IGRUA

GROUND TRAINING SECTION

BATCH: 1012 FINAL TEST - AIR NAV & RADIO AIDS Duration: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 60 + 40
04 April, 2011
Note:- This Question Paper contains 86 questions. Question No 1 to 4 carry THREE Marks
each. Question No 5 to 10 carry TWO Marks each. Question No 11 to 86 carry ONE mark
each. Read the instructions given on the answer sheets provided very carefully and strictly
follow them. DO NOT WRITE ANYTHING OR MAKE ANY MARKS ON THE
QUESTION PAPER.
SUBJECT : AIR NAVIGATION

GIVEN: For a flight from Station ‘A’ to Station ‘B’, Track 045(T), W/V 180/30, Normal
TAS 240 Kt. Reduced TAS 200 kt ( in case of engine failure), Fuel on Board 19500 lbs,
Reserve fuel 5500 lbs:
1. Considering the above details, if the distance to Point of No return for the above Flight is
550 nm, what is the fuel consumption.
(a) 2689 lbs/hr (c) 2952 lbs/hr
(b) 3033 lbs/hr (d) 2375 lbs/hr
2. For the above flight in the event of engine failure, Equi-time Point coincides with
the PSR , calculat the stage length between station ‘A’ to Station ‘B’:
(a) 1612nm
(b) 955 nm
(c) 1276 nm
(d) 1537 nm

Answer Question no 3 & 4 based upon the following Data Given below, relating to
a flight from A to B:
Maximum take off weight 156500 kg
Weight less fuel and payload 85000 kg
Mean TAS 250 kt
Distance A to B 1250 nm
Mean Fuel Consumption 4500 kg/hr
Reserve Fuel Carried (assume unused) 5000 kg
Maximum Landing Weight 135500 kg
Maximum authorized zero fuel weight 130000 kg
3. The maximum payload which can be carried in still air is
(a) 42500 kg (c) 44000 kg
(b) 38500 kg (d) 9000 kg
4. The maximum payload which can be carried with a headwind of 35 kts is:
(a) 42117 kg (c) 41674 kg
(b) 9000 kg (d) 40337 kg
5. A DGI in an aircraft is corrected to give zero drift when the aircraft is
stationary on the a ground on latitude 30°N. Assuming the gyro to be
frictionless and perfectly balanced. The drift rate expected when the
aircraft is stationary on the ground in latitude 61°N is;
(a) +5.5°/hr
(b) -4.1°/hr
(c) +13.1°/hr
(d) -13.1°/hr
6. In the above question, the drift rate expected when the aircraft is
tracking 090°(T), at latitude 15°S at a ground speed of 480 kt is:
(a) 15°/hr Hdg decreasing
(b) 8.8°/hr Hdg decreasing
(c) 12.9°/hr Hdg increasing
(d) 8.8 /hr Hdg increasing
7. An aircraft departs from a point 05º00N 170º00W and flies 600 NM South,
followed by 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then 600 NM West. What is
its final position?
(a) 05º00N 170º00W (c) 05º00S 170º00W
(b) 05º00N 169o58’W (d) 05º00N 170o02’W
8. Dist AB=1400 nm. 4 Engine TAS 300 K, 3 Engine TAS 250 K, Wind 30 Kts
Tail Wind Component. Find Distance and Time to CP
Dist to ETP Time to ETP
(a) 585 NM 01:15
(b) 750 NM 01:45
(c) 616 NM 01:52
(d) 616 NM 02:12
9. FOB 6500Kgs, FF 500Kgs/hour, Reserve fuel 01:30 Hrs(Endurance),
TAS 250K, W/V 300/30K, Track 145o. Find Dist and time to PSR.
Dist to PSR Time to PSR
(a) 818 NM 02:57
(b) 818 NM 03:40
(c) 1421 NM 05:15
(d) 1282 NM 05:08
10. In NH, aircraft heading 236 (M) measures RB 226, Var 11W at aircraft and 9W 2
at NDB. Convergency between aircraft meridian and meridian of NDB is 4, what
bearing should be plotted on Mercator chart.
(a) 269 (T) (c) 093 (T)
(b) 271(T) (d) 273 (T)
11. ON 01 July, at A (52oS 030oW) the sunrises is at 1009 UTC. On the same day at what
time does the sun rise at 52oS 035oE?
(a) 0549 UTC
(b) 0809 LMT
(c) 1009 UTC
(d) Both (b) & (c) above
(Answer hint: 1009-(65/15))=0549UTC; LMT at 035E=0549UTC+(35/15)=0809LMT)
12. What is the LMT and date at A (35N 178W) when it is 2220 LMT on 28 Oct at
B (70S 176E)?
(a) 2156 on 27 Oct
(b) 2156 on 29 Oct
(c) 2244 on 28 Oct
(d) 2244 on 27 Oct
13. A/c X at GS 360K took off at 0840. Another a/c Y takes off at 0900 at GS 420K on same
route. At what time will Y be 15 nms behind X.
(a) 1106 (c) 1058
(b) 1040 (d) 1045
14. Heading 073 (M), Var 5W, required track 070(T), Drift 4ºS. Find track error?
(a) 2ºS (c) 1ºS
(b) 2ºP (d) 1ºP
15. TAS = 472K, Hdg (T) 005, W/V 110o/50K. Calculate drift angle and GS.
(a) 6P & 488 K (c) 6ºS & 456 K
(b) 2ºP & 456 K (d) 2ºS & 488 K
16. Given the following readings of a compass swing, find coefficients A, B and C?

Hdg 358 043 091 138 178 225 273 312

C
Hdg 002 046 087 133 180 228 269 315
M
A B C
(a) +1/4 0 +1
(b) +1/4 +1 0
(c) +1/2 0 +1
(d) None of the Above
17. An aircraft received QTE 240. Convergency is 4o. Find the Bearing to Plot on
a Mercator Chart in SH and in NH:
SH NH
(a) 238 242
(b) 242 238
(c) 236 244
(d) 238 244
18. You land with setting 1013. QNH 1020 HPa, elevation 300 what will altimeter read
after landing.
(a) 690 feet (c) 300 feet
(b) 90 feet (d) None of these
19. Overflying a hill with elevation of 12750 feet, Radio Altimeter reads 1000 feet,
QNH is 1008 but Alt is set to 1005. Find (a) True altitude (b) Minimum FL to fly
to have 2000 ft clearance above the Hill.
(a) 13660 feet & FL 150 (c) 13750 feet & FL 149
(b) 13750 feet & FL 150 (d) 14750 feet & FL 145
20. Calculate deviation on Hdg 050o(C) with coefficients A =+2, B= +3 and C= -5:
(a) 2W (c) 2 E
(b) 1W (d) 1 E
21. Climbing through an isothermal layer at constant TAS.
(a) CAS increases
(b) CAS remains constant
(c) Mach No. decreases
(d) None of the above
22. Aircraft A flying at 20000 feet, B flying at 30000 feet maintaining same MN which
aircraft will have more TAS?
(a) B will have less TAS because Air is Cooler
(b) A will have less TAS because Air is more Dense
(c) A will have more TAS because Air is more Dense
(d) A will have more TAS because Air is Warmer
23. Select the smallest scale:
(a) 1 inch = 15nm
(b) 1 cm = 8nm
(c) 1 inch = 11kms
(d) 1 : 1000,000
24. An aircraft takes 15 minutes to cover 6.6 cm on a 1: 1000,000 chart. Its Ground
Speed is:
(a) 284 K
(b) 142 K
(c) 245 K
(d) 187 K
25. On a chart the distance along the parallel 32oS between meridians 175 E and
175W is 25cm. What is the scale? (Cos 32º = 0.848 Sin 32º = 0.523)
(a) 1: 2,738,240
(b) 1: 1,078,040
(c) 1: 3’771,600
(d) 1: 1,379,840
26. An aircraft is at FL 300, TAS 492 kt at Mach 0.83 when the ISA deviation
is +3°C (Consider no tropopause). What ISA deviation at FL 330 would
give the same TAS (492 kt) at Mach 0.83?
(a) + 9º C (c) -9º C
(b) +5°C (d) -5°C
27. Using a rate of turn indicator with in which the gyro is rotating at more
than the calibrated operating speed, the pilots execute an indicated
rate one turn through 180°. The turn will take.
(a) More than 120 seconds (c) Less than 60 seconds
(b) 60 seconds (d) More than 60 seconds
28. Both the ram air input and the Drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice while flying
in severe icing conditions. The pilot applied climb power and raises the nose to correct point
attitude of climb out of icing conditions. As the airplane climbs out with correct power and
attitude, the indicated airspeed will.
(a) gradually decrease
(b) gradually increase
(c) drop to zero as dynamic pressure is now 0.
(d) indicate correctly the IAS
29. As you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a Southerly heading in the northern
hemisphere, the magnetic compass will indicate
(a) a turn to the left but at a faster rate than actually occurring
(b) due South for a short time, then gradually catch up with the heading of the aircraft
(c) a turn to the right initially and the a turn to the left but lagging behind the aircraft
(d) approximately 10° - 30° lag behind the actual heading of the aircraft
30. Find RL distance between A (53o 23’N 01o19’W) and B (53o23’N 07o47’W) .
(a) 337 NM
(b) 257 NM
(c) 247 NM
(d) 231 NM
31. An aircraft leaves A for B at a distance of 95 NM. Having flown 35 NM the aircraft position
is found to be 3 NM right of track. If the Hdg flown is 130(T) and the plan Drift is 4ºS . What
is the actual Drift and Hdg Reqd to reach B?
(a) 10º S 120º(T)
(b) 6º S 124º(T)
(c) 6º S 120º(T)
(d) 10º S 124º(T)
32. The distance to PSR for a long oceanic flight is 1200 nm in nil wind condition with TAS 450
kt calculated before the flight. During flight, the aircraft experiences a wind of 60 kts exactly
abeam the track. The new distance to PNR will be:
(a) 1189 nm (c) 1200 nm
(b) 1160 nm (d) 1230 nm
33. The advantage of flux gate(Remote Indicating) compass over the direct reading magnetic
compass is;
(a) It does not suffer from coefficient A,B & C,
(b) Co-efficient A.B & C are automatically compensated
(c) It functions accurately near the poles
(d) It is dead beat and does not suffer from tuming error
34. the Turn and Slip Indicator utilizes the gyroscopic properties of;
(a) It does not wander
(b) Rigidity
(c) Precession
(d) Both Rigidity & Precession
35. An aircraft sets course overhead base at 4000’ and climbs on Track 200(T) to FL 240, with a
constant ROC of 500’/minute maintaining a constant CAS of 145 K. If the mean climb W/V is
240/30 K and the temperature is ISA+ 15. What is the distance and time to DR TOC?
Ground distance Time
(a) 107 nm 32 minutes
(b) 82 nm 32 minutes
(c) 107 nm 40 minutes
(d) 82 nm 40 minutes
36. The aircraft is at 080°E longitude. What shall be the time difference from Zone Time?
(a) LMT is 10 minutes more than zone time
(b) LMT is 10 minutes less than zone time
(c) LMT is 20 minutes less than zone time
(d) LMT is 20 Minutes more than zone time
37. When accelerating on a westerly heading in the Southern hemisphere, the
magnet assembly of a direct reading magnetic compass, when viewed form above, will;
(a) Turn anti-clockwise indicating an apparent turn towards the North
(b) Turn clockwise indicating an apparent turn towards the North
(c) Turn anti-clockwise indicating an apparent turn towards the South
(d) Turn clockwise indicating an apparent turn towards line South
38. The limits of pitch and roll for an electrical modern directional gyro are respectively;
(a) 55° and 85° (c) 85° and 55°
(b) 85° and 360° (d) 85° and 85°
39. During climb from 1000 ft PA overhead to 12000 PA, Air Distance of 80 nm
is covered in 20 minutes, Track 090 (T), W/V:240/30 kt. The rate of climb
and ground distance covered will be:
Rate of climb Distance covered Rate of climb Distance covered
(a) 480 ft/min 95 NM (c) 600 ft/min 85 NM
(b) 550 ft/minute 95 nm (d) 550 ft/minute 89 nm
40. Apparent topple of a gyro is;
(a) The movement in the vertical plane of the spin axis of a perfect gyro which appear to
an earth bound observer to occur and which is caused by Earth rotation and
transportation of the gyro
(b) Determined using the formula 15 sine latitude/hr
(c) The result of an imperfectly balanced gyro which causes the spin axis to move in a
vertical plane
(d) Any movement of the spin axis in the vertical plane away from the reference data in
which it acts
41. Between 60 N and 60 S, the minimum duration of Civil Twilight is:
(a) 30 minutes (c) 14 minutes
(b) 16 minutes (d) 21 minutes
42. Compared to the VSI, what errors are eliminated by the IVSI;
(a) Temperature Error
(b) Time Lag Error
(c) TurningError
(d) Pressure Error
43. The air speed indicator is calibrated to;
(a) ISA at the level the aircraft is flying
(b) Based on the prevailing regulations.
(c) ISA at mean sea level
(d) ISA at 36090 feet
44. Which of the following lists the errors of the machmeter,
(a) Position, maneuver induced & instrument
(b) Position, maneuver induced, lag, density & instrument
(c) Compressibility, position & pressure
(d) Only compressibility error
45. Compressibility is corrected for when obtaining;
(a) TAS from EAS and the correction is always additive
(b) EAS from CAS and the correction is always subtractive
(c) RAS from IAS and the correction can be either additive or subtractive
(d) EAS from CAS and the correction is normally additive
46. A great circle has its North vertex at 70N 130E. At what longitude and in what direction
would the Great Circle cross the Equator assuming that the initial direction is West from
the Northern Vertex?
(a) 140 W 200 (T)
(b) 140 W 020 (T)
(c) 040 E 200 (T)
(d) 040 E 020 (T)

SUBJECT : RADIO AIDS

47. PRF 300 PPS. Find max range?

(a) 500 KM
(b) 300 Miles
(c) 539.5NM
(d) Both (a) & (b) above
48. Aircraft at FL 370 detects a cloud at 60 nm. Cloud disappears when the tilt is selected to 2
up. If beam width of radar is 6. Find the height of the cloud top.
(a) 30000 ft
(b) 31000 ft
(c) 35000 ft
(d) 37000 ft
49. If CDI is centered with 090 selected on OBS and ‘FROM’ flag is showing. What radial is
the aircraft on?
(a) 270
(b) 090
(c) 090 or 270 depending on the aircraft heading
(d) heading not given. So cannot be certain of your radial
50. If CDI is 2 dots right with 335 selected on OBS and ‘TO’ flag is showing. What radial is
aircraft on?
(a) 339 (c) 159
(b) 331 (d) 151
51. Track Reqd is 040(T). After over flying an NDB on the Track, maintains an hdg of 042(T).
After 5 minutes, RBI indicates 175. The Drift and Track Error are:
(a) 5 Port & 3 Port respectively
(b) 5 Port & 2 Starboard respectively
(c) 7 Port & 5 Port respectively
(d) None of the above
52. Aircraft on Hdg 325(M) to maintain track 313(M). You want to obtain an abeam PL from
NDB to Right of Track.What does the RBI indicate when Aircraft is abeam NDB:
(a) 102
(b) 258
(c) 078
(d) None of the Above
53. If Brg changes from 080(R) to 090(R) in 3 mts, the time to station would be?
(a) Ground Speed is not known , time cannot be determined
(b) 18 minutes
(c) 9 minutes
(d) 6 minutes
54. An aircraft is flying a constant Hdg with 5P drift and is making good a track parallel
to centre line 040 (M) of airway, but is 6 nms off to left of centre line. Distance to go
to station is 75 nms. If the NDB is sited at destination, what will the ADF indicate
at that position?
(a) 005(R) (c) 359 (R)
(b) 001(R) (d) 355(R)
55. GP angle is 3.2º, Ground Speed is 118 K, Find ROD.
(a) 546 ft/min
(b) 460 ft/min
(c) 640 ft/min
(d) 676 ft/min
56. On ILS 10 kts head wind changes to 5 kts tail wind, GS angle is 3.5o. What change should
you make to RoD?
(a) Increase RoD by 90 ft/min
(b) Decrease RoD by 90 ft/min
(c) Decrease Rod by 130 ft/min
(d) Increase Rod by 130 ft/min
57. Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as "strapdown". This
means that?
(a) The accelerometers are fixed to the aircraft structure but the gyros are stabilised.
(b) The gyros are stabilised but the accelerometers are fixed to the aircraft structure.
(c) The gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft
structure.
(d) The indicator units are strapped to the aircraft structure.
58. A pilot turns off the power to his IRS whilst in flight. He switches it on again
after just a few seconds. What will be the effect?
(a) It can be repositioned whilst in flight
(b) There will be no effect
(c) It cannot be used and must be shut down
(d) It cannot be used for navigation, but can be used to provide attitude information
59. In which IRS mode does gyro-compassing take place?
(a) ATT
(b) ALIGN
(c) ON
(d) NAV
60. From what source does an FMS obtain magnetic variation information?
(a) Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory and applied to the true heading
calculated by the respective IRS.
(b) Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the
aircraft magnetic heading.
(c) The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux valve) positioned in
the wingtip.
(d) The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position.
61. To comply with TCAS. RA deviation from assigned flight path.
(a) is not allowed without ATC approval
(b) is done only enough to comply with magnitude and duration of the RA.
(c) May be continued after the RA has ended
(d) All the above are correct
62. Once the flight path of the intruder no longer conflicts with “Collision Area” the RA is
discontinued. How is this annunciated in the cockpit.
(a) The aural announcement ‘ALL CLEAR’
(b) The intruder symbol changes to green
(c) The aural announcement ‘CLEAR OF CONFLICT’ and the intruder no longer appears as a
solid red square
(d) Contact ATC configuring that the conflict is over
63. The terrain data base provides:
(a) higher resolution grids for airport areas
(b) lower resolution grids for airport areas
(c) similar resolution grids for all areas
(d) lower resolution grids for airport areas
64. The radio altimeter determines aircraft height by.
(a) Measuring the time interval between outgoing and incoming signals
(b) Phase comparing the incoming and the outgoing signals
(c) Employing a pulsed modulation pattern
(d) Comparing the frequencies of the outgoing and the incoming signals
65. The purpose of the mode ‘C’ encoder in an airborne SSR transponder is to provide:
(a) pressure altitude (c) height information
(b) altitude information (d) true altitude
66. When using AWR for mapping purposes the narrow (pencil) beam should be used in
peference to the cosecant beam when:
(a) mapping at short range (30 nm or less)
(b) mapping over a smooth sea
(c) mapping over rough torrain
(d) mapping at long range (70 nm or more)
67. The Janus array aerial system used in some airborne Doppler system helps to minimize:
(a) Vertical speed error (c) Aerial misalignment
(b) Sea movement errors (d) Sea bias error
68. If an Alert message is generated by the FMS
(a) it appears on the top of the screen an the MSG anunciator Lights up
(b) it appears in the scratch pad and an amber light flashes
(c) it appears in the middle of the CRT screen and a red light flashes
(d) it appears in the scratch pad and the MSG enunciator Lights up
69. On a flight Director System, if a ‘GS’ flag is shown, it means:
(a) failure and malfunction of the glide slope receiver or signal
(b) the aeroplane has descended by half of a full scale deflection below the glide slope
(c) the aeroplane’s ground speed has been seriously eroded by the windshear and there
is a danger of stalling.
(d) ILS is not receiving any signals from the Transmitter.
70. You commence an early missed approach prior to reaching the published MAP, which
is a left from the MAP. After applying power and commencing a missed approach
climb, you should:
(a) ask for radar vectoring
(b) track to the MAP before commencing the turn
(c) turn left immediately
(d) follow the ATC instructions
71. A resolution advisory is shown on the ND panel of EFIS as:
(a) a solid yellow circle (c) a solid white diamond
(b) a solid red square (d) a cyan ( blue) diamond
72. The protected range for an NDB is valid:
(a) at all times (c) only during the day
(b) only at night (d) only over the sea
73. Which of the following is not an error of GPS
(a) ephemeris error
(b) geometric dilution of position
(c) receiver clock error
(d) tropospheric propagation
74. Which of the following forms of fix is likely to provide the most accurate input to a R-NAV
system:
(a) a DME range and VOR radial from the same station
(b) 2 DME ranges from different stations
(c) 2 VOR radials from different stations
(d) 2 ADF bearings from different beacons
75. What is an ISO ECHO in a monochromatic Weather Radar:
(a) a black indication in the middle of a white radar return
(b) a strong echo showing turbulence
(c) a green indication on an EFIS display
(d) a strange shaped return on the AWR screen
76. What is the maximum latitude at which satellite communications using SATCOM are
effective:
(a) 90°N or S
(b) 80° N or S
(c) 60° N or S
(d) 45° N or S
77. If an aircraft is at 10000 ft and the ground station is at sea level, what will be the maximum
range at which the pilot can expect a QTE from the ground station
(a) 80 nm
(b) 110 nm
(c) 125 nm
(d) 200 nm
78, A signal from satellite clock reaches the aircraft in 300000 Nano seconds, What is the range
in nm from satellite to the aircraft;
(a) 0.048 nm
(b) 4.86 nm
(c) 0.46 nm
(d) 48.6 nm
79. The main difference between a primary and a secondary radar system is that
(a) A primary radar is pulsed, where as a secondary radar uses carrier wave techniques
(b) A primary radar relies on target reflections where as secondary radar relies on a
transponder at the target to generate a reply pulse or pulses
(c) A primary radar is limited to line of sight, where as a secondary system is not
(d) A primary radar is ground based, where as a secondary radar is an airborne system
80. GPWS mode four is intended to give warning of
(a) Height loss after take off or following a go ground
(b) Unsafe terrain clearance when the aircraft is not in the landing configuration
(c) Excessive terrain closure rate
(d) Excessive descent rate
81. Class ‘B’ VHF DF bearings are accurate to within:
(a) ± 1 (c) ± 5
(b) ± 2 (d) ± 10

82. The phenomenon of coastal refraction affecting ADF bearings is caused by the signal
_______ When it reaches the coastline and bending __________ the normal to the coast:
(a) accelerating towards
(b) decelerating towards
(c) accelerating away from
(d) decelerating away from
83. The principal propagation path employed in an NDB/ADF system is:
(a) Skywave (c) Surfacewave
(b) Directwave (d) Ducted wave

84. The VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to define the center line 0f an airway
which you intend to fly. The indication received on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator
is shown below. At the same time the DME gave a range of 90 NM from the facility.
At the time of the observation, the aircraft’s radial and distance from the airway
center line were:

(a) 062 radial 9 NM

(b) 074 radial 6 NM
(c) 242 radial 6 NM
(d) 254 radial 9 NM

85. The VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero:

(a) are magnetic
(b) are compass
(c) are relative
(d) must have deviation applied before being used
86. The maximum safe fly up indication on an ILS approach when using a meter with
a five dot display is :
(a) 1.3º
(b) 2.5 dots
(c) 1.3 dots
(d) 0.7º