8. In humans, which visceral arch is rudimentary?

CHAPTER-2 A. 2nd B. 4th

C. 5 th D. 6th
GENERAL EMBRYOLOGY AND
GROWTH & DEVELOPMENT OF 9. The name of the first visceral arch is:
OROMAXILLOFACIAL STRUCTURES A. Mandibular
B. Hyoid
C. Maxillary
D. None of the above
1. After fertilization of ovum, series of cell divisions
give rise to an egg cell mass called: 10. Name the second visceral arch:
A. Placenta A. Maxillary
B. Morula B. Mandibular
C. Embryo C. Hyoid
D. Embryonic disc D. None of the above
2. In humans, the major portion of the egg cell mass 11. Which of the following statements is/are true?
forms the: A. Anterior 2/3rd of the tongue is covered by ectoderm
A. Extra embryonic membranes and posterior 1/3rd is covered by endoderm
B. Embryo B. Thyroid gland forms by invagination of the most
C. Embryonic disc anterior endoderm
D. Morula C. Foramen caecum is present at junction of anterior
2/3rd and posterior 1/3rd of the tongue
3. 1/4th of the cells of the egg cell mass form a single D. All of the above
layer which forms:
A. Embryo 12. Which of the following statements is/are true?
B. Placenta A. About 2/3rd of patients with cleft of the primary
C. Extra embryonic membrane palate also have cleft of the secondary palate
D. Morula B. After cleft involving the primary palate, the
second most common facial malformation in
4. A unique population of cells develop from the humans is cleft involving only secondary palate
ectoderm along the lateral margin and are called: C. Hemifacial microsomia is the third most common
A. Neural crest cells facial malformation.
B. Enamel D. All of the above
C. Notochord
D. Neural fold 13. Treacher Collins’ syndrome is:
A. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
5. All of the following are formed by neural crest cells B. Maxillofacial dysostosis
except: C. Deformity of hair
A. Cartilage D. None of the above
B. Enamel
14. Median rhomboid glossitis is:
C. Dentin
A. Caused by persistence of Tuberculum impar
D. Bone
B. Red and rhomboidal smooth zone of the tongue
6. Most of the hard palate and all of the soft palate C. Found in mid line in front of the foramen caecum
form from the: D. All of the above
A. Primary palate
15. Which drug causes malformations similar to
B. Secondary palate
hemifacial microsomia when taken during early
C. Accessory palate
D. None of the above pregnancy?
A. Thalidomide
7. In humans, how many visceral arches are there? B. Nicotinamide
A. 2 B. 4 C. Procainamide
C. 5 D. 6 D. Vitamin D
16. Globulomaxillary cyst is found between: 24. A shelf-like extension of the frontonasal process
A. Central incisors separates the anterior part of the common nasal
B. Central incisor and lateral incisor and oral cavity. The extension is termed the:
C. Lateral incisor and canine A. Primitive mouth
D. Canine and premolar B. Primitive palate
17. Every branchial arch contains which of the C. Primitive nasal septum
following structures? D. Stomodeum
A. Branchial artery
B. Branchiomeric nerve
C. Branchial arch cartilage rod
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B
D. All of the above
7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. D
18. The philtrum of the upper lip is formed largely by: 13. A 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. D 18. D
A. Maxillary processes 19. C 20. D 21. D 22. A 23. A 24. B
B. Globular process
C. Lateral nasal processes
D. None of the above CHAPTER-3
19. The nerve supply of the muscles of mastication DEVELOPMENT OF TEETH
shows that these muscles are derived from the:
A. Third branchial arch
B. Fourth branchial arch 1. Dental lamina is formed when:
C. First branchial arch A. The embryo is 3 weeks old
D. Second branchial arch
B. The embryo is 4 weeks old
20. In the embryo, the upper lip is formed by the C. The embryo is 5 weeks old
fusion of the: D. The embryo is 6 weeks old
A. Premaxilla with maxillary processes
B. Median nasal process with lateral nasal 2. Which statements is/are true?
processes A. The development of the first permanent molar is
C. First branchial arch with second branchial arch initiated at the 4th month of intrauterine life
D. Median nasal processes with maxillary B. The second permanent molar is initiated at about
processes the first year after birth
21. The primitive endoderm is formed from the: C. The third molar is initiated at the 4th or 5th years
A. Embryonic disc after birth
B. Trophoblast D. All of the above
C. Amniotic cavity 3. The successor of the deciduous teeth develops
D. Primitive yolk sac
from:
22. The neural tube gives rise to the: A. Lingual extension of the dental lamina
A. Nervous system B. Labial extension of the dental lamina
B. Primitive endoderm C. Buccal extension of the dental lamina
C. Embryonic disc D. Occlusal extension of the dental lamina
D. Neural groove
4. The lingual extension of dental lamina is known
23. The buccopharyngeal membrane is formed: as:
A. When the stomodeum ectoderm contacts the
A. Mental lamina
endoderm of the foregut
B. From fifth branchial arch B. Mandibular lamina
C. From Tuberculum impar C. Successional lamina
D. From the primitive gut D. Maxillary lamina
 5. Life of successional lamina is from the: 13. The size of the ameloblast cell is:
A. 5th month in utero to the 10th month of age A. 4 to 5 microns in diameter and about 40 microns
B. 3rd month in utero to the 10th month of age in length
C. 5th month in utero to the 8th month in utero B. 6 to 8 microns in diameter and about 60 microns
D. 6 weeks of embryo to the 8th month in utero in length
6. Total activity of the dental lamina extends over a C. 6 to 8 microns in diameter and about 40 microns
period of: in length
A. At least 3 years D. 1 to 2 microns in diameter and about 60 microns
B. At least 4 years in length
C. At least 5 years
D. At least 6 years 14. The basement membrane that separates the
enamel organ and the dental papilla just prior to
7. Epithelial pearls are:
dentin formation is called the:
A. Remnants of dental lamina
B. Remnants of Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath A. Advanced bell stage
C. Remnants of diaphragm B. Membrana preformativa
D. Remnants of enamel C. Cap stage
8. Epithelial pearls are found: D. Enamel knot
A. Within the jaw 15. Hertwig’s root sheath consists of:
B. In the gingiva
C. None of the above A. The outer and inner enamel epithelium only
D. Both (a) and (b) B. The stratum intermedium
C. The stellate reticulum
9. The cells of the dental papilla will form:
A. Tooth pulp D. All of the above
B. Dentin 16. The remnants of epithelial root sheath found in
C. Both of the above
periodontal ligament are called:
D. None of the above
A. Enamel pearls
10. The cells in the dental sac will form: B. Enamel knots
A. Cementum
C. Rests of Malassez
B. Periodontal ligament
C. Dentin D. Epithelial diaphragm
D. Both (a) and (b) 17. If cells of the epithelial root sheath remain
11. The cells in the center of the enamel organ are adherent to dentin surface, they may differentiate
densely packed and form: into ameloblasts and produce enamel. Such
A. The enamel knot droplets of enamel are called:
B. Strips of cloth A. Epithelial pearls
C. Surgical knot
B. Enamel pearls
D. All of the above
C. Rests of Malassez
12. Which statement is false? D. Epithelial diaphragm
A. A vertical extension of the enamel knot is formed
by enamel cord 18. Development of accessory root canal is due to:
B. The function of the enamel cord and knot is to A. The broken continuity of Hertwig’s root sheath
act as a reservoir of the dividing cells for the B. The tongue-like extension of the horizontal
growing enamel organ diaphragm development
C. The epithelial enamel organ, the dental papilla
and the dental sac are the formative tissues for C. The apposition of dentin and cementum to the
entire tooth and its supporting structures apex of the root
D. None of the above D. None of the above
19. Which of the following statements is/are true? 26. The extension of the dental lamina lingual to each
A. Teeth may develop in abnormal location deciduous tooth germ is termed the:
B. A lack of initiation results in the absence of either A. Successional dental lamina
single or multiple teeth B. Linguoalveolar sulcus
C. A lack of initiation mostly affects the permanent C. Lip furrow band
upper lateral incisor, 3rd molar and lower 2nd D. Secondary tooth bud
premolar
27. The proliferation of the dental lamina beyond the
D. All of the above
tooth germ of the second deciduous molar is the
20. Which of the following statements is/are true? origin of the:
A. Enamel does not form in the absence of dentin A. Major salivary glands
B. In vitamin A deficiency the ameloblast fails to B. Peridens
differentiate properly C. Tooth germs of the permanent molars
C. In vitamin A deficiency, atypical dentin D. Distomolars
(osteodentin) is formed 28. The three permanent molars develop at:
D. All of the above A. Eight months of fetal life
21. Retarded eruption of teeth occurs in persons with: B. At birth, 2½ to 3 years and 7 to 10 years after
A. Hypopituitarism and Hypothyroidism birth respectively
C. Four months of fetal life
B. Hyperpituitarism
D. Eight months fetal life, 3 years after birth and
C. Hyperthyroidism
6 years after birth respectively
D. None of the above
29. Every tooth germ passes through the following
22. Shape and size of teeth is determined by which
stages:
stage? A. Dental lamina and bell stage
A. Initiation B. Dental lamina, histodifferentiation and
B. Histodifferentiation apposition of dental tissues
C. Morphodifferentiation C. Dental lamina and bud stage, cap stage, bell stage
D. Apposition and apposition of dental tissues
D. None of the above
23. Supernumerary teeth are formed due to
abnormality in: 30. The bell stage of tooth development refers to:
A. Initiation A. Dental lamina
B. Proliferation B. Apposition of dental tissues
C. Histodifferentiation C. Proliferation
D. Morphodifferentiation D. Histodifferentiation and morphodifferentiation

24. The final products of the embryonic dental papilla 31. In the cap stage the following cell types can be
are: recognized in the enamel organ:
A. Pulp, dentin and cementum only A. Outer enamel epithelium, inner enamel
epithelium and stratum intermedium
B. Pulp and dentin only
B. Outer enamel epithelium and inner enamel
C. Pulp, dentin, cementum and the periodontal
epithelium
ligament
C. Stellate reticulum and dental papilla
D. None of the above
D. Outer enamel epithelium, inner enamel
25. After formation of the deciduous tooth germ, the epithelium and stellate reticulum
dental lamina: 32. The stellate reticulum (enamel pulp) contains:
A. Becomes atrophic and dormant A. No intercellular fluid
B. Forms the salivary glands B. Poor quantity of mucopolysaccharide and rich
C. Degenerates amount of Tomes’ fibers
D. Proliferates lingually to each deciduous tooth C. A large quantity of intercellular fluid
germ producing permanent tooth buds D. A small quantity of intercellular fluid
33. The cap stage contains the following transitory 40. Odontoblasts:
structures: A. Form the lateral foramina of the pulp
A. Enamel knot, enamel cord and enamel niche B. Differentiate only where Hertwig’s sheath is
B. Enamel matrix present
C. Stratum intermedium C. Form interglobular dentin
D. Can differentiate in the absence of Hertwig’s
D. Cervical loop
sheath
34. The inner enamel epithelium develops into the:
41. In three-rooted teeth:
A. Stellate reticulum A. The diaphragm surrounds three cervical
B. Ameloblasts openings
C. Odontoblasts B. Four epithelial fingers grow and fuse
D. Dental papilla C. Three epithelial fingers grow and fuse and the
diaphragm surrounds three cervical openings
35. The stratum intermedium:
D. The diaphragm surrounds four cervical
A. Is highly gelatinous and rich in openings
mucopolysaccharides
B. Does not provide a reserve source of cells for the 42. In developing tooth during formation of enamel
stratum intermedium and primary dentin:
C. Lies between the inner enamel epithelium and A. The enamel is formed faster than the dentin
stellate reticulum B. The enamel is formed slower than the dentin
D. Plays no role in enamel calcification C. The enamel is formed more cervically than the
dentin
36. Prior to formation of enamel matrix the stellate D. The ameloblasts and odontoblasts move toward
reticulum of the enamel organ: the pulp
A. Proliferates
43. The shape of the root is determined by cells from
B. Degenerates
the:
C. Becomes considerably narrowed A. Dental papilla
D. Becomes considerably widened B. Dental organ
37. Remnants of the dental lamina: C. Dental sac
A. Do not persist throughout life D. Vestibular lamina
B. Decrease in number but persist throughout life 44. Hertwing’s epithelial root sheath induces the
C. Remain constant in number with age formation of:
D. Increase in number with age A. Enamel
B. Coronal dentin
38. After dentin and enamel formation have reached C. Odontoblasts
the cementoenamel junction, the cervical loop: D. Ameloblasts
A. Degenerates and disappears
B. Forms the cell-free zone 45. During sixth week of embryonic life development
of which structure is seen:
C. Forms the membrana preformativa
A. Hard palate
D. Becomes transformed into the epithelial sheath
B. Soft palate
of Hert ig
C. Tooth
39. When the continuity of Hertwig’s sheath is D. Oral epithelium
destroyed following the beginning of dentin 46. The formation of the Hertwig’s epithelial root
formation the result is? sheath occurs by:
A. Formation of epithelial rests of Malassez A. Dental lamina
B. Formation of cementoblasts B. Enamel organ
C. Development of epithelial diaphragm C. Stellate reticulum
D. Differentiation of odontoblasts D. None of the above
47. The Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath helps to:
A. Form crown of tooth CHAPTER-4
B. Form outer and inner enamel epithelium ENAMEL
C. Mould the shape of roots
D. All of the above
1. On the cusps of human molars and premolars,
48. The droplets of enamel found in area of furcation
maximum thickness of enamel is about:
of the roots of permanent molars are:
A. 0 to 1 mm
A. Enamel organ
B. 2 to 3 mm
B. Enamel cracks
C. 4 to 5 mm
C. Enamel pearls
D. 4 to 6 mm
D. Enamel spindle
2. The specific gravity of enamel is:
49. Dentin is formed from:
A. 2.4
A. Enamel organ
B. 2.6
B. Dental papilla C. 2.8
C. Dental sac D. 3.0
D. None of the above
3. Which of the following statements is/are true?
50. Shape of the crown of teeth is controlled by: A. Enamel acts like a semipermeable membrane
A. Genes B. Enamel mainly consists of inorganic material
B. Signaling molecules of genes (96%) and small amount of organic substance
C. Growth factors and water (4%)
D. All of the above C. During development histologic staining
reactions of Enamel matrix resemble keratinizing
51. Which of the following dental tissues is laid down epidermis
first?
D. All of the above
A. Enamel
4. Which of the following statements is/are true?
B. Dentin
A. Enamel is composed of enamel rods, rod sheath
C. Cementum
and interprismatic substances
D. All the above simultaneously
B. The number of enamel rods is about 5 million in
lower lateral incisors and 12 million in the upper
first molar
C. The length of enamel rods is greater than
1. D 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A 6. C thickness of enamel because of oblique direction
7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. D and wavy course of the rods.
D. All of the above
13. A 14. B 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. A
19. D 20. D 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 5. The diameter of the enamel rods increases from
dentino-enamel junction towards the surface of
25. D 26. A 27. C 28. B 29. C 30. D
enamel in a ratio of about:
31. D 32. C 33. A 34. B 35 C 36. C
A. 1:2
37. B 38. D 39. A 40. B 41. C 42. B B. 1:3
43. B 44. C 45. C 46. B 47. C 48. C C. 1:4
49. B 50. D 51. B D. 1:5
 6. In cross sections of human enamel, many rods 13. The Brownish bands i.e. the successive apposition
resemble: of layer of enamel during the formation of crown
A. Triangle is known as:
B. Fish scales A. Gnarled enamel
C. Skin scales B. Incremental line of Retzius
D. Cow horn
C. Hunter-Schreger bands
7. Which of the following statements is/are false? D. All of the above
A. The average thickness of the crystal of human
enamel is about 30 nanometers 14. In transverse sections of a tooth, the incremental
B. The average width of the crystal of human line of Retzius appears as:
enamel is about 90 nanometer A. Concentric circle
C. Both of the above B. Oblique line
D. None of the above C. Zigzag line
8. The striations are more pronounced in enamel that D. Cracks
is: 15. Perikymata are transverse, wave-like grooves,
A. Sufficiently calcified believed to be the external manifestation of the:
B. Insufficiently calcified
A. Striae of Retzius
C. Fully calcified
D. Not at all calcified B. Gnarled enamel
C. Hunter-Schreger bands
9. The enamel rods are segmented because the D. All of the above
enamel matrix is formed in rhythmic manner. In
humans these segments seem to be of a uniform 16. Perikymata are absent in the:
length of about: A. Postnatal cervical part
A. 2 microns B. All permanent teeth
B. 4 microns C. All deciduous teeth
C. 6 microns D. Occlusal part of the deciduous teeth
D. 8 microns
17. The enamel of deciduous teeth develops partly
10. The arrangement of enamel rods in the permanent before and partly after birth, the boundary between
teeth, in the cervical region, deviates from the the two portions is known as:
horizontal in an: A. Basal lamina
A. Apical direction
B. Incremental line
B. Occlusal direction
C. Incisal direction C. Neonatal line
D. All of the above D. Postnatal line

11. In an oblique plane the bundles of rods seem to 18. A delicate membrane which covers the entire
intertwine more irregularly in the region of cusps crown of the newly erupted tooth is called as:
or incisal edge, this optical appearance of enamel A. Primary enamel cuticle
is called: B. Nasmyth’s membrane
A. Gnarled enamel C. Pellicle
B. Striation D. Both (a) and (b)
C. Hunter- Schreger bands
D. Incremental lines of Retzius 19. Thin, leaf-like structures that extend from enamel
surface towards the dentino-enamel junction are
12. The change in the direction of enamel rods is called:
responsible for appearance of the: A. Enamel tufts
A. Gnarled enamel
B. Gnarled enamel
B. Hunter-Schreger bands
C. Both of the above C. Enamel lamellae
D. None of the above D. Enamel spindle
20. Which of the following statements is/are true about 26. During enamel maturation:
enamel lamellae? A. Calcification ceases
A. Type A lamellae are composed of poorly calcified B. Additional calcification occurs until complete
rod segments calcification is present
B. Type B lamellae consist of degenerated cells C. The ameloblasts play no role
C. Type C lamellae arise in erupted teeth where D. Additional enamel matrix is produced
cracks are filled with organic matter (more 27. The maturation of the enamel starts at:
common) A. Any point between occlusal surface and cervical
D. All of the above region
B. Occlusal surface of the crown and progresses
21. Enamel tufts which arise at the dentinoenamel
toward cervical region
junction and reach into enamel to about 1/5th to 1/
C. Cervical region of the crown
3rd of its thickness are: D. None of the above
A. Hypocalcified enamel rods and interprismatic
substances 28. The formation of dentin:
B. Hypercalcified enamel rods only A. Decreases the blood supply
B. Is not based on tissue interdependence
C. Hypomineralized enamel rods only
C. Is apparently a necessary stimulus for the
D. Similar to surface structures
formation of enamel
22. In the mature dental tissues, the only tissue whose D. Is not a necessary stimulus for the formation of
cells are lost is: enamel
A. Dentin 29. The perikymata are:
B. Pulp A. Elevations between the imbrication lines of
C. Cementum Pickerill
D. Enamel B. Present in the cementum
C. Present in the enamel
23. Which statement about enamel prism rod is not D. Present in the dentin
correct?
A. The prisms run from the dentinoenamel junction 30. The incremental lines of Retzius are seen in ground
to the crown surface transverse sections:
B. The maximal width of a prism in horizontal A. As white bands not in concentric rings
section is 5 m B. As brown bands not in concentric rings
C. Prisms are wider near the dentinoenamel C. As concentric circles in the enamel which
junction than near the crown surface resemble rings in a tree trunk
D. The lengths of all enamel prisms are equal D. Running inward from the dentinoenamel
junction
24. The enamel organ:
31. The enamel rod sheath:
A. Promotes the differentiation of the dental papilla
A. Has cross striations
B. Does not form the enamel
B. Has a lesser amount of inorganic matter than
C. Does not narrow after the first layer of dentin the enamel rod
has formed C. Is a more calcified enamel peripheral shell
D. Does not promote the differentiation of the dentin around each enamel rod
25. After the enamel is completely formed and has D. None of the above
undergone maturation: 32. The enamel rods in the incisal and cuspal areas
A. The ameloblasts form the primary enamel cuticle are:
B. The ameloblasts become much longer A. Vertical in direction
C. The enamel organ becomes a widened layer of B. Horizontal in direction
stratified squamous epithelium C. Inclined apically
D. None of the above D. Oblique and then horizontal in direction
33. Enamel rods: 40. Enamel lamellae:
A. Have only a concave surface in cross section A. Are club-like swellings extending into the
B. Increase in thickness from the dentinoenamel enamel for short distance
junction to the surface of enamel B. Extend for short distances from the
dentinoenamel junction toward the enamel
C. Are always the same thickness regardless of surface
location C. Represent a pathway for proteolytic bacteria to
D. Decrease in thickness from the dentinoenamel the dentinoenamel junction
junction to the enamel surface D. Contain less organic matter than the enamel
34. Gnarled enamel is: proper
A. Present only at the cementoenamel junction 41. Enamel tufts:
B. Present only at the dentinoenamel junction A. Form a pathway for proteolytic bacteria to extend
C. Present only in deciduous teeth to the dentinoenamel junction
B. Contain less organic material than normal
D. Due to markedly wavy and irregular enamel rods
enamel
at the cusps or incisal edges
C. Contain highly calcified enamel rods and
35. Ionic interchanges between matured/erupted interprismatic substance
enamel and saliva: D. Are areas of imperfect calcification extending for
A. Occur throughout life short distances from the dentinoenamel junction
toward the enamel surface
B. Occur only for two years following eruption
C. Cease to occur in young adult life 42. The Hunter-Schreger bands are:
D. Do not occur A. Not visible in ground sections
B. An illusion in reflected light
36. Matured enamel is subjected to: C. Due to alternating directions of successive
A. Erosion and attrition only groups of enamel rods in reflected light
B. Caries, erosion and attrition D. Not visible in reflected light
C. Caries and attrition only 43. The uptake of fluorine by enamel:
D. Caries and erosion only A. Fails to taper off
B. Is the same during the first years following
37. Enamel contains: enamel formation and in later years
A. 96% organic substance C. Is very slow during the first years following
B. 1.5% inorganic substance enamel formation
C. 100% organic substance D. Is very rapid during the first years following
enamel formation
D. None of the above
44. Nitrogen is present in the surface enamel in:
38. Enamel contains:
A. Greater concentration in young teeth
A. 96% water B. Greater concentration in older teeth
B. 1% water C. Lower concentration in older teeth
C. 5% water D. Lower concentration at the dentinoenamel
D. None of the above junction

39. Enamel is: 45. The addition of 1 PPM of fluorine (F) to the drinking
A. The only tissue whose formation does not cease water causes:
A. An increment of about 300 PPM in surface
B. Made up of 100% inorganic material
enamel
C. The only calcified tissue in mammals of B. A decrement of about 100 PPM in surface enamel
epithelial origin C. An increase in aluminum in the surface enamel
D. None of the above D. No change in F concentration in surface enamel
46. The principal blood supply of ameloblasts during 54. Poorly calcified enamel is present in:
most of enamel formation is from: A. Perikymata
A. Enamel B. Gnarled enamel
B. Dental pulp C. Enamel lamellae
C. Reduced dental organ D. Enamel prisms.
D. Dentin
55. In the human body the hardest calcified tissue is:
47. In cross section enamel prisms approximately have
A. Dentin
an average thickness of:
A. 3 microns B. Cementum
B. 300 angstroms C. Bone
C. 3 angstroms D. Enamel
D. 30 microns 56. The percentage of the inorganic component of the
48. The long axis of enamel crystals is: enamel is:
A. Parallel to the prism axis A. 96%
B. Parallel to the tooth surface B. 95%
C. Perpendicular to the tooth surface C. 92%
D. Both (a) and (c) D. 90%
49. The gnarled enamel is observed in: 57. The dentinoenamel junction is in the form of:
A. In cervical area
A. A scalloped line with convexities towards the
B. Only in the canines
enamel.
C. In carious areas
D. In cuspal areas B. A scalloped line with the convexities of the
scallops towards dentin
50. The enamel spindle is: C. A straight line
A. Part of Tomes’ enamel process D. None of the above.
B. The distal part of an odontoblastic process in
enamel 58. Direction of the enamel rods in the deciduous and
C. An area with a high collagen content permanent teeth is:
D. A hypercalcified area A. Same throughout
51. Hunter Schreger bands appear due to: B. Different at cervical third
A. Daily growth rhythms C. Different at occlusal and incisal thirds
B. Increased organic content in some areas D. None of the above
C. Dietary change after birth
59. For the control of dental caries fluoride level in
D. Changes in the enamel prism orientation from
drinking water should be:
one group of prisms to the next group of prisms
A. 8 PPM
52. Tomes’ enamel process: B. 4 PPM
A. Remains in the mature enamel as the C. 2 PPM
ameloblastic process
D. 1 PPM
B. Extends into the dentin
C. Forms at the proximal end of the ameloblast 60. Enamel tufts:
D. Is apical to the terminal bar/area at the secretory A. Arise from the surface of enamel and reach at
apical end of ameloblast dentinoenamel junction
53. Enamel that can withstand severe masticatory force B. Arise at the dentinoenamel junction and proceed
is: into the enamel towards surface
A. Root enamel C. Arise at dentin pulp junction and reach upto
B. Cervical enamel enamel
C. Gnarled enamel D. Arise from the surface of enamel and reach upto
D. Enamel lamellae. the pulp.
61. The angle between the diazones and parazones is
approximately: CHAPTER-5
A. 10 degree DENTIN
B. 40 degree
C. 70 degree
D. 100 degree 1. Which of the following statements is/are true about
Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)?
62. The mean rate of enamel formation is:
A. The surface of dentin at the DEJ is pitted
A. 1.0 micron per day
B. This relation assumes the firm hold of the enamel
B. 3. 5 micron per day
cap on dentin surface
C. 6. 5 micron per day
C. DEJ appears as a scalloped line
D. 10.0 micron per day
D. All of the above
63. Which of the following is present at dentinoenamel
2. Which of the following statements is/are true about
junction and help in cell signaling?
Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ). DEJ is observed a?
A. Ameloblastin
A. Hypermineralized zone about 30 microns thick”
B. Enamelin
B. Hypomineralized zone about 30 microns thick”
C. Tuftelin
C. Hypermineralized zone about 60 microns thick”
D. None of the above
D. Hypomineralized zone about 60 microns thick”
64. In transition stage following changes take place:
3. Odontoblastic process which passes across the
A. Reduced hight of ameloblast
dentinoenamel junction into enamel is called:
B. Secretion of enamel stops completely
A. Gnarled enamel
C. Removal of amelogenin starts
B. Enamel spindle
D. All of the above
C. Enamel lamellae
65. What is the thickness of the layer of prismless D. Enamel tufts
enamel found in primary teeth?
4. Enamel spindle in ground section of dried teeth
A. 25 microns appears dark in:
B. 50 microns
A. Transmitted light
C. 75 microns
B. Reflected light
D. 100 microns
C. Polarized light
D. All of the above
5. In ground section of dried teeth, which of the
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. D 5. A 6. B following appear light in transmitted light?
7. D 8. B 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. C A. Enamel spindle
13. B 14. A 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. D B. Dead tracts
19. C 20. D 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. A C. Sclerotic dentin
25. A 26. B 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. C D. All of the above
31. B 32. A 33. B 34. D 35. A 36. B 6. Dental lamellae may also be predisposing locations
37. D 38. D 39. C 40. C 41. D 42. C for caries because they contain:
43. D 44. B 45. A 46. C 47. B 48. D A. Much organic material
49. D 50. B 51. D 52. D 53. C 54. C B. Less organic material
55. D 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. D 60. B C. Much inorganic material
61. B 62. B 63. C 64. D 65. A D. None of the above
 7. At the free border of the enamel organ, the outer 15. The ratio between the number of tubules per unit
and inner enamel epithelial layers are continuous area on the pulpal and outer surfaces of dentin is
and are reflected into one another as the: about:
A. Facial loop A. 1:1 B. 1:2
B. Buccal loop C. 4:1 D. 1:4
C. Cervical loop
16. The main body of dentin is:
D. Terminal bar
A. Peritubular dentin B. Intertubular dentin
8. Which of the following statements is/are true? C. Predentin D. Tomes’ fibers
A. Distal ends of enamel rods are not in direct
17. The first formed dentin which is not mineralized
contact with the dentin
is:
B. The projection of the ameloblasts into enamel
A. Peritubular B. Intertubular
matrix has been named Tomes’ process
C. Predentin D. Odontoblastic process
C. Tomes’ process contains rough endoplasmic
reticulum and mitochondria 18. The dentin that immediately surrounds the
D. All of the above dentinal tubules is:
A. Peritubular dentin B. Intertubular dentin
9. Which of the following statements is/are false?
C. Predentin D. First formed dentin
A. At least two ameloblasts are involved in the
synthesis of each enamel rod 19. The cytoplasmic extension of the odontoblast into
B. The bulk of the ‘head’ of each enamel rod is dentinal tubules is called as:
formed by one ameloblast while the contribution A. Odontoblastic process
of 3 ameloblasts is to the component of the tail of B. Tomes’ fibers
each rod. C. None of the above
C. Each ameloblast contributes to four different rods D. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
20. The odontoblastic processes are composed of:
10. The dentin is formed: A. Microtubules 20 microns in diameter
A. Slightly before the enamel B. Small filaments 5 to 7.5 microns in diameter
B. Slightly after the enamel C. Mitochondria
C. Slightly after the cementum D. All of the above
D. Slightly after periodontal ligament
21. Secondary dentin is:
11. Physically and chemically the dentin closely A. First formed dentin
resembles: B. Dentin formed before root completion
A. Enamel B. Cementum C. Dentin formed after root completion
C. Bone D. Amalgam D. Circumpulpal dentin
12. The formula of hydroxyapatite is/are: 22. The incremental lines of Von Ebner are in:
A. 3 Ca3 (PO4) 2. Ca(OH)2 A. Enamel B. Dentin
B. [Ca10 (OH)2 (PO4)6] C. Bone D. Cementum
C. CaSO4. 2H2O 23. Some of the incremental lines are accentuated
D. Both (a) and (b)
because of disturbances in the matrix and
13. Hydroxyapatite crystal of dentin is: mineralization process and are known as Contour
A. Much smaller than enamel lines (Owen), and are found in:
B. Much larger than enamel A. Enamel B. Dentin
C. Same as enamel C. Bone D. Cementum
D. None of the above
24. Contour lines (Owen) are:
14. The ratio between outer and inner surfaces of A. Hypocalcified bands
dentin is about: B. Hypercalcified bands
A. 1:1 B. 1:2 C. Non-mineralized bands
C. 2:1 D. 5:1 D. None of the above
25. Sometimes mineralization of dentin begins in 35. How many living cells are damaged when 1 mm2
globular area; these hypomineralized zones are of dentin is exposed?
known as: A. About 10,000 living cells
A. Interglobular dentin B. Granular layer B. About 20,000 living cells
C. Peritubular dentin D. Intertubular dentin C. About 30,000 living cells
26. Tomes’ granular layer is caused by a coalescing D. About 40,000 living cells
and looping of the terminal portions of the dentinal
36. The rapid penetration and spread of caries in the
tubules found in:
dentin is the result of the:
A. Enamel B. Crown dentin
C. Root dentin D. Cementum A. Tubule system in the dentin
B. Canaliculi system in the dentin
27. Due to extensive abrasion, erosion, caries or C. Haversian system in the dentin
operative procedures, the odontoblast deposits D. All of the above
dentin which is called:
A. Reparative dentin B. Secondary dentin 37. The sulcular epithelium is:
C. Tertiary dentin D. (a) and (c) are correct A. Keratinized B. Nonkeratinized
28. Dentin areas characterized by degenerated C. Orthokeratinized D. Parakeratinized
odontoblastic processes which appear white in 38. The remnant of the primary enamel cuticle after
reflected light are called as: eruption is referred to as:
A. Dead tracts B. Sclerotic Dentin A. Nasmyth’s membrane
C. Transparent dentin D. Mantle dentin B. Pellicle
29. Dead tracts are mostly found in: C. Primary attachment epithelium
A. Only deciduous teeth D. All of the above
B. Only incisors
39. The separation of primary attachment epithelium
C. Older teeth
from the enamel is termed as:
D. Carious teeth
A. Active eruption
30. Which of the following statements is/are true about B. Passive eruption
sclerotic dentin? C. Fast eruption
A. It leads to protective changes in the dentin itself D. Functional eruption
B. The mineralization is very similar to peritubular
dentin 40. The clinical crown is the part of the tooth which is:
C. It appears dark in reflected light A. Covered by enamel
D. All of the above B. Covered by gingiva
31. How much initial increment of dentin is formed C. Exposed in the oral cavity
during dentinogenesis until the crown is formed? D. None of the above
A. 3 mm/day B. 4 mm/day 41. Compared with intertubular dentin, peritubular
C. 5 mm/day D. 6 mm/day dentin is characterized by having:
32. Korff’s fibers are found in: A. Less inorganic salt content and a heavier
A. Primary dentin B. Secondary dentin collagenous matrix
C. Sclerotic dentin D. Transparent dentin B. More inorganic salt content and a finer
33. What is the rate of reparative dentin formation after collagenous matrix
cavity preparation in dentin? C. More fluid content and a different refractive index
A. 4 microns per day B. 6 microns per day D. Fewer fibers and being more stainable
C. 8 microns per day D. 10 microns per day 42. The most important property of clinical
34. The apatite crystals of dentin are: significance of dentin of the tooth is that it:
A. 300 times larger than those formed in enamel A. Is softer than enamel
B. 300 times smaller than those formed in enamel B. Protects the pulp
C. 3000 times smaller than those formed in enamel C. Supports the enamel
D. 3000 times larger than those formed in enamel D. Is more resilient than enamel
43. Growth in height of the alveolar process is 50. Dentin consists of:
dependant upon: A. Cells, collagen fibers and cementing substance
A. Growth of alveolar process with the eruption of B. Cementing substance
teeth. C. Intercellular substances
B. Condylar growth D. None of the above
C. Growth of the upper face 51. Which is highly calcified dentin?
D. Growth of the cranial base A. Interglobular dentin
44. When teeth fail to develop in the jaw, the alveolar B. Tomes’ granular layer
process? C. Peritubular dentin
A. Shows partial growth D. Intertubular dentin
B. Fails to form 52. Dentin in which the tubules are calcified is termed
C. Continues to grow as:
D. Shows excessive growth A. Physiological secondary dentin
45. The differentiation of odontoblasts and formation B. Dead tract dentin
of dentin and enamel first begins at the: C. Interglobular dentin
D. Sclerotic dentin
A. Region of the cervical loop
B. Incisal edge or tip of cusps 53. Korff’s fibers are:
C. Midway between the incisal edge and cervical A. The same as enamel spindles
loop B. The same as the enamel tufts
D. None of the above C. Related to reticular fibers
D. Intracellular
46. Growth centers in tooth development are located
at: 54. Important characteristic of mantle dentin is
A. Any region between the incisal edge and cervical presence of:
loop A. Enamel spindles B. Hertwig’s sheath
B. The incisal edge and tip of the cusps C. Elastin fibers D. Korff’s fibers
C. The region of the cervical loop
55. Initially the neonatal line is:
D. Dentinoenamel junction under the cusp tip
A. Eliminated by fluoridated water
47. In the formation of dentin: B. Hypercalcified
A. Odontoblasts fail to recede towards the pulp C. Found in all teeth
B. Korff’s fibers form the odontoblasts D. Hypocalcified
C. Korff’s fibers are initially deposited dentin at the 56. The percentage of the organic and inorganic
cusp tips components of dentin is:
D. Korff’s fibers become homogenized and form A. 35% organic and water and 65% inorganic
predentin B. 35% inorganic and 65% organic and water
48. Predentin consists of: C. 60% organic and water and 40% inorganic
A. Mineral salts and cementing substance D. 50% organic and water and 50% inorganic
B. Cementing substance 57. The odontoblastic process is surrounded by the
C. Calcospherites ring shaped transparent zone called as:
D. None of the above A. Tubular dentin B. Peritubular dentin
49. When odontoblasts recede towards the pulp, they C. Intertubular dentin D. Ring dentin
leave a part of their cytoplasm termed? 58. The diameters of the dentinal tubules are:
A. Korff’s fibers A. Smaller near the pulpal cavity
B. Tomes’ process within the formed dentin B. Larger at their outer ends
C. Membrana preformativa C. Larger near the pulp cavity
D. None of the above D. Are same from pulp cavity to the outer ends.
59. The most peripheral part of the primary dentin is: 69. Important factor/s in mineralization of dentin is/
A. Intertubular dentin are:
B. Predentin A. Odontoblast secret dentin phosphoprotein and
C. Mantle dentin osteonectin
D. Circumpulpal dentin B. Osteopoutin promote mineralization of dentin
60. Tertiary dentin is: C. Both the above.
A. Reparative dentin’ B. Response dentin D. None of the above
C. Reactive dentin D. All of the above 70. Which statement is not correct?
61. When calcospherites fail to fuse during calcification A. Fluoride increases the hardness of dentin if
of dentin matrix: incorporated during dentinogenesis
A. Transparent dentin is formed B. Ridiculer dentin is less mineralized and slowly
B. Irregular dentin is formed formed in comparison to coronal dentin
C. Interglobular dentin is formed C. Deficiency of Vitamin D does affect the formation
D. Sclerotic dentin is formed. of dentin
D. Deficiency of Vitamin D does not affect the
62. Odontoblast cell bodies are present in the: formation of teeth.
A. Enamel B. Dentin
C. Pulp D. Cementum 71. The average diameter of coronal dentinal tubules
near the pulp is:
63. Which of the following gene is implicated for
A. 0.2-0.5 microns B. 2-3 microns
odontoblastic differentiation?
C. 0.2 –0.3 microns D. 4-7 microns
A. Msx -1 B. Msx- 2
C. Alx-3 D. M A P I B
64. Which of the following gene is implicated for
dentin mineralization? 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A
A. Msx 1 B. PHEX 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. C 12. D
C. Msx-2 D. Alx-3 13. A 14. D 15. C 16. B 17. C 18. A
65. von Korff’s fibers contain: 19. D 20. D 21. C 22. B 23. B 24. A
25. A 26. C 27. D 28. A 29. C 30. D
A. Type I Collagen
31. B 32. A 33. A 34. B 35. C 36. A
B. Type II Collagen
37. B 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. D
C. Type III Collagen
43. A 44. A 45. B 46. D 47. C 48. D
D. None of the above
49. D 50. D 51. C 52. D 53. C 54. D
66. Reparative dentin is laid down by: 55. D 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. C 60. D
A. Newly differentiated odontoblasts 61. C 62. C 63. D 64. B 65. C 66. A
B. Old odontoblasts survived after injury 67. A 68. C 69. C 70. C 71. B
C. Both the above
D. None of the above.
67. Reactionary or regenerated dentin is laid down by: CHAPTER-6
A. Odontoblasts survived by any injury
DENTAL PULP
B. Newly diffentiated odontoblasts
C. Both the above
D. None of the above
1. How many pulp organs are normally found in
68. Dentin phosphophoryn is not present in: every person?
A. Primary dentin B. Secondary dentin A. 22 B. 32
C. Tertiary dentin D. None of the above C. 52 D. 62
 2. The total volume of all the permanent pulp organs 12. Lymph vessels draining the pulp and periodontal
is: ligament of mandibular anterior teeth pass to the:
A. 0.02 cc B. 0.006 cc A. Submental lymph nodes
C. 0.068 cc D. 0.38 cc B. Submandibular lymph nodes
C. Deep cervical lymph nodes
3. The total volume of pulp organ of maxillary first D. All of the above
molar is:
13. Sensation of pain in pulp is mediated by:
A. 0.006 cc B. 0.007 cc A. Large myelinated fibers
C. 0.068 cc D. 0.38 cc B. Large unmyelinated fibers
4. The total volume of pulp organ of mandibular C. Small unmyelinated fibers
central incisor is: D. None of the above
A. 0.006 cc B. 0.007 cc 14. The peripheral axons form a network of nerves
C. 0.012 cc D. 0.014 cc located adjacent to the cell rich zone in pulp known
as:
5. The average diameter of the apical foramen of the
A. 5 HT B. Plexus of Rashkow
mandibular and maxillary teeth in adults is: C. Zone of Weil D. Brachial plexus
A. 0.3 mm and 0.4 respectively
15. Sensory response in the pulp can differentiate
B. 0.6 mm and 0.7mm respectively
between:
C. 0.8 mm and 0.9 mm respectively
A. Heat and pain
D. 0.8 mm and 0.6 mm respectively B. Touch and heat
6. Weil’s zone of pulp is a: C. Pressure and chemicals
A. Cell-rich zone B. Cell-free zone D. None of the above
C. Fibroblast zone D. Mesenchymal cell 16. Which of the following statements is/are true?
zone A. Pulpal pressure is among the highest of the body
tissues
7. The most numerous cell type in the pulp is:
B. Sensory nerves in the pulp respond with pain to
A. Fibroblast B. Cementoblast all stimuli
C. Odontoblast D. Defense cell C. Function of pulp is inductive, formative,
nutritive, protective and defensive
8. In the young pulp the cells, which divide and are
D. All of the above
active in protein synthesis are known as:
A. Fibroblasts B. Fibrocytes 17. The average length of time a deciduous pulp
C. Odontoblasts D. Histiocytes functions in the oral cavity is only about:
A. 8.3 years B. 10.3 years
9. The primary cells in the very young pulp, which C. 11.3 years D. 13.3 years
may become odontoblasts, fibroblasts or
macrophages when needed, are: 18. The maximum life of the deciduous pulp
including both prenatal and postnatal times of
A. Undifferentiated mesenchyme cells
development and the period of regression is
B. Defense cells
approximately:
C. Plasma cells A. 8.3 years B. 9.6 years
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum C. 10.6 years D. 12.6 years
10. The anastomosis which occurs in pulp is: 19. Which of the following statements is/are true about
A. Venous-venous B. Arteriole-venous regressive changes of pulp?
C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of the above A. Mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum are
reduced in number and size
11. The second most prominent cell in the pulp is: B. Fibrosis of pulp
A. Fibroblast B. Odontoblast C. Pulp stones and diffuse calcifications of pulps
C. Cementoblast D. Neutrophil D. All of the above
20. Calcification in the walls of blood vessels in aging 29. The function of non myelinated sympathetic nerve
pulp is found most often in the region near the: endings in the pulp is to:
A. Coronal portion of root A. Form a plexus in the cell free zone of Weil
B. CEJ of root B. Elicit only a pain response
C. Apical foramen C. Alter the blood flow to the pulp
D. Pulp chamber D. Enter the dentinal tubules
21. Calcification of thrombi in blood vessels is called: 30. The coronal pulp has:
A. True denticle A. Two surfaces B. Four surfaces
B. Diffuse calcification
C. Five surfaces D. Six surfaces
C. Phlebolith
D. All of the above 31. The majority of the nerves that enter the pulp are:
22. The structures similar to dentin in that they exhibit A. Myelinated B. Non-myelinated
dental tubuli containing the process of C. Both of the above D. None of the above
odontoblasts, are rarely found and located close to 32. Dental pulp functions:
the apical foramen, are: A. To protect the tooth by its phagocytic cells
A. True denticles B. False denticles B. As a source of odontoblasts
C. Cementicles D. None of the above C. To provide sensitivity to heat, cold and pressure.
23. Which of the following statements is/are true? D. All of the above
A. Diffuse calcifications are usually found in the 33. Wandering cells of pulp are:
root canal and less often in coronal pulp
A. Lymphoid wandering cells
B. Denticles are seen more frequently in the coronal
B. Histiocytes
pulp
C. 90% of teeth in persons over the age of 50 years C. Fibroblasts
contain calcification of some type D. Undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.
D. All of the above 34. True denticles:
24. The tooth pulp is initially called the: A. Have dental tubules and the processes of the
A. Predentin B. Dental papilla odontoblasts.
C. Subpulpal dentin D. Pulp polyp B. Are usually located close to the apical foramen.
C. May be induced by fragments of epithelial root
25. At the location of future incisor the development sheath
of the dental pulp begins at about: D. All of the above.
A. 4th week of embryonic life
B. 6th week of embryonic life 35. Which of the following statements is / are true?
C. 8th week of embryonic life A. The free denticles are entirely surrounded by
D. 9th week of embryonic life pulp tissue.
B. Attached denticles are partly fused with the
26. The cell of the dental pulp that has the potential
dentin.
for giving rise to several distinctly different types
C. Embedded denticles are entirely surrounded by
of cells is the:
dentin.
A. Endothelial cell B. Mesenchymal cell
D. All are correct.
C. Schwann cell D. Macrophage
36. The incidence and size of pulp stone:
27. After completion of root formation, the remainder
A. Decrease with age
of the dental papilla becomes the:
B. Increase with age
A. Hertwig’s sheath B. Dental pulp
C. Dental follicle D. Enamel organ C. There is no effect of age
D. None of the above
28. The cells that line the pulp chambers of newly
erupted teeth are: 37. The vitality of the pulp depends upon:
A. Ameloblasts B. Odontoblasts A. Nerve supply B. Blood supply
C. Fibroblasts D. Cementoblasts C. Both of the above D. None of the above
38. When compared with a very young pulp the more 45. Dendritic cells in pulp are present in the areas
aged pulp contains? affected by:
A. Fewer cells and fewer collagen fibers A. Caries
B. More cells and fewer collagen fibers B. Attrition
C. Restorative procedure
C. Fewer cells and more collagen fibers
D. All of the above
D. More cells and more collagen fibers
46. Which statements is/are correct:
39. Which cell type is usually not found in dental pulp? A. Plasma cells in the pulp produce antibodies
A. Small lymphocytes and plasma cells B. Pulpal stem cells are pluripotent cells.
B. Fat cells C. Both of above
C. Histiocytes and macrophages D. None of the above.
D. Fibroblasts and undifferentiated mesenchymal 47. Which of the following statement is wrong?
cells. A. In pulp nerve ending are located close to the
40. In an inflamed pulp usually there are certain cells odontoblast
which are associated with small blood vessels B. In pulp nerve endings are located away from the
odontoblasts.
having large and prominent nucleus, these are:
C. In mild pulpal injury molecules like kinetin, actin
A. Lymphocytes B. Mast cells and myosin produce dense skeletal network.
C. Histiocytes D. Fibroblasts D. Injured cells in the pulp release the calcium
41. The blood flow in vessels of the pulp as compared which help in migration of cell.
to most of the other organs of the body is: 48. In which week of intrauterine life nerve fibers in
A. Very slow B. Faster the dental follicle are first seen:
C. Almost nil D. Equal A. Sixth week B. Eleventh week
C. Eighteenth week D. Twenty fourth week
42. The proof of presence of lymph capillaries in the
pulp are on the basis of: 49. In which week of intrauterine life nerve fibres in
A. Absence of basal lamina adjacent to the the dental papilla are first seen:
endothelium. A. Sixth week B. Twelveth week
C. Eighteenth week D. Twentyforth week.
B. Absence of red blood cells and presence of
lymphocytes in certain vessels. 50. Which of the following material form thick dentin
C. Injected fine particulate substances bridge and produce less inflammation, necrosis
subsequently found in some thin walled vessels and hyperemia?
other than blood vessels A. Zinc oxide Eugenol
D. All of the above. B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Mineral trioxide aggregate
43. Which of the following fibers are not found in D. Polyantibiotic paste
dental pulp:
51. Pulp capping material of future are bioactive
A. Argyrophilic fibers B. Collagen fibers
molecules like:
C. Elastic fibers D. None.
A. Bone morphogenic protein
44. Which statement is wrong: B. Purified dentin protein
A. In pulp fibroblasts help in the inflammatory and C. Both the above
healing process by the secretion of growth D. None of the above.
factors and cytokines. 52. Which of the following check the vitality of the
B. In pulp fibroblasts help in the inflammatory and tooth by recording the pulpal blood flow?
healing process by the secretion of colony A. Laser doppler flowmetry
stimulating factors, FC F -2 and VE GF. B. Transmitted light photoplethysmography.
C. Both the above. C. Both the above
D. None of the above. D. None of the above.
 7. The incremental lines of cementum are:
A. Poorly mineralized
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. B B. Highly mineralized
7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. A C. Irregularly mineralized
13. A 14. B 15. D 16. D 17. A 18. B D. None of the above
19. D 20. C 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B
25. C 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. D 8. In approximately 60% of teeth:
31. B 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. D 36. B A. Cementum overlaps the enamel at the cervical
37. B 38. C 39. B 40. C 41. B 42. D end for a short distance
43. C 44. C 45. D 46. C 47. B 48. B B. Cementum and enamel do not meet
49. C 50. C 51. C 52. C C. Cementum meets in a sharp line to enamel
D. A connective tissue attachment to tooth is
possible without cementum
CHAPTER-7 9. Absence of cementum is found in:
CEMENTUM A. Hypophosphatasia
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Hyperthyroidism
1. Cementum was first demonstrated microscopically D. Mongolism
in: 10. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. 1835 B. 1935 A. Cementum is not resorbed under normal
C. 1895 D. 1995 conditions
2. The cementum is: B. Deposition of cementum in an apical area can
compensate for loss of tooth substance by
A. Vascular B. Avascular
occlusal wear
C. Attached to pulp D. None of the above
C. Hypercementosis is abnormal thickening of
3. Which of the following statements is/are true? cementum
A. Young cementum is lighter in color than dentin D. All of the above
B. Cementum is permeable 11. Orthodontic tooth movement is made possible
C. Cementum has the highest fluoride content of because:
all the mineralized tissues A. Cementum is more resistant to resorption than
D. All of the above bone
4. Epithelial rests of Malassez are found in the: B. Bone is more resistant to resorption than
cementum
A. Dentin B. Periodontal ligament
C. Bone is poorly vascularized than cementum
C. Cementum D. Enamel
D. Cementum is poorly vascularized than bone
5. The uncalcified matrix of cementum is called:
12. Regarding functional repair of cementum which
A. Cementoid B. True denticles
of the following statements is/are correct?
C. False denticles D. Free denticles
A. There is tendency to reestablish the former
6. Which of the following statements is/are true? outline of root surface
A. Acellular cementum is often missing on the B. Only a thin layer of cementum is deposited on
apical 3rd of the root the surface of deep resorption and root outline is
B. Cementum is thinnest at the cemento-enamel not reconstructed
junction C. The outline of alveolar bone in these cases
C. Cementum is thickest at the apex follows that of root surface
D. All of the above D. Both (b) and (c)
13. Compact bone and cellular cementum are similar 22. If functional qualities of cementum improve by its
as they contain: overgrowth it is called as:
A. Canaliculi and incremental lines A. Hypoplasia B. Hyperplasia
B. Lacunae and elastic fibers C. Hypertrophy D. Any of the above
C. Collagen fibers and blood vessels 23. In a nonfunctioning teeth there is:
D. Sharpey’s fibers and elastic fibers A. Thickening of the cementum
14. Sharpey’s fibers: B. Thinning of the cementum
A. Arise from Hertwig’s sheath C. No change in cementum
D. None of the above
B. Arise from the epithelial rests of Malassez
C. Arise from the epithelial diaphragm 24. Cementoblasts are of the following types:
D. Are collagen fibers of the dental follicle A. Cemantoblasts producing cellular cementum
embedded in the cementum B. Cementoblasts producing acellular cementum
C. Both the above
15. Cementoid is: D. None of the above.
A. The alveolar bone
B. The central zone of fibers 25. Cementoblasts are:
C. The uncalcified cementum A. Cuboidal cells B. Round cells
C. Tall columnar cells. D. Spider like cells.
D. The calcified matrix of cementum
16. Cementum formation is:
A. Not a continuous process
B. Always results in cellular cementum 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. D
C. A continuous process 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. D
D. Present in the dental follicle 13. A 14. D 15. C 16. C 17. D 18. A
19. C 20. B 21. D 22. C 23. A 24. C
17. Cementum is formed from: 25. A
A. Endoderm B. The dental organ
C. Ectoderm D. The dental sac
18. Cellular cementum is thickest: CHAPTER-8
A. Around the root apex
B. At cementoenamel junction
PERIODONTAL LIGAMENT
C. At middle one third of the root.
D. At coronal one third of the root.
1. The periodontium comprises of how many
19. Cementum is thinnest at: connective tissues?
A. Apical third of root A. 2 B. 3
B. Middle third of root C. 4 D. 5
C. Cementoenamel junction
2. The functions of periodontal ligament is/are:
D. Apical foramen
A. Support and nutrition
20. Acellular cementum is thickest at: B. Synthesis and resorption
A. Apical foramen C. Proprioception
B. Coronal one third of root D. All of the above
C. Middle one third of root
3. The majority of the fibers of the periodontal
D. Apical one third of root
ligament are:
21. Cementum overlaps the cervical end of enamel in A. Collagen
a relatively sharp line in: B. Variety of micromolecules
A. 30% of teeth B. 20% of teeth C. Mesenchymal
C. 10% of teeth D. None A. All of the above
 4. The mandible consists of a series of bones united 12. A particular glycoprotein which occurs in
by sutures found in: filamentous form in the periodontal ligament is
A. Birds B. Orthopodes called:
C. Reptiles D. Mammals A. Fibronectin B. Proline
C. Hydroxyproline D. Chitin
5. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. In the reptiles the teeth are ankylosed to the bone 13. The blood supply of periodontal ligament is
B. In the mammals teeth are suspended in their derived from:
socket by ligament A. Branches from apical vessels that supply dental
C. In the reptiles growth of the mandibular body in pulp
height occurs in mandibular sutures B. Branches from intra-alveolar vessels
D. All of the above C. Branches from gingival vessels
D. All of the above
6. Osteoclasts are rich in:
A. Alkaline phosphatase 14. Which vitamin is essential for collagen synthesis?
B. Acid phosphatase A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B
C. Both of the above C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D
D. None of the above 15. Measurements of a larger number of periodontal
7. The mast cells are characterized by numerous ligament range from:
cytoplasmic granules. The granules have been A. 0.01 - 0.02 mm B. 0.01 - 0.03 mm
shown to contain: C. 0.015 - 0.038 mm D. 0.15 - 0.38 mm
A. Heparin B. Histamine 16. The thickness of the periodontal ligament is:
C. Serotonin D. All of the above
A. Less in functionless and embedded teeth
8. Periodontal ligament appears to be made up of: B. More in teeth that are under excessive occlusal
A. Type I and Type II collagen stresses
B. Type I and Type III collagen C. More in functionless teeth
C. Type II and Type III collagen D. (a) and (b) are correct
D. Only Type III collagen 17. The periodontal ligament is synthesized from:
9. The fibers in human periodontal ligament are A. Cementum
made up of: B. Alveolar bone
A. Collagen B. Oxytalan C. Secondary cementum
C. Both of the above D. None of the above D. Middle portion of the dental follicle

10. The fiber bundle that is most numerous and 18. The cementum, periodontal ligament and alveolar
constitutes the main attachment of the tooth is: bone are derived from the:
A. Alveolar crest group B. Horizontal group A. Dental follicle B. Cementoid
C. Oblique group D. Apical group C. Cementoblasts D. Sharpey’s fibers

11. What do you know about intermediate plexus in 19. The dental follicle is a condensation of:
periodontal ligament? A. Mesenchymal cells surrounding the enamel
A. It may appear as fibers arising from cementum organ and dental papilla
and bone joined in the midregion of the B. Cells around the dental papilla
periodontal space C. Cells around the enamel organ
B. It provides a site where rapid remodeling of fibers D. Ectodermal cells surrounding the enamel organ
occurs and dental papilla
C. It is an artifact arising out of the plane of section 20. The fibers forming the periodontal ligament are:
and may move from one bundle to the other A. Reticular B. Collagen
D. All of the above C. Elastin D. Keratin
21. The largest group of periodontal fibers are: 30. Function/s of the fibroblasts is/are:
A. The apical fibers A. Formation and remodeling of periodontal
B. The horizontal fibers ligament fibres
C. The oblique fibers B. To maintain the width of periodontal ligament
D. The transseptal fibers C. Both the above
D. None of the above
22. The apical group of periodontal fibers originates
from the: 31. Mesenchymal stem cells in periodontal ligament
A. Cervical portion of the tooth perform the following functions:
B. Crest of the alveolar bone A. Tissue homeostasis
C. Ends of the roots B. Source of renewable progenitor cells
D. Mid root region. C. Both of above
D. None of the above
23. The nerves present in the periodontal ligament
are: 32. The average diameter of the arterioles in
A. Nonmyelinated B. Myelinated periodontal ligament is:
C. None D. Both A. 5 micron B. 10 micron
C. 15 micron D. 20 micron
24. The principal fibers of the periodontal ligament
are attached to: 33. Mean average diameter of venous channels in
A. Dentin and cementum periodontal ligament is:
B. Cementum and basal bone A. 18 micron B. 28 micron
C. Alveolar bone proper and cementum C. 38 micron D. 48 micron
D. Supporting alveolar bone and cementum 34. Desmodont is another name for:
25. Which of the following is not a function of A. The tooth with one wall pocket.
periodontal ligament? B. Tooth with three walled pocket
A. Supportive B. Nutritive C. Periodontal ligament “
C. Sensory D. Defensive D. Dehiscence

26. The periodontal ligament is thinnest in:

A. Apical third of the root
B. Middle region of the root 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D 6. B
C. Coronal third of the root 7. D 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. A
D. Apical foramen 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. D 17. D 18. A
19. C 20. B 21. C 22. C 23. D 24. C
27. In a non- functioning tooth the periodontal 25. D 26. B 27. B 28. B 29. C 30. C
ligament is: 31. C 32. D 33. B 34. C
A. Thick B. Thin
C. Either of the above D. None of the above
28. The periodontal ligament fibers, which hold the CHAPTER-9
tooth in socket and oppose lateral forces are:
ORAL MUCOUS MEMBRANE
A. Gingival fibers
B. Alveolar crest fibers
C. Apical fibers
1. The main function of saliva is to:
D. Oblique fibers
A. Digest the food
29. Width of the periodontal ligament is: B. Kill the bacteria
A. 5 to 15 micron B. 25 to 50 micron C. Clean the surfaces of teeth
C. 0.15 to 0.38 mm D. 0.60 to 0.85 mm D. Lubricate the food and facilitate its swallowing
 2. Masticatory mucosa is the mucosa covering: 12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Gingiva B. Alveolar mucosa A. In the absence of sulcus there is no free gingiva
C. Floor of mouth D. Soft palate B. The disappearance of stippling is an indication
of gingivitis
3. Which of the following is keratinized area? C. In younger females the connective tissue of
A. Vermilion border of lip gingiva is more finely textured than in the males
B. Alveolar mucosa D. All of the above
C. Floor of oral cavity
13. In a three-dimensional view, the interdental papilla
D. Inferior surface of tongue
of posterior teeth is tent shaped, whereas in
4. The connective tissue component of oral mucosa anterior teeth its shape is:
is termed the: A. Pyramidal B. Rectangular
A. Basal layer B. Basement membrane C. Elliptical D. Square
C. Lamina propria D. Submucous layer
14. The gingival ‘col’ is more vulnerable to periodontal
5. A common feature of all epithelial cells is that they disease because it is:
contain keratin. The analogous components of A. Keratinized B. Parakeratinized
connective tissue cells are called: C. Nonkeratinized D. Orthokeratinized
A. Desmin B. Vimentin
15. The accessory fibers that extend interproximally
C. Neural filaments D. None of the above
between adjacent teeth are known as:
6. Lamina lucida contains: A. Transseptal fibers
A. Laminin B. Dentogingival fibers
B. Bullous pemphigoid antigen C. Alveologingival fibers
C. Antigen bound by the antibody KF-1 D. Circular fibers
D. Both (a) and (b) 16. The pigmentation is more abundant at the:
7. The percentage of cell membrane occupied by A. Buccal gingiva
hemidesmosomes is highest in basal cells of: B. Labial gingiva
C. Base of the interdental papilla
A. Gingiva and palate
D. Lingual gingiva
B. Alveolar mucosa
C. Buccal mucosa 17. The gingiva is:
D. Tongue A. 75% parakeratinized
B. 15% keratinized
8. Out of the four layers which cells are the most C. 10% nonkeratinized
active in protein synthesis? D. All of the above
A. Basal cells B. Spinous cells
C. Granular cells D. Corneum cells 18. The lymph supply of gingiva is:
A. Submental B. Submandibular
9. Odland body is found in: C. Jugulo-omohyoid D. Only (a) and (b)
A. Spinous cell layers B. Granular cell layers
C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of the above 19. Vermilion border, which is the transitional zone
between the skin of the lip and the mucous
10. The lamina propria, a layer of dense connective membrane of the lip, is also known as:
tissue, is: A. White zone B. Red zone
A. Thicker in anterior than in posterior parts of C. Reducing zone D. Violet zone
palate
B. Thicker in posterior than in anterior part of palate 20. The sebaceous glands lateral to the corner of the
C. Not found in posterior part of palate mouth and often seen opposite the molars are
D. Not found in anterior part of palate called:
A. Fordyce’s spot
11. Gingiva most often is: B. Hutchinson spot
A. Nonkeratinized B. Keratinized C. Intestinal polyposis
C. Orthokeratinized D. Parakeratinized D. Miller’s spot
21. Which papillae of tongue are keratinized and do 27. The last organic material secreted by the
not contain taste buds? ameloblast is:
A. Fungiform papillae A. Primary enamel cuticle
B. Filiform papillae B. Secondary cuticle
C. Vallate papillae C. Enamel tufts
D. (b) and (c) D. Tomes’ process
22. Which of the following statements is/are true? 28. The oral epithelium is attached to the enamel via:
A. Sweet taste is perceived at the tip of the tongue A. Reticular fibers B. Collagen fibers
B. Salty taste is perceived at the lateral border of C. Hemidesmosomes D. Elastic fibers
the tongue 29. Oral Epithelium is:
C. Bitter and sour taste are perceived on the palate A. Nervous tissue B. Muscle tissue
and in the posterior part of the tongue C. Connective tissue D. Avascular tissue
D. All of the above
30. The lamina propria of the oral mucous membrane
23. Which statement about oral mucosa in general is contains:
not correct? A. Ectoderm B. Bone
A. Oral mucosa is defined as moist lining of the C. Keratin D. Blood vessels
oral cavity that is in continuation with the
exterior surface of skin. 31. Majority of taste buds are found on the:
B. Oral mucosa is situated anatomically between A. Filiform papillae
the skin and intestinal mucosa. Hence, it shows B. Fungiform papillae
some properties of both C. Circumvallate papillae and the adjacent trench
C. Oral mucosa shows regional structural wall.
modifications according to the stress and D. All of the above
workload borne by it.
32. Glands of von Ebner empty their contents into:
D. The epithelium of the oral mucosa is always
A. Fungiform papillae
orthokeratinized
B. Circumvallate trench
24. The gingival sulcus is formed by the: C. Filiform papilla
A. Tooth surface and epithelial covering of attached D. None of the above
gingiva
33. The gingival sulcus is bounded by:
B. Tooth surface and epithelial covering of free
gingiva A. Free gingival groove and the junction of mucosa
and gingiva
C. Free gingival groove and mucogingival junction
B. Surface of the tooth and the attached gingiva
D. Epithelial covering of the free and attached
gingiva C. Epithelial covering of the free gingiva and the
tooth surface
25. The reduced enamel epithelium: D. Epithelial covering of the free gingiva and the
A. Is about 40 microns thick attached gingiva
B. Produces the primary enamel cuticle
34. The specialised mucosa is present on:
C. Does not protect the enamel until tooth eruption
A. Lips and cheeks
D. Produces the primary attachment epithelium
B. Gingiva and hard palate
26. After tooth eruption, the reduced enamel C. Dorsum of tongue and taste buds
epithelium: D. Floor of mouth and soft palate
A. Causes shrinkage of the stratum reticulum 35. The connective tissue component of the oral
B. Promotes the differentiation of dentin mucosa is known as:
C. Forms the epithelial attachment A. Submucosa B. Basal lamina
D. Forms the secondary enamel cuticle C. Lamina propria D. Dermis
36. The basement membrane of oral mucosa: 45. The disappearance of the stippling from the
A. Can be seen by light microscope gingiva indicates:
B. Is present at the interface of epithelium and A. Trauma
connective tissue B. Old age
C. Has a width of 1-4 nm C. Progressive gingivitis
D. All of the above D. Is a normal feature
37. The epithelium of the oral mucous membrane is: 46. The most numerous group of gingival fibers is:
A. Stratified columnar A. Dentoperiosteal B. Dentogingival
B. Simple squamous epithelium C. Alveologingival D. Circular
C. Stratified squamous
47. The interdental ligament is formed by:
D. Non- stratified squamous
A. Dento-gingival fibers
38. The epithelium present in gingiva and hard palate B. Dentoperiosteal fibers
is: C. Transseptal fibers
A. Parakeratinized D. Alveologingival fibers
B. Nonkeratinized 48. A common feature of melanocytes, Langerhans
C. Keratinized cells and Merkel cell is that they all:
D. Any of the above
A. Produce melanin
39. The epithelium of cheek and sublingual tissue is: B. Have a low or no desmosomal attachment with
A. Nonkeratinized B. Parakeratinized surrounding keratinocytes
C. Keratinized D. None of the above C. Are dendritic
D. Are pressure sensitive cells
40. Of the four layers, the cells most active in protein
synthesis are of: 49. The Langerhans cells are:
A. Stratum corneum A. Found in upper layers of skin and the mucosal
B. Stratum granulosum epithelium
C. Stratum spinosum B. Of hematopoietic origin
D. Stratum basale C. Involved in the immune response
D. All of the above
41. The mucous membrane of the soft palate is:
50. Merkel cells help in:
A. Parakeratinized
B. Nonkeratinized A. Nutritive function
C. Keratinized B. Sensory function
D. Any of the above C. Neurosensory activities
D. Olfactory function
42. Masticatory mucosa is not present on:
51. Number of the circumvallate papilla ranges from:
A. Palatal fauces
A. 20 to 25 B. 15 to 20
B. Attached gingiva
C. 8 to 10 D. 4 to 5
C. Dorsum of the tongue
D. Floor of the mouth 52. The papilla responsible to recognize sour taste is:
A. Vallate papilla B. Foliate papilla
43. Keratinosomes (Odland body) help in:
C. Fungiform papilla D. Filiform papilla
A. Exchange of fluids
B. Nutrition 53. Which of the followings in located at the angle of
C. Sensory perception the V-shaped terminal groove:
D. Formation of intercellular agglutinating material A. Foramen ovale B. Foramen cecum
C. Foramen magnum D. None of the above
44. Jacobson’s organ is:
A. Also known as vomeronasal organ 54. Bitter and Sour taste sensations are mediated by:
B. Ellipsoidal structure lined with olfactory A. Chorda tympani
epithelium B. Hypoglossal nerve
C. Considered as auxiliary olfactory sense organ C. Glossopharyngeal nerve
D. All the above are correct D. Intermediofacial nerve
55. In oral mucous membrane the thickness of lamina 3. The mandible makes its appearance as a bilateral
lucida is: structure in the 6th week of fetal life as thin plate
A. 5 to 10 nm B. 20 to 40 nm of bone:
C. 50 to 70 nm D. 70 to 90 nm A. Mesial to Meckel’s cartilage
56. Merkel cells are commonly observed in: B. Lateral to Meckel’s cartilage
A. Masticatory mucosa C. Mesial and lateral to Meckel’s cartilage
B. Lining mucosa D. Mesial and some distance from Meckel’s
C. Both the above cartilage
D. None of the above 4. Spongy bone is least found in region of:
57. Anticancer drugs affect oral mucosa and cause: A. Anterior teeth
A. Discoloration B. Thickening B. Premolar teeth
C. Ulcers D. Blisters C. Molar teeth
D. Upper posterior teeth only
58. In which part of oral cavity mucous membrane is
the thinnest? 5. The interdental and interradicular septa contain
A. Soft palate B. Labial mucosa the perforating canals of:
C. Floor of mouth D. Buccal mucosa A. Alock’s
B. Zuckerk and Hirschfeld
C. Dorello’s
D. Gartner’s
1. D 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. D
6. Which enzyme participates in the deposition of
7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. D
hydroxyapatite crystals in bone?
13. A 14. C 15. A 16. C 17. D 18. D
A. Alkaline phosphatase
19. B 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. D 24. B
B. Adenosine triphosphatase
25. D 26. C 27. A 28. C 29. D 30. D
C. Pyrophosphatases
31. C 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. C 36. D
D. All of the above
37. C 38. C 39. A 40. C 41. B 42. C
43. D 44. D 45. C 46. B 47. C 48. B 7. Osteoclasts are multinucleated giant cells formed
49. D 50. C 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. C by monocytes and are found in bay-like
55. B 56. A 57. C 58. C depression in the bone called:
A. Haversian canal
B. Volkman canal
C. Howship’s lacunae
CHAPTER-10 D. HIRSCHFELD canal
BONE AND ALVEOLUS 8. During orthodontic tooth movement on the
pressure side there is an increase in the level of:
A. Odontoblast
1. In the beginning of the second month of fetal life
B. Cementoblast
the skull consists of the:
C. Alkaline phosphatase
A. Chondrocranium
D. Cyclic adenosine monophosphophate
B. Desmocranium
C. Appendicular skeleton 9. The body of the mandible is formed by the:
D. All of the above A. Conversion of cartilage directly into bone
B. Ordinary endochondral ossification similar to
2. Which bone develops in desmocranium?
that of most long bones
A. Frontal bone
C. Intramembranous ossification similar to that of
B. Parietal bone
C. Greater wing of sphenoid bone the bones of the cranial vault
D. All of the above D. None of the above
10. The upper jaw:
A. Is formed by fusion of the maxilla and premaxilla
B. Develops from the otic capsule 1. D 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. D
C. Is formed from Meckel’s cartilage 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. C
D. Develops from the nasolacrimal groove
13. B 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. B
11. The mandible ossifies:
A. From one center in the midline of the mandible
B. From two centers located medially to Meckel’s
CHAPTER-11
cartilage
C. As an endomembranous bone SALIVARY GLANDS
D. None of the above
12. Which of the following is vascularized?
1. The salivary glands are:
A. Cementum B. Enamel
A. Exocrine B. Endocrine
C. Bone D. Calculus
C. Holocrine D. None of the above
13. The area of alveolar bone where Sharpey’s fibers
2. The “basket cells” are also known as:
are embedded is called:
A. Myoepithelial cells
A. Lamellar bone
B. Endothelial cells
B. Bundle bone
C. Parenchymal cells
C. Intramembranous bone
D. None of the above
D. Haversian bone
3. Myoepithelial cells are abundant in:
14. Mark the correct statements about bundle bone.
A. Sweat glands B. Mammary glands
It:
C. Both (a) and (b) D. None of the above
A. Lines the socket in the teeth that are subjected to
stress 4. Which of the following statements is/are true?
B. Anchors the Sharpey’s fibers of the periodontal A. Parotid gland is purely serous
ligament B. Submandibular gland is mixed but
C. Contains fewer matrix collagen fibrils than predominantly serous in nature
typical bone C. Sublingual gland is mixed but predominantly
D. All of the above are correct mucous in nature
D. All of the above
15. The alveolar bone:
A. Consists of a compact layer and a cancellous 5. The three bilaterally paired major salivary glands
layer are located:
B. Can be demarcated from the bone of the jaw A. Extraorally B. Intraorally
C. Is known as periodontal plate C. In tongue D. In neck
D. Increases in size to compensate for loss of
6. The parotid glands open through the:
permanent teeth.
A. Stensen’s duct B. Wharton’s duct
16. The bone consists of: C. Bartholein’s duct D. Blanden duct
A. 65% organic and 35% inorganic material
7. The parotid gland duct opens into the oral cavity at
B. 65% inorganic and 35% organic
the position:
C. 70% organic and 30% inorganic
A. On the floor of the mouth
D. 50% organic and 50% inorganic part
B. At the side of the lingual frenum
17. The cells present inside the Howships lacunae are: C. At the caruncula
A. Osteocytes B. Osteoclasts D. On the buccal mucosa opposite the maxillary
C. Odontoblasts D. Osteoblasts 2nd molar
 8. Which statements is/are true? 18. Salivary glands are not found in:
A. The parotid gland is purely serous A. Anterior part of hard palate
B. In infants, few mucous secretory units may be B. Posterior part of hard palate
found in parotid gland C. In mandible posterior to 3rd molar teeth
C. Both (a) and (b) D. Nasopalatine canal
D. None of the above
19. The severance of the duct of minor salivary gland
9. Which gland(s) is/are pure serous in nature? and pooling of saliva in the tissues is called as:
A. Parotid and von Ebner’s glands A. Ranula B. Mucocele
B. Palatine glands only C. Congenital epulis D. Sialadenitis
C. Glossopalatine glands
20. What is the use of Sialochemistry?
D. Lingual glands
A. Determination of the quantity and composition
10. Which gland(s) is/are purely mucous? of the saliva
A. Palatine glands B. Determination of ovulation time
B. Glossopalatine glands C. Both (a) and (b)
C. Posterior lingual mucous glands D. None of the above
D. All of the above
21. Which of the following statement is/are true about
11. The primordia of the parotid and submandibular the connective tissue elements of the salivary
glands appear during 6th week of fetal life, whereas gland?
the primordium of sublingual glands appears after: A. The connective tissue forms a distinct capsule
A. 3-4th weeks of fetal life around major glands but not around minor
B. 7-8th weeks of fetal life glands.
C. 9-10th weeks of fetal life B. The connective tissue elements carry the
D. 10-12 weeks of fetal life vascular and nerve supply of the gland.
C. From the capsule connective tissue septa
12. The minor salivary glands begin their penetrate the gland subdividing it into lobules.
development in fetal life during: D. All of the above are correct
A. 1st month B. 2nd month
rd
C. 3 month D. 4th month 22. ‘Bartholin’s duct’ is a secretory duct of:
A. Parotid gland
13. The total volume of saliva-secreted daily is B. Sublingual gland
approximately? C. Submandibular gland
A. 750 ml B. 1.5 liter D. Palatine glands
C. 2 liter D. 3 liter
23. The antibacterial proteins present in saliva is/ are:
14. The largest amount of saliva is produced by: A. Lysozymes B. Lactoferrins
A. Submandibular gland C. Both of the above D. None of the above
B. Sublingual gland
C. Parotid gland 24. The major glands may become enlarged during:
D. Lingual glands A. Protein deficiency B. Alcoholism
C. Pregnancy D. All of the above
15. The pH of whole saliva is:
A. 1.2 - 2.4 B. 3.0 - 5.6 25. Salivary flow is reduced in:
C. 6.7 - 7.4 D. 7.0 - 8.2 A. Xerostomia
B. Sjögren’s syndrome
16. The predominant salivary immunoglobulin is: C. Inflammation of glands
A. Ig A B. Ig G D. All of the above
C. Ig E D. Ig M
26. Secretory granules of salivary glands are:
17. Human parotid gland produces a hormone, which A. One mm in diameter
is known as: B. Five mm in diameter
A. Menotropins B. Parotin C. Ten mm in diameter
C. Serotonin D. Prohormone D. Fifteen mm in diameter
27. Submandibulor salivary gland secrete: 4. Successional teeth possess an additional anatomic
A. 10 percent of whole saliva. feature, the gubernacular canal and its contents,
B. 30 percent of whole saliva. the gubernacular cord. The function of
gubernacular cord is:
C. 60 percent of whole saliva
A. Guiding the permanent tooth as it erupts
D. 90 percent of whole saliva. B. Blood supply to tooth
28. Which is the predominant factor in the formation C. Blood supply to bone
of the alveolar process? D. Nutrition to tooth
A. Eruption of teeth 5. Removal of the root:
A. Prevents eruption of tooth
B. Normal process of growth
B. Does not prevent eruption
C. Lengthening of the condyle. C. Causes regeneration of root
D. Overall growth of the bodies of the maxilla and D. None of the above
the mandible. 6. Which ligament has a key role in maintaining tooth
position?
A. Horizontal group ligament
B. Apical group ligament
C. Inter-radicular group ligament
1. A 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. A 6. A D. Transseptal ligament
7. D 8. C 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 7. Clinically as the teeth break through the oral
13. A 14. A 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. A mucosa, there is often some pain, slight fever, and
general malaise, all signs of an inflammatory
19. B 20. C 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. D
process. In infants, these symptoms are popularly
25. D 26. A 27. C 28. A called:
A. Teething
B. Biting
CHAPTER-12 C. Erythroblastosis fetalis
D. Erythema multiforme
ERUPTION OF TEETH AND 8. Resorption of the roots of the deciduous incisors
PHYSIOLOGIC TEETH MOVEMENTS and canines begins on their:
A. Mesial surface B. Distal surface
C. Labial surface D. Lingual surface
1. The permanent incisors and canine first develop:
9. The most likely cause of tooth eruption is:
A. Labial to deciduous tooth germs A. The growing root
B. Lingual to the deciduous tooth germs B. Vascular pressure
C. Mesial to deciduous tooth germs C. The developing periodontal ligament
D. Bone growth
D. Distal to deciduous tooth germs
10. The transseptal ligament connects:
2. The upper permanent molars develop in
A. Cementum to bone
tuberosity of the maxilla and in the beginning their B. Bone to bone
occlusal surface faces: C. Gingiva to cementum
A. Labially B. Lingually D. Cementum of one tooth to the cementum of
C. Mesially D. Distally adjacant tooth

3. At first, the occlusal surface of the permanent 11. The actual eruptive movements occur mainly:
A. In a horizontal direction
mandibular molars faces:
B. In a rotational direction
A. Mesially B. Distally C. In an axial direction
C. Lingually D. Labially D. In multiple directions
12. Which one of the following events does not take
place during the active phase of eruption? CHAPTER-13
A. Bone deposition and resorption on the crypt SHEDDING OF DECIDUOUS TEETH
wall.
B. Root formation
C. Organization of a periodontal ligament from the 1. Resorption of the roots of the deciduous incisors
dental follicle. and canines begins on their:
D. Gradual separation of the attachment epithelium A. Mesial surface B. Distal surface
from the enamel surface. C. Labial surface D. Lingual surface

13. Prior to actual eruption in the jaw bone, the tooth: 2. Resorption of the roots of deciduous molars often
first begins on their:
A. Rotates
A. Outer surface B. Inner surface
B. Moves in an apical direction C. Mesial surface D. Distal surface
C. Moves in a horizontal direction
3. A characteristic feature of the odontoclast is high
D. Moves in multiple directions level of activity of the enzyme which is known as:
14. In the teeth with deciduous predecessors which A. Alkaline phosphatase
canal is present that has an influence on eruptive B. Acid phosphatase
tooth movement: C. Pyrophosphatase
D. Hyaluronidase
A. Accessory canal B. Gubernacular canal
4. When a successional tooth germ is missing,
C. Incisive canal D. Nasolacrimal canal
shedding of deciduous tooth is:
15. Eruption of teeth: A. Premature B. Normal
A. Is localized genetically controlled C. Delayed D. Never
B. Is programmed event 5. Sometimes part of the roots of deciduous teeth are
C. Both the above not in the path of erupting permanent teeth and
D. None of the above. may escape resorption. They are most frequently
found in association with the permanent:
16. When the tooth is in the bony crupt the eruption A. Incisors B. Canine
rate is: C. Premolars D. Molars
A. One micron per day B. Five micron per day 6. Retained deciduous teeth are most often the upper:
C. Ten micron per day D. Fifteen micron per day. A. Central incisor B. Lateral incisor
C. Canine D. Molar
17. Final position of the tooth in the oral cavity is
determined by the following factors: 7. For the removal of the dental hard tissues the cells
A. Pressure exerted by the tongue and cheeks responsible are:
B. Pressure exerted by the adjacent teeth A. Odontoclast B. Osteoclasts
C. Osteocytes D. Chondroblast
C. Both of above
D. None of the above. 8. A high level of enzyme acid phosphatase is a
characteristic feature of:
A. Mast cells B. Osteoclast
C. Osteocytes D. Chondrocyte
9. The result of premature loss of deciduous teeth is:
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. D A. Delayed eruption of successor
B. Earlier eruption of successor
7. A 8. D 9. C 10. D 11. C 12. D C. No effect on eruption
13. D 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. C D. Eruption does not occur
10. Pathologic root resorption may be caused by the 2. Maxillary sinus epithelium is:
pressure exerted by: A. Stratified and columnar
A. Tumors B. Cysts B. Pseudostratified columnar and ciliated
C. Both D. None of the above C. Squamous and nonciliated
D. Glandular
11. Relative to primary mandibular incisors,
permanent mandibular incisors erupt: 3. The secretory cells present in the sub-epithelial
A. Lingually B. Facially glands of maxillary sinus are:
C. Distally D. Mesially A. Mucous cells B. Serous cells
C. Both of the above D. None of the above
4. All are the functions of the maxillary sinus except:
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. B A. Protect the internal structures against exposure
to cold air
7. A 8. B 9. C 10. C 11. A
B. Contribute resonance to voice
C. Production of bactericidal lysozyme
D. Helps in mastication
CHAPTER-14
TEMPOROMANDIBULAR JOINT
1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D

1. The condylar cartilage is:

A. Both primary and secondary cartilages
B. A primary cartilage present prior to ossification CHAPTER-18
of the mandible
ADVANCED TECHNIQUES IN THE
C. A secondary cartilage not present prior to
ossification of the mandible STUDY OF ORAL TISSUES
D. A secondary cartilage present prior to
ossification of the mandible
1. Which statement(s) is/are true?
2. The amount of synovial fluid: A. Hyaluronic acid predominates in the loose
A. Increases with age connective tissues
B. Decreases with age
B. Hyaluronic acid has high capacity to bind water
C. No affect with age
and is responsible for transport and diffusion of
D. Decreases in winters.
metabolic substances across tissue
C. Bacterial infections may occur as a result of the
hydrolytic action of the bacterial enzyme
1. C 2. B hyaluronidase
D. All of the above
2. The organic components of bone are mainly:
CHAPTER-15 A. 93% type I collagen
B. Hydroxyapatite
MAXILLARY SINUS C. 90% type II collagen
D. 90% type IV collagen

1. The maxillary sinus communicates with the 3. Which is considered to be one of the most ideal
environment by: fixatives?
A. Superior nasal meatus A. Sodium hypochlorite
B. Middle nasal meatus B. Formaldehyde
C. Middle nasal meatus and the nasal vestibule C. Acetaldehyde
D. Inferior nasal meatus D. H2SO4
 4. Formaldehyde as a fixative is generally used as a: 14. Elevation of which enzyme is considered to assist
A. 10 % solution B. 20 % solution in the diagnosis of cancer?
C. 30 % solution D. 40 % solution A. Amylase
5. Rossman’s fluid contains: B. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
A. Formaldehyde C. Aminopeptidase
B. Alcohol D. Cytochrome oxidase
C. Picric acid and acetic acid 15. Which of the techniques is/ are used for quantitive
D. All of the above
analysis of histochemical reactions:
6. Carnoy’s mixture, is composed of: A. Microphotocell counter
A. Ethyl alcohol B. Acetic acid B. Double beam recording
C. Chloroform D. All of the above C. Both of the above
7. Feulgen’s reaction is used for visualizing: D. None of the alone
A. DNA B. RNA 16. Scanning electron microscope:
C. Chromosome D. Microsome A. Is used in analysis of changes in the bone
8. The best known and frequently used technique architecture
for detection of carbohydrate grouping is: B. Can produce three dimensional image
A. Versene technique B. PAS technique C. Can elucidate the chemical substances uptake
C. Carnoy’s mixture D. All of the above by metabolic pathways of different tissues in
different regions of cytoplasm .
9. Which is nonreactive with PAS method? D. Can be used for none of the above.
A. Developing bone B. Resorbing bone
C. Resorbing dentin D. Enamel matrix 17. Rossman’s fluid is used for visualization of:
A. Glycogen B. Glycoproteins
10. Which type of collagen is absent in normal adult
C. Proteoglycans D. All of the above
dentin?
A. Type I B. Type II 18. - Glucuronides is important for:
C. Type III D. All of the above A. Cell proliferation
11. The localization of type III collagen in dentin is B. Conjugation of steroid hormone
found in: C. In hydrolysis of conjugated glucuronides
A. Dentinogenesis imperfecta type II D. All of the above
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta 19. Post fixation is a secondary fixation done on:
C. None of the above A. Lipid rich tissues
D. Both (a) and (b) B. Freeze dried tissues
12. In the developing molar and incisor teeth, alkaline C. Both the above
phosphatase is present in the: D. None of the above
A. Outer enamel epithelium
B. Inner enamel epithelium
C. Stellate reticulum
D. Stratum intermedium 1. D 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. D
13. The lack of mast cells is found in: 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. D
A. Tongue B. Gingiva 13. C 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. D
C. ANUG D. All of the above 19. C