Math Assignment
Math Assignment
Assignment 2
Exercise 1:
Proof. Let f ∈ BV (Ω). Observe that both |f (0)|, V (f ) ≥ 0 and finite. Hence,
∥f ∥BV := |f (0)| + V (f ) ≥ 0 and finite. To show that ∥ · ∥BV is a norm, consider the
following:
(i) For any f ∈ BV (Ω) and λ ∈ K,
∥λf ∥BV = |λf (0)| + V (λf )
= |λ||f (0)| + sup{VZ (λf ) | Z is a partition of Ω}
( n )
X
= |λ||f (0)| + sup λf (xi ) − λf (xi−1 )
( i=1
n
!)
X
= |λ||f (0)| + sup |λ| f (xi ) − f (xi−1 )
( ni=1 )
X
= |λ||f (0)| + |λ| sup f (xi ) − f (xi−1 )
i=1
= |λ||f (0)| + |λ| sup{VZ (f ) | Z is a partition of Ω}
= |λ||f (0)| + |λ|V (f )|
= |λ|(|f (0)| + V (f ))
= |λ|∥f ∥BV
Thus, ∥λf ∥BV = |λ|∥f ∥BV .
V (f + g) = sup{VZ (f + g) | Z is a partition of Ω}
( n )
X
= sup (f + g)(xi ) − (f + g)(xi−1 )
( i=1
n
)
X
= sup f (xi ) + g(xi ) − f (xi−1 ) − g(xi−1 )
( i=1
n
)
X
= sup [f (xi ) − f (xi−1 )] + [g(xi ) − g(xi−1 )]
( i=1
n h
)
X i
≤ sup f (xi ) − f (xi−1 ) + g(xi ) − g(xi−1 )
( i=1
n n
)
X X
= sup f (xi ) − f (xi−1 ) + g(xi ) − g(xi−1 )
i=1 i=1
= sup{VZ (f ) + VZ (g) | Z is a partition of Ω}
≤ sup{VZ (f ) | Z is a partition of Ω} + sup{VZ (g) | Z is a partition of Ω}
= V (f ) + V (g)
Suppose that V (f ) = 0 and f is not constant in Ω = [0, 1]. Then there exists
x1 , x2 ∈ [0, 1] such that f (x1 ) ̸= f (x2 ) for all x1 ̸= x2 . Taking Z = {0, x1 , x2 , 1},
we have
Note that for x1 ̸= x2 , then |f (x2 ) − f (x1 )| > 0. Since both |f (x1 ) − f (0)| ≥ 0
and |f (1) − f (x2 )| ≥ 0, this means that VZ (f ) > 0 implying that V (f ) > 0.
This contradicts our assumption that V (f ) = 0. Hence, f must be constant in
Ω. Conversely, suppose that f is constant in Ω = [0, 1]. This means that f is
a monotone function and hence VZ (f ) = |f (1) − f (0)|. However, f (1) = f (0)
and thus, VZ (f ) = 0 implying that V (f ) = 0. This proves our claim.
Combining all these results, this means that ∥ · ∥BV : BV (Ω) −→ R is a norm on Ω.
To show that (BV (Ω), ∥·∥BV ) is a Banach space, we first consider the following claim.
The claim above implies that BV (Ω) ⊆ B(Ω), the vector space of bounded
functions defined on Ω. Now, let (fn )n∈N be a Cauchy sequence in BV (Ω). Then for
every ϵ > 0, there exists N ∈ N with n, m ≥ N such that ∥fn − fm ∥BV < ϵ. Using
the above claim, we have
which means that (fn )n∈N is also Cauchy in B(Ω). Since B(Ω) is complete, (fn )n∈N
converges to f ∈ B(Ω) with respect to the norm ∥ · ∥sup . Moreover, ∥fn − f ∥sup −→ 0
implies that fn −→ f pointwise so that
for any partition Z of Ω = [0, 1]. Hence, |fn (0) − f (0)| + VZ (fn − f ) ≤ ϵ for all
n ≥ N . So accordingly, fn − f ∈ BV (Ω) implying that f = fn − (fn − f ) ∈ BV (Ω)
and
∥fn − f ∥BV = |fn (0) − f (0)| + V (fn − f ) ≤ ϵ
for all n ≥ N . That is, (fn )n∈N converges to f ∈ BV (Ω) with respect to the norm
∥ · ∥BV . Therefore, BV (Ω) is complete and (BV (Ω), ∥ · ∥BV ) is a Banach space.
Proof. Let Ω := [0, 1]. Consider the sequence of functions in BV (Ω) given by
(
1
0 if 0 ≤ x ≤ nπ
fn (x) =
x sin x1 1
if nπ <x≤1
Moreover,
= sup |f (x)|
1
0≤x≤ nπ
≤ sup x
1
0≤x≤ nπ
1
=
nπ
1
Hence, for all n ∈ N, 0 ≤ ∥fn − f ∥sup ≤ . Taking the limit, we have
nπ
lim ∥fn − f ∥sup = 0
n→∞
∥·∥sup
which implies that fn −−−→ f , that is fn converges to f ∈ BV (Ω) with respect to
the norm ∥ · ∥sup . Now, each fn (x) is of bounded variation on Ω := [0, 1] since fn (x)
is simply the sum, which is finite, of functions of bounded variations on Ω := [0, 1].
Therefore, the space BV (Ω) with ∥ · ∥sup is not complete.
Exercise 2:
Proof. Let (∥ · ∥n )n∈N be atotal family of semi-norms on K-vector space X. Let
1 ∥x − y∥n
x, y ∈ X. Observe that n ≥ 0 for all n ∈ N. Thus,
2 1 + ∥x − y∥n
∞
X 1 ∥x − y∥n
d(x, y) := n
≥0
n=1
2 1 + ∥x − y∥n
∥x − y∥n
for all n ∈ N. Also, since ≤ 1 for all n ∈ N, then
1 + ∥x − y∥n
1 ∥x − y∥n 1
n
≤ n.
2 1 + ∥x − y∥n 2
Consequently,
∞ X ∞
X 1 ∥x − y∥n 1
d(x, y) := n
≤ < ∞.
n=1
2 1 + ∥x − y∥n n=1
2n
Hence, d(x, y) ≥ 0 and finite and thus d is well-defined. To show that d is a metric,
consider the following:
(i) Let x, y ∈ X. Now,
∞ X ∞
X 1 ∥x − y∥n 1 ∥y − x∥n
d(x, y) = = = d(y, x).
n=1
2n 1 + ∥x − y∥n n=1
2n 1 + ∥y − x∥n
∥x − y∥n
⇐⇒ = 0 for all n ∈ N
1 + ∥x − y∥n
⇐⇒ ∥x − y∥n = 0 for all n ∈ N
Since (∥ · ∥n )n∈N is total, ∥x − y∥n = 0 implies that for all n ∈ N, x − y = 0
and so x = y. Thus, d(x, y) = 0 if and only if x = y.
Therefore, combining all these results, (X, d) is a metric space.
n→∞
(2) Let (xn )n∈N be a sequence in X. Show that xn −−−→ x with respect to d if and only
n→∞
if ∥xn − x∥k −−−→ 0 for all k ∈ N.
n→∞
Proof. Let (xn )n∈N be a sequence in X. Suppose that xn −−−→ x with respect to d.
That is, d(xn , x) −→ 0 as n −→ ∞. Fixing n, k ∈ N, we have
1 ∥xn − y∥k
≤ d(xn , x)
2k 1 + ∥xn − y∥k
∥xn − y∥k ≤ 2k (1 + ∥xn − y∥k ) d(xn , x).
Taking the limit of both sides of the inequality,
lim ∥xn − y∥k ≤ lim 2k (1 + ∥xn − y∥k ) d(xn , x)
n→∞ n→∞
k
= 2 · lim (1 + ∥xn − y∥k ) · lim d(xn , x)
n→∞ n→∞
=0
Hence, lim ∥xn − y∥k ≤ 0 since lim d(xn , x) = 0. In particular, for all k ∈ N,
n→∞ n→∞
Moreover, we can find an Nϵ ∈ N such that ∥xn − x∥k ≤ ϵ. for all k ∈ {1, 2, . . . , Kϵ }
and n ≥ Nϵ . Furthermore, it follows that
Kϵ ∞
X 1 X 1
d(xn , x) ≤ k
∥xn − x∥k +
k=1
2 k=K +1
2k
ϵ
Kϵ
X 1
≤ϵ· +ϵ
k=1
2k
≤ 2ϵ for all n ≥ Nϵ .
n→∞
This means that d(xn − x) −→ 0 as n −→ ∞. That is, xn −−−→ x with respect to
n→∞ n→∞
d. Finally therefore, xn −−−→ x with respect to d if and only if ∥xn − x∥k −−−→ 0
for all k ∈ N.
Let K = {z ∈ C | |z| = 1} be the set of all complex numbers with unit mod-
ulus. Observe that d(αx, αy) = |α|d(x, y) for any α ∈ K ∪ {−1, 0}. Otherwise,
d(αx, αy) ̸= |α|d(x, y). Therefore, if X ̸= {0}, the metric d is not induced by a
norm.
Exercise 3:
Show that:
1 1
(1) For 1 ≤ p, q ≤ ∞ with p
+ q
= 1r , such that r ≥ 1, for all x ∈ lp (K), y ∈ lq (K), we
have:
∥xy∥lr ≤ ∥x∥lp ∥y∥lq .
Proof. We utilize the Young’s inequality which states that for all real numbers a
and b with 0 < a ≤ b < ∞ and 1 ≤ p, q ≤ ∞ such that p1 + 1q = 1,
ap b q
ab ≤ + .
p q
Setting ar and br into the Young’s inequality given above,
for 1
p
+ 1
q
= 1. Taking p′ = rp and q ′ = rq, we obtain
′ ′
ar bq
r
(ab) ≤ r +
p q
Now, let x = (xn ) ∈ lp (K) and y = (yn ) ∈ lq (K). For all n ∈ N, we set
xn yn
x̃n = ! p1 and ỹn = ! 1q .
∞
X ∞
X
|xn |p |yn |q
n=1 n=1
Consequently, we have
r |xn |r r |yn |r
|x̃n | = ! pr and |ỹn | = ! rq .
∞
X ∞
X
|xn |p |yn |q
n=1 n=1
and
p |xn |p p |yn |p
|x̃n | = ∞ and |ỹn | = ∞ .
X X
|xn |p |yn |q
n=1 n=1
|x̃n |p |ỹn |q
r r r
|x̃n ỹn | = |x̃n | |ỹn | ≤ r + .
p q
This follows immediately from (1). Hence, P (2) is also true. Now, assume that
k
X 1 1
P (n) is true for n = k. That is, for 1 ≤ p1 , p2 , . . . , pk ≤ ∞ with = , such
p
i=1 i
r̃
that r̃ ≥ 1, for all x(i) ∈ lpi (K), 1 ≤ i ≤ k, we have:
Y k
k
Y
(i)
P (k) :
x
≤ ∥x(i) ∥lpi .
r̃
i=1 l i=1
We will show that P (n) is also true for n = k + 1. That is, for 1 ≤ p1 , . . . , pk+1 ≤ ∞
k+1
X 1 1
with = , such that r ≥ 1, for all x(i) ∈ lpi (K), 1 ≤ i ≤ k + 1, we have:
p
i=1 i
r
k+1
Y
k+1
Y
(i)
P (k + 1) :
x
≤ ∥x(i) ∥lpi .
r
i=1 l i=1
k+1
X 1 1
Now, suppose that 1 ≤ p1 , . . . , pk+1 ≤ ∞ with = where r ≥ 1. Let x(i) ∈
p
i=1 i
r
k
pi
X 1 1
l (K), 1 ≤ i ≤ k + 1. Observe that since = ,
p
i=1 i
r̃
k+1 k
X 1 X 1 1 1 1 1
= + = + = .
p
i=1 i
p
i=1 i
pk+1 r̃ pk+1 r
Thus,
!r
r
k+1
Y
k+1
Y
(i)
(i)
x
=
x
r
r
i=1 l i=1 l
r
Y k
(i) (k+1)
=
x x
r
i=1 l
k
r
Y
(i)
(k+1)
r
≤
x
x
r̃ lpk+1
i=1 l
k
Y
r
≤ ∥x(i) ∥rlpi
x(k+1)
lpk+1
i=1
k+1
Y
(i)
r
=
x
p
l i
i=1
k+1
!r
Y
(i)
=
x
p
l i
i=1
This is the desired inequality for P (k + 1). This means that P (k + 1) is also true.
Therefore, by induction on n, the statement P (n) is true for all 1 ≤ i ≤ n.