Concrete

1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete?

Answer: concrete cylinder sample
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?
Answer: Slump test
3. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample
4. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test?
Answer: concrete beam sample
5. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?
Answer: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
6. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample represents?
Answer: 2000 bags
7. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced concrete structure
using a pump Crete to pump out the fresh concrete mix, what admixture should it be?
Answer: Super plasticizer
8. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip
9. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing?
Answer: 23°C ± 1.7°C
10. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are permitted for a
period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface
of the specimen at all times.
Answer: three (3)
11. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ hours and
should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 °F ± 3°F
Answer: Twenty – four (24)
12. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps per
layer shall be applied?
Answer: 60 blows/layer
13. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class “B”?
Answer: 8 bags/cu.m
14. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum
compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?
Answer: 3,000 psi
15. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in cu.m as shown
on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer, except that an overload up to _____ percent above the
mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for strength, segregation, and
uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)
16. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement is deficient
in thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the
affected location
17. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete
18. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
19. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect
20. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the following amount
of water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters
21. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the minimum
strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified age the pavement shall not be
operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
22. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod.
After the test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump of the concrete?
Answer: 127 mm
23. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent of
wear?
Answer: 30 – 33 rpm
24. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine
aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch
weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters
water
25. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval
26. Properties of concrete are, except
Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
27. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders, beam, frames and
arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%
28. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
29. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
30. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
31. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
32. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to
support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap
33. Class of concrete deposited in water.
Answer: Class Seal
34. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The important parts of
the structure included are slabs, beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced abutments,
retaining walls, and reinforced footings.
Answer: Class A
35. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls,
unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement.
Answer: Class B
36. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel
grid floors.
Answer: Class C
37. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete structures and members.
Answer: Class P
38. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit
Answer: 1.50 m
39. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____
Answer: plain bars
40. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a flexural strength of _____
when tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa
41. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for PCCP which
 10% to less than 15%
Answer: 70%
42. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes
in the concreting operation
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
43. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except
Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
44. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how
many sets of concrete beam samples shall be required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m,
thickness = 230 mm
Answer: 353 sets
45. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P
46. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint
method.
Answer: 4.50 MPa
47. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____
Answer: Steel forms of an approved section
48. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____
Answer: Within 24 hours
49. Removal of forms of concrete pavement
Answer: 24 hours
50. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____
Answer: 1 ½ inches
51. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract price allowed is _____
Answer: 25% or more
52. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m
53. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m
54. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm
55. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of
pavement of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set
56. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength

57. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.

Answer: 4 to 6 rpm
58. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water?
Answer: 10 to 20 cm
59. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____
Answer: ± 1.0 mass %
60. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock at a constant
rate within the range of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)
61. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is already doubt as to its
quality should:
Answer: be retested prior to use
62. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to
use core samples to determine the strength. What is the required compressive strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days
63. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
 Answer: 14 days
64. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point?
Answer: R = PL
2
bd
65. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2
2bd
66. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of
the same Ø as the rod.
67. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability (provided
concrete does not excced specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of mixing does
adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement ratio is not exceeded.
68. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?
Answer: by the use of core drill or saw
69. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?
Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm

70. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated?

Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm
71. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds
72. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the
concrete is deposited in – place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non – agitating trucks and 90 minutes if
hauled in truck mixers or agitators
73. How is concrete consolidated?
Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically
74. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used?
Answer: longitudinal construction joint
75. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem?
Answer: deformed steel tie bars
76. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?
Answer: not less than 50 mm
77. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____
Answer: not less than 6 mm
78. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing?
Answer: sawing shall be omitted
79. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____
Answer: brooming
80. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm
81. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of _____
Answer: 72 hours
82. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following:
Answer:
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
c. by ponding
d. by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the surface
83. When is the right time to seal the joints?
Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic

84. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients including water is in the drum
is
Answer: 100 rpm
85. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing when this method
is used (Item 206)
Answer: two (2) hours
86. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation
Answer: 90 minutes
87. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed concrete.
88. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of
76.2 mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters
89. The standard packaging weight of cement
Answer: 40 kg/bag
90. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid
evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: curing compound
91. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on
Answer: Absolute Design Method
92. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
Answer: 45 minutes
93. The final setting time of Portland cement
Answer: 10 hours
94. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
95. A mixture of cement and water is
Answer: cement paste
96. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle
97. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is
Answer: 19.3 MPa
98. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave?
Answer: crumbled

99. The critical number of days of curing of concrete

Answer: first seven (7) days
100. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples
that will show the nature and condition of the materials which they represent.
Answer: sampling
101. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder
102. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of concrete.
Answer: accelerator
103. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 – hour strength by
_____.
Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%
104. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form moist in concrete
during mixing without significantly altering the setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete.
Answer: air entraining admixtures
105. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements conforming
 to the lines, grade and dimension.
Answer: Structural concrete
106. Concrete curing refers to
Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength
107. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately after final placement
especially during the first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks
108. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete?
Answer: Liquid membrane forming
109. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?
Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date
110. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?
st nd
Answer: when the 1 and 2 adjoining span on each side have reached the specified strength
111. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having
high void rather and usually not high water content
Answer: Weak Subgrade
112. The theory of concrete design mix is to
Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes properties of cement mortar
113. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on
Answer: cement type, cement content and water content

114. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?

Answer: Type I
115. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type II
116. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement?
Answer: Type III
117. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement?
Answer: Type IV
118. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type V
119. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
Answer: Type 1S
120. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement?
Answer: Type 1P
121. Type I is for general use such as
Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and tanks & water pipes
122. Type III cement is used for
Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength
123. Type IV is used for
Answer: massive structures such as dams
124. Type V cement is used for
Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high
125. The inventor of Portland cement was
Answer: Joseph Aspdin
126. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing
Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica
127. The simple recipe of Portland cement is
Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore, then 1
pinch of gypsum added to clinker
128. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called
Answer: volcanic earth
 129. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of
Answer: C3S and C2S
130. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by
Answer: C3A and C4AF
131. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is developed
Answer: hydration
132. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____ is added to Portland
cement
Answer: water
133. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means
Answer: the setting time is larger
134. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care of the concrete’s
Answer: alkalinity
135. The water required for concrete mix should be
Answer: fresh water
136.Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is added because it contains
Answer: chloride
137. The entrapped air in concrete is
Answer: accidental and unwanted
138. The entrained air in concrete is
Answer: deliberate and desirable
139. We use aggregate in concrete as
Answer: filler materials in concrete
140. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?
Answer:
a. calcium
b. chloride
c. coal
d. sulphate
141. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but making
it so will only result to sacrifice in
Answer: strength
142. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average strength of
the cores is equal to or at least _____ of the specified strength, fc’ and no single core is less than _____
Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c
143. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:
Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes from a discarded
or used bag

144. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity
Answer: consistency
145. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working load so that tension under
these loads is reduced
Answer: Pre – stressing
146. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
3
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m from (water)
3
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m of average (water)
147. In non – entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?
Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger aggregates)
148. In air – entrained concrete, what is the range of air entrained?
 Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)
149. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced
150. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and maintaining other values of its ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength
151. What is the mixing time of concrete?
Answer:
3
1.5 m capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds
3
Above1.5 m capacity mixer, T ≥ 90 seconds
152. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond ____
Answer: 1 ½ hours
153. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added
15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32ºC temperature is present
154. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of the
drum or Olader. Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete

Asphalt

155. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black cementitious
material in which the predominating substance is bitumen?
Answer: asphalt
156. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
157. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?
Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m
158. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?
Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade
159. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete
pavement?
Answer: Blown Asphalt
160. What is the use of blown asphalt?
Answer: as joint filler and water proofing
161. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Answer: Asphalt Cement
162. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in water?
Answer: 4 days @ 50°C
163. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?
Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition
164. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt
by weight of mix?
Answer: 5.10%
165. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?
Answer: Cut – back asphalt
166. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the rate of
approximately _____?
 3 2
Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m /m
167. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable
range of asphalt content?
Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%
168. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples
169. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?
Answer: four (4)

170. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.

Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture
171. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be
used in the project?
Answer: Two (2) samples
172. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____
Answer: 3% to 5 %
173. Equipment to be used for initial rolling
Answer: Pneumatic tire roller
174. Equipment to be used for final rolling
Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel roller
175. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a small test
flame
Answer: flash point
176. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?
Answer: MC – 3000
177. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?
Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes
178. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2”
179. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall Stability Method
for heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs
180. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a specimen
will develop at _____
Answer: 60°
181. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy traffic design
under the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows
182. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
Answer: 85 – 100
183. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to the
construction of a bituminous surface course.
Answer: Prime Coat

184. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?

Answer: Item 304
185. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for Item 310?
Answer: ± 0.4%
186. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the application of aggregate
on existing bituminous surface?
Answer: Seal Coat
187. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.
Answer: ± 10°C
188. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø
189. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
Answer: 107°C
190. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.
Answer: 5 kph
191. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of at least ______
Answer: 100 mm
192. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with
bituminous materials preparatory to the construction of bituminous surface course.
Answer: Tack Coat
193. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?
2
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m
194. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back asphalt?
2
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m
195. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the testing edge of the
straight edge between any two contacts with the surface?
Answer: 6 mm
196. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?
Answer: 1.40 MPa
197. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum
198. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: ±7
199. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
Answer: ±4
200. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
Answer: ±2
201. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.
Answer: stability
202. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water, temperature and traffic.
Answer: durability
203. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance
204. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual settlements
and moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility
205. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.
Answer: 92% to 95%
206. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test
207. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100
208. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is performed.
Answer: stability
209. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.
Answer: decrease
210. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?
Answer: armored thermometer
211. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
Answer: excessive asphalt content
212. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous mixture?
Answer TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
 PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of crude oil.
213. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt, emulsified asphalt
214. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?
Answer:
GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type
KEROSENE – for medium curing type
DIESEL – for slow curing type
215. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:
CATIONIC EMULSION – works better with wet aggregates and in cold weather. It
is a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have positive charge. It is a
negatively charge electron.
216. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?
Answer: asphalt cement
217. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?
Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt
218. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?
Answer: climatic condition
219. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job – mix formula?
Answer: three (3) weeks
220. Who will approve the job – mix formula?
Answer: DPWH PE and ME
221. The job – mix formula contains provisions the following:
Answer:
a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction

222. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC
223. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable
224. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required density?
Answer: trial section
225. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great significance in the
strength of the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature
226. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?
Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel towards the center
line, each trip overlapping one half the roller’s width.
227. After the final rolling, what will be checked?
Answer: degree of compaction
228. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density
229. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?
Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature
230. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness.
Answer: asphaltene
231. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve?
 Answer: No. 200
232. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____
Answer: pothole patching
233. VMA means
Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates
234. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen
Answer: 124ºC
235. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is
Answer: 163ºC
236. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is
Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC
237. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from
Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC
238. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from
Answer: 1.01 – 1.04
239. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt?
Answer: cationic
240. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper
241. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt
pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry
specimens.
242. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.
Answer: gasoline
243. The percent of bitumen is computed based on
Answer: mass of dry aggregates
244. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
245. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer
246. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation
247. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.
Answer: Softening point
248. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%
249. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.
Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F
250. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?
Answer: yellowish brown
251. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)
252. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)
253. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at
Answer: approximately quarter points
254. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes
Answer: bleeding
255. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
Answer: not greater than 4
256. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle.
 Answer: raveling
257. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the expected traffic and the
modulus of the cracked and seated pavement section.
Answer: 3” to 5”
258. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ____ or the differential
deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”
259. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface.
` Answer: potholes
260. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement.
Answer: corrugation
261. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.
Answer: shoving
262. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.
Answer: rutting
263. What is the formula for percentage of wear?
Answer:
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
original wt.
264. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass – like reflecting surface that
usually becomes quite sticky
Answer: bleeding
265. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement
Answer: hot – mix asphalt

Soil
266. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD
267. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)?
Answer: 3 grading tests
268. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used as Item
200 if finer than the required materials?
Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials
269. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201?
Answer: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively
270. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?
Answer: 80% maximum
271. What is the machine used for abrasion test?
Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine
272. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
Answer: by Field Density Test
273. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?
Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
274. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis
3
275. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m , with an actual moisture
3
content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m ?
Answer: 101.86%
276. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven – dried
weight of 138.2 grams?
Answer: 17.58%
277. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Answer: the soil is clayey
278. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already oven –
dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its constant weight
279. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Answer: 110 ± 5°C
280. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
Answer: because it can affect its weight
281. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content?
Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of an air – dried
sample while NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content of the original sample
from thefield.
282. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
Answer: high degree of compressibility
283. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
284. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density Relation Test (MDR) is
T – 180?
Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
285. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction for this
kind of soil?
Answer: 95% degree of compaction
286. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth.
How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis
287. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or crumbling up
to 1/8” (3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
288. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.
Answer: Liquid Limit
289. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is equal to 21%.
If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
290. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
291. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
292. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be used in
field density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
293. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going to pursue
your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
294. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
295. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
Answer: glass plate
296. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and also to
improve the stability of the slope.
Answer: Berm
297. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil sample
was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction, relative
density
298. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.
Answer: 1 inch
299. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.
Answer: 35%
300. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.
Answer: 4% to 9%
301. Range of sand size.
Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø
302. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
Answer: void ratio
303. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids
Answer: moisture content
304. Significance of grading test are, except
Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the potential
cohesion of soil
305. Significance of plasticity index are, except
Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material,
measures the shearing resistance of soil
306. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the economical thickness,
except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
307. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.
Answer: Liquidity Index
308. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except
Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index
309. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub – base shall spread
and compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers
310. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____
Answer: 80%
311. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: ± 10 mm
312. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40
313. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test is
_____
Answer: four (4)
314. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except
Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
315. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness
and shape of grain, Atterberg limits
316. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
317. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material
Answer: Group Index
318. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 30%
319. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 6%
320. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
321. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is
Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
322. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with
 Answer: AASHTO T 90
323. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 89
324. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer
Answer: 95%
325. The minimum compaction trial of embankment
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long
2
326. At least how many in – situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m of each layer of
compacted fill?
Answer: three (3)
327. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200
Answer: 12%
328. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200
Answer: 35%
329. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200
Answer: 2”
330. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 96
331. The required abrasion loss for Item 200
Answer: 50%
332. The minimum CBR required for Item 200
Answer: 25%
334. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193
335. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course
Answer: 100%
336. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in accordance
with
Answer: AASHTO T 191
337. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non – available, the use
_____ allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or gravel.
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
338. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B
Answer: 1 ½ inch
339. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202
Answer: 45%
340. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item 202
Answer: 50%
341. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202
Answer: 80%
342. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A
Answer:1 ½ inch
343. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A
Answer: 2”
343. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B
Answer: 1 inch
344. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper
proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)
345. The required plasticity index for Item 203
Answer: 4% to 10%
346. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203
Answer: 50%
347. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
Answer: 2”
348. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%
349. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203
Answer: 100%
350. Required percent compaction for Item 203
Answer: 100%
351. Soil stabilizing agent
Answer: Lime – for silty and clayey soil
Cement – for sandy soil
352. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT
353. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state.
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
354. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT
355. Peat and muck soils are considered as:
Answer: highly organic soils
356. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the
construction method.
357. A good subgrade soil should have the following:
Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit
358. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization
359. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____
Answer: weak subgrade
360. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____
Answer: very stable
361. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___
Answer: normal
362. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?
Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil
363. What is the significance of field density test?
Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test in embankment
construction to ensure adequate compaction.
364. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. True or false?
Answer: true
365. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample?
Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun
366. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be used?
Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C
367. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4
Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch
368. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method?
Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs)
rammer with an 18” drop.
369. What is particle size analysis?
Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a
combined analysis
370. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a height of
 _____?
Answer: 10 mm
371. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps
372. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)
373. What is specific gravity?
Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of
the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temperature)
374. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
Answer: 335 sq. m
375. What Item of work is embankment?
Answer: Item 104
376. What kind of material for Item 200?
Answer: Aggregate sub – base course
377. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104?
Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not more than 15 mass %
will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)
378. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
Answer: 100%
379. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or
compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content (OMC)
380. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No. 200
sieve
381. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?
Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm)
382. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing
scale, oven with temperature control, chisel or digging tool, plastic bags and labeling materials
(tag name)
383. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours
384. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the molded shape of
fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface dry condition

385. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?

Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse aggregate
= grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight an d abrasion
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request
386. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455 grams
387. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12 as
number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams
388. What is significance of abrasion test?
Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of
quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also determines whether the aggregates
will have degradation during traffic or rolling.
389. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
390. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what?
 Answer: depth of soil layer
391. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the
pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the
thickness of the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase courses
shall be carried out in _____?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m
392. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be
permitted?
Answer: higher
393. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of embankment laid
was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of 200 mm/layer?
Answer: fifteen (15)
394. Plasticity index is an indication of percent
Answer: clay content
395. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
Answer: air – dried condition
396. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place
Answer: Sand cone method
397. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing
Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200
398. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or steel spheres.
Answer:
GRADING A – 12 spheres
GRADING B – 11 spheres
GRADING C – 8 spheres
GRADING D – 6 spheres
399. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing when this
method is used (Item 206)
Answer: two (2) hours
th
400. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25 blow is projected in order to determine the liquid
limit of the soil.
Answer: Flow curve
401. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____
Answer: abrasion loss
402. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____
Answer: 2.75
403. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good drainage
and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse
ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
Answer: good subgrade material
404. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course of
material to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips
405. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted
loss shall not exceed
Answer: 10 mass %
406. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss
shall not exceed
Answer: 12 mass %
407. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium
sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
Answer: Soundness test
408. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples
that will show the nature and condition of the materials which they represent.
 Answer: sampling
409. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles into
sizes which will pass certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples
410. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural
properties.
Answer: thin – walled tube sampling
411. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that
provides clean hole before insertion of thin – walled tubes that is, both the natural density and moisture
content are preserved as much as practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples
412. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
Answer:
a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass, roots
and sewage
b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%
d. Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m 3

f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the engineer

413. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base course?
Answer: 0 – 12%
414. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be performed?
Answer: Liquid limit test
415. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and gradation.
Answer: Compaction
416. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering materials.
Answer: liquid limit of fines
417. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ____ or the differential
deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”
418. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates that
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs additional
compaction
419. Liquid limit is usually
Answer: greater than plastic limit
420. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor
421. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different from the on
tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you do?
Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for verification
422. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
Answer:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
d. design of concrete mix
423. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be
Answer: volume
424. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff statement is true?
 Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum density at low optimum
moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC
d. none of the above

425. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than the
optimum moisture content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact
426. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?
Answer:
a. beam balance
b. oven
c. moisture can
d. extruder
427. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements
except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending
428. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
Answer: organic
429. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of water as lubricant?
Answer: Moisture – Density relation test
430. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is
Answer: No. 10
431. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction test?
3
Answer: 0.002124 m
432. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass
2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand
433. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
Answer: ½ of the thickness
434. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?
Answer: colloids
435. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the specimen
Answer: 25mm
436. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and containing silt –
clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates
437. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity
Answer: sand and gravel
438. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method
439. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves
Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not more than 225mm depth, loose
materials and extending to the full width of the embankment
440. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having
high void rather and usually not high water content
Answer: Weak Subgrade
441. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300 mm in depth
 (12”) loose measure, parallel to the finished grade and extending to the full width of the
embankment
442. What is Rock Embankment Method?
Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by means
of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to fill ≥ 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be placed within
600 mm of the other grade
443. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited so as to
form the grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly compacted
444. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration move also be
considered)
445. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?
Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment corrective work consists of
placing a surcharge constructed to the full width of the road bed. The surcharge shall remain in
place until the embankment has reached stability or the required settlement
446. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?
Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to accelerate
consideration
447. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular material
becomes unstable if it has dried
448. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be sensitive up to
Answer: 0.1g
449. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours
450. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been removed from the
oven within
Answer: 1 hour
451. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature; the drying time
depends on the kind of soil and size of sample. A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in
about
Answer: 2 hours
452. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above
Answer: Boring Test
453. A test to determine the moisture content of soil
Answer: calcium tri – chloride
454. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is
Answer: low

Miscellaneous

455. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment
456. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?
Answer:3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts
457. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?
Answer: Reflectorized paint
458. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Answer: 2 pcs – 1 m sample
459. Paint is composed of _____
Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads
460. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports
461. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used in
 the project?
Answer: four (4) pails
462. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?
Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test
463. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
464. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
465. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how many
samples for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing requirements. What
program or report is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program
466. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way of
reducing sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
467. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the
minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified age the pavement
shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
468. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted and
tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what report so
that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the construction materials being
used in the project?
Answer: Status of Test
469. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?
Answer: week
470. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work
471. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity represented,
kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted
and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
472. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality test that
takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested just for a day or even a week so, what is
the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month
473. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____ above
the top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
474. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B
475. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A
476. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C
477. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the
stones weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D
478. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
Answer: 150 mm
479. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings
Answer: Item 612
480. Item number for water?
 Answer: Item 714
481. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface profile
which may be expressed in terms of International Roughness Index.
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device
482. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of existing pavement with
unbound granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
483. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of the
regular piles?
Answer: Test Pitting
484. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a concrete
pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to
determine the remaining life of existing pavement.
Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer
485. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in
concrete before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator
486. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and asphalt
pavements as soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix has been
initially compacted?
Answer: 3 – meter straight edge
487. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material which is commonly used in
the compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the measurement of moisture
content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
488. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The
results of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help
in the design of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
489. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and
concrete? This instrument is a non – destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180
mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the determination of concrete strength (either in – situ or pre –
cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections.
Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester
490. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength
491. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel.
Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d)
492. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap.
Answer: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)
493. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three – edge bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack
494. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)
495. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum
496. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum
497. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?
Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation and is
used to classify the bars into grade.
498. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?
Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB
499. What is the required testing requirement for paints?
Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)
500. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces
501. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be
permitted?
Answer: higher
502. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples
503. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were the
ME assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that you would recommend
to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Answer: geotextiles
504. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets
505. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
506. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
507. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____
Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit, accompanied by a
sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME
508. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials for use in the
project based on test results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
509. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample
Answer: Shelby tube
510. Used in sealing undisturbed sample
Answer: wax
511. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample
Answer: split spoon sampler
512. A type of coring bit used in rock coring
Answer: diamond bit
513. CQCA means
Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)
514. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is
Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress
515. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar is
Answer: 0.06%
516. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?
Answer:
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT
GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa
GRADE 60 621 MPa 414 MPa
GRADE 75 689 MPa 517 MPa

517. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying,
resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess improved visibility at night.
Answer: reflectorized paint
518. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
 Answer: glass beads
519. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units.
Answer: Latex
520. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
Answer: Triple spot test
521. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
Answer: Single spot test
522. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with varnish as the
vehicle.
Answer: Enamel
523. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory.
Answer: government
524. Geosynthetics may be used for
Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control
525. Steel bars are considered undersize if
Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesn’t meet the manufactured size
526. What is ASTM?
Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials
527. What is AASHTO?
Answer: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials
528. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods as prescribed under
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
529. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory equipments or
apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications?
Answer: large
530. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them denser and grow
straight.
Answer: Pruning
531. The road near or abutting a bridge.
Answer: Approach
532. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
Answer: before the construction work
533. What is quality?
Answer: It the degree of excellence
534. What is control?
Answer: Is to regulate
535. What is quality control?
Answer: It is conformance to requirements
536. What is assurance?
Answer: it the degree of certainty
537. What are the two kinds of control activities?
Answer: Inspection and Testing
538. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and
hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction process by slowing the rate of evaporation of
moisture from the soil
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt
539. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size of pipe that is negligible
in the volume computation?
Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less
Sample Questions
1) In the determination of the liquid limit test, the brass cup is allowed to drop into the base through a height
of 1.0 cm by rotating the crank at the rate of ___per second.
a. 5 rotations
 b. 2 rotations
c. 3 rotations
d. 4 rotations
e. None of the above

2) Embankment material is considered unsuitable if the..

a. liquid limit of soils exceeds 80 and/or plasticity index exceeds 55
b. liquid limit of soil exceeds 55 and/or plasticity limit not exceeding 10
c. liquid limit of soil not exceeding 80
d. plasticity index is 0
e. c and d

3) In the submission of samples for testing, what is the required minimum quantity of steel pipe (galvanized)
sample?
a. 4 pcs. of 100mm long
b. 2 pcs. of 100mm long
c. 3 pcs. of 100mm long
d. 4 pcs. of 100mm long
e. None of the above
4) Sampling of asphalt bitamin is 1 sample for every
a. 100 drums or 20 m t
b. 200 drums or 40 m t
c. 50 drums or 10 m t
d. 20 drums or 4 m t

5) The sample of 12.5 mm diameter steel bar to be submitted for test should be at least
a. 20 cm
b. 40 cm
c. 100 cm
d. none of the above

6) If an asphalt pavement will be constructed over an old existing concrete pavement

a. prime coat
b. tack coat
c. seal coat
d. mortar coat should be applied to the concrete pavement.

7) Unless otherwise specified in the special provision, the type of portland cement used in paving concrete shall
be
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

8) Water content of soils is generally based on the

a. total weight of soil
b. total volume of soil
c. weight of solids
d. none of the preceding

9) Disturbed samples may be used for

a. sieve test
b. liquid limit
 c. compaction test
d. any of the preceding

10) The apparatus used in determining the consistency of liquid asphalt is the
a. flowmeter
b. viscometer
c. penetrometer
d. pycnometer

11) Extraction test is the procedure used for separating

a. the asphalt from water in emulsified asphalt
b. asphalt from mineral aggregates
c. asphalt from kerosene solvent
d. asphalt from gasoline solvent

12) The optimum asphalt content obtained in a Marshall Stability test is the average of the asphalt content of the
Maximum Stability, Maximum density and
a. Maximum flow
b. Maximum air voids
c. 4% air voids
d. 4% flow

13) The main difference between a bulk measured specific gravity of a bituminous mixtures and its maximum
measured specific gravity is the
a. weight of the voids
b. weight of the asphalt
c. volume of the voids
d. volume of the aggregates

14) a) Asphalt cement b) emulsified asphalt c) Rapid curing d) medium curing cut-back is the best type of
asphalt to be used for hot mixes.

15) The distance traveled by a standard penetration needle on a prepared sample of asphalt under conditions for
normal penetration is 8.6 mm. The material is
a. 40 – 50
b. 85 – 100
c. 120 – 150
d. 200 – 300 penetration grade

16) A job-mix formula provides for close control of

a. aggregate gradation
b. asphalt content
c. both of them
d. neither of them

17) The desired property of fresh concrete is

a. strength
b. durability
c. workability
d. water tightness

18) The most important single factor which affects the quality of concrete is
a. cement content
b. aggregate gradation
c. water-cement ratio
d. aggregate quality

19) Paving concrete will need less

a. sand
b. water
 c. coarse aggregate
d. both a and b than that of structure concrete.

20) Concrete specimen molded in a 6”x6”x21” beam should be rodded

a. 60
b. 61
c. 62
d. 63

21) Quality determination of concrete coarse aggregate sample requires

a. abrasion test
b. sieve analysis
c. stability
d. both a and b

22) Concrete mix should be in place

a. 100 minute
b. 120
c. 15
d. 90 after the cement is added into the aggregate and water.

23) Concrete beam specimens for paving concrete are molded in

a. 2 equal layers
b. 3 equal layers
c. 4 equal layers
d. any of the preceding

24) The used of manufactured fine aggregate will generally require more
a. mixing water
b. fine aggregate
c. coarse aggregate
d. both a and b.

25) The two (2) major components of concrete are

a. paste and mineral aggregates
b. cement and water
c. water and coarse aggregates
26) The coarser the fine aggregate, the higher the fineness modulus
a. yes
b. no
c. depends on grading test
27) The more the concrete is exposed, the greater the range of movement is
a. true
b. false
c. it depends upon the type of cement

28) The efficient compaction, the embankment material should at the time of rolling be
a. dry
b. wet
c. at optimum moisture content

29) a) 15,000 kg b) 10,000 kg c) 5,000kg of 12.5mm diameter steel bar for concrete reinforcement is the
maximum quantity that a sample can represent.

30) Plasticity Index for Aggregate Surface Course is

a. not greater than 6
b. not greater than 25
c. 4 to 9
d. 12.
31) At least one (1) set of 3 concrete cylinder samples shall be taken from
a. 50
b. 75
c. 100
d. 150 cubic meter of each class of concrete or fraction thereof, placed each day.

32) Fine aggregates used in concrete pavement shall contain not more than
a. 1.5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1 percent of material passing the 0.075mm sieve by washing.

33) The degree of compaction required for embankment is at least

a. 100
b. 90
c. 95
d. 85 percent of the maximum density as determined by AASHTO T-90 Method.

34) Requirement of PCCP Construction

a. opening to traffic after 14 days the concrete was placed
b. opening to traffic after 28 days the concrete was placed
c. a compressive strength of 25.08 Mpa or more
d. none of the above.

35) Roadway embankment in earth material shall be placed and compacted in horizontal layers not exceeding
a. 150 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 100 mm
d. 250 mm loose requirement, before the next layer is placed.

36) Steel bars for concrete reinforced is tested for its

a. tensile
b. compressive
c. yield
d. both a and c.

37) To give Bituminous Concrete Surface Course greater resistance to water

a. 2 - 3 %
b. 1 ½ - 2 %
c. ½ - 1 %
d. 4 – 5 % hydrated lime should be added.

38) In Aggregate Subbase Course, the degree of compaction of each layer shall continue until a field density of
at least
a. 100
b. 95
c. 90 percent of the maximum dry density determined in accordance with AASHTO T-180, Method D has
been attained.

39) The maximum percentage wear allowed for Aggregate Subbase Course in a coarse portion retained on a
2.00mm (No. 10) sieve is
a. 45
b. 50
c. 40
d. 55 percent by Los Angeles Abrasion Test determined by AASHTO T-96.

40) In manufacture of culvert pipes, the class of concrete used is

a. Class “C”
b. Class “B”
c. Class “A”
d. Class “P”
41) For Bituminous Concrete Surface Course, if Asphalt cement is used, the percentage based on the weight of
aggregate should be
a. 3 to 5 %
b. 5 to 8 %
c. 6 to 10 %
d. 4.5 to 8 %

42) Coarse aggregate for Crushed stone Aggregate Surface Course should have a mass percent of not more than
a. 40 %
b. 45 %
c. 60 %
d. 50 % of the particle retained on the 4.75mm (No.4) sieve and shall have at least one (1) fractured face.

43) Before placing the asphalt pavement, the gravel base course should be
a. seal coated
b. tack coated
c. prime coated

44) The coarse aggregate of Item 201, Aggregate Base Course shall have a percentage of wear of not more than
a. 40 %
b. 45 %
c. 50 %
d. 60 % as determined by Los Angeles Rattler Test.

45) The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as bituminous prime coat is
a. 0.5 to 1.0 liter
b. 1.0 to 1.5 liter
c. 1.5 to 2.0 liter per square meter.

46) An asphalt cement submitted in the laboratory for quality test should always have a corresponding
a. Job mix formula
b. Test report
c. Sample card
d. Minimum testing requirements

41