METEOROLOGY QUESTION BANK

001-002 The Atmosphere

A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 100 m above sea level. If the vertical
temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the temperature be at the
summit of a mountain, 2100 m above sea level?
a) +2°C
b) 0°C
c) +4°C
d) -2°C
Explanation
The vertical temperature gradient in ISA is 6.5°C per 1 km. Therefore the temperature should
fall by 13°C

Above the tropopause, how does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere?
a) Continually increases
b) Remains constant then increases
c) Continually decreases
d) At first it decreases and then higher up it remains constant
Explanation
From the tropopause the temperature remains constant with height up to 20 km. Thereafter,
temperature steadily increases with height due to UV rays being absorbed by Ozone

An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at 20,000 ft. What is the
temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
a) +10°C
b) +5°C
c) 25°C
d) -10°C
Explanation
In ISA the temperature gradient is approximately 2°C per 1,000 ft. Therefore, the temperature
falls by 40°C from the surface to 20,000ft. Remember that we start at temperature of 15°C at
sea level. So 15°C - 40°C = -25°C. So, the actual temperature of -35°C is 10°C colder then ISA

At sea level, what is the ISA density stated to be?

a) 1252 grammes per cubic metre
b) 29.6 inches of mercury
c) 1013.2 hPa
d) 1225 grammes per cubic metre
Explanation
Or 1.225 kg per cubic metre

Going from the equator to the South Pole, the altitude of the tropopause:
a) increases and its temperature decreases
b) decreases and its temperature increases
c) decreases and its temperature decreases
d) increases and its temperature increases
Explanation
The tropopause is lower and therefore warmer over the poles than it is over the equator
How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the southern hemisphere?
a) It remains constant throughout the year
b) It decreases from north to south
c) It decreases from south to north
d) It increases from north to south
Explanation
The tropopause is lower and warmer over the poles than it is over the equator

If the actual temperature at 5,000 ft is + 25°C, then the deviation is:

a) ISA +9.9
b) ISA +5
c) ISA +20
d) ISA – 20
Explanation
The ISA temperature lapse rate is approx 2°C per 1000 ft. Therefore in 5,000 ft the temperature
should fall by 10°C. Remember that in ISA we start with 15°C at sea level. So the ISA
temperature at 5,000 ft is, 15°C - 10°C = + 5°C. This makes the actual atmosphere 20°C hotter
than ISA, ISA + 20

In the International Standard Atmosphere where is the temperature constant with altitude
(isothermal)?
a) From 36 090 ft / 11 km to 104 987 ft / 32 km
b) From 36 090 ft / 11 km to 65 617 ft/20 km
c) Up to 36 090 ft / 11 km
d) From 36 090 ft / 11 km to 45 090 ft / 13.75 km
Explanation
The only part of ISA where temperature is constant with height is in the lower part of the
stratosphere, i.e. from 11 km to 20 km. After 20 km the temperature increases with height due to
UV rays being absorbed by Ozone

In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on average from:

a) 85 km to more than 200 km
b) 0 km to 11 km
c) 11 km to 50 km
d) 50 km to 85 km
Explanation
Fact!

In the upper part of the stratosphere the temperature:

a) increases at first and decreases afterward
b) increases with altitude
c) decreases with altitude
d) is almost constant
Explanation
Above the tropopause and within the lower part of the stratosphere (11 km to 20 km) the
temperature remains constant. However, the upper part of the stratosphere (from 20 km), the
temperature increases with height due to the absorption of UV rays by Ozone
The approximate height and temperature of the tropopause over the equator is in the order of?
a) 8 km and -75°C
b) 8 km and -40°C
c) 16 km and -75°C
d) 16 km and -40°C
Explanation
The tropopause is higher and therefore colder over the equator than over the poles

The average height of the tropopause at 42°N is:

a) 14 km
b) 11 km
c) 8 km
d) 16 km
Explanation
The average atmosphere, ISA, states the tropopause as being at 11 km. In reality, therefore,
this would be found at the average or mean latitude, which is 45°N

The decrease of temperature with height per 1,000 m in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
is:
a) 1°C
b) 6.5°C
c) variable
d) 0.65°C
Explanation
Or 2°C per 1000 ft or 0.65°C per 100 m

The stratosphere is the:

a) part of the atmosphere below the tropopause
b) boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere
c) boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere
d) part of the atmosphere immediately above the tropopause
Explanation
The first layer of the atmosphere is the troposphere, and is the second layer is called the
stratosphere. The boundary between these layers is the tropopause

The temperature at 5,000 ft is +6°C. What will the temperature be at 10,000 ft if the ICAO
standard lapse rate is applied?
a) +2°C
b) 0°C
c) -6°C
d) -4°C
Explanation
In the ICAO standard atmosphere (ISA), temperature decreases by approximately 2°C per 1000
ft
The tropopause in mid latitudes is:
a) lower in winter with a higher temperature
b) lower in summer with a lower temperature
c) lower in winter with a lower temperature
d) lower in summer with a higher temperature
Explanation
Surface temperature controls tropopause height. Cold air will cause the tropopause to lower.
The lower the tropopause the warmer is becomes

The tropopause is a level at which:

a) temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
b) vertical currents are strongest
c) water vapour content is greatest
d) pressure remains constant
Explanation
The definition of the tropopause is where temperature no longer decreases with height. No other
property defines its position in the atmosphere

The tropopause is lower:

a) over the North Pole than over the Equator
b) over the Equator than over the South Pole
c) in summer than winter in moderate latitudes
d) south of the Equator than north of it
Explanation
The tropopause is lower over the poles than the equator because of the very cold surface
temperatures found at the poles. The colder the surface the lower the tropopause

The troposphere:
a) contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
b) has a greater vertical extent above the Equator than above the poles
c) is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere
d) reaches the same height at all latitudes
Explanation
The thickness of the troposphere varies from approximately 0 km to 8 km over the poles to 0 km
to 16 km over the equator. It is only in the ICAO standard atmosphere that it is assumed to be a
constant thickness of 0 km to 11 km

What is the approximate composition of the gases within the troposphere?

a) 50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
b) 10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
c) 88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
d) 21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
Explanation
These proportions are constant up to around 70,000 ft
What is the most likely temperature at the polar tropopause?
a) -40°C
b) -56.5°C
c) -25°C
d) -75°C
Explanation
The polar tropopause is lower and warmer (6/8 km and -40°C) than the tropical tropopause (16-
18 km and -75°C)

What is the tropopause?

a) The place where the temperature no longer decreases with increase of height
b) The layer beyond which only CI cloud occurs
c) The layer between the tropopause and the stratosphere
d) The line indicating clear air turbulence
Explanation
The tropopause also marks the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere

What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO atmosphere?
a) 4.5°C per km
b) 0.65°C per 100 m
c) 2°C per 100 m
d) 2°C per km
Explanation
The ISA temperature lapse rate up to 11 km is 0.65°C per 100 m or 6.5°C per km or 2°C per
1000 ft

From a weather stand-point, which of the following gases is the most important constituent in
the atmosphere?
a) Nitrogen
b) Water vapour
c) Hydrogen
d) Oxygen
Explanation
Without water vapour, condensation, cloud production and precipitation are not possible

When considering the actual tropopause, which statement is correct?

a) It is at the same height of 36,090 ft all over the world
b) It is low over the poles and high over the Equator
c) It is at a constant altitude of 26,000ft
d) It is high over the poles and low over the Equator
Explanation
Because the surface temperature at the poles is cold, the tropopause is lower. Whereas the
surface heat at the equator makes the tropopause high
Where is the main Ozone layer is to be found?
a) Troposphere
b) Thermosphere
c) Mesophere
d) Stratosphere
Explanation
Peak Ozone concentrations are found between 20-25 km above the earth surface. The reason
that temperature increases with height in the upper stratosphere is because of UV radiation
reacting to Oxygen isotopes to create and destroy Ozone

Which is the most abundant gas in the lower atmosphere?

a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Methane
d) Carbon Dioxide
Explanation
Nitrogen: 78%, oxygen 21%

Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?

a) It is colder in tropical regions than in polar regions
b) It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions
c) It is highest in middle latitudes
d) There is no significant difference with change of latitude
Explanation
The higher the tropopause the colder the tropopause becomes. Remember that since
temperature decreases with height within the troposphere, then, the higher it's upper boundary,
the tropopause, the colder it becomes

Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
a) Troposphere
b) Lower stratosphere
c) Upper stratosphere
d) Ionosphere
Explanation
Almost all the moisture in our atmosphere comes from the oceans. Therefore the layer of the
atmosphere closest to the surface will contain the greatest quantity of water vapour

Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?

a) It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
b) It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
c) It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
d) It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
Explanation
Nil
Which one of the gases below is listed as a trace gas?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Argon
Explanation
The main four gases are Nitrogen, Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide and Argon. All other gases are
considered to be trace gases

Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?

a) At MSL temperature is +15°F and pressure is 1013.25 hPa
b) At MSL temperature is +15°C and pressure is 1013.25 hPa
c) At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per
km
d) At MSL temperature is 10°C and density is 1225 g/m3
Explanation
Nil

Which statement is correct when considering the lower layers of the atmosphere?
a) The majority of the weather is contained in the stratosphere and its upper boundary is
the tropopause
b) The majority of the weather is contained in the tropopause and its upper boundary is the
troposphere
c) The majority of the weather is contained in the troposphere and its upper boundary is the
stratosphere
d) The majority of the weather is contained in the troposphere and its upper boundary is the
tropopause
Explanation
Nil
003-004 Pressure and Density

A line drawn on a surface pressure chart joining places having the same barometric pressure at
the same level and at the same time is:
a) an isallobars
b) an isotherm
c) a contour
d) an isobar
Explanation
Isobars are line joining places of equal pressure (QFF) and they help us to identify pressure
patterns and pressure gradients. Most times we see them they are on surface pressure charts,
but not always

A trough of low pressure is:

a) An extension or elongation of a low pressure system along an axis on each side of which
pressure increases
b) An area where the pressure is lower than anywhere else in the area
c) A small low established within the circulation of another low
d) A centre of pressure surrounded on all sides by higher pressure
Explanation
This is simply a protrusion of low pressure. It is characterised by the isobars extending away
from low pressure

An extension or elongation of higher pressure is termed as:

a) an anticyclone
b) a ridge
c) a cyclone
d) a trough
Explanation
A ridge is simply the high pressure equivalent of a trough. In other words it is a protrusion of a
higher pressure

An isobar on a meteorological chart joins all places having the same:

a) QFF
b) QFE
c) QNE
d) QNH
Explanation
QFF is mean sea level pressure calculated using the pressure change corresponding to the
temperature at the location

Atmospheric pressure may be defined as:

a) the weight of the atmosphere at standard sea level
b) the mass of the atmosphere on any surface with which it is in contact
c) a pressure exerted by the atmosphere of 1013.2 hPa
d) the force per unit area exerted by the atmosphere on any surface with which it is in
contact
Explanation
The atmosphere has mass (all those molecules) and since this mass is accelerated by gravity
towards the centre of the earth it will create a force (mass x acceleration) on any surface which
is exposed to it
In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height:
a) is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels
b) is of the order of 27 HPa near mean sea level
c) is greater at higher levels than at lower levels
d) remains constant at all levels
Explanation
Pressure decrease with height, but at a decreasing rate. Therefore the pressure change in
100m at high altitude will be less than at lower levels

A surface low pressure system is caused by:

a) The mass of overlying air being more than in adjacent areas
b) A higher than normal temperature
c) The mass of overlying air being less than in adjacent areas
d) A lower than normal temperature
Explanation
It is the mass of the overlying air that determines atmospheric pressure. Lower atmospheric
mass above a location will reduce pressure at the surface

Pressure will _____ with increase of height and will be about _____ at 30,000ft in ISA.
a) Increase 400 HPa
b) decrease 1013.2 HPa
c) decrease 300 hPa
d) increase 300 hPa
Explanation
Pressure decrease with height at a decreasing rate. At sea level in ISA pressure is 1013.25
hPa, at 10,000 ft pressure is approximately 700 hPa and at 20,000 ft pressure is approximately
480 hPa and at 30,000 ft pressure is approximately 300 hPa. You MUST remember these
values and more besides!

The 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following
average heights is applicable?
a) 5,000 ft
b) 39,000 ft
c) 30,000 ft
d) 10,000 ft
Explanation
See above

The 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the following
average heights is applicable?
a) 10,000 ft
b) 30,000 ft
c) 5,000 ft
d) 39,000 ft
Explanation
See above
Which pressure is found at 38,662 ft in ISA?
a) 700 hPa
b) 300 hPa
c) 500 hPa
d) 200 hPa
Explanation
See above

Which pressure is found at approximately 18,000 ft in ISA?

a) 200 hPa
b) 700 hPa
c) 300 hPa
d) 500 hPa
Explanation
See above

The greater the pressure gradient the:

a) closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
b) further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
c) closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
d) further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
Explanation
Nil

The instrument that gives a continuous printed reading and record of the atmospheric pressure
is what?
a) Barograph
b) Hygrometer
c) Anemograph
d) Barometer
Explanation
This records pressure over time on graph paper rotating about a drum

The ICAO standard Atmosphere, assumes that the sea level atmospheric pressure is?
a) 1013.25 hPa and decreases with an increase in height
b) 1013.25 hPa and increases with an increase in height
c) 1013.25 hPa and decreases with an increase in height up to the tropopause. Above the
tropopause it remains constant
d) 1013.25 hPa and falls to about half this value at 30,000 ft
Explanation
Pressure decreases with height at a decreasing rate. This rate is modified by air temperature

The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure:
a) at a determined density altitude
b) at height of observatory
c) reduced to sea level
d) at flight level
Explanation
The stations reporting surface pressure are not all at sea level, therefore to make a map of sea
level pressure, these pressure values must be corrected to sea level using the elevation of the
station and the actual pressure lapse rate
The pressure of the atmosphere:
a) decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases
b) decreases at an increasing rate as height increases
c) decreases at a constant rate up to the tropopause and then remains constant
d) decreases at a constant rate as height increases
Explanation
Remember that temperature can modify the rate at which pressure decreases with height

What does cold air do to the vertical distribution of isobaric surface or pressure levels?
a) No change
b) Expands them
c) Raises them
d) Compacts them
Explanation
Since cold air cause pressure decrease more rapidly with height, it follows then that the
pressure levels or isobaric surfaces will be closer together. You can see this using the formula h
= 96t/p. "H" being the height represented by a 1 hPa change in pressure

What is the significance of tightly spaced isobars?

a) A large pressure gradient and light winds
b) A weak pressure gradient and strong winds
c) A large pressure gradient and strong winds
d) A weak pressure gradient and light winds
Explanation
Tightly spaced isobars show that there is very large pressure difference over a certain area.
This means that the pressure force (created by the pressure difference) is very strong, thus an
"air molecule" will be rapidly accelerated to high speed towards the low pressure

When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close together, the wind is
most likely to be:
a) blowing perpendicular to the isobars
b) changing direction rapidly
c) strong
d) light
Explanation
Close isobar spacing indicates a large pressure change or large pressure gradient. This will
rapidly accelerate air molecules to high speed

Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure?

a) It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m (per 27 ft)
b) It decreases with height
c) It is higher in winter than in summer
d) It is higher at night than during the day
Explanation
Pressure ALWAYS decreases with height
Which of the statements below best describes a 'ridge'?
a) An area between two highs where the isobars are very close together
b) An extension of high pressure
c) An extension of low pressure
d) An area of widely spaced isobars between two highs and two lows
Explanation
Nil

At FL180 the air temperature is -35°C. The air density at this level is:
a) greater than the density of the ISA at FL180
b) equal to the density of the ISA at FL180
c) less than the density of the ISA at FL180
d) unable to be determined without the QNH
Explanation
The air temperature is colder than normal, since ISA says the temperature should be -21.
Therefore since it's colder, the density will be greater than normal

Consider the following statements relative to air density and select the one which is correct.
a) Density decreases with height at a decreasing rate
b) Density increases with height at a decreasing rate
c) Density decreases with height at a increasing rate
d) Density increases with height at a increasing rate
Explanation
Nil

Density at the surface will be low when:

a) Pressure is high and temperature is low
b) Pressure is low and temperature is high
c) Pressure is high and temperature is high
d) Pressure is low and temperature is low
Explanation
Think of the two points separately. If air under high pressure, you are squashing the air,
therefore making is more dense and vice-versa if the pressure is low. If you heat the air, it
expands and density will decrease

Generally, as altitude increases:

a) temperature, pressure and density decreases
b) temperature decreases and pressure density increases
c) temperature and pressure increase and density decreases
d) temperature decreases and density increases
Explanation
Nil

High pressure will:

a) decrease air density
b) not effect air density
c) increase the density so long as the pressure is high
d) Increase air density
Explanation
Nil
If the outside air temperature at a given altitude is colder than ISA, the density altitude will be:
a) lower than pressure altitude
b) the same as the pressure altitude
c) higher than pressure altitude
d) lower than true altitude
Explanation
If the air is colder, then the density will increase. This higher density corresponds to a lower
altitude in ISA, therefore the density altitude decreases

If the outside air temperature at a given altitude is warmer than ISA, the density:
a) decreases
b) Density is not affected by temperature
c) remains the same
d) increases
Explanation
The warmer the air, the less dense is becomes. Remember, warm air rises because it becomes
less dense!

If the pressure altitude at an airfield in Germany is 1000 ft and the prevailing temperature is
-5°C, the density altitude is:
a) 1,138 ft
b) 3,138 ft
c) – 1,138 ft
d) 1,000 ft
Explanation
For every 1°C deviation the density altitude changes by 118.8 ft from the pressure altitude. The
formula is: ISA deviation X 118.8 ft + pressure altitude = density altitude. The ISA deviation is
ISA -18. Therefore, -18 X 118.8 + 1,000 ft = - 1,138 ft

If the pressure altitude at an airfield in South Africa is 5500 ft and the prevailing temperature is
+30°C, what is the approximate density altitude?
a) 2,500 ft
b) 8,000 ft
c) 8,580 ft
d) 3,000 ft
Explanation
For every 1°C deviation the density altitude changes by 118.8 ft from the pressure altitude. The
formula is: ISA deviation X 118.8 ft + pressure altitude = density altitude. The ISA deviation is
ISA + 26. Therefore, + 26 X 118.8 + 5,500 ft = 8,500 ft

Under what condition are pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
a) At sea level when the temperature is +15°C
b) When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa
c) When surface pressure is 1013.25 hPa
d) In a perfectly standard atmosphere
Explanation
Nil
Under what conditions would density be the least at any given place?
a) Low altitude, high temperature and high humidity
b) High altitude, high temperature and high humidity
c) High altitude, high temperature and low humidity
d) Low altitude, low temperature and low humidity
Explanation
Nil

What is the density at sea level in the International Standard Atmosphere?

a) 122.5 g/m3
b) 1225 g/m3
c) 12.25 g/m3
d) 1.225 g/m3
Explanation
Nil
005-006 Pressure Systems

Refer to Diagram 1
A ridge is indicated by letter:
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) C
Explanation
Use the wind to identify the main pressure system in the centre of the image. Remember; back
to wind, low on the left in the Northern Hemisphere. Therefore the two features either side of the
main system in the middle must be ridges

A ridge of high pressure is generally associated with:

a) subsidence of air, then divergence at the surface, causing clear skies and good weather
b) convergence at the surface causing increased cloud and precipitation
c) divergence at the surface causing cloud to break up and more precipitation
d) divergence at the surface causing an improvement in the surface visibility
Explanation
Because a ridge is simply an old shaped high pressure, it will hold the characteristics of normal
high pressures

An isobaric trough of low pressure is generally associated with:

a) Divergence at the surface causing increased cloud and precipitation
b) Convergence and uplift causing increased cloud and precipitation
c) Subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation
d) Subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation
Explanation
A trough is simply an extension of a low pressure; therefore the flow air and the weather will be
similar to a normal low pressure system, i.e. rising air causing cooling with clouds and
precipitation

An area of indeterminate pressure between two lows and two highs is called a:
a) saddle
b) col
c) ridge
d) trough
Explanation
Nil

Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it:
a) reaches warmer layers
b) is heated by compression
c) loses water vapour
d) is heated by expansion
Explanation
Air pressure is higher at the surface, therefore when air descends or sinks it will get squashed
(just like you do when you go deep sea diving). This compression causes the temperature to
rise because the molecules running around are confined to a smaller and smaller volume and
will impact each other more often
As a warm front approaches an airfield, what would be expected to happen to the surface
visibility?
a) Increase and then decrease closer to the front
b) Continually increases until the front arrives
c) Remain constant and decrease after the front passes
d) Continually decreases until the front arrives
Explanation
Nil

Considering that thermal lows develop as heated air rises, in which of the following conditions
would you expect to find the greatest concentrations of thermal depressions developing?
a) Over the land in winter
b) Over the sea in winter
c) Over the sea in summer
d) Over the land in summer
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 2
Haze in summer and radiation fog in winter can be expected at:
a) C2
b) B1
c) B2
d) B3
Explanation
These conditions can only exist in a High Pressure system. These are in A2 and C2. You can
identify the high pressure by looking at the value of the isobars in the system. If the middle
isobar in the system is higher than the system is a high pressure. DO NOT use isobar spacing
as a method of pressure system identification

How do air masses move at a cold front?

a) Cold air overrides a warm air mass
b) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
c) Warm air overrides a cold air mass
d) Cold air undercuts the warm air
Explanation
The cold advances against the warm, but since it colder and therefore denser than the warm air;
the cold air will slide under the warm air. This is called "undercutting"

How does the cloud change will the approach of a typical warm front?
a) Cloud base decreases and cloud amount decreases
b) Cloud base increases and cloud amount increases
c) Cloud base increases and cloud amount decreases
d) Cloud base decreases and cloud amount increases
Explanation
Nil
If there is divergence in the upper air, what will happen near the surface?
a) Falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
b) Falling pressure and likely formation of clouds
c) Rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
d) Rising pressure and likely formation of clouds
Explanation
Air will start to converge and rise near the surface creating an airflow that will reduce the mass
of air above the surface and therefore reduce pressure. The rising air will cool as it expands and
cause condensation and cloud

In an area of converging air at the surface:

a) clouds cannot be formed
b) convective clouds can be dissolved
c) stratified clouds can be dissolved
d) clouds can be formed
Explanation
As the air converges it will be forced to rise. The rising air cools as it expands and condenses to
form cloud

In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during the summer
in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone?
a) Thunderstorms and showers
b) Thick cloud with snow
c) Low level cloud with extensive rain
d) Calm winds, haze
Explanation
High pressure usually have gentle pressure gradient as shown by the widely spaced isobars.
This means the winds will always be light. Since air descends and warms, no major cloud can
form. The descent will trap pollutants in the lower atmosphere reducing visibility with haze

Refer to Diagram 2
In the non-frontal pressure system at B3, the expected weather is?
a) Cumulus or cumulonimbus with showers
b) Light winds and haze with an inversion
c) Clear skies with moderate winds
d) Stratus and stratocumulus with drizzle or light precipitation
Explanation
Typical non-frontal low pressure systems (heat lows, thermals lows and polar lows) are
convective in nature; this means there is usually vigorous thermal vertical ascent, therefore
vertical condensation and vertical cloud development
Refer to Diagram 2
In the southern hemisphere, the surface winds at B1 and C2 would be respectively:
a) Anti-clockwise across the isobars away from the centre, and clockwise across the
isobars towards the centre
b) Anti-clockwise across the isobars towards the centre, and clockwise across the isobars
away from the centre
c) Clockwise across the isobars towards the centre, and anti-clockwise across the isobars
away from the centre
d) Clockwise across the isobars away from the centre, and anti-clockwise across the
isobars towards the centre
Explanation
The winds around pressure systems in the southern hemisphere are reversed from the northern
hemisphere, however, the tendency is always into the centre of the low and out of the centre of
the high

What is the typical slope of a cold front?

a) 1:250
b) 1:50 to 1:80
c) 50:1 to 1:50
d) 1:150
Explanation
Nil

What is the typical slope of a warm front?

a) 150:1
b) 1:250
c) 1:50
d) 1:150
Explanation
Nil

Subsidence in an anticyclone produces:

a) Isothermal, dry and stable air
b) saturated air and an inversion
c) increased pressure at the surface
d) moist air and an inversion
Explanation
As the air descends it will draw in air from higher levels. Eventually when it reaches the surface
it will try and diverge, but the surface friction slows the divergence which starts to make the
descending air build up almost like a blockage. This build up of air increases the overall mass of
air above that location and therefore raises the pressure

Subsidence is:
a) vertical upwards motion of air
b) the same as convection
c) horizontal motion of air
d) vertical downwards motion of air
Explanation
Subsidence is another word for sinking; therefore air is sinking and descending in the
atmosphere
Refer to Diagram 3
The pressure system at position "D" is a:
a) secondary low
b) anticyclone
c) trough of low pressure
d) col
Explanation
The wide spacing of the isobars around a central isobar is a clue that the system is a high
pressure

Refer to Diagram 3
The pressure system located in area "B" is a:
a) ridge of high pressure
b) col
c) trough of low pressure
d) depression
Explanation
This a typical low pressure formed along the polar front. It is therefore called a "polar front
depression"

Refer to Diagram 2
The pressure systems at A2, B1, B2, B3 and C2 are respectively:
a) Depression; Anticyclone; Col; Ridge; and Trough
b) Ridge; Anticyclone; Col; Trough; and Depression
c) Trough; Depression; Col; Ridge; and Anticyclone
d) Ridge; Depression; Col; Trough; and Anticyclone
Explanation
Look at the values of the isobars in each system to tell you what the system is. Once you know
that you can then figure out the ridges and troughs

Refer to Diagram 3
The weather most likely to be experienced at position "D" in summer is:
a) mainly overcast with anticyclonic gloom
b) increasing high and medium cloud cover and generally good visibility
c) early morning fog lifting to low stratus
d) fine and warm with little or no cloud
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 2
Two important weather factors at B2 will be:
a) clear conditions in summer, thunderstorms in winter
b) thunderstorms in summer, fog in winter
c) frontal weather in winter, fog in summer
d) fog in summer, thunderstorms in winter
Explanation
This is a col, the system between highs and lows with widely spaced isobars
Refer to Diagram 1
Which of the following best describes Zone D?
a) anticyclone
b) col
c) trough of low pressure
d) ridge of high pressure
Explanation
An area between highs and lows, characterised by widely spaced isobars is called a "col"

Refer to Diagram 3
Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of precipitation?
a) ENFB
b) ESSA
c) EFHK
d) LSZH
Explanation
This airport is in the middle of a High pressure and High pressure will have almost no cloud or
precipitation because the descending air is warming up

Refer to Diagram 17
Which type of front is being depicted in picture 1?
a) A warm front
b) A polar front
c) A cold front
d) An occluded front
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 17
Which type of front is being depicted in picture 4?
a) An occluded front
b) A polar front
c) A cold front
d) A warm front
Explanation
Nil

What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area?
a) Advection
b) Convection
c) Convergence
d) Subsidence
Explanation
Nil
What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary high?
a) Sinking air
b) Rising air
c) Instability
d) Divergence at higher levels
Explanation
The air that is descending is warming through compression, therefore preventing significant
cloud

What is the typical weather to be expected behind a cold front?

a) Isolated stratus cloud with rain
b) Isolated cumuliform cloud with showers
c) Fog and low stratus
d) Fine clear weather with no cloud
Explanation
Because the air behind the cold front is moving to lower and more warmer latitudes, the air
mass will warm from below. This warmer air now starts to rise

What kind of precipitation can be observed in a typical non-frontal thermal depression?

a) Continuous rain
b) Showers of rain or hail
c) No precipitation
d) Intermittent drizzle
Explanation
Because the vertical air currents create vertical cloud called cumulus, the precipitation will be in
short bursts. This rapid start and rapid stop in precipitation is termed "showery"

What kind of visibility is typical in small scale heat lows or thermal depressions?
a) Good except in the showers
b) Moderate
c) Poor
d) Always excellent
Explanation
Nil

What level of icing hazard is typical inside the cumuliform clouds of typical mid latitude non
frontal depressions?
a) Moderate to severe
b) Moderate
c) None
d) Light
Explanation
Nil
What level of turbulence can be expected in large well developed cumulonimbus clouds that are
associated with thermal depressions?
a) Moderate
b) Light
c) Light to moderate
d) Moderate to severe
Explanation
CB clouds are always associated with moderate to severe turbulence and icing

What part of the polar front depression is the warm sector?

a) The area ahead the warm front
b) The area behind the warm front and in front of the cold front
c) The area behind the cold front
d) The area in front of the warm front and behind the cold front
Explanation
The warm sector is the warm mass of air that lies between the two fronts in a polar front
depression

What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over land in the
winter?
a) The possibility of snow showers
b) Thick cloud with continuous rain
c) A tendency for fog and low cloud
d) Thunderstorms
Explanation
Because of the generally clear skies and therefore extensive surface cooling, fog is frequently
formed at night at the surface and this may lift to form low stratus cloud during the day

What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?
a) At some 500 km from the front, groups of thunderstorms, later at some 250 km
thickening altostratus
b) At some 800 km cirrostratus, later altostratus, and at some 300 km nimbostratus until the
front arrives
c) Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front nimbostratus begins
d) At some 500 km altostratus, later cirrostratus and at some 80 km before the front
thunderstorms
Explanation
Nil

What weather can be expected in a small scale thermal depression or heat low?
a) No cloud
b) Thick layered cloud
c) Active cumulus clouds
d) Thin high cloud
Explanation
The vertically rising air cools and condenses to form vertical cloud
Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
a) Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months
b) At the centre of a low-pressure system
c) At the centre of a high-pressure system
d) In the transition zone between two air masses
Explanation
Low pressure systems have much steeper pressure gradients as shown by the tightly spaced
isobars. As a result they have much stronger winds

Which cloud type is usually the first cloud to be observed with an approaching warm front?
a) Cirrus or cirrostratus
b) Cumulus
c) Nimbostratus
d) Altostratus
Explanation
This is the cloud type found at the very top edge of the warm front. It is wispy. As the warm front
approaches the cloud will eventually lower and thicken

Refer to Diagram 3
Which location is most likely to have fog in the coming night?
a) D
b) A
c) C
d) B
Explanation
Fog during the night is common for High Pressure systems over land in the winter or autumn
months. The large isobar spacing in Area D is characteristic of a high pressure

Refer to Diagram 4
Which of the following best describes feature A?
a) Ridge of high pressure
b) Depression
c) Trough of low pressure
d) Col
Explanation
Using the wind arrow on the middle right hand side (Zurich), draw little wind arrows on the along
all the isobars. You'll notice an anticlockwise flow around both of the systems. Therefore the
systems are low pressures in the northern hemisphere. "A" is an extension of one of those low
pressure systems

Refer to Diagram 4
Which of the following best describes feature B?
a) Trough of low pressure
b) Ridge of high pressure
c) Depression
d) Col
Explanation
Cols are areas between lows and highs
Refer to Diagram 4
Which of the following best describes feature C?
a) Col
b) Trough of low pressure
c) Ridge of high pressure
d) Depression
Explanation
Using the wind information on the middle right hand side (near Zurich), draw little wind arrows
on all the along the isobars. You'll notice an anticlockwise flow around both of the systems.
Therefore the systems are low pressures in the Northern Hemisphere. "C" is a protrusion
between the two lows; therefore it must be a protrusion of higher pressure. These are "ridges"

Refer to Diagram 5
Which of the following best describes Zone B?
a) Anticyclone
b) Ridge of high pressure
c) Depression
d) Col
Explanation
Using the wind information next to Paris, draw little wind arrows along the isobars. You will see
an anticlockwise flow around both the systems. Anticlockwise flow in the Northern Hemisphere
is found in low pressure systems

Refer to Diagram 6
Which of the following best describes Zone C?
a) Anticyclone
b) Depression
c) Trough of low pressure
d) Ridge of high pressure
Explanation
Using the wind information on the right hand side, draw little wind arrows along the isobars.
You'll notice an anticlockwise flow around the main system in the middle. In the southern
hemisphere, with your back to the wind, the low is on the right and the high on the left.
Therefore the system in the middle is a high pressure

Which of the following correctly describes the flow of air in typical thermal depression?
a) Convergence at the surface, ascent of air and divergence at higher levels
b) Convergence at the surface, descent of air and convergence at higher levels
c) Divergence at the surface, descent of air and convergence at higher levels
d) None of the above
Explanation
Nil
Which of the following is a common result of subsidence?
a) Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes
b) Cumulus clouds and thunderstorms over a large area
c) An inversion over a large area with poor visibility
d) Wide spread thick horizontal cloud and intense precipitation
Explanation
The descending warming air creates a slightly warmer layer of air just above the surface, this is
the inversion. Because the air descends it traps pollutants near the surface reducing the
visibility

Which of the following is common on a cold front but NOT on a warm front?
a) Drizzle
b) Cumuliform cloud
c) Heavy rain
d) Stratus
Explanation
Cold front tends to have cumuliform clouds embedded in the part of the cold front that curls
back near the surface. These clouds produce showery precipitation. Cumulus cloud are very
rarely found on warm fronts

Which of the statements below best describes a col?

a) An extension of high pressure
b) An area of widely spaced isobars between two highs and two lows
c) An extension of low pressure
d) An area between two highs where the isobars are very close together
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 3
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design for northern Italy, area D?
a) Westerly wind
b) High pressure
c) Warm southerly wind
d) Easterly wind
Explanation
Nil

With an anticyclone over the UK the expected weather is:

a) Stratus in summer with drizzle, cumulus and snow in winter
b) Clear skies or possibly fair weather cumulus in summer, fog in winter
c) Clear skies in summer with haze, cold frontal weather in winter
d) Thunderstorms in summer, fog in winter
Explanation
Because of the general warming from subsiding air it is not possible to create active vertical
cloud, therefore only low level cloud is summer. Summer surface heating may generate small
cumulus and winter surface cooling will produce fog
With the approach of a typical polar front depression from the Atlantic, what sequence of fronts
would you expect to observe on the western coasts of Europe?
a) A warm front followed by a cold front
b) A cold front only
c) A cold front followed by a warm front
d) A warm front only
Explanation
A polar front depression generally consists of two fronts, a warm front and then a cold front. The
warm front leads first
007-008 Altimetry

A vertical spacing of 1,000 ft is the standard required separation between two FL. Under
conditions of cold air advection (ISA-15°C), what would the true vertical separation be?
a) without QNH information it cannot be determine
b) more than 1,000 ft
c) it remains 1,000 ft
d) less than 1,000 ft
Explanation
Remember in cold air conditions the true altitude (distance) is less than the indicated altitude
(distance)

An aerodrome is 1000 ft above sea level with a QNH of 1023 hPa. What is the approximate
value of QFE? (Assume 27ft per 1 hPa)
a) 976 hPa
b) 1060 hPa
c) 986 hPa
d) 1023 hPa
Explanation
Since the aerodrome is above sea level, the QFE (aerodrome pressure) will be less than the
QNH (sea level pressure). In 1000ft the pressure will drop by 37 hPa (1000ft/27ft = 37 hPa).
Therefore QNH 1023 - 37 = QFE 986

An aerodrome is 304 m above sea level with a QFE of 995 hPa. What is the approximate value
of QNH? (Assume 8m per 1 hPa)
a) 1060 hPa
b) 975 hPa
c) 1033 hPa
d) 957 hPa
Explanation
Since the aerodrome is above sea level, the QNH (sea level pressure) will be more than QFE
(aerodrome pressure). In 304 m the pressure will increase by 38 hPa (304m/8m = 38 hPa).
Therefore QFE 995 + 38 = QNH 1033

An aircraft is descending to land. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, What will happen to the altitude
reading when the altimeter is set from SPS (1013 hPa) to QNH at the transition level? (Assume
27 ft = 1 hPa)
a) It will remain the same
b) It will increase
c) It will not be affected
d) It will decrease
Explanation
Changing from 1013 to 1009 will place the altimeter datum point closer to the aircraft. Therefore
the height given by the altimeter will be less. Or remember than if you wind down the value in
the sub scale you wind down height

.
An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the altimeter has been adjusted
to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately: (assume 27 ft per 1 hPa)
a) 8,000 ft
b) 8,356 ft
c) 8,600 ft
d) 7,644 ft
Explanation
1000 hPa is a lower pressure than 1013, Therefore it is higher up in the atmosphere and close
to your aeroplane. Therefore if you now change from 1013 and select 1000 hPa as your datum,
the distance between your aeroplane the new datum is less, or just remember that is you wind
down the numbers in the sub scale you wind down the altitude. So from this the new height will
be less. 13 hPa is the pressure difference, so 13 hPa X 27 ft = 356 ft. 8000 - 356 ft = 7644 ft

An aircraft is flying at FL45 in ISA conditions, with a Radio Altimeter reading of 1860 ft. If the
elevation of the terrain beneath the aeroplane is 3090 feet, what is local QNH?
a) 1030 hPa
b) 996 hPa
c) 1013 hPa
d) 1042 hPa
Explanation
Your true altitude is = 3,090 + 1,860 = 4,950ft. This is also your indicated altitude on QNH if ISA
conditions. Draw the image. 4950 ft - 4500 ft = 450 ft. 450 ÷ 27 = 16.6 hPa. In your image, the
QNH pressure line is further below the SPS which means QNH is a greater pressure. So 1013 +
16.6 = 1029.9 hPa

Refer to Diagram 6
An aircraft is flying at low level from Point A to Point B as shown by the surface pressure chart.
The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
a) Wind speed at A is higher than at B
b) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
c) Wind speed at D is higher than at B
d) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
Explanation
The main system in the middle is a high pressure system. You can tell because of the way the
wind goes around it and that it's in the southern hemisphere. Point B is one isobar closer to the
centre of the high, therefore closer to the high pressure and as such it must have a higher
pressure value. If that is the case the true altitude at B is more

Refer to Diagram 5
An aircraft is flying at low level from Point A to Point B as shown by the surface pressure chart.
The altimeter setting is 1013.2 hPa. Which of these statements is correct?
a) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
b) Wind speed at A is higher than at B
c) Wind speed at A and at B is the same
d) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
Explanation
Using the wind symbol you can see that the wind is going around the main system in the middle
in an anticlockwise manner. This means it is a lower pressure system. Therefore you are flying
to a lower pressure system. So at B the true altitude will be less since point B is inside the low
pressure system
An aircraft, flying at FL100, flies from an area of warm air into an area of cold air. The QNH is
unchanged. How has the aircraft true altitude changed?
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Cannot determine without the pressure information
d) No change
Explanation
There are several ways of dealing with this question, different people like different methods:
1) Hi Low Hi. From high to low, the altimeter reads high. Therefore you are actually lower than
you think you are.
2) Hot to cold, don’t be bold because you are lower than you think you are.
3) Or remember than in cold air true altitude is less than indicated altitude (on QNH).
4) Or even remember that in cold air the isobars slope downwards and therefore you are really
descending

An airfield in England is 100m above sea level, QFF is 1030 hPa. The temperature at the
surface is -15°C. What is the QNH?
a) Same as QFF
b) More than 1030 hPa
c) Impossible to determine
d) Less than 1030 hPa
Explanation
When above mean sea level and temperature is below ISA then QFF > QNH

An airfield in Holland is 20m below sea level, QFF is 1020 hPa. The temperature at the surface
is +30°C. What is the QNH?
a) Same as QFF
b) More than 1020 hPa
c) Less than 1020 hPa
d) Impossible to determine
Explanation
When below mean sea level and warm than ISA QFF > QNH

An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 ft. If this altimeter be adjusted to
the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be:
a) 4,278 ft
b) 2,922 ft
c) 4,194 ft
d) 3,006 ft
Explanation
991 hPa is a lower pressure than 1013, therefore the datum is closer to the aeroplane and the
height indicated by the altimeter will be less. Or just remember that if you wind down the value
in the sub scale you wind down altitude. 1013 - 991 = 22 hPa. For every 1 hPa the height is 27
ft, so 22 X 27 ft = 594. Therefore 3600 - 594 = 3,006 ft
At sea level in ISA conditions, what height change is given by the altimeter with a change in
pressure of 1 hPa?
a) 8 ft
b) 27 ft
c) 39 ft
d) 27 m
Explanation
At sea level, the pressure will vary by 1 hPa for every 27 ft. Therefore the altimeter is
programmed to know that when the pressure changes by 1 hPa it will show a corresponding
height change of 27 ft. However, this varies with temperature and altitude

Define the term "altitude"?

a) Indication of the altimeter with 1013 set
b) Height above the aerodrome
c) Height above mean sea level
d) Elevation
Explanation
Nil

Define the term "pressure altitude"?

a) Elevation
b) Height above mean sea level
c) Height above the aerodrome
d) Indication of the altimeter with 1013 set
Explanation
Nil

During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude. If the
local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting procedure
on the descent back to the airfield?
a) It will increase
b) It will remain the same
c) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
d) It will decrease
Explanation
The question is really asking what happens when you change the sub scale from 1013 to 1023.
Well, 1023 is a higher pressure and therefore lower in the atmosphere. In this case the altimeter
datum is further below the aeroplane; therefore the height will be greater. Or just remember that
if wind up the number in the sub scale you wind up the altitude
.
For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of
the airfield is: (assume 8 m per 1 hPa)
a) 120 m
b) 600 m
c) 540 m
d) 160 m
Explanation
There is a 20 hPa difference in pressure. For every 1 hPa the height is 8 m. Therefore 20 hPa x
8 m = 160 m
If during a flight at a constant indicated altitude the outside pressure is increasing, the true
altitude will:
a) Increase
b) Remain the same
c) Decrease
d) Always be the same as the true altitude
Explanation
When flying to an area of higher pressure, the isobaric surface you are following is sloping
upwards, therefore true altitude increases. Or remember that in higher pressure TRUE >
INDICATED, or remember LOW HI LOW (from low to high pressure the altimeter reads low, i.e.
you are higher than the altimeter is saying)

If the air is colder than standard, an altimeter set to local QNH will read:
a) The same as the true altitude
b) Higher than the true altitude
c) The same as the pressure altitude
d) Lower than the true altitude
Explanation
When it's colder than ISA, TRUE < INDICATED (on QNH). Remember that hot to cold don't be
bold, or high to low look out below. In other words, when low pressure or temperature you are
lower than you think!

If the altimeter sub scale is set to QNH, the altimeter will read:
a) Pressure altitude
b) Height above the ground
c) Altitude above the aerodrome
d) Altitude above mean sea level
Explanation
Remember, that although is gives altitude above mean sea level, it doesn't do this perfectly
especially in non standard conditions

If the outside air temperature is ISA -15 and the indicated altitude on QNH is 10,000 ft, what is
the approximate true altitude?
a) 10,600 ft
b) 9,400 ft
c) 10,000 ft
d) 10,400 ft
Explanation
For every 1°C ISA deviation, the error is 4ft per 1,000 ft. Therefore, 15 x 4 = 60ft error per
1,000ft. There is 10,000ft, so 60 x 10 = 600 ft total error. If it’s colder than ISA, then TRUE <
INDICATED (on QNH). Or use this formula TRUE = INDICATED ON QNH + (ISA DEVIATION X
4 x FL in thousands of feet)
If the outside air temperature is ISA + 5 and the true altitude 9,000 ft, what is the approximate
indicated altitude on QNH?
a) 9,150 ft
b) 9,180 ft
c) 8,820 ft
d) 9,000 ft
Explanation
For every 1°C ISA deviation, the error is 4ft per 1000 ft. Therefore, 5 x 4 = 20 ft error per 1000ft.
There is 9,000ft, so 20 x 9 = 180 ft total error. If it’s warmer than ISA, then TRUE > INDICATED
(on QNH). Or use this formula INDICATED ON QNH = TRUE - (ISA DEVIATION X 4 X FL in
thousands of feet)

If the QNH at Locarno (200 m above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
(Assume 1hPa = 8m)
a) 1000 hPa
b) 995 hPa
c) 990 hPa
d) 1005 hPa
Explanation
Because Locarno is above sea level the QFE (aerodrome pressure) will be lower than the QNH
(sea level pressure). In 200 m the pressure will change by 25 hPa (200/8 = 25 hPa). Therefore
QNH 1015 - 25 hPa = QFE 990

If the QNH at Locarno (200 m above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
(Assume 1hPa = 8m)
a) 1025 hPa
b) 1005 hPa
c) 1000 hPa
d) 995 hPa
Explanation
Since Locarno is above sea level the airfield pressure (QFE) will be less than sea level pressure
(QNH). In 200 m the pressure will change by 25 hPa. Therefore 1025 - 25 = QFE 1000 hPa

If the true altitude exceeds the indicated altitude on QNH, what can be inferred about the
temperature of the air mass in which you are flying?
a) It is warmer than ISA
b) It is the same as ISA
c) There is insufficient information to answer the question
d) It is colder than ISA
Explanation
In warm air, true is greater than indicated (on QNH)

If the true altitude is less than the indicated altitude on QNH, what can be inferred about the
temperature of the air mass in which you are flying?
a) It is warmer than ISA
b) It is the same as ISA
c) It is colder than ISA
d) There is insufficient information to answer the question
Explanation
In cold air, true is less than indicated (on QNH)
In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1,411 FT. The QFE
adjustment in Geneva is: (assume 27 ft per 1 hPa)
a) 967 hPa
b) 948 hPa
c) 942 hPa
d) 961 hPa
Explanation
Because the airfield is above sea level the airfield pressure (QFE) will be less than the sea level
pressure (QNH). 1,411 / 27 ft = 52 hPa. So, 994 - 52 = 942 hPa

QNH at Johannesburg is 1025 hPa; elevation is 1,600m above mean sea level. What is the
approximate QFE? (Assume 1 hPa = 8m)
a) 1002 hPa
b) 830 hPa
c) 1000 hPa
d) 825 hPa
Explanation
QFE is the pressure at the airfield and QNH is the pressure at mean sea level. Therefore
because the airfield is above the sea, the QFE will be less. Since pressure is changing by 1 hPa
in every 8m, over 1600m the pressure will have fallen by 200 hPa. So 1025 - 200 = 825 hPa

The aerodrome QFE is:

a) the reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the sea level barometric pressure is
set on the sub scale
b) the reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the aerodrome barometric pressure
is set on the sub scale
c) the aerodrome barometric pressure
d) the reading on the altimeter on touchdown at an aerodrome when 1013.2 hPa is set on
the sub scale
Explanation
QFE is the barometric altimeter setting which will cause an altimeter to read height above the
official reference datum for a particular airfield (generally the height of a particular runway touch-
down zone elevation). An altimeter set to QFE will therefore read zero when on the ground at
the beginning of the runway. Therefore QFE is barometric pressure of the airfield reference
point or touchdown

The aerodrome QNH is the aerodrome barometric pressure:

a) corrected for temperature and adjusted to MSL assuming standard atmosphere
conditions exist
b) corrected to mean sea level assuming standard atmospheric conditions exist
c) corrected to mean sea level, assuming isothermal conditions exist
d) corrected to MSL using ambient temperature
Explanation
QNH is the sub scale setting to give altitude above sea level
The aircraft altimeter will read zero at aerodrome level with which pressure setting set on the
altimeter sub scale?
a) QNE
b) QFE
c) QNH
d) QFF
Explanation
QFE is the barometric altimeter setting which will cause an altimeter to read height above the
official reference datum for a particular airfield (generally the height of a particular runway touch-
down zone elevation). An altimeter set to QFE will therefore read zero when on the ground at
the beginning of the runway

The altimeter reads 4,500 ft with a QNH of 996 hPa set in the subscale. What would be
indicated by the altimeter is the subscale was changed to 1030 hPa? (Assume 1 hPa = 27 ft)
a) 3,480 ft
b) 3,990 ft
c) 5,418 ft
d) 3,582 ft
Explanation
If wind you up the value in the subscale you wind up the altitude, so expect the indication to be
more than 4,500 ft. The difference in pressure is 34 hPa. For each 1 hPa the change is 27 ft,
therefore 34 X 27 = 918 ft. 4500 + 918 = 5,418ft

The altimeter will always read:

a) with 1013 set in the subscale, the altitude above MSL
b) with airfield QNH set, the height above the airfield datum
c) the vertical distance above the barometric pressure set in the subscale if ISA conditions
prevail
d) the correct flight level with regional QFE set
Explanation
The altimeter will always read the height above whatever pressure is set in the subscale

The name given to the lowest forecast mean sea level pressure in an area is:
a) QFE
b) regional QNH
c) QFF
d) QNE
Explanation:
In the UK the lowest forecast value of QNH for an altimeter setting region is called the "Regional
Pressure Setting" and may be used to ensure safe terrain separation when cruising at lower
altitudes. In some parts of the world a similar procedure is adopted and this is known as
"Regional QNH" however this name has been modified to the above in the UK for reasons of
ambiguity. Regional QNH is also known as RPS (regional pressure setting)
The QFF at an airfield located 400 m above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C
higher than ISA. What is the QNH?
a) 1016 hPa
b) Less than 1016 hPa
c) More than 1016 hPa
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
Explanation
When above sea level and in warmer than ISA conditions QFF

The QFF is the atmospheric pressure:

a) at the place where the reading is taken
b) at a place where the reading is taken and corrected to MSL taking into account the
prevailing temperature conditions at the location
c) as measured by a barometer at the aerodrome reference point
d) corrected for temperature difference from standard and adjusted to MSL assuming
standard atmospheric conditions exist
Explanation
QFF is the pressure at sea level or (when measured at a given elevation on land) the station
pressure reduced to sea level assuming an isothermal layer at the station temperature

The QNH at an airfield located 700 ft above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not
available. What is the QFF?
a) 1022 hPa
b) More than 1022 hPa
c) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
d) Less than 1022 hPa
Explanation
When QFF sea level pressure is calculated from stations NOT at sea level, temperature
information is required!

The QNH is equal to the QFE if:

a) actual temperature is greater than ISA temperature
b) the elevation is zero
c) actual temperature is less than ISA temperature
d) actual temperature is the same as ISA temperature
Example
When the airfield is at MSL, the both the airfield pressure (QFE) and mean sea level pressure
(QNH) will be the same

There is strong stable wind blowing over a range of mountains causing a venturi effect over its
peak, how would an aneroid altimeter read in such an area?
a) Not enough information
b) Lower
c) Higher
d) Normal
Explanation
The venturi effect will decrease the pressure at the ridge level. This will cause the altimeter to
read higher than normal since the aneroid capsule will have expanded by more than normal for
this level
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter set to
QNH, even with an accurate altimeter?
a) When density altitude is higher than the indicated altitude
b) In warmer than standard air temperature
c) Under higher than standard pressure at standard air temperature
d) In colder than standard air temperature
Explanation
When the air is colder than ISA, true altitude is less than Indicated altitude (on QNH)

Refer to Diagram 7
Using the pressure chart shown, an aeroplane passes over area A to area B at a constant
indicated altitude. What can be said about the true altitude at B compared to A?
a) The true altitude will be the same at A than at B
b) There is not enough information to answer the question
c) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
d) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
Explanation
From the wind shown in the top left of the image, it is possible to identify that system A is low
pressure, but so it system B. However, if you put pressure values on each isobar, you'll see that
the pressure is higher at B than A, therefore the true altitude is greater at B

Refer to Diagram 8
Using the pressure chart shown, an aeroplane passes over area A to area B at a constant
indicated altitude. What can be said about the true altitude at B compared to A?
a) There is not enough information to answer the question
b) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
c) The true altitude will be the same at A than at B
d) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
Explanation
From the wind shown in the top left of the image, it is possible to identify that system B is low
pressure, but so it system A. However, if you put pressure values on each isobar, you'll see that
the pressure is higher at B than A, therefore the true altitude is greater at B

What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 ft below sea
level?
a) QFE is less than QNH
b) QFE is greater than QNH
c) No clear relationship exists
d) QFE is the same as QNH
Explanation
If the airfield is lower than sea level, then the pressure at the airfield (QFE) will be higher than
the pressure at mean sea level (QNH)

When an altimeter sub scale is set to the aerodrome QFE, the altimeter reads:
a) the elevation of the aerodrome at the aerodrome reference point
b) zero at the aerodrome reference point
c) the pressure altitude at the aerodrome reference point
d) the appropriate altitude of the aircraft
Explanation
Nil
When flying towards a depression at a constant indicated altitude, the true altitude will be:
a) lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later
b) higher than indicated
c) the same as indicated
d) lower than indicated
Explanation
In a depression, the isobaric surfaces of pressure levels which you are following are sloping
downwards! High to low, look out below!

When the altimeter sub scale is set to QFE, the altimeter will read:
a) pressure altitude
b) height above the ground
c) height above the aerodrome
d) altitude above mean sea level
Explanation
QFE - subscale setting to give height above aerodrome

Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
a) QFE: 995 hPa, elevation: 1,600 ft (488 m)
b) QFE: 1000 hPa, elevation: 1,200 ft (366 m)
c) QFE: 995 hPa, elevation: 1,200 ft (366 m)
d) QFE: 1003 hPa, elevation: 1,200 ft (366 m)
Explanation
1600 ft changes pressure by 59 hPa. 995 + 59 = QNH 1054

Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that
actually being flown?
a) Air temperature higher than standard
b) Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
c) Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude
d) Air temperature lower than standard
Explanation
In warmer than ISA, true is greater than indicated (on QNH)

Which of the following statements is true?

a) QNH is always lower than QFE
b) QNH is always equal to QFE
c) QNH can be equal to QFE
d) QNH is always higher than QFE
Explanation
This is the case when the airfield is at mean sea level. The airfield pressure (QFE) will be the
same as sea level pressure (QNH)
Which weather condition lowers true altitude to a position where flight over mountains could be
dangerous?
a) Warm depression
b) Cold anticyclone
c) Cold depression
d) Warm anticyclone
Explanation
Both cold air and low pressures cause the isobaric surfaces or pressure levels to slope towards
the ground. Therefore if you are flying on a constant indicated altitude you'll be following one of
these lines, therefore you'll actually be descending. This is bit dangerous near mountains!

Whilst flying en route to Madrid at a constant indicated altitude you notice that the true altitude is
constantly increasing. What can you deduce about the outside air pressure?
a) It is remaining the same
b) From the information it is impossible to deduce what is happening to pressure
c) It is increasing
d) It is decreasing
Explanation
If pressure increases, the isobaric surface slope upwards, therefore it explains why true altitude
is increasing. Remember that in higher pressure true is greater than indicated

With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the indication of the
aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of about ten minutes?
a) Show strong fluctuations
b) Increase rapidly
c) Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small
d) Decrease rapidly
Explanation
A uniform pressure pattern means the pressure is more of less the same everywhere. Therefore
over a ten minute period the pressure is unlikely to change and therefore the aneroid capsule in
the altimeter won't change

An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10,000 ft; local QNH is 1003
hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
a) It is colder than ISA
b) There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
c) Its average temperature is about ISA
d) It is warmer than ISA
Explanation
You can only compare the true altitude to the altitude on QNH to assess the temperature. That
means you must get off the flight level and onto the QNH altitude, then compare the QNH
altitude to the true altitude to assume the temperature. On QNH altitude = 9,730 ft. This is more
or less the True Altitude so it must be warmer than ISA
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet; local QNH is 1013
hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
a) Its average temperature is the same as ISA
b) It is warmer than ISA
c) It is colder than ISA
d) There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
Explanation
You can only compare the true altitude to the altitude on QNH to assess the temperature. That
means you must get off the flight level and onto the QNH altitude, then compare the QNH
altitude to the true altitude to assume the temperature. In this case QNH altitude = 12,000 ft
because the QNH pressure is 1013. This is the same as the True Altitude so it must be ISA

An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true altitude is 9,100 ft; local QNH is unknown.
What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
a) It is warmer than ISA
b) The average temperature is the same as ISA
c) It is colder than ISA
d) There is insufficient information to make an assumption
Explanation
You cannot compare the FL against the true altitude to find the temperature of the air mass. You
must first calculate the indicated altitude on QNH and compare that to the true altitude to find
the air mass temperature

During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13,500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa.
What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying?
a) Its average temperature is the same as ISA
b) It is colder than ISA
c) There is insufficient information to make any assumption
d) It is warmer than ISA
Explanation
You can only compare the true altitude to the altitude on QNH to assess the temperature. That
means you must get off the flight level and onto the QNH altitude, then compare the QNH
altitude to the true altitude to assume the temperature.
On QNH altitude = 13,662 ft. This is more than the true altitude so it must be colder than ISA

If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA +10°C in the lower
troposphere up to 18,000 ft; what is the actual layer thickness between FL 60 and FL 120?
a) 6,000 ft
b) 6,240 ft
c) 5,760 ft
d) 5,900 ft
Explanation
Really the question is saying that if the indicated distance is 6000 ft in ISA + 10 what is the true
distance? For every 1°C deviation, the error in the indicated altitude is 4 ft per 1000 ft. 10x4x6 =
240 ft total error. Remember that if it's warmer, true is more than indicated!
You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the temperature deviation
from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013.25 hPa)?
a) ISA +/-0°C
b) ISA +20°C
c) ISA -20°C
d) ISA +12°C
Explanation
You can only compare the true altitude to the altitude on QNH to assess the temperature. That
means you must get off the flight level and onto the QNH altitude, then compare the QNH
altitude to the true altitude to assume the temperature. In this case the FL and QNH altitude are
the same because QNH is 1013.
On QNH altitude = 13,000 ft. This is more than the true altitude so it must be colder than ISA.
There is only one answer that is colder. 1000 (total error in altimeter) ÷ 4 ÷ 13 (altitude in 1000's
by FL) = 20 (deviation)

You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003
hPa. What is the true altitude?
a) 15,090 ft
b) 16,910 ft
c) 16,370 ft
d) 15,630 ft
Explanation
True altitude = indicated altitude (QNH) + (ISA deviation x 4 x FL in thousands of feet)
True altitude = 15,730 + (-10 x 4 x 16)
True altitude = 15,090.
Gross error check is that if it's cold, true should be less than the indicated on QNH

You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033
hPa. What is the true altitude?
a) 18,260 ft
b) 21,740 ft
c) 20,660 ft
d) 19,340 ft
Explanation
True altitude = indicated altitude (QNH) + (ISA deviation x 4 x FL in thousands of feet)
True altitude = 20,540 + (-15 x 4 x 20)
True altitude = 19,340
You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a minimum altitude of
12,000 ft AMSL. The air mass you will be flying through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA.
Your altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will
the altimeter show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude?
a) 12,210 ft
b) 11,250 ft
c) 11,790 ft
d) 11,520 ft
Explanation
This question is really this: Given a true altitude of 12,000 ft and ISA +10, what is the indicated
altitude on QNH?
Indicated altitude (QNH) = true altitude - (ISA deviation x 4 x altitude in thousands of feet)
12,000 - (+10 x 4 x 12)

You intend to over fly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude is, according
to the aviation chart, 15,000 ft AMSL. The air mass that you will fly through is on average 15°C
warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what
altimeter reading will you effectively be at the recommended minimum flight altitude?
a) 14,370 ft
b) 13,830 ft
c) 15,900 ft
d) 14,100 ft
Explanation
This question is really this. Given a true altitude of 15,000 ft and ISA + 15, what is the indicated
altitude on QNH?
Indicated altitude (QNH) = true altitude - (ISA deviation x 4 x altitude in thousands of feet)
15,000 - (+15 x 4 x 15)

You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15,000 ft AMSL. The air is on an
average 15°C colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What indication must the
altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?
a) 13,830 ft
b) 15,690 ft
c) 16,170 ft
d) 14,370 ft
Explanation
For every 1°C deviation, error in altimeter on QNH is 4ft per 1,000ft
15 (deviation) x 4 x 15 = 900 ft total error. Since it is colder, true altitude is less than indicated
altitude on QNH; so that means the Indicated on QNH = 15,900 ft. Now correct this altitude to
1013 hPa to get your answer.
009 Temperature

Advection in meteorology is:

a) another word for Convection
b) vertical upwards motion
c) vertical downwards motion
d) horizontal motion
Explanation
If air is advected, it means it moves horizontally. If air convected, it is moved vertically

An inversion is when:
a) there is no change of temperature with height
b) there is an increase of temperature as height increases
c) there is no horizontal gradient of temperature
d) there is a decrease of temperature as height increases
Explanation
Nil

Cloud cover will reduce diurnal variation of temperature because:

a) incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial radiation is re-
radiated from the cloud layer back to the surface
b) incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial radiation is
reflected back to earth
c) the cloud stops the sun's rays getting through to the earth and also reduces outgoing
conduction
d) incoming solar radiation is re-radiated back to space and atmospheric heating by
convection will stop at the level of the cloud layer
Explanation
Because during the day cloud reflect radiation they prevent the surface temperatures from being
high. At night though, because they emit some radiation, they prevent the surface temperature
from getting very low. Therefore the change of temperature between day and night is reduced

Convection over land is greatest in:

a) winter during the night and early morning
b) winter in the afternoon
c) summer in the afternoon
d) summer during the night and early morning
Explanation
When surface temperatures are at their greatest is when there will be greatest amount of
convection
Diurnal variation of the surface temperature will:
a) be at a minimum in calm conditions
b) be unaffected by a change of wind speed
c) increase as wind speed increases
d) decrease as wind speed increases
Explanation
Winds tend to mix the near surface layers. Therefore during the day, the warmer surface layers
are mixed with cooler upper layers, preventing surface temperatures from getting high. At night
the land becomes cold but the wind will mix this cold surface layer with slightly warmer layers
above preventing the surface temperatures from being too low at night. Therefore the change of
temperature between day and night is less

If temperature remains constant with an increase in altitude there is:

a) uniform lapse rate
b) an inversion aloft
c) an isohypse
d) an isothermal layer
Explanation
This is the term for when temperature remains constant with height. It is usually found in the
lower stratosphere, but can be found within the troposphere since the ELR does change

If you are flying at 10,000 ft in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard atmosphere,
what is the outside temperature likely to be?
a) -15°C
b) +5°C
c) +15°C
d) -10°C
Explanation
ISA states that the temperature at 10,000 ft should be -5°C. But in the question we have a
temperature that is 10°C warmer than that. Therefore the actual temperature must be +5°C

On a clear sky over land with a calm wind, the minimum temperature is reached approximately:
a) half an hour after sunrise
b) one hour before sunrise
c) half an hour before sunrise
d) at the moment the sun rises
Explanation
The coldest time of the day is usually just after sunrise. After this time there is more radiation
arriving from the sun than being lost by the earth therefore the temperature after this time will
slowly start to rise

On 21 December, what are the seasons in each hemisphere?

a) Summer in the southern hemisphere and winter in the northern hemisphere
b) Spring in the northern hemisphere and autumn in the southern hemisphere
c) Autumn in the northern hemisphere and spring in the southern hemisphere
d) Summer in the northern hemisphere and winter in the southern hemisphere
Explanation
On the 21 December the greatest amount of solar energy per unit area is at 23.5°S. Therefore
the southern hemisphere is warmest and the northern hemisphere is at its coolest
The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is:
a) overcast and winds are weak
b) overcast and winds are strong
c) clear and winds are strong
d) clear and winds are weak
Explanation
No clouds and no wind causes the surface temperature to be high during the day and low during
the night

The diurnal variation of temperature is:

a) Reduced anywhere by the presence of cloud
b) Greater over the sea than over the land
c) Less over desert areas than over temperate grassland
d) Increased anywhere as wind speed increases
Explanation
Because cloud prevents day time solar radiation from reaching the surface, daytime
temperatures are lower. At night, the cloud radiates some heat making night time temperatures
a little higher. Therefore the difference between night and day is less

The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere:

a) has a fixed value of 2°C per 1,000 ft
b) has a fixed value of 0.65°C per 100 m
c) has a fixed value of 1°C per 1,000 ft
d) varies with time
Explanation
It is only in ISA that the temperature lapse rate is 2°C per 1000 ft. It is only an average,
therefore in reality is must change, and it certainly does, especially near the surface

The measurement of surface temperature is made:

a) At approximately 10 metres from ground level
b) At ground level
c) At approximately 4 feet above ground level
d) At approximately 4 metres above ground level
Explanation
The reason being that air is bad conductor of heat, therefore, very close to the ground the
temperature will be much different to the temperature slightly above the ground. 4 feet is the
height of the "Stevenson screen" which houses the temperature probes

The purpose of a "Stevenson Screen" is to:

a) To prevent the mercury freezing in the low winter temperatures
b) Protect the thermometer from weather and from direct sunshine
c) Maintain a moist atmosphere so that the wet bulb thermometer can function correctly
d) Keep the wet and dry bulb thermometers away from surface extremes of temperature
Explanation
Nil
The Sun gives out ____ amounts of energy with ____ wavelengths. The Earth gives out
relatively ____ amounts of energy with relatively ____ wavelengths.
a) large small small large
b) large large small large
c) large large small small
d) small small large large
Explanation
Nil

The surface of the Earth is heated by:

a) short wave solar radiation
b) conduction
c) convection
d) long wave solar radiation
Explanation
Nil

The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO
standard lapse rate is applied?
a) -8°C
b) +4°C
c) 0°C
d) -4°C
Explanation
In ICAO's standard atmosphere (ISA) the temperature change with height is 2°C per 1,000 ft or
0.65°C per 100 m. Therefore, from 16,000 ft to 9,000 ft the temperature change will increase by
14°C

The troposphere is heated largely by:

a) absorption of terrestrial radiation, conduction from the surface, convection and the
release of latent heat
b) absorption by ozone of the sun's short wave radiation
c) absorption of the sun's short wave radiation
d) radiation of heat from cloud tops and the earth's surface
Explanation
Absorption of terrestrial radiation is the main method of heating the atmosphere

What is the primary source of heat for the atmosphere?

a) The solar radiation from the Sun
b) The terrestrial radiation from the Earth
c) The long wave radiation from the Sun
d) The short wave radiation from the Earth
Explanation
The sun heats the earth, which in turn warms and heats the atmosphere
Which of the following is a very common cause of ground or surface temperature inversion?
a) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain
b) Heating of the air by subsidence
c) The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air
d) Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with very light winds
Explanation
The net loss of radiation at night means the surface of the earth cools. Since air is bad
conductor of heat, the layers just above the surface will not have cooled by as much. This will
happen almost every night; therefore it is a very common cause of inversions

With a clear night sky, the temperature change with height by early morning is most likely to
show by:
a) An inversion above the surface with an isothermal layer thereafter
b) A stable lapse rate of 1°C per 1,000 ft
c) A steady lapse rate averaging 2°C per 1,000 ft
d) An inversion from near the surface then a decrease of temperature with altitude
Explanation
A clear night will make the surface temperature fall rapidly. However, the layers slightly above
the surface will not have cooled so much; therefore the surface layers will be cooler than the
layers slightly above the surface. After this inversion, the temperature will start to decrease with
height once again since the bottom of the atmosphere will be still warmer than the top
010 Humidity

A change of state directly from a solid to a vapour or vice versa is:

a) Condensation
b) Evaporation
c) Sublimation
d) Insolation
Explanation
Sublimation is a change of state that skips the liquid phase

Absolute humidity is:

a) The amount of water vapour that a given quantity of air holds
b) The maximum number of water droplets that a given quantity of air can hold
c) The number of water droplets in a given quantity of air
d) The maximum amount of water vapour that a given quantity of air can hold
Explanation
Absolute humidity refers to the mass of water in a particular volume of air. Absolute humidity is
expressed as the number of kilograms of water vapour per cubic meter of air. Imagine a cube of
air that is one meter wide, one meter high, and one meter deep. If we could “squeeze” all the
water out of that cube of air into a container, we could weigh the container and see how many
kilograms of water it contains. The amount of vapour in that cube of air is the absolute humidity
of that cubic meter of air

Apart from moisture and cooling, what else is required for condensation to take place in the
atmosphere?
a) Lifting
b) Freezing nuclei
c) Condensation nuclei
d) Clouds
Explanation
Cloud condensation nuclei (also known as cloud seeds) are small particles (typically 0.0002
mm, or 1/100 the size of a cloud droplet) about which cloud droplets coalesce. Water requires a
non-gaseous surface to make the transition from a vapour to a liquid. In the atmosphere, this
surface presents itself as tiny solids or liquid particles called condensation nuclei

During a night with a clear sky, surface temperature will ____ relative humidity will ____ and
dew point will ____.
a) rise rise fall
b) fall rise remain the same
c) fall rise rise
d) fall fall remain the same
Explanation
At night temperature will decrease as the land cools. As air cools it has less and less capacity to
hold water vapour. Eventually a temperature will be reached where the air has reached its
carrying capacity. This temperature is "dew point" and it is when the humidity is 100%
During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C were measured.
What temperature change must occur during the night in order to induce saturation?
a) It must decrease to +5°C
b) It must decrease to +7°C
c) It must decrease to +6°C
d) It must decrease by 5°C
Explanation
Nil

For any given pressure, the relative humidity depends on:

a) moisture content and temperature of the air
b) moisture content of the air only
c) temperature of the air only
d) moisture content and pressure of the air
Explanation
Relative humidity is a ratio of the actual quantity of water vapour the air can contain to the
maximum quantity of water vapour the air contain if saturated. Therefore, adding moisture can
affect the relative humidity and since temperature affect the maximum quantity of water vapour
the air contain if saturated, then temperature too can affect RH

How does relative humidity and the dew point in an unsaturated air mass change with varying
temperature?
a) When the temperature decreases the relative humidity decreases and the dew point
increases
b) When the temperature increases the relative humidity decreases and the dew point
remains constant
c) When the temperature decreases the relative humidity and the dew point remain
constant
d) When temperature increases the relative humidity increases and the dew point
decreases
Explanation
Since a rise in temperature increases the capacity to hold water, then the relative amount of
water being held compared to what is able to held will decrease. Thus RH decreases. However,
the temperature to which the air must be cooled to for it to saturated will still remain the same

If the temperature of liquid water falls below freezing, what may occur?
a) Condensation
b) The absorption of latent heat
c) Freezing but only if seed crystals or freezing nuclei are present
d) Freezing regardless of whether seed crystals or freezing nuclei are present
Explanation
A liquid below its freezing point will crystallize in the presence of a seed crystal or nucleus
around which a crystal structure can form. However, lacking any such nucleus, the liquid phase
can be maintained all the way down to the temperature at which crystal homogeneous
nucleation occurs
In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated?
a) Troposphere
b) Tropopause
c) Stratopause
d) Stratosphere
Explanation
This is the lowest layer of the atmosphere and it therefore is the closest to the sources of water
which are on the Earth’s surface

In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released?

a) Gas to liquid
b) Solid to liquid
c) Liquid to gas
d) Solid to gas
Explanation
Since the water vapour holds the greatest amount of latent heat compared to the other states of
water, then as water vapour condenses into liquid water latent heat must be released to the
surroundings

Moisture or water vapour can be added to the air by two processes. These are:
a) sublimation and heating
b) evaporation and sublimation
c) supersaturation and evaporation
d) heating and condensation
Explanation
Evaporation is the change from liquid to vapour, and sublimation is the change from solid to
vapour. Both processes produce water vapour

On a wet bulb thermometer in an unsaturated atmosphere there will be a reduction of

temperature below that of the dry bulb thermometer because:
a) Heat is released from the thermometer during the process of evaporation
b) Heat is absorbed during the process of condensation
c) Heat is released during the process of condensation
d) Heat is absorbed by the thermometer during the process of evaporation
Explanation
If there is liquid water on the wet bulb thermometer and the air is unsaturated then evaporation
takes place, if it does so, latent heat is absorbed or released FROM the thermometer and stored
in the water vapour. That’s why the wet bulb temperature decreases. When water evaporates
from our skin we cool down, that’s why we sweat!

Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between:

a) dew point and air temperature
b) water vapour weight and dry air weight
c) water vapour weight and humid air volume
d) actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
Explanation
Nil
Relative humidity is:
a) the actual amount of water vapour in a sample of air divided by the maximum amount of
water vapour that the sample can contain x 100
b) the maximum amount of water vapour that a sample of air can contain divided by the
actual amount of water vapour the sample does contain x 100
c) air temperature divided by dew point temperature x 100
d) air temperature divided by wet bulb temperature x 100
Explanation
Relative humidity is simply the ratio of the amount of water vapour in the air to the maximum
amount of water vapour that could be present if the vapour were at its saturation conditions

The dew point temperature:

a) cannot be equal to the air temperature
b) can be equal to or lower than the air temperature
c) is always higher than the air temperature
d) is always lower than the air temperature
Explanation
The dew point or dew point of a given parcel of air is the temperature to which the parcel must
be cooled, at constant barometric pressure, for the water vapour component to condense into
water, called dew. When the air is saturated the temperature and dew point are the same value

The difference between temperature and dew point is greater in:

a) moist air
b) air with high temperature
c) dry air
d) air with low temperature
Explanation
When the air is dry the dew point is considerably less than the temperature, in other words the
air must be cooled by a large amount before the air becomes saturated

The instrument used for measuring the humidity of air is a:

a) hygroscope
b) hydrometer
c) wet bulb thermometer
d) hygrometer
Explanation
Hygrometers are instruments used for measuring humidity. A simple form of a hygrometer is
specifically known as a "psychrometer" and consists of two thermometers, one of which
includes a dry bulb and the other of which includes a bulb that is kept wet to measure wet-bulb
temperature. Evaporation from the wet bulb lowers the temperature, so that the wet-bulb
thermometer usually shows a lower temperature than that of the dry-bulb thermometer, which
measures dry-bulb temperature

The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the:
a) dew point
b) stability of the air
c) air temperature
d) relative humidity
Explanation
Temperature controls the carrying capacity of air to "hold" water vapour. High temperatures
mean the air can "hold" more water vapour
The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as:
a) sublimation
b) supercooling
c) radiation cooling
d) supersaturation
Explanation
Nil

The process of change of state from a gas to a liquid is:

a) condensation, in which latent heat is absorbed
b) evaporation, in which latent heat is released
c) evaporation, in which latent heat is absorbed
d) condensation, in which latent heat is released
Explanation
As the water vapour condenses, latent heat is released from the vapour to the surrounding air

The process of change of state from a liquid to a gas is:

a) condensation, in which latent heat is released
b) condensation, in which latent heat is absorbed
c) evaporation, in which latent heat is absorbed
d) evaporation, in which latent heat is released
Explanation
As the liquid evaporates, latent heat is absorbed from the surrounding and then stored in the
vapour. That’s why when evaporation takes place on our skin for example when we sweat, we
cool down

The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of this air mass
influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
a) It is not influenced by changing water vapour
b) It decreases with increasing water vapour
c) It increases with increasing water vapour
d) It is only influenced by temperature
Explanation
As more water vapour is added to the air, the percentage of the amount it is holding compared
to what it can hold increases

The wet bulb temperature:

a) Is measured using a hydrometer
b) measures the dew point of the air
c) Is the minimum temperature to which a thermometer bulb can be cooled by the
evaporation of water
d) Is the minimum temperature reached by the surface of the earth as measured by a
thermometer placed 1.2 m above the ground
Explanation
Wet-bulb temperature is a factor in the determination of relative humidity. Wet-bulb temperature
is measured using a thermometer that has its bulb wrapped in cloth—called a sock—that is kept
wet with water via wicking action. Such an instrument is called, not surprisingly, a wet-bulb
thermometer. At relative humidities below 100%, water evaporates from the bulb which cools
the bulb below ambient temperature
Throughout the 24 hrs of a day the relative humidity can be expected to:
a) reduce during the day and increase at night
b) stay reasonably constant throughout the 24 hours
c) only change with a change of air mass
d) increase during the day and decrease at night
Explanation
As temperature rises during the day, the air has a greater capacity for water vapour, so even
though the amount of vapour present remains the same, the percentage of actual vapour
present gets less

Wet bulb temperature would normally be lower than the dry bulb temperature because:
a) condensation causes a release of latent heat
b) of condensation on the muslin wick of the bulb
c) latent heat is absorbed by the bulb thermometer
d) evaporation causes cooling
Explanation
Evaporation from the wet bulb lowers the temperature because latent heat is absorbed from the
surroundings, i.e. the thermometer, and is then stored in the water vapour. So the wet-bulb
thermometer usually shows a lower temperature than that of the dry-bulb thermometer, which
measures dry-bulb temperature

What is the characteristic of supercooled water?

a) Liquid water whose temperature is below freezing point
b) Ice crystals which have melted to become very cold water
c) Water which is very close to freezing
d) Liquid water whose temperature is above freezing point
Explanation
A liquid below its freezing point will crystallize in the presence of a seed crystal or nucleus
around which a crystal structure can form. However, lacking any such nucleus, the liquid phase
can be maintained all the way down to the temperature at which crystal homogeneous
nucleation occurs

When the air temperatures increases, what effect will it have on relative humidity?
a) It decreases
b) It remains constant
c) It increases
d) It increases up to 100%, and then remains stable
Explanation
Temperature changes the carrying capacity of air to hold water vapour. The warmer the air, the
greater the amount of moisture it can contain. Therefore, as temperature rises the relative
percentage of water it is holding compared to what it can hold decreases

When water evaporates into unsaturated air:

a) relative humidity is not changed
b) heat is released to the surroundings
c) relative humidity is decreased
d) heat is absorbed from the surroundings
Explanation
Evaporation absorbs latent heat from the surroundings and stores it in the water vapour. That’s
why we cool when our sweat evaporates from our bodies
When water vapour changes to ice:
a) Latent heat is absorbed
b) Latent heat is released
c) Specific heat is released
d) Specific heat is absorbed
Explanation
Water vapour holds the greatest amount of stored latent heat compared to the other states of
water. Therefore when vapour changes to solid i.e. when water vapour changes to ice, latent
heat is released to the surroundings

Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?

a) Liquid direct to solid
b) Solid direct to liquid
c) Solid direct to vapour
d) Liquid direct to vapour
Explanation
Or vapour to solid

Which of the processes listed below will enable air to become saturated?
a) Melting
b) Condensation
c) Heating
d) Evaporation
Explanation
Air can become saturated when the air is "holding" as much water vapour as it can, i.e. when
the humidity is 100%. There are two ways of making the air "full" of vapour. 1. Adding water
vapour to the air by evaporation, or 2. by cooling the air to dew point

Which one of the following statements relating to atmospheric humidity is correct?

a) The dew point temperature is the temperature indicated by the wet bulb thermometer
b) If the air temperature falls then the absolute humidity must increase
c) The diurnal variation of dew point temperature is greatest when skies are clear at night
d) The absolute humidity is the mass of water vapour contained in unit volume of air
Explanation
Absolute humidity refers to the mass of water in a particular volume of air. Absolute humidity is
expressed as the number of kilograms of water vapour per cubic meter of air. Imagine a cube of
air that is one meter wide, one meter high, and one meter deep. If we could “squeeze” all the
water out of that cube of air into a container, we could weigh the container and see how many
kilograms of water it contains. The amount of vapour in that cube of air is the absolute humidity
of that cubic meter of air

The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum vapour
pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The maximum vapour
pressure is:
a) smaller over the water surface
b) greater over the water surface
c) equal over both surfaces
d) the same over both surfaces if the air pressure is the same
Explanation
Nil
011-012 Adiabatics and Stability

A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per 100 m is:
a) absolutely stable
b) neutral for dry air
c) absolutely unstable
d) conditionally unstable
Explanation
Notice that dry air also cools down by 1°C/100m, therefore the disturbed air has the same
temperature as the environment and will stay at the place it is disturbed to

A layer in which the temperature increases with height is said to be:

a) neutral
b) absolutely stable
c) absolutely unstable
d) conditionally unstable
Explanation
Nil

A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is:

a) absolutely stable
b) unstable
c) conditionally unstable
d) neutral
Explanation
If the temperature is constant with height then the ELR is 0°C/100m. Therefore the ELR would
be drawn straight upwards

A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is:

a) 0.65°C per 100 m
b) less than 0.65°C per 100 m
c) between 1°C per 100 m and 0.6°C per 100 m
d) more than 1°C per 100 m
Explanation
If the ELR is more than the DALR, i.e. more than 1°C/100 m then the air is absolutely unstable

Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate:

a) exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
b) exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate
c) is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
d) is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate
Explanation
Nil

Absolute instability occurs when:

a) DALR > ELR
b) ELR > DALR
c) SALR > ELR
d) SALR < ELR
Explanation
Nil
An adiabatic process is defined as:
a) the cooling of the atmosphere at 3°C per 1000 ft
b) an increase of temperature in an insulated parcel of air in which the pressure has been
decreased
c) a change of temperature brought about by air being forced to rise and cooling by
conduction
d) a change of temperature brought about by a change of pressure acting on an insulated
parcel of air
Explanation
In thermodynamics, an adiabatic process is a process in which no heat is transferred to or from
working fluid or gas. The term "adiabatic" literally means an absence of heat transfer

An air mass is unstable when:

a) an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height
b) pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area
c) temperature increases with height
d) temperature and humidity are not constant
Explanation
Nil

As air ascends in the atmosphere it will:

a) warm adiabatically
b) cool adiabatically
c) expand and warm
d) compress and warm
Explanation
As air rises, the surrounding pressure falls. This makes the air parcel expand. This expansion
causes the air parcel to cool

As air descends in the atmosphere it will:

a) expand and cool
b) compress and warm
c) compress and cool
d) expand and warm
Explanation
Nil

During an adiabatic process heat is:

a) neither added nor lost
b) lost
c) added but the result is an overall loss
d) added
Explanation
In thermodynamics, an adiabatic process is a process in which no heat is transferred to or from
working fluid. The term "adiabatic" literally means an absence of heat transfer
From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the atmosphere be
derived?
a) Dry adiabatic lapse rate
b) Surface temperature
c) Environmental lapse rate
d) Pressure at the surface
Explanation
The variation in the ELR is what controls stability. If the temperature decreases rapidly with
height then atmosphere will be unstable, however, if the temperature decreases very slowly with
height then the atmosphere will be stable

If saturated air is forced to rise it will:

a) tend to regain its former position if the ELR is greater than the SALR
b) tend to regain its former position if the ELR is less than the SALR
c) be classified as stable air when the ELR is greater than the SALR
d) carry on rising if the ELR is less than the SALR
Explanation
Anytime the ELR is less than the SALR, then the atmosphere is said to be absolutely stable.
Therefore if saturated OR dry air were forced to rise it will return to its original position

If the dry bulb temperature at the surface is 10°C and at 1000 m it is 5°C, then the atmosphere
is?
a) Unstable
b) Absolutely stable
c) Absolutely unstable
d) Conditionally unstable
Explanation
You can work out the ELR here; it's 0.5°C/100m. Therefore, since the ELR is less than the
SALR, the atmosphere is absolutely stable

In a given atmosphere where the relative humidity is 60% and the ELR is less than the DALR. If
air is forced to rise it will be?
a) Unstable and will tend to regain its former position
b) Stable and will carry on rising
c) Stable and will tend to regain its former position
d) Unstable and will carry on rising
Explanation
If the ELR is less than DALR and more than the SALR (conditional stability) and the air is
dry/unsaturated then stable conditions persist. If the ELR is less than DALR AND the SALR then
absolute stability exists and it doesn't matter whether the air is dry or not. Therefore in either
case the air is stable if dry

In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 m increase in height is more than 1°C. This
layer can be described as being:
a) conditionally unstable
b) neutral
c) absolutely stable
d) absolutely unstable
Explanation
The air is absolutely unstable whenever the ELR is more than 1°C/100m. ELR is greater than
DALR
In a stable atmosphere, any air that is displaced vertically will tend to:
a) remain where it is left
b) return to its original position
c) become cooler than the environment
d) continue to rise
Explanation
The displaced air will be colder than the surrounding air and therefore sinks back

In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and 13°C at 1,000m. This layer of
air is:
a) conditionally unstable
b) a layer of heavy turbulence
c) unstable
d) stable
Explanation
You can work out the ELR as being 0.2°/100 m, therefore since the ELR is less than the SALR
(0.6°C/100m) the atmosphere is absolutely stable

In an unstable atmosphere, air that is displaced vertically will:

a) return to its original position
b) continue to rise
c) remain where it is left
d) become colder than the surroundings
Explanation
The displaced air will be warmer than its surroundings and will therefore continue to rise

In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends
on the:
a) wind direction
b) thickness of the unstable layer
c) air pressure at the surface
d) pressure at different levels
Explanation
The deeper the unstable layer the taller the cumulus cloud will be

In still air, you notice that the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2°C/1,000 ft. This rate
is the:
a) dry adiabatic lapse rate
b) saturated adiabatic lapse rate
c) environmental lapse rate
d) normal lapse rate
Explanation
Nil
In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by:
a) drizzle
b) haze
c) low stratus
d) showers of rain or snow
Explanation
Showers fall from cumulonimbus clouds which are produced when air rises vigorously in
unstable weather. Visibility is generally good in unstable conditions, but not during a shower!

Complete the sentence: ____ instability exists when the ____ is ____ than the DALR
a) Conditional ELR greater
b) Conditional SALR less
c) Absolute SALR less
d) Absolute ELR greater
Explanation
Any time the ELR is more than the DALR then the atmosphere is absolutely unstable. For
example, an ELR of 1.5°C per 100m IS more than 1°C per 100 m (DALR) Therefore the
atmosphere is unstable

Neutral equilibrium in the atmosphere occurs when:

a) There is a state in which there is high relative humidity at low levels and a low relative
humidity at high levels
b) Any air which is displaced upwards remains in its new position, once the displacing force
is removed, this displaced air having no tendency to rise further or to sink back down
c) There is a state in which there is low relative humidity at low levels and a high relative
humidity at high levels
d) There is a thin stable layer at low levels but a much thicker unstable layer aloft
Explanation
Neutral stability is when the ELR is the same as the displaced air, so if saturated air is displaced
then the ELR must 0.6°C/100m, or if dry air is displaced then the ELR must be 1°C/100m

Rising air cools because:

a) surrounding air is cooler at higher levels
b) it becomes more moist
c) it contracts
d) it expands
Explanation
As air expands the molecules within a given parcel of air will contact each other less frequently
therefore a lower temperature will result. This is adiabatic cooling

The actual change of temperature with height is known as:

a) the temperature curve
b) the tephigram
c) the adiabatic lapse rate
d) the environmental lapse rate
Explanation
The ELR on average is 0.65°C/100m or 2°C/1000ft, but it does very enormously, especially in
the lower atmosphere. Is the variation of the ELR that determines atmospheric stability?
The air is stable if:
a) when a lifting force is removed, the air tries to return to its original position
b) it moves very little
c) there are few changes in pressure
d) when a lifting force is removed, the air continues to rise
Explanation
Nil

The SALR is less than the DALR because:

a) saturated air is denser than dry air
b) of the release or absorption of latent heat as either evaporation or condensation takes
place
c) moisture cools down and warms up more slowly
d) water has a higher specific heat capacity
Explanation
When saturated air rises it will expand and cool, however, cooling saturated air causes it to
condense. Condensation releases latent heat to the surroundings. Therefore, whilst the air tries
to cool at 1°C/100m it can't because it keeps giving itself a little heat which makes that air cool
down by less

The decrease in temperature, per 100 m, in a saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the
atmosphere is approximately:
a) 1.8°C per 100 m
b) 3.°C per 100 m
c) 0.6°C per 100 m
d) 1.3°C per 100 m
Explanation
Nil

The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of:

a) 1.8°C per 1,000 ft
b) 2°C per 1,000 ft
c) 3.0°C per 1,000 ft
d) 0.5°C per 1,000 ft
Explanation
This is the DALR

The stability in a layer is increasing if:

a) warm air is in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
b) warm air is in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
c) cold and dry air is advected into the upper part
d) warm and moist air is advected into the lower part
Explanation
If warm air is on top of cold air then we have an inversion. Inversions are stable atmospheres
What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 100 m?
a) 0.6°C
b) 1°C
c) 3.0°C
d) 1.8°C
Explanation
Nil

When warm air is advected into the upper part of a layer so that the layer of air is cold in the
lower part and warm in the upper part, then:
a) stability increases in the layer
b) stability decreases in the layer
c) the atmosphere is conditionally unstable
d) conditionally stable
Explanation
If warm air is on top of cold, then there is a temperature inversion. Inversions are very stable
atmospheres

Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct?
a) Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65°C/100 m
b) Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels
c) Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels
d) Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65°C/100 m
Explanation
The SALR (saturated air) is only 0.6°C/100 m but the DALR (unsaturated air) is 1°C/100 m

Which of the following types of clouds is evidence of unstable air conditions?

a) Cirrus
b) Cumulus
c) Stratus
d) Altostratus
Explanation
Unstable air has tendency to rise vertically, therefore vertical cooling takes place, therefore
vertical condensation and vertical cloud formations

Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?

a) Stratus
b) Cumulus
c) Towering stratus
d) Cumulonimbus
Explanation
Since air is reluctant to rise, the only cloud that can form will be layer or horizontal type cloud
013 Turbulence

A north/south mountain range, height 10,000 ft, is producing marked mountain waves. The
greatest potential danger exists for an aircraft flying:
a) at FL 350 over and parallel to the ridge
b) on the windward side of the ridge
c) towards the ridge from the lee side at FL 140
d) below the line of the first of lenticular clouds parallel to the ridge on the lee side at FL
110
Explanation
The most dangerous place is just downwind on lee side at approximately ridge height because
of the "rotor zone". Flying parallel means you'll always be in that zone!

Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to:
a) change in direction but not in speed
b) change in speed but not in direction
c) experience little or no change in speed and direction
d) change significantly in speed and direction
Explanation
When on a clear and calm night, a radiation inversion is formed near the ground, the friction
does not affect wind above the inversion top. Change in wind can be 90 degrees in direction
and 40 kts in speed. Even a nocturnal low level jet can sometimes be observed

At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be encountered
is:
a) cumulus mediocris
b) altocumulus lenticularis
c) cirrostratus
d) cirrus
Explanation
Nil

CAT should be reported whenever it is experienced. What should be reported if crew and
passengers feel a definite strain against their seat or shoulder straps, food service and walking
is difficult and loose objects become dislodged?
a) Light CAT
b) Extreme CAT
c) Moderate CAT
d) Severe CAT
Explanation
Definite strain, dislodged objects and difficulty walking all have "d" in the word to help you
associate with the "d" in moderate

Clear air turbulence, in association with a jet stream is more severe:

a) to the side of the jet stream facing the warmer air
b) to the side of the jet stream facing the colder air
c) in the centre of the jet core
d) where the wind speed changes very little
Explanation
The cold side has the greatest change of speed and direction as shown by the tightly spaced
isotachs (lines of equal speed)
Fallstreaks or virga are:
a) water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporates before reaching the ground
b) gusts associated with a well developed Bora
c) strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
d) strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation
Explanation
In meteorology, virga is precipitation that falls from a cloud but evaporates before reaching the
ground

For standing waves to form, the wind direction must be near perpendicular to a ridge or range of
mountains and the speed of the wind must:
a) decrease with height within a stable layer above the hill
b) increase with height within a stable layer above the hill
c) decrease with height within an unstable layer above the hill
d) increase with height within an unstable layer above the hill
Explanation
Nil

For the formation of mountain waves, the wind above the level of the ridge should:
a) Increase initially then decrease
b) Increase and then reverse in direction
c) Decrease or even reverse direction
d) Increase with little change in direction
Explanation
Nil

How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?

a) Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes
in altitude or attitude
b) Large abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of
control momentarily
c) Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage
d) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all
times
Explanation
This is just something you'll have to learn

In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected?

a) The cold air side of the core
b) About 12,000 ft above the core
c) The warm air side of the core
d) Exactly in the centre of the core
Explanation
The CAT is always on the side of the core, which is downwind to the right in the southern
hemisphere or downwind to left in the northern hemisphere
Maximum turbulence associated with standing waves is likely to be:
a) down the lee side of the ridge and along the surface
b) just below the tropopause above the ridge
c) two wavelengths downwind and just above the surface
d) approximately one wavelength downwind of, and approximately level with, the top of the
ridge
Explanation
Because this is the location of the rotor zone

On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced:

a) during the early afternoon
b) immediately after sunset
c) during early morning hours before sunrise
d) about midmorning
Explanation
This is because the greatest temperature is reached at about 1500 and therefore the greatest
amount of potential convection will occur

The degree of clear air turbulence experienced by an aircraft is proportional to the:

a) intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
b) intensity of the solar radiation
c) stability of the air
d) height of the aircraft
Explanation
Nil

The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered:

a) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains
b) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kts and near valleys
c) when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
d) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kts
Explanation
Inversions always promote vertical windshear and thunderstorms create violent down draughts
called microbursts which are the single greatest danger to aircraft close to the ground!

The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the:

a) development of thermal lows
b) presence of valley winds
c) presence of mountain waves
d) risk of orographic thunderstorms
Explanation
Nil

The significance of lenticular cloud is:

a) smooth flying conditions
b) there may be mountain waves present and there will be severe turbulence
c) there are mountain waves present but they may not give severe turbulence
d) a katabatic wind is present which may lead to fog in the valleys
Explanation
Lenticular cloud shows mountain waves but they are only an indication there may be severe
turbulence
Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be experienced?
a) A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
b) A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
c) A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms at high altitudes
d) A curved jet stream near a deep upper air trough
Explanation
Curved jet streams are always more sever since the very fact that they curve increases the
change in speed and/or direction and therefore increases the potential windshear

Vertical wind shear is:

a) vertical variation in the horizontal wind
b) vertical variation in the vertical wind
c) horizontal variation in the vertical wind
d) horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
Explanation
Nil

What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through a cold front in
the summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
a) Light turbulence in stratus cloud
b) Light turbulence in cumulonimbus cloud
c) Severe turbulence in cumulonimbus cloud
d) Moderate turbulence in stratus cloud
Explanation
Cold fronts almost always have cumulonimbus clouds. Cumulonimbus clouds always have
moderate severe turbulence and icing and hail!

What happens to the amount of friction, and the level of the friction layer, during the day?
a) There is an increase to both
b) There is a decrease to both
c) There is an increase and decrease, respectively
d) There is a decrease and increase, respectively
Explanation
Nil

What is horizontal wind shear?

a) Change of speed and/or direction with height
b) Change of speed and/or direction in a horizontal plane
c) Change of direction in the horizontal
d) Horizontal change of speed and/or direction vertically
Explanation
Nil
What is the effect of a strong low level inversion?
a) It promotes extensive vertical movement of air
b) It results in good visual conditions
c) It promotes vertical windshear
d) It prevents vertical windshear
Explanation
The large change in temperature causes a large change in the wind, so the wind maybe varying
significantly above and below the inversion

What is vertical wind shear?

a) Change of direction in the horizontal
b) Change of speed with height
c) Change of speed and/or direction in a horizontal plane
d) Horizontal change of speed and/or direction with height
Explanation
Nil

What units are used to report vertical wind shear?

a) kts
b) kts per 100 ft
c) m per sec
d) m per 100 ft
Explanation
Nil

Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO description?

"There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in
positive control at all times Usually, small variations in air speed Changes in accelerometer
readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's centre of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat
belts. Loose objects move about. Food service and walking is difficult."
a) Light
b) Severe
c) Moderate
d) Violent
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following conditions are most favorable to the formation of mountain waves?
a) Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge
b) Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing
parallel to the mountain ridge
c) Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge
d) Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge
Explanation
Nil
Which of the following statements referring to jet streams is correct?
a) The maximum wind speed in a jet stream increases with increase of height up to the
tropopause and remains constant thereafter
b) The core of a jet stream is usually located just below the tropopause in the colder air
mass
c) The rate of change of wind speed at any given level is usually greatest directly
underneath the jet
d) CAT associated with jet streams is probably associated with the rapid wind shear in the
vicinity of the jet
Explanation
Nil

You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a hot summer day, when the weather is
unstable: what is the best time of day to conduct this flight?
a) Afternoon
b) Mid-day
c) Early evening
d) Morning
Explanation
At this time the surface temperatures are lowest and therefore there in minimal thermal
interference and convection. Best time to go. Also the wind speeds are lowest in the morning,
but you'll learn that later on
014-015 Low Level Winds

A Föhn wind occurs on the:

a) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower
on the leeward side than on the windward side
b) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating
c) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air
flow
d) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by
precipitation from cloud
Explanation
A Föhn wind occurs when a deep layer of prevailing wind is forced over a mountain range
(Orographic lifting). As the air moves upslope, it expands and cools, causing water vapor to
precipitate out. This air then passes over the crest and begins to move downslope. As the wind
descends to lower levels on the leeward side of the mountains, the air temperature increases
adiabatically at the DALR as it comes under greater atmospheric pressure creating strong,
gusty, warm and dry winds. The Föhn wind is this warm dry wind. Föhn literally means "air
dryer"

A high pressure area (shallow or weak pressure gradient) covers an area of the Mediterranean
Sea and its nearby airports. What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a sunny
afternoon?
a) Variable
b) Sea to land
c) Parallel to the coastline
d) Land to sea
Explanation
On a sunny afternoon, the land will warm quickly and start to rise. This will drag air from the
surface of the sea. Thus the airflow along the coast is from the sea to the land. This is called a
sea breeze

A katabatic wind can result in:

a) an increase in temperature
b) stratus cloud
c) fog in the valley at night
d) thunderstorms in summer
Explanation
A katabatic wind, from the Greek word katabatikos meaning "going downhill", is a wind that
blows down a topographic incline such as a hill, mountain, or glacier. Typically wind blows
downhill at night as the land cools and the air density increases. This cold denser air slowly
sinks down the valley and collects. As the air cools further dew point is reached and fog forms
A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows:
a) down the slope during the night
b) up the slope during the night
c) up the slope during the day
d) down the slope during the day
Explanation
The cold form of katabatic wind originates in a cooling, either radiatively or through vertical
motion, of air at the top of the mountain, glacier, or hill. Since the density of air increases with
lower temperature, the air will flow downwards. Because it comes FROM the mountain it is
called a mountain breeze as well

A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind on the leeward sides of mountains produced by air
forced up over the windward side is known as a:
a) Harmattan
b) Mistral
c) Föhn
d) Bora
Explanation
A Föhn wind occurs when a deep layer of prevailing wind is forced over a mountain range. As
the wind moves upslope, it expands and cools, causing water vapor to precipitate out. This
dehydrated air then passes over the crest and begins to move down the slope. As the wind
descends to lower levels on the leeward side of the mountains, the air temperature increases
adiabatically as it comes under greater atmospheric pressure creating strong, gusty, warm and
dry winds

A wind that is heading towards the south is referred to as a:

a) northwards
b) northerly wind
c) southerly wind
d) strong wind
Explanation
We always call winds by using the direction where they come from

An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 3000 feet, has to turn to the right in order to
allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of low pressure?
a) In front
b) To the right
c) Behind
d) To the left
Explanation
Draw a plan view image of what is being described. You should have an aeroplane with the
wind going from right to left across the aeroplane. If not, draw it. Now use Buys Ballot’s law in
the southern hemisphere: "with your back to the wind the low should be on the right". So, rotate
the page so that wind arrow is pointing forwards/upwards through you. Now the wind is going
through your back. So now draw a low to the right of the wind arrow and notice that the low is in
front of the aeroplane!
An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going
directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to the aircraft, does the
wind come from?
a) From the left and slightly on the tail
b) From the right and slightly on the tail
c) From the left and slightly on the nose
d) From the right and slightly on the nose
Explanation
Near the surface remember that the surface wind blows slightly across the isobar towards the
low

At what time are the surface winds the slowest and smoothest?
a) Just before sunrise
b) Mid afternoon
c) Just after sunrise
d) Midnight
Explanation
The surface winds are always more gentle about 30 minutes after sunrise when surface
temperatures are lowest. This is because there is the least thermal mixing and thermal
interference

At what time are the surface winds the strongest?

a) Mid afternoon
b) Just before sunrise
c) Just after sunrise
d) Midnight
Explanation
Because the land is warmest at this time, there will maximum thermal mixing and therefore the
usually slow surface wind will be mixed with faster winds higher up

Closely spaced isobars on a surface pressure chart indicate a:

a) small pressure gradient and strong winds
b) small pressure gradient and light winds
c) large pressure gradient and light winds
d) large pressure gradient and strong winds
Explanation
Nil

In the Northern Hemisphere, during a descent from 2,000 ft above the surface to the surface (no
frontal passage) the wind normally:
a) backs and increases
b) backs and decreases
c) veers and increases
d) veers and decreases
Explanation
You are going from the geostrophic wind (2,000ft) to the surface wind
During the day the surface wind in Western Australia is 270/30. After dusk the wind is most
likely to be:
a) 265/35
b) 280/25
c) 230/40
d) 260/25
Explanation
At night in the southern hemisphere the surface wind veers (direction numbers increase) and
slows

For a constant distance between the isobars the geostrophic wind will be greatest at a latitude
of:
a) 60°
b) 35°
c) 20°
d) 45°
Explanation
As latitude decreases (for a constant PGF) the velocity increases

For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be:
a) greater at 60°N
b) the same at all latitudes north or south of 15°
c) equivalent to gradient wind
d) greater at 30°N
Explanation
As latitude decreases, for any given PGF, the velocity increases

For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the geostrophic wind will
be:
a) the same at all latitudes
b) greatest at 60°
c) greatest at 40°
d) least at 50°
Explanation
For a constant PGF, a decrease in latitude will increase the velocity

In the northern hemisphere, friction between the air and the ground results in:
a) backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
b) veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
c) backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface
d) veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface
Explanation
The friction slows the wind down; this reduction is speed reduces coriolis force making the wind
direction more towards the PGF. In the northern hemisphere this change of direction is
anticlockwise, i.e. backing
From just after sunrise to about mid-afternoon, what happens to the surface wind speed and
direction in the Northern Hemisphere?
a) Backs and increases
b) Veers and decreases
c) Veers and increases
d) Backs and decreases
Explanation
Put your right hand down on the desk in front of you with your knuckles facing you. Curl in the
little finger and the one next to it. Your thumb is the surface wind first thing in the morning and
the next finger is the surface wind mid afternoon. So were going from the thumb to the next
finger. That’s a veer, and the finger is longer so the speed is greater. See image below

Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are:

a) curved lines and friction is involved
b) curved lines and no friction is involved
c) straight lines and no friction is involved
d) straight lines and friction is involved
Explanation
Nil

How many forces are assumed in the Geostrophic Wind Model?

a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 3
Explanation
The Pressure Gradient Force (PGF) and the Coriolis Force (CF)

If in the southern hemisphere an aircraft in flight above 3000 ft is experiencing starboard drift,
the aircraft is flying towards:
a) an area of high pressure
b) a warm front
c) an area of low pressure
d) a depression
Explanation
Draw a picture of an aeroplane from above going from right to left on your page. If the aeroplane
has starboard drift then the wind is coming across the aeroplane from right to left. So draw this
wind on the aeroplane and you'll see the wind is going from the top of the page to the bottom.
Now, turn the paper round so that the wind is hitting your back (the aeroplane is going from left
to right now). In the southern hemisphere, with your back to the wind the low is on the right and
the high on the left, so draw this either side of the wind arrow
If Paris reports a surface wind of 080/10, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a
height of 2,000 ft above the ground?
a) 080/05
b) 050/20
c) 080/15
d) 110/20
Explanation
In the northern hemisphere over the land the geostrophic wind (2,000 ft wind) is veered
(direction numbers increase) from the surface wind by 30° and the speed is approximately
double that of the surface

If Paris reports a surface wind of 160/20, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a
height of 2,000 feet above the ground?
a) 160/30
b) 140/20
c) 170/15
d) 190/40
Explanation
In the northern hemisphere over the land the geostrophic wind (2,000 ft wind) is veered
(direction numbers increase) from the surface wind by 30° and the speed is approximately
double that of the surface

If Paris reports a surface wind of 190/15, what wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a
height of about 2,000 ft above the ground?
a) 160/20
b) 250/25
c) 220/10
d) 220/30
Explanation
In the northern hemisphere over the land the geostrophic wind (2,000 ft wind) is veered
(direction numbers increase) from the surface wind by 30° and the speed is approximately
double that of the surface

If the surface wind over Cape Town is 180/10, what might the geostrophic wind be?
a) 170/14
b) 190/14
c) 150/20
d) 210/20
Explanation
In the southern hemisphere over land, the geostrophic wind (3,000 ft wind) is backed (direction
numbers decrease) by 30° and the speed is about double that of the surface

If the wind direction has changed from 090°T to 140°T, the wind change would be described as
having:
a) backed
b) veered
c) cyclonic
d) gusted
Explanation
Veering is when the wind changes in a clockwise manner.
If the wind direction has changed from 270°M to 225°M, the wind change would be described as
having:
a) cyclonic
b) backed
c) veered
d) turned right
Explanation
Backing is when the wind changes in an anti-clockwise manner

In a land and sea breeze circulation, the land breeze blows:

a) during the night and is stronger than the sea breeze
b) during the day and is weaker than the sea breeze
c) during the night and is weaker than the sea breeze
d) during the day and is stronger than the sea breeze
Explanation
Wind is always named using the direction it is coming from, so a land breeze comes from the
land. This only happens at night when the sea is warmer than the land. The warm air over the
sea rises and drags surface air from the land

In an anticyclone over the sea the geostrophic wind at 3,000 ft in the northern hemisphere is
090/10. The wind at the surface is likely to be?
a) 120/07
b) 120/05
c) 100/07
d) 080/07
Explanation
In the northern hemisphere over the sea the surface wind is backed (the wind direction numbers
get smaller, anti-clockwise change) by 10° and the speed is about 70% of the 3000 ft wind

In the northern hemisphere a geostrophic wind was found to be blowing directly from the north.
Where is the probable position of the low pressure?
a) Towards the north
b) Towards the west
c) Towards the east
d) Towards the south
Explanation
In the northern hemisphere Buys Ballot law states that with you back to the wind, the low
pressure is to your left. So if the wind is from the north, you must face south (your back will be to
the wind), the low will be to the left of you, i.e. the east

In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1,000ft AGL directly towards the centre of a low
pressure area, will find the wind blowing from:
a) left and behind
b) about 45 degrees to the right of directly ahead
c) right and behind
d) directly ahead
Explanation
Remember that the surface winds (within the friction layer) blow slightly across the isobars
towards the low
In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution (low pressure
system) is 350/24, over the sea the surface wind would approximate:
a) 030/20
b) 030/28
c) 340/28
d) 340/20
Explanation
Remember that in the Northern Hemisphere the sea surface wind is backed (wind direction
numbers decrease) by 10° and the speed is "about" 70% of the gradient or geostrophic wind

In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows:

a) clockwise around, and away from the centre of a low pressure area
b) from a low pressure area to a high pressure area
c) anti-clockwise around, and toward the centre of a low pressure area
d) anti-clockwise around, and away from the centre of a high pressure area
Explanation
Nil

In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2,000
ft over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is most likely to be:
a) 060/12
b) 050/12
c) 070/12
d) 060/18
Explanation
In the northern hemisphere over the sea, the surface wind is backed (wind direction numbers
decrease) by 10° and the speed is "about" 70% of the geostrophic

Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high and low
pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart.
a) Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars
b) When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary
lenticular clouds
c) When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind
velocities are stronger
d) Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature
Explanation
Nil

The Chinook is a:
a) warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky
Mountains
b) warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers
c) downslope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopes
d) very cold wind with blowing snow
Explanation
Chinook winds are a variety of Föhn wind observed in the interior West of North America, where
the Canadian Prairies and Great Plains end and the mountains begin
The Coriolis Force acts perpendicular to the wind direction. In the northern hemisphere it acts
to the:
a) left
b) parallel to the isobars
c) right
d) perpendicular to the pressure gradient
Explanation
Nil

The Coriolis Force is an apparent force caused by:

a) the pressure gradient
b) the rotation of the Earth
c) the deflection of the surface wind
d) a moving object
Explanation
The Coriolis Effect is caused by the rotation of the Earth. In general, the effect deflects objects
moving along the surface of the Earth to the right of the direction of travel in the Northern
hemisphere and to the left of the direction of travel in the Southern hemisphere. As a
consequence, winds around the center of a cyclone rotate counterclockwise on the northern
hemisphere and clockwise on the southern hemisphere

The deflection of the surface wind direction from the geostrophic is, on average:
a) 35° over the land by night
b) 30° over the sea
c) 10° over the sea
d) 35°over the land by day
Explanation
10° over the sea and 30° over the land

The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by:
a) slope of pressure surfaces
b) friction
c) horizontal temperature gradients
d) curvature of isobars
Explanation
The curved nature of the pressure change means that winds will no longer blow straight. The
geostrophic wind model is for the straight isobars and straight winds, the gradient wind model is
for curved isobars and "curved winds"

The Föhn wind is a:

a) cold descending wind
b) cold anabatic wind
c) warm descending wind
d) warm anabatic wind
Explanation
The Föhn wind is the wind that blows down the leeward slope of hills and mountains after it has
passed up the windward side. This descending wind warms and dries. In fact “Föhn” literally
means "air dryer" and is even used to describe a "hair dryer"!
The geostrophic wind blows:
a) when pressure values are changing rapidly
b) in a tropical revolving storm
c) parallel to curved isobars
d) when Coriolis Force and pressure gradient force are equal
Explanation
Nil

The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure system because
the:
a) coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force
b) centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
c) coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient
d) centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
Explanation
For you to appreciate this you'll need to look at the picture of the gradient wind in your notes

The geostrophic wind over Paris is said to be 210/10. What might the surface wind be?
a) 200/07
b) 240/20
c) 220/07
d) 180/05
Explanation
Over land the direction of the surface wind is backed (when winds back, the direction number
gets smaller like the values on your watch) by 30° from the geostrophic and it's is 50% slower

The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the:

a) horizontal pressure gradient
b) density of the air
c) sine of latitude
d) curvature of isobars
Explanation
The greater the pressure gradient the greater the wind speed

The Geostrophic wind:

a) veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere
b) is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
c) always increases with increasing height
d) is directly proportional to the density of the air
Explanation
Nil

The pressure gradient force is said to act:

a) from a low pressure area to a high pressure area
b) perpendicular between high and low pressure
c) towards a high pressure zone
d) from high pressure to low pressure
Explanation
The pressure gradient force is the force that is usually responsible for accelerating a parcel of
air from a high atmospheric pressure region to a low pressure region, resulting in wind
The sea breeze is a wind from the sea:
a) occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime
b) blowing at night in mid-latitudes
c) that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
d) occurring only in mid-latitudes and in daytime
Explanation
Winds are named using the direction from where they originate. So a sea breeze comes from
the sea. This happens during the day when the land warms up faster than the sea. This warm
air over the land rises and draws surface air in from the sea

The spacing of isobars on a surface pressure chart gives an indication of the:

a) geostrophic force
b) strength of the coriolis force
c) strength of the pressure gradient
d) direction of the wind
Explanation
Just like the spacing between contour lines on a map show the steepness of a slope, the
spacing of isobars show us the pressure slope or pressure gradient

The surface wind direction in the northern hemisphere is backed from the 3,000 ft wind by an
average of 30° because:
a) Friction reduces the wind speed, thus reducing the Coriolis Force, allowing the pressure
gradient force to pull the wind across the isobars towards low pressure
b) The frictional effect at the surface, causing the surface isobars to curve more than those
at 2,000 ft
c) The effect of the centrifugal force, which is strongest at the surface due to increased
curvature
d) The geostrophic wind only flowing between straight and parallel isobars with an
unchanging pressure gradient with time, whereas the surface pressure gradient changes
diurnally with surface heating
Explanation
Nil

The surface wind pattern oscillates about which two time periods?
a) Midnight and midday
b) 0600 and 1500 LMT
c) 0600 and 1200 UTC
d) Sunrise and sunset
Explanation
The wind is slowest at approximately 0600 LMT and fastest at about 1500 LMT

The term "veering" is used to in meteorology to describe a wind direction change that is:
a) anti-clockwise
b) clockwise
c) to the left
d) backwards
Explanation
When the wind veers the wind direction values increase, e.g. from 270° to 290°
The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an
anemometer. Where is this instrument usually placed?
a) On the roof of the weather station
b) On a mast 8 to10 m above the ground
c) Close to the station about 2 m above the ground
d) 1 m above the runway
Explanation
Nil

The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with straight isobars is
(other conditions being the same):
a) higher if curvature is anticyclonic
b) always lower
c) always higher
d) higher if curvature is cyclonic
Explanation
In a high pressure system (anticyclone) the centrifugal force of the gradient wind adds to the
pressure gradient force increasing the velocity of the air

The wind which blows above the friction level parallel to curved isobars is called the:
a) Geostrophic wind
b) Coriolis wind
c) Gradient wind
d) Antitriptic wind
Explanation
Nil

Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the
gradient wind is:
a) the same as the thermal component
b) less than the geostrophic wind
c) greater than the geostrophic wind
d) proportional only to the Coriolis force
Explanation
Around a high pressure system the centrifugal force of the gradient wind adds to the pressure
gradient force and increases the velocity a bit compared to the geostrophic wind

Refer to Diagram 9
What is the wind speed and direction indicated?
a) 045/55
b) 045/15
c) 225/15
d) 225/25
Explanation
Nil
What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the
isobars?
a) Greater atmospheric pressure at the surface
b) Greater pressure gradient force
c) Greater density of the air at the surface
d) Surface friction
Explanation
The surface friction reduces the wind velocity which in turn decreases Coriolis force. As a result
the coriolis no longer balances the PGF. The PGF is now the stronger of the two forces and it
"pulls" the wind molecules a little more towards the low

What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the weather
map are very close together?
a) Strong and parallel to the isobars
b) Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars
c) Moderate and parallel to the isobars
d) Strong and flowing across the isobars
Explanation
Remember surface winds blow slightly across the isobars toward the low

What instrument is used to measure the velocity of a wind?

a) Anemometer
b) Wind vane
c) Hygrometer
d) Barometer
Explanation
Nil

What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per hour?
a) 55 km/h
b) 60 km/h
c) 35 km/h
d) 45 km/h
Explanation
Knots x 1.85325 = kph

What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?

a) 25 m/sec
b) 15 m/sec
c) 20 m/sec
d) 30 m/sec
Explanation
One knot = 0.51 meters per second

What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?

a) 50 kts
b) 70 kts
c) 55 kts
d) 60 kts
Explanation
Nil
What is the main difference between the gradient and geostrophic winds?
a) Geostrophic winds are always faster than the gradient winds
b) Geostrophic winds have 3 forces but gradient winds only have 2
c) Gradient winds are only found around high pressures
d) One blows parallel to curved isobars and the other to straight isobars
Explanation
Nil

What is the main reason behind why the surface wind varies diurnally?
a) Thermal air currents
b) Pressure changes
c) Friction with the surface
d) The gradient force changes
Explanation
During the day the thermal air currents mix the surface wind with the faster winds above causing
the surface wind to be a bit faster than at night

What is the name of the wind called which blows onto the land from the sea during the day
when there is a slack pressure gradient?
a) A sea breeze
b) A katabatic wind
c) A land breeze
d) An anabatic wind
Explanation
We name winds according to which direction they come from. So if the wind comes from the sea
we call it a sea breeze

What is the name of the wind speed scale shown on some surface pressure charts?
a) The Geostrophic Wind Scale
b) The Pressure Gradient Wind Scale
c) The Surface Wind Scale
d) The Geostrophic Force Scale
Explanation
Nil

What is the relationship between the isobar spacing, wind speed and the pressure system?
a) Low pressures tend to have wider isobar spacing and faster winds
b) High pressures tend to have wide isobar spacing and faster winds
c) Low pressures tend to have close isobar spacing and faster winds
d) High pressures tend to have close isobar spacing and faster winds
Explanation
Nil
What is the relationship between the wind speed and the coriolis force?
a) The coriolis force is proportional to the wind speed
b) The coriolis force is inversely proportional to the wind speed
c) The coriolis force will always be the same as the wind speed
d) They have no relationship
Explanation
If the wind speed reduces, then the coriolis force reduces. If the wind speed increases then the
coriolis force increases

What relationship exists between the wind at 3,000 ft and the surface wind?
a) They are practically the same, except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles
b) The wind at 3,000 ft is parallel to the isobars and the surface wind direction is across the
isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker
c) The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3,000 ft and is usually weaker
d) They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction
Explanation
Nil

What would you expect to happen to the surface wind during the night in the Northern
Hemisphere?
a) Back and increase
b) Veer and decrease
c) Veer and increase
d) Back and decrease
Explanation
Put your right hand down on the desk in front of you with your knuckles facing you. Curl in the
little finger and the one next to it. Your thumb is the surface wind first thing in the morning and
the next finger is the surface wind mid afternoon. So were going from the afternoon to the
morning, so we are moving to the thumb from the first finger. That’s a back, and the thumb is
shorter so the speed is slower

When calm and clear conditions exist, a station on the shore of a large body of water will
experience wind:
a) continually from water to the land
b) continually from land to water
c) from the water in daytime and from the land at night
d) from the land in daytime and from the water at night
Explanation
During the day the land warms up faster than the water and therefore the air rises over the land
drawing in air from the water. This is a sea breeze. The situation reverses at night

Where is the effect of the coriolis force the greatest?

a) Between 15° and the poles
b) Within 15° of the Equator
c) At the poles
d) At the Equator
Explanation
Nil
Which forces are balanced in the geostrophic wind model?
a) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force
b) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force
c) Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force
d) Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force
Explanation
The geostrophic wind model only has two forces, namely the Pressure gradient force and
Coriolis force, and they are in balance

Which of the following is true of a land breeze?

a) It blows from water to land
b) It blows by day
c) It blows only at noon
d) It blows from land to water
Explanation
We always name winds by saying from where they come from. So a land breeze is FROM the
land. This only happens at night as the sea will be warm than the land

Which of the statements below is true about the gradient wind?

a) Gradient winds are faster than geostrophic winds around a low
b) Gradient winds are faster than geostrophic winds around a high
c) Gradient winds are slower than surface winds around a low
d) Gradient winds have only two forces whereas the geostrophic winds have three
Explanation
Nil

Which one of the following local winds is a Föhn wind?

a) Sirocco
b) Harmattan
c) Chinook
d) Bora
Explanation
Chinook winds are a variety of Föhn wind observed in the interior West of North America, where
the Canadian Prairies and Great Plains end and the mountains begin

Why does the wind have a tendency to follow the isobars above the friction level?
a) The coriolis force acts perpendicularly to a line connecting highs and lows
b) The friction between the air and the earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure
gradient
c) The coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient
d) Isobars are lines connecting points of equal wind direction aloft
Explanation
Nil
Wind direction is usually referenced to True North. From whom would you be given a wind
direction that is referenced to Magnetic North?
a) Flight Operations
b) The aircraft commander
c) Air Traffic Control
d) A weather forecaster
Explanation
If it’s spoken, it’s magnetic; if it’s read, it’s true

Wind is caused by:

a) the rotation of the earth
b) friction between the air and the ground
c) the movements of fronts
d) horizontal pressure differences
Explanation
Nil

You are flying at 2500 ft AGL, the wind is 180°, and intend to land at an airport, at sea level
directly below. From approximately which direction would you expect the surface wind (mid-
latitude, northern hemisphere)?
a) South-south east
b) South-south west
c) South
d) South-west
Explanation
Draw your Geostrophic wind arrow straight up (180°) now draw you surface wind arrow up and
slightly pointing left
016-017 Upper Winds

A wind speed of 350 kts within a jet stream core should be world-wide regarded as:
a) not unusual in polar regions
b) a common occurrence
c) possible but a very rare phenomenon
d) not possible
Explanation
The record speed ever is that of the sub tropical jet whose maximum speed has been 407 knots
in SE Asia

An aircraft is flying from south to north, well below the polar front jet stream, at FL 200 in the
southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced?
a) It stays the same
b) It falls
c) It rises
d) It falls and then rises
Explanation
The polar front jet usually goes from west to east. Draw this on a piece of paper. Your aircraft is
going through this wind arrow from south to north. With your back to the wind the cold air is to
the right. Therefore, looking at your picture again the aeroplane is flying into the warmer air
mass

An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, well beneath the core.
How would the air temperature change, in the northern hemisphere, during this portion of the
flight?
a) It increases
b) It remains constant
c) It first increases, then decreases
d) It decreases
Explanation
The polar front jet usually goes from west to east. Draw this on a piece of paper. Your aircraft is
going through this wind arrow from south to north. With your back to the wind the cold air is to
the right. Therefore, looking at your picture again the aeroplane is flying into the warmer air
mass

An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 5,000 ft below its core at right angles.
While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing wind is:
a) a headwind
b) a tailwind
c) from the left
d) from the right
Explanation
The European jets all flow from west to east. Draw this. In the northern hemisphere, with your
back to the wind, the cold air is to your left. So draw cold air to the left of the jet and warm air to
the right. For the temperature to be increasing when the aeroplane crosses the jet the aeroplane
must be traveling south. Draw it. Notice that the aeroplane has a wind from the right
An isohypse (contour):
a) indicates the altitude of a pressure level
b) is the limit between two air masses of different temperature
c) is the longest slope line of a frontal surface
d) indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm
Explanation
Nil

At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet stream found over Europe?
a) FL 200
b) FL 500
c) FL 400
d) FL 300
Explanation
Nil

From summer to winter the movement of the jet streams over the North Atlantic and the speed
change will be:
a) North with a speed increase
b) North with a speed reduction
c) South with a speed increase
d) South with a speed reduction
Explanation
In winter, i.e. December, the sun "moves" into the southern hemisphere, therefore all jet
streams will move south. Because it's winter in the northern hemisphere the jet will be quicker

How do horizontal surface temperature variations affect the upper air horizontal pressure
variations?
a) A cold surface compared to a warm surface will have no effect on the upper air pressure
at any given height
b) A warm surface compared to a cold surface will lower the upper air pressure at any
given height
c) A cold surface compared to a warm surface will lower the upper air pressure at any
given height
d) A cold surface compared to a warm surface will raise the upper air pressure at any given
height
Explanation
Cold air causes the pressure to fall more rapidly with height. Therefore a lower than normal
pressure will be reached in the upper atmosphere compared to warm air

How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts?

a) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour
b) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour
c) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots
d) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots
Explanation
Nil
In general terms, what is the migration pattern and strength of the sub-tropical jet stream during
the winter months in the mid-latitudes in the Southern Hemisphere?
a) Shift towards the north and speed increase
b) Shift towards the north and speed decrease
c) Shift towards the south and speed decrease
d) Shift towards the south and speed increase
Explanation
Winter for the Southern Hemisphere is June. In June the sun moves to the northern
hemisphere, therefore the Jets travel a bit north. But since it is winter for the southern
hemisphere jets, their speed increases

In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a high pressure
area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?
a) Headwind with no drift
b) Wind from the right
c) Wind from the left
d) Tailwind with no drift
Explanation
Use Buys Ballot’s Law. With your back to the wind the low or cold air is to your right

Refer to Diagram 10
Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the
freezing level above Shannon (S) be found?
a) FL 120
b) FL 60
c) FL 100
d) FL 140
Explanation
Nil

On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a jet stream?
a) Wind / temperature chart
b) Significant weather chart
c) Upper air chart
d) Surface chart
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 10
Select from the map the average temperature for the route Athens (A) - Geneva (G) at FL 150
a) -14°C
b) -27°C
c) -11°C
d) -21°C
Explanation
The map is for FL 180 but the question asked the temperature for FL 150! Therefore warm up
your answer by 6°C. Be careful!
Refer to Diagram 10
Select from the map the average temperature for the route Geneva (G) - Stockholm (S) at FL
260
a) -51°C
b) -63°C
c) -55°C
d) -47°C
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 10
Select from the map the average wind for the route Athens (A) - Geneva (G) at FL 180
a) 260/40
b) 050/35
c) 200/50
d) 230/50
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 10
Select from the map the average wind for the route Frankfurt (F) – Rome (R) at FL 180
a) 050/40
b) 030/35
c) 230/35
d) 200/50
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 11
Select from the map the average wind for the route Zurich (Z) - Hamburg (H) at FL 300
a) 360/55
b) 200/55
c) 180/60
d) 360/60
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 21
Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich (Z) - London (L) at FL 280
a) 250/80
b) 040/60
c) 220/60
d) 160/90
Explanation
Nil
Strong wind shear linked with jet streams is likely to be found?
a) Looking downwind, on the side facing the colder of the air masses
b) Above the jet core and also on the warm air side of the jet core
c) After the jet core has been passed
d) Directly below the jet core and also on the tropical air side of the jet core
Explanation
The CAT zone is always found to side of the jet core that faces the cold air. This area has
significant speed change and thus windshear

The Equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs:

a) only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30,000 ft
b) during the whole year in the northern hemisphere
c) during the whole year in the southern hemisphere
d) only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45,000 ft
Explanation
Nil

Typically, a jet stream is:

a) 150 nm long, 500 nm wide and 5000 ft deep
b) 1,000 nm or more long, 200 nm wide and 5000 ft to 10,000 ft deep
c) 1,000 nm or more long, 5,000 ft to 10,000 ft wide and 1,000 ft deep
d) 1,500 nm or more long, 200 nm wide and 2-5 nm deep
Explanation
This produces an approximate ratio of 1 deep, 100 wide and 1,000 long

Refer to Diagram 12
What name is given to the jet stream lying over North Africa (B)?
a) Equatorial jet stream
b) Polar front jet stream
c) Sub-tropical jet stream
d) Arctic jet stream
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 12
What name is given to the jet stream lying over Northern Europe (C)?
a) Sub-tropical jet stream
b) Equatorial jet stream
c) Arctic jet stream
d) Polar front jet stream
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 12
What name is given to the jet stream lying over Southern India (A)?
a) Polar front jet stream
b) Equatorial jet stream
c) Arctic jet stream
d) Sub-tropical jet stream
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 10
Using the upper wind and temperature chart for FL180 shown, what is the average temperature
at FL140 from Athens (A) to Frankfurt (F)?
a) -26°C
b) -32°C
c) -18°C
d) -14°C
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 10
Using the upper wind and temperature chart for FL180 shown, what is the average upper wind
at FL180 from Athens (A) to Frankfurt (F)?
a) 050/45
b) 230/25
c) 230/45
d) 050/35
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 21
Using the upper wind and temperature chart for FL300 shown, what is the average upper wind
at FL300 from London (L) to Oslo (O)?
a) 050/35
b) 045/45
c) 225/45
d) 210/30
Explanation
Nil

What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross section?
a) 1:1
b) 1:100
c) 1:1,000
d) 1:10
Explanation
Nil

What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?

a) 30,000 ft
b) 50,000 ft
c) 20,000 ft
d) 40,000 ft
Explanation
Nil
What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream?
a) 20,000 ft
b) 50,000 ft
c) 30,000 ft
d) 40,000 ft
Explanation
Nil

What is the effect that cold and warm air have on the isobaric surfaces or pressure levels?
a) Cold air expands them and warm air compacts them
b) Cold air compacts them and warm air lowers them
c) Cold air compacts them and warm air expands them
d) Cold air raises them and warm air lowers them
Explanation
Cold air makes pressure falls more rapidly with height. Therefore the pressure levels are closer
together

What is the general upper wind direction inside the equatorial latitudes especially in summer?
a) Northerly
b) Southerly
c) Easterly
d) Westerly
Explanation
Because of the movement of the heat equator or ITCZ, easterlies will always be found between
the ITCZ and the real Equator

What is the general upper wind direction outside of the equatorial latitudes?
a) Southerly
b) Easterly
c) Westerly
d) Northerly
Explanation
The cold air over the poles causes low pressure above the poles. This draws air towards the
poles which is either turned right by coriolis on the northern hemisphere or left by coriolis in the
southern hemisphere. Draw it and you'll see

What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
a) The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front
b) The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front region
c) The pressure difference close to the ground between a high over the Azores and a low
over Iceland
d) Strong winds in the upper atmosphere
Explanation
It's the temperature change in the lower atmosphere that leads to the pressure change in the
upper atmosphere that causes the jets. In this case the temperature change is the boundary
between the polar maritime and tropical maritime air
Refer to Diagram 10
What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the Frankfurt (F) - Rome (R) route at
FL160?
a) 4°C colder than ISA
b) 4°C warmer than ISA
c) 12°C colder than ISA
d) 12°C warmer than ISA
Explanation
Nil

What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all the other jet
streams?
a) Wind direction
b) Horizontal dimension
c) Vertical dimension
d) Wind speed
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 10
What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius, from the International Standard
Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt (F) at FL 180?
a) ISA +4°C
b) ISA +12°C
c) ISA -4°C
d) ISA -12°C
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 10
What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva (G)?
a) -40°C
b) -38°C
c) -34°C
d) 36°C
Explanation
Nil

What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart?
a) Positions with the same air density
b) Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure
c) Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels
d) Positions with the same wind velocity
Explanation
Nil
When associated with a typical mid-latitude frontal depression, a jet stream core in cross section
would be located:
a) In the warm air, just below the tropopause
b) On the frontal surface
c) In the warm air, just above the warm air tropopause
d) In the cold air, just above the polar tropopause
Explanation
Jet streams are always located in the top corner of the warm air just adjacent to the cold air and
always below the tropopause

Where are the strongest winds associated with the subtropical jet stream found?
a) Below the tropopause at the 200 hPa level
b) Below the tropopause at the 300 hPa level
c) Above the tropopause at the 200 hPa level
d) Above the tropopause at the 300 hPa level
Explanation
The sub-tropical jet is located at 40,000 ft (200 hPa) and remember that the jet stream itself is
always just under the tropopause in the top corner of the warm air just next to the cold air

Where is the C.A.T. found in most jet streams?

a) Where the isotachs are furthest apart
b) Directly below the jet stream where the isotachs are the closest together
c) On top of the jet stream
d) Around the jet stream facing or abutting the cold air where the isotachs are very close
together
Explanation
CAT is always located to side of the core facing the cold air; this is where there is the greatest
change of speed and/or direction. It is this change that causes the windshear and turbulence.
Isotachs are lines joining places of equal speed, so where they are close together there is rapid
changes in speed

Where is the polar front jet stream typically found?

a) Between the Hadley and Farrel cells at approximately 40,000 ft
b) Between the Hadley and Farrel cells at approximately 40,000 ft
c) Between the Farrel and Polar cells at approximately 30,000 ft
d) Below 20° latitude
Explanation
The temperature difference between the warm Farrel Cell and colder polar fuel is what created
the up air pressure variation that causes the jet stream. The surface feature between the cells is
the Polar Front

Where is the sub-tropical jet stream typically found?

a) Between the latitudes of 20° and 45° at 30,000 ft
b) Between the Farrel and Polar Cells at approximately 30,000 ft
c) Between the Hadley and Farrel Cells at approximately 40,000 ft
d) Below 20° latitude
Explanation
The temperature difference between the warmer Hadley cell and colder Farrel cell is what
causes the upper air pressure variation that generates this jet stream. The surface features
between these two cells are the Sub tropical highs
Where will the strongest upper wind be found?
a) In Southern Asia in summer within the equatorial easterly jet
b) In Southern Asia in January within the sub tropical jet
c) Within 20° of the Equator
d) Over Europe in winter
Explanation
The very cold Asia/Siberian land mass creates a very large temperature difference with the
Indian Ocean. This cause very large upper air pressure variations that make the sub tropical jet
in this area very fast. Maximum speeds recorded at 407 knots!

Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found?

a) In the stratosphere
b) At about 5,500 m altitude
c) Close to the ground
d) Just below the tropopause
Explanation
Maximum speeds are almost always just beneath the tropopause

Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere?
a) The arctic jet stream
b) The subtropical jet stream
c) The polar night jet stream
d) The equatorial jet stream
Explanation
Nil

Which jet stream is most commonly connected with a surface front system?
a) The polar front jet stream
b) The arctic jet stream
c) The equatorial jet stream
d) The subtropical jet stream
Explanation
Nil

Which jet stream is usually the most persistent and the most common jet stream found across
the Earth?
a) Polar front jet stream
b) The equatorial easterly jet stream
c) The arctic front jet stream
d) Subtropical jet stream
Explanation
This jet stream is usually found in a continuous ribbon across the earth all year round and in
both hemispheres

Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?

a) In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
b) In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
c) In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur
d) In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
Explanation
Nil
Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
a) Equatorial jet stream / polar front jet stream
b) Equatorial jet stream / arctic jet stream
c) Subtropical jet stream / polar front jet stream
d) Arctic jet stream / subtropical jet stream
Explanation
Nil

While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3,000 ft below its core) and air
temperature is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
a) A tailwind
b) Crosswind from the right
c) Crosswind from the left
d) A headwind
Explanation
Draw a wind arrow going across your page. In the northern hemisphere, with your back to the
wind, the cold is to your left and the warm to the right of the wind arrow. Now draw an aircraft
crossing the jet going to the cold air

Whilst flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right drift. What effect,
if any, will this have on the aircraft’s true altitude?
a) Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered
b) It increases
c) It remains constant
d) It decreases
Explanation
Draw an aeroplane from above (plan view) with a wind coming across it from the left to the right.
Now using Buys Ballot’s Law, with your back to the wind the cold/low air is to your left. The
aeroplane is flying onto cold air, and cold air decreases your true altitude

Whilst on a flight at FL150 in the Northern Hemisphere you notice significant port drift. What
might be happening to your outside temperature?
a) Decreasing
b) Impossible to determine
c) Increasing
d) Staying the same
Explanation
Draw this picture. Draw an aeroplane from above going from left to right. If it has port drift it
means that the wind across the aeroplane is from right to left, so draw a wind arrow across the
aeroplane from right to left. Now turn the page so that the wind is going through your back to the
front. With your back to the wind the cold air is on the left and warm air on the right
Whilst on a flight at FL210 in the Southern Hemisphere you notice a significant right crosswind.
What might be happening to your outside temperature?
a) Staying the same
b) Impossible to determine
c) Decreasing
d) Increasing
Explanation
Draw this picture. Draw an aeroplane from above going from left to right. Draw a wind arrow
across the aeroplane from right to left. With your back to the wind the cold air is on the right and
warm air on the left. Can you see your aeroplane is heading to the cold air?

With all other factors remaining constant, what is the relationship between altitude and upper
wind speed?
a) Speed increases with altitude
b) There is no relationship
c) Speed decreases with altitude
d) The relationship depends too much on the other variables
Explanation
From the formula for the velocity of a wind, as density falls, speed increases. So because
density falls with altitude, velocity increases with altitude

With all other things equal, the upper wind normally increases with height because:
a) The pressure slope reduces
b) The geostrophic force increases
c) The density decreases
d) The density increases
Explanation
You can see this if you look at the formula for the velocity of the wind
022-024 Clouds and Precipitation

A cumulonimbus cloud at moderate latitudes in summer contains:

a) only ice crystals
b) a combination of ice crystals and water droplets
c) a combination of ice crystals, water droplets and super cooled water droplets
d) only water droplets
Explanation
Nil

A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1,600 ft) above sea level is
covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the
ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
a) 1,500 – 7,000 ft above the terrain
b) 15,000 – 25,000 ft above the terrain
c) 7,000 – 15,000 ft above the terrain
d) 100 – 1,500 ft above the terrain
Explanation
Nil

A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1,600 ft) above sea level is covered
with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what height above the ground is
the base of this cloud to be expected?
a) 1,500 – 7,000 ft above ground
b) 7,000 – 15,000 ft above ground
c) 15,000 – 25,000 ft above ground
d) 100 – 1,500 ft above ground
Explanation
Nil

Altostratus clouds are classified as:

a) convective clouds
b) medium level clouds
c) low level clouds
d) high level clouds
Explanation
Nil

Cloud coverage is reported in oktas. If the sky was covered in 4 oktas of cloud, how much
cloud is present?
a) None
b) Two eighths
c) Half the sky is covered
d) The whole sky is covered
Explanation
4 oktas means four eights of cloud. So there are 4 parts of cloud coverage in a total of eight
parts
Clouds are formed when moist air is cooled to saturation point and condensation takes place.
Which of the options is a method of cooling that can lead to the formation of cloud?
a) Air travelling to warmer location
b) Sinking
c) Air travelling to cooler location
d) Subsidence
Explanation
Nil

Clouds can be formed when air rises and cools. What is this process of cooling called?
a) Katabatic cooling
b) Anabatic cooling
c) Adiabatic cooling
d) Condensation
Explanation
Nil

Clouds formed by convection will generally:

a) give overcast grey skies
b) be CU, CB or NS
c) be layer clouds
d) have a rising cloud base and may develop into CB as the day progresses
Explanation
As surface temperature increases during the day, convective cloud bases increase

Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:

a) temperature and dew point are nearly equal
b) water vapour is present
c) relative humidity reaches 98%
d) water vapour condenses
Explanation
Condensation is the visible production of water vapour

Continuous type precipitation is expected from layer clouds because:

a) the vertical extent of the cloud is small
b) the cloud is large in horizontal extent
c) the air is stable
d) the upcurrents are not very strong
Explanation
A wide cloud means it will precipitate for longer

Convective clouds are formed:

a) in summer during the day only
b) in mid-latitudes only
c) in an unstable atmosphere
d) in a stable atmosphere
Explanation
Nil
From what type of cloud does drizzle more commonly fall from?
a) Cirrostratus
b) Stratus
c) Altostratus
d) Cumulus
Explanation
Nil

If stable moist air was to flow over a mountain range, what kind of cloud might you expect to
see?
a) Cap clouds and possible lenticular clouds
b) Cumulonimbus clouds
c) Cloud on the leeward slopes
d) Thunderstorm clouds
Explanation
Nil

If the surface temperature and dew point are close together, what can be inferred about the
cloud?
a) No cloud will be present
b) There is no relationship between temperature and dew point and the cloud
c) Low cloud base
d) High cloud base
Explanation
Temp and dew point closer together will cause a lower cloud base

If there are small cumulus clouds in the morning in summer, it is reasonable to forecast later in
the day:
a) clear skies
b) haze
c) CB cloud
d) ST cloud and drizzle
Explanation
Nil

In aerodrome reports and forecasts, the height of the cloud base refers to the:
a) height above mean sea level
b) height above the average ground level for the area
c) height above aerodrome elevation
d) pressure altitude of the cloud base
Explanation
Nil

In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these clouds depends
on the:
a) thickness of the unstable layer
b) air pressure at the surface
c) pressure at different levels
d) wind direction
Explanation
Nil
In temperate latitudes which statement is correct?
a) Cirrus only occurs above 30,000 ft
b) Cirrus only occurs above 25,000 ft
c) Cirrus only occurs above 16,500 ft
d) Cirrus only occurs above 15,000 ft
Explanation
Nil

Intensity of precipitation is described as either:

a) intermittent, continuous or showery
b) intermittent, moderate or heavy
c) light, moderate or heavy
d) drizzle, rain or snow
Explanation
Nil

Low cloud in temperate climates, excluding heap type clouds, are those existing from:
a) 2000 ft to 6500 ft
b) the surface to 6,500 ft
c) the surface to 7,500 m
d) the surface to 16,500 ft
Explanation
This is very popular question type. You MUST remember the cloud height classifications agl.
Low Cloud - surface to 6,500 ft. Medium cloud (alto) - 6,500 ft to 23,000 ft. High cloud (cirro) -
16,500 ft to 45,000 ft

Lumpy or heaped white cloud is:

a) nimbostratus
b) cumulonimbus
c) cumulus
d) altocirrus
Explanation
Nil

Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from:

a) stratified clouds
b) convective clouds
c) clouds containing only ice crystals
d) cirro-type clouds
Explanation
Nil

Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation, falls from:

a) stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
b) convective clouds with moderate turbulence
c) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
d) convective clouds with little or no turbulence
Explanation
Nil
Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of:
a) the presence of warm air aloft
b) instability in the atmosphere
c) the presence of a low level inversion
d) poor surface visibility
Explanation
Nil

The expected average height ranges for low, medium and high layer clouds in temperate
latitudes are:
a) Low: surface - 10,000 ft; Medium: 10,000 ft - 20,000 ft; High: 20,000 ft - 45,000 ft
b) Low: surface - 8,000 ft; Medium: 6,500 ft - 16,500 ft; High: 16,500 ft - 45,000 ft
c) Low: surface - 6,500 ft; Medium: 6,500 ft - 23,000 ft; High: 16,500 ft - 45,000 ft
d) Low: surface - 6,500 ft; Medium: 6,500 ft - 23,000 ft; High: 23,000 ft - 45,000 ft
Explanation
You must learn this, it's popular with JAA

The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the list containing
the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
a) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe
b) Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe
c) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range between light
and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate
d) Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate
Explanation
Nil

The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country flight is:
a) cumulonimbus
b) cumulus
c) stratocumulus
d) cirrus
Explanation
Nil

The presence of altocumulus castellanus may commonly indicate:

a) instability in the middle troposphere
b) stability in the higher troposphere
c) strong convection at low height
d) subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
Explanation
Nil

The size of raindrops that fall from a cloud are greater if the:
a) air is unstable and the cloud is heap type
b) relative humidity is high
c) air is stable and the cloud is layer type
d) cloud type is AC or NS
Explanation
Nil
The term "shower" implies that:
a) precipitation is in the form of rain and is continuous
b) precipitation is intermittent and is from stratiform cloud
c) precipitation is continuous for long periods from cumuliform cloud
d) precipitation is from cumulonimbus cloud and lasts for short periods
Explanation
Nil

The turbulence associated with cumulus cloud is:

a) nil
b) slight to nil
c) moderate
d) moderate to severe
Explanation
Nil

The type of cloud from which continuous moderate or heavy rain is likely to fall is:
a) large CU
b) CB
c) AS
d) NS
Explanation
Nil

Typical base heights, in temperate latitudes, of altocumulus cloud are in the range of:
a) 1,000 ft to 6,500 ft
b) 5,000 ft to 15,000 ft
c) 8,500 ft to 18,000 ft
d) 6,500 ft to 23,000 ft
Explanation
Nil

What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?

a) Average horizontal visibility more than 1,000 m; light to moderate rime ice
b) Average horizontal visibility more than 1,000 m; nil icing
c) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; nil icing
d) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; light to moderate icing
Explanation
Nil

What is the height range of medium level cloud?

a) 6,500 ft to 23,000 ft
b) 6,500 ft to 16,500 ft
c) Surface to 6,400 ft
d) 16,500 ft to 23,000 ft
Explanation
This is very popular question type. You MUST remember the cloud height classifications agl.
Low Cloud - surface to 6,500 ft. Medium cloud (alto) - 6,500 ft to 23,000 ft. High cloud (cirro) -
16,500 ft to 45,000 ft
What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"?
a) Ice crystals
b) Water vapour
c) Supercooled water droplets
d) Water droplets
Explanation
Nil

What kind of cloud might be created by unstable moist air flowing over a mountain range?
a) Cumulonimbus cloud
b) Lenticular cloud
c) Cap cloud
d) Stratus cloud
Explanation
Nil

What process in an air mass leads to the creation of widespread NS and AS cloud coverage?
a) Widespread lifting
b) Sinking
c) Radiation
d) Convection
Explanation
Widespread lifting will create lots of stratiform type cloud, for example at a warm front

What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

a) NS
b) AC
c) CB
d) CS
Explanation
Nil

What type of cloud is being described?

"A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give
drizzle or snow grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly
discernible. Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches."
a) Altostratus
b) Stratus
c) Cirrostratus
d) Nimbostratus
Explanation
Nil

What type of clouds are associated with snow showers?

a) Cumulonimbus
b) Nimbostratus
c) Cumulus and altostratus
d) Altostratus and stratus
Explanation
Nil
What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front?
a) Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS begins
b) At some 500 km ahead of the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS
c) At some 800 km ahead of the front, CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front
d) At some 500 km ahead of the front, AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front
CBs
Explanation
Nil

Which cloud is only found at high level?

a) Altostratus
b) Altocumulus
c) Cirrus
d) Lenticular
Explanation
Nil

Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence?

a) Cirrocumulus
b) Stratocumulus
c) Nimbostratus
d) Altocumulus lenticularis
Explanation
Nil

Which cloud type listed below would present the most danger to a pilot?
a) Cirroform
b) Cumuliform
c) Layered cloud
d) Stratiform
Explanation
Nil

Which of the clouds listed below is considered as only low cloud?

a) Nimbostratus
b) Stratus
c) Altostratus
d) Cumulus
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following are medium level clouds?

a) All convective clouds
b) Cumulonimbus
c) Altostratus and altocumulus
d) Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
Explanation
Alto means "high" in Latin Confusingly, it is used to prefix all medium level cloud
Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud?
a) ST
b) AS
c) CC
d) CS
Explanation
Stratus is the most common low level cloud in the temperate latitudes

Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
a) Cirrostratus
b) Cumulonimbus
c) Altocumulus
d) Altostratus
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud?

a) ST
b) SC
c) AS
d) CS
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation?

a) CI
b) NS
c) CB
d) AS
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following clouds is never a hazard to aviation?

a) Noctilucent cloud
b) Nimbostratus
c) Stratus cloud
d) Cumulonimbus cloud
Explanation
They are the highest clouds in the Earth's atmosphere, located in the mesosphere at altitudes of
around 85 km, and are visible only when illuminated by sunlight from below the horizon while
the ground and lower layers of the atmosphere are in the Earth's shadow

Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
a) Stratus
b) Nimbostratus
c) Cirrus
d) Altocumulus
Explanation
Nil
Which of the following will cause stratus to form over flat land?
a) Unstable air
b) Convection during the day
c) The release of latent heat
d) Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking action of a
runway?
a) HZ
b) MIFG
c) FG
d) +FZRA
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level instability which may
lead to thunderstorm development?
a) AC lenticularis
b) AC castellanus
c) Red cirrus
d) Halo
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time they are
observed?
a) MIFG
b) +SHSN
c) VA
d) BR
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of CU and CB
clouds?
a) Convection
b) Radiation
c) Frontal lifting within stable layers
d) Subsidence
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 13
Which of the symbols is used to denote drizzle?
a) A
b) D
c) B
d) C
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 13
Which of the following symbols is used to denote hail?
a) C
b) B
c) D
d) A
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels?
a) CB
b) CI
c) ST
d) AC
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
a) SC, NS
b) ST, CS
c) CI, SC
d) CU, CB
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?

a) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Föhn from the north
b) Occlusions
c) Frontal zones
d) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Föhn from the south
Explanation
Remember that Föhn winds cause lots of clouds and precipitation on the windward side (the
wind facing side) of the mountain and no cloud and warm dry conditions on the lee side

Refer to Diagram 14
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of a cumulonimbus?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 5
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 14
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus castellanus?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 5
d) 4
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 14
Which one of the displayed cloud forms is representative of altocumulus lenticularis?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4
Explanation
Nil

Which piece of equipment is used to measure cloud base?

a) Hygrometer
b) Ceilometer
c) Barograph
d) Barometer
Explanation
A ceilometer is a device using a laser or other light source to determine the height of a cloud
base. A laser ceilometer consists of a vertically pointing laser and a receiver in the same
location. It determines the height by measuring the time required for a pulse of light to be
scattered back from the cloud base

With which of the following types of cloud is heavy rain most commonly associated?
a) NS
b) AC
c) SC
d) ST
Explanation
Nil

Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-
latitudes?
a) Drizzle
b) Heavy rain with large drops
c) Hail
d) Moderate rain with large drops
Explanation
Nil
025-026 Thunderstorms

A gust front is:

a) formed by the diverging cold air downdraft from beneath a thunderstorm
b) characterized by heavy lightning
c) another name for a cold front
d) normally encountered only below a thunderstorm
Explanation
Nil

A microburst phenomenon can arise in the:

a) downdraft of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage
b) updraft of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage
c) updraft of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage
d) downdraft of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage
Explanation
The strong downdrafts created by the onset of rain can cause the microburst

A microburst usually lasts for …. and is less than ….across

a) 5 min 5 km
b) 45 min 5 nm
c) 30 min 10 nm
d) 20 min 20 nm
Explanation
Nil

A microburst:
a) has a typical diameter up to 4 km
b) has a life time of more than 30 minutes
c) is always only associated with thunderstorms
d) occurs only in tropical areas
Explanation
Nil

Continuous updrafts occur in a thunderstorm during the:

a) period in which precipitation is falling
b) cumulus stage
c) dissipating stage
d) mature stage
Explanation
Nil

During the …. stage of a thunderstorm cell, the cloud contains ….

a) initial down currents only
b) dissipating up currents and down currents
c) initial up currents and down currents
d) mature up currents and down currents
Explanation
Nil
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised predominantly by
downdrafts?
a) Cumulus stage
b) Dissipating stage
c) Mature stage
d) Anvil stage
Explanation
Nil

During the summer in Central Europe, when is the greatest likelihood for convective
thunderstorms?
a) Mid-afternoon
b) Late morning
c) Around midnight
d) Early morning
Explanation
At this time surface temperatures are maximum and there will be the greatest convection
potential

During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by roll clouds
most likely to occur?
a) Cumulus stage and mature stage
b) Dissipating stage
c) Mature stage
d) Cumulus stage
Explanation
A roll cloud is a low, horizontal tube-shaped arcus cloud associated with a thunderstorm gust
front. Roll clouds are relatively rare; they are completely detached from the thunderstorm base
or other cloud features, thus differentiating them from the more familiar shelf clouds. Roll clouds
usually appear to be "rolling" about a horizontal axis

Hail grows by:

a) up and down progress in CU cloud
b) collision with supercooled water drops
c) freezing as it leaves the cloud
d) collision with ice crystals
Explanation
Nil

Hazards of the mature stage of a thunderstorm cell include lightning, turbulence and:
a) Microbursts, windshear and the anvil
b) Windshear, hail and fog
c) Icing, drizzle and microbursts
d) Icing, microbursts and windshear
Explanation
Nil
Approximately how long does a single cell thunderstorm take to complete the full cycle from the
Cumulus (building) to dissipating stage?
a) 1-2 hrs
b) 4-5 hrs
c) 2-3 hrs
d) About 1 hr
Explanation
Nil

In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for thunderstorm
formation?
a) Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
b) Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
c) Stable conditions and high moisture content
d) Unstable conditions and high moisture content
Explanation
Nil

In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms encountered?

a) Sub-tropical
b) Polar
c) Tropical
d) Temperate
Explanation
Around the equator (within the tropics) there is wide band on intensive convective storms. This
is called the ITCZ or equatorial low pressure belt. It is what brings "the rains" to equatorial
regions

In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell do both up and downdrafts occur
simultaneously?
a) In all stages
b) Mature stage
c) Cumulus stage
d) Dissipating stage
Explanation
Because it starts to rain in the mature stage, the rain will drag air down, thus we have up and
down drafts

Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by:

a) frontal lifting (cold front)
b) frontal lifting (warm front)
c) thermal triggering
d) frontal occlusion
Explanation
Nil
Large hail stones:
a) occur only in tropical thunderstorms
b) are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
c) only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes
d) only occur in frontal thunderstorms
Explanation
Nil

On a hot summer day over land what type of thunderstorm might you expect to develop during
the afternoon?
a) Convective
b) Orographic
c) Convergent
d) Frontal
Explanation
These are sometimes referred to air mass thunderstorms

The conditions which must exist to allow thunderstorms to develop are:

a) a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent, a low relative humidity and a trigger
action
b) a steep lapse rate, a stable atmosphere through a large vertical extent and a plentiful
supply of moisture
c) a trigger action, a plentiful supply of moisture and a very stable atmosphere
d) a plentiful supply of moisture and a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent and a
trigger action
Explanation
Remember than steep ELR's mean that the environmental temperature is falling rapidly with
height, in such cases the atmosphere is unstable because if any air rises it always stays warmer
than the environment

The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by:

a) frequent lightning
b) continuous updraughts
c) continuous downdraughts
d) rain starting at surface
Explanation
Nil

Thunderstorms are likely if:

a) the air is completely stable, there is sufficient water vapour, and there is orographic
lifting
b) there is a col in winter
c) there is a warm front
d) the air is unstable, there is sufficient water vapour and there is trigger action
Explanation
Nil
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the:
a) cumulus stage
b) mature stage
c) period in which precipitation is not falling
d) dissipating stage
Explanation
Nil

What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed by lifting
processes, over land?
a) High temperatures, high humidity
b) High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures
c) Subsidence, inversion
d) Low temperatures, low humidity
Explanation
Nil

What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

a) Cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion
b) An adequate supply of moisture, instability and a lifting action
c) Water vapour and high pressure
d) Stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
Explanation
Nil

What controls the movement of most thunderstorms?

a) The wind direction at 10,000 ft
b) The jet stream above the storm
c) The wind direction at 10,000 m
d) The surface wind direction
Explanation
Surface winds do not influence the direction of weather, it is the general wind upper wind in the
middle of the atmosphere which predominantly "pushes" the storms

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

a) Continuous updraft
b) Rain or hail at the surface
c) Roll cloud
d) Frequent lightning
Explanation
Nil

What is a microburst?
a) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the
surrounding air
b) An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm
c) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds
d) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the
surrounding air
Explanation
Nil
What is the term used to describe streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds but
evaporating before reaching the ground?
a) Col
b) Virga
c) Haar
d) Dissipation trails
Explanation
Nil

What stage of a thunderstorm is characterised by up-draughts only?

a) Mature stage
b) Initial stage
c) Dissipating stage
d) End stage
Explanation
Nil

What stage of a thunderstorm is characterised predominantly by downdraughts?

a) Cumulus stage
b) Initial stage
c) Dissipating stage
d) Mature stage
Explanation
Nil

When flying through an active thunderstorm, lightning strikes are most likely:
a) at or about 10,000 ft AMSL
b) in the temperature band either side of the freezing level
c) above 5,000 ft and underneath the anvil
d) in the clear air below the cloud in rain
Explanation
Nil

Where is a squall line to be expected?

a) In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels
b) At the surface position of a warm front
c) In front of an active cold front
d) Behind a cold front
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following combinations of weather-producing variables would be most likely to

result in cumuliform clouds, good visibility, showery rain, and possible clear type icing in clouds?
a) Stable, dry air and orographic lifting
b) Unstable moist air and no lifting mechanism
c) Unstable moist air and orographic lifting
d) Stable, moist air and orographic lifting
Explanation
Nil
Which of the following is unlikely to be a hazard below a thunderstorm?
a) Severe icing
b) Severe turbulence
c) Windshear
d) Large variations in pressure setting values
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following statements describes a microburst?

a) A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its surroundings
b) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
c) An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical revolving storm
d) A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings
Explanation
Nil

Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in moderate
latitudes?
a) Warm front thunderstorms
b) Cold mass thunderstorms
c) Occlusion thunderstorms
d) Air mass/Convective thunderstorms
Explanation
Nil

Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest?

a) Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes
b) Orographic thunderstorms
c) Frontal thunderstorms
d) Thermal thunderstorms
Explanation
Fronts move and therefore the storms attached to them will also move. Note though, that storms
are almost always only found on the cold front
027-028 Visibility

Advection fog can be formed when:

a) warm moist air flows over a colder surface
b) cold moist air flows over a warmer surface
c) warm moist air flows over a warmer surface
d) cold moist air flows over warmer water
Explanation
Nil

Below a low level inversion visibility is often:

a) very good at night
b) very good in the early morning
c) moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange
d) moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers
Explanation
Inversions are stable and it means no air can rise away from the surface, thus pollutants are
trapped

Complete the sentence using the options below.

Advection fog is formed when …. air moves over a …. surface
a) dry frozen
b) humid warm
c) cold warmer
d) warm moist cooler
Explanation
To create any fog, the air must be cooled. So if moisture laden air passes over a cool surface
then that air will cool and condense to form fog

Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can decrease to:
a) about 200 m
b) about 1,000 m
c) tens of metres
d) about 500 m
Explanation
Nil

Fog may be defined as a:

a) reduction of visibility to less than 1000 metres due to the presence of water vapour in the
atmosphere
b) reduction of visibility to less than 1000 ft due to the presence of water vapour in
suspension in the atmosphere
c) reduction of visibility to less than 1000 metres due to the presence of water droplets in
suspension in the atmosphere
d) reduction of visibility to less than 1500 metres due to the presence of water droplets in
suspension in the atmosphere
Explanation
Nil
Frontal fog is most likely to occur:
a) behind a warm front
b) ahead of a warm front
c) in winter in the early morning
d) in summer in the early morning
Explanation
Nil

In circumstances where there is a clear sky, calm wind and a high relative humidity, what might
you expect over the land in winter?
a) Steam fog is likely over night
b) Advection fog will form
c) Radiation fog is very likely in the early morning especially when mist was reported
previously during the previous evening
d) Hill fog can be expected
Explanation
Nil

In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when:
a) the surface wind is strong and gusty
b) a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
c) there is a low level inversion
d) cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
Explanation
Nil

In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by:

a) drizzle
b) haze
c) showers of rain or snow
d) low stratus
Explanation
Unstable weather generates cumulus clouds and actually improves the visibility, except of
course in a shower!

Refer to Diagram 15
Of the four radio soundings of temperature and dew point shown, which one indicates ground
fog?
a) 4
b) 3
c) 1
d) 2
Explanation
Notice that the temperature and dew point are the same at ground level, therefore saturation
has occurred
On a night when radiation fog is forming over most of southern England, the aerodromes likely
to be first to experience the fog will be those situated:
a) near the coast with a light onshore wind and clear skies
b) within valleys and those furthest inland
c) at the top of a hill with clear skies and no wind
d) near the coast with a land breeze and cloudy skies
Explanation
In valleys because this is where the cooling air will collects, but those further in land because
the land will cooler quicker than coastal airfields

Radiation fog is most likely:

a) in an anticyclone in winter
b) on a hill in autumn
c) with a wind speed up to 15 kts, a clear sky and a high relative humidity
d) with a wind of 2-8 kts, a high density and in the summer season
Explanation
This is because anticyclones or highs have little wind and little cloud, both of which are required
at night for radiation fog to form

RVR is usually reported when the prevailing meteorological visibility is:

a) less than 1500 ft
b) less than 1500 m
c) 1500 m
d) more than 1500 m
Explanation:
Nil

RVR runway 23: 400m. This information indicates the:

a) length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the threshold of
runway 23
b) minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service
c) portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with
runway 23 in service
d) meteorological visibility on runway 23
Explanation
Nil

The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is:
a) a low level temperature inversion
b) increasing surface wind speed
c) surface cooling
d) an increasingly stable atmosphere
Explanation
Nil
The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is:
a) on average about 5 kts
b) above 15 kts
c) between 5 kts and 10 kts
d) between 10 kts and 15 kts
Explanation
Nil

Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?

a) Very low temperatures
b) Little or no cloud
c) Strong surface winds
d) Very dry air
Explanation
Nil

Visibility is reduced by haze when:

a) a cold front just passed
b) small water droplets are present
c) dust particles are trapped below an inversion
d) a light drizzle falls
Explanation
Nil

What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog?
a) Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by
evaporation over the sea
b) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea
c) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog forms
when warm humid air flows over a cold surface
d) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling
Explanation
Nil

What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog?
a) Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range
b) Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills
c) High relative humidity and an unstable air mass
d) Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
Explanation
Nil

What instrument is used to measure IRVR?

a) Gold's visibility meter
b) Transmissometer
c) Hygrometer
d) Anemometer
Explanation
Nil
What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?
a) 500 ft
b) 5,000 ft
c) 10,000 ft
d) 2,000 ft
Explanation
Nil

What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm or light wind
conditions?
a) Radiation
b) Orographic
c) Steam
d) Advection
Explanation
This ONLY forms over land at at night/early morning when the ground cools and the layer of air
close to the surface condenses. Wind destroys it

What wind conditions, occurring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an inland airport
where the temperature is 15°C and the dew point is 14°C?
a) Calm
b) Westerly, 10 kts variable
c) Easterly, 10 kts
d) Northerly, 10 kts
Explanation
Nil

When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart, the weather conditions
are most likely to be:
a) fog or low cloud
b) unlimited visibility
c) clear and cool
d) high scattered clouds
Explanation
Nil

When warm moist air travels over a much cooler surface, what is likely to develop?
a) Advection fog
b) Arctic smoke
c) Radiation fog
d) Steaming fog
Explanation
Nil

Which fog is likely when cold air moves over a warm moist surface?
a) Radiation fog
b) Advection fog
c) Steaming fog
d) Frontal fog
Explanation
This is also called arctic smoke
Which of the conditions given below will most likely lead to the formation of radiation fog?
a) No wind and cloud
b) 15 kts wind and no cloud
c) 3 kts wind and 1/8 cirrus cloud
d) 7 kts wind and 8/8 stratus cloud
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation fog?
a) Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain
b) Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea
c) Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
d) Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of advection fog?
a) Dry warm air moving over a cold surface
b) Moist cold air moving over a warm surface
c) Dry cold air moving over a warm surface
d) Moist warm air moving over a colder surface
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam fog (arctic
smoke)?
a) Warm air moving over cold water
b) The coastal region of the sea cools at night
c) The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun
d) Cold air moving over warmer water
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog?
a) Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night
b) A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
c) A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a
sinking air mass
d) A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
a) Cold air passing over warm ground
b) Heat loss from the ground on clear calm nights
c) The passage of fronts
d) Dry, warm air passing over warm ground
Explanation
Nil
Which of the following is one of the important factors for the formation of radiation fog?
a) A rapidly falling pressure
b) A tight pressure gradient
c) A slack pressure gradient
d) Closely spaced isobars
Explanation
This will produce light winds which is part of what is required for radiation fog

Which of the following phenomena would have the worst visibility?

a) Heavy, drifting snow
b) Heavy rain
c) Fog
d) Mist
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog?

a) It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically
b) It forms slowly and disappears rapidly
c) It can be formed suddenly by day or night
d) It forms at night or the early morning
Explanation
Whenever warm moist air passes over a cooler surface Advection Fog may occur, it is not
restricted to day or night effects. Although it is common along the coasts with onshore breezes
in the morning or night during the winter

Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?
a) Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air
b) Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air
c) Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air
d) Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air
Explanation
Nil

Which type of fog is likely to form when air, having a temperature of 15°C and a dew point of
12°C, blows at 10 knots over a sea surface with a temperature of 5°C?
a) Advection fog
b) Frontal fog
c) Radiation fog
d) Steam fog
Explanation
Nil

At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?

a) Shortly after midnight
b) Shortly after sunrise
c) At sunset
d) Late evening
Explanation
It's the coldest time of the day, that’s why. Therefore, it will be the most likely time that
temperature has decreased to reach dew point
029-030 Icing

A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely:
a) travel back over the wing, creating clear ice
b) travel back over the wing, creating rime ice
c) freeze immediately and create rime ice
d) freeze immediately and create clear ice
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 13
According to ICAO, which of the symbols below indicates severe icing?
a) E
b) D
c) B
d) F
Explanation
Nil

At temperatures of between 0°C and - 15°C, the composition of a cloud is:

a) Entirely ice crystals
b) Supercooled water droplets and a few ice crystals
c) Mostly water vapour
d) Entirely water droplets
Explanation
Nil

At what airframe temperature would you expect the worst icing effects?
a) 5°C
b) -10°C
c) - 2°C
d) -15°C
Explanation
The closer to zero, the more likely the icing will flow back and spread

At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change of course and/or altitude desirable"
recommendation be followed?
a) Extreme
b) Severe
c) Light
d) Moderate
Explanation
Nil
Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile:
3,000 ft +15°C
6,000 ft +8°C
10,000 ft +1°C
14,000 ft -6°C
18,000 ft -14°C
24,000 ft -26°C
At which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?
a) FL 180
b) FL 80
c) FL 220
d) FL 150
Explanation
Nil

Clear ice forms as a result of:

a) supercooled droplets freezing on impact
b) ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
c) supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process
d) water vapour freezing to the aircraft
Explanation
Nil

Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of:

a) snow
b) large supercooled water droplets
c) small supercooled water droplets
d) water vapour
Explanation
Nil

Clear ice is dangerous because it:

a) spreads out and contains many air particles
b) is translucent and only forms at the leading edges
c) it is almost transparent, strong and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
d) is not translucent and forms at the leading edges
Explanation
Nil

From the options below, the most dangerous form of airframe icing is:
a) hoar frost
b) clear ice
c) dry ice
d) rime ice
Explanation
Nil
During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze:
a) slowly and spread out
b) rapidly and spread out
c) slowly and do not spread out
d) immediately and do not spread out
Explanation
Nil

Freezing fog consists of:

a) ice crystals
b) frozen water droplets
c) supercooled water droplets
d) frozen minute snow flakes
Explanation
Nil

Freezing precipitation occurs:

a) mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow
b) mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle
c) only in the precipitation of a cold front
d) only in the precipitation of a warm front
Explanation
Nil

Freezing rain occurs when:

a) snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air
b) water vapour first turns into water droplets
c) ice pellets melt
d) rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C
Explanation
Nil

Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are:

a) small and at a temperature just below freezing
b) small and freeze rapidly
c) large and at a temperature just below freezing
d) of any size at temperatures below -35°C
Explanation
Nil

Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of:

a) small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft
b) freezing rain striking the aircraft
c) droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
d) water vapour sublimating directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
Explanation
Nil
Hoar frost forms on an aircraft when:
a) the aircraft in sub zero clear air suddenly enters a colder region
b) the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud at below freezing temperature
c) the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud which is at a higher temperature than the
surrounding air
d) the aircraft in sub zero clear air suddenly enters a warmer moist region
Explanation
Nil

Hoar frost is most likely to form when:

a) flying in supercooled drizzle
b) flying inside convective clouds
c) flying inside stratiform clouds
d) taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion
Explanation
Nil

How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 ft above ground level (AGL), when he is
unable to de-ice, nor land?
a) He descends to the warm air layer below
b) He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability
c) He continues to fly at the same altitude
d) He ascends to the cold air layer above
Explanation
Nil

How does freezing rain develop?

a) Through melting of ice crystals
b) Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
c) Through melting of sleet grains
d) Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C
Explanation
Nil

If a cloudy, granular type of ice is seen to collect and protrude forward from the leading edge of
the aerofoil, what type of ice would it most likely be?
a) Rain ice
b) Clear ice
c) Rime ice
d) Hoar frost
Explanation
Nil

In AS cloud at FL 170 and a temperature of -20°C what type and degree of icing would you
encounter?
a) Hoar frost
b) Light rime icing
c) Moderate clear icing
d) Severe clear icing
Explanation
Nil
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate of accretion?
a) Freezing rain
b) Snow
c) Cirrus clouds
d) Stratus clouds
Explanation
Nil

In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered?

a) Ahead of a cold front in the summer
b) Behind a warm front in the summer
c) Ahead of a warm front in the winter
d) Ahead of a cold front in the winter
Explanation
Nil

In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing?

a) Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer
b) Flying in heavy drizzle
c) Flying in dense cirrus clouds
d) Level flight below a rain producing cloud when ambient temperature is below 0°C
Explanation
Nil

In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

a) CU
b) CI
c) NS
d) SC
Explanation
Nil

In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?

a) CS
b) SC
c) NS
d) AS
Explanation
Cirrostraus cloud is always composed of ice crystals. To make aircraft icing you must have
supercooled WATER DROPLETS!. High level clouds DO NOT give any icing

Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an aircraft, form:

a) rime ice
b) cloudy ice
c) clear ice
d) hoar frost
Explanation
Nil
Mixed (rime and clear) icing is most likely to be encountered:
a) In nimbostratus at a temperature of -10°C
b) In cumulus at a temperature of -35°C
c) In towering cumulus at a temperature of - 40°C
d) In stratiform cloud at a temperature of -20°C
Explanation
Nil

Orographic uplift in stable conditions gives a strong vertical component to air movement thus
supporting larger supercooled droplets in orographically formed cloud. Consideration should
also be given to the fact that:
a) the freezing level decreases
b) the freezing level increases
c) the turbulence would be reduced
d) the icing risk would be reduced
Explanation
Nil

Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of:
a) large supercooled water droplets
b) snow
c) water vapour
d) small supercooled water droplets
Explanation
Nil

Stratus cloud of limited depth and at a temperature of -5°C would pose what kind of icing threat?
a) Moderate to heavy rime ice
b) Moderate to heavy glaze ice
c) Light rime ice
d) Light glaze ice
Explanation
Nil

Supercooled droplets are always:

a) large and at a temperature below freezing
b) small and at a temperature below freezing
c) at a temperature below -60°C
d) at a temperature below freezing
Explanation
Nil

The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that have a
temperature of -5°C would be:
a) hoar frost
b) clear ice
c) rime ice
d) cloudy ice
Explanation
Nil
Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile (T), are flying
through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of small supercooled
droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct concerning ice accretion?
a) Aircraft T experiences more icing than S
b) Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
c) Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets
d) Aircraft S experiences more icing than T
Explanation
Nil

Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur in a CB?
a) Between -30C and -40°C
b) Between -20C and -30°C
c) Between -2°C and -10°C
d) Close to the freezing level
Explanation
This is the ideal temperature range for large supercooled water droplets, therefore clear or
glazed ice which is the dangerous ice type

Vertical type clouds are most serious from the icing standpoint because:
a) strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small supercooled water droplets
will be present
b) strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large supercooled water droplets
will be present
c) turbulent clouds indicate a low freezing level
d) turbulent clouds produce hail which sticks to the aircraft
Explanation
Nil

What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

a) large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice
b) small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain
c) small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice
d) large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice
Explanation
The vertical upcurrents in cumulus clouds are strong and are created by instability, therefore
larger droplets can be supported

What is the main reason water can exist in a liquid state even though the temperature is sub
zero?
a) Water takes a long time to cool to below zero degrees
b) No freezing nuclei
c) Water is hygroscopic
d) No condensation nuclei
Explanation
Nil
When considering icing in cloud over high ground compared with icing in other clouds, the effect
of orographic lifting is to:
a) cause the free water content of the cloud to increase and the freezing level to rise so
reducing the icing risk
b) cause the height of the freezing level to fall and increase the intensity of the icing
c) cause the height of the freezing level to rise and increase the severity of the icing
d) increase the temperature inside the cloud due to the release of extra latent heat so
reducing the icing risk
Explanation
Nil

When flying in convective cloud, in which of these temperature bands is clear ice most likely to
form on the aircraft's surface?
a) 0°C to -15°C
b) -35°C to -55°C
c) -20°C to -40°C
d) +10°C to -10°C
Explanation
This is ideal temperature range for large supercooled water droplets are therefore clear or
glazed ice

Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?
a) Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0°C
b) An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0°C
c) Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into deep layer of air with a temperature below
0°C
d) Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing?

a) Ice pellets
b) Heavy freezing rain
c) Large hail
d) Snow showers
Explanation
Nil

While descending through a cloud cover at medium to high level, a small amount of a white and
rough powder-like contamination is detected along the leading edge of the wing. This
contamination is called:
a) clear ice
b) rime ice
c) frost
d) mixed ice
Explanation
Nil
Whilst flying a commercial airliner, you notice that you have been exposed to rain ice for quite
some time. What would be the best course of action?
a) Turn around immediately
b) Ensure anti ice is on, make no large control deflections and initiate a climb into the warm
air just above you
c) Immediately put on the anti ice and descend
d) Increase engine power to prevent engine ice
Explanation
Rain ice is always produced in an environment where warm air is above you and you’re in the
cold air. So de-ice, and climb, you'll be out quicker than if you were to turn around. The warm air
is usually only a few thousand few above you, whereas turning around could involved many
many more miles of rain ice before you exit

You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C, which of following statements is correct?
a) Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost
b) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice
c) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe rime ice
d) Over flat terrain in stratus cloud, moderate to severe mixed ice
Explanation
The temperature allows for small and large droplets, the uplift from the mountain allows the
cloud to support the droplets and in greater numbers
031-033 Air Masses, Fronts and Occlusions

A warm occlusion is when:

a) the warm and cold front touch
b) the cold front moves up and over the warm front
c) the warm front moves up and over the cold front
d) the warm and cold front are no longer in contact with the ground
Explanation
Nil

A warm occlusion occurs when:

a) the cold air ahead of the occlusion is colder than the cold air behind the occlusion
b) the air ahead of the warm front is warmer than the air behind the cold front
c) the cold front undercuts the warm front
d) the air behind the cold front is undercutting the air ahead of the warm front
Explanation
Nil

An air mass that has originated from an ocean is known as:

a) continental air, and has a high humidity
b) maritime air, and has a low humidity
c) continental air, and has a low humidity
d) maritime air, and has a high humidity
Explanation
Nil

By what method can the direction and speed of a front be measured?

a) Fronts move west to east and the speed can be determined by the distance between the
isobars
b) Fronts move along to their axes and the speed can be determined by the distance
between the isobars and using the geostrophic wind scale
c) Fronts move west to east and the speed can be determined by using the distance
between the isobars along the front and using the geostrophic wind scale
d) Fronts move perpendicular to their axes and the speed can be determined by the
distance between the isobars along the front and using the geostrophic wind scale
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 16
Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks (dashed lines) to the left is represented by
the cross-section on the right?
a) Track A-D
b) Track A-E
c) Track B-D
d) Track B-C
Explanation
The cross section on the right shows a complete depression through both the warm front and
cold front
Refer to Diagram 18
Heavy continuous precipitation will reach the ground mainly in the area:
a) A3
b) B3
c) C3
d) E3
Explanation
Only heavy continuous precipitation falls just in front of the warm where we have the thick NS
cloud

Refer to Diagram 18
Heavy showery precipitation will reach the ground mainly in the area:
a) E3
b) B3
c) C3
d) A3
Explanation
The cold front itself and the area behind it are the ONLY areas that produce SHOWERY
precipitation

How do air masses move at a warm front?

a) Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
b) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
c) Cold air overrides a warm air mass
d) Warm air overrides a cold air mass
Explanation
Nil

If air is heated from below it tends to become more:

a) unstable
b) stable
c) neutrally stable
d) none of the above
Explanation
Nil

In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold air:
a) behind the surface position is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at
a high altitude
b) in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitude
c) behind the surface position is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a
high altitude
d) behind the surface position is colder than the cold air in front
Explanation
Nil
In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered?
a) Polar Continental air
b) Polar Maritime air
c) Tropical Continental air
d) Arctic Maritime air
Explanation
This air mass has by far the lowest temperatures, think that in central Siberia static surface air
temperatures can reach -70°C in extreme situations. Polar Maritime is only about 5°C - 15°C.
As a rough rule, think that continental air masses will always be warmer and colder than their
counterpart maritime air masses

In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?

a) In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front
b) In the direction of the warm sector isobars
c) In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front
d) In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase
Explanation
Nil

In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate?

a) Region of British Isles
b) East of Greenland
c) Baltic Sea
d) Black Sea
Explanation
Nil

It can be expected that the depth of the friction layer over the UK will be:
a) greater in Polar Continental air due to the very low temperatures
b) greater in Tropical Continental air due to the relatively high temperatures in winter
c) greater in Polar Maritime air due to the instability and moderate wind
d) greater in Tropical Maritime air due to the warm temperature
Explanation
Nil

On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching:

a) QFE decreases and QNH increases
b) QFE and QNH increase
c) QFE and QNH decrease
d) QFE increases and QNH decreases
Explanation
Nil

Polar front depressions or warm sector depressions move?

a) from east to west
b) around the earth from north to south
c) with the upper winds which are frequently from the east
d) parallel to the isobars within the warm sector and from west to east
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 19
Assuming the usual direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave have
moved?
a) Position 4
b) Position 1
c) Position 2
d) Position 3
Explanation
Remember, these depressions move parallel to the direction of the isobars in the warm sector

Refer to Diagram 20
What will happen to the surface wind when front 'G' passes over position 'T'?
a) It will veer and decrease
b) It will back and decrease
c) It will back and increase
d) It will veer and increase
Explanation
Notice the isobars are closer together after the front than in front of the front, therefore the
speed will increase. Winds always veer when the fronts passes over. At the moment T has a
wind at about 225°, but when the front goes through the wind will be about 270°

The air masses involved in the development of a polar front depression are:
a) Polar Maritime and Polar Continental
b) Tropical Maritime and Polar Continental
c) Polar Maritime and Tropical Maritime
d) Tropical Continental and Polar Maritime
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 18
The approximate average surface level winds in the Northern Hemisphere at A3, B3 and D3 in
the diagram to the right are respectively:
a) south-westerly westerly northerly
b) westerly westerly south-westerly
c) north-westerly westerly south-westerly
d) easterly westerly south-westerly
Explanation
You can find this out by looking at the polar front depression from above and using the isobars
as a reference to the wind direction

The approximate inclined plane of a cold front is:

a) 1/300
b) 1/500
c) 1/150
d) about 1/50 to 1/80
Explanation
Nil
The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:
a) 1/500
b) 1/50
c) 1/300
d) 1/150
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 18
The average upper wind direction at A, C and E respectively would be?
a) south-westerly westerly north-westerly
b) north-easterly westerly south-westerly
c) always easterly
d) always westerly
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 17
The cold front is indicated with a number at position:
a) X
b) W
c) Y
d) Z
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 17
The front labelled "W" is a:
a) warm front
b) warm front occlusion
c) cold front occlusion
d) cold front
Explanation
Warm front occlusions align themselves with the original warm front

Refer to Diagram 16
The warm sector is indicated by letter:
a) D
b) B
c) C
d) A
Explanation
Nil

The weather associated with Polar Maritime air is:

a) broken cloud, moderate continuous rain
b) overcast, moderate intermittent rain
c) convective cloud with showers
d) overcast, moderate drizzle
Explanation
Polar Maritime air is unstable as it travels south towards Europe and warms slightly from below
Refer to Diagram 18
Which of the following grid squares is most likely to have low level wind shear?
a) 3A and 3B
b) 3C and 3E
c) 3B and 3C
d) 3A and 3C
Explanation
You'll certainly get windshear underneath the CB at the cold front, and don't forget, you usually
get some shear as a front passes anyway because of the change in wind speed and direction
before and after the front, so that’s why 3C is also correct

Refer to Diagram 21
Using the image below, number 2 represents the track of which air mass during winter?
a) Arctic
b) Returning Polar Maritime
c) Tropical Maritime
d) Polar Continental
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 21
Track number 3 represents which air mass during summer?
a) Returning Polar Maritime
b) Tropical Continental
c) Tropical Maritime
d) Arctic
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 21
Track number 5 represents which air mass?
a) Polar Maritime
b) Arctic
c) Tropical Maritime
d) Returning Polar Maritime
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 21
Track number 6 represents which air mass?
a) Tropical Maritime
b) Returning Polar Maritime
c) Polar Maritime
d) Arctic
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 22
What would the air mass over position "C" most closely resemble?
a) Arctic
b) Polar Continental
c) Polar Maritime
d) Tropical Continental
Explanation
It's June, so the air coming from Central Europe will most probably be warm and dry

Refer to Diagram 23
What is the air mass at Point A in the centre of the map?
a) Polar Maritime
b) Tropical Continental
c) Polar Continental
d) Arctic
Explanation
Using the isobars and the pressure systems, you will see that the wind is straight from the North
West

What are the expected pressure and wind changes at the surface with the approach of a warm
front?
a) Pressure stops falling and the wind will back
b) Pressure will increase and the wind will back
c) Pressure falls and the wind will back
d) Pressure falls and the wind will veer
Explanation
Nil

What are the indications of an approaching warm front?

a) Increasing cloud amount, lowering cloud base, reducing pressure with increasing
intensity of continuous type precipitation
b) Reducing cloud base, increasing pressure and increasing intensity of precipitation
c) Reducing cloud base, reducing pressure and increasing intensity of showery
precipitation
d) Increasing cloud amount, reducing pressure, reducing intensity of precipitation
Explanation
Nil

What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between an air mass
with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over northern Russia?
a) The North Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores
b) The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North Russian air
c) The North Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores
d) The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North-Russian air
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 3
What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during the next hour?
a) A drop in pressure
b) Approximately constant pressure
c) Irregular fluctuations
d) A rise in pressure
Explanation
Nil

What characterises a quasi-stationary front?

a) The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
b) The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
c) The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense
cold front and those of a warm and very active front
d) The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
Explanation
On (quasi type) stationary fronts, the isobars (and therefore wind direction) are parallel to the
surface front

What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass overrides a
cold air mass?
a) Nimbostratus
b) Cumulonimbus
c) Cumulus
d) Altostratus
Explanation
The question is really just asking what is the low level cloud on a warm front (warm air
overriding cold air)

Refer to Diagram 24
What is name given to the air mass at position "X"?
a) Tropical Maritime
b) Polar Continental
c) Tropical Continental
d) Polar Maritime
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 3
What is the classification of the air mass affecting position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
a) Tropical Continental
b) Tropical Maritime
c) Polar Continental
d) Polar Maritime
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 20
What is the name of the front shown by "G"?
a) Cold
b) Quasi stationary
c) Warm
d) Occluded
Explanation
Nil

What is the relative movement of the two air masses along a cold front?
a) Cold air pushes under a warm air mass
b) Cold air slides over a warm air mass
c) Warm air pushes over a cold air mass
d) Warm air pushes under a cold air mass
Explanation
Nil

What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central Europe when
temperatures close to the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain starts to fall?
a) Warm fronts, warm occlusions
b) Cold occlusions
c) High level cold fronts
d) Cold fronts
Explanation
The question is basically saying the air ahead of the front is very cold

What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front?
a) Drizzle
b) Light to moderate continuous rain
c) Showers associated with thunderstorms
d) Freezing rain
Explanation
Nil

What weather might you expect just ahead of a fast moving cold front?
a) Very unstable conditions and active embedded CBs
b) Clear but cold air
c) Lowering cloud base with continuous drizzle
d) Very stable conditions and St cloud
Explanation
Remember that the CB's on a cold front form just ahead of it in a long line stretching the length
of the front. These are sometimes called squall lines

What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground as an
active cold front is passing?
a) It will first decrease then increase
b) It will remain unchanged
c) It will first increase then decrease
d) It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet
Explanation
Pressure falls before the cold front arrives and then increases after it has passed
What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground during
the period following the passage of an active cold front?
a) It will remain unchanged
b) It will have decreased
c) It will have increased
d) It will show a small increase or decrease
Explanation
After the cold front passes the surface pressure will increase. Therefore the aneroid capsule will
contract and show a decrease in altitude

Refer to Diagram 18
What would be the most likely cloud to be found along the front at D2?
a) CI
b) CB
c) NS and AS
d) ST
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 18
What would be the most likely cloud to be found at the surface in E3?
a) Little or no cloud
b) CB
c) NS and AS
d) CI
Explanation
There is a chance you can get stratus, but it really will depend on the specifics of the system
concerned, generally though it will be fairly clear, similar to ridge type weather

Refer to Diagram 18
What would be the most likely cloud to be found at the very top of box E1?
a) CI
b) CB
c) NS
d) AS
Explanation
Nil

What would the air mass classification be for air lying over the North Atlantic, just south of
Iceland?
a) Arctic
b) Tropical Maritime
c) Polar Maritime
d) Maritime
Explanation
Nil
When a cold front passes a station in the British Isles:
a) The wind backs and temperature falls
b) The wind veers and the temperature rises
c) The wind backs and the temperature rises
d) The wind veers and temperature falls
Explanation
Nil

When an air mass moves to a lower latitude, it can be expected that:

a) the surface layer air will become warmer, and the air will become stable
b) the surface layer air will become warmer and the air will become unstable
c) the surface layer air will become colder and the air will become more unstable
d) the surface layer air will become colder and the air will become more stable
Explanation
Nil

When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe?

a) Summer
b) Winter
c) Autumn and winter
d) Winter and spring
Explanation
Nil

When would you expect the Mediterranean front to develop?

a) Winter
b) Summer
c) Late winter
d) Spring
Explanation
In the winter months the sea will be warmer than the landmasses either side. The warmer air
above the sea will therefore rise and intense thermal lows can develop drawing in surface air
from Africa and Europe. The meeting of this air creates a front

Where does Polar Continental air originate over Europe?

a) Siberian landmass
b) The region of the Baltic sea
c) The region of Greenland
d) Areas of arctic water
Explanation
Nil

Where is the coldest air to be found, in a cold occlusion?

a) Behind the front
b) Ahead of the front
c) At the surface position of the front
d) At the junction of the occlusion
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 17
Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the straight line A-B?
a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when approaching an active
warm front at medium to low level?
a) Severe thunderstorms at low altitude
b) High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms
c) Low cloud base and poor visibility
d) Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?

a) The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front
b) The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
c) The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
d) The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front
Explanation
Nil

Which of the statements below best describes a cold occlusion?

a) The cold air behind the cold front is colder than the cold air in front of the cold front
b) The warm air behind the cold front is colder than the warm air in front of the warm front
c) The cold air behind the cold front is warmer than the cold air in front of the warm front
d) The cold air behind the cold front is colder than the cold air in front of the warm front
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 20
Which type of occluded front is lying over the North Sea (to the NE of the UK)?
a) Not possible to determine
b) Cold occlusion
c) Warm occlusion
d) Winter occlusion
Explanation
The occlusion is aligned with the cold front thus giving you the indication it is a cold occlusion
034-035 Other Depressions and TRSs
473 34797,34798,347

A secondary depression will have:

a) worse weather than the primary depression
b) a cyclonic air flow pattern at the surface
c) an anticlockwise air flow pattern at the surface
d) a clockwise air flow pattern at the surface
Explanation
Nil

A secondary depression would usually form in association with:

a) a summer thermal depression over the Mediterranean or Caspian Seas
b) a polar air depression
c) a col
d) a polar front depression
Explanation
Nil

A small low established within the circulation of another low is called?

a) A trough
b) An anticyclone
c) A secondary depression
d) A col
Explanation
Nil

A thermal depression is likely to form:

a) on the trailing edge of a warm sector mid latitude depression
b) in association with a marked trough of low pressure over the USA in winter
c) in the lee of the Alps over northern Italy in winter
d) over the Iberian Peninsula (Spain) during the summer
Explanation
Nil

At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
a) Autumn, winter
b) Spring, summer
c) Summer, autumn
d) Winter
Explanation
Nil

At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern islands of Japan?
a) January to May
b) May to July
c) July to November
d) September to January
Explanation
Although it can be a much wider season, so expect some before and after this time
During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean?
a) January until April
b) April until July
c) October until January
d) July until November
Explanation
Nil

During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern hemisphere?
a) Summer and autumn
b) Winter and spring
c) Winter
d) All seasons
Explanation
Nil

Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non-frontal thermal depression
because of:
a) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of air in the
depression
b) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in
the depression
c) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in
the depression
d) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the
depression
Explanation
Nil

On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the greatest?
a) N coast
b) W coast
c) NE coast
d) SE coast
Explanation
Nil

Orographic lows are formed:

a) on the leeward sides of mountains
b) in summer over the mountains
c) on the windward side of mountains
d) whenever there is significant instability
Explanation
Nil
Polar lows can form as a result of:
a) cold arctic air moving southwards and becoming stable as it warms
b) cold arctic air moving northwards and becoming stable as it warms
c) cold arctic air moving southwards and becoming unstable as it warms
d) cold arctic air moving northwards and becoming unstable as it warms
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 25
The arrows labelled "S" represent the mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur
mainly from?
a) May to November and are called hurricanes
b) May to November and are called cyclones
c) December to April and are called cyclones
d) December to April and are called typhoons
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 25
The arrows labelled "T" represents the mean track of tropical revolving storms which occur
mainly from:
a) June to October and are called tornadoes
b) December to April and are called hurricanes
c) June to October and are called hurricanes
d) June to October and are called cyclones
Explanation
Nil

The diameter of a typical tornado is:

a) about 2 km to 6 km
b) only a few metres
c) in the order of 10 km
d) 100 m to 150 m
Explanation
Nil

The ITCZ or Equatorial Low Pressure Belt is:

a) a band of convective weather found in the temperate latitudes
b) always over the geographic Equator
c) a band of convective weather centred around the thermal equator
d) a band of convective weather centred around the geographic Equator
Explanation
Nil
The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms occur is:
a) the northern Indian Ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
b) the south-western Indian Ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of
Reunion
c) the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese coastline
d) the Caribbean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the
USA
Explanation
Typhoons are the most numerous and the most violent of the TRS's. The region they affect is
the Far East or the NW Pacific

Thermal depressions (excluding polar lows) usually form over the land in the summer but they
can also be found:
a) over inland seas or large lakes in winter
b) over the land in winter
c) over the sea in winter
d) on the leeward sides of mountains
Explanation
The inland sea or lake will be warmer than the adjacent land mass and therefore convection
currents will form as the warmer air rises eventually leading to a low pressure

Tropical Revolving Storms are:

a) a late summer weather feature in the tropics
b) very active well inland
c) weaker over the sea
d) are severe temperate storms
Explanation
Nil

Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the South Atlantic because?
a) there is no coriolis force present
b) of the strong southeast wind
c) of the low water temperature
d) the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere
Explanation
Nil

Tropical revolving storms in the Indian Ocean are called:

a) Cyclones
b) Hurricanes
c) Tornadoes
d) Typhoons
Explanation
Nil
Tropical revolving storms in the Northern Hemisphere part of the Atlantic Ocean are called:
a) Cyclones
b) Hurricanes
c) Tornadoes
d) Typhoons
Explanation
Nil

Tropical revolving storms in the South Atlantic are called?

a) There are no tropical revolving storms in the South Atlantic
b) Typhoons
c) Cyclones
d) Hurricanes
Explanation
Nil

Tropical revolving storms in the South East Asia around the South China Sea are called:
a) Tornadoes
b) Hurricanes
c) Cyclones
d) Typhoons
Explanation
Nil

Tropical Revolving Storms usually:

a) move in an easterly direction before curving back towards the nearest pole
b) form close to one side of the Equator and while moving slowly in a westerly direction,
cross over to the other hemisphere
c) move in a westerly direction before curving back towards the Equator
d) do not form within 5° of the Equator
Explanation
Mainly because the lack of rotation that Coriolis force helps to generate

Tropical Revolving Storms:

a) generally move from east to west before turning towards the Equator
b) intensify after crossing over land
c) occur principally in spring and early summer
d) do not occur in the South Atlantic
Explanation
The South Atlantic is too cold to feed the storm with warm moist air that it needs to feed on

Refer to Diagram 25
Using the image below, the tracks associated with "U" are:
a) hurricanes
b) typhoons
c) tornadoes
d) cyclones
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 25
Using the image below, what is "R" and when might it be formed?
a) Cyclone in late summer
b) Typhoon early summer
c) Hurricane in August
d) Cyclone in February
Explanation
Nil

What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Caribbean area?

a) West in the earlier stages and later turning south east
b) West deep into the USA
c) West in the earlier stages and later turning north east
d) East then south
Explanation
Nil

What is the main energy source of a Tropical Revolving Storm?

a) Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes
b) Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high
pressure belt
c) The Equatorial jet stream
d) Latent heat released from condensing water vapour
Explanation
Nil

What weather feature might you expect during a warm unstable summer day in Central Europe?
a) A tropical revolving storm
b) Lee lows to the north of the Alps
c) Cold front thunderstorms with heavy precipitation
d) Thermal thunderstorms with heavy precipitation
Explanation
Nil

When, if at all, is a Tropical Revolving Storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the central north
coast of Australia?
a) Not experienced at Darwin
b) August to October
c) December to April
d) May to July
Explanation
Nil

Where is the most dangerous zone in a Tropical Revolving Storm?

a) In the wall of clouds around the eye
b) In the centre of the eye
c) Anywhere in the eye
d) About 600 km away from the eye
Explanation
Nil
Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?
a) It forms commonly over land in summer
b) It always forms over the ocean in winter
c) It forms over land in winter
d) It forms over the ocean in summer
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following are thermal depressions?

a) Tropical revolving storms, polar air depressions, and tornadoes
b) The Equatorial trough, monsoon lows, and some depressions over the central and
eastern Mediterranean Sea in summer
c) The Equatorial trough, polar air depressions, monsoon lows, and orographic lows
d) The lows forming over flat land in summer, polar air depressions, tropical revolving
storms, and lows which form over inland seas in winter
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 13
Which of the following symbols represents a tropical revolving storm?
a) G
b) J
c) H
d) I
Explanation
Nil

Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?

a) Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter
b) From the Earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its surroundings
c) They intensify rapidly after landfall
d) The diameter is 50-500 m
Explanation
Nil

Which Tropical Revolving Storms are the most frequent and the most intense?
a) Typhoons in the Pacific
b) Cyclones in the south Indian Ocean
c) Typhoons in the Indian Ocean
d) Hurricanes in the Atlantic
Explanation
Nil

With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated?

a) NS
b) ST
c) CU
d) CB
Explanation
Nil
Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of the tropical
oceans?
a) Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea
b) Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive windshear with increase
of height
c) Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the Trade Winds’ long sea
passage
d) Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation
Explanation
Nil
036-039 Global Climatology

Refer to Diagram 26
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone T is an area
of:
a) travelling low pressure systems
b) NE trade winds
c) SE trade winds
d) subtropical high pressure systems
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 26
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone U is in area
of:
a) SW trade winds
b) travelling depressions
c) subtropical high pressure
d) NE trade winds
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 26
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic and wind circulation, zone Y is an area
of:
a) SE trade winds
b) subtropical high pressure systems
c) NE trade winds
d) travelling low pressure systems
Explanation
These are also known as Polar Front Depressions or Temperate Depressions or even warm
sector depressions

Refer to Diagram 26
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation the travelling low pressure
systems are applicable to zone(s):
a) S and Y
b) T only
c) T and X
d) U and W
Explanation
Travelling Lows are the same as the Polar Front Depressions
Refer to Diagram 26
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind circulation, the SE trade winds are
applicable to zone:
a) U
b) V
c) T
d) W
Explanation
Nil

At about what average geographical latitude is assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?
a) 50°N
b) 30°N
c) 10°N
d) 80°N
Explanation
Nil

At approximately what latitude would you expect to find the large warm sub-tropical
anticyclones?
a) 10°
b) 60°
c) 50°
d) 30°
Explanation
The subtropical high pressure belt moves between approximately 20° and 40° latitude

Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the Northern Hemisphere subtropical high-
pressure belt?
a) 25°N - 40°N
b) 10°N - 25°N
c) 35°N - 55°N
d) 55°N - 75°N
Explanation
Nil

Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low pressure systems
in summer?
a) 55°N - 70°N
b) 25°N - 35°N
c) 35°N - 50°N
d) 10°N - 35°N
Explanation
Remember than in the summer months (regardless of hemisphere) the weather systems are at
the higher latitude of the latitude band they normally occupy
From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
a) NE
b) N
c) SW
d) SE
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 27
In area L and M, the main wet seasons will be:
a) in January/February
b) in November/December
c) at the equinoxes
d) in July/August
Explanation
In July and August the equatorial low pressure belt or ITCZ will have moved into the northern
hemisphere

Refer to Diagram 27
In area N there will mainly be:
a) polar front weather
b) anticyclonic desert areas
c) extensive winter rains
d) dry summers and wet winters
Explanation
This area is approximately from 30° to 45°, and the main pressure system here is the sub
tropical high pressure belt

Refer to Diagram 27
In areas O and P the main weather factor will be:
a) temperatures usually around 0°C
b) monsoon weather
c) polar front depressions
d) depressions in summer, anticyclones in winter
Explanation
P is the latitude band from approximately 45° to 75°. Within this band are found the polar front
depressions

Refer to Diagram 27
In area Q the climate will include:
a) polar front depressions
b) good visibility throughout the year
c) cold anticyclonic weather
d) Antarctic polar high
Explanation
This is the location of the Polar Highs
Northern hemisphere summers tend to be:
a) colder than in the southern hemisphere due to the smaller amount of solar radiation
b) warmer than in the southern hemisphere and the winters are colder
c) colder than in the southern hemisphere because of the large land masses
d) warmer than in the southern hemisphere and winters are warmer too
Explanation
This is because the Northern Hemisphere has a lot more land which will warm up and more and
cool down more

Polar Front Depressions are found at the junction of which large scale atmospheric circulation
cells?
a) The Ferrel and Hadley Cells
b) The Ferrel Cells
c) The Hadley Cells
d) The Ferrel and Polar Cells
Explanation
Nil

The areas of greatest annual rainfall are:

a) in the region dominated by the polar front depressions
b) in the Equatorial regions
c) in the polar regions
d) in central North America in summer due to the large convective cloud formations
Explanation
Nil

The basic climate in winter and summer for the Mediterranean is:
a) wet, cool winters and warm, dry summers
b) rain at all seasons, but temperatures relatively warm
c) warm at all times of the year, rain in winter
d) cold dry winters, warm wet summers
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 25
The dotted line labelled Z represents the:
a) northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January
b) mean position of the inter tropical front (ITCZ) during January
c) northerly limit of the sub tropical jet stream during July
d) mean position of the inter tropical front (ITCZ) during July
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 25
The dotted line labelled Y represents the:
a) mean position of the temperate/tropical front during July
b) mean position of the inter tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January
c) axis of the subtropical jet stream during January
d) mean position of the inter tropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July
Explanation
Nil
The Equatorial Low Pressure Belt is found at the junction of which large scale atmospheric
circulation cells?
a) The Ferrel and Polar Cells
b) The Hadley Cells
c) The Ferrel and Hadley Cells
d) The Ferrel Cells
Explanation
Nil

The Hadley Cells are:

a) the warm air cells which circulate in mid latitudes
b) the warm air circulation cells found in the equatorial latitudes
c) the cold air cells which circulate near the poles
d) the cold air circulation cells either side of the ITCZ
Explanation
Nil

The ITCZ is:

a) a region of calm winds and layer type clouds with much haze
b) the boundary between polar air and equatorial air
c) the boundary region between the two monsoons
d) the region between the two trade wind systems centred on the heat equator
Explanation
Nil

The movement of the Equatorial low pressure belt up to the month of July is:
a) towards the Northern Hemisphere
b) from the Southern Hemisphere arid zone to the Northern Hemisphere arid zone
c) from north to south
d) towards the Southern Hemisphere
Explanation
Nil

The position of the ITCZ in July is:

a) south of the equator and in the Darwin area in Australia
b) north of the equator and generally at a lower latitude over land than over sea
c) never more than 20 degrees of latitude north over China
d) north of the equator and generally at a higher latitude over land than over sea
Explanation
Nil

The strong westerly surface winds at 40°S are called:

a) Polar Easterlies
b) Southerly Busters
c) the Furious Fifties
d) the Roaring Forties
Explanation
Nil
Trade winds in the southern hemisphere are:
a) southeast at first becoming southwest
b) usually from the northeast
c) in opposition to the monsoons
d) south-easterly
Explanation
Nil

Trade winds:
a) blow towards the equatorial low pressure systems from the sub-tropical highs
b) blow towards the sub tropical anticyclones
c) only blow in the winter months
d) blow from the equatorial low pressure systems throughout the year
Explanation
Nil

What are the expected surface wind directions 10°N of the Equator in accordance with the
idealized air circulation?
a) North-easterly
b) Westerly
c) South-easterly
d) Easterly
Explanation
Nil

What climatic zone would have the lowest humidity?

a) Savannah zone
b) Arid zone
c) Warm temperate zone
d) Equatorial zone
Explanation
Nil

What is the general surface wind pattern within the sub-tropical high pressure belt?
a) Easterlies
b) Light and variable
c) Light westerlies
d) Strong westerlies
Explanation
Nil

What is the name given to the belt of low pressure found in each hemisphere at about 50°
latitude?
a) Equatorial low pressure belt
b) The ITCZ
c) Polar front depressions
d) Polar air depressions
Explanation
Nil
What is the name given to the surface wind pattern at the junction of the trade winds?
a) Doldrums
b) Horse Latitudes
c) Roaring Forties
d) Furious Fifties
Explanation
Nil

What is the name given to the area in and around the sub tropical high pressure belt in the
Atlantic Ocean in the Northern Hemisphere?
a) Horse Latitudes
b) Doldrums
c) Roaring Forties
d) Polar Easterlies
Explanation
Nil

What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high pressure belt and
the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ)?
a) Trade winds
b) Westerly winds
c) Monsoon
d) Doldrums
Explanation
Nil

What pressure systems are found between the Polar and Ferrel Cells?
a) Sub tropical highs
b) Polar front depressions
c) Equatorial low pressures
d) Polar air depressions
Explanation
Nil

What pressure systems exist between the Hadley and Ferrel Cells?
a) Cold highs
b) Warm lows
c) Polar highs
d) Warm sub tropical highs
Explanation
Nil

What surface winds converge at the ITCZ?

a) Doldrums
b) The monsoons
c) The trade winds
d) The Roaring Forties
Explanation
Nil
What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?
a) Frontal weather
b) Clear skies
c) Continuous rain
d) Thunderstorms and rain
Explanation
The Easterly waves is basically the waves of weather on the ITCZ that move from East to West

What weather system might you typically find between 45° and 65°N?
a) Sub tropical highs
b) Polar front lows
c) ITCZ
d) Polar high pressure
Explanation
Nil

When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?

a) December to February and July to October
b) March to May and August to October
c) March to May and October to November
d) April to July and December to February
Explanation
Nil

Which climatic zone would have the highest diurnal variation in temperature?
a) Arid
b) Warm temperate
c) Equatorial humid
d) Cold temperate
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following best describes the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone?
a) The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics
b) The zone where the Harmattan meets the north-easterly trade winds over Africa
c) The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt
d) The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the southern
hemisphere
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following statements concerning the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is true?
a) It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity
b) It does not change its position over the oceans during the year
c) There are frequent occurrences of CB
d) It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in
January
Explanation
Nil
Which of the following statements is true regarding the trade winds?
a) They blow in the lower troposphere and are faster over the sea
b) They blow in the lower troposphere and are slower over the sea
c) They blow in the upper troposphere and are slower over the sea
d) They blow in the upper troposphere and are faster over the sea
Explanation
Nil

Which one of the following statements regarding the Tropical Convergence Zone is correct?
a) Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ
b) The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream
c) Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of the ITCZ
d) The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year
Explanation
Nil
042-044 Area Climatology

A dry, sand- and dust-laden north-easterly wind that blows in winter over large parts of North
West Africa is known as the:
a) Pamperos
b) Sirocco
c) Khamsin
d) Harmattan
Explanation
The Harmattan is a dry, dusty wind blowing south off the Sahara into the Gulf of Guinea
between November and March (winter). On its passage over the desert it picks up fine dust
particles (between 0.5 and 10 micrometres). In some countries in West Africa, the heavy
amount of dust in the air can severely limit visibility and block the sun for several days,
comparable to a heavy fog. The effect caused by the dust and sand stirred by these winds is
known as the Harmattan Haze, and costs airlines millions in cancelled and diverted flights each
year

Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the:
a) SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January
b) SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
c) SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January
d) NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
Explanation
Nil

Comparing the temperatures at London and Munich in winter:

a) The range of temperatures day to night will be greater at London because of the effect of
the sea
b) Munich will be warmer because its latitude is further south
c) Munich will be much colder being in the centre of the land mass
d) Both locations are affected by the Siberian high and therefore temperatures are similar
Explanation
Nil

The Harmattan is a:
a) NE wind affecting north-west Africa during November to April reducing visibility in rising
dust
b) SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West African
coast south of 15
c) warm southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa
d) localised depression giving squally winds
Explanation
Nil
Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjacent land areas
during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are:
a) the Azores low and Icelandic high
b) the Scandinavian high and Azores high
c) the Azores high and weak low over NE Canada
d) a weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high
Explanation
Nil

Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N together with the adjacent land
areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the surface is:
a) Azores, Siberia
b) Greenland, Iberian peninsula
c) Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
d) NE Canada, Iceland
Explanation
Nil

Dust storms and haze are most common:

a) with the Haboobs in winter
b) in association with the sub tropical anticyclones over land
c) in temperate latitudes
d) in unstable air with low pressure
Explanation
Nil

What are the flight hazards associated with the Harmattan?

a) Sand up to FL 150
b) Dust and poor visibility
c) Thunderstorms
d) Hail
Explanation
In some countries in West Africa, the heavy amount of dust in the air can severely limit visibility
and block the sun for several days, comparable to a heavy fog. The effect caused by the dust
and sand stirred by these winds is known as the Harmattan Haze, and costs airlines millions in
cancelled and diverted flights each year

If you are approaching Bombay in India (19°N) in August what will be the expected weather?
a) Haze
b) Strong land breezes
c) Thunderstorms
d) Clear skies
Explanation
The ITCZ will be almost completely over the Indian sub-continent
In Equatorial East Africa, which of the following statements is true?
a) It has one wet season
b) It has two wet seasons
c) It is dry from March to May
d) It is frequently affected by dust storms from the Sudan
Explanation
Nil

In January, Bombay, India (19°N) is mainly experiencing:

a) the NE Monsoon
b) the NE trade winds
c) the SW monsoon
d) the Khamsin
Explanation
In winter the Asian land mass will be a high pressure and therefore the air will leave the
continent towards the ITCZ which is in the Southern Hemisphere

In September when flying west of Dakar in the Atlantic Ocean, which weather feature would you
consider most worthy of extra caution?
a) Possible Cyclones
b) Possible Hurricanes
c) The easterly wave
d) The westerly wave
Explanation
Nil

In summer, the climate for Northwest Europe is (Spain, France Germany etc.):
a) is affected by the Azores anticyclone extensions giving good weather apart from some
occasional thermal lows
b) is clear and sunny with the Siberian high being the main pressure influence
c) is dominated by polar front depressions
d) is good apart from some warm frontal weather moving north from the Mediterranean
Explanation
Nil

In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing winds are:
a) SE trade winds
b) NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
c) SW winds throughout the whole year
d) NE trade winds
Explanation
Nil

Over mainland Europe in winter, the outflow from the Siberian High can provide an easterly
airflow giving:
a) widespread ST with poor visibility
b) CU, CB and heavy snow showers
c) thunderstorms with snow and hail
d) very cold clear weather
Explanation
Nil
Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following statement in relation
to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N.
During winter the predominant mean low pressure system at the surface is usually centred over:
a) Siberia
b) Iceland / Greenland
c) Azores
d) USA
Explanation
Nil

The bands of active cloud moving from east to west over West Africa are called:
a) the Westerly wave
b) the Easterly wave
c) the Monsoon wave
d) the Trough wave
Explanation
Nil

The Bora is a:
a) cold Katabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
b) cold Katabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
c) squally warm Katabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
d) cold Katabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
Explanation
Nil

The Bora is a:
a) wind found in France blowing into the Mediterranean
b) wind blowing from Africa into the Mediterranean in winter
c) gusty cold wind blowing downhill into the Adriatic
d) gusty warm wind blowing uphill
Explanation
Nil

The cyclones off Bombay:

a) occur over the land because of intense surface heating
b) occur in winter
c) are not particularly active
d) are formed in the warm sea in the Indian Ocean in late summer
Explanation
Nil

The driving force of the weather around Indonesia (6°N to 11°S) is:
a) the easterly upper winds in the Singapore region
b) the varying positions of the ITCZ
c) tropical revolving storms
d) the dry dusty conditions around Darwin
Explanation
Nil
The general surface flow of air is:
a) towards the Mediterranean basin in winter
b) towards the Mediterranean basin in summer
c) westwards into the Mediterranean basin in summer and eastwards into the basin in
winter
d) westwards from the Atlantic throughout the year
Explanation
The Med. in winter becomes a general low pressure zone because the sea is warmer than the
adjacent land masses. This creates the Mediterranean Front

The Harmattan:
a) is frequently characterised by active cumuliform development
b) is a dry dusty north easterly wind over West Africa
c) is a moist south westerly wind
d) is a south west monsoon in West Africa
Explanation
The Harmattan is a dry and dusty north east wind off the Sahara between November and March
(winter). The effect caused by the dust and sand stirred by these winds is known as the
Harmattan Haze, and costs airlines millions in cancelled and diverted flights each year

The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone particularly affects:

a) the Atlantic Ocean, between latitudes 10°N and 30°N, depending on the time of year
b) western Africa, where it is situated between the 10°N and 30°N parallels, depending on
the time of the year
c) western Africa, at a latitude of 25°N in July
d) western Africa between 10° and 20°N and the northern coasts of the Arabian Sea in July
Explanation
Nil

The Khamsin:
a) is a spring and summer wind
b) blows in the region of Gibraltar
c) is a dusty wind from the east
d) is a southerly wind with dust and haze
Explanation
The Khamsin is a cyclonic type wind that is common in Egypt and Sudan towards the end of
March and April of each year. Hot weather ensues, as well as sandstorms

The low pressures in the Mediterranean which lead to creation of the Sirocco are found where in
relation to the Sirocco wind?
a) South
b) East
c) North
d) West
Explanation
Nil
The main low pressure system(s) affecting the North Atlantic in winter is/are:
a) polar air depressions
b) North American low
c) Siberian low
d) polar front depressions
Explanation
Nil

The main pressure systems affecting North West Europe are:

a) polar front depressions, the Asian low, and the Azores low
b) polar front depressions and the Asian low
c) polar front depressions, the Siberian high, and the Azores anticyclone
d) polar front depressions and the American high
Explanation
Nil

The main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic (0° to 65°N) in summer are:
a) North American high, polar front lows, and Azores high
b) polar front depressions
c) polar front depressions, Azores high, and tropical revolving storms in the Caribbean
region
d) North American high, Azores high, and tropical revolving storms in the southwest
Explanation
Nil

The main weather features in January in Australia are:

a) dry dusty conditions in the north, and convective CU, CB and thunderstorms in the south
b) large CU due to insolation in the north, southeast trade wind conditions in the south
c) tropical revolving storms moving northwards along the east coast
d) ITCZ in the north with North West Monsoon, cold frontal troughs in the south with
Southerly Busters
Explanation
Nil

The Mistral:
a) is a summer wind from the north
b) blows down the Rhone Valley
c) is a north-easterly winter wind affecting the central Mediterranean area in winter
d) blows from the northeast exclusively in the Adriatic, gusting to 100 kts
Explanation
In the case of the Mistral, air is cooled above the Massif Central, central mountains of France,
and the Alps. It then flows down into the Rhône valley, because its density is higher than that of
the surrounding air. The presence of the Rhône valley creates a funnel effect, speeding up the
current towards the Gulf
The one pressure system which has the greatest influence on the summer weather in the
Mediterranean is?
a) The Siberian high
b) The sub tropical high over the Sahara
c) Polar front depressions
d) The Azores anticyclone
Explanation
It is this system that brings the fine clear weather over southern Europe and the Med in summer

The position of the ITCZ over Africa is:

a) over Dakar and Khartoum in July
b) over Zimbabwe in May
c) over the Sudan in March
d) over Kenya in January
Explanation
Nil

The Sirocco is a wind that:

a) blows from the south, is dust-laden and can extend into southern Europe
b) only found in winter blowing down the leeward slopes of the Alps
c) blows from the north over Europe and extends into northern Africa
d) blows westwards across the Mediterranean and is dust-laden
Explanation
The Sirocco is a Mediterranean wind that comes from the Sahara and can reach hurricane
speeds in North Africa and Southern Europe. The Sirocco causes dusty, dry conditions along
the northern coast of Africa, storms in the Mediterranean Sea, and cold, wet weather in Europe

The Southerly Busters in Australia are:

a) cold southerly winds behind an active cold front
b) southeast trade winds
c) southeast trade winds affecting the Sydney area only
d) southerly winds affecting the area from Sydney northwards
Explanation
Southerly is the name of a storm or front of air coming from the south. These can be cold and
have bad weather. In Australia these events are known as Southerly Busters

The Southwest Monsoon:

a) causes haze
b) occurs in the winter
c) is usually very stable
d) occurs in summer
Explanation
Nil

The winter outflow from the Siberian high over the Indian sub-continent:
a) is the origin of the South West Monsoon
b) is very unstable
c) is the origin of the North East Monsoon
d) is a warm moist flow of air
Explanation
Nil
Thunderstorms most frequently occur:
a) over southern Africa in winter
b) in association with the Harmattan
c) in regions affected by cold fronts
d) over southern Asia in summer due to the intense surface heating
Explanation
Nil

Tropical revolving storms in Australia:

a) form on the ITCZ just north of the continent in late summer
b) affect the Brisbane area in July
c) affect the Sydney area in January
d) affect the north in July
Explanation
Nil

Weather conditions at Bombay (India) during early July are mainly influenced by the:
a) SW monsoon
b) NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ
c) passage of frontal system generated in the south Indian ocean
d) high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the Persian Gulf
Explanation
Nil

Weather conditions at Bombay (India) during January are mainly influenced by the:
a) SW monsoon
b) NW monsoon
c) SE monsoon
d) NE monsoon
Explanation
Nil

What is characteristic of the Pamperos?

a) Föhn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees
b) A marked advance of cold arctic air in North America
c) A marked advance of cold air in South America
d) Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains
Explanation
The Pampero is a west or southwest wind in Southern Argentina. This wind (often violently)
picks up during the passage of a cold front of an active low passing by

What is the characteristic of the winter weather in the Mediterranean Sea?

a) The Mediterranean High
b) The Mediterranean front with active cloud formations
c) Poor visibility from stable conditions
d) Hot and dry
Explanation
Nil
What is the key feature of the North East Monsoon over Asia?
a) Cool and moist
b) Cool and dry
c) Hot and dry
d) Warm and moist
Explanation
Nil

What is the key feature of the North West Monsoon in the Indian Ocean?
a) Cool and moist
b) Cool and dry
c) Hot and dry
d) Warm and moist
Explanation
The north west monsoon is the result of the north east monsoon after it crosses the equator and
coriolis force changes the direction of the wind. It is now over much warm water thus it is warm
and moist

What is the key feature of the South West Monsoon over Asia?
a) Warm and moist
b) Cool and dry
c) Cool and moist
d) Hot and dry
Explanation
Nil

What is the name of the hot, local wind that blows downwards from mountain chains? In the
Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind depending on the weather
situation.
a) Föhn
b) Mistral
c) Sirocco
d) Bora
Explanation
Nil

What is the name of the wind or air mass which gives to the main part of India its greatest
proportion of precipitation?
a) SW Monsoon
b) SE trade wind
c) Winter monsoon
d) Indian, maritime tropical air mass
Explanation
Nil
What is the predominant characteristic of the summer weather in North West Africa (0 - 10°N)?
a) SW Monsoon
b) Dust haze
c) Stability
d) Tornadoes
Explanation
Nil

What is the predominant characteristic of the winter weather in North West Africa (5° to 15°N)?
a) Tornadoes
b) CU and CB with frequent thunderstorms
c) Poor visibility from the NE Trade Winds
d) SW Monsoon
Explanation
Nil

What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern Adriatic coast,
mainly during the winter and spring called?
a) Sirocco
b) Ghibli
c) Bora
d) Mistral
Explanation
Nil

What are the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the Equatorial region?
a) Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout
the year
b) Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the frequency is highest in January
c) Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The
greatest intensity is in July
d) Rain showers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but frequency is
highest during two periods: April-May and October-November
Explanation
Nil

What pressure system dominates the Asian continent in winter?

a) The ITCZ
b) Asian Low
c) Siberian High
d) Siberian Low
Explanation
Nil

What synoptic condition increases the effects of the Sirocco?

a) High pressure system over the Mediterranean
b) Low pressure system over the Mediterranean
c) Azores high extending over the Mediterranean
d) A deep low centred about north Africa
Explanation
Nil
What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?
a) Stratus and drizzle
b) Sandstorms
c) Fog
d) Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain
Explanation
Nil

What weather conditions are most likely to affect an approach to Dakar (West Africa) during
July?
a) Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the Harmattan
b) Wet and thundery due to the proximity of the ITCZ
c) Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure system
d) Generally clear skies, NW trade winds
Explanation
Nil

What weather hazard might be expected in summer at Darwin, Australia?

a) Poor visibility from haze
b) Thunderstorms and cyclones
c) SW Monsoon bringing active thunderstorms
d) On-shore breezes giving extensive fog and low cloud
Explanation
Remember that in the Southern Hemisphere summer (December, Jan, Feb March) the ITCZ lies
across the northern coasts of Australia

What weather might you expect just off the south coast of Australia?
a) Thermal thunderstorms
b) Cold but clear weather form the Antarctic High
c) Frequent polar front depressions
d) Haze from the high pressure in central Australia
Explanation
Nil

What weather might you expect on a flight in summer over Florida?

a) Typhoons
b) Thermal thunderstorms during late afternoon
c) Haze
d) Clear skies from the nearby Bermuda High
Explanation
Nil

What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon regions of the
Indian subcontinent?
a) North-easterly winds bringing dry and hazy air
b) South-easterly winds carrying warm and humid air
c) South-westerly winds carrying warm and humid air
d) North-westerly winds bringing dry and hazy air
Explanation
Nil
What would be the typical weather expected over Dakar in West Africa in summer:
a) Dry and dusty from the winds off the Sahara
b) Active cumuliform clouds from the ITCZ and the south west monsoons
c) Cool and moist from the onshore breeze coming in off the Atlantic
d) Hot and hazy from the nearby sub tropical high pressure
Explanation
Nil

When flying in the North Indian Ocean, at what time of year would you be especially vigilant for
weather?
a) Spring and summer
b) December to January
c) June to August
d) Winter
Explanation
This is the time of the Summer Monsoon but also more importantly the start time for cyclones

When might you expect cyclones to affect South East Africa?

a) June to September
b) November to March
c) Spring
d) April to August
Explanation
The TRSs in the southern Indian Ocean which affect South East Africa are in the Southern
Hemisphere and therefore their summer is our winter

Where is the ITCZ in January?

a) Mostly south of the Equator
b) North of 10°S
c) At 40°N
d) Equally in both hemispheres
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following statements apply to tropical revolving storms which affect the coast of
Florida?
a) They are called typhoons and occur mainly from June to November
b) They are called hurricanes and occur from January to May
c) They are called hurricanes and occur mainly from August to October
d) They are called cyclones and occur from January to March
Explanation
Nil
With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the weather likely to be
experienced is:
a) strong wind with subsidence at low levels
b) strong wind shear, convection and snow showers
c) light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
d) strong wind associated with an almost clear sky
Explanation
Nil
045 Satellite Observations

Approximately how many times a day does a Polar orbiting satellite orbit the earth?
a) 4
b) 14
c) 1
d) 20
Explanation
Nil

What does weather radar primarily aim to pick up for use in weather avoidance?
a) Lightning
b) Precipitation
c) Super cooled water droplets
d) Flocking birds
Explanation
Nil
050-051 METARs and TAFs

METARs

At airfields, clouds are reported above what datum?

a) The standard pressure level in ISA
b) Above aerodrome level
c) Above mean sea level
d) Above the pressure level
Explanation
Nil

Does the following report make sense?

LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG
a) The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2°C and a dew point of 2°C
there must be uniform fog
b) The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog below eye
level
c) The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the
meteorological visibility is more than 2 km
d) The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a meteorological visibility of
5 km if shallow fog is reported
Explanation
Nil

How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid?

a) 30 min
b) 9 hrs
c) 1 hr
d) 2 hrs
Explanation
Nil

How would 4 oktas of cloud at 800 ft be shown on a METAR?

a) FEW008
b) BKN080
c) FEW800
d) SCT008
Explanation
Nil

If the observer were to report smoke at an airfield, how would this be coded in a METAR?
a) VA
b) SM
c) PO
d) FU
Explanation
Nil
In a METAR what is meant by the letter 'U' at the end of an RVR visibility report?
a) Increasing tendency within the 10 minutes preceding the observation
b) No tendency
c) Decreasing tendency within the 10 minutes preceding the observation
d) Decreasing tendency within the 10 minutes after the observation
Explanation
Nil

In a METAR when would a gust be reported?

a) When the maximum gust speed exceeds the mean by 15 kts or more
b) When the minimum gust speed exceeds the mean by 15 kts or more
c) When the maximum gust speed exceeds the mean by 10 kts or more
d) When the mean gust speed exceeds the mean by 10 kts or more
Explanation
Nil

In a METAR you see cloud reported as "FEW045".What does this mean?

a) 3 to 4 oktas at 45 ft
b) 5 to 7 oktas at 4,500 ft
c) 1 to 4 oktas at 450 ft
d) 1 to 2 oktas at 4,500 ft
Explanation
Nil

In a METAR you see the weather code "SG". What does this mean?
a) Soft hail
b) Snow
c) Snow grains
d) Small hail
Explanation
Nil

In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the:

a) QFE rounded to the nearest hPa
b) QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa
c) QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa
d) QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa
Explanation
Nil

In which of the following METAR reports is the probability of fog formation in the coming night
the highest?
a) 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
b) 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =
c) 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
d) 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
Explanation
Winds are light, not much cloud, temperature and dew point are very close and visibility is
decreasing (BECMG 1600)
In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were taken:
160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG=
160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG=
161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG=
161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG=
161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG 25020G40KT TS=
161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 Q1002 NOSIG=
161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG=
What do you conclude based on these observations?
a) A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late
afternoon
b) A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during late
afternoon
c) Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station
d) A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late
afternoon
Explanation
The beginning of the report is Heavy Rain (NOT showers) and low cloud so you must be just
ahead of the warm front. Then you pass through it, so you’re in the warm sector, notice the
temperature rises rapidly and stays high and cloud stays regular. Then cold front comes, see all
the thunderstorms and gusty winds and notice the temperature suddenly fall

Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for
1600 UTC:
AJACCIO: wind 360/02, visibility 2,000 m, rain, BKN stratocumulus at 1,000 ft, OVC altostratus
at 8,000 ft, QNH 1023 hPa
CALVI: wind 040/02, visibility 3,000 m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 ft, SCT stratocumulus at 2,000
ft, OVC altostratus at 9,000 ft, QNH 1023 hPa
The ceilings are therefore:
a) 1,000 ft at Ajaccio 500 ft at Calvi
b) 1,000 ft at Ajaccio 2,000 ft at Calvi
c) 8,000 ft at Ajaccio 9,000 ft at Calvi
d) 1,000 ft at Ajaccio 9,000 ft at Calvi
Explanation
Nil

On the European continent, METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed with
intervals of:
a) 2 hrs
b) 30 mins
c) 3 hrs
d) 1 hr
Explanation
Nil
Runway Visual Range (RVR) is:
a) reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2,000 m
b) measured with ceilometers alongside the runway
c) usually better than meteorological visibility
d) reported in both TAFs and METARs
Explanation
Nil

RVR can be reported in:

a) SIGMETs
b) both TAFs and METARs
c) TAFs
d) METARs
Explanation
Nil

The weather code VCFG would imply that there is:

a) varying fog banks
b) fog in the vicinity of the aerodrome
c) fog patches
d) partial fog
Explanation
Nil

Using the following METAR, which of the statements is correct?

EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025
NOSIG =
a) RVR on runway 26R is increasing
b) Visibility is reduced by water droplets
c) Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
d) There is a distinct change in RVR observed
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 28
What METAR would be expected at LFPO around 0550 UTC?
a) 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA =
b) 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW =
c) 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG =
d) 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG =
Explanation
Paris is about to get hit by a warm front, therefore low cloud, lots of rain (not showery!), looking
at the isobars the wind is about from the SW

What are the only types of cloud that are included in a METAR?
a) Only significant convective clouds
b) All cloud types
c) Only significant clouds
d) Only cumulus clouds
Explanation
Nil
What does '0000' imply in a METAR?
a) Calm wind
b) Visibility less than 50 metres
c) An error in the METAR message
d) Cloud ceiling is undeterminable
Explanation
Be careful: "00000" means winds are calm

What does a METAR stand for?

a) Meteorological terminal aerodrome report
b) Aviation weather report
c) Meteorological aerodrome report
d) Terminal aerodrome forecast
Explanation
Nil

What does R24/M0050 mean?

a) The RVR is below the minimum assessed value of 50 m
b) The RVR is below the maximum assessed value of 500 m
c) The RVR is more than 50 m
d) A manual reading of 50 m has been reported
Explanation
Nil

What does the abbreviation "NOSIG" mean?

a) No report received
b) No weather related problems
c) Not signed by the meteorologist
d) No significant changes
Explanation
Nil

What does the code "MIFG" mean in a METAR?

a) Mist and fog
b) Shallow fog
c) Minimal fog
d) Freezing fog
Explanation
Nil

What does the code "SKC" imply?

a) No significant weather
b) No significant change
c) No significant cloud
d) Sky clear
Explanation
Nil
What does the code VV003 mean in a METAR?
a) The wind is 003°
b) Vertical visibility is 300 ft
c) The wind is 3 kts
d) Vertical visibility is 300 m
Explanation
Nil

What does the coding '00000' imply in METAR?

a) Cloud ceiling is undeterminable
b) Calm wind
c) Nil visibility
d) An error in the METAR message
Explanation
Nil

What does the term METAR signify?

a) A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR
b) A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued in
half-hourly intervals
c) A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic
report
d) A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
Explanation
Nil

What is a SPECI?
a) A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the
weather conditions have been observed
b) An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours
c) A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required
d) A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours
Explanation
Nil

What is a trend forecast?

a) A route forecast valid for 24 hours
b) A routine report
c) An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
d) A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours
Explanation
Nil

What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?

a) The actual speed at the time of recording
b) The strongest gust in the previous hour
c) The average wind speed in the previous 30 minutes
d) The average wind speed in the previous 10 minutes
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 3
What METAR would be expected at LFPO?
a) 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA =
b) 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW =
c) 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG =
d) 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG =
Explanation
Nil

When an intensity qualifier is used for a weather phenomenon, how would moderate intensity be
shown?
a) A minus (-) symbol is used
b) No qualifier is used
c) A greater than symbol (>) is used
d) A plus symbol (+) is used
Explanation
Nil

When reporting temperature, how would a dry air temperature of minus 1.5 and a dew point of
minus 2.3 be shown in a METAR?
a) M01/M02
b) 01/02
c) M02/M03
d) M01/M03
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning?

a) BCFG
b) SA
c) FG
d) +RA
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR below?

25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW =
a) Wind 250°, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
b) Mean wind speed 20-38 kts, meteorological visibility 1,200 m, temperature 23°C
c) Broken, cloud base 600 ft and 1,500 ft, temperature 18°C
d) Gusts of 38 kts, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18°C
Explanation
Nil
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR below?
00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 M03/M03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
a) Meteorological visibility 200 ft, RVR for runway 16 more than 1,500 m, vertical visibility
100 ft, fog with hoar frost
b) Meteorological visibility 200 m, RVR for runway 16 1,500 m, temperature -3°C, vertical
visibility 100 m
c) Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 m, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
more than 1,500 m
d) RVR for runway 14 800 m, vertical visibility 100 ft, calm, meteorological visibility
improving to 800 m in the next 2 hours
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated
to "CAVOK"?
(MSA above ground: LSZB 10,000 ft, LSZH 8,000 ft, LSGG 12,000 ft, LFSB 6,000 ft)
a) LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =
b) LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =
c) LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
d) LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =
Explanation
CAVOK RULE: No significant weather, no CB's, vis >10 km, no cloud below 5,000 ft or MSA.
Students usually forget this last rule about cloud and MSA

Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated
to "CAVOK"?
a) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =
b) 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
c) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =
d) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =
Explanation
Winds are not part of the CAVOK rule so this is report is CAVOK

Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated
to "CAVOK"?
(MSA above ground: LSZB 10,000 ft, LSZH 8,000 ft, LSGG 12,000 ft, LFSB 6,000 ft)
a) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
b) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
c) LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
d) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =
Explanation
CAVOK RULE: No significant weather, no CB's, vis >10 km, no cloud below 5,000 ft or MSA.
Students usually forget this last rule about cloud and MSA
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the regulations, abbreviated
to "CAVOK"?
a) 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =
b) 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =
c) 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 =
d) 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG =
Explanation
CAVOK RULE: No significant weather, no CB's, vis >10 km, no cloud below 5,000 ft or MSA.
Students usually forget this last rule about cloud and MSA

Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following METAR?
16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 =
a) RVR for runway 16 1,000 m, meteorological visibility increasing in the next 2 hours to
2,000 m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2°C
b) Meteorological visibility 1,000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds,
temperature 2°C
c) Meteorological visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1,000 m, dew point -2°C, freezing fog
d) RVR for runway 14 1,500 m, meteorological visibility 400 m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160°
at 3 kts
Explanation
Nil

Which of the weather codes below would be used to describe a type of precipitation?
a) SH
b) GR
c) TS
d) SA
Explanation
Nil

Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the next few
hours?
a) 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =
b) 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/M02 Q1008 NOSIG =
c) 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =
d) 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =
Explanation
TEMPO TS

Wind directions in a METAR are usually given in?

a) Degrees Magnetic rounded to the nearest 10 degrees
b) Degrees Magnetic rounded to the nearest 5 degrees
c) Degrees True rounded to the nearest whole degree
d) Degrees True rounded to the nearest 10 degrees
Explanation
Nil
You receive the following METAR:
LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG =
What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?
a) 900 m
b) 300 m
c) 700 m
d) The RVR is unknown, because the "NOSIG" does not refer to RVR
Explanation
NOSIG only refers to the variables in wind, horizontal visibility, present weather, clouds or
vertical visibility

TAFs

Refer to Diagram 3
At which airport is the following weather development taking place?
TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000
OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 =
a) LFPO
b) ESSA
c) EDDL
d) EKCH
Explanation
The TAF is basically saying the cloud base is falling, the vis is getting worse, the wind is slightly
backing, and precipitation is starting, these are the conditions of the approaching front

Refer to the TAF below.

TAF LSZH 021019 18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 SCT015 OVC020
PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10KTG25 TSRA BRN015 OVC020 =
Which of the following aviation hazards can be expected when landing at 1500UTC?
a) Mountain waves associated with the strong wind
b) Strong anabatic winds blowing along the valley
c) Strong windshear
d) Low cloud
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the TAF below.

EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN
BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KT
What will be the visibility at 2055 UTC?
a) Not less than 1.5 km but could be in excess of 10 km
b) Maximum 5 km
c) A minimum of 1.5 km and a maximum of 5 km
d) More than 10 km
Explanation
Nil
In a TAF, which of the following codes are used to imply a frequent or non frequent fluctuation to
the base conditions, lasting in each instance no more than one hour?
a) TEMPO
b) PROB
c) BECMG
d) FM
Explanation
Nil

In the TAF for Delhi, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note: TEMPO TS.
What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last?
a) 10 mins
b) 120 mins
c) 60 mins
d) 20 mins
Explanation
Nil

In the TAF shown below, what is the issue time?

TAF FAGC 121050 121212
a) 1050 UTC
b) 1212 UTC
c) 1200 UTC
d) 0500 UTC
Explanation
Nil

In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing conditions on the
runway?
a) SIGMET
b) TAF
c) GAFOR
d) METAR
Explanation
Nil

Refer to this TAF for Zurich Airport:

TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO
1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z =
Which of these statements best describes the weather most likely to be experienced at 1500
UTC?
a) Meteorological visibility 10 km or more, main cloud base 3,000 ft, wind 250°,
temperature 18°C
b) Meteorological visibility 4,000 m, gusts up to 25 kts, temperature 18°C
c) Severe rain showers, meteorological visibility 4,000 m, temperature 15°C, gusts up to 35
kts
d) Meteorological visibility 10 km or more, main cloud base 1,200 ft, gusts up to 45 knots
Explanation
Nil
Refer to the following TAF extract;
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation "PROB30" mean?
a) Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes
b) Probability of 30%
c) Change expected in less than 30 minutes
d) The cloud ceiling should lift to 3,000 ft
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
a) 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
b) 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m
c) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m
d) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 ft
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean?
a) RVR greater than 100 m
b) Vertical visibility 100 m
c) RVR less than 100 m
d) Vertical visibility 100 ft
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the "BECMG" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour time frame?
a) The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
b) Many long term changes in the original weather
c) Many short term changes in the original weather
d) A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
a) 500 m
b) 2,000 m
c) Between 500 m and 2,000 m
d) Between 0 m and 1,000 m
Explanation
Nil
Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.
LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015
BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010 =
The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
a) 6 km
b) 10 km
c) 6 nm
d) 4 km
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.

LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015
BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010 =
The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:
a) 1,000 ft
b) 1,500 m
c) 5,000 ft
d) 1,500 ft
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the TAF for Zürich Airport

LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT
2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000 SCT007 =
Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be expected at 1200 UTC?
a) Meteorological visibility 800 m, vertical visibility 200 ft, calm
b) Meteorological visibility 2.5 km, cloud base 500 ft, wind speed 5 kts
c) Meteorological visibility 6 km, cloud base 500 ft, wind speed 5 kts
d) Meteorological visibility 800 m, wind from 230°, cloud base 500 ft
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:

EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013
TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =
What is the lowest forecast cloud base for a 2100 UTC arrival at Amsterdam?
a) 500 m
b) 500 ft
c) 250 ft
d) 800 ft
Explanation
Nil
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport:
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013
TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =
What is the forecast surface wind for a 2100 UTC arrival at Amsterdam?
a) 120/15 gusting 25 kts
b) 140/10
c) 250/20
d) 300/15 maximum wind 25 kts
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.

EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013
TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =
What is the minimum visibility forecast for a 2100 UTC arrival at Amsterdam?
a) 3 km
b) 6 km
c) 5 nm
d) 5 km
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA
BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =
What is the minimum visibility forecast for an 1800 UTC arrival at Bordeaux?
a) 8 nm
b) 10 nm
c) 10 km or more
d) 8 km
Explanation
Nil

Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA
BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =
What type of precipitation is forecast for an 1800 UTC arrival at Bordeaux?
a) Moderate snow showers
b) Continuous moderate rain
c) Light drizzle and fog
d) Heavy rain showers
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 3
The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on October 10.
Which of the following reports reflects weather development at LSZH?
a) TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA
BKN020CB =
b) TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG
BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 =
c) TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT
1600 +SNRA BKN003 OVC015 =
d) TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN
VV002 =
Explanation
Nil

Examine the following weather report

EDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO
2022 0400 FG VV00=
This weather report is a:
a) 24-hour TAF
b) 9-hour TAF
c) SPECI
d) METAR
Explanation
Nil

The validity of a TAF is:

a) between 6 and 9 hours
b) 2 hours
c) stated in the TAF
d) 9 hours from the time of issue
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 24
This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground. Which of the following reports reflects
weather development at Brussels Airport (EBBR)?
a) TAF EBBR 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000
TSRA or +SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 =
b) TAF EBBR 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013
05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 =
c) TAF EBBR 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999
SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
d) TAF EBBR 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA
BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000
SCT030 BKN090 =
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 3
To which aerodrome is the following TAF most applicable?
TAF 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA
SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5000 SHRA BKN020
BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030 =
a) ESSA
b) ENFB
c) LFPG
d) EKCH
Explanation
Nil

What does “AMD” mean in a TAF message?

a) An error in the report
b) An automatically generated TAF
c) An amended TAF
d) A correct TAF
Explanation
Nil

What does an equals (=) sign signify in a TAF?

a) End of TAF message
b) An automatically generated TAF
c) More information to follow
d) An error message
Explanation
Nil

What does “BECMG” imply in a TAF?

a) The weather is becoming better
b) A temporary change in the conditions
c) A change in the base conditions
d) The weather is becoming worse
Explanation
Nil

What does TAF stand for?

a) Meteorological terminal report
b) Terminal aerodrome forecast
c) Aviation selected special report
d) Terminal aerodrome report
Explanation
Nil

What does the code "NSC" mean in a TAF?

a) No significant cloud
b) No stratocumulus
c) No significant change in the weather
d) The sky is clear
Explanation
Nil
What does the code "NSW" mean in a TAF?
a) No significant change
b) Sky is clear
c) No significant weather
d) No significant cloud
Explanation
Nil
052-053 SIGMET, VOLMET and ATIS

EGTT SIGMET SST 01 VALID 310730/311130 EGRR LONDON FIR ISOL CB FCST TOPS
FL370 SST ROUTES W OF W00400 STNR NC =
In the SIGMET message shown above what does the code "SST" stand for?
a) Subsonic and transonic flight levels
b) Subsonic flight levels only
c) Supersonic flight levels only
d) Transonic and supersonic flight levels
Explanation
Nil

EGTT SIGMET SST 1 VALID 310730/311130 EGRR - LONDON FIR ISOL CB FCST TOPS
FL370 SST ROUTES W OF W00400 NC =
What is the expected change in the intensity?
a) Weakening
b) Dissipating
c) Strengthening
d) No change
Explanation
Nil

How would a severe mountain wave be coded in a SIGMET message?

a) SEVERE MNTW
b) SEV MNTW
c) + MTW
d) SEV MTW
Explanation
Nil

In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from Zurich to
Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance at the time:
EINN SHANNON 2808 SIGMET 2 VALID 0800/1100 LOC SEV TURB FCST EINN FIR BLW FL
050 SOUTH OF 53N WKN =
LIMM MILANO 2809 SIGMET 2 VALID 0900/1500 MOD SEV CAT BTN FL 250 AND FL 430
FCST LIMM FIR STNR NC =
EGLL LONDON 2808 SIGMET NR01 VALID 0800/1200 FOR LONDON FIR ISOL CB EMBD IN
LYR CLOUD FCST TOPS FL 300 BTN 52N AND 54N EAST OF 002E SEV ICE SEV TURB TS
ALSO FCST MOV E WKN =
Which of the following decisions is correct?
a) Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250
b) You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be
flown
c) Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at
planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370)
d) You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route
would demand too much of the passengers
Explanation
Nil
In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued?
a) Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome
b) Marked mountain waves
c) Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome
d) A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR
Explanation
Active thunderstorm areas and lines of thunderstorms, Heavy hail, Severe turbulence, Severe
Icing, Marked mountain waves, Hurricanes, Widespread sand or dust storms, Volcanic ash, Low
level windshear. If any of these conditions exist, or area forecast to exist, you can bet a SIGMET
will be issued

LFFF SIGMET 1 VALID 310600/311100 LFPW-UIR FRANCE MOD TURB FCST BLW FL420 W
of 04W MOV E 30KT NC =
In the SIGMET message shown above, what hazard is being forecast?
a) Moderate turbulence below 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving eastwards
b) Turbulence at 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving at 30 knots
c) Moderate turbulence below 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving from the east
d) Moderate turbulence at 42,000 ft west of 4 degrees west and moving eastwards
Explanation
Nil

SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to:

a) heavy aircraft only
b) all aircraft
c) light aircraft only
d) VFR operations only
Explanation
Nil

What does the term SIGMET signify?

a) A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
b) A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
c) A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-
hourly intervals
d) A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following statements is a correct interpretation of the SIGMET?

LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW MOD TO SEV CAT
FCST NORTH OF ALPS BTN FL 260 AND FL 380 / STNR / INTSF =
a) Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps.
Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260
b) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. Intensity
increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380
c) Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this
area above FL 380
d) Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the
Alps
Explanation
Nil
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET?
SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 EMBD TS OBS AND FCST IN W PART OF ATHINAI FIR /
MOV E / INTST NC =
a) Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving
west
b) Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The
thunderstorm zone is moving east
c) Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of
Athens by 1820 UTC
d) The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above
the western part of the Athens FIR
Explanation
Nil

Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be potentially
hazardous to aircraft in flight?
a) ATIS
b) TAF
c) SIGMET
d) SPECI
Explanation
Nil

Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced strong clear air
turbulence in certain airspace. What is the consequence of these reports?
a) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
b) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET
c) The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning
d) The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed
Explanation
Nil

ATIS information contains:

a) only operational information
b) meteorological and operational information
c) only meteorological information
d) operational information and if necessary meteorological information
Explanation
Nil
Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:
TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK =
VOLMET 0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS =
What can be concluded from the differences between the two reports?
a) That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the
latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF
b) That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAF
c) That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
d) That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have predicted
earlier in the morning
Explanation
Nil
054-055 Significant Weather Charts
477 34792,34877,348

A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in:
a) TAF and METAR
b) SWC and SIGMET
c) METAR and SIGMET
d) TAF and SIGMET
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 29
At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over Frankfurt (F)?
a) FL 350
b) FL 240
c) FL 300
d) FL 320
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 29
At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated over northern Scandinavia?
a) FL 300
b) FL 360
c) FL 330
d) FL 320
Explanation
Nil

At what times are WAFC significant weather charts produced?

a) At 0000, 0600, 1200 and 1800 LMT
b) At 0000, 0600, 1200 and 1800 UTC
c) At midnight and midday only
d) At 0000 and 1200 Z
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 30
At which position could you encounter thunderstorms, and what is the maximum height of the
CB clouds?
a) Rome (R) FL 310
b) Madrid (M) FL 250
c) Frankfurt (F) FL 150
d) London (L) FL 300
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 31
You are flying from Munich (M) to London (L). What is the direction and maximum speed of the
jet stream affecting the route between Munich and London?
a) 050° 120 kts
b) 230° 120 m/sec
c) 050° 120 km/hr
d) 220° 120 kts
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 31
You are flying from Shannon (S) to London (L). What amount and type of cloud is forecast for
the eastern sector of the route between Shannon and London at FL 220?
a) Scattered towering cumulus
b) Scattered castellanus
c) Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
d) Very well separated cumulonimbus
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 31
You are flying from Zurich (Z) to Rome (R), ETD 1600 UTC, and ETA 1800 UTC. At what flight
level would you first expect to encounter CAT on the climb out from Zurich?
a) FL 220
b) FL 180
c) FL 280
d) FL 320
Explanation
Nil

How are CB clouds with little or no separation described on the Significant Weather Chart?
a) FREQ CB
b) ISOL CB
c) OCNL CB
d) EMBD CB
Explanation
Nil

How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart?
a) EMBD CB
b) ISOL CB
c) OCNL CB
d) FREQ CB
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 32
If you are flying from Zurich (Z) to Shannon (S) at FL 340, where will your cruising altitude be?
a) Constantly in the troposphere
b) In the stratosphere for part of time
c) Constantly in the stratosphere
d) First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 30
In what height range and at what turbulence intensity could you encounter in CAT Area 2?
a) From FL 250 to FL 320 moderate
b) From FL 220 to FL 350 moderate/severe
c) From below FL 130 to FL 270 light
d) From FL 310 to FL 400 moderate
Explanation
Nil

In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?

a) 300 hPa chart
b) 500 hPa chart
c) Significant Weather Chart
d) 24 hour surface forecast
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 29
Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt (F) would you expect the tropopause to be
located?
a) FL 240
b) FL 350
c) FL 300
d) FL 250
Explanation
You must interpolate here. Frankfurt lies between a 350 and a 260

On WAFC significant weather charts what do the letters "CB" imply?

a) Moderate to severe icing and turbulence and hail
b) Severe icing and turbulence and hail
c) Moderate Icing and turbulence
d) Moderate to severe icing and turbulence
Explanation
Nil

On WAFC significant weather charts, jet streams are given flight levels. What does this mean?
a) The highest flight level where the winds are more than 60 kts
b) The average height of the jet stream
c) The flight level of the maximum wind in the jet stream
d) The flight level of the mean wind in the jet stream
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 30
On which of these routes would you not have to worry about turbulence at FL 340?
a) Zurich (Z) – Athens (A)
b) Shannon (S) – Hamburg (H)
c) Rome (R) – Berlin (B)
d) Zurich (Z) – Rome (R)
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 30
On which of these routes would you not need to worry about icing at FL 180?
a) Hamburg (H) – Stockholm (S)
b) Zurich (Z) – Hamburg (H)
c) Zurich (Z) – Rome (R)
d) Zurich (Z) – Madrid (M)
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 31
Over Paris (P), at what approximate height would you expect to find the tropopause according
to the map?
a) 34,000 ft
b) 27,000 ft
c) 40,000 ft
d) 30,000 ft
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 33
Using the image below, in what height range and at what intensity could you encounter
turbulence in CAT Area 2?
a) From FL 240 to FL 370 light
b) From below FL 130 to FL 270 light
c) From FL 220 to FL 400 moderate
d) From FL 250 to FL 320 moderate
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 31
Using the image below, what is the optimum flight level between Rome (R) and Paris (P)
according to the significant weather chart?
a) FL 360
b) FL 160
c) FL 340
d) FL 220
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 34
Over Madrid (M), what intensity of turbulence and icing is forecast at FL 200?
a) Moderate turbulence light icing
b) Severe turbulence moderate icing
c) Severe turbulence severe icing
d) Moderate turbulence moderate icing
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 35
Over Paris (P), at what height would you expect to find the tropopause according to the map?
a) FL 330
b) FL 150
c) FL 280
d) FL 300
Explanation
Although the nearest height is 290, you must interpolate, look south and you'll see some at
heights at 330 and 340

Refer to Diagram 36
At which position could you encounter thunderstorms, and what is the maximum height of the
CB clouds?
a) Position C FL 200
b) Position D FL 290
c) Position B FL 270
d) Position A FL 200
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 36
What is the approximate height of the tropopause between Keflavik (K) and Helsinki (H)?
a) FL 300
b) FL 320
c) FL 360
d) FL 350
Explanation
You have to interpolate

Refer to Diagram 37
Using the significant weather chart shown, what is shown by the dashed line surrounding the jet
stream passing over the United Kingdom?
a) The horizontal extent of the jet stream
b) The boundary of the jet stream
c) The zone of caution
d) The boundary of a CAT area
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 37
Using the significant weather chart shown, what is the approximate height of the tropopause
over Ireland?
a) FL370
b) FL 450
c) FL 350
d) FL 340
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 37
Using the significant weather chart shown, what is the greatest hazard of the frontal system
found in the North Atlantic west of Ireland?
a) Frequent to occasional CBs
b) Moderate icing from below FL100 up to FL160
c) Moderate turbulence from below FL100 up to FL160
d) Moderate to severe turbulence, icing and hail
Explanation
Notice the "CB". This always means moderate to severe turbulence, icing and hail

Refer to Diagram 38
Using the significant weather chart shown, what is the height of the tropopause just north of the
United Kingdom as shown by the red mark (60°N, 0°E/W)?
a) FL 350
b) 32,000 ft
c) FL 300
d) FL 320
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 37
Using the significant weather chart shown, what is the speed and height of the jet stream
located just west of London (L)?
a) FL350 at a speed of 110 kts
b) FL450 at a speed of 90 kts
c) FL370 at a speed of 110 kts
d) FL370 at a speed of 90 kts
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 38
Using the significant weather chart shown, what would be the main hazard on a flight from
Keflavik (K) to Berlin (B) via Glasgow (G) at FL290?
a) Embedded CBs at London (L) and Berlin (B)
b) Occasional CBs over London (L) and occasional embedded CBs over Berlin (B)
c) Occasional CBs near north England only
d) Embedded CBs before London (L) and occasional CBs isolated over Berlin (B)
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 39
What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather chart?
a) The centre of a high pressure area at 450 hPa
b) The lower limit of the tropopause
c) The centre of a tropopause "high", where the tropopause is at FL 450
d) The upper limit of significant weather at FL 450
Explanation
Nil

What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?

a) The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on
the chart
b) The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
c) The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
d) The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart
Explanation
Nil

What is the validity time for a WAFC significant weather chart?

a) 30 mins
b) 6 hrs
c) 3 hrs
d) For a fixed time only
Explanation
Nil

When are WAFC significant weather charts produced?

a) Every six hours
b) Every three hours
c) Every twelve hours
d) At midnight and midday only
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 13
Which of the following symbols on a significant weather chart represents a tropical revolving
storm?
a) H
b) I
c) G
d) J
Explanation
Nil
Refer to Diagram 13
Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
a) J
b) G
c) H
d) I
Explanation
Nil

Refer to Diagram 31
You are flying from Munich (M) to Amsterdam (A). Which of the following flight levels would you
choose in order to avoid turbulence and icing?
a) FL 140
b) FL 180
c) FL 320
d) FL 260
Explanation
Nil