National Boards, Part 1

Released Questions
2006
1. Which of the following nerves innervates
the inferior buccal mucosa of the floor of the
oral cavity?
A. Facial
B. Trigeminal
C. Lingual
D. Mylohyoid
E. Hypoglossal

B
2. Each of the following structures increases
the surface area of the small intestine EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Villi
B. Rugae
C. Microvilli
D. Brush border
E. Circular folds

B
3. The inferior parathyroid gland develops
from which of the following structures?
A. Second pharyngeal arch
B. Fourth pharyngeal arch
C. Fifth pharyngeal arch
D. Third pharyngeal pouch
E. Fourth pharyngeal pouch

D
4. Which of the following controls parathyroid
gland function?
A. Thyroxin
B. Calcitonin
C. Blood levels of calcium
D. Blood levels of magnesium
E. Thyroid stimulating hormone

C
5. The splenic artery is a branch of which
of the following arteries?
A. Celiac
B. Left hepatic
C. Left gastric
D. Musculophrenic
E. Superior mesenteric

A
 6. Which of the following muscles participates
in flexion at the gleno-humeral and the
humero-ulnar joints?
A. Deltoid
B. Brachialis
C. Biceps brachii
D. Triceps brachii
E. Coracobrachialis

C
7. Cell bodies of sympathetic fibers in the
nerve of the pterygoid canal come from
which of the following?
A. Facial nerve
B. Superior cervical ganglion
C. Greater petrosal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
E. Otic ganglion

B
8. In the upper limb, which of the following
represents a hallmark of lymphatic vessels?
A. Contain valves
B. Follow the veins
C. Always travel in pairs
D. Only found on the anterior surface of
the limb
E. Contain fenestrations to allow passage
of fluids into the interstitium

B
9. Which of the following nerves is
associated with the second pharyngeal
arch?
A. Vagus
B. Glossopharyngeal
C. Accessory
D. Mandibular
E. Facial
V-3: first
rd
E
IX: 3
10. The muscles of facial expression
are derived from which of the following?
A. Frontonasal process
B. First arch: mastication, mylohyoid
C. Second arch: facial expression
D. Third arch
E. Fifth arch

C
11. Each of the following cranial nerves is
associated with the cavernous sinus (3.4.5.6)
EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Facial 7
B. Abducens 6
C. Trochlear 4
D. Trigeminal 5
E. Oculomotor 3
A
 12. Which of the following nerves
innervates the taste buds of the anterior
two-thirds of the tongue?
A. Vagus
B. Facial
C. Trigeminal
D. Hypoglossal
E. Glossopharyngeal

B
13. A deviation of the tongue, when
protruded, away from the midline results
from damage to which of the following
cranial nerves?
A. V
B. VII
C. X
D. XI
E. XII
E
14. Which of the following exhibits
phagocytic activity in the central nervous
system?
A. Ependymal cell
B. Microglial cell
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Fibrous astrocyte
E. Protoplasmic astrocyte

B
15. Each of the following cell layers is
derived from oral epithelium EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Dental follicle (from ectomesenchymal
tissue)
B. Stellate reticulum
C. Stratum intermedium
D. Inner enamel epithelium
E. Outer enamel epithelium
A
16. The nerves of the internal thoracic wall
lie immediately deep to which layer of the
wall?
A. External intercostal
B. Internal intercostal
C. Transversus thoracis
D. Parietal pleura
E. Subcostals

B
17. Which of the following represents the
condition in which a radiograph of a 10-
year-old patient's maxilla shows that two
succedaneous teeth are absent?
A. Mesiodens
B. Gemination
C. Dens in dente
D. Latent odontogenesis
E. Partial anodontia (hypodontia)

E
18. Where is the channel of communication
between the maxillary sinus and the nasal cavity
situated?
A. In the superior nasal meatus (frontonasal duct)
B. In the sphenoethmoidal recess (to sphenoid
sinus)
C. In the middle nasal meatus, at the semilunar
hiatus (maxillary and ethmoid sinuses)
D. At the anterior extremity of the inferior nasal
meatus (nasolacrimal duct)
E. At the posterior extremity of the inferior nasal
meatus
C
19. In the temporomandibular joint, a very dense
collection of organized elastic fibers is found in
which of the following areas of the articular disc?
A. Anterior band
B. Posterior band
C. Intermediate band
D. Posterior-inferior lamina of the bilaminar
zone (collagen)
E. Posterior-superior lamina of the bilaminar
zone (elastic)

E
20. Which of the following represents a
muscle that might assist in depressing the
mandible?
A. Masseter
B. Stylohyoid
C. Temporalis
D. Geniohyoid
E. Medial pterygoid

D
21. The organic component of dentin
is comprised primarily of
A. keratin.
B. reticular fibers.
C. type I collagen.
D. type II and III collagen.
E. oxytalan fibers.

C
22. Each of the following structures leaves the
cranium by way of the jugular foramen EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Cranial nerve IX
B. Cranial nerve X
C. Cranial nerve XI
D. Cranial nerve XII
E. Sigmoid sinus - internal jugular vein

D
23. Each of the following venous channels
has direct connections with the pterygoid
venous plexus EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A. Maxillary vein
B. Vertebral vein
C. Deep facial vein
D. Infraorbital vein
E. Posterior superior alveolar vein

B
24. Stimulation of the lesser petrosal nerve
in an adult causes secretion by which of the
following glands?
A. Parotid
B. Lacrimal (greater petrosal n., CNVII
branch)
C. Sublingual
D. Submandibular
E. Glands of the hard palate
A
25. Ameloblasts will not differentiate from
preameloblasts unless they
A. contact dentin.
B. are touched by odontoblast processes.
C. are touched by stratum intermedium.
D. contact stellate reticulum.
E. contact neural crest mesoderm.

B
26. Cells that will form the vertebrae have
their origin in which of the following?
A. Notochord
B. Neural arch
C. Dermamyotome
D. Two pairs of somites -> sclerotome
E. Intermediate mesodermal plate

D
27. The nasolacrimal duct drains into
which of the following?
A. Middle meatus
B. Inferior meatus
C. Superior meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess

B
28. The carotid sheath encloses each
of the following structures EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Vagus nerve
B. External carotid
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Common carotid artery

B
29. Following eruption and initial occlusal contact
in the oral cavity, a tooth will continue to erupt in
order to compensate for occlusal wear. In
response to this continuous eruption, which of the
following is deposited at the apex of the root?
A. Primary dentin
B. Secondary dentin
C. Reparative dentin
D. Cellular cementum
E. Acellular cementum

D
30. Which of the following cells is
most likely to be engaged in mitosis
at any given time?
A. Osteocyte
B. Macrophage
C. Plasma cell
D. Chondrocyte
E. Basal keratinocyte

E
31. Fibrocartilage normally occurs in
A. epiglottis.
B. external ear.
C. epiphyseal plate.
D. intervertebral discs.
E. C-shaped rings in the wall of the
trachea.

D
32. There is a distinct change in the type of
surface epithelium at the junction of the
A. oropharynx and esophagus. squamous
B. esophagus and stomach. mucous
cells
C. fundus and pylorus. Columnar cells
D. duodenum and jejunum. columnar
E. ileum and colon. columnar
B
33. In which of the following would
fenestrated capillary plexi be found?
A. Predentin
B. Dental pulp
C. Cellular cementum
D. Periodontal ligament
E. Reduced enamel epithelium

B
34. Submucosal glands are usually
located in the
A. fundus of stomach.
B. duodenum.
C. appendix.
D. jejunum.
E. colon.

B
35. Difficulty in raising the shoulder might
be the result of damage to which of the
following cranial nerves?
A. V
B. VII
C. X
D. XI
E. XII

D
36. A stab wound creating a pneumothorax
on the left side will usually result in collapse
of which of the following?
A. The left lung only
B. The right lung only
C. Both lungs
D. The rib cage on the left side
E. The left lung and pericardial sac

A
37. Sharpey's fibers from the periodontal
ligament insert into which of the following
structures?
A. Bundle bone and dentin
B. Cortical plates and dentin
C. Bundle bone and cementum
D. Cortical plates and cementum
E. Haversian bone and cementum

C
38. In an adult, a Babinski sign indicates
damage to
A. the dorsal horn.
B. lower motor neurons.
C. upper motor neurons.
D. the lateral spinothalamic tract.
E. the dorsal spinocerebellar tract.

C
39. Cell bodies of neurons mediating
proprioception from the periodontal ligament
of the maxillary first molar lie primarily in the
A. semilunar ganglion.
B. motor nucleus of V.
C. spinal nucleus of V.
D. chief sensory nucleus of V.
E. mesencephalic nucleus of V.

E
40. In hydrocephalus, excess cerebral
spinal fluid is found within which of the
following?
A. Ventricle
B. Subdural space
C. Cisterna magna
D. Subarachnoid space
E. Superior sagittal sinus

A
41. Intelligence and sensory-motor functions of a
patient appear to be intact. However, the patient
lacks self-discipline and has exhibited anti-social
behavior. He is unable to plan for the future or to
organize behaviors into logical sequences. A
lesion in which of the following areas is likely?
A. Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Internal capsule
D. Temporal lobe
E. Parietal lobe

A
42. The neurons of the central nervous
system that innervate muscles derived from
branchial arches are found in which of the
following nuclei?
A. Nucleus ambiguus
B. Hypoglossal nucleus
C. Dorsal motor nucleus of X
D. Nucleus Of Edinger-Westphal
E. Superior salivatory nucleus

A
43. Which of the following represents the basis for
the topical application of fluorides in dental caries
prevention?
A. Fluoride penetrates the enamel through the
lamellae.
B. Keratin content of the enamel is made more
insoluble.
C. Fluoride coats the tooth forming a uniform
protective barrier.
D. The primary cuticle, being less calcified,
absorbs the fluoride.
E. Acid solubility of the surface enamel is
reduced by the fluoride.

E
44. Which of the following represents
the primary mineral component of
alveolar bone in the periodontium?
A. Osteoid
B. Elastin
C. Collagen
D. Hydroxyapatite
E. Ground substance

D
45. Which of the following represents the
primary function of cementum?
A. Attach Sharpey's fibers
B. Protect the root from caries
C. Repair traumatic injuries of the root
D. Supply nutrition to the periodontal
ligament
E. Maintain the width of the periodontal
ligament

A
46. The junction between the tooth surface
and the crevicular epithelium is composed
of which of the following?
A. Cementoid
B. Tight junction
C. Intermediate filaments
D. Basal lamina-like structure
E. Interstitial crevicular fluid

D
47. Mucosa of the anterior two-thirds of
the tongue develops primarily from
A. Rathke's pouch.
B. tuberculum impar.
C. foregut endoderm.
D. hypobranchial eminence.
E. lateral lingual swellings.

E
48. Initially, the developing heart is
A. induced by the notochord.
B. positioned posterior to the notochord.
C. positioned anterior to the prochordal
plate.
D. between the prochordal plate and the
notochord.

C
49. Melanocytes migrate to the lamina
propria of the oral mucosa from which of
the following?
A. Myotome
B. Dermatome
C. Sclerotome
D. Neural crest
E. Rathke's pouch

D
 50. Blood from the cephalic vein drains
into which of the following veins?
A. Basilic
B. Braciocephalic
C. Axillary
D. Internal thoracic
E. Superior vena cava

C
51. Coupled respiration requires each of
the following EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A. ADP
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Electron donor
E. Inorganic phosphate

C
52. If the anticodon on transfer-RNA is
5'ACG3', then which of the following is its
corresponding codon on messenger-RNA?
A. 5' CGT 3'
B. 5' CGU 3'
C. 5' TGC 3'
D. 5' UAG 3'
E. 5' UGC 3'

B
53. Which of the following is the major
storage form of iron in the body?
A. Transferrin
B. Hemosiderin
C. Apoferritin
D. Hemoglobin
E. Ferritin

E
54. When a mammalian red blood cell is
placed in 0.3 per cent sodium chloride,
water moves across the cell membrane by
which of the following processes?
A. Osmosis
B. Hemolysis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Active transport
E. Diffusion

A
55. Free fatty acids in plasma are
A. metabolically inert.
B. mainly bound to [beta]-lipoproteins.
C. independent of epinephrine secretion.
D. mainly associated with serum albumin.

D
56. Each of the following is required for
normal blood clot formation EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Ca++
B. Plasmin
C. Thrombin
D. Vitamin K
E. Proteolysis

B
57. Which of the following combines with
heparin to inhibit blood clotting?
A. Anti-thrombin III
B. Platelets
C. Fibrinogen
D. Plasminogen
E. Thrombin

A
58. Each of the following is an anticoagulant
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Heparin
B. Vitamin K
C. Dicumarol
D. Sodium citrate
E. Any antithrombin substance

B
59. The characteristic of the aorta that is
most responsible for the maintenance of
diastolic blood pressure is its
A. wide lumen.
B. elastic distensibility.
C. proximity to the heart.
D. great peripheral resistance.
E. active contraction.

B
60. Colloid osmotic pressure of the blood is
important because it
A. nourishes blood cells.
B. aids in blood clotting.
C. prevents loss of erythrocytes from the blood.
D. prevents excess loss of fluid from capillaries
E. Prevents entrance of tissue fluid into
capillaries

D
61. Which of the following is most likely to
promote depolymerization of extracellular
matrix?
A. Cortisone
B. Collagenase
C. Chymotrypsin
D. Hyaluronidase

D
62. Which portion of the nervous system
contains the cardiac, vomiting, and
vasomotor centers?
A. Medulla
B. Thalamus
C. Cerebrum
D. Cervical region of the spinal cord

A
63. The concentration of which of the following
amino acids can be used to determine whether
or not dentin has contaminated a purified
enamel preparation?
A. Lysine
B. Proline
C. Hydroxyproline
D. Phosphotyrosine
E. Phosphoserine

C
64. Calcium is transported in the blood in
combination with which of the following?
A. Albumin
B. Citrate
C. Hemoglobin
D. Beta-globulin

A
65. Sympathetic stimulation most likely
produces which of the following?
A. Glycogen synthesis (insulin increase)

B. Bronchial dilation
C. Decreased mental activity
D. Decreased metabolic rate
E. Increased blood flow to the skin

B
66. Which of the following is the same
value for intracellular and interstitial fluid?
A. [Na+]
B. [CI-]
C. [K+]
D. Colloid osmotic pressure
E. Total osmotic pressure

E
67. Which of the following explains why an
increased filling of the ventricle during diastole
causes amore forceful heart beat? The increased
ventricular volume
A. diminishes the refractory period of the
ventricle.
B. increases end-diastolic fiber length.
C. facilitates conduction in the heart.
D. produces a less than optimal load.

B
68. Prior to surgery, an anxious patient has a
higher systolic blood pressure than previously
noted. Which of the following represents the
most likely reason?
A. Cardiac shock
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Atrial fibrillation
D. Ventricular fibrillation
E. Decreased arterial compliance

E
69. Reduced renal blood flow can cause
hypertension by which of the following?
A. Release of renin
B. Reflex vasoconstriction
C. Retention of potassium in blood
D. Increased output of epinephrine

A
70. Which of the following describes the
effect of a drug that inhibits renal carbonic
anhydrase?
A. It decreases urea clearance.
B. It increases the Tm for glucose.
C. It increases the acidity of the urine.
D. It decreases sodium reabsorption in the
proximal tubule.

D
71. The composition of plaque is most
similar to which of the following?
A. Bone
B. Enamel
C. Calculus
D. Oral bacteria
E. Saliva

D
72. Which of the following substances is the
predominant source of ATP at MODERATE
levels (for greater than 60 minutes) of
activity?
A. Amino acids
B. Fatty acids
C. Carbohydrates
D. Proteins

B
73. Which of the following substances
has a clearance rate that is greater than
the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
A. Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH)
B. Potassium
C. Glucose
D. Urea

A
74. What is the biological significance of the
extensive degeneracy of the genetic code?
A. Alters the amino acid sequence of proteins
encoded by the DNA
B. Minimizes the deleterious effect of mutations
C. Maximizes the beneficial effect of mutations
D. Increases chain termination
E. Leads to active proteins

B
75. Which of the following types of blotting
can be used to identify DNA restriction
fragments?
A. Eastern
B. Southern
C. Northern
D. Western

B
76. The catabolism of which of the following
results in no energy production in the form
of ATP?
A. Lipid
B. Protein
C. Nucleotide
D. Carbohydrate

C
77. Which of the following substances is
released by blood platelets and causes
platelets to stick together?
A. Thrombin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Phospholipids
D. Thromboxane A2
E. Prostacyclin I2 (PgI2)

D
78. Peptide hormones generally exert their effect
through which of the following?
A. Intracellular receptors and stimulating protein
synthesis
B. Receptors on the cell membrane and
stimulating protein synthesis
C. Intracellular receptors and altering the specific
activity of certain enzymes
D. Receptors on the cell membrane and altering
the specific activity of certain enzymes

D
79. During the period of isovolumetric
contraction, which of the following happens?
A. The semilunar valves are open.
B. The left ventricular pressure is rising
rapidly.
C. The aortic pressure is slightly less than
the left ventricular pressure.
D. The right ventricular pressure is greater
than the left ventricular pressure.

B
80. Glucose reabsorption in the nephron
is usually completed in which of the
following?
A. Distal tubule
B. Loop of Henle
C. Collecting duct
D. Proximal tubule

D
81. Which of the following represents the
correct size and characteristic of the nerve
fibers that conduct sensory input of pain
from the oral-facial region?
A. Large diameter, myelinated
B. Small diameter, myelinated
C. Large diameter, unmyelinated
D. Small diameter, unmyelinated
E. Intermediate diameter, myelinated

D
82. As blood flows through the periodontal
membrane, tremendous pressures occur in
response to forceful occlusion. Blood flow is
temporarily reduced, but platelets do not
aggregate because of the presence of
A. Ca++.
B. ADP.
C. thrombin.
D. thromboxane A2.
E. prostacyclin (PgI2).

E
83. An example of synergism is the
effects of
A. insulin and glucagon on blood
glucose.
B. estrogen and progesterone on
uterine motility.
C. growth hormone and thyroxine on
skeletal growth.
D. antidiuretic hormone and
aldosterone on potassium excretion.

D
84. The jaw jerk reflex is an example of
which of the following reflexes?
A. Load
B. Flexor
C. Withdrawal
D. Dynamic stretch

D
85. The stretch reflex is an example of
which of the following reflexes?
A. Withdrawal
B. Nociceptive
C. Polysynaptic
D. Monosynaptic

D
86. A patient bites down rapidly on an
unexpected hard surface while chewing.
Cessation of motor unit recruitment in jaw
closing muscles is caused by stimulation of
A. muscle spindles.
B. mucosal mechanoreceptors.
C. periodontal mechanoreceptors.
D. nocioceptors in the dental pulp.

C
87. Which of the following statements about
norepinephrine is correct?
A. Causes cardiac acceleration
B. Causes general vasodilation
C. Causes vasodilation in vessels of the skin
D. Has a negative inotropic effect on the heart
E. Is the preganglionic sympathetic
neurotransmitter

A
88. Which of the following molecules causes
the activation of myosin kinase and the
contraction of smooth muscle?
A. Actin
B. Troponin
C. Calmodulin
D. Calcitonin
E. Cholecalciferol

C
89. Which of the following is the primary
difference between juxtamedullary and
cortical nephrons?
A. Renal plasma flow
B. Filtration fraction
C. Length of the distal tubule
D. Length of the proximal tubule
E. Length of the thin segment of the loop
of Henle

E
90. Which of the following is an essential
element found in all cytochromes?
A. Co
B. Cu
C. Fe
D. Mg
E. Zn

C
91. Acute cyanide poisoning would most likely
lead to which of the following?
A. Increased oxygen concentration in arterial blood
B. Increased carbon dioxide concentration in
venous blood
C. Decreased oxygen extraction by peripheral
tissues
D. Increased oxygen extraction by peripheral
tissues
E. Decreased carbon dioxide concentration in
arterial blood

C
92. Chondroitin sulfate is a major
component of which of the following?
A. Hair
B. Mucin
C. Cartilage
D. Bacterial cell walls
E. Blood group substance

C
93. Which of the following characterizes
both active transport and facilitated
diffusion?
A. Hydrolysis of ATP
B. Competitive inhibition
C. Transport bidirectional
D. Transport against a concentration
gradient

B
94. Which of the following has the most
effect in stimulating respiration?
A. Increase in blood pH
B. Decrease in arterial P02
C. Increase in arterial PC02
D. Decrease in blood pH
E. Decrease in arterial PC02

C
95. Which of the following proteins is involved
with bacterial aggregation and subsequent
elimination from the oral cavity?
A. Gustin
B. Statherin
C. Lactoferrin
D. Secretory IgA

D
96. Thyroid hormones are synthesized
from which of the following amino acids?
A. Tyrosine
B. Dopamine
C. Histidine
D. Threonine
E. Tryptophan

A
97. Which of the following enzymes is
responsible for inactivating catecholamines?
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Monoamine oxidase
C. Amino decarboxylase
D. Tyrosine hydroxylase

B
98. Protein and RNA synthesis occur in
each of the following phases of the cell
cycle EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. G0
B. G1
C. S
D. G2
E. M
E
99. Which main product of protein nitrogen
metabolism is found in human urine?
A. Urea
B. Ammonia
C. Creatine
D. Uric acid
E. Creatinine

A
100. Each of the following is expected to be
active during fatty acid biosynthesis EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
C. Amino acid catabolism
D. Beta oxidation
E. Glycolsis

D
101. Which of the following statements best
describes the roots of a maxillary first molar?
A. The mesiofacial root usually tips mesially in
its apical one-third.
B. The palatal root has a concave facial surface.
C. The palatal root is flattened and concave on
its mesial and distal surfaces.
D. The distofacial root is flattened and concave
on its facial surface.

B
102. Which of the following represents the
location of the lingual height of contour on the
crown of the mandibular second premolar?
A. Middle third
B. Occlusal third
C. Same third as that tooth's buccal height of
contour
D. Same third as the lingual height of contour on
the crown of the maxillary premolars
E. Same third as the lingual height of contour on
the crown of the mandibular first premolar

B
103. When viewed from the facial aspect, the
crown of the mandibular first premolar has an
occlusal outline that normally exhibits which
of the following characteristics?
A. Cusp tip which is offset to the distal
B. Cusp tip which is centered mesiodistally
C. Disto-occlusal slope which is longer
than the mesio- occlusal slope
D. Mesio-occlusal slope which is longer
than the disto- occlusal slope

C
104. Two pulp canals are most commonly
found in the
A. root of a mandibular central incisor.
B. facial root of a maxillary first premolar.
C. distal root of a mandibular first molar.
D. mesial root of a mandibular first molar.
E. mesiofacial root of a maxillary first
molar.

D
105. In the triangle formed by the projection of the
orifices of the canals of a maxillary first molar, the
A. line connecting mesial with lingual is longest.
B. line connecting distal with lingual is longest.
C. line connecting mesial with distal is longest.
D. angle at the distolingual canal is obtuse.
E. angle at the mesiofacial canal is obtuse.

A
106. Which of the following attaches the
root surface to the alveolar bone?
A. Cementum
B. Attached gingiva
C. Dentinal tubules
D. Periodontal ligament
E. Cementoenamel junction

D
107. Which of the following anatomic
structures is found just lingual to the
maxillary central incisors?
A. Incisive foramen
B. Canine eminence
C. Maxillary tuberosity
D. External oblique ridge
E. Greater palatine foramen

A
108. Which of the following papillae would
normally be found in the buccal vestibule?
A. Parotid
B. Incisive
C. Fungiform
D. Interdental
E. Circumvallate

A
109. The bulk of a tooth consists of
A. pulp.
B. crown.
C. dentin.
D. enamel.
E. cementum.

C
110. The part of the tooth which, at a given
moment, is exposed to the oral cavity is
A. the anatomic crown.
B. the clinical crown.
C. the functional clinical crown and root.
D. measurably larger in young persons
than in older persons.
E. not effected by periodontal health.

B
111. The anatomic crown is that portion
of a tooth that is
A. in occlusion.
B. exposed to oral fluids.
C. coronal to the cervical line.
D. occlusal to the gingival margins.

C
112. A patient has an extremely wide, notched
tooth in the mandibular left central incisor position.
Clinical and radiographic examinations reveal 28
teeth have erupted, but four third molars have not
erupted. Which of the following conditions exists?
A. Fusion
B. Dens in dente
C. Concrescence
D. Dilaceration
E. Gemination

E
113. When compared to a maxillary first
molar, the roots of a maxillary second molar
A. are longer.
B. are more divergent.
C. are fewer in number.
D. have less potential for fusion
E. are greater in distal inclination

E
114. Which of the following teeth is the
most likely to have a bifurcated root?
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Maxillary lateral incisor
C. Mandibular lateral incisor
D. Maxillary canine
E. Mandibular canine

E
115. Which of the following primary teeth
does a second premolar replace when it
erupts into the oral cavity?
A. Canine
B. First premolar
C. Second premolar
D. First molar
E. Second molar
E
116. Which of the following describes the contact
relationship between a maxillary central incisor
and a maxillary lateral incisor?
A. Contact is offset to the lingual.
B. Contact is centered incisocervically.
C. Lingual embrasure is larger than the facial
embrasure.
D. Incisal embrasure is the largest of all the
embrasures

C
117. In the horizontal plane, as the mandible
moves in a lateral excursion, the midline of
the mandible moves
A. straight anteriorly.
B. straight posteriorly.
C. straight laterally.
D. anteriorly and laterally.
E. posteriorly and laterally

D
118. A patient presents with symptoms of an
acute abscess on the maxillary left lateral incisor.
There are no clinical signs of decay or restoration.
Radiographically, which of the following will most
likely be shown as the cause of the abscess?
A. Agenesis
B. Dilaceration
C. Concrescence
D. Dens in dente
E. Enamel pearls

D
119. Each of the following can be found in
the dental pulp EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A. Nerve tissue
B. Blood vessels
C. Cementoblasts
D. Lymph vessels

C
120. Which of the following molar roots is
wide faciolingually and concave on both
mesial and distal surfaces?
A. Distofacial of a maxillary first
B. Lingual of a maxillary first
C. Mesial of a mandibular first
D. Distal of a mandibular first

C
121. The distolingual cusp of which of the
following molars might be absent?
A. Maxillary first
B. Mandibular first
C. Mandibular third
D. Maxillary third

D
122. In a right working movement, the lingual
cusp of a maxillary right second premolar passes
through which of the following mandibular
structures?
A. Facial groove of the right first molar
B. Lingual groove of the right first molar
C. Embrasure between the right first premolar
and the right second premolar
D. Embrasure between the right second
premolar and the right first molar

D
123. The proximal contact areas between
anterior teeth are incisal to the middle third
of the teeth. Which of the following is an
EXCEPTION to this rule?
A. The mesial contact of a maxillary canine
B. The distal contact of a maxillary canine
C. The mesial contact of a maxillary lateral
incisor
D. The mesial contact of a mandibular
lateral incisor
B
124. When the mandible performs a
laterotrusive movement, the laterotrusive-
side condyle moves primarily about which
of the following axes?
A. Vertical
B. Sagittal
C. Horizontal
D. Transverse

A
125. During a visual examination of a patient
who has a severe clenching habit, which
muscle would one expect to see enlarged?
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral Pterygoid

A
126. From the occlusal aspect, which of the
following represents the most frequently
seen form of a maxillary second molar?
A. Round
B. Square
C. Trapezoidal
D. Rhomboidal
E. Heart-shaped

D
127. Initiation of calcification for the
mandibular central incisor normally
occurs at
A. 3-4 months of age. - canines
B. 1 year of age. – maxillary laterals
C. 2-3 years of age.
D. 4-5 years of age.
E. 6-7 years of age.

A
128. The oblique ridge of the maxillary
molars extends between which two cusps?
A. Mesiofacial and distofacial
B. Mesiolingual and distolingual
C. Mesiolingual and distofacial
D. Mesiofacial and mesiolingual
E. Mesiofacial and distolingual

C
129. At age 8, the maxillary first molar has
A. a mesial contact with the primary first
molar.
B. a distal contact with the second molar.
C. no mesial contact.
D. no distal contact.
E. not yet erupted.

D
130. Of the primary maxillary teeth, the cervical
ridge would stand out most prominently as a
distinct entity on which surface of which molar?
Molar Surface
A. First Distofacial
B. First Mesiofacial
C. Second Distofacial
D. Second Mesiolingual
E. Second Distolingual

B
131. Which groove of the mandibular first
molar does the maxillary mesiolingual cusp
pass through in a lateral excursive
movement on the working side?
A. Buccal
B. Lingual
C. Central
D. Distobuccal

B
132. Which of the following premolars
frequently has only one pulp horn?
A. Maxillary first
B. Mandibular first
C. Maxillary second
D. Mandibular second

B
133. The incisal embrasure is the smallest
between which of the following two teeth?
A. Maxillary central incisors
B. Mandibular central incisors
C. Maxillary central and lateral incisors
D. Maxillary lateral incisor and canine
E. Mandibular lateral incisor and central
incisor

B
134. When in its normal position relative to
the arch form, the crown of a mandibular
first molar inclines
A. distally and facially.
B. mesially and facially.
C. mesially and lingually.
D. distally and lingually.

C
135. Which of the following teeth might possess
three cusps?
A. Maxillary second premolar and maxillary first
molar
B. Maxillary second premolar and mandibular
first premolar
C. Maxillary first molar and mandibular second
molar
D. Maxillary second molar and mandibular first
premolar
E. Maxillary second molar and mandibular
second premolar

E
136. Each of the following grooves originates
in the central pit of the maxillary second
molar (four cusp type) EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Buccal
B. Central
C. Distolingual
D. Transverse grooves of oblique ridge

C
137. When the mandible moves from
maximum intercuspal position distally,
any tooth contacts that occur are called
A. retrusive contacts.
B. protrusive contacts.
C. mediotrusive side contacts.
D. laterotrusive side contacts.
E. lateral protrusive contacts.

A
138. Between which of the following permanent
teeth is the lingual embrasure smaller than the
facial embrasure?
A. Maxillary first premolar and maxillary second
premolar
B. Maxillary second molar and maxillary third
molar
C. Mandibular first molar and mandibular second
molar
D. Mandibular first premolar and mandibular
second premolar

D
139. On a mandibular first molar, the
distofacial groove serves as an escapeway
for the mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary
first molar during which of the following
mandibular movements?
A. Working
B. Non-working
C. Protrusive
D. Centric slide

B
140. Which of the following primary grooves
uniting in the distal pit on the occlusal surface of
the mandibular second molar represents the one
that normally has no counterpart in the distal pit
of the first molar?
A. Distolingual
B. DF triangular
C. DL triangular
D. Distal marginal
E. Distal portion of the central

B
141. Which of the following best describes
the cervical margin on the facial crown
surface of the maxillary first molar?
A. Straight
B. Evenly convex toward the apex
C. Evenly convex toward the occlusal
D. Irregularly convex toward the apex
E. Irregularly convex toward the occlusal

D
142. Which of the following represents the
most common type of root anomaly on the
mandibular first premolar?
A. Dwarfing
B. Elongation
C. Bifurcation
D. Concrescence
E. Trifurcation

C
143. Which of the following teeth represents
the one most likely to present with three
roots?
A. Mandibular central incisor
B. Mandibular second premolar
C. Mandibular canine
D. Maxillary first premolar
E. Maxillary second premolar

D
144. Which of the following represents the
structure in the maxillary alveolar bone that
maxillary premolar roots occasionally
penetrate?
A. Antrum = maxillary sinus
B. Nasal septum
C. Frontal sinus
D. Zygomatic arch
E. Mandibular fossa

A
145. Which of the following jaw positions
is determined almost exclusively by tooth
contact?
A. Rest position
B. Terminal hinge
C. Maximum opening
D. Maximum protrusive
E. Intercuspal position

E
146. In a CUSP TO FOSSA contacting relationship
in intercuspal position, the maxillary first premolar
is most likely to articulate with which of the
following mandibular teeth?
A. Lateral incisor
B. Lateral incisor and canine
C. First premolar
D. Canine and first premolar
E. First premolar and second premolar

C
147. Which of the following is least likely to
contribute to or affect stability of the dental
arch form?
A. Periodontal health
B. Plane of occlusion
C. Occlusal contact forces
D. Interproximal contact form
E. Forces exerted by the lips and tongue

B
148. When viewed from the frontal plane
and progressing posteriorly, the axial
inclination of the crowns of maxillary
posterior teeth
A. remains vertical.
B. inclines lingually.
C. inclines distally.
D. inclines mesially
E. inclines buccally

E
149. When viewed from the sagittal plane,
the axial inclination of the anterior teeth
A. remains vertical.
B. inclines facially.
C. inclines mesially.
D. inclines distally.
E. inclines lingually

B
150. The presence of mamelons on a 19-
year-old patient suggests which of the
following conditions?
A. Fluorosis
B. Malformation
C. Malnutrition
D. Delayed eruption
E. Anterior open bite

E
151. In osteomalacia, bones are weak
because of the failure of
A. remodeling of bone.
B. bone matrix formation.
C. osteoblast proliferation.
D. bone matrix calcification.
E. interstitial growth of cartilage.

D
152. Which of the following is the most
common location for an atherosclerotic
induced aneurysm?
A. Thoracic aorta
B. Abdominal aorta
C. Coronary arteries
D. Arch of the aorta
E. Common iliac arteries

B
153. Each of the following statements about
poliovirus infections is correct EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Most infections are subclinical.
B. Paralysis is an uncommon outcome of
infection.
C. There are 3 types of poliovirus, making 3
infections possible.
D. Virus is predominantly shed from the body
and transmitted in respiratory secretions.
E. Some damaged neurons may be repaired,
restoring lost functions.

D
154. Which of the following can result if an
individual having reactivation of latent
varicella zoster virus transmits virus to a
seronegative individual?
A. Shingles (herpes zoster, VZV)
B. Chickenpox (VZV)
C. Herpes labialis
D. Infectious mononucleosis (EBV, kissing
dz)
E. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
B
155. Which of the following conditions might
be an initial manifestation of early, acute
HIV infection?
A. Kaposi's sarcoma
B. Wasting syndrome
C. Oral hairy leukoplakia
D. Mononucleosis-like syndrome
E. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

D
156. Which of the following pathogens is
the single most common cause of sexually
transmitted disease in the U.S.?
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Haemophilus ducreyi
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. Herpes simplex virus
E. Human immunodeficiency virus

C
157. Which of the following represents the
mechanism of action of diphtheria toxin?
A. Activates Camp
B. Causes cytolysis
C. Inhibits translation (protein synthesis)
D. Inhibits transcription
E. Inhibits DNA replication

C
158. Each of the following fluids is considered
one that can transmit HIV EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Semen
B. Serum
C. Saliva
D. Amniotic fluid
E. Breast milk

C
159. Which of the following represents the
anaerobic organism that is cultured from
gingival scrapings and that forms black
colonies on hemin-containing culture media?
A. Sarcina lutea
B. Bacillus anthracis
C. Veillonella alcalescens
D. Porphyromonas gingivalis
E. Alpha-hemolytic streptococcus

D
160. Beta 1-4 linkages connect N-acetyl
glucosamine and N-acetyl muramic acid.
The resulting polymer is found in bacterial
A. flagella.
B. capsules.
C. cell walls.
D. metachromatic granules.

C
161. Rough pneumococci that are grown
in the presence of DNA from smooth
pneumococci develop capsules. This
process is termed
A. translation.
B. transduction.
C. transformation.
D. conjugation.

C
162. During an outbreak of gastroenteritis caused
by Salmonella, a strain of the species suddenly
appears to be resistant to several antibiotics.
Which of the following best explains why?
A. Parent strain has undergone several
mutations.
B. Parent strain has acquired a plasmid.
C. There are several species of Salmonella
present, each resistant to one antibiotic.
D. New strain is a species of Escherichia coli,
which has acquired virulence by mutation.

B
163. Which of the following karyotypes is
found in Turner syndrome?
A. 45, XO
B. 45, YO
C. 46, XX
D. 47, XXY
E. 47, XYY

A
164. Which of the following viruses are
frequently associated with eye infections?
A. Mumps and measles viruses
B. Parainfluenza and rubella viruses
C. Coxsackievirus and rhinoviruses
D. Adenoviruses and reoviruses
E. Herpes simplex and adenoviruses

E
165. In humans, the mumps virus is
transferred by
A. food.
B. feces.
C. flies.
D. saliva.

D
166. Human leukocyte antigen (HLA)
Class I molecules are found on which
of the following?
A. All nucleated cells
B. CD4+ T cells only
C. Epithelial Cells only
D. HLA Class II+ cells only
E. Mesenchymal cells only

A
167. Soft and hard tissue necrosis
characterizes which of the following
fungal diseases?
A. Mucormycosis
B. Cryptococcosis
C. Histoplasmosis
D. Coccidioidomycosis
E. Candidiasis

A
168. Nongonococcal urethritis is often
caused by microorganisms of which of
the following genera?
A. Chlamydia
B. Treponema
C. Neisseria
D. Hemophilus

A
169. Which of the following is least likely
to produce acute abdominal symptoms?
A. Cholelithiasis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Ampulla of Vater cancer
D. Carcinoma of the tail of the pancreas

D
170. Which of the following represents
the arthritis that is usually associated
with aging?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Gouty arthritis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Psoriatic arthritis

A
171. Multiple, lytic lesions of bone characterize
each of the following conditions EXCEPT one.
Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Metastatic carcinoma
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
D. Hyperparathyroidism
E. Langerhans (eosinophilic) granulomatosis

C
172. Osteoporosis can be associated with
each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
is the EXCEPTION?
A. Prolonged corticosteroid administration
B. Prolonged immobilization
C. Chronic malnutrition
D. Hypervitaminosis D
E. Advanced age

D
173. In general, enzyme-deficiency
diseases are inherited by which of the
following modes?
A. Polygenic
B. X-linked dominant
C. Autosomal recessive
D. Autosomal dominant

C
174. Which of the following anemias
results from drug-induced bone marrow
suppression?
A. Aplastic
B. Sickle cell
C. Pernicious
D. Hemolytic
E. Myelophthisic

A
175. Multiple drug resistance is associated
with
A. plasmids.
B. recombination.
C. point mutations.
D. specialized transducing phages.
E. generalized transducing phages.

A
176. Which of the following statements best
describes bacterial transformation?
A. DNA coding for RNA synthesis
B. RNA coding for protein synthesis
C. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by
bacteria mediated by DNA
D. Acquisition of an inheritable trait by
bacteria mediated by RNA
E. Binding of 30S and 70S ribosomes

C
177. Plasmid-mediated antibiotic resistance
has been observed in diseases caused by
each of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Haemophilus influenzae

A
178. Each of the following can produce a
genotypic change EXCEPT one. Which is
the EXCEPTION?
A. Conjugation
B. Lysogenization
C. Transformation
D. Exposure to tetracycline

D
179. The human immunodeficiency virus
preferentially infects which of the following
cells?
A. NK Helper T
B. Helper T
C. Cytotoxic T
D. Suppressor T

B
180. Which of the following viruses is most
likely to be isolated from feces?
A. Rubella
B. Hepatitis C
C. Influenza A
D. Coxsackievirus
E. Herpes simplex

D
181. Cellular tropism by viruses is
dependent on which of the following?
A. Host cell DNA homology to viral DNA
B. Temperature of host cell incubation
C. Gamma-interferon production
D. Cell surface receptors
E. Viral enzyme synthesis

D
182. A 5-year-old child with vesicular lesions
limited to the palate and the posterior
oropharyngeal mucosa has an oral
temperature of 101 OF (380C). The most
probable diagnosis is
A. chickenpox.
B. herpangina.
C. recurrent oral herpes.
D. herpetic gingivostomatitis.
E. hand-foot-and-mouth disease.

B
183. Which of the following cells are the
most radiosensitive?
A. Neurons
B. Fibroblasts
C. Lymphocytes
D. Chondrocytes
E. Epithelial cells

C
184. During repair, which of the following
substances is essential for precollagen
fibers to transform into collagen fibers?
A. Cortisone
B. Carotene
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Prothrombin
E. Thromboplastin

C
185. Which of the following conditions
represents an intoxication rather than an
infection?
A. Anthrax
B. Botulism
C. Chancroid
D. Bacteroidosis
E. Salmonellosis septicemia

B
186. The tensile strength of a healing
mucosal wound depends on which of
the following?
A. Wound hormones
B. Epithelial regeneration
C. Formation of collagen fibers
D. Activation of fibrinolysis
E. Formation f elastic fibers

C
187. The chemotactic accumulation of
leukocytes at the site of immune complex
deposition is a result of
A. steroids.
B. histamine.
C. complement.
D. antihistamine.

C
188. Which of the following has the least
ability to regenerate?
A. Bone
B. Liver
C. Striated muscle
D. Collagen
E. Smooth muscle

C
189. Healing is retarded by each of the
following conditions EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Trauma
B. Immobilization
C. Infection
D. Hemorrhage
E. Ischemia

B
190. Escape of plasma from capillaries
into an area of inflammation is favored by
an increase in which of the following?
A. Hyaluronidase
B. Leukocyte migration
C. Vascular permeability
D. Osmotic pressure of plasma
E. Number of endothelial junctions

C
191. Each of the following conditions
predisposes a patient to develop cancer
EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Asbestosis
B. Anthracosis
C. Hepatitis C
D. Gardner's syndrome
E. Ulcerative colitis

B
192. Metastatic calcifications are most
likely to be the result of
A. gallstones.
B. atherosclerosis.
C. hyperparathyroidism.
D. osteogenic sarcoma.
E. lymphatic spread of lung cancer.

C
193. Difficulty in swallowing refers to
A. dyspnea.
B. achalasia.
C. dysphagia.
D. hemetemesis.

C
194. Each of the following viruses is potentially
capable of causing cell transformation EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Retrovirus
B. Herpesvirus
C. Picornavirus
D. Hepatitis B virus
E. Human papillomavirus

C
195. Which of the following terms refers to
the presence of digested blood in the
stool?
A. Hemosiderosis: iron overload
disorder resulting in the accumulation
of hemosiderin.
B. Hemochromatosis: accumulation
of iron in the body
C. Hematoma
D. Icterus E
E. Melena
196. Chlamydia trachomatis might cause
each of the following diseases EXCEPT
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Trachoma: granular conjunctivitis
B. Lymphogranuloma venereum:
infection of lymphatics and lymph nodes.
C. Inclusion conjunctivitis
D. Non-gonococcal urethritis
E. Primary atypical pneumonia
E
197. Which of the following conditions is
most commonly associated with acute
pancreatitis?
A. Chronic alcohol abuse
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Physical trauma
D. Viral infection E. Hypercalcemia

A
198. Each of the following is attributable to
hepatic failure EXCEPT one. Which one is
the EXCEPTION?
A. Tremor
B. Gynecomastia
C. Mallory bodies
D. Hypoalbuminemia
E. Spider telangectasia

C
199. Red hepatization refers to which of the
following?
A. Early stage of acute hepatitis
B. Late stage of acute hepatitis
C. Cirrhosis caused by hemochromatosis
D. Congestion of the liver caused by
chronic right sided heart failure
E. Stage of lobar pneumonia

E
200. Acute passive congestion often
accompanies which of the following?
A. Edema
B. Inflammation
C. Contusion = bruise
D. Hematoma