GENERAL NAVIGATION TEST

50 QUESTIONS 50 MARKS 1 HR 30 MIN

1. An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56°N 070°W to 62°N 110°E. The total distance
travelled is:
a. 3720 NM
b. 5420 NM
c. 1788 NM
d. 2040NM

2. The sensitivity of a direct reading magnetic compass is:

a. Inversely proportional to the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field.
b. Inversely proportional to the vertical and horizontal components of the Earth’s magnetic
field.
c. Inversely proportional to the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field.
d. Proportional to the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field.

3. Which of these is a correct statement about the Earth’s magnetic field?

a. It has no effect on aircraft deviation.
b. The angle of dip is the angle between the vertical and the total magnetic force.
c. It may be temporary, transient, or permanent.
d. It acts as though there is a large blue magnetic pole in Northern Canada

4. Where is a compass most effective?

a. About midway between the equator and the Magnetic North Pole
b. In the region of the magnetic South Pole
c. In the region of the magnetic North Pole
d. On the geographic equator

5. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the
right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct
reading magnetic compass should read:
a) less than 060°
b) 060°
c) more than 060°
d) more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used

6. The value of variation:

a. is zero at the magnetic equator
b. cannot exceed 180°
c. has a maximum value of 45° E or 45° W
d. cannot exceed 180°

7. A useful method of a pilot resolving, on a visual flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft’s
position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and:
a. set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, river or motorway
b. fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is
obtained
c. fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained
d. fly reverse he

8. Given:
Airport elevation is 1000 feet.
QNH is 988 hPa
What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
a. 320
b. 1680
c. -320
d. 680

9. An aircraft starts at position 0410S 17822W and heads true north for 2950 NM, then turns
90 degrees right, and maintains a rhumb line track for 314 kilometres. What is its final
position?
a. 5500N 17422W
b. 4500N 17422W
c. 5500N 17738E
d. 4500N 17738E

10. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the right. If
the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic compass should
read:
a) more than 225°
b) 225°
c) less than 225°
d) more or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used

11. By what amount must you change your rate of descent given a 10 knot decrease in
headwind on a 3° glide slope?
a. 50 feet per minute increase
b. 30 feet per minute increase
c. 50 feet per minute decrease
d. 30 feet per minute decrease

12. In which months is the difference between apparent noon and mean noon the greatest?
a. November and February
b. January and July
c. March and September
d. June and December

13. 5 hours 20 minutes and 20 seconds time difference is equivalent to which change of
longitude?
a. 81°30’
b. 78°15’
c. 79°10’
d. 80°05’

14. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different durations is due to
the:
a. Earth’s rotation
b. relative speed of the Sun along the ecliptic
c. inclination of the ecliptic to the Equator
d. gravitational effect of the Sun and the Moon on the speed of rotation of the Earth

15. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors on a
direct reading compass?
a) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high latitudes
b) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudes
c) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudes
d) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at high latitudes

16. On a chart, 90.74 km is represented by 7.0 centimetres. What is the scale?

a. 1 / 700000
b. 1 / 2015396
c. 1 / 1296400
d. 1 / 1156600

17. On a direct Mercator chart, great circles are shown as:

a. Curves convex to the nearer pole
b. Straight lines
c. Rhumb lines
d. Curves concave to the nearer pole

18. Heading is 156°(T), TAS is 320 knots, W/V is 130/45 and the Variation is 10°W. What is your
magnetic track?
a. 170
b. 150
c. 160
d. 222

19. The agonic line:

a. is midway between the magnetic North and South poles
b. follows the geographic equator
c. Is the shorter distance between the respective True and Magnetic North and South poles
d. indicates zero variation

20. The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a:
a) Stereographical projection
b) Direct Mercator projection
c) Gnomonic projection
d) Lambert conformal projection

21. On a 5% glide slope your groundspeed is 150 kt. What should be your rate of descent to
maintain the glide slope?
a.750 feet/min b. 450 feet/min c. 900 feet/min d. 650 feet/min
 22. At 65 NM from a VOR you commence a descent from FL330 in order to arrive over the VOR
at FL80. Your mean ground speed in the descent is 240 knots. What rate of descent is
required?
a. 1540 feet/min
b. 1630 feet/min
c. 1270 feet/min
d. 1830 feet/min

23. In which month does aphelion occur?

a. January
b. March
c. July
d. November

24. How does scale change on a normal Mercator chart?

a. Expands as the cosine of the latitude
b. Expands directly with the secant of the latitude
c. Correct on the standard parallels, expands outside them, contracts within them
d. Expands as the secant of the E/W great circle distance

25. On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the:

a) meridian of tangency
b) Equator, parallel of origin and prime vertical
c) datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to it
d) prime meridian and the equator

26. An aircraft at position 2700N 17000W travels 3000 km on a track of 180°(T), then 3000 km
on a track of 090°(T), then 3000 km on a track of 000°(T), then 3000 km on a track of 270°(T).
What is its final position?
a. 2700N 17318W
b. 0000N/S 17000W
c. 2700N 17000W
d. 2700N 14300W

27. A rhumb line is:

a. the vertex of a conformal polyformic projection
b. a straight line on a Lambert’s conformal chart
c. a line on the Earth which cuts all meridians at the same angle
d. the shortest distance between two points on the Earth’s surface

28. What is the highest latitude on the Earth at which the Sun can be vertically overhead?
a. 231⁄2°
b. 661⁄2°
c. 45°
d. 90°
29. Isogonal lines converge as follows:
a. At the North Magnetic Pole
b. At the North and South Magnetic and both Geographical Poles
c. At the North and South Magnetic Poles
 d. At the Magnetic equator.

30. Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of great circles,
with the exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart whose tangency is at the
pole ?
a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line
b) Any straight line is a great circle
c) They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave to the Pole
d) They are curves convex to the Pole

31. You leave A to fly to B, 475 NM away, at 1000 hours. Your ETA at B is 1130. At 1040, you are
190 NM from A. What ground speed is required to arrive on time at B?
a. 342 knots
b. 330 knots
c. 317 knots
d. 360 knots

32. Civil Twilight occurs between:

a. Sunset and 6° below the horizon
b . 6° and 12° below the horizon
c.  12° and 18° below the horizon
d. Sunrise and Sunset

33. What is a line of equal grivation?

a. An isocline
b. An isogonal
c. An isogriv
d. An isobar

34. What is the reason for seasonal changes in climate?

a. Because the Earth’s spin axis is inclined to the plane of its orbit round the Sun
b. Because the distance between the Earth and the Sun varies over a year
c. Because the Earth’s orbital speed round the Sun varies according to the time of the year
d. Because of the difference between the Tropical Year and the Calendar Year

35. Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NMGroundspeed 'out' 420 ktGroundspeed 'back' 500 ktThe
time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
a) 193 MIN
b) 163 MIN
c) 173 MIN
d) 183 MIN

36. What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with constant
CAS?
a. Mach number decreases; TAS decreases
b. Mach number increases; TAS remains constant
c. Mach number increases; TAS increases
d. Mach number remains constant; TAS increases

37. An aircraft is flying around the Earth eastwards along the 60N parallel of latitude at a ground
speed of 360 knots. At what ground speed would another aircraft have to fly eastwards
along the Equator to fly once round the Earth in the same journey time?
a. 600 knots
b. 240 knots
c. 720 knots
d. 120 knots

38. If variation is East, then:

a. True North is West of Magnetic North
b. Compass North is West of Magnetic North
c. True North is East of Magnetic North
d. Magnetic North is West of Compass North

39. At what latitude does the maximum difference between geodetic and geocentric latitude
occur?
a. 0°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°

40. An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM
True airspeed 480 kt Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
a) 1752
b) 1756
c) 1820
d) 1742

41. How do rhumb lines (with the exception of meridians) appear on a Polar Stereographic
chart?
a. concave to the nearer pole
b. convex to the nearer pole
c. ellipses round the pole
d. straight lines

42. What is the chart convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart?

a. 0
b. 1.0
c. 0.866
d. 0.5

43. What is the duration of civil twilight?

a. From the moment when the centre of the Sun is on the sensible horizon until the centre
reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
b. From the moment when the tip of the Sun disappears below the sensible horizon until the
centre reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
c. From the moment when the centre of the Sun is on the visual horizon until the centre
reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.
d. From the moment when the tip of the Sun disappears below the visual horizon until the
centre reaches a depression angle of 6° from the sensible horizon.

44. What is the meaning of the term ‘standard time’?

a. It is another term for UTC
b. It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA.
c. It is an expression for local mean time.
d. It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country.

45. Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NMGroundspeed 'out' 365 ktGroundspeed 'back' 480 ktSafe
endurance 8 HR 30 MIN The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 290 MIN
b) 219 MIN
c) 197 MIN
d) 209 MIN

46. A compass swing is performed in order to correct for:

a. acceleration
b. deviation
c. variation
d. aperiodicity

47. During a low level flight 2 parallel roads are crossed at right angles by an aircraft. The time
between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:
a. track
b. drift
c. ground speed
d. heading

48. The orbit of the Earth round the Sun is elliptical. An ellipse has 2 foci. Which of the following
is a correct statement?
a. The Earth is positioned at one of the foci.
b. The Sun is positioned at the mid-point of the 2 foci.
c. The Sun is positioned at one of the foci.
d. The Earth is positioned at the mid-point of the 2 foci.

49. Given:Distance A to B is 360 NM. Wind component A - B is -15 kt,Wind component B - A is

+15 kt,TAS is 180 kt.What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B?
a) 165 NM
b) 195 NM
c) 180 NM
d) 170 NM

50. For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt.
VAR is 13°E. Calculate the cross wind component?
a)22kt
b)26kt
c) 15 kt
d) 20 kt