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Competishun
52/6, Opposite Metro Mas Hospital, Shipra Path, Mansarovar

Date: 08/05/2024
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 390

BITSAT-FST-3 (2023-24)

Physics
Single Choice Question

Q1 The figure below shows currents in a part of electric circuit. The current i is

a) 1.7 A b) 3.7 A c) 1.3 A d) 1A

Q2 If w1, w2 and w3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along three
different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively(as shown)in the gravitational field of a point
mass m. Find the correct relation between w1, w2 and w3

a) w1 > w2 > w3 b) w1 = w2 = w3 c) w1 < w2 < w3 d) w2 > w1 > w3

Q3 A uniform rod AB of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth table. A small particle
of mass m strikes the rod with velocity υ0 at point C at a distance x from the centre O.
The particle comes to rest after collision. If the value of x, so that the point A of the
rod remains stationary just after the collision, is L/n, then find n.

a) 6 b) 4 c) 12 d) 8

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Q4 In an energy recycling process, x g of steam at 100°C becomes water at 100°C which

converts y g of ice at 0°C into water at 100°C. The ratio of will be
a) b) c) 3 d) 2

Q5 SI unit of universal gas constant is

a) b) J mol –1 c) J mol–1 K–1 d) J kg–1

Q6 Plastic bodies are those which

a) change their state after removal of deforming force.
b) regain their original dimension after removal of deforming force.
c) do not regain their original dimension even after removal of deforming force.
d) starts stretching after removal of deforming force.

Q7 A one mole of ideal gas goes through a process in which pressure P varies with
volume V as , where Vo is a constant. The maximum attainable
temperature by the ideal gas during this process is (All quantities are in SI units and R
is gas constant)
a) b) c) d)

Q8 The height at which the weight of a body becomes of its weight on the surface of
earth (radius R) is,
a) 5R b) 15R c) 3R d) 4R

Q9 A parallel plate capacitor has plate area A and separation d between the plates. The
space between the plates is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K and
resistivity ρ. The capacitor is initially charged to Q0 using a battery. After removing
battery at t = 0, current density in the dielectric at any time t is
a) b) c) d)

Q10 In Young's double slit experiment, the two slits 0.15 mm apart are illuminated by
monochromic light of wavelength 450 nm. The screen is 1.0 m away from the slits, (a)
Find the distance of the second (i) bright fringe, (ii) dark fringe from the central
maximum.
a) (i) 6 mm, (ii) 4.5 mm b) (i) 6 mm, (ii) 3 mm
c) (i) 4.5 mm, (ii) 6 mm d) (i) 3 mm, (ii) 4.5 mm

Q11 A graph between pressure P (along y-axis) and absolute temperature, T (along x-axis)
for equal moles of two gases has been drawn. Given that volume of second gas is
more than volume of first gas. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Slope of gas 1 is less than gas 2 b) Slope of gas 1 is more than gas 2
c) Both have some slopes d) None of the above

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Q12 The figure shows a soap film in which a closed elastic thread is lying. The film inside
the thread is pricked. Now, the sliding wire is moved out so that the surface area
increases. The radius of the circle formed by elastic thread will,

a) increase. b) decrease.
c) remain same. d) data insufficient.

Q13 The principle of controlled chain reaction is used in

a) Atomic energy reactor b) Atom bomb
c) In the core of sun d) Artificial radioactivity

Q14 The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg, respectively, are connected by a massless spring, as
shown in the figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown,
the 10 kg mass has acceleration 12 m s–2. What is the acceleration of 20 kg mass?

a) 12 ms–2 b) 4 ms–2 c) 10 m s–2 d) Zero

Q15 The forbidden energy gap in Germanium is 0.7 eV. The wavelength at which its
absorption starts by Germanium is:
a) 35000 Å b) 17700 Å c) 25000 Å d) 51600 Å

Q16 The tangential velocity of a particle making p rotations along a circle of radius π m in
t seconds is
a) b) c) d)

Q17 A simple spring has length and force constant k. It is cut into two spring of length
and such that (n = an integer). The force constant of the spring of length is
a) k(1 + n) b) c) k d) k/(n + 1)

Q18 For regular shapes of the small body, which of the following statement is true?
a) The centre of mass coincides with centre of gravity.
b) The centre of mass is lower than centre of gravity.
c) The centre of mass is higher than centre of gravity.
d) The centre of mass is at half the distance of centre of gravity.

Q19 Photons cannot escape from the surface of a

a) White dwarf b) Red giant c) Pulsar d) Black hole

Q20 The maximum force, in addition to the weight required to pull a wire of 5.0 cm long
from the surface of water at temperature 20°C is 728 dynes. The surface tension of
water is
a) 7.28 N cm –1 b) 7.28 dyne cm –1
c) 72.8 dyne cm –1 d) 7.28 × 10 2 dyne cm –1

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Q21 An LCR circuit contains resistance of 100Ω and a supply of 200 V at 300 rad angular
frequency. If only capacitance is taken out from the circuit and the rest of the circuit is
joined, current lags behind the voltage by 60°. If, on the other hand, only inductor is
taken out the current leads by 60° with the applied voltage. The current flowing in the
circuit is
a) 1A b) 1.5A c) 2A d) 2.5A

Q22 An illuminated object is placed on the principal axis of a converging lens so that a
real image is formed on the other side of the lens. If the object is shifted a little,
a) the image will be shifted simultaneously with the object.
b) the image will be shifted a little later than the object.
c) the image will be shifted a little earlier than the object.
d) the image will not shift.

Q23 One femtometre is equivalent to

a) 10 15 m b) 10 –15 m c) 10–12 m d) 1012 m

Q24 A jet airplane is ejecting its products of combustion at the speed of 1500 km h–1
relative to the jet plane and it itself is travelling at the speed of 500 km h–1. What is
the speed of the products of combustion as observed by an observer on the ground?
a) 500 km h –1 b) 1000 km h –1 c) 1500 km h –1 d) 2000 km h –1

Q25 Assertion: In the reference frame of centre of mass, net force acting on system is
always zero.
Reason: A pseudo force given by (where m is mass of system and is
acceleration of centre of mass) acts on system which balances all the external forces.
a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
b) If both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not correct explanation of the
Assertion.
c) If Assertion is true, but the Reason is false.
d) If Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Q26 A planet moving along an elliptical orbit is closest to the sun at a distance r1, and
farthest away at a distance of r2. If υ1 and υ2 are the linear velocities at these points
respectively, then the ratio is:
a) b) c) d)

Q27 Two identical conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angles to each
other. The wire, AOB carries an electric current I1 and COD carries a current I2. The
magnetic field on a point lying at a distance d from 0, in a direction perpendicular to
the plane of the wires AOB and COD, will be given by
a) b) c) d)

Q28 Which one of the following waves does not belong to the category of the other three?
a) X-rays b) Microwaves c) Radiowaves d) Sound waves

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Q29 A huge circular arc of length 4.4 ly subtends an angle '4s' at the centre of the circle.
How long it would take for a body to complete 4 revolution if its speed is 8 AU per
second?
Given : 11y = 9.46 × 1015 m, 1AU = 1.5 × 1011 m
a) 3.5 × 10 6 s b) 4.5 × 10 10 s c) 4.1 × 10 8 s d) 7. 2 × 10 8

Q30 Assuming that the petrol burnt in a motorboat varies as the cube of its velocity, the
most economical speed when going against a current of c km per hour is
a) b)
km per hour km per hour
c) d)
km per hour km per hour

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Chemistry
Single Choice Question

Q31 Which of the following Lewis symbols is INCORRECT?

a) b) c) d)

Q32 The values of heat of formation of SO2 and SO3 are –298.2 kj and –98.2 kJ. The
enthalpy change of the reaction SO2 + O2 → SO3 will be

a) –396.2 kJ b) +200 kJ c) –200 kJ d) –356.2 kJ

Q33 The monomer used to produce orlon is:

a) CH 2 = CH – CN b) CH 2 = CHF c) CH2 = CHCl d) CH2 = CCl2

Q34 Which of the following sets have highest hydration enthalpy and highest ionic radii
a) Na and Li b) Li and Rb c) K and Na d) Cs and Na

Q35 A cell diagram shown below contains one litre of Buffer solution HA(pKa = 8) and
NaA in both compartment. What is the cell E.M.F?

a) 0.81 V b) 0.071 V c) .0591 V d) 1.182 V

Q36 What is the value of magnetic moment observed in octahedral complex of Zn2+ ion?
a) b) c) 0 BM d) 1.73 BM

Q37 Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is

a) Benzyl amine b) Aniline
c) iso-butylamine d) tertiary-butylamine

Q38 In the complexes [Fe(H2O)6]3+, [Fe(CN)6]3–, [Fe(C2O4)3]3– and [FeCl6]3–, more

stability is shown by
a) [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3– b) [Fe(H 2 O) 6 ] 3+ c) [Fe(C 2 O 4 ) 3 ] 3– d) [FeCl 6 ] 3–

Q39 Which of the following does not have a metal-carbon bond?

a) Al(OC 2 H 5 ) 3 b) C 2 H 5 MgBr c) K[Pt(C 2 H 4 )Cl 3 ] d) Ni(CO)4

Q40 Nascent hydrogen consists of

a) Hydrogen atoms with excess energy.
b) Hydrogen molecules with excess energy.
c) Hydrogen ions in the excited state.
d) Solvated protons

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Q41 Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.

a) (p)–(i), (q)–(ii), (r)–(iii), (s)–(iv) b) (p)–(ii), (q)–(iii), (r)–(iv), (s)–(i)

c) (p)–(iii), (q)–(i), (r)–(iv), (s)–(ii) d) (p)–(iv), (q)–(iii), (r)–(i), (s)–(ii)

Q42 Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?

a) CO 2 b) N 2 O c) SO 2 d) PAN

Q43 The concentration of OH– ions in a solution with the H+ ions concentration of 1.3 ×
10–4 M is
a) 7.7 × 10 –4 M b) 1.3 × 10 –4 M c) 2. 6 × 10 –8 M d) 7. 7 × 10 –11 M

Q44 What is the product X in the following oxidation reaction?

HC ≡ C – CH = CH – CH2 – OH X
a) b)
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – –H CH ≡ C – CH2 – CH2 – –H
c) d) Both A and B
HC ≡ C – CH = CH – –H

Q45 Which of the following pentoses will be optically active?

a) All b) II and III c) I d) II

Q46 For the reaction, CO(g) + 0.5O2(g) → CO2(g), the value of Kp/Kc is equal to
a) b) c) 1 d) RT 2

Q47 Identify the correct statement with respect to CO.

a) It combines with water to give carbonic acid
b) It reacts with hemoglobin in red blood cells
c) It is a powerful oxidising agent
d) It is used to prepare aerated drinks

Q48 In the synthesis of ammonia by Haber process, if 60 moles of ammonia is obtained in

one hour, then the rate of disappearance of nitrogen is:
a) 30 mol/min b) 6 mol/min c) 0.5 mol/min d) 60 mol/min

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Q49 Which of the following statement is correct ?

a) H 3 PO 3 is tribasic and reducing b) H 3 PO 3 is tribasic and non-reducing
c) H 3 PO 3 is diabasic and non-reducing d) H 3 PO 3 is diabasic and reducing

Q50 Which of the following organic compounds polymerizes to form the polyster Dacron?
a) Propylene and para HO – (C 6 H 4 ) – OH
b) Benzole acid and para HO – (C 6 H 4 ) – OH
c) Terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol
d) Benzoic acid an ethanol

Q51 Determine the pH of the solution that results from the addition of 20.00 mL of 0.01 M
Ca(OH)2 to 30.00 mL of 0. 01 M HCl.
a) 11.30 b) 10.53 c) 2.70 d) 8.35

Q52 The basic character of the transition metal monoxide follows the order
a) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO b) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
c) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO d) VO > FeO > TiO > CrO

Q53 While charging the lead storage battery ____.

a) PbSO 4 anode is reduced to Pb. b) PbSO 4 cathode is reduced to Pb.
c) PbSO 4 cathode is oxidised to Pb. d) PbSO 4 anode is oxidised to PbO 2

Q54 A Substance undergoes first order decomposition. The decomposition follows two
parallel first order reactions as

The percentage distribution of B and C are

a) 75% B and 25% C b) 80% B and 20% C
c) 76.83% B and 23.17% C d) 90% B and 10% C

Q55 In which of the following pairs of carbocations, the first carbocation is more stable
than the second?
(i) CH2 = CH – and CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2
(ii) CH3 – NH – and – OH

(iii) CH3 – O – CH2 – and CH3 – O –

(iv) CH3 – – CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2 – – CH2CH3

a) (i), (ii) and (iii) b) (i), (ii) and (iv) c) (ii) and (iii) d) (iii) and (iv)

Q56 2 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a reversible process for which PV2 =
Constant. The gas is expanded from initial volume of 1 L to a final volume of 3 L
starting from initial temperature of 300 K. Find ΔH for the process:
a) –600 R b) –1000 R c) –3000 R d) None of these

Q57 The species that can have a trans-isomer is :

(en = ethane-1, 2-diamine, ox = oxalate)
a) [Zn(en)Cl 2 ] b) [Pt(en)Cl 2 ] c) [Cr(en) 2 (ox)] + d) [Pt(en)2Cl2]2+

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Q58 Identify the option which represents the correct products of the following reaction,
PhCHO + CH3CHO (Aldols)

(I) (II) PhCH2 – COPh

(III) (IV)

a) I, II b) I, III c) II, III d) I, III, IV

Q59 On complete combustion 1.4 g hydrocarbon gave 1.8 g water. Empirical formula of
the hydrocarbon is
a) CH b) CH 2 c) CH 3 d) CH 4

Q60 The structure of diborane contains

a) Four 2c – 2e bonds and two 3c – 2e bonds
b) Two 2c – 2e bonds and two 3c – 3e bonds
c) Two 2c – 2e bonds and four 3c – 2e bonds
d) Four 2c– 2e bonds and four 3c– 2e bonds

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English
Single Choice Question

Q61 Direction : choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given below
Alert
a) Smart b) Actinic c) Watchful d) Line

Q62 Direction : choose the correct synonym out of the four choices given below
Majestic
a) Attractive b) Extraordinary c) Grand d) Interesting

Q63 Direction : Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the
four choices given below
After shifting abroad Rini has to turn over a new leaf.
a) to change completely one's course of action
b) to shift attention to new problems
c) to cover up one's faults by wearing new marks
d) to change the old habits and adopt new ones

Q64 Direction : Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the
four choices given below
Preparation leaves during the exams are a fair crack of the whip.
a) secure punishment b) A good check
c) A period of importance d) Failure of administration.

Q65 Direction : Select the correct meaning of the underlined idioms and phrases out of the
four choices given below
To talk one's head off is a habit of my aunt.
a) to talk loudly b) to talk in whispers
c) to talk to oneself d) to talk excessively

Q66 Direction : Read each sentence to find if there is any grammatical error in it. If
there is any error, it will be only in one part of the sentence.

The road /(A) to famous monument / (B) passes through a forest/(C) No error /(D)
a) A b) B c) C d) D

Q67 Direction : Read each sentence to find if there is any grammatical error in it. If
there is any error, it will be only in one part of the sentence.

Our housing society comprises of /(A) six blacks and / (B) thirty three flats in an
/(C) are of about thousand sq. metres /(D)
a) A b) B c) C d) D

Q68 To examine one's own thoughts and feelings

a) Meditation b) Retrospection c) Reflection d) Introspection

Q69 A short, amusing story about same real person or event.

a) Anecdote b) Antidote c) Tale d) Allegory

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Q70 Direction : Rearrange only P, Q, R and S to form a meaningful paragraph.

a) QRSP b) QPSR c) QSPR d) RQSP

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Logical Reasoning
Single Choice Question

Q71 Complete the series 0, 1, 3, 7, 15, ?

a) 30 b) 31 c) 35 d) 42

Q72 What comes next in pattern?

10000, 11000, 9900, 10890, ______
a) 10241 b) 10423 c) 10781 d) 9801

Q73 MATCH is related to WIN in the same way as EXAMINATION is to :

a) Write b) Appear c) Success d) Attempt

Q74 Fan : Sweat:: Rain : _____________?

a) humidity b) drought c) flood d) cloud

Q75 Total numbers of rectangles.

a) 201 b) 210 c) 220 d) 211

Q76 News Paper: Editor , then

a) Pen : poet b) Design : architect
c) Teacher: school d) Nurse : hospital

Q77 Each of the following questions contains three items using the relationship between
these items, match each questions with the suitable diagram. Lions, Elephants, Zoo.
a) b) c) d)

Q78 Find the missing no.

a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11

Q79

a) b) c) d) None of these

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Q80 Total numbers of triangles.

a) 23 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11

Q81 Odd one out

a) Valcanoes b) Tsunamis c) Tornadoes d) Explosion

Q82

When C is unfolded it would look like?

a) b) c) d)

Q83 C is the daughter of grandmother of E. How is C related to E

a) C is definitely mother of E b) C might be mother of E or aunt of E
c) C is aunt of E d) None of these

Q84 S, M, T, W, T, F, ____?
a) P b) M c) S d) K

Q85 Ramesh started going for regular morning walks for controlling his blood sugar level.
He did so for a month and also started taking Yoga lessons, without going for any
pathological examination. He underwent pathological test after two months and found
that the blood sugar level has come down. Presuming that he had not changed his food
habits during these two months, which statement among the alternative given below
follows most logically?
a) Blood sugar level comes down after doing regular morning walk
b) Blood sugar level comes down after doing Yoga
c) Blood sugar level comes down on doing regular morning walk and Yoga
d) Regular morning walk, Yoga or both may bring down sugar level despite not
changing food habits.

Q86 Find the missing letters :

DFK, FEL, HDM, JCN, ?
a) KBN b) KBO c) LBO d) LBN

Q87 6, 6, 9, 18, 45, ?

a) 67.5 b) 81 c) 54 d) 135

Q88 In the following question four figures are given. One of these figures does not
correlate with the rest of the figures. Find the different figure.
a) b) c) d)

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Q89 In the following question four figures are given. One of these figures does not
correlate with the rest of the figures. Find the different figure.
a) b) c) d)

Q90 If the alphabet series is written in a reverse order, which of the following will be the
seventh letter to the left of eighth letter from your right ?
a) L b) M c) O d) P

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Mathematics
Single Choice Question

Q91 If b – c, bx – cy, bx2 – cy2 (b, c ≠ 0) are in G. P., then the value of
a) x2 b) –x2 c) 2y2 d) 3y2

Q92 The proposition (p ⇒ ~p) (~p ⇒ p) is ____

a) Tautology and contradiction b) Neither tautology nor contradiction
c) Contradiction d) Tautology

Q93 , ; t ∈ R represents
a) an ellipse b) a parabola c) a hyperbola d) a circle

Q94 The sum of the series is equal to

a) b) c) 0 d)

Q95 The lines and are

a) Parallel b) Coincident c) Skew d) Perpendicular

Q96 f(x) = sin x + , then f(x) is

a) b) c) d)

Q97 The equation of normal to the curve y = (1 + x)y + sin–1 (sin2x) at x = 0 is

a) x + y = 1 b) x – y = 1 c) x + y = –1 d) x – y = –1

Q98 The G.M. of the numbers 3, 32, 33 ... 3n is

a) 3 2h b) c) 3n/2 d) 3(n+1)/2

Q99 The line 3x – 4y = 0

a) is a tangent to the circle x 2 + y 2 = 25 b) is a normal to the circle x2 + y2 = 25
c) does not meet the circle x 2 + y 2 = 0 d) does not pass through the origin

Q100 The sum of roots of the equation sin4 x – cos2 x sin x + 2 sin2 x + sin x = 0 for 0 ≤ x ≤
3π is equal to
a) b) 2π c) 4π d) 6π

Q101
The sum of the following series
up to 15 terms, is:
a) 7520 b) 7510 c) 7830 d) 7820

Q102 If α and β are the roots of 4x2 – 16x + λ = 0, λ ∈ R such that 1 < α < 2 and 2 < β < 3,
then the number of integral solutions of λ is
a) 6 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1

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Q103 A line is drawn from the point P(1, 1, 1) and perpendicular to a line with direction
ratios 1, 1, 1 to intersect the plane x + 2y + 3z = 4 at Q. The locus of point Q is
a) b) x – 2 = y– 51 = x + 21

c) x=y=z d) None of these

Q104 The remainder when 337 is divided by 80 is

a) 3 b) 2 c) 35 d) 34

Q105 The function f(x) = x2 – 2x is strict decreasing in the interval

a) (–∞, 1) b) [1, ∞) c) R d) none of these

Q106 There are fifty persons among whom 2 are brothers. The number of ways they can be
arranged in a circle, if there is exactly one person between the two brothers, is
a) 2 × 48! b) 12 c) 360 d) 7 × 8!

Q107 Sum of the common roots of the equations z3 + 2z2 + 2z + 1 = 0 and z1985 + z100 + 1 =
0 is
a) –1 b) 1 c) 0 d) 2

Q108 The perpendicular distance of the origin from the line 3x + 4y + 1 = 0 is

a) –1 b) 1 c) d)

Q109 The area of the region in 1st quadrant bounded by the y-axis, ,y=1+ and

is
a) b) c) d)
sq. unit sq. unit sq. unit sq. unit

Q110 The length of projection of the vector on the vector is

a) b) c) d) none of these

Q111 The number of points of discontinuity of g(x) = f(f(x)), where f(x) is defined as,

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) >2

Q112 If , then A =
a) –1 b) c) d) 1

Q113 The total number of solution (s) of the equation [sin–1 x] = x – [x] is/are: (where [⋅]
denote the greatest integer function)
a) Zero b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Q114
If , then adj A =

a) A b) AT c) 3A d) 3AT

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Q115
is equal to

a) b) c) d)

Q116 Let A, B and C be the three events such that

P(A) = 0.3, P(B) = 0.4, P(C) = 0.8, P(A ∩ B) = 0.08, P(A ∩ C) = 0.28, P(A ∩ B ∩ C)
= 0.09.
If P(A ∪ B ∪ C) ≥ 0.75, then P(B ∩ C) satisfies
a) P(B ∩ C) ≤ 0.23 b) P(B ∩ C) ≤ 0.48
c) 0.23 ≤ P(B ∩ C) ≤ 0.48 d) 0.23 ≤ P(B ∩ C) ≥ 0.48

Q117 Number of divisors of 22, 33, 53, 75 of the form 4n + 1, n ∈ N is

a) 46 b) 47 c) 96 d) 48

Q118
If , then

a) is equal to 1 b) is equal to 0 c) is equal to –1 d) does not exist

Q119 Which of the following statements is not a fallacy?

a) p (~(~p ⇒ q)) b) ~((p q) ⇒ p) c) ~(p ⇒ (p q)) d) ~p (~p ⇒ q)

Q120 The trace T r (A) of a 3 × 3 matrix A = (a jj ) is defined by the relation T r (A) = a 11 + a 22

+ a33 (i.e, Tr (A) is sum of the main diagonal elements). Which of the following
statements cannot hold?
a) T r (kA) = kT r (A) (k is a scalar) b) Tr(A + B) = Tr(A) + Tr(B)
c) T r (l 3 ) = 3 d) Tr(A2) = (Tr(A))2

Q121 Let X denote the sum of the numbers obtained when two fair dice are rolled. Then, the
variance and standard deviations of X are
a) b) c) d) none of these

Q122 If the equation of hyperbola is , then

a) transverse axis is along x-axis of length 6
b) transverse axis is along y–axis of length 8
c) conjugate axis is along y–axis of length 6
d) None of the above

Q123
If cos2x – y tan 2x = cos4 x, where |x| < and , then the constant term in
the solution of the differential equation is
a) 0 b) -1 c) 2 d) None of these

Q124 If |sin2 x + 17 – x2| = |16 – x2| + |2 sin2 x| + |cos2 x|, then x lies in
a) [–8, 8] b) [–4, 4] c) d)

Q125 If , then the maximum value of a sin x + b cos x is

a) b) c) d)

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Q126
The number is equal to
a) 4in–2 b) 2in–4 c) 2in–1 d) none of these

Q127 If S = {x | x is a positive multiple of 3 less than 100} and P = {x | x is a prime number

less than 20}. Then n(S) + n(P) is equal to
a) 34 b) 31 c) 33 d) 41

Q128 Let P be a point on the parabola, y2 = 12x and N be the foot of the perpendicular
drawn from P on the axis of the parabola. A line is now drawn through the mid-point
M of PN, parallel to its axis which meets the parabola at Q. If the y –intercept of the
line NQ is , then
a) PN = 4 b) c) d) PN = 3

Q129 If α and β are the roots of x2 – 5x + 4 = 0, then find the value of

a) 65 b) 75 c) 85 d) 9

Q130 The equations 2x + 3y = 7,14x + 21y = 49 has

a) infinitely many solutions b) a unique solution
c) no solution d) finitely many solutions

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Answer Key
Rankers Academy JEE Best Educational ERP/LMS Solution

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

Ans. A B A A C C A C A A

Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. B C A B B D B A D C

Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

Ans. C B B B A B C D B A

Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. C B A B C C B C A A

Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50

Ans. C D D C A B B C D C

Que. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. A C A C B B D B B A

Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70

Ans. C C D C D B D D A C

Que. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. B D C B B B B D B A

Que. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

Ans. D A B C D C D A A C

Que. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. A C C B D A A D B D

Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110

Ans. D C A A A A A D C A

Que. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

Ans. C D B D A C B D D D

Que. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130

Ans. A A A B A C D C C A

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