GO FURTHER Chemical Engineering 2020

Physical and Chemical Principles

PRACTICE SET

1. Determine the number of electrons which has n = 3, l = 2

a. 2 b. 6 c. 10 d. 14

3+
2. The energy in kJ required per mole of beryllium ions( Be ) for its Paschen spectrum:
a. 3410 b. 2333 c. 670 d. 139

4
3. The mass of a particle in kg moving at 2 x 10 m/s with wavelength of 253 pm is nearly:
-35 -31 -20 -28
a. 3.4 x 10 b. 1.4 x 10 c. 7.2 x 10 d. 1.3 x 10

4. The work function for indium is 45.7 eV. Determine the cut-off wavelength of light necessary:
a. 13 nm b. 178 pm c. 27 nm d. 13,600 pm

2 2
5. A solution to the wave equation is f = x for 0 < x < 2. Determine the probability of finding the
particle at x = 0 to x = 1:
a. 0.5 b. 0.125 c. 0.75 d. 0.25

Balance the following reactions:

6. H2S + HCl + KMnO4 ---> S8 + MnCl2 + KCl + H2O

7. K2Cr2O7 + KCl + H2O ---> CrCl3 + Cl2 + KOH

8. HBr + CH3OH + NaMnO4 ---> HCOOH + MnBr2 + H2O

9. KCl + HCl + K2Cr2O7 + SO2 ---> CrCl3 + KHSO4 + H2O

10. H2O + H3AsO3 + I2 ---> H3AsO4 + HI

11. H3AsO4 + Zn + HNO3 --> AsH3 + Zn(NO3)2 + H2O

12. As + HClO3 + H2O ---> H3AsO3 + HClO

+ 2¯ 3+
13. H + Cr2O7 + CH3CH2OH ---> Cr + CH3CHO + H2O

14. Determine the empirical formula for a compound that is 70.79% carbon, 8.91% hydrogen,
4.59% nitrogen, and 15.72% oxygen.
a. C18H27NO3 b. C18H27NO2 c. C17H27NO3 d. C17H26NO3

15. 4.72 g of a compound of carbon, hydrogen, and silver was burned in an atmosphere of
oxygen, yielding 7.95 g of CO2, 1.02 g of H2O, and 3.02 g of a mixture of silver and silver
oxide. Because the production of this mixture yielded an indeterminate value for the amount of
silver, another sample of the compound weighing 8.12 g was reacted with a solution of NaCl,
yielding 5.57 g of AgCl. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
a. C5H5Ag b. C8H8Ag c. C8H5Cl d. C8H5Ag
16. To produce ferrocene one requires 2.33 g of C5H5 (65.0 g/mol) for every 1.00 g of Fe used
(55.9 g/mol). What is the value of x in the formula of ferrocene: Fe • x C5H5?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5

17. The analysis of 0.246 g of organic compound. gives 0.656 g CO 2, 0.134 g H2O, and 1.86 ×
10-3 mol N2 gas. What would be the empirical formula of this organic compound?
a. C3H3N b. C4H4N c. C2H2N2 d. C2H2N e. C3H3N2

18. How many grams of iron(II) sulfide is required to make 225 g of sulfuric acid, H2SO4?
a. 101 g b. 251 g c. 126 g d. 202 g e. 502 g

19. Choose the possible products for the nuclear reaction 40Ca + 4He(alpha).
a. 43Ar + n b. 43Sc + p c. 43Ca + n d. 42Ca + 2H

20. The charcoal from ashes found in a cave gave 3.34 14C counts per gram per minute. Wood
from the outer portion of a growing tree gives a comparable count of 16.0. The half-life of 14C
is 5700 years. How old are the ashes?
a. 8.93 × 103 yr b. 6.87 × 103 yr c. 1.29 × 104 yr d. 1.93 × 104 yr

21. A radioisotope X (wt = 187 amu) has a half-life of 45.3 minutes. Starting with 70 grams of the
radioisotope, what is the activity (in curies) after 2 hours?
8 7 10 7
a. 2.5 x 10 b. 4.7 x 10 c. 9.2 x 10 d. 1.2 x 10

22. The half-life of 238U, which decomposes to 206Pb, is 4.51 × 109 y. A rock contains equal
masses of these two isotopes. How old is this rock?
a. 4.07 × 109 y b. 4.06 × 109 y c. 9.02 × 109 y d. 5.00 × 109 y

23. Phosphorus-32 has a half-life of 14.3 days. How many grams remain from a 10.0 gram sample
after 30.0 days?
a. 2.34 g b. 7.18 g c. 4.64 g d. 0.340 g

24. What is the binding energy, in amu, of 13-C? mass of 13-C = 13.00335 amu.
a. 0.10432 amu b. 0.0102 amu c. 0.10487 amu d. 0.10817 amu

25. C-12 is bombarded with alpha particles to form O-16 nuclei. How much energy is produced
per gram of carbon used? Masses, in unified atomic mass units are: C-12 = 12.00000, alphe
particle = 4.00260, O-16= 15.99491. Express your answer in Joules/gram of carbon.
a. 2.10 × 1019 J/g c. 5.76 × 1010 J/g
b. 7.77 × 104 J/g d. 2.80 × 1011 J/g

26. How many unpaired electrons are in the ground state electron configuration of chromium?
a. 5 b. 6 c. 4 d. 2 e. 0

27. List in order of increasing atomic size: F, Na, K, Mg, Ne.

a. K < Mg < Ne < Na < F c. Ne < Mg < K < Na < F
b. Ne < F < Mg < Na < K d. Mg < F < Ne < Na < K

28. Arrange the following elements in order of increasing ionization energy: Cs, Sc, Mn.
a. Sc < Mn < Cs c. Sc < Cs < Mn
b. Cs < Mn < Sc d. Cs < Sc < Mn

29. Choose the paramagnetic atom or ion: Zn, Zn2+, Mn2+, Ar, Al3+.
a. Zn b. Zn2+ c. Mn2+ d. Ar e. Al3+

30. Which of the following must be paramagnetic?

a. F2 b. N2 c. SO2+ d. ClO2-

31. What is the formal charge on B in BF4-?

a. +1 b. -1 c. +2 d. -2
32. Determine the bond order of carbon monoxide:
b. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

33. What is the correct molecular geometry for SeBr3+?

a. trigonal pyramidal c. tetrahedral
b. trigonal planar d. bent

34. Which of the following molecules has both an electron group geometry and a molecular
geometry described as trigonal planar?
a. SiH4 b. PF3 c. OF2 d. CHF3 e. BF3

35. A 53.5 g of an ideal gas of molecular weight = 30.5 g/mol is confined at a pressure of 133
mmHg. The density of the gas is 0.228 g/L. Compute the temperature of the gas in degrees
Celsius.
a. 261°C b. 12.°C c. -57°C d. 285°C e. -12.°C

36. Three volumes of O2 and one volume of CH4 are placed in a sealed container. The
temperature and pressure of this mixture are 120°C and 600 kPa. What is the pressure in the
same container after the explosion of the mixture and after it was cooled to the initial
temperature?
a. 350 kPa b. 600 kPa c. 950 kPa d. 750 kPa e. 575 kPa

37. A 34.8 mL sample of an unknown, water-insoluble gas was collected over water at 22.6°C and
a barometric pressure of 0.895 atm. When the gas was dried and chilled, it formed 114.6 mg
of liquid. What was the molar mass of this substance? [The vapor pressure of water at
22.6°C is 20. mmHg]
a. 22.9 g/mol b. 38.4 g/mol c. 57.3 g/mol d. 84.2 g/mol e. 92.0 g/mol

38. A sample of N2(g) effuses through a tiny hole in 19.0 s. How long would it take for a sample of
N2O2(g) to effuse under the same conditions?
a. 27.8 s b. 13.0 s c. 8.87 s d. 40.7 s e. 19.0 s

39. Find the value of the Boyle temperature of nitrogen gas as predicted by the van derWaals
equation.
a. 433 K b. 568 K c. 797 K d. 1340 K

40. Approximate the atmospheric pressure at a height of 20 miles from sea level:
a. 43.3 kPa b. 1.8 kPa c. 0.07 kPa d. 5 Pa
2
41. Calculate the mean free path of molecules in carbon dioxide using σ = 0.52 nm at 25°C and
1.0 atm:
a. 15.8 nm b. 3.7 nm c. 89.4 nm d. 0.02 nm

42. The best laboratory vacuum pump can generate a vacuum of about 1Torr. At 25°C and
assuming that air consists of N2 molecules with a collision diameter of 395 pm the mean
speed of the molecules:
a. 129 m/s b. 1000 m/s c. 475 m/s d. none

43. A solid surface with dimensions 3.5 mm × 4.0 cm is exposed to helium gas at 111 Pa and
1500 K. How many collisions do the He atoms make with this surface in 10 s?
21 24 18
a. 5.3 x 10 b. 7.8 x 10 c. 5.2 x 10 d. none

44. The contact angle for water on clean glass is close to zero. Calculate the surface tension of
water at 30°C given that at that temperature water climbs to a height of 9.11 cm in a clean
3.
glass capillary tube of internal radius 0.320 mm. The density of water at 30°C is 0.9956 g/cm
b. 0.0712 b. 0.00721 c. 0.0645 d. 0.0832

45. Find the additional pressure inside a water droplet of radius 1.00 μm at 25◦C.
a. 3.42 atm b. 1.41 atm c. 2.33 atm d 0.422 atm
46. Calculate the pressure differential of water across the surface of a spherical droplet of radius
200 nm at 20°C.
a. 25 kPa b. 103 kPa c. 204 kPa d. 321 kPa

47. A steel ball ( s.g. = 7.86) 0.2 cm in diameter falls 10 cm through a viscous liquid ( s.g.= 1.50) in
25 s. What is the viscosity(centipoise) at this temperature?
a. 0.00346 b. 0.000346 c. 0.0346 d. 0.346

48. Determine the pH of a solution containing 0.534 M potassium acetate:

a. 8.12 b. 9.76 c. 9.24 d. 4.88
-4
49. What is the pH of a solution containing 1.496 M NH4OOCH (Ka for HCOOH = 1.8 x 10 )
b. 3.56 b. 4.86 c. 4.71 d. 5.28

50. A 32.43 mL solution containing acetic acid is standardized using 2.323 grams of sodium
carbonate. Determine the molarity of the solution:
a. 1.577 b. 0.531 c. 0.672 d. 1.349

51. Calculate the pH of a buffer solution made by mixing 3.21 grams of sodium benzoate (MW =
-5
144) in 300 mL of 0.205 M benzoic acid solution. (Ka of benzoic acid = 6.3 x 10 )
a. 3.76 b. 2.43 c. 3.11 d. 2.87

52. Determine the change in pH when 100 mL of 0.2 M NaOH is added to a 500 mL buffer
solution that is 0.07 M in NH4Cl and 0.01 M in NH4OH:
a. 1.07 b. 2.31 c. 0.65 d. 0.0833

Nos. 53-54: A 25 mL solution of acetic acid is titrated with 0.102 N NaOH and required
35.67 mL of the base to the bromothymol blue endpoint. Determine:

53. The concentration of the acetic acid solution, equiv/Li:

a. 0.173 b. 0.146 c. 0.086 d. 0.744

54. Predict the pH at the equivalence point:

a. 8.32 b. 7.84 c. 8.76 d. 9.28

Nos. 55-56: Supposing a 100 mL solution of a sodium salt NaX, where X is an unknown
anion, is titrated with 0.66 N sulphuric acid and required 16.5 mL of the acid to the methyl
orange end point. The pH at the end point is 3.45. Determine:

55. The concentration of the salt in the solution:

a. 0.231 N b. 0.188 N c. 0.074 N d. 0.109 N

56. Approximate the Ka of acid HX:

-6 -5 -6 -5
a. 9.00 x 10 b. 4.44 x 10 c. 1.35 x 10 d. 6.32 x 10

57. An antacid contains KOH, KHCO3, K2CO3, or combination of these. A 5.64 gram sample is
dissolved in 250 mL of flask and an aliquot of 20 mL is titrated with 0.093 N HCl and required
35.3 mL of the acid to the phenolphthalein endpoint. A yet another 20mL aliquot required 57.2
mL of the same titrant to the bromocresol green endpoint. Determine the composition of the
antacid:
a. KOH = 15.5%, K2CO3 = 62.4% c. KOH = 23.4%, K2CO3 = 62.4%
b. KOH = 15.5%, K2CO3 = 43.8% d. KOH = 23.4%, K2CO3 = 78.9%

58. Water of a cement plant contains certain hardness factor by Ca(OH)2, Ca(HCO3)2, CaCO3, or
combination of these. A 250 sample of water is treated with 0.098 M H2SO4 and required 17.1
mL of the acid to the phenolphthalein endpoint. Another 250 mL sample required 43.5 mL of
the same titrant to the methyl orange endpoint. Determine the hardness as ppm CaCO3:
a. 2300 b. 1700 c. 4600 d. 5000
 -9
59. Determine the solubility (g/ 100 g water) of Na2S in an aqueous solution, (Ksp = 3 x 10 )
a. 0.07 b. 0.007 c. 0.0007 d. 0.00007

60. The solubility of Al2(C2O4)3 in water is 0.005 mol/Li. Determine the Ksp of the salt:
-10 -9 -11
a. 3.34 x 10 b. 5.78 x10 c. 1.98 x 10 d. none of these
-10
61. How much more soluble is CrCl3(Ksp = 5.7 x 10 ) in pure water than in 0.005 M NaCl
solution?
6
a. 1280 times b. 18,800 times c. 230,000 times d. 10 times

62. What volume (mL) of 0.01 M KBr do we have to add in a 300 mL in order to precipitate half of
-9
the ZnBr2 in a saturated solution? Ksp = 1.2 x 10
a. 30.5 mL b. 52.2 mL c. 100.3 mL d. 12.3 mL

63. The amount of chloramine (NH2Cl) in a sample of municipal water is determined by Mohr
-
analysis by first sufficiently acidifying the water to liberate all the chlorides (Cl ). A 250 mL
required 45.67 mL of 0.0098 N AgNO3 to the dichromate end point. Determine the ppm
chloramine in water:
a. 140 b. 57 c. 92 d. 12

64. Supposing that the amount of nitrate form a eutrofied lake is determined by Volhard technique.
Supposing a 200 mL sample is treated with 37.8 mL of 0.0824 M AgCl. The excess silver is
back-titrated with excess 15.2 mL of 0.063 M KSCN. Finally the excess SCN- is back-titrated
with 9.3 mL of 0.104 M FeCl3 until brick red coloration appears. Express the nitrate content in
g/L of water sample:
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

65. H2S in scrubber water(„sour water‟) is determined by first treating a 20 mL sample it with drops
of concentrated NaOH. The sulphide is then titrated with 63.4 mL of 0.021 M AgNO 3. The
+
excess Ag is back-titrated with 28.5 mL of 0.037 M KSCN and further back-titrated with 10.7
mL of 0.208 FeBr3. Determine the % H2S in sour water:
a. 0.212% b. 3.12% c. 0.078% d. 1.77%

66. A 25.00 ml aliquot of a solution containing Cu2+ and Fe3+ was titrated with 16.06 ml of
0.05083 M EDTA. A second 25.00 ml aliquot of the Cu/Fe mixture was treated with NaF to
form a stable iron-fluoride complex (complexed Fe will not react with EDTA). This mixture was
then titrated with 0.05083 M EDTA and the endpoint volume was found to be 5.43 ml.
Calculate the molar concentrations of Fe3+:
a. 0.064 M b. 0.022 c. 0.014 M d. 0.0089 M

67. Sulfide ion was determined indirectly by titration with EDTA. A 25.00 ml aliquot of a solution
containing sulfide ions was added to 25.00 ml of a 0.015 M Cu2+ solution. The CuS precipitate
was filtered and washed with water. The pH of the combined filtrate and washings was then
adjusted by the addition of ammonia and the solution was titrated with 0.0133 M EDTA, using
a suitable indicator. The endpoint volume was found to be 12.11 ml. Find the molarity of the
sulfide in the sample solution.
a. 0.00856 b. 0.0723 c. 0.00043 d. 0.021

68. An alloy of chromel containing Ni, Fe, and Cr was analyzed by a complexation titration using
EDTA as the titrant. A 0.7176-g sample of the alloy was dissolved in HNO3 and diluted to 250
mL in a volumetric flask. A 50.00-mL aliquot of the sample, treated with pyrophosphate to
mask the Fe and Cr, required 26.14 mL of 0.05831 M EDTA to reach the murexide end point.
A second 50.00-mL aliquot was treated with hexamethylenetetramine to mask the Cr. Titrating
with 0.05831 M EDTA required 35.43 mL to reach the murexide end point. Finally, a third
50.00-mL aliquot was treated with 50.00 mL of 0.05831 M EDTA, and back titrated to the
murexide end point with 6.21 mL of 0.06316 M Cu2+. Report the weight percent of Cr in the
alloy.
a. 12% b. 23.5% c. 16.6% d. 18.1%
69. A 0.7336-g sample of an alloy containing copper and zinc is dissolved in 8 M HCl and diluted
to 100 mL in a volumetric flask. In one analysis, the zinc in a 25.00-mL portion of the solution
is precipitated as ZnNH4PO4, and subsequently isolated as Zn2P2O7, yielding 0.1163 g. The
copper in a separate 25.00-mL portion of the solution is treated to precipitate CuSCN, yielding
0.2931 g. Calculate the %w/w Cu in the sample.
a. 67.88% b. 45.32% c. 75.83% d. 83.84%

70. A sample of a silicate rock weighing 0.8143 g is brought into solution and treated to yield a
0.2692-g mixture of NaCl and KCl. The mixture of chloride salts is subsequently dissolved in a
mixture of ethanol and water, and treated with HClO4, precipitating 0.5713 g of KClO4. What is
the %w/w Na2O in the silicate rock?
a. 7.21% b. 9.03% c. 12.41% d. 2.78%

71. A 0.2356-g sample containing only NaCl (58.44 g/mol) and BaCl2 (208.23 g/mol) yielded
0.4637 g of dried AgCl (143.32 g/mol). Calculate the percent NaCl in the sample.
a. 42% b. 78% c. 55% d. 12%

72. 0.6113-g sample of Dow metal, containing aluminum, magnesium, and other metals, was
dissolved and treated to prevent interferences by the other metals. The aluminum and
magnesium were precipitated with 8-hydroxyquinoline. After filtering and drying, the mixture of
Al(C9H6NO)3 and Mg(C9H6NO)2 was found to weigh 7.8154 g. The mixture of dried precipitates
was then ignited, converting the precipitate to a mixture of Al2O3 and MgO. The weight of this
mixed solid was found to be 1.13297 g. Calculate the %w/w Al in the alloy.
a. 2.91% b. 7.82% c. 1.03% d. 14.2%

73. A 0.6407-g sample containing chloride and iodide ions gave a silver halide precipitate
weighing 0.4430 g. This precipitate was then strongly heated in a stream of Cl2 gas to convert
the AgI to AgCl; on completion of this treatment, the precipitate weighed 0.3181 g. Calculate
the percentage of chloride in the sample.
a. 4.72% b. 6.89% c. 12.41% d. 1.33%

74. The amount of Fe in a 0.4891-g sample of an ore was determined by a redox titration with
K2Cr2O7. The sample was dissolved in HCl and the iron brought into the +2 oxidation state
using a Jones reductor. Titration to the diphenylamine sulfonic acid end point required 36.92
mL of 0.02153 M K2Cr2O7. Report the iron content of the ore as %w/w Fe2O3.
a. 56.43% b. 77.86% c. 24.13% d. 42.63%

75. The purity of a sample of sodium oxalate, Na2C2O4, is determined by titrating with a standard
solution of KMnO4. If a 0.5116-g sample requires 35.62 mL of 0.0400 M KMnO4 to reach the
titration‟s end point, what is the %w/w Na2C2O4 in the sample.
a. 78% b. 80% c. 93% d. 98%

76. A solution containing nitrite is adjusted to pH = 3.5 and analyzed such that 35 mL of such
solution required 17.4 mL of 0.0754 M KMnO4, then back-titrated with 8.53 M 0.0435 M oxalic
acid solution. The ppm nitrite in the solution is approximately:
a. 3420 b. 1983 c. 3842 d. 2020

77. A 4.51 gram sample of brass containing copper is digested in acid and diluted to 200 mL. A 25
mL aliquot of the sample is treated with 78.43 mL of 0.0204 M K 2Cr2O7 and back titrated with
15.5 mL standard 0.086 M oxalic acid. The % Cu in brass sample is:
a. 53% b. 70% c. 79% d. 94%
78. A 25.00-mL sample of a liquid bleach was diluted to 1000 mL in a volumetric flask. A 25-mL
portion of the diluted sample was transferred by pipet into an Erlenmeyer flask and treated
– –
with excess KI, oxidizing the OCl– to Cl–, and producing I3 . The liberated I3 was determined
by titrating with 0.09892 M Na2S2O3, requiring 8.96 mL to reach the starch indicator end
point. Report the %w/v NaOCl in the sample of bleach.
a. 5. 28% b. 8.32% c. 1.22% d. 9.74%

79. A quantitative analysis for ethanol, C2H6O, can be accomplished by a redox back titration.
Ethanol is oxidized to acetic acid, C2H4O2, using excess dichromate, In a typical analysis, a
5.00-mL sample of a brandy is diluted to 500 mL in a volumetric flask. A 10.00-mL sample is
 taken and the ethanol is removed by distillation and collected in 50.00 mL of an acidified
2–
solution of 0.0200 M K2Cr2O7. A back titration of the unreacted Cr2O7 requires 21.48 mL of
0.1014 M Fe2+. Calculate the % mass/vol.
a. 34 b. 45 c. 78 d. 88

80. The amount of ascorbic acid, C6H8O6, in orange juice was determined by oxidizing the
ascorbic acid to dehydroascorbic acid, C6H6O6, with a known excess of I3–, and back titrating
–
the excess I3 with Na2S2O3. A 5.00-mL sample of filtered o range juice was treated with 50.00
–
mL of excess 0.01023 M I3 . After the oxidation was complete, 13.82 mL of 0.07203 M
Na2S2O3 was needed to reach the starch indicator end point. Report the concentration of
ascorbic acid in milligrams per 100 mL.
a. 48.6 b. 56.7 c. 12.9 d. 65.7

81. A sample has a percent transmittance of 50.0%. What is its absorbance?

a. 0.478 b. 0.335 c. 0.301 d. 0.215
–4
82. A 5.00 x 10 M solution of an analyte is placed in a sample cell that has a pathlength of 1.00
cm. When measured at a wavelength of 490 nm, the absorbance of the solution is found to be
0.338. What is the analyte‟s molar absorptivity at this wavelength?
a. 2918 b. 895 c. 4571 d. 676

83. There is a substance in a solution (4 g/liter). The length of cuvette is 2 cm and only 50% of the
certain light beam is transmitted. What is the absorption coefficient?
a. 0.0376 b. 0.0782 c. 0.00921 d. 0.00562

84. A solution with a “true” absorbance of 2.10 was placed in a spectrophotometer with a stray
light percentage (Ps/P0) of 0.75. What percentage error would result?
a. 8.4% b. 13.6% c. 9.5% d. 15.7%

85. The concentrations of Fe3+ and Cu2+ in a mixture can be determined following their reaction
3+
with hexacyanoruthenate (II), which forms a purple-blue complex with Fe (λmax = 550 nm),
2+ –1 –1
and a pale green complex with Cu (λmax = 396 nm). The molar absorptivities (M cm ) for
the metal complexes at the two wavelengths are summarized in the following table.
ε550 ε396
3+
Fe 9970 84
2+
Cu 34 856
3+ 2+
When a sample containing Fe and Cu is analyzed in a cell with a pathlength
of 1.00 cm, the absorbance at 550 nm is 0.183, and the absorbance at 396 nm is 0.109. What
3+
are the molar concentrations of Fe in the sample?
a. -6 -5 -6 -5
2.3 x 10 b. 1.1 x 10 c. 9.5 x 10 d. 1.8 x 10

86. Which of the following isomeric dienes is chiral?

a. 2,3-pentadiene c. 3-methyl-1,2-butadiene
b. 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene d. none, all are achiral

87. How many stereoisomers of (CH3)2CHCH=CHCH2CH(OH)CH2Br are possible?

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

88. The structural formula on the right is that of camphor. Which of the following
statements is correct?
a. This compound has two stereogenic centers and exists as a pair of enantiomers.
b. This compound is achiral.
c. This compound has three stereogenic centers and exists as a pair of enantiomers and a
meso isomer.
d. This compound does not have an enantiomer

89. The antimalarial alkaloid quinine, C20H24N2O2, is optically active. An ethanol solution of 8g
quinine in 100mL displays a rotation of -13.6º in a 1dm polarimeter tube. What is the specific
rotation of quinine?
a. -85º b. -170º c. -43º d. -26º
90. Examine the compound on the right. How many stereoisomers having this
constitution are possible?
a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

91. Pure (S)-2-butanol has a specific rotation of +13.52 degrees. You have made and purified a
sample that has a calculated specific rotation of +6.76 degrees. What can you conclude about
this sample?
a. the sample has completely racemized c. 30% of the sample has racemized
b. 50% of the sample has racemized d. 75% of the sample has racemized

92. Which of the following heterocyclic compounds

would have aromatic character?

93. The alkane CH3CH2C(CH3)2CH2CH(CH3)2 has how many 1º, 2º. 3º & 4º carbon atoms?

1º 2º 3º 4º 1º 2º 3º 4º
a. 4 2 2 1 c. 5 1 2 1
b. 5 2 1 1 d. 6 1 1 1

94. The terpene ocimene has the IUPAC name (3E)-3,7-dimethyl-1,3,6-octatriene, what is the
structural formula of this compound?

95. How many sp hybridized carbon atoms are present in a molecule of 3-methyl-4-vinyl-1,2-
heptadien-5-yne?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

96. Determine the degree of unsaturation of the following compound (DDT):

a. 6 b. 8 c. 12 d. 14

97. What is the IUPAC nomenclature for 3-bromo-2-neopentylhexane?

a. 5-bromo-2,2,4-trimethyloctane c. 4-bromo-3,3,4,5,-tetramethylheptane
b. 4-bromo-2,2,5-trimethylheptane d. 5-bromo-3,3,4,5,-tetramethylheptane

98. Treatment of 1-methylcyclohexene with an ether solution of diborane ( B2H6 ), followed by

reaction with alkaline H2O2 produces what product?
a. 1-methylcyclohexanol c. cis-1-methylcyclohexane-1,2-diol
b. cis-2-methylcyclohexanol d. trans-2-methylcyclohexanol

99. Which reaction conditions would best convert 3-hexyne to cis-3-hexene?

a. Pt catalyst and H2. c. Lindlar's Pd catalyst and H2.
b. Na in liquid NH3. d. NaNH2 in liquid NH3.

100. A C8H12 chiral hydrocarbon, X, is reduced by catalytic hydrogenation to an achiral C8H14

compound. Ozonolysis of X (H2O2 workup) gave a chiral C8H12O4 dicarboxylic acid. Which
of the following could be X ?

101. When HBr adds to 4-methylcyclopentene (Markovnikov), how many new stereogenic centers
are formed?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

102. Which of the following reactions is undergone by 2-choloro-2-sec-butylpentane:

a. SN1 and E1 b. SN2 and E1 c. SN1 only d. SN2 only
103. Predict the product X of the following reaction scheme:

propyne  H2/Pt  BH3/H2O2  X

a. n-propanol b. isopropanol c. isopropanone d. propanal

104. Predict the product of the following reaction scheme:

2-bromobutane KOH/C2H5OH  O3/Zn  LiAlH4  ?

b. 2-butanol b. 1-butanol c. 1-propanol d. ethanol

o
105. Determine the product when 2-methyl-1,3-butanediene is bubbled with ethene at 85 C:
a. 1-methylcyclohexane c. 1-methylcyclohexene
b. 3-methylcyclohexene d. 1-metylcyclopentene

106. What is the product of the following reaction scheme?

1-butene  HBr addition  KOH/EtOH  O3  CH3MgBr  ?

a. acetaldehyde b. isopropanol c. isobutanol d. acetic acid

107. Determine the product of the following series of reaction:

Benzene  HBr  CH3Cl/AlCl3  distillation of less volatile product  H2/Pt  KOH/EtoH

a. 1-methylcyclohexane c. 1-methylcyclohexene
b. 3-methylcyclohexene d. toluene

108. Which of the following disaccharide is alpha reducing?

a. 1--D glucopyranosyl-2-α-fructofuranose c. 2-α-D fructofuranosyl-2-α-fructofuranose
b. 1-α-D glucopyranosyl-1-α-glucopyranose d. 4--D glucopyranosyl-2--fructofuranose

109. Which of the following is the product of oxidizing an aldose?

a. alditol b. uronic acid c. ketol d. diacid

110. A certain fatty acid (MW = 628 g/mol) has an Iodine number of 161.78. Determine the
unsaturation of this acid:
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 c. 6

111. Mutton tallow (hard fat, triacylglycerol from sheep) used for the manufacture of „sebo de
o
macho‟ is analysed. A 5.630 gram sample of tallow is lyophilized in water at 65 C and some
1.213 grams of undissolved solids are filtered out. It is then treated with 67.44 mL of 0.5 M
KOH and back titrated with 12.7 mL of 0.20 M HCl solution. Determine the molecular weight of
the triacyglycerol in mutton tallow:
a. 570 b. 425 c. 732 d. 395

112. Compute the saponification number of the triacylglycerol in problem no 4:

a. 570 b. 425 c. 732 d. 395

113. Determine the number of amino acid/s that can be synthesized from the following ss DNA:

3‟-TAG GAC TAC TCC CCC GAC ATC TAT TAT GCC -5‟
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6

114. A cyanobacterium respiration constitutes glycolysis (2 ATP, 2 NADH), link reaction( 2 NADH),
and in its Krebs cycle synthesizes 2 NADH and 2 FADH2 but no ATP. Compute the total ATP
for every 1 glucose processed by the organism:
a. 22 b. 24 c. 32 d. 38
115. The percentage of U(uracil) in the electrophoretic analysis of an unknown infectious disease
double-stranded virus is 17.8%. Predict the % of G(guanine) in the virus:
a. 45.1% b. 46.3% c. 32.2% d. 29.2%

116. Albizzia Falcataria, a specie, of plywood, after an initial thermochemical hydrolysis yielded
25% maltose, 3% sucrose, 12% cellibiose, 43% oligosaccharides and 17% non carbohydrates
residues. The resulting hydrolyzate is passed through a column of immobilized enzyme
systems so that all types of dissacharides are converted further to hexose units. In alcohol
fermentation, the rule of thumb is 10% of the substrate is converted to biomass and 90% to
alcohol. 21. If one metric ton of pulpwood is processed daily, the mass of refined alcohol that
may be expected to be recovered if distillation efficiency is 95% is

a. 1,200 kg b. 1,162 kg c. 1,223 kg d. 1,322 kg

117. What is the “exact” alkalinity of a water that contains 0.6580 mg/L of bicarbonate, as the ion, at
a pH of 5.66?
a. 0.4302 b. 0.5624 c. 0.3723 d. 0.2128

118. Calculate the alkalinity of a water containing 120 mg/Li of bicarbonate ion and 15 mg/Li
carbonate ion if the pH is 9.43.
a. 123.35 b. 165.32 c. 78.56 d. 241.75

119. The BOD5 of a sample of effluent water is 23.67 mg/Li at de-aeration constant of 0.142/day.
Determine the ultimate BOD of the sample:
a. 78 b. 34 c. 48 d. 53

120. Supposing a 6.21 mL sample of waste water from San Jose river is obtained and diluted to a
300 mL BOD bottle. The blank water contains a BOD5 of 10 and UBOD of 30. The seeded
sample was analysed to contain BOD5 of 53 and BOD10 of 86. Determine the ultimate BOD
of the wastewater:
a. 5390 b. 3420 c. 2180 d. 2390
o
121. Distillation slops in a facultative pond at 25 C is analysed such that a 5 mL sample is diluted to
o
200 mL and analysed in a laboratory with T = 17 C. The ultimate BOD and BOD5 of the blank
o
sample are 5 and 0.3, respectively at 17 C. The loaded sample is found to have BOD5 of 12
and ultimate BOD of 23. Determine the ultimate BOD5 of the slops at the pond temperature:
a. 520 b. 625 c. 580 d. 685
3
6-7: A 2 m /s point effluent containing 250 mg/Li of glucose, and 40 mg/Li of ethanol and
3
dissolved oxygen of 10 mg/Li is releas ed in a river at 25 m /s (depth = 3.4 m, width = 120.6
m). The water upstream is 13 mg/L(saturated value) of dissolved oxygen and ultimate BOD of
10 mg/Li. The re-aeration and de-aeration constants are 0.47/day and 0.11/day, respectively.
Determine:
122. The dissolved oxygen 2 km downstream:
a. 11.5 b. 9.4 c.12.1 d. 5.3

123. Distance downstream where septic zone is (km):

b. 15 b. 8 c. 37 d. 21
3
124. After being clarified from the activated sludge clarifier, 1220 ft /min of water is released into a
3
creek running at 53,000 ft /min. The properties of the clarified liquid and the creek is given
below:
Dissolved O2, ppm ultimate BOD,ppm
Point source 8 100
Creek 15 7

The saturation level of O2 in the creek temperature is 18 ppm. If kr = 0.21/day and kd =

0.08/day. Determine the lowest possible value of dissolved oxygen in the creek:
a. 12.6 b. 14.8 c. 16.7 d. 10.3
 o
125. Determine the behaviour of the atmosphere from an analysis of T = 20 C at h = 124 m and T =
o
17.5 C at h = 250 m:
a. coning b. looping c. fanning d. stagnant

126. Approximate the air pressure (in atm) at an altitude of 2000 m for an atmosphere with lapse
0
rate of -0.015 C /m. Assume sea-level temperature of 298K:
a. 0.56 b. 0.78 c. 0.43 d. 0.92

127. By 2090, the albedo of the earth with decrease to only 0.25 due to continued human activity.
Accounting 20% increase due to global warming. Approximate the temperature of the earth at
2090:
o o o o
a. 40 C b. 35 C c. 32 C d. 46 C
o 3
128. Hot air at 70 C containing 35,000 ppm H2S is released at 14 m /s from a stack column of
diameter 1.5 m and 80 m high. The wind speed is 4 m/s. Assume standard deviations of s y =
230 m and sz = 150 for and overcast type D atmosphere, determine the concentration at a
nearby school that is 100 m from the centreline? Assume normal conditions for air.
a. 760 b. 7.6 c. 0.76 d. 0.076

129. An environmental engineer is to design a stack column which will emit gas containing 5000
3
g/m by mass particulate matter. The stack has an effective height of 70 meters and the stack
velocity is 10 m/s. The wind speed is 5 m/s with standard deviations of σ y =43 m and σz =1800
3
m. Determine the diameter of the column if the limiting centerline concentraion is 0.5 g/m :
a. 3.9 m b. 4.7 m c. 6.5 m d. 8.3 m

130. NCGD design company employs six people. Assuming that the density of uncompacted waste
−3
is 480 kg · m , determine the annual volume of solid waste produced by the stone works
−1
assuming a waste generation rate of 1 kg · capita · day.
3 3 3 3
a. 4.6 m /year b. 1.5 m /year c. 7.5 m /year d. 3.0 m /year

131. The San Carlos landfill serves a population of 562,400 people generating MSW at a rate of
1.89 kg · capita−1 · day. The volume of the landfill is 11,240,000 m3. At the present time, 63%
of the landfill is used. The ratio of cover to compacted fill is 1.9. Determine projected life
remaining for the landfill. Assume the density of the compacted waste to be 490 kg /m3.
a. 2.76 years b. 4.53 years c. 1.73 years d. 3.62 years

132. The city of Batangas, incinerates its biowaste, along with that of seven surrounding
municipalities, for energy production. The city operates two 17 MW biowaste-fueled boilers,
which burn 70,000 tonnes of waste per year. The overall efficiency of the system is 88%.
Calculate the mass of coal (in tonnes) that would need to be burned each day, if coal were
used in place of the biowaste. The coal has a heat content of 33,500 kJ · kg−1.
a. 77 b. 32 c. 12 d. 86