NAVIGATION 03 OF FC 2022

1. The fuel burn-off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0.8 If the relative fuel density is
0.75, the fuel burn will be

A. 213 kg/h
B. 200 kg/h
C. 188 kg/h

2. GMT & Coordinates of place was given and find LMT and ST of the place if the standard
time is one hour ahead of GMT

3. Definition of NM as per ICAO

= 1852M

4. GC is near to ________ & Rhumb line is near to___________

a) poles, equator
b) poles, poles
c) equator, equator

5. Magnetic north is east of true north, variation is

A) (+) easterly
B) (-) westerly
C) (+) westerly

6. At the magnetic equator:

a. Dip is zero
b. Variation is zero
c. Deviation is zero

7. Where is a compass most effective?

a. About midway between the Earth’s magnetic poles
b. In the region of the magnetic South Pole
c. In the region of the magnetic North Pole

8. (Same question values different)

An aircraft is flying around the Earth eastwards along the 60N parallel of latitude at a ground
speed of 240 knots. At what ground speed would another aircraft have to fly eastwards along the
Equator to fly once round the Earth in the same journey time?

9. On a chart, 49 nautical miles is represented by 7.0 centimetres. What is the scale?

a. 1 / 700000
b. 1 / 2015396
c. 1 / 1296400

10. At latitude 60N the spacing of meridians 1° apart represents x CM ( don’t remember) what
is the scale at given latitude

11. The distance between positions A and B, located on the same parallel and 10° longitude
apart, is 6 cm. The scale at the parallel is 1 :9 260 000. What is the latitude of A and B?
A. 30° N or S.
B. 60° N or S.
C. 45° Nor S.

12. Length of 1 NM at poles

A. 6108 ft (Approx)
B. 5280ft
C. 3280 ft

13. Payload doesn’t include

A. Passengers
B. Fuel
C. Cargo

14. Temp at Xyz altitude is -25°C what is LSS?

15. An aircraft is descending at constant mach number in standard atmosphere. What will
happen to IAS?

16. Transverse Mercator chats are used for?

A. Large N/S extension
B. Large E/W extension
C. _______(I Don’t remember)
 17. Civil twilight is in between
A. 0-6 degrees
B. 6-12 degrees
C. 12-18 degrees

18. The angular difference, on a Lambert conformal conic chart, between the arrival and
departure track is equal to?
A.Departure angle.
B. Map convergence
C. Secant of ½ latitude.

19. Same question different values

An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when 100 NM from a DME facility and to
cross the station at FL120. If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the minimum rate of
descent required is approximately?
A. 1650 FT/MIN.
B. 2400 FT/MIN.
C. 1000 FT/MIN.

20. The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with the?

A. Blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
straight up from the earth's surface.
B. Red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
straight up from the earth's surface.
C. Blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
straight down to the earth's surface.

21. It is intended to increase the range of a VHF transmitter from 50 NM to 100 NM. This will
be achieved by increasing the power output by a factor of:
a. 8
b. 16
c. 4

22. About ionosphere

A. D layer density is high
B. Wave refract back from F layer
C. E layer thins and rises at night

23. What is untrue about frequency

A. Frequency inc. skip distance Inc.
B. Frequency inc. Dead space Inc.
C. Frequency inc. absorption inc.

24. An aircraft is passed a true bearing from a VDF station of 353°. If variation is 8°E and the
bearing is classified as ‘B’ then the:
a. QDM is 345° ± 5°
b. QDR is 345° ± 2°
c. QTE is 353° ± 5°

25. AC is tracking inbound on 105 radial what should be set on OBS

A. 285 TO
B. 285 FROM
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

26. ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:

a) ground returns ahead of the antennas
b) back-scattering of antennas
c) multiple lobes of radiation patterns

27. The middle marker is usually located at a range of ................., with an audio frequency
of ................ and illuminates the ................. light.
a. 4-6 NM 1300 Hz white
b. 1 km 400 Hz white
c. 1 km 1300 Hz amber

28. (Two questions on max,. Range)

1. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is:
a. pulse repetition rate
b. pulse width
c. power

2. The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by:

a. peak power
b. average power
c. pulse recurrence rate

29. What is not advantage of SSR over primary radar

A. Ground reflections removed
B. AC is displayed when within range (not exact option but it was like this)
C. Less power required

30. NAVSTAR/GPS operates in the ....... band the receiver determines position by .......
a. UHF range position lines
b. UHF secondary radar principles
c. SHF secondary radar principles

31. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

a. 24 satellites in 6 orbits
b. 24 satellites in 4 orbits
c. 24 satellites in 3 orbits

32. The frequency band of the NAVSTAR/GPS L1 and L2 frequencies is:

a. VHF
b. UHF
c. EHF

33. The distance measured between a satellite and a receiver is known as a pseudo- range
because:
a. it is measured using pseudo-random codes
b. it includes receiver clock error
c. satellite and receiver are continually moving in relation to each other

34.(Don’t remember exact options)

What is precession
A. To maintain a fixed direction
B. Force on the application is removed to the direction of spin
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

35. The gyro in a rate of turn indicator has (i) ....................... operating speed than the gyros
used in other instruments because (ii).......................
(i) (ii)
a. a lower higher rigidity is not required
b. the same variable it uses the property of rigidity
c. a higher low precession rate gives a greater operating range
d. variable more than one rate of turn is desired

36. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show right, what does it indicate?
a. Turn to left & too much bank
b. Turn to right & too much bank
c. Turn to left & too little bank

37. What is density altitude?

a. Altitude in the standard atmosphere at which the prevailing density is equal to the density in
the standard atmosphere
b. Pressure altitude corrected for prevailing temp
c. Temperature altitude

38.(Same question sequence different)

The single most significant item which makes a servo altimeter more accurate is:
a. electromagnetic pick-off
b. logarithmic scale
c. temperature compensated spring

39. An aircraft is fitted with two altimeters. One is corrected for position error, the other is not
corrected for position error:
a. ATC will receive erroneous information of flight level
b. at high speed the non-compensated altimeter will underreads
c. at high speed the non-compensated altimeter will overreads

40. A modern low altitude radio altimeter uses the principle of:
a. pulse modulated waves, with the difference between the transmitted and received waves
displayed on a circular screen
b. frequency modulated waves, where the difference between the transmitted wave and the
received wave is measured
c. wave modulation, with frequency shift due to Doppler effect of the ground reflected wave
being measured
 41. The frequencies used in a low altitude radio altimeter are:
A. 5400 MHz and 9400 MHz
B. 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz
C. 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz

42. The wavelength of radio altimeter is

A. 7 mm
B. 7 cm
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

43. What does a CVR record?

A. Cabin crew conversation on intercom
B. PA announcements even when not selected on flight deck
C. Radio conversations

44. An aero plane is said to be "neutrally stable". This is likely to:

a) causes the center of gravity to move forwards
b) be caused by a center of gravity which is towards the forward limit
c) be caused by a center of gravity which is towards the rearward limit

45. What is ramp weight or taxi weight?

A. ZFM + FOB
B. ZFM + TOTAL FUEL LOAD
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

46. (3-4 questions) values were given find payload and (1 question) find TOM

47. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75? Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa. Temperature = ISA. 1 hPa = 30 ft.
a) 6000 ft
b) 6600 ft
c) 6300 ft

48. The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and the time 30 minutes,
What ground distance would be covered in a 30kt headwind?
a) 193NM
b) 174NM
c) 188NM

49. In ICAO flight plan item no 9 the word M will be written for ( wake turbulence category)
A. AC with maximum takeoff mass more than 1,36,000 KG
B. AC with maximum takeoff mass less than 1,36,000 KG
C. AC with maximum takeoff mass less than 7,000 KG

50. The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 136 kgFlight time: 2h45minCalculated reserve fuel:
30% of trip fuelFuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board)Taxi fuel: 3 kgThe
endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
a) 3h34min
b) 2h45min
c) 2h49min

51. In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure (SID)
and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist :
a) SIDs should be entered but not STARs
b) both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriate
c) STARS should be entered but not SIDs

52. At A where QNH is 1000 hpa flying directly to B where the QNH is less than A. QNH at B is
960 hpa. Altimeter setting remain unchanged what will altimeter read after reaching B.
A. 1200ft lower
B. 1200ft higher
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

53. In ICAO flight plan how the time is written

A. 4 digits in UTC
B. 4 digits in IST
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

54. How the Xyz flight level is written in ICAO flight plan
A. FLxyz
B. Fxyz
C. F0xyz

55. What is VX?

A. Best rate of climb
B. Best angle of climb
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

56. V1 should be minimum of

A. Vmcg
B. Vmbe
C. Vef

57. V2 should not be less than

A. Vtoss
B. Vmbe
C. 1.05* something V speed ( don’t know exact which one it was )

59. ( don’t remember each wording )

The speed at which aircraft can be controlled on ground using primary control surfaces at critical
engine failure
A. Vmcg
B. Vmca
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

60. If field elevation is 3500 ft amsl and QFE is 1020 mb , what is the pressure altitude?
A. -210
B. 3710
C. 3290

61. (Don’t remember exact question and answers)

The coefficient of C is equivalent to
A. P
B. Q
C. R

62. Homing towards the VOR station to the NORTH with 10° drift when winds from EAST and
 62.
crossing a VOR2 station with the VOR2 just abeam right of track what will be the RB of the
VOR2
A. 80°
B. 90°
C. 270° ( not sure about B and C options )

63. ILS deviation bar is shown in colour

A. Magenta
B. _______(I Don’t remember)
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

64. 3.3% gradient and GS was given and had asked to find ROD

65. Air distance AD & DISTANCE and Time and WC was given and with help of TAS and GS had
to find Ground distance GD

66. ( not sure with values )

The deviation bar of an ILS indicator indicates 2 dots below of centre while AC is 1.9 NM from the
threshold. Find AC height.

67. ( don’t remember exact wording )

About clearway
A. Clearway is beyond stopway
B. Clearway is beyond runway
C. Clearway is beyond runway weather stopway is present or not

68. AC HDG 60 and with ADF reading of 30 R. And asked to intercept radial 250. What HDG to
steer to intercept radial 250.
A. 130
B. 250
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

69. ( don’t remember exact wording )

For power runway grass field to be increased by 15%
A. True
B. False
C. Not increased not decreased
 70. Balanced field
A. Req same distance to accelerate to V1 and stop
B. ASDA=TODA
C. _______(I Don’t remember)

71. AC is tracking to station ( OBS diagram given needle deflection to left ) when DME
showing 45 NM. Find the off track distance.

72. What is great circle

A. Shortest distance between 2 points
B. Longest distance between 2 points
C. Constant distance

73. Which one is untrue about mode S ?

A. It uses twice the codes of that A and C uses
B. It works with mode A and C
C. It indicates individual AC

74. Shape of earth is

A. Oblate spheroid
B. Ellipse
C. Sphere

75. A standby horizon

A. Contains its own gyro
B. Independent of external gyro
C. Only works when electric failure

REST OF THE QUESTIONS DIRECTLY FROM CX3 and SOME QUESTIONS ON CP & PNR and some
on 1 in 60