WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS

1. If the momentum of a body increases by 100%, what is the % change in its kinetic energy?
a) increases by 200% b) decreases by 100%
c) increases by 300% d) increases by 400%
2. Planck’s constant has the dimensions of:
a) energy b) mass
c) frequency d) angular momentum
3. The value of acceleration due to gravity at a depth below earth’s surface is one-fourth of its
value on the surface. The depth will be nearly:
1
a) 3 4 R b) 2 R

2 3
c) 3 R d) 4 R

4. A person with his hands in his pocket is skating on ice at the rate of 10 m/s and describes a
circle of radius 50m. What is his inclination to the vertical?
a) tan-1( ½ ) b) tan-1 (1/5)
c) tan-1(3/5) d) tan-1(1/10)
5. Two spherical soap bubbles of radii r1& r2 in vacuum coalesce under isothermal condition. The
resulting bubble has radius R such that:
r1 + r2
a) R = 2 b) R = r12 + r22
r1 - r2 r1 r2
c) R = 2 d) R = r + r
1 2

6. Equation of motion of a particle executing SHM is a + 162x = 0, where a is linear acceleration

in ms-2 at a displacement x (in meter) of the particle. The time period of SHM is:
a) ¼ S b) ½ S
c) 1 S d) 2 S
7. A water fall is 84m high. Assuming that half the kinetic energy of falling water gets converted
to heat, the rise in temperature of water is:
a) 0.098C b) 0.98C
c) 9.8C d) 0.0098C
8. A spherical body with a radius of 12cm radiates 450 w power at temperature 500k. If the radius
were halved and the temperature doubled. The power radiated in watt should be:
a) 225 b) 450
c) 900 d) 1800
x
9. A transverse wave is described by the equation y = y0 sin 2(ft - l ). The maximum particle
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if:
y0 y0
a)  = 4 b)  = 2
c)  = y0 d)  = 2y0
10. In stationary waves, antinodes are the points where there is:
a) minimum displacement and minimum pressure change
b) minimum displacement and maximum pressure change
c) maximum displacement and maximum pressure change
d) maximum displacement and minimum pressure change
11. According to Hygen’s theory a point on any wave front may be regarded as:
a) a photon b) an electron
c) a new source of waves d) a neutron

1
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
12. Large aperture telescopes are used for:
a) greater magnification b) high resolution
c) reducing lens aberration d) low dispersion
13. n-equal capacitors are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of maximum to
minimum capacitance is:
1
a) n2 b) n
1
c) n d) n2
14. The resistance of a metal increases with increasing temperature because:
a) the collisions of the conducting electrons with one another increases
b) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the lattice consisting of ions of the metal increase
c) the number of conduction electrons decreases
d) the number of conduction electrons increases
15. Two long parallel wires carry equal current I in the same direction. The length of each wire is l
and the distance between them is a. Force acting on each wire is:
0lI2 0Il
a) b)
2a 2a2
 0l 2I 2 0Il2
c) d)
4a2 4a2
16. Power delivered by the source to the circuit is maximum when
1
a) WL = WC b) WL = WC

c) WL = WC2 d) WL = WC
17. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends
upon:
a) the rates at which currents are changing in the two coils
b) relative position and orientation of the two coils
c) the materials of the wires of coils
d) the currents in the two coils
18. The number of -particles and B-particles respectively emitted in the reaction 88A19678B164 are:
a) 8 and 8 b) 8 and 6
c) 6 and 8 d) 8 and 4
19. The semiconductor at room temperature:
a) The valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
b) the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled
c) the valence band is completely filled
d) the conduction band is completely empty
20. A rectifier converts:
a) mechanical energy to electrical energy b) light energy to electrical energy
c) A.C to D.C d) none of these
21. The radii of F, F¯, O and O2– are in the order of:
a) O2–> F¯ > F > O b) F¯ > O2–> F > O
c) O > O > F¯ > F
2– d) O2–> F¯ > O > F
22. Spelter is:
a) impure zinc b) impure iron
c) pure zinc d) pure Al
23. Which of the following pairs will not produce dihydrogen gas?
a) Cu + HCl (dil) b) Fe + H2SO4
c) Mg + Steam d) Na + alcohol

2
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
24. Caessium oxide will be:
a) very strongly basic b) acidic
c) weakly basic d) amphoteric
25. PbO2 on reaction with HNO3 gives gas:
a) NO2 b) O2
c) N2 d) N2O
26. The electron affinity of halogens shows the order:
a) I > Cl > F > Br b) Cl > F > Br > I
c) F > Cl > I > Br d) F > I > Cl > Br
27. Schweitzer’s reagent used for dissolving cellulose in the manufacture of artificial silk is:
a) CuSO4. 5H2O b) CuI
c) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 d) Cu(CH3COO)3. Cu(OH)2
28. The number of isomers for the aromatic compound of the formula C7H8O is:
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 5
29. The number of different substitution products possible when ethane is allowed to react with
chlorine in sunlight are:
a) 9 b) 6
c) 8 d) 5
30. Which of the following species is paramagnetic?
a) A carbonium ion b) A free radical
c) A carbanion ion d) All of these
31. A mixture of ethyl iodide and n-propyl iodide is subjected to Wurtz reaction. The hydrocarbon
that will not be formed is:
a) n-butane b) n-propane
c) n-pentane d) n-hexane
32. When vinyl chloride is passed through alcoholic KOH solution?
a) It dissolves b) It forms vinyl alcohol
c) It forms acetylene d) It has no action

33. CH  CH O 3/NaOH
  𝐗 Z n/CH3COOH
   Y is:
a) CH2OH – CH2OH b) CH3CH2OH
c) CH3COOH d) CH3OH
34. When vapours of acetic acid are passed over ................... at 300ºC, we get acetone.
a) Al2O3 b) CuO
c) MoO d) Cu
35. When acetamide is hydrolysed by boiling with acid, the product formed is:
a) acetic acid b) ethyl amine
c) C2H5OH d) acetamide
36. Among the following phenol, benzoic acid, nitrobenzene and toluene, the compound that
undergoes nitration readily is:
a) benzoic acid b) toluene
c) phenol d) nitrobenzene
37. Glucose and fructose are readily distinguished by using:
a) Molisch test b) Salivanoff test
c) Tollen’s reagent d) none of these
38. The charge to mass ratio of - particles is approximately …. the charge to mass ratio of protons
a) twice b) half
c) four times d) six times

3
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
39. The mass of 60% HCl required for the neutralization of 10L of 0.1M KOH is
a) 60.8g b) 21.9g
c) 100g d) 219g

40. In the reaction H3PO4+NaOH 

 NaH2PO4+H2O, the equivalent mass of phosphoric acid is
a) 98 b) 49
c) 196 d) 24.5
41. Which of the following molecule does not contain the covalent bond between similar atoms?
a) N2H4 b) F2O2
c) H2F2 d) H2O2.
42. The geometry and hybrid orbitals present around the central atoms in BF3 is
a) linear, sp b) triagonal planar, sp2
c) tetrahedral, sp3 d) pyramidal, sp3
43. Which of the following process represents disproportionation reaction?

a) Cu+4HNO3  Cu(NO3)2+ 2NO2 + 2H2O b) 3I2 + 6OH −  IO 3 +5I− + 3H2O
c) Cl2 + I2  2ICl d) Zn + 2HCl  ZnCl2 + H2.
44. How much copper can be deposited by 2.5 Faraday of electricity?
a) 2 moles b) 2.5 moles
c) 1.25 moles d) 0.125 moles
45. K for a zero order reaction is 2 × 10–2 mol L–1 sec. If the concentration of the reactant after 25 sec
is 0.5 M, the initial concentration must have been:
a) 0.5 M b) 1.25 M
c) 12.5 M d) 1.0 M
46. 56 g of N2 is mixed with 44 g of CO2 in a container in which the total pressure at 20°C was
recorded as P atm. The partial pressure of N2 in the container is
a) P atm b) P/3 atm
c) P/2 atm d) 2P/3 atm
47. For the reaction,
C(s) + CO2(g) ⇋ 2CO(g), the partial pressures of CO2 and CO are 2.0 and 4.0 atm respectively.
The Kp for the reaction is:
a) 2.0 atm b) 0.5 atm
c) 4.0 atm d) 8.0 atm
48. pH of an aqueous solution is 5.5. The hydroxyl ion conc. in the solution would be (at 25°C)
a) −5.5 b) – 8.5
c) 10-8.5 d) 108.5.

49. In the reaction, AlCl3 + Cl─  AlCl 4 , AlCl3 acts as a
a) Salt b) Lewis acid
c) Lewis base d) Bronsted base.
50. Which of the following is an extensive property?
a) Temperature b) Pressure
c) Mass/volume ratio d) energy
51. Virus is living due to
a) replication of themselves b) absence of metabolism
c) presence of genetic material d) capability of infections
52. White rust of crucifers is a/an
a) algae b) bacteria
c) virus d) fungi

4
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
53. Phycophages are groups of
a)virus b) algae
c) bacteria d) protista
ss54. When moss spores germinate, they form
a) protonema which bears archegonia and antheridia
b) leafy gametophyte directly
c) capsule directly
d) firstprotonema then from leafy gametophyte
55. Habit of a garden fern plant is
a) tree like b) annual habit
c) biennial herb d) perennial herb
56. The formation of pitcher can be increased by
a) Mg scarcity b) Fe scarcity
c) N2 scarcity d) Zn scarcity
57. The ratio of male and female flowers in cyathium is
a) many :many b) one : many
c) one : one d) many : one
58. Millet belongs to the genus
a) Eleusine b)Triticum
c)Hordeum d)Pennisetum
59. Advance type of stellar system is
a) dictyostele b) protostele
c) solenostele d) siphonostele
60. In which region the radiant energy is converted chemical energy?
a) stroma b) matrix
c) lamella d) grana
61. The multiple fusion of male gametes with single egg cell is
a) polyembryony b) apospory
c) polyspermy d) polyspory
62. The cellular structure responsible for storage of inclusion is
a) spaherosome b) lysosome
c) vacuole d) peroxisome
63. Replication of other than protoplasmic DNA occurs during
a) S phase b) G1 phase
c) G2 phase d) any phase
64. A child is born with an extra chromosome in each of its cells, and it isdue to
a) non-disjunction b) crossing over
c) segregation d) hybridization
65. The structure having pollen chamber is
a) embryo sac b) pollen grain
c) pollen tube d) ovule
66. The number of seed coats in gymnosperms
a) 1 or 2 b) 2 or many
c) always one d) usually many

5
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
67. Development of male and female sex organs at two different times is
a) dichogamy b) geitonogamy
c) homogamy d) cleitogamy
68. Common feature of lenticel and hydathodes is
a) allow exchange of gases b) no regulation of opening & closing
c) occurrence on some organ of plants d) only presence on stems
69. Genetic engineering is impossible without
a) virus b) bacteria
c) yeast d) ribosomes
70. DNA finger printing is useful for the study of
a) identity and relationship b) polymorphism
c) Forensic d) all of these
71. Yoghurt is produced from curdling of milk with the help of
a) Lactobacillus bulgaricus b) Streptomycessp
c) Lactobacillus cremonis d) Penicilliumcamembertis
72. Plant growth can be measured by using
a) photometer b) auxanometer
c) potometer d) respirometer
73. The phenotypic ration 1:4:6:4:1 indicates
a) monogenic inheritance b) polygenic inheritance
c) multipleallelism d) pleiotropism
74. Closed vascular bundle lacks
a) ground tissues b) conjunctive tissues
c) cambium d) pith
75. Interferons are
a) lipids b) nucleotides
c) pesticides d) proteins
76. Which of the following can start exo-erythrocytic schizogony in Plasmodium vivax?
a) sporozoites b) cryptomerozoites
c) micro-metacryptomerozoites d) macro-metacryptomerozoites
77. Radula is present in
a) Coelenterata b) Cnidarians
c) Arthropoda d) Mollusca
78. The Coelom not lined by mesoderm is found in:
a) Earthworm b) Nematodes
c) Echinoderms d) Platyhelminthes
79. Lateral hearts of Pheretima found in _______ segments:
a)12 and 13 b) 7 and 9
c) 15 and 16 d) 3 and 6
80. Salamander is a/an
a) Bird b) Amphibian
c) Mollusc d) Echinoderm
81. The secretion of which of the following provide nutrition to the eggs in platyhelminthes:
a) Mehlis gland b) Vitelline gland
c) Prostate gland d) Accessory gland

6
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
82. Pepsinogen is secreted from
a) Argentaffin cells b) Goblet cells
c) Chief cells d) Parietal cells
83. The closet relative of modern man is considered to be
a) Orangutan b) Gibbon
c) Chimpanzee d) Gorilla
84. 'Ontogeny repeats phylogeny'. This phenomenon is explained by:
a) Mutation theory b) Inheritance theory
c) Recapitulation theory d) Natural selection theory
85. This is not the cells of areolar tissue:
a) Plasma cell b) Adipose cell
c) Macrophages d) Schwann cell
86. .Cranial nerve showing maximum branching is:
a) Vagus b) Optic
c) Fascial d) Trigeminal
87. A cotyloid bone is found in:
a) Pelvic girdle of rabbit b) Pectoral girdle of rabbit
c) Lower jaw of rabbit d) Vertebral column of
88. Which of these is formed during gastrulation?
a) Blastocoel b) Archenteron
c) Notochord d) Nerve cord
89. Muscle spasms may occur in the deficiency of:
a) Thyroxin b) Parathyroid hormone
c) Testosterone d) Vasopressin
90. Role of pacemaker is to:
a) Increase heartbeat b) Decrease heartbeat
c) Initiate heartbeat d) Control blood supply to heart
91. Which is not involved in respiration of frog?
a) Diaphragm b) Lungs
c) Skin d) Buccal cavity
92. Capacitation of sperms occurs in:
a) vagina b) vas deferns
c) vas efferens d) female genital tract
93. Most common helminthic/worm infestation in Nepal is:
a) Ancylostomiasis b) Trichuriasis
c) Ascariasis d) Enterobiasis
94. Orientation in response to electric current is:
a) Mnemotaxis b) Galvanotaxis
c) Rheotaxis d) Telotaxis
95. Sword fish migrating from surface to great depth of water is:
a) latitudinal migration b) vertical migration
c) horizontal migration d) anadromous migration
96. Study of ticks and mites comes under:
a) Entomology b) Acarology
c) Lepidopterology d) Malacology

7
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
97. Total number of paramecia formed after conjugation:
a) 2 b) 4
c) 8 d) 16
98. In the internal ear, the 'organ of corti' which bears hair cells is located in:
a) Sacculus b) Scala media
c) Scala tympani d) Scala vestibuli
99. Cartilage of santorni is found in:
a) Cranium of frog b) Pharynx of frog
c) Larynx of human d) Skull of rabbit
100. Contraction of sternohyal muscles during breathing in frog:
a) Closes glottis b) Opens the nostril
c) Raises floor of oral cavity d) Lowers the floor of oral cavity
101. The temperature at which the water vapour in the atmosphere is saturated is:
a) Critical temperature b) Dew point
c) both d) None
CP
102. If gas has f degree of freedom, then the ratio of C :
V
1+f f 1+2 2
a) 2 b) 1 + 2 c) f d) 1 + f

103. For minimum deviation inside the prism, the angle of emergence should be equal to:
a) angle of prism b) angle of incidence
c) angle of refraction d) angle of deviation
104. The distance in between two slits is 1 mm are illuminated with a light of wavelength 6 × 10–7
m. The distance in between slit and screen is 1 m. Then the separation in between 3rd dark and
5th bright fringe is:
a) 0.6 mm b) 1.5 mm
c) 3 mm d) 4.5 mm
105. The physical quantity which has dimensions [MT–3] is:
a) surface tension b) solar constant
c) density d) compressibility
 ^ ^
106. The position vector of a particle is r = (a cos t) i + (a sin t) j The velocity of the particle is
a) parallel to position vector b) perpendicular to position vector
c) directed towards origin d) directed away from the origin
107. A particle of mass m is projected with velocity u making an angle of 45 with the horizontal.
When the particle lands on the level ground the magnitude of the change in its momentum
will be:
a) mu 2 b) zero
mu
c) 2 mu d)
2
108. A body slides down a friction less track which ends in a circular loop of diameter D. Then the
minimum height h of the body in terms of D so that it may just complete the loop is:
5 3
a) h = 2 D b) 2 D

5
c) 4 D d) h = 2D

8
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
109. The escape velocity for a planet is ve. A tunnel is dug along a diameter of the planet and a
small body is dropped into it at the surface. When the body reaches the centre of the planet, its
speed will be:
ve
a) zero b) 2

ve
c) d) ve
2
1
110. When the kinetic energy of the body executing SHM is 3 of the potential energy, the
displacement of the body is x% of the amplitude, where x is:
a) 33 b) 87
c) 67 d) 50
111. A source of sound of frequency 90 Hz is approaching a stationary observer with a speed equal
1
to 10 th speed of sound. The frequency heard by observer will be:
a) 80Hz b) 90Hz
c) 100Hz d) 120Hz
112. An open and closed organ pipe have the same length. The ratio of P th of frequency of
vibration of two pipes is:
a) 1 b) p
2p
c) p(2p + 1) d) 2p - 1

113. Metallic sphere of radius R is charged to potential V. Then charge q is proportional to:
a) V b) R
c) both d) none
114. The current in a conductor varies with time t as I = 2t + 3t2. Electric charge flowing through a
section of the conductor during t = 2sec to t = 3sec is:
a) 10C b) 24C
c) 33C d) 44C
115. Resistance in two gaps of a meter bridge are 10  and 30 respectively. If the resistances
interchanged the balance point shifts by:
a) 33.3 cm b) 66.67 cm
c) 25 cm d) 50 cm
116. A moving charge will produce:
a) no field b) an electric field
c) a magnetic field d) both b & c
117. A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V mains. If the main current is
0.5 amp, the efficiency of the transformer is:
a) 50% b) 90.9%
c) 10% d) 30%
118. To explain his theory, Bohr used:
a) conservation of linear momentum b) conservation of angular momentum
c) conservation of quantum frequency d) conservation of energy
119. Radioactivity is:
a) irreversible process b) self disintegration process
c) spontaneous d) all of the above

9
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
120. When a semiconductor is heated, its resistance:
a) decreases b) increases
c) remains unchanged d) nothing is definite
121. The number of orbitals in the fourth energy level is
a) 4 b) 16
c) 32 d) 9
122. Rutherford’s experiment led to the discovery of
a) Nucleus b) Electron
c) Proton d) -particle
123. In which, out of the following pairs, the bond dissociation energy of second species is larger
than the first ?
a) Br2, I2 b) Cl2, Br2
c) F2, Cl2 d) Cl2, F2.
124. The number of moles of KI required to produce 0.4 moles of K2HgI4 by reaction with HgCl2 is
a) 0.4 b) 0.8
c) 3.2 d) 1.6
125. The molality of a solution containing 5 g of sodium hydroxide in 255 g of solution
a) 0.5 m b) 1.0 m
c) 2.0 m d) 0.1 m
126. In which of the compound, iron has lowest oxidation state
a) K4[Fe(CN)6] b) FeCl3
c) Fe(CO)5 d) FeCl2.
127. In the cell, Zn|Zn2+ Cu2+ |Cu the negative terminal is:
a) Cu b) Cu2+
c) Zn d) Zn2+
128. The unit of rate constant for a third order reaction is
a) mol L−1 s−1 b) L mol−1 s−1
c) mol2 L−2 s−1 d) L2 mol−2 s−1.
129. At 27ºC gas was compressed to half of its volume. To what temperature must it be now heated
so that it occupies just its original volume, pressure remaining constant?
a) 54ºC b) 600ºC
c) 327ºC d) 327 K
M M
130. 200 mL of 50 HCl are mixed with 100 mL of 100 HCl, the pH of the resulting solution would be

a) 2.22 b) 1.78
c) 2 d) zero
131. The conjugate base of HPO42− is
a) PO43− b) H2PO4−
c) H3PO4 d) H3PO3
132. The reaction in which the yield of the products cannot be increased by the application of high
pressure is
a) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ⇋ PCl5(g) b) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇋ 2NO(g)
c) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇋ 2NH3(g) d) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇋ 2SO3(g)
133. For an isothermal cyclic process, the net energy change
a) > 0 b) ≥ 0
c) < 0 d) ≤ 0

10
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
134. Given
C + 2S  CS2 ;  Ho = + 117 KJ
C +O2  CO2 ;  Ho = –393 KJ
S + O2  SO2 ;  Ho = – 297 KJ.
The value of  Hcombustion of carbon disulphide is kJ mol–1 is
a) –1104 b) +1104
c) +807 d) –807
135. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can form more than one binary compound with
chlorine is:
a) Fe b) Zn
c) K d) Ca
136. In which of the following processes, maximum energy is released?
a) O(g)+e O (g) b) O (g)+e O2 (g)
   
c) S(g)+e  S (g) d) S (g)+e  S2 (g)
137. The correct order of radii is:
a) N < Be <B b) F< O2< N3
c) Na < Li < K d) Fe3+< Fe2+< Fe
138. Sulphide ores of metals are usually concentrated by froth floatation process. Which of the
following sulphide ores offers an exception and is concentrated by leaching?
a) Galena b) copper pyrite
c) sphlarite d) argentite
139. An aqueous solution of sodium salt (NaX) on boiling with MgCl2 gives white precipitate,
hence anion X is:
a) HCO3 b) NO3

c) CO32 d) SO42
140. Blanc fire used in paints is:
a) Finely divided BaSO4 b) paste of Ba(OH)2
c) Suspension of Ca(OH)2 d) MgCl2.5MgO.5H2O
141. Be and Al exhibits many properties which are similar. But the two elements differ in:
a) exhibiting amphoteric nature in their oxides b) forming polymeric hydrides
c) forming covalent hydrides d) exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds
142. Acetylene on reacting with hypochlorous acid gives:
a) CH3COCl b) ClCH2CHO
c) Cl2CHCHO d) ClCH2COOH
143. Total number of isomeric aldehydes and ketones that can exist with the molecular formula
C5H10O:
a) 5 b) 8
c) 6 d) 7
144. Ethyl alcohol does not give ethyl chloride on treatment with:
a) Cl2 b) SOCl2
c) PCl5 d) PCl3
145. When phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with t – butanol, the product would be:
a) C6H6 b) C6H5OH
c) t – butyl benzene d) t – butyl phenyl ether
146. Towards electrophilic substitution, the most reactive is:
a) nitrobenzene b) aniline
c) aniline hydrochloride d) N-acetylaniline

11
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
147. An acyl chloride is formed by reacting PCl5 with an:
a) acid b) alcohol
c) amide d) both acid and amide
148. 1% solution of phenol is used as:
a) an antiseptic b) a disinfectant
c) an insecticide d) a styptic
149. Which s most stable carbocation?
a) n-Propyl cation b) Isopropyl cation
c) Ethyl cation d) Triphenylmethyl cation
150. Which one is chain-growth polymer?
a) Bakelite b) Nylon-6
c) Polyethene d) Dacron
151. Endophytic algae is
a) Anthocerus b) Anabaena
c) lichens d) Cycas
152. The wall of fungi contains
a) glucose b) dextrose
c) glucosamine d) murein
153. Paraphysis is responsible for
a) spore dispersal b) development of antherozoids
c) female gamete dispersal d) microspore dispersal
154. Indusium of fern is sporophytic structure having
a) heart shape b) umbrella shape
c) disc shape d) kidney shape
155. The prothalial cell of gymnosperms is
a) male sporophytic b) male gametophytic
c) embryonic d) female gametophytic
156. Inflorescence become edible fruit in
a) cabbage b) grapes
c) papaya d) mulberry
157. Hesperidium is
a) fruit b) inflorescence
c) aggregate fruit d) modified flower
158. Parthenium and Yucca belong to
a) Malvaceae and Leguminosae b) Asteraceae and Liliaceae
c) Leguminosae and Asteraceae d) Asteraceae and Malvaceae
159. Impermeable layer of cork cell is due to
a) lignin b) pectin
c) suberin d) xylan
160. Action spectrum of transpiration is
a) blue and red b) blue and green
c) red and green d) red and yellow
161. When cytochromes are removed from cell,
a) respiration stops b) photosynthesis stop
c) metabolism stops d) respiration and photosynthesis stops
162. Zymogen granules and membrane protein are synthesized by
a) Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi bodies b) Mitochondrion and ER
c) Golgi bodies and ER d) Ribosomes and Golgi bodies

12
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
163. Strong acidic organelle of plant cell is
a) lysosome b) mitochondria
c) vacuole d) Golgi bodies
164. Lagging strand is
a) strand formed by joining Okazaki segments b) RNA strand
c) later formed DNA strand d) template DNA
165. The functional megaspore undergoes ………………..to produce mature female gametophyte.
a) 2 meiotic divisions b) 3 mitotic divisions
c) 2 mitotic divisions d) 3 meiotic divisions
166. Parthenocarpic fruits can be produced by the application of
a) IAA b) IBA
c) gibberellin d) cytokinin
167. Dichogamy is related with
a) prepotency b) protandry
c) heterostyly d) herkogamy
168. Ecologically most important biotic factor of ecosystem is
a) producer b) consumer
c) decomposer d) primary consumer
169. Genetic engineering is impossible without
a) bacteria b) fungi
c) virus d) DNA ligase
170. The descendants of a true breeding organism for many generationsconstitute
a) pure lines b) heterozygous
c) homozygous d) none of these
171. Which organelle is associated with mucilage formation?
a) Mitochondria b) Dictyosome
c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Lysosome
172. The progressive replacement of communities is
a) nudation b) colonisation
c) succession d) migration
173. In prokaryotes, the photosynthesis occurs within the
a) plastid b) cytoplasm
c) mitochondria d) lamella thylakoids
174. Parasitic gametophyte generation is dominant in
a) pteridophyta b) bryophyta
c) gymnosperms d) algae
175. The protected area associated with conservation of swamp deer is
a) Langtang NP b) Sagarmatha NP
c) Rara NP d) Shuklaphanta WLR
176. In frog's egg during fertilization sperm penetrates ovum at its:
a) Vegetal pole b) Non-pigmented area
c) Grey crescent d) Animal pole
177. Which are the exclusively marine molluscs?
a) Gastropoda b) Bivalvia
c) Cephalopoda d) Univalvia
178. In rabbit, metatarsals are situated in:
a) Wrist b) Instep
c) Ankle d) Shank

13
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
179. Maggot of houseflies refers to: 
a) egg b) pupa
c) cocoon d) larva
180. Greater trochanter is a part of:
a) Humerus of rabbit b) Femur of rabbit
c) Pelvic girdle of frog d) Antenna of cockroach
181. Coxal glands are the excretory organ of:
a) Cray fish b) Devil fish
c) Jelly fish d) Araenea
182. In vertebrates limb is penta - dactyl but reduces to one or two and digits ends in hoof for:
a) Desert adaptation b) Cursorial adaptation
c) Aerial adaptation d) Arboreal adaptation
183. Tunnas fish have the migration type called:
a) Anadromous b) Catadromous
c) Ocenodromous d) Potamodromous
184. Secretion of which of the following structure prepares inner wall of uterus for implantation? 
a) Thyroid gland b) Pituitary gland
c) Corpus luteum d) Prothoracic gland
185. Seymouria is a connecting link between:
a) Reptile and Aves b) Amphibia and reptiles
c) Reptiles and mammals d) Dinosaurs and mammals
186. The man who first draws carved stone pictures of animals in his caves was:
a) Neanderthal man b) Cro-Magnon man
c) Peking man d) Java man
187. Cestodes are distinguished from other flatworms by the absence of:
a) nervous system b) digestive system
c) excretory system d) reproductive system
188. Internal carotid artery supply blood to:
a) kidney b) liver
c) Brain d) Heart
189. In a weak electrical field Paramecium:
a) Dies b) Moves towards cathode
c) Encysts d) Moves towards anode
190. Malaria fever is characterized by release of:
a) cryptomerozoites b) Merozoites
c) schizont d) Trophozoite
191. Which of thefollowing is not associated with the formation of nerve ring in earthworm?
a) segmental ganglia b) cerebral ganglia
c) peri-pharyngeal connective d) sub-pharyngeal ganglia
192. Chylomicrons are concerned with:
a) Digestion of fats b) Absorption of fats
c) Digestion of proteins d) Absorption of proteins

14
WRC MECEE BASED MODEL QUESTIONS
193. Carcinoma refers to:
a) benign tumours of the connective tissue
b) malignant tumours of the connective tissue
c) malignant tumours of the skin or mucous membrane
d) malignant tumours of colon
194. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in:
a) male frog b) human male
c) human female d) both male and female frog
195. Deficiency of vitamin E brings about:
a) Scurvy b) Beri-beri
c) slow clotting of blood d) Impotence
196. Peyer’s patches contain:
a) mucus b) sebum
c) RBCs d) lymphocytes
197. Presence of blubber and flipper are best fitted for:
a) volant adaptation b) aquatic adaptation
c) cursorial adaptation d)fossorial adaptation
198. The marsupium is a characteristic of:
a) Carnivora b) Rodentia
c) Chiroptera d) Metatheria
199. In earthworm, the cells that are analogous to hepatic cells of vertebrates are:
a) amoeboid cells b) circular cells
c) mucous cells d) chloragogen cells
200. in which of the following animal, blood does not act as O2 carrier?
a) Nereis b) Cockroach
c) Frog d) Earthworm

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