where the reproductive structures are located.
54. (B)
The first Chipko movement was inspired by Amrita Devi Bishnoi, in 1731. The King of Jodhpur required wood for his new
palace and he ordered his men to cut trees in the forest. So, to avoid the cutting of trees, Amrita Devi Bishnoi hugged the trees
and challenged the King’s men to cut her first before cutting the trees. Unfortunately, the King’s men cut the tree along with
Amrita Devi Bishnoi.
55. (C)
Liverworts, mosses and ferns have independent gametophytes, that is they are free living. Gymnosperms and some ferns pose
different type of spores, they are called as heterosporous. Oogamous is the sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox, and
oogamous means male gamete is small and flagellated while female gamete is non-flagellated and large. The sporophyte of
liverworts is not more elaborate than the mosses, it is the opposite.
56. (C)
In monocot root, a well developed pith is present whereas in dicot root, pith is poorly developed. In monocot root, pericycle
gives rise to lateral roots only whereas in dicot root, pericycle gives rise to secondary roots and cork cambium.
57. (C)
Monocot root has well developed pith whereas dicot root has a small and inconspicuous pith. Similarly in dicot stem the
vascular bundles are arranged in a ring and pith is well developed whereas in monocot stem there are scattered vascular
bundles therefore pith is absent.
58. (A)
Opening and closing of stomata are controlled by the turgor changes in the guard cells. In the dark, the guard cells lose water,
become flaccid and the stomata close. In the light, the guard cells absorb water by osmosis, become turgid and the stomata
open.
59. (A)
Statement 1 is correct: BOD, or Biological Oxygen Demand, of wastewater is indeed estimated by measuring the
amount of biodegradable organic matter. It reflects the amount of oxygen required by aerobic microorganisms to break
down the organic material present in water.
Statement 2 is also correct: Antibiotics target specific components of bacterial cells, such as cell wall synthesis, protein
synthesis, or DNA replication mechanisms. Since viruses do not have metabolic pathways of their own and rely entirely
on the host's cellular machinery for replication, antibiotics are ineffective against viruses.
Therefore, the correct option is (1) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
60. (B)
Statement 1 seems to contain a typographical error but implies a sex determination system in insects where the number
of chromosomes differs between males and females. This suggests a system similar to XO sex-determination, where
males have one fewer chromosome than females (for example, males have 17 chromosomes and females have 18). This
concept is correct in the context of certain insect taxa. Assuming the intent was to describe such a system, the corrected
understanding would make Statement 1 correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect regarding the specific mutation involved in sickle cell anemia. In sickle cell anemia, glutamic
acid is replaced by valine (not the other way around) at the sixth position of the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin.
Therefore, the correct option is (3) Statement 1 is incorrect (due to the confusion and typographical errors in its presentation,
but with a corrected understanding could be seen as accurate in a specific context), but Statement 2 is correct in identifying the
statement as presented is incorrect (glutamic acid is replaced by valine in sickle cell anemia).
61. (C)
Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
62. (A)
Pila, Aplysia, Chaetopleura belong to phylum Mollusca. Pinctada, Loligo, Dentalium, and Sepia are also the members of
phylum Mollusca. Apis and Locusta are members of phylum Arthropoda. Hirudinaria is a member of phylum Annelida.
63. (A)
Prothallus is the gametophytic part of the fern and hence gives rise to male and female gametes. Prothallus usually grow in
cool, damp and shady places. In homosporous forms of pteridophytes, the gametophyte exists as prothallus which is
multicellular and thalloid in nature but in heterosporous forms, the gametophyte is not free living.
64. (B)
Archaebacteria are special since they live in some of the most harsh habitats such as extreme salty areas (halophiles), hot
springs (thermoacidophiles) and marshy areas (methanogens). Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different
cell wall structure and this feature is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions. Archaebacteria are characterised by
absence of peptidoglycan in their cell walls. Instead cell wall contains protein and non cellulosic polysaccharide.
65. (B)
1. Statement 1: The aquatic organisms in which the osmotic concentration and temperature of the body change according to
the ambient conditions of water are referred to as conformers.
This statement is incorrect. The term "conformers" typically refers to organisms that do not actively regulate
internal conditions but instead allow them to conform to the external environment. However, not all aquatic
organisms are conformers. Many have mechanisms for osmoregulation and thermoregulation to maintain internal
stability.
2. Statement 2: Aquatic organisms are able to maintain homeostasis through thermoregulation and osmoregulation by
physiological or behavioral means.
This statement is correct. Aquatic organisms, like terrestrial organisms, have mechanisms for maintaining
homeostasis, including regulating temperature and osmotic balance. They may employ physiological processes
such as osmoregulation (regulation of salt and water balance) and thermoregulation (regulation of body
temperature) or behavioral adaptations to achieve this.
66. (C)
In presence of all favourable environmental conditions, a 10-degree increase in temperature doubles the rate of photosynthesis
up to the optimum temperature 25 degrees. Beyond the optimum temperature, rise in temperature causes denaturation of
enzymes and thereby declines the rate of photosynthesis.
The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in blue (420-480 nm) and red (640-670 nm) region of light which are absorbed by
chlorophyll. There is minimum/no photosynthesis in green and other parts of light which are not absorbed by photosynthetic
pigments.
The increase in the light intensity increases the photosynthetic absorption of CO2 and release of oxygen gas which in turn
balances the gaseous exchange through cellular respiration and thereby bringing the plant to the light compensation point.
Beyond this point increases in light intensity increases the photosynthetic release of oxygen.
The duration of light does not affect the rate of photosynthesis as it does not affect the absorption of light by chlorophyll.
67. (A)
The development of male gametophyte in angiosperms is partly in-situ in anther and partly ex-situ on stigma.
68. (B)
Free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria live freely in the soil and perform nitrogen fixation, for example, Azospirillum. Some are
saprotrophic which live on organic remains, e.g- Azotobacter, Bacillus polymyxa, Clostridium beijerinckii. Azotobacter
occurring in fields of cotton, maize, and rice increases yield.
69. (C)
The meristematic cells have dense protoplasm, thin cell walls (cellulosic and primary in nature), prominent nuclei, small
dispersed vacuoles (or completely absent) and under developed endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria. So, Assertion is true,
but Reason is false.
70. (A)
In an aquatic ecosystem, the grazing food chain(GFC) is the major conduit for energy flow. The starting point in a grazing food
chain are the producers- plants and the first energy transfer is from plants to herbivores. In the terrestrial ecosystem, a much
larger fraction of energy flows through the detritus food chain than through the grazing food chain.
71. (C)
Earth summit was conducted in 1992 at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in order to build economic development with protection of the
environment.
World summit was held in 2002 at Johannesburg, South Africa to discuss sustainable development.
72. (B)
In ZW-ZZ type of sex determination, the male has two homomorphic sex chromosomes(ZZ) and is homogametic, and the
female has two heteromorphic sex chromosomes (ZW) and is heterogametic. There are thus two types of eggs: with Z and with
W, and only one type of sperms, i.e., each with Z. Fertilization of an egg with Z chromosome by a sperm with Z chromosomes
gives a zygote with ZZ chromosomes (male). Fertilization of an egg with W chromosome by a sperm with Z chromosomes
gives a zygote with ZW chromosomes (Female).
73. (D)
Increase in distance between two genes increases the frequency of crossing over while closeness of the genes reduces the
chances of crossing over. Since A and d and a and D are located far away, maximum crossing over would occur between them.
74. (B)
Column I Column II
a. GA (iii) Promotes bolting
b. CK (i) Promotes nutrient mobilisation
c. ABA (ii) Inhibitor of plant metabolism
d. C2H4 (iv) Root hair formation
75. (D)
Relative growth is the increase in size relative to the size of the plant leaf present at the start of a given time interval. It can be
also expressed as percentage increase.
Hence, for leaf A, relative growth = 5/20 × 100 = 25
For leaf B, relative growth = 5/25 × 100 = 20.
So, the correct option is '25 and 20'.
76. (B)
Commonly used vectors for human genome sequencing are BAC and YAC. Bacterial artificial chromosomes have the cloning
system in the plasmid found inside the Escherichia coli. Long strands of DNA from various sources such as the human
genome can be expressed in Escherichia coli. Yeast artificial chromosomes are obtained from the DNA of the yeast,
Saccharomyces cerevisiae. Long strands of DNA from various other sources can also be expressed in yeast too.
77. (A)
-All cyclostomes are parasites on fishes. A circular sucking mouth serves the purpose. The body is elongated with 6-15 pairs of
gills. They don't have any scales and paired fins. They are marine animals. -Chondrichthyes are cartilaginous fishes with an
exoskeleton of placoid scales. There are 5-7 pairs of gills not covered by an operculum, opening outside by gill slits. The
mouth is ventral in position. They are marine animals. -Osteichthyes are bony fishes covered with cycloid scales; the mouth is
mostly terminal. They have 4 pairs of gills which are covered by an operculum on each side. They are marine or freshwater
animals.
78. (C)
In Mollusca, gills perform both the excretory and respiratory functions. They are very thin, feather-like, delicate structures
present beneath the mantle.
79. (B)
In Periplaneta americana, males bear a pair of short, thread-like anal styles which are absent in females. It is found in the 9th
sternum of the abdomen. They are unjointed paired structures. It is one of the characteristic features of male arthropods. The
nervous system is located ventrally. There are 100−150 Malpighian tubules. Grinding of food is carried out by mouthparts and
gizzard
80. (B)
The male reproductive system of cockroaches consists of an accessory gland which is termed as phallic gland or conglobate
gland. It is a large elongated sac-like structure that is present beneath the mushroom gland and ejaculatory duct. The outer
layer of the spermatophore is secreted by the phallic gland.
81. (D)
The organisms having both male and female sex organs present in the same individual are known as hermaphrodite or
monoecious organisms. Earthworm, tapeworm, leech and sponges are hermaphrodite organisms.
82. (C)
The vertebral column is formed by 26 serially arranged units called vertebrae and is dorsally placed. The vertebral column is
differentiated into cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (1-fused), and coccygeal (1-fused) regions starting from the
skull.
83. (A)
Human beings have 12 pairs of ribs but among them only 7 pairs are known as true ribs. This is because only seven pairs of
ribs are attached directly to the sternum by costal cartilages. 8th, 9th and 10th pairs do not join the sternum directly but are
connected to the 7th rib by cartilage. Hence, they are called false ribs. 11th and 12th pair do not articulate with the sternum at
all. So, they are called floating ribs.
84. (D)
A gliding joint is a type of synovial joint, found between carpal bones and tarsal bones. The fibrous joint between surfaces of
skull bones. The pivot joint is found between the atlas and axis. The hinge joint is found in the elbow, knee, ankle, and
interphalangeal joints.
85. (C)
In the S, and G2 phases the new DNA molecules formed are not distinct but intertwined.
86. (A)
In animal cells, Centrioles undergo duplication during the S phase of the interphase and began to move towards the opposite
pole of the cell during the prophase stage of mitosis.
Interphase is the period between the end of one cell division to the beginning of the next cell division is also known as the
resting phase and the non-dividing stage. It is a highly active phase metabolically and then we have the M phase which is the
dividing phase. Mitosis is the equational cell division since the number of chromosomes in the parent and progeny cells are the
same. Prophase is the longest phase of mitosis or karyokinesis.
87. (A)
Release of DNA from a cell is achieved by treating the cells or tissues with enzymes such as lysozyme (bacteria), cellulose
(plant cells), chitinase (fungus), etc. These enzymes degrade cell wall; plasma membrane degrading enzymes like lipase, etc.,
are also needed.
88. (A)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
89. (A)
a-1, b-2, c-3
90. (B)
Escherichia coli with completely radioactive DNA was allowed to replicate in a non-radioactive medium for two generations.
The percentage of bacteria with radioactive DNA is 50%. In a semi-conservative model, radioactive DNA was allowed to
replicate in a non-radioactive medium. In each generation, one strand remains the same while another strand new strand will
be non-radioactive.
91. (A)
The photolysis of water takes place in PSII (where wavelengths of light up to 680 nm is used). Light having wavelength more
than 680 nm will not be effective in splitting water to produce oxygen, so a reduction in the quantity of oxygen evolution may
be observed.
92. (C)
Assertion is true, but Reason is false
93. (A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
94. (B)
If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
95. (B)
(ii) and (iii)
96. (A)
Selaginella and Salvinia
97. (D)
Late wood, also known as summerwood, is the portion of annual rings in tree growth that is produced later in the growing
season. It typically has fewer xylary elements with narrower vessels compared to early wood, which is produced earlier in the
growing season. The reason for this is that during late wood formation, the cambium, the layer of cells responsible for
producing new xylem and phloem, becomes less active as the growing season progresses, resulting in reduced xylem
production and narrower vessels.
98. (D)
Solution and Explanation
In the family Fabaceae, the stamens are typically arranged in two groups (diadelphous) and each stamen has two distinct
chambers (dithecous) in the anther. This arrangement is not present in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
To provide a bit more context:
Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens: This characteristic refers to stamens that are fused into several groups, and they
are attached to the petals. This is not a specific characteristic of Fabaceae and can be found in some other plant families.
Monoadelphous and Monothecous anthers: This refers to stamens that are fused into a single group, and each stamen has
a single chamber in the anther. This characteristic is not typical of Fabaceae.
Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers: This refers to anthers that are attached to the surface of a leaf (epiphyllous) and have
two chambers (dithecous). This characteristic is not specific to Fabaceae and is not present in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers: This is the correct characteristic for Fabaceae. It refers to stamens arranged in two
groups and each stamen having two chambers in the anther. This arrangement is not found in Solanaceae or Liliaceae.
So, the correct option is (D): Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
99. (A)
a-1,b-2,c-3
100. (B)
o solve this problem, let's denote the frequency of the dominant allele (A) as p and the frequency of the recessive allele (a) as
q. According to the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium:
1. The frequency of homozygous recessive genotype (aa) is q^2.

2. The frequency of heterozygous genotype (Aa) is 2pq.
3. The frequency of homozygous dominant genotype (AA) is p^2.
Given that the percentage of homozygous recessive genotype (aa) is 36% = 0.36, we have:
q^2 = 0.36
Taking the square root of both sides to find q:
q = √0.36 = 0.6
Since A is completely dominant over a, the frequency of the dominant allele (A) is:
p = 1 - q = 1 - 0.6 = 0.4
Now, we can calculate the frequencies of the genotypes:
1. Frequency of aa (homozygous recessive genotype): q^2 = (0.6)^2 = 0.36

2. Frequency of Aa (heterozygous genotype): 2pq = 2(0.4)(0.6) = 0.48
3. Frequency of AA (homozygous dominant genotype): p^2 = (0.4)^2 = 0.16
Therefore, the correct answer is option (2): aa = 0.36, a = 0.6, A = 0.4, AA = 0.16, Aa = 0.48
101. (D)
b-condenser, a-to vacuum pump, c-electrode, d-spark discharge, f-boiling water, e-gases
102. (C)
Random and directionless
103. (B)
Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
The assertion correctly describes the process of in vitro fertilization (IVF) commonly used in the test tube baby program,
where ova from the female and sperms from the male are collected and induced to form a zygote under simulated conditions in
the laboratory.
However, the reason incorrectly suggests that embryos with more than 8 blastomeres can be transferred into the uterus. In
reality, embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are typically transferred into the uterus at the blastocyst stage (around 5-6 days
after fertilization). The number of blastomeres alone is not the determining factor for embryo transfer; instead, factors such as
embryo quality and developmental stage are considered.
Therefore, option (2) is the correct choice.
104. (D)
Statement 1: Small amounts of urea enter the thick segment of Henle's loop, which is transported back to the interstitium by
collecting tubules.
This statement is correct. Urea, along with other solutes, can pass through the walls of the thin descending limb of the Henle's
loop and enters the thick ascending limb. From there, it can diffuse into the interstitium and be reabsorbed by the collecting
tubules.
Statement 2: Collecting tubules and thick segment of Henle's loop are permeable to urea.
This statement is also correct. Both the collecting tubules and the thick segment of the Henle's loop are permeable to urea. This
permeability allows urea to pass through these structures and be reabsorbed into the bloodstream as part of the kidney's urine
concentration mechanism.
105. (B)
1. Statement 1: Meselson and Stahl's experiment in 1958 shows a 0:1:7 ratio of heavy, hybrid, and light densities of DNA
molecules in E. coli in 80 minutes.
This statement is correct. Meselson and Stahl conducted an experiment demonstrating DNA replication using
heavy and light isotopes of nitrogen (15N and 14N). They found that after one round of replication, the DNA
appeared as hybrid molecules with one heavy and one light strand, leading to the observed 0:1:7 ratio of densities.
2. Statement 2: They grew E. coli in a medium containing the radioactive isotope 15N.
This statement is also correct. Meselson and Stahl labeled the DNA of E. coli with the heavy isotope 15N by
growing them in a medium containing this isotope. This heavy labeling allowed them to trace the replication
process.
106. (A)
Human RBCs in their juvenile stage contain a nucleus, as these cells mature it loses its nucleus in order to create space for
maximum possible oxygen transfer. The more space the cells hold, more haemoglobin it contains and can hold more oxygen in
it.
107. (A)
The proximity between the loop of Henle and vasa recta as well as countercurrent in them help in maintaining and increasing
osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium. This mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in medullary
interstitium so human urine is nearly four times concentrated than initial filtrate formed.
108. (B)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
109. (A)
Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
110. (C)
Sinus venosus
111. (D)
Dentalium is known as a tusk shell. It is a member of the phylum Mollusca. Mollusca is the second largest animal phylum.
Molluscs are terrestrial or aquatic (marine or freshwater) having an organ-system level of organization.
112. (D)
Bony fishes or osteichthyes include both marine and freshwater fishes with bony endoskeleton. Their body is streamlined.
Mouth is mostly terminal. They have four pairs of gills which are covered by an operculum on each side. Some examples are-
Clarias- Magur, Betta- Fighting fish, Pterophyllum-Angelfish.
113. (B)
Each clavicle is a long slender bone with two curvatures. This bone is commonly called the collar bone.
114. (A)
According to the Hardy-Weinberg principle, p2 + 2pq + q2 =1 where
‘p’ is the frequency of the dominant allele A and ‘q’ is the frequency of the recessive allele a. To find the frequency of allele
‘A’.
360(AA) + 480(Aa) +160(aa) = 1000 individuals
Frequency of genotype AA (p2) = 360/1000 = 0.36
Allele frequency of A = √ 0.36 = 0.6
115. (C)
In the lac operon of Escherichia coli, the components and their functions are as follows:
Structural genes (such as lacZ, lacY, and lacA) code for proteins necessary for lactose metabolism. lacZ codes for β-
galactosidase, lacY for lactose permease, and lacA for thiogalactoside transacetylase. So, structural genes code for
enzyme proteins.
The operator gene is the DNA segment where the repressor binds to prevent transcription, acting as a binding site for the
repressor protein.
The promoter gene is the site where RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription of the operon, so it is the binding site
for RNA polymerase.
The regulator gene codes for the repressor protein, which can bind to the operator and inhibit the operon's expression.
Based on these definitions:
a (Structural gene) corresponds to s (Codes for enzyme proteins).

b (Operator gene) corresponds to p (Binding site for repressor protein).
c (Promoter gene) corresponds to t (Binding site for RNA-polymerase).
d (Regulator gene) corresponds to q (Codes for repressor protein).
Therefore, the correct combination is (3) a-s, b-p, c-t, d-q.
116. (B)
As in the question, there are 22 base pairs with two hydrogen bonds, i.e, out of total 60 base pairs in that DNA segment, the
number of A-T pairs is 22; the number of adenines = 22 and the number of thymine = 22; A + T = 44,
Hence, option (a) and (c) are wrong.
Thus, number of G–C pairs = ; the number of guanines = 38 and number of cytosine = 38;
So Option (b) is correct.
117. (D)
The assertion is incorrect. Androgens, such as testosterone, are produced by the Leydig cells in the testes, but they do not
stimulate the synthesis and secretion of LH (Luteinizing Hormone). Rather, LH acts on the Leydig cells to stimulate the
production of testosterone.
The reason is true, but it's not correctly linked to the assertion. Luteinizing hormone (LH) indeed stimulates the process of
spermatogenesis, but it does so indirectly by promoting the secretion of testosterone from Leydig cells, which then supports
spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules.
Therefore, the correct option is (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false, considering the assertion inaccurately describes the
role of androgens and LH, and the reason, while true about LH's role in spermatogenesis, does not correctly explain the
assertion as it is presented.
118. (A)
(ii) ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) helps in water conservation by increasing the permeability of the distal convoluted
tubule and collecting ducts in the nephron, allowing more water to be reabsorbed back into the bloodstream. This
action results in concentrated urine, not hypotonic urine. (iv) Glucose is indeed actively reabsorbed in the proximal
convoluted tubule of the nephron, not just passively reabsorbed. Therefore, statement (iv) is false.
119. (D)
120. (C)
The assertion is true. The kidneys do indeed have built-in mechanisms for the regulation of glomerular filtration rate (GFR),
such as autoregulation by adjusting the diameter of afferent and efferent arterioles.
However, the reason provided is incorrect. ANF (atrial natriuretic peptide) actually causes vasodilation, not vasoconstriction,
and it helps to decrease blood pressure by promoting sodium excretion by the kidneys and causing relaxation of smooth
muscle cells in blood vessel walls.
Therefore, the correct answer is (3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
121. (C)
Basophils are granulocytes with abundant basophilic granules, typically bilobed nuclei, and play roles in allergic responses and
inflammation by releasing histamine and other mediators. Blood platelets, or thrombocytes, are small, irregularly shaped cell
fragments essential for blood clotting and wound healing. Eosinophils have bi-lobed nuclei and large, uniform granules that
stain with acidic dyes. They combat parasitic infections and modulate allergic responses. Neutrophils, the most abundant
granulocytes, possess multilobed nuclei and neutral-staining granules. They are crucial in the immune response against
bacterial infections. Monocytes are the largest leukocytes with kidney-shaped nuclei and phagocytic capabilities, functioning
in immune defense and tissue repair as macrophages upon migration into tissues.
122. (C)
The association of H1 histone with nucleosome indicates that DNA remains in its condensed form.DNA packaging is carried
out with the help of histone proteins. Nucleosome is the unit of compaction. Its core consists of four pairs of histones (H2A,
H2B, H3, and H4). The linker DNA, consisting of H1 histone connects two adjacent nucleosomes. They together constitute
chromatosome which later gives rise to a chromatin fiber after further condensation.
123. (D)
The procedure for creating a DNA fingerprint consists of first obtaining a sample of cells, such as skin, hair, blood, and other
body secretions like semen, which contain DNA. This DNA is extracted from the body cells and purified after which they are
subjected to restriction digestion and electrophoresis.
124. (C)
Several genes called cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto oncogenes have been identified in normal cells which, when
activated under certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells.
125. (B)
The animal in the diagram is Balanoglossus, which is a member of phylum Hemichordata (all members are marine). Sexes are
separate i.e., dioeciuos. Fertilization in Balanoglossus is external and development is indirect.
126. (A)
In a leech, the neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerves to a double ventral nerve cord. Scorpion
belongs to the arthropod. They are mostly dioecious. Fertilization is usually internal. They are mostly oviparous. Pharyngeal
gill slits and post- anal tail are characteristic features of chordates. Chameleon is a chordate, so it possesses pharyngeal gill
slits in the embryonic stage. Octopus is a non-chordate.
127. (D)
When glomerular blood flow (or glomerular blood pressure or glomerular filtration rate) decreases, it activates juxtaglomerular
cells to release renin.
Renin converts the angiotensinogen in blood into angiotensin I and further into angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a powerful
vasoconstrictor that increases the glomerular blood pressure and filtration rate. Angiotensin II also stimulates the adrenal
cortex of the adrenal gland to produce aldosterone. Aldosterone increases the rate of absorption of sodium ions and water from
the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and the collecting duct. This also leads to an increase in blood pressure and glomerular
filtration rate. This mechanism, known as the renin-angiotensin mechanism, ultimately leads to an increased blood pressure.
128. (C)
The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of the endometrium. Such an
endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilised ovum and other events of pregnancy.
129. (C)
Like DNA, RNA can also store genetic information and replicate itself. Self-replicating RNA molecules proliferated even
before the discovery of DNA and proteins. But some RNA enzymes, known as ribozymes, can start or accelerate chemical
reactions that are critical for life sustenance. Ribozymes, catalytically active RNA molecules discovered in 1980's, are self-
splicing introns indicating their possible role as intermediates in the evolution of biological systems from abiotic substances.
This led to the evolution of the RNA world hypothesis. So, the correct answer is Option (c) 'RNA has enzymatic property'.
130. (D)
Continental drift is the theory that the continents of the Planet have shifted relative to each other over geological time, thereby
appearing to have 'drifted' around the ocean bed. Due to continental drift, when South America joined North America, these
animals were overridden by North America. Due to the same continental drift pouched mammals of Australia survived because
of lack of competition from any other mammal.
131. (A)
The secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen, which then proliferate to
become effector cells. These include spleen, lymph nodes, Peyer’s patches, and tonsils. Bone marrow and thymus are primary
lymphoid organs where immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen-sensitive lymphocytes.
132. (C)
PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients. It is being used to detect mutations in genes in suspected
cancer patients too. It is a powerful technique to identify many other genetic disorders. So, Assertion is true, but Reason is
false.
133. (B)
Cartilaginous fishes-internal fertilization, Mostly oviparous, some viviparous and direct development. Bony fishes-Usually
external fertilization, Mostly oviparous, direct development.
134. (B)
(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) is the correct option.
-Hyaline cartilage is found in long bones, sternum, ribs.
-Fibrous cartilage is found in public symphysis.
-Elastic cartilage is found in the eustachian tube and epiglottis.
-Calcified cartilage is found in the pectoral girdle of a frog.
135. (A)
Bivalent formation occurs in pachytene of meiosis, In this stage, two chromatids of homologous chromosome (Bivalent) later
on forms a cross and now showing a tetravalent or tetrad stage.
136. (B)
-Adenine is one among the two purine nucleobases which is employed in forming nucleotides of the nucleic acids.
-Uracil is a nucleotide, much like adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine, which are the building blocks of DNA, except
uracil replaces thymine in RNA. So uracil is the nucleotide that is found almost exclusively in RNA.
-Adenosine is one of the four nucleotide building blocks to RNA, the molecule consists of an adenine attached to a ribose with
a β-N9-glycosidic bond.
-Uridine is a glycosylated pyrimidine containing uracil which is attached to a ribose ring with a β-N1-glycosidic bond. It is one
among the five standard nucleotides which make up nucleic acids.
137. (C)
A translational unit in mRNA is the sequence of RNA that is flanked by the start codon (AUG) and the stop codon and codes
for a polypeptide. An mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred to as untranslated
regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5'-end (before start codon) and at 3'-end (after stop codon). They are required for
an efficient translation process. So, Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
138. (C)
The figure (a) represents the amino acid glycine. Figure (b) represents amino acid alanine whereas figure (c) represents the
amino acid serine.
139. (B)
The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the vasa efferentia through rete testis. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and
open into the epididymis.
140. (C)
Transformation is a phenomenon by which DNA isolated from one type of cell when introduced into another type is able
to give some of its properties to the latter.
In 1944, Avery, McCarty and MacLeod discovered that protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA-digesting
enzymes (RNase) could not inhibit transformation. This proved that RNA or protein were not the genetic material.
However, digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation, suggesting that the genetic material causing transformation
was DNA. As a result, only DNA from heat-killed S-strain could carry out transformation (in the absence of DNase),
while RNA or protein from the same strain couldn't carry out transformation.
141. (B)
Transduction is the process in which the gene is transferred into the bacterial cell with the help of the phage. When the phage
attacks the bacterial cell, the phage DNA gets incorporated into the bacterial genome (prophage), replicates and forms new
viral particles. During this process, some of the bacteriophages may contain the bacterial genes which on the second round of
infection will be transferred to the other bacterium.
142. (A)
Bt corn has been made resistant to corn borer disease by the introduction of the gene Cry I Ab.
143. (D)
Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector will generate several fragments, which will complicate the gene
cloning. In addition to ori, the vector requires a selectable marker, which helps in identifying and eliminating non-
transformants and selectively permitting the growth of the transformants. So, Both Assertion and Reason are false.
144. (B)
-It is a specialized connective tissue having hard and non- pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres
which give bone its strength.
-It is the main tissue that provides a structural frame to the body.
-It supports and protects soft tissues and organs.
-The bone cells, osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae.
-Bones interact with skeletal muscles, not with smooth muscles.
-They also interact with skeletal muscles attached to them to bring about movements. Hence, B, C, D are correct. So, option
(b) is correct.
145. (B)
Cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called the basal body.
146. (A)
The availability of mitogen and energy rich compounds decide whether G1 phase will be arrested (Go phase) or undergo S-
phase. This point is called check point or G1 cyclin or G1 point. Once the check point of G1-phase is crossed and cell has
entered S-phase, cell cycle will go on further division till completion.
147. (A)
CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin (about 20-25 per cent). 70% CO2 is transported as NaHCO3 by
plasma and KHCO3 by RBCs. Carbonic anhydrase within the RBCs quickly converts the carbon dioxide into carbonic acid.
Carbonic acid is an unstable, intermediate molecule that immediately dissociates into bicarbonate ions and hydrogen ions.
Since carbon dioxide is quickly converted into bicarbonate ions, this reaction allows for the continued uptake of carbon
dioxide into the blood, down its concentration gradient. It also results in the production of H+ ions.
148. (D)
All of the above.
Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) Often referred to as atherosclerosis, affects the vessels that supply blood to heart muscle. It is
caused by the deposition of fat, cholesterol, calcium and fibrous tissue, which makes lumen of the arteries narrower.
149. (C)
In eukaryotes, there is a set of positively charged, basic proteins called histones. A protein acquires charge depending upon the
abundance of amino acids residues with charged side chains. Histones are rich in the basic amino acid residues lysine and
arginine. Both the amino acid residues carry positive charges in their side chains. So, Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
150. (B)
A large number of our population is dependent on fish, fish products and other aquatic animals such as prawn, crab, lobster,
edible oyster, etc., for food. Some of the marine fishes that are eaten include – Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel and Pomfrets.
151. (D)
Animals belonging to Phyla Platyhelminthes to Chordata are triploblastic while poriferans and cnidarians are diploblastic.
Sponges, cnidarians, ctenophorans and platyhelminthes are acoelomates, aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates and annelids,
arthropods, echinoderms and chordates are eucoelomates. Eucoelomates have true coelom.
152. (C)
Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
153. (A)
154. (A)
Excess of uric acid and its salts (urates) accumulate in the join resulting in gouty arthritis. Inflammation of joint may
immobilise its movements.
155. (A)
Saturated fatty acids possess single bonds between carbon atoms and are solids at room temperature. Saturated fatty acids are
without double bonds in their carbon chains. They need higher melting points and are solids at room temperature.
156. (B)
RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and initiates transcription (Initiation). It uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrate and
polymerises in a template-dependent fashion following the rule of complementarity. The RNA polymerase is only capable of
catalysing the process of elongation. It associates transiently with initiation-factor (σ) and termination-factor (ρ) to initiate and
terminate the transcription, respectively. Association with these factors alter the specificity of the RNA polymerase to either
initiate or terminate. So, Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
157. (D)
Tertiary structure is necessary for many biological activities. The difference in average energy content of substrate from that of
its transition state is called Activation energy.
158. (D)
Aldosterone has intracellular receptor as it is a steroid, and thus can enter the cell membrane. PTH is a hyper calcemic
hormone (Not hyperglycemic).
159. (B)
Restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts between G and A at GAATTC.
160. (C)
During ventricular diastole and the ventricular pressure falls causing the closure of semilunar valves which prevents the
backflow of blood into the ventricles. As the ventricular pressure declines further, the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are pushed
open by the pressure in the atria exerted by the blood which was being emptied into them by the veins.
161. (B)
IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released suppress sperm motility and the fertilizing
capacity of sperms.
162. (A)
163. (B)
In Emphysema the alveolar walls are found damaged.
164. (B)
In diabetes mellictus patients fats are catabolised in adipose tissue to form glucose. Adrenaline directly affects the SA node of
heart.
165. (A)
166. (C)
In prokaryotes the predominant site for gene expression is transcription initiation.
167. (D)
Homology is based on divergent evolution. More than one adaptive radiation show convergent evolution.
168. (C)
Certain types of leukocytes (WBC) of our body like polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) and monocytes and
natural killer (type of lymphocytes) in the blood, as well as macrophages in tissues, can phagocytose and destroy microbes.
They provide innate immunity by acting as cellular barriers.
169. (C)
In option (a), lactose and maltose are disaccharides.
In option (b), chitin is a polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine.
In option (d), inulin is a polymer of fructose while peptidoglycan is a heteropolymer.
Hence option (c) is the correct option, with all polysaccharides made up of glucose monomers.
170. (C)
Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs in zygotene and crossing over occurs in pachytene stage of prophase I of meiosis
I. Paired chromosomes line up on equator in metaphase I. Then there is complete separation of chromosomes in anaphase I of
meiosis I.
171. (A)
Thyroid secretion rises during cold weather and helps to compensate for the increased heat loss. Due to exposure to cold
weather, the T3 and T4 levels drop, while TSH levels rise. T3 hormones work slower during colder months. Cold adaptation of
the thyroid gland causes the deiodination of thyroxine (T4) and thus promotes an increase in blood triiodothyronine (T3) levels
in humans and animals. Iodothyronine deiodinase plays an important role in the adaptation of the organism to cold.
Triiodothyronine is an inductor of iodothyronine deiodinase expression in brown fat. T3 hormone mainly contributes to heat
production.
172. (C)
The bacterial cells must first be made ‘competent’ to take up DNA. This is done by treating them with a specific concentration
of a divalent cation, such as calcium, which increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its
cell wall. Recombinant DNA can then be forced into such cells by incubating the cells with recombinant DNA on ice, followed
by placing them briefly at 420C (heat shock) and then putting them back on ice. This enables the bacteria to take up the
recombinant DNA.
173. (C)
Neuroglias are cells in the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system. Along with neurons, they comprise the
two types of cells in nervous tissue, and are integral to the functioning of the CNS and PNS. Neuroglias play the role of
supportive cells to neurons, which are responsible for all nervous system functions. When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an
electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly travels along its plasma membrane. Arrival of the electrical impulse or
stimulus at the nerve endings or output zone triggers events that may cause stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons and
other cells.
174. (A)
The given diagram represents telophase. Telophase is the reverse of prophase. At the beginning of the final stage of mitosis,
i.e., telophase, the chromosomes that have reached their respective poles decondense and lose their individuality. The
individual chromosomes can no longer be seen and chromatin material tends to collect in a mass in the two poles. This is the
stage that shows the following key events:
Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements.
The nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters.
Nucleolus, Golgi complex, and ER reform.
175. (D)
During meiosis, two successive divisions take place without any DNA replication occurring in-between. The number of
chromosomes is reduced to half during meiosis I and not meiosis II. In meiosis I, the number of chromosomes in a cell is
reduced to half and the chromatids move to opposite spindle poles. It is in meiosis II that the chromosomes are distributed to
the gametes, one to each of the four gametes formed.
After the G1 phase, the DNA content gets doubled in the S-phase. After meiosis I, the DNA content get halved and after
meiosis II, the DNA content further decreases by a factor of 2 to produce four haploid cells. Therefore, meiosis II is equational
division, having the same number of chromosomes but reduced DNA content.
176. (B)
Two nucleotides are linked through 3'-5' phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide. In individual nucleotides, the
phosphate group is bonded to 5'C of the deoxyribose sugar via ester linkages. During formation of the phosphodiester bond,
this 5' phosphate group bonds to the 3'C of the next nucleotide, through another ester linkage. Since there are two ester
linkages formed with a phosphate bond, it is called a phosphodiester bond.
A polymer thus formed has at one end a free phosphate moiety at the 5'-end of sugar, which is referred to as the 5’-end of the
polynucleotide chain. Similarly, at the other end of the polymer the sugar has a free OH of 3'C group which is referred to as the
3' -end of the polynucleotide chain. The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is formed due to sugar and phosphates. The
nitrogenous bases linked to sugar moiety project from the backbone.
Hence, in a phosphodiester bond, a phosphate group is bonded with 5’ C of one sugar and 3’ C of the next sugar through ester
linkages.
177. (C)
This curve is called the Oxygen dissociation curve and is highly useful in studying the effect of factors like pCO2 , H+
concentration, etc., on the binding of O2 with hemoglobin. Part “B” represents the partial pressure of oxygen.
178. (A)
1. Chromosome 1 was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced and was completed in May 2006. It was the
last human chromosome among the 24 chromosomes (22 autosomes and X and Y) to be sequenced. Chromosome 1 is the
largest human chromosome which consists of copies of chromosome 1 in humans and has nucleotides base pairs that are the
basic units of information for the DNA. Due to abnormality in genes present on chromosome 1 several diseases reported:
hearing loss, glaucoma, breast cancer and Alzheimer's disease. It is a sequence that reveals signals of the selection in specific
genes that contribute towards human fitness.
2. Chromosome 11: Chromosome 11 is among the 23 pairs of chromosomes in humans and is present in humans with two
copies of it. It consists of about one thirty-five million base pairs that represent about 5% of the total DNA in the cells. The
short arm is termed as 11p and the longer arm is termed as 11q. chromosome 11 can cause several diseases which include
autism, albinism, bladder cancer, breast cancer and others.
3. Chromosome 21: Chromosome 21 is present in humans and is the smallest human autosome and chromosome which
consists of 48 million base pairs and is represented as two per cent of the total DNA in the cells. The trisomy of chromosome
number 21 is known as down syndrome and it is the second human chromosome that is fully sequenced.
4. Chromosome X: Chromosome X is the sex chromosome that is present in many organisms that include mammals and is
found in both males and females. It consists of 53 million base pairs which include 800 protein-coding genes.
So, the correct answer is Option (a) 'Chromosome 1'.
179. (D)
AUG has dual functions. It codes for Methionine (met), and it also acts as an initiator codon.
180. (B)
The DNA polymerase catalyzes DNA polymerization in a single direction only i.e
Subject: Biology
181. (B)
Recipient cells, after making them ‘competent’ to receive, take up DNA present in its surrounding. So, if a recombinant DNA
bearing gene for resistance to an antibiotic (e.g., ampicillin) is transferred into E. coli cells, the host cells become transformed
into ampicillin-resistant cells. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is called a recombinant
protein. The cells harbouring cloned genes of interest may be grown on a small scale in the laboratory. The cultures may be
used for extracting the desired protein and then purifying it by using different separation techniques. So, Both Assertion and
Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
182. (D)
The correct option is (4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
In Carcharodon, commonly known as the great white shark, the mouth is located dorsally (not ventrally), allowing for efficient
feeding on prey near the surface of the water. Additionally, the skin of sharks typically contains placoid scales, not cycloid or
ctenoid scales.
Exocoetus, commonly known as the flying fish, indeed has a terminal mouth, but it typically possesses only one pair of gills,
not four pairs, and it does have an operculum, a bony flap covering the gills.
Therefore, both statements are incorrect.
183. (D)
184. (C)
Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement 2 is correct
185. (B)
The correct option is (2) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.
Statement 1: The genetic code is indeed degenerate (multiple codons can code for the same amino acid), non-
overlapping (each nucleotide is part of only one codon), and non-ambiguous (each codon specifies only one amino acid
or a stop signal). Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2: The first phase of translation is actually initiation, not aminoacylation of mRNA. In initiation, the small
ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA molecule, and the initiator tRNA carrying methionine binds to the start codon
(AUG). Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct option is (2) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.
186. (A)
The correct option is (1) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 1: A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium if individuals mate selectively. Selective mating, such
as assortative mating, can lead to deviations from Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium by altering genotype frequencies.
Statement 2: Disruptive selection, also known as diversifying selection, indeed operates to eliminate intermediate phenotypes
and can lead to the maintenance of two or more distinct phenotypic forms in a population.
Therefore, both statements accurately describe concepts in population genetics.
187. (C)
The genetic code, which is a collection of triplet codons using the four nitrogenous bases present in the mRNA, is called the
mRNA language. It is because these codons act as the link between the base sequence of the mRNA and provides the
interpretation as to which amino acid is coded for by these triplet base combinations.
188. (B)
A bundle of nodal fibres, the atrioventricular bundle (AV bundle) continues from the AVN which passes through the
atrioventricular septa to emerge on the top of the interventricular septum and immediately divides into a right and left bundle.
189. (C)
-A primary spermatocyte undergoes first meiotic division (reductional division) to form two equal, haploid cells called
secondary spermatocytes.
-Each secondary spermatocyte undergoes the second meiotic division (equational division) to produce two equal, haploid
spermatids.
-Each spermatid is transformed into one spermatozoon (sperm).
-Since each secondary spermatocyte gives 2 spermatozoon, 200 secondary spermatocytes are required to produce 400
spermatozoon.
190. (B)
1. The promoter and terminator flank the structural gene in a transcription unit.
2. The promoter is said to be located towards the 5'-end (upstream) of the structural gene (the reference is made with respect to
the polarity of the coding strand). It is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase, and it is the presence
of a promoter in a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands.
3. The terminator is located towards 3'-end (downstream) of the coding strand and it usually defines the end of the process of
transcription.
By switching its position with terminator, the definition of coding and template strands could be reversed.
191. (A)
After completion of the biosynthetic stage, the product has to be subjected to a series of processes before it is ready for
marketing as a finished product. The processes include separation and purification, which are collectively referred to as
downstream processing. The product has to be formulated with suitable preservatives. Such formulation has to undergo
thorough clinical trials as in the case of drugs. Strict quality control testing for each product is also required. The downstream
processing and quality control testing vary from product to product.
192. (B)
In Osteichthyes, skin is covered with cycloid/ctenoid scales. They are mostly oviparous.
193. (C)
Contraception is an artificial technique or other method primarily used as a result of sexual intercourse to avoid or prevent
pregnancy. But nowadays, because of the lack of resources and population growth, this situation needs to be considered and
limited. The different ways and methods of avoiding the continuity process.
Now, let us find the solution from the options-

-Contraception is a technique that inhibits the production of eggs from being restricted, keeping the egg separate or far from
the sperm and stopping the fertilised egg from inserting to the womb lining.
- The brand name of the medication ormeloxifene is Saheli.
-This is a drug that works as a modulator of the selective estrogen receptor.
-This avoids the hormone’s action on the uterus and inhibits implantation of the eggs.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B) Blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted.
194. (C)
Triglycerides are fatty acid esters of glycerol, which are formed by the esterification of three molecule(s) of fatty acids with
one molecule of glycerol. The three hydroxyl groups of a glycerol molecule join with the carboxyl group of three fatty acid
molecules to form a fat or triglyceride molecule. The chemical linkage between the glycerol and fatty acids is called the ester
bonds. It results from the elimination of three molecules of water (condensation or dehydration).
195. (D)
According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, allele frequencies in a population are stable and are constant from generation to
generation. The gene pool (total genes and their alleles in a population) remains constant. This is called genetic equilibrium.
Genetic drift can cause elimination of certain alleles or fixation of the other in the population leading to a change in the
population of alleles in the gene pool. So, genetic drift must not occur to maintain the equilibrium. So, Both Assertion and
Reason are false.
196. (C)
Statement 1: The cells of connective tissues except bone secrete fibers.
This statement is generally correct. Most connective tissues, such as fibroblasts in loose connective tissue and chondrocytes in
cartilage, are responsible for secreting fibers like collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers. However, bone cells (osteoblasts) are
responsible for secreting bone matrix rather than fibers.
Statement 2: Fibers provide strength, elasticity, and flexibility to the tissue.
This statement is also correct. Fibers, particularly collagen and elastin, provide structural support and resilience to connective
tissues. Collagen fibers provide strength and support, while elastin fibers provide elasticity and flexibility.
197. (A)
1. Statement 1: The final reabsorption of water from the urine into the blood occurs through the collecting duct of a
mammalian nephron resulting in the production of hyperosmotic urine.
This statement is correct. In the final stages of urine formation, the collecting duct plays a crucial role in
reabsorbing water from the filtrate back into the bloodstream. This process occurs under the control of antidiuretic
hormone (ADH), and it leads to the concentration of urine (hyperosmotic) by removing excess water.
2. Statement 2: The loop of Henle creates a sodium gradient in the interstitial fluid.
This statement is incorrect. While the loop of Henle plays a vital role in the concentration of urine, it primarily
establishes an osmotic gradient in the interstitial fluid by actively transporting sodium and other ions out of the
ascending limb and into the surrounding interstitial fluid. This osmotic gradient facilitates the reabsorption of
water from the collecting duct. However, it's not solely a sodium gradient but rather an osmotic gradient involving
various solutes.
198. (C)
The endoplasmic reticulum (smooth and rough) is an interconnected network of flattened, membrane-enclosed sacs or tube-
like structure which are evenly distributed throughout the cytoplasm. A smooth endoplasmic reticulum lacks ribosomes. It
forms a network of tubular membrane vesicles which is a part of membrane-bound organelle that is involved in the synthesis
and storage of lipids (cholesterol and phospholipids). Vesicles are small, spherical membrane-bound sacs and tubules connect
the endoplasmic reticulum to the nuclear envelope which forms a continuous membrane. They are abundantly found with the
smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
199. (A)
200. (D)
The final stage of meiotic prophase I is diakinesis. This is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata. During this phase
the chromosomes are fully condensed and the meiotic spindle is assembled to prepare the homologous
chromosomes for separation. Diakinesis represents end of Prophase I and transition to metaphase.
201. (A)
Both statements are correct regarding the role of renal cells in red blood cell (RBC) production:
Statement 1: Renal cells, particularly in the kidney, are indeed involved in stimulating the formation of RBCs. This process is
primarily due to the production of a hormone that regulates RBC synthesis.
Statement 2: The juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney produce erythropoietin (EPO), a hormone that plays a crucial role in the
stimulation of RBC production in the bone marrow. Erythropoietin production increases in response to hypoxia (low oxygen
levels in the blood).
Therefore, the correct option is (1) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
202. (B)
203. (D)
Neanderthal man population inhabited Europe and some parts of central Asia. Their body and physical features had certain
adaptations to the cold and dry environment like shorter height and broad noses. They are thought to be magnificent hunters
and bury the dead with offerings. They are the closest species to humans which are extinct.
204. (B)
Most enzymes are proteins. There are some nucleic acids (RNA) that behave like enzymes. These are called ribozymes.
Lysozyme, ligase, and deoxyribonuclease (DNAse) are examples of proteins acting as enzymes.
205. (D)
206. (A)
207. (C)
When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the same kind of 'sticky-ends' produced, which
can be joined together (end-to-end) using DNA ligase.
Restriction enzymes are of two kinds - exonucleases and endonucleases. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of
the DNA whereas endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within the DNA. HindII was the first restriction enzyme to be
isolated. This enzyme was first isolated from Haemophilus influenzae. So, the enzyme was shorts labeled as HindII.
Bacteriophages have the ability to replicate independent of the control of chromosomal DNA and replicate within bacterial
cells by integrating its DNA with bacterial DNA.
Presence of more than one recognition sites within the vector will generate several fragments, which will complicate the gene
cloning. Therefore, in order to link the alien DNA (or foreign DNA), the vector needs to have very few, preferably single,
recognition/cloning sites for the commonly used restriction enzymes.
208. (A)
It is possible to detect the mutated gene causing cancer by allowing a radioactive probe to hybridize its complementary DNA
in a clone of cells, followed by its detection using autoradiography because a single-stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a
radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridize to its Complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by defection
using autoradiography. The clone having the mutated gene will hence not appear on the photographic film because the probe
will not have complementarily with the mutated gene.
209. (B)
A is true, but R is false
210. (A)
In an ECG, the P wave represents the depolarization of both atria which leads to their contraction (atrial systole).
211. (B)
B and C only
212. (B)
The scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated on the dorsal part of the thorax between the second and seventh ribs. The
fibrous joint is shown by the flat skull bones which fuse end-to-end with the help of dense fibrous connective tissues in the
form of sutures, to form cranium. Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax. Cartilaginous joints between the
adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column permit limited movements.
213. (C)
The correct option is (c) because the length of A-band is retained. During muscle contraction, the following events occur.
(1) The globular head of myosin acts as ATPase and hydrolyses ATP molecule and eventually leads to the formation of cross-
bridge.
(2) This pulls the actin filament towards the center of A-band.
(3) The Z-line attached to these actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the sarcomere.
(4) The thin myofilaments move past the thick myofilaments due to which the H-zone narrows. This reduces the length of the
I-band but retains the length of A-band.
(5) The myosin then releases ADP + Pi and goes back to its relaxed state.
214. (A)
Tetany - Tetany is a symptom characterized by the involuntary contraction of muscles that usually results from low calcium
levels in the blood (i.e.. hypocalcemia)
Myasthenia gravis - An autoimmune disorder in which antibodies destroy the communication between nerves and muscles
resulting in weakness of the skeletal muscles.
Muscular dystrophy - Genetic disorder that causes progressive weakness and loss at muscle mass.
215. (B)
A-(v), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
216. (B)
Parathyroid hormone increases the Ca2+ levels in the blood. PTH acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone
reabsorption (dissolution/demineralization). PTH also stimulates reabsorption of Ca2+ by the renal tubules and increases Ca2+
absorption from the digested food. PTH is a hyperglycemic hormone and along with TCT (thyrocalcitonin), it plays a
significant role in calcium balance in the body.
217. (D)
Frederick Griffith was a British bacteriologist who reported what is now known as Griffith's experiment, the first widely
accepted demonstrations of bacterial transformation, whereby a bacterium distinctly changes its form and function. Thus, the
correct answer is option (d).
Avery, MacLeod and McCarty proved that the transforming material shown by Griffith was DNA. But the unequivocal proof
that DNA is the genetic material was given by Hershey and Chase.
Meselson and Stahl proved the semi-conservative mode of replication in E. coli, whereas Taylor et al. proved the same in
chromosomal DNA in eukaryotes, using Vicia faba (fava bean).
218. (B)
A single stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule is called a probe. Probe is allowed to hybridise to its
complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography. The clone having the mutated gene will
hence not appear on the photographic film, because the probe will not have complementarity with the mutated gene. So, Both
Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
219. (C)
The universe is very old – almost 20 billion years old.
Huge clusters of galaxies comprise the universe. Galaxies contain stars and clouds of gas and dust.
Because of the absolutely colossal size of the universe, the scale of the earth doesn't really matter. Be it the size of a speck of
dust or the size of the sun, the Earth is absolutely inconsequential in comparison to the size of the universe.
The Big Bang theory attempts to explain to us the origin of the universe. It talks of a singular huge explosion unimaginable in
physical terms.
220. (D)
Synaptonemal complex is formed during the stage of meiosis of zygotene. Zygotene is the second stage of prophase. In this
stage, the homologous chromosomes pair or come together in the synapse. This pairing or coming together of homologous
chromosomes is called synapsis. It is facilitated by the synaptonemal complex which is a ladder-like series of parallel threads
adjacent to and coaxial with the pairing of chromosomes in meiosis.
221. (D)
Kidneys and testes
222. (A)
The patent is the right granted by a government to an inventor to prevent others from the commercial use of his invention.
When patents are granted for biological entities and for products derived from them, these are called biopatents.
223. (B)
A plasma membrane envelops the whole body of sperm.
The sperm head contains an elongated haploid nucleus, the anterior portion of which is covered by a cap-like structure,
acrosome. The acrosome is filled with enzymes that help the fertilization of the ovum.
A human male ejaculates about 200-300 million sperms during coitus of which for normal fertility at least 60% of sperms must
have normal shape and size and at least 40% of them must show vigorous motility.
224. (C)
A genome is an organism's complete set of DNA including all of its genes. Each genome contains all of the information
needed to build and maintain that organism. This is the largest in the given options.
Chromosomes are the threadlike structures located inside the nucleus of animal and plant cells.
The building blocks of nucleic acids are the nucleotides.
A gene is the basic physical and functional unit of heredity. Genes are made up of DNA.
225. (B)
There are 64 genetic codes that code for a total 20 amino acids and follow the same properties such as the code is universal in
nature, one codon codes for only one amino acid, hence it is nonambiguous and specific. Some amino acids are coded by more
than one codon, hence the code is degenerative.
226. (B)
Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output will lead to the shift of the mean of the character to one side.
This is a directional change. In a stabilising selection, organisms with the mean value of the trait are selected. When extremes
are selected, it is called a disruptive selection.
227. (C)
Catla, Labeo and Cirrhina can be grown together in same pond because all three live in different layers of water body and
intake different foods so they have no competition for food.
228. (D)
Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into cotton plant. The genetically modified crop is
called Bt cotton. Bt cotton has the following useful characteristics : pest resistance, herbicide tolerance, high yield and
resistance to boll worm infestation.
229. (D)
A mitochondrion is a double membrane-bound structure with the outer membrane and the inner membrane dividing its Lumen
distinctly into two aqueous compartments, i.e., the outer compartment and the inner compartment. The inner compartment is
called the matrix. The outer membrane forms the continuous limiting boundary of the organelle. The inner membrane forms a
number of infoldings called the cristae (sing: crista) towards the matrix.
230. (A)
In animal cells, during the S phase of interphase, DNA replication begins in the nucleus, and the centriole duplicates in the
cytoplasm. These duplicated centrioles move towards opposite poles of the cell during the prophase stage of mitosis.
231. (A)
Chitin is not a storage polysaccharide. It is a homopolymer found in the exoskeleton of arthropods and in fungal cell
walls. Starch forms helical secondary structures and can hold I2 molecules in the helical portion.
232. (B)
Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill certain insects such as lepidopterans (tobacco budworm,
armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and dipterans (flies, mosquitoes). B. thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular
phase of their growth. These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein. Actually, the Bt toxin protein exists as inactive
protoxins but once an insect ingests the inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the
gut which solubilised the crystals. The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores that
cause cell swelling and lysis and eventually cause death of the insect. So, Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason
is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
233. (B)
Schwann, based on his studies on plant tissues, concluded that the presence of cell wall is a unique character of the plant cells.
On the basis of this, Schwann proposed the hypothesis that the bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and
products of cells.
234. (C)
Organelle X is endoplasmic reticulum, organelle Y is Golgi apparatus and organelle Z is lysosome.
235. (D)
The MSH or the melanocyte stimulating hormone is not released by the anterior pituitary gland or the pars distalis. Instead, it
is released by the pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis.
236. (B)
The genetic code is the set of rules by which information encoded in genetic material (DNA or RNA sequence) is translated
into proteins in the living cells.
1. Option A- The code is nearly universal: for example, from bacteria to human UUU would code for Phenylalanine (phe).
Some exceptions to this rule have been found in mitochondrial codons, and in some protozoans.
2. Option B- Degeneracy of genetic codons means that a specific amino acid can be code by more than one triplet codon.
Because most of the amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the genetic code is said to be degenerate. For
example: Leucine is coded by UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG codons. Lysine is coded by AAA and AAG codons.
Aspartate is encoded by both GAU and GAC. Cysteine is encoded by both UGU and UGC etc. Therefore, the correct answer is
Option (b).
3. Option C- The genetic code is unambiguous and specific in nature because each triplet specifies only a single amino acid.
4. Option D- The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous fashion. There are no punctuations.
237. (D)
A DNA strand produces another DNA strand during replication. All the RNA molecules like t-RNA, m-RNA and r-RNA are
formed from the transcription of the DNA strands encoding these respectively. Hence, DNA strand is directly involved in
replication and transcription processes. However, the DNA strand is indirectly involved in the process of protein synthesis also
known as translation. The mRNA formed after transcription of the DNA acts as a template for the synthesis of proteins or
translation. The sequence of base pairs on the m-RNA act as codons for the synthesis of proteins.
238. (A)
Louis Pasteur, by careful experimentation, demonstrated that life comes only from preexisting life. He observed that in pre-
sterilised closed flasks, life did not come from killed yeast while in another flask open to air, new living organisms arose from
'killed yeast'. He showed that the source of the new appearing microorganisms was the air and organisms did not arise from the
nutrient media. So, Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
239. (D)
In the Meselson-Stahl experiment, once normal N14 DNA molecules were made to replicate in a medium with heavy (N15)
nitrogen, generation I DNA molecules gave hybrids of heavy and light chain strands, where one strand is old and one is the
newly made strand with heavy nitrogen (N14N15). When these hybrid DNA were allowed to replicate again, they yielded a
mixture of hybrid strands as well as DNA having both heavy strands.
240. (B)
Recombinant DNA technology has five steps: (1) cutting the desired DNA by restriction sites using restriction endonucleases,
(2) amplifying the gene copies by PCR, (3) inserting the genes into the vectors and sealing gaps in DNA using ligase, (4)
transferring the vectors into the host organism, and (5) obtaining the products of recombinant genes by the action of
polymerase enzymes.
241. (B)
An experiment was performed by Fredrick Griffith in which he used bacteria named Streptococcus pneumoniae which has two
strains S- strain(virulent) and R- strain(non- virulent). R(Rough) strain does not cause disease in humans and the other is
S(smooth) strain which causes disease in humans. In the experiment R- strain was injected into mice and the mice survived.
When S- strain was injected into mice, the mice died. Further, when heat- killed S- strain was injected into mice, the mice
survived. When R- strain and heat- killed S- strain was injected, the mice died because R- strain was transformed into S- strain.
242. (C)
Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added to hn-RNA in a process of Capping. In hnRNA, at the 5' end, a cap is formed by the
modification of GTP to 7-methyl guanosine triphosphate. This mechanism is termed capping and it also helps in the protection
of the mRNA from degradation by nuclease enzymes.
243. (B)
Conus arteriosus
244. (B)
A single-stranded DNA or RNA joined with a radioactive molecule (probe) is allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA
in a clone of cells. It is followed by detection using autoradiography. The clone having the mutated gene will not appear on the
photographic film, because the probe will not have the complementarity with the mutated gene.
245. (B)
RNA interference involves the silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary RNA. It takes place in all eukaryotic
organisms. The parasitic nematode would not survive in the host or transgenic organisms that express RNAI.
246. (D)
A-(iii), B-(i), C-(v), D-(ii)
247. (D)
Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present only in the heart. Cell junctions fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac
muscle cells and make them stick together. Communication junctions (intercalated discs) at some fusion points allow the cells
to contract as a unit, i.e., when one cell receives a signal to contract, its neighbours are also stimulated to contract.
248. (C)
On oxidation of 1 molecule of pyruvate molecule, it produces 4 molecules of NADH, 1 molecule of FADH2 and 1 GTP. 1
molecule of NADH gives 3 molecules of ATP, 1 molecule of FADH2 give 2 molecules of ATP and 1 GTP gives 1 ATP on
oxidation. These all release 15 net molecules of ATP.
249. (A)
Chitin is a structural polysaccharide, and not a storage polysaccharide. It is a homopolymer found in the exoskeleton of
arthropods and in fungal cell walls. Chitin is also the second most abundant carbohydrate after cellulose.
250. (A)
During anaphase of mitosis, each chromosome arranged at metaphase plate is split and two daughter chromatids are formed.
Centromeres split and chromatids move to opposite poles. During anaphase I of meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes
separate, while sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres. Anaphase II of meiosis II begins with simultaneous
splitting of the centromere of each chromosome allowing them to move towards opposite poles of the cell.

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500 MOST WRONGLY ATTEMPTED

(a) 5.0 m/s

32. Current in the circuit will be

t = 0 , then the total phase at t = 7.5 second will be

62. In the figure, magnetic energy stored in the coil is

(Density of water = 1000 kg/m3) and (g = 10 m/s2)

|F1 | = 2 |F2 | then the ratio q1 / q2 may be

Magnetic field induction near the metal sheet is

Out of the following diagrams, which represents the T-P diagram

Mean induced emf, e = − M

The acceleration of the body Perpendicular to OE is

Displacement along OE,

The resultant displacement

Radius of circular path in the horizontal plane

Resolving T along the vertical and horizontal directions, we get

Tcosθ = Mg. . . (i)

Tsinθ = Mrω 2 = M(lsinθ)ω 2

Dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get

Hence, required difference in kinetic energy

From Energy conservation,

I of given disc = I of disc of radius R - I of disc of radius r

Comparing with given equation

(As, θ = 45 ∘, u = 20m / s, g = 10m / s 2 )

|Change in velocity| = u√2

For open pipe, f 1 = 2 2l

for n=5 equation (1) will be satisfied

New moment of inertia, I ′ =

The limiting case for a four-wheeler to begin overturn is given as:

Let us consider weight of the object to be Mg

The frictional force provides the necessary centripetal force

On considering the center of gravity,

Substituting the values in above equation, we get

To stop the motion,

In case of small angle,

Applying momentum conservation

Concentration of electron pairs: n e = ?

Concentration of acceptance atom: n A = 10 21 / m 3

D 2 is in forward biasing and D 1 is in reverse biasing

For Loop 2, ε ind = 0 as no flux linkage

R and C should be small and L should be high.

Acceleration due to gravity at a depth d from surface of earth

Where g = acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface

Given, A(1, 0, 4) and B(2, − 1, 5)

Now, force (magnetic) on proton,

= 3.2 × 3 × 10 − 16 = 9.6 × 10 − 16N

= 5.74 × 10 11m / s 2 = 5.8 × 10 11m / s 2

We will get a line with shortest wavelength corresponding to transition from n = ∞ to n = 1

For longest wavelength we will have n = 2

∴ magnetic energy stored in the coil,

x and y components are as follows:

x = ucosθt and v x = ucosθ

v y = usinθ − gt. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (2)

The horizontal component of speed v x is always constant.

So the speed is minimum when the vertical component v y = 0

Putting this in equation 2

usinθ = 2g. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . (3)

The ball is moving at angle 45 ∘ direction of velocity of the project at time t = 1 s

From equation 3 & 4

Upward displacement covered in 4s