01. Blood is which Type of Tissue ?

a. Epithelial Tissue
b. Muscle tissue
c. Connective Tissue ✔
d. Nervous Tissue
02. Mycoplasmas are differentfrom other bacteria by?
a. Presence of chitin in cell wall
b. Presence of Techoic acid in cell wall
c. Presence of Lipoprotein in cell wall
d. Absence of cellwall itself. ✔
03. The Difference of Plasma and Serum is that Plasma ?
a. Dosenot contain fibrinogen.
b. has more water
c. Contain Fibrinogen. ✔
d. Contain Iron.
04. New Methylene Blue Reagent is used for staining of which blood cells?
a. Reticulocytes. ✔
b. Platelets.
c. WBC’s
d. Heinz bodies
05. Gram Staining was introduce by which scientist ?
a. Alfred Gram
b. Christian Gram. ✔
c. Robert Cook
d. Leuis Pasteur
06. When WBC are counted manually by tuk’s Reagent , Blood is diluted by Ratio ?
a. 1:20 ✔
b. 1:50
c. 1:100
d. 1:200
07. The end Point of Purine Metabolism is ?
a. Urea
b. Creatinin
c. Uric Acid ✔
d. Ammonia
08. Which is the following chemical test differentiate between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus ?
a. Coagulase Test
b. Catalase Test ✔
c. Urase Test
d. Oxidase Test
09. Which is the following Immunoglobulin can cross Placenta ?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgG ✔
d. IgM
10. All of the following are function of blood except one ?
a. Hormone Production ✔
b. Buffer system
c. Oxygen Transport
d. Nutrient Absorption
11. Which is the following test is used to detect/determine Syphilis ?
a. ASOT
b. Ra factor
c. CRP
d. VDRL ✔
12. One of the following is major cation found in extracellular fluid ?
a. Sodium ✔
b. Potassium
c. Magnesium
d. Zinc
13. Immunoglobuline are which type of Protein in Nature ?
a. Alpha Globulin
b. Beta Globulin
c. Gamma Globulin ✔
d. Delta Globulin
14. Entrobius Vermicularis is also known as ?
a. Pin worm ✔
b. Round worm
c. Thread Worm
d. Whip Worm
15. Which is the following hormone directly Regulate Blood Glucose Level ?
a. TSH
b. FSH
c. Progesterone
d. Insulin ✔
16. Which is the following Anticoagulant Tube need to collect sample of HbA1c ?
a. Sodium Flouride
b. EDTA ✔
c. Heparin
d. Sodium Sitrate
17. Which is the following Parasite Doesn’t develop Systic stage ?
a. Giardia Lambia
b. Antamoaba Histolytica
c. Enterobius Vermicularis
d. Trichomonas Vaginalis ✔
18. A Blood Donor who recently diagnoses Positive HbsAg should be deffered for how long ?
a. Permanantly ✔
b. For 3 months
c. For 6 Months
d. For 1 Year
19. Which is the following is called “bad” Cholestrol ?
a. Cholestrole
b. Triglyceride
c. HDL
d. LDL ✔
20. Which one of the following test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus
Species ?
a. Coagulase Test ✔
b. Catalase Test
c. Urase Test
d. Oxidase Test
21. Hemophilia A is caused by which factor deficiency ?
a. Factor VIII ✔
b. Factor IX
c. Factor X
d. Factor I
22. Salmonella and Shigella can be differentiate on the base of which test ?
a. Gram Stain
b. Catalase Test
c. Motility ✔
 d. Indole Test
23. Ammonium Oxalate reagent is used for the counting of which test ?
a. WBC’s
b. Platelets ✔
c. RBC’s
d. Reticulocytes
24. Which of the following Bio-chemistry Test Should keep away from light ?
a. Urea
b. Bilirubin ✔
c. Glucose
d. calcium
25. Which one of the following Immunoglobulin appeared as Pantamer ?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM ✔
26. The solution used to fix a pap smear is:
a. wright stain
b. hematoxylin
c. physiological saline
d. cytospray ✔
27. Which on of the following bacteria can cause glomarular nephritis or FR ?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus Pyogenes ✔
c. Staphylococcus Epidermidis
d. Streptococcus Pneumonia
28. Which one of the following hormone is produced by pituitary gland ?
a. TRH
b. T4
c. TSH ✔
d. Insulin
29. in DIC all of the following test will show high results except ?
a. PT
b. Platelets ✔
c. APTT
d. None of the above
30. Three types of ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone and __?
a. Oxaloacietic acid
b. Lactic Acid
c. 3-hydroxy Butilic acid ✔
d. Acietic Acid
31. The degree that a control results deviate from known valus or mean value is known as :-
a. Standard Deviation ✔
b. Coefficient Deviation
c. Median
d. None of above
32. Erythroblastosis Foetalis accurs due to :-
a. ABO Incompatibility
b. RH Incompatibility ✔
c. Hemophilia
d. Leukemia
33. One of the following enzyme also performed cardiac enzyme function ?
a. Acid Phosphatase
b. Creatinine
c. LDH ✔
 d. ALT
34. ESR will show low value result in which one of the following condition :-
a. Polycythemia ✔
b. Anemia
c. RA
d. Tuberculosis
35. Which one of the following paracite causing ameobic dysentery ?
a. Giardia Lambia
b. Entamoeba Histolytica ✔
c. Ascaris Lumbericodes
d. Shigella
36. Megaloblastic anaemia is caused by deficiency of folate and which vitamin ?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12 ✔
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin C
37. Which One of the Following bacteria is gram negative, Aerobic oxidase positive and motile rod ?
a. E- Coli
b. Proteus
c. Salmonella
d. Pseudomonas ✔
38. Which one of the following cells play a major role in humoral immunity ?
a. B – Cells ✔
b. T – Cells
c. Monocytes
d. Macrophages
39. In Iron Deficiency anemia laboratory finding which one of the following will show increased value ?
a. Hb
b. Iron
c. TIBC ✔
d. RBC’s
40. Widal test is done for the diagnosis of which bacteria ?
a. Shigela
b. E- Coli
c. Salminella ✔
d. Proteus
41. If Sample is taken in EDTA Tube, Which one of the following biochemistry test results will affect ?
a. Glucose
b. Urea
c. Cholestrol
d. Calcium ✔
42. Ziel Nelson stain is used for ?
a. Streptococcus
b. Mycobacterium ✔
c. H Influenza
d. Bacillus sp
43. Co-efficient of variation is calculated by which formula ?
a. Sd x 100 / Standard Error (SD=Standard Deviation)
b. Mean x 100 / SD
c. SD x 100 / Mean ✔
d. Variance x 100 / Mean
44. Night Blindness is caused by deficiency of which vitamin ?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin A ✔
c. Vitamin B12
 d. Vitamin B6
45. What is erythropoietin ?
a. is secreted by kidney
b. Stimulates the bone-marrow to produce RBC’s
c. Is released in responce to hypoxemia
d. All of above ✔
46. Each of following characteristics is correct about Ascaris lumbricoides except one :-
a. Ascaris lumbricaid is nematode
b. Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of Ascaris lumbricoides ✔
c. Ascaris lumbricoides can cause pneumonia
d. Ascaris lumbricoides is transmetted by enjections of eggs
47. Which types of cells if rapidly can cause jaundice?
a. WBC’s
b. Platelets
c. Plasma Cells
d. Red Blood Cells ✔
48. Kala- Azar Disease is caused by which Parasite ?
a. Lieshmania donovani ✔
b. Trypanosoma Cruzi
c. Wucheria Bancrofti
d. Plasmodium
49. When myocardial infarction will happen which of the following cardiac enzyme will elevate first ?
a. LDH
b. CK ✔
c. ALT
d. AST
50. Cason’s test is used for the diagnosis of which parasite ?
a. Taenasis
b. Hydatidasis ✔
c. Trichurosis
d. Onchuriasis
51. In case of acute hepatitis which liver enzyme is more Specific to check ?
a. ALT ✔
b. AST
c. ALP
d. Both ALT and AST
52. The conversion of glucose into lactate or Pyruate is called ?
a. Glycolysis ✔
b. Glycopenesis
c. Glycogenolysis
d. Gluconeogensis
53. Red Cells which are to be tested antiglobulin reagent are washed to :-
a. Remove traces of bacterial protein.
b. Wash away traces of free haemoglobin.
c. Remove Unbound serum globulin ✔
d. expose additional antigen site.
54. The failure of granulocytes (Neutrophils) to develop band or two lobed stage is characteristic of |:-
a. Bernard-Soulier syndrome (BSS)
b. Chédiak–Higashi syndrome (CHS)
c. May-Hegglin anomaly (MHA)
d. Pelger-huet anomaly (PHA) ✔
55. An elevated urine urobilinogen and negative test for urine bilirubin may indicate which of following
condition ?
a. Acute Hepatic Toxicity
b. Biliary Abstruction
 c. Hemolytic Diseases ✔
d. Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)
56. The most common light source for spectrophotometery in the visivble range id :-
a. Didymium Lamp
b. Duterium Lamp
c. Hydrogen discharge lamp
d. Tungusten Lamp ✔
57. A ‘rice water stool’ is characteristics of patient infected with :-
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Salmonella Typhi
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Vibrio Cholera ✔
58. The Major Iron storage compound is :-
a. Hemosodium
b. Ferritin ✔
c. Siderotic Granules
d. Transferrin
59. The protein fraction that migrates most rapidly toward anode is :-
a. Albumin ✔
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. Alpha 1
60. Leoffler’s medium is used as a primary isolation medium for :-
a. Bordetella Pertusis
b. Corynebacterium diphtheriae ✔
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Streptococcus Pyogenes
63. Which Trophozoite is suspected if ingested red cells are seen on a saline wet preparation ?
a. Entamoeba Coli
b. Entamoeba histolytica ✔
c. Endolimax nana
d. Trichomonas Vaginals
64. Myltiple Myeloma may be suspected which one of the following is seen on a Peripheral Smear:-
a. Basophilic stippling
b. Blast Cells
c. Hypersegmented neutrophils
d. Rouleaux ✔
65. Which one of the following test is used to monitor a diabetic patient long term control ?
a. Glucose Tolerance Test
b. Glycosylated Haemoglobin ✔
c. Fasting Blood Sugar
d. Postprandial blood sugar
66. Which one of the following result is typical of compylobacter jejuni ?
a. Catalase Negative
b. Non Motile
c. Optimal Growth at 42°C ✔
d. Oxidase Negative
67. Which one of the following leukocyte count will increase in parasitic and allergic reactions ?
a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Eosinophils ✔
d. Basophils
68. Enterobius vermicularis infaction is usually diagnosed by finding egg from:-
a. Cellulose tap prep ✔
b. Concentrated Stool Sample
 c. Iodine wet mount
d. Sedimented Stool sample
69. Plasma cells evolve is which cell line ?
a. Lymphocytic ✔
b. Monocytic
c. Myelocytic
d. Megamyelocytic
70. The Biuret method of determing serum total protein is dependent upon :-
a. Amino acid content
b. number of peptide bond ✔
c. Nitrogen content
d. Protein precipitation
71. Which Characteristic is most useful in differentiating citrobacter and salmonella :-
a. H2s Production
b. Indole Production
c. Lysine decarboxylase ✔
d. Urase Production
72. Pregnant women are to avoid cleaning litter boxes of there house cats until after delivery to prevent
congenital infaction for :-
a. Ancylostoma caninum
b. Giardia Lambia
c. Diphyllobothrium latium
d. Toxoplasma gondii ✔
73. Prolonged bleeding time and giant platelets best describes :-
a. Bernard Soulier Syndrome (BSS) ✔
b. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
c. Von Willebrand disease (VWD)
d. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome (WAS)
74. A Patient in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) would exhibit a:-
a. ↑ pCO2 , ↑HCO3 , ↑PH
b. ↓pCO2 , ↓ HCO3 , ↓PH
c. Normal pCO2 , ↑HCO3 , ↓PH
d. Normal pCO2 , ↓ HCO3 , ↓PH ✔
75. Another name of natural immunity of :-
a. Innate Immunity ✔
b. Acquired Immunity
c. Adoptive Immunity
d. Cellular Immunity
76. Which one of the following is used as urine Preservative :-
a. Formaldehyde
b. Boric Acid ✔
c. Gluteraldehyde
d. Picric Acid
77. Hydrops Fetalis mean :-
a. One deleted α-Genes (-α/αα)
b. Two deleted α-Genes (- -/αα)
c. Three deleted α-Genes (- -/- α)
d. Four deleted α-Genes (- -/- -) ✔
78. Value of the control that continue to ether increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive days is called
:-
a. Shift
b. Trend ✔
c. Standard Deviation
d. Co-efficient of variation
79. X-Factor and V-Factor is the characteristics of which bacteria :-
 a. Hemophilus ✔
b. Brucella
c. Legionella
d. Salmonella
80. Which of the following would cause an individual to rejected as blood donor :-
a. Plus of 95
b. 13 g/dl haemoglobin
c. Age 50
d. Blood pressure 180/120 mm of mercury ✔
81. Which of the following results from a rate of synthesis abnormally ?
a. Bsta Thalassemia
b. Haemoglobin CC Disease
c. Haemoglobin Lepore Syndrome
d. Sickle Cell Disease ✔
82. Which of the following is an immune-mediated condition characterised by low platelet count and found
primarily in children ?
a. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
b. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
c. May hegglin ✔
d. Wiskott–Aldrich
83. If there is an increase in abnormal volume of urine, the condition is called as :-
a. Polyuria ✔
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. Nocturia
84. Sodium Nitroprusside present on the dipstick used for the measurement of :-
a. Glucose
b. Protein
c. Ketone ✔
d. Urobilinogen
85. Measures light that is scattered by small particles at right angle to the beam incident of the cuvette in the
principle of :-
a. Fluorometry
b. Turbidimetry
c. Nephelometry ✔
d. Osmomatery
86. Method of the physical separation of proteins based of there Ionic charge and molecular size is principle of
:-
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Electrophoresis ✔
c. Fluorometry
d. Osmomatery
87. Alpha cells of pancreas Producing :-
a. Glucogen ✔
b. Insuline
c. Cortisol
d. Epinephrine
88. Which of the following disease will show increase level of alkaline Phosphatase :-
a. Hepatitis
b. 3rd Trimester of Pregnancy
c. Obstactive Juindice
d. Both “2” and “3” ✔
89. Which one of the following level is maintained in body by Parathyroid gland :-
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
 c. Magnessium
d. Calcium ✔
90. Direct bilirubin is also called as :-
a. Unconjugated bilirubin
b. Conjugated Bilirubin
c. Water soluble bilirubin
d. Both “2” and “3” ✔
91. Increase Cortisol level is seen in which syndrome ?
a. Addison’s disease
b. Cushing Syndrome ✔
92. Different between N. Meningitis and N. Gonorrhea is that N. Meningitis ferment only :-
a. Glucose
b. Maltose ✔
c. Sucrose
d. Lactose
93. Chinese letter arrangement, Metachromatic granules, tellurite hydrolysis and elek test is characteristic of
which bacteria ?
a. Listeria monocytogenes
b. Bacillus anthracis
c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae ✔
d. Moraxella catarrhalis
94. Which of the following bacteria is urase positive, Indole Positive, and H2S Positive ?
a. Proteus ✔
b. Escherchia
c. Salmonella
d. Shigella
95. Seagull appears is characteristic of which bacteria ?
a. Campylobacter Jejuni ✔
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. E- Coli
d. Salmonella
96. Which of the following bacteria Stain which silver impregnation and can be seen by Dark field microscopy
?
a. Treponema pallidum ✔
b. Homeopathic influenza
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Spirillum minus
97. Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) is used for the growth of which of the following :-
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptocossus
c. Neisseria
d. Mycobacteria ✔
98. A cause of acute factitious infantile diarrhea is :-
a. hantavirus
b. HIV
c. Rhabdovirus
d. Rotavirus ✔
99. Specimen for viral culture should be transported in :-
a. Anaerobic Container
b. Bovine Albumin
c. Nutrient medium with antibiotic ✔
d. Sheep blood (5 – 10 %)
100. In order to prove a yeast is dimorphic, which of the following test is performed ?
a. Carbohydrate assimilation
b. Growth on Corn Meal Agar,
 c. Incubate yeast subculture at 37°C ✔
d. Urease
101. The infrective stage for strongyloides stercoralis is :-
a. Ova
b. Filariform larvae ✔
c. Rhabditiform Larva
d. Free living adult
102. If human ingest the egg of taenia Solium , they may devolp :-
a. Hydatid Disease
b. Sparganosis
c. Trichinosis
d. Cysticercosis ✔
103. Which of the following egg may not be detected in zinc flotation procedure ?
a. Ascaris Lumbricoides
b. Trichua Trichuris
c. Schistosoma mansoni ✔
d. Taenia solium
104. Which organisms is transmitted to humans by ticks and blood transfusion ?
a. Babesia ✔
b. Rickettsia rickettsii
c. Leishmania donovani
d. Trypanosoma Cruzi
105. Which of the following is most specific test for syphilis ?
a. RPR
b. TPHA
c. FTA-Abs ✔
d. VDRL
106. Which of the following used in mantoux test ?
a. Lipoprotein
b. Carbohydrate
c. Purified Protein Derivatives
d. Hisitidine-rich protein II ✔
107. Gram Positive bacteria differ from Gram Negative by which of the following ?
a. Peptidoglycan (murein)
b. Mycolic acid
c. Teichoic acid ✔
d. All of above
108. What is the end product of purine metabolism ?
a. Urea
b. Xanthine
c. Uric Acid ✔
d. Guanine
109. Which Stain used commonly in psychopathology ?
a. H & E
b. Alcain Blue
c. Giemsa Stain
d. Pap Stain ✔
110. Largest virus is :-
a. Parvo Virus
b. Herpes Virus
c. Pox Virus ✔
d. Mycoplasma
111. How many pairs of Sex chromosome Present in Human ?
a. 22
b. 46
 c. 23
d. 01 ✔
112. Pork Tapeworm is :-
a. Taenia Solium ✔
b. Taenia saginata
c. Enterobius Vermicularis
d. Plasmodium

115. Isoenzymes of creatinine kinase is :-

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 ✔
d. none
116. p24 antigen present on :-
a. HbsAg
b. HCv
c. HIV ✔
d. Rabies Virus
117. Which antigen known as australian antigen ?
a. HbsAg ✔
b. p24 Antigen
c. HCsAg
d. HEsAg
118. Which antigen is low molecular weight ?
a. H Antigen
b. Hapten ✔
c. Histidine Rich Protein
d. ABO Antigen
119. Projecting spikes on the surface of envelop is called ?
a. Capsid
b. Capsomer
c. Peplomers ✔
d. Cilia
120. Which method is used for cultivation of viruses ?
a. Incubation in embryonated Egg
b. Animal Inoculation
c. Tissue Culture
d. All of above ✔
121. Enrichment media is :-
a. Liquid Media
b. Solid Media
c. Selective Media
d. 1 & 3 Both ✔
122. Blood Group antigen present on the surface of :-
a. RBC ✔
b. WBC
c. Platelet
d. Neutrophil
123. Malarial Parasite Present on :-
a. WEB
b. RBC ✔
c. Monocyte
d. Megakaryocyte
124. Dengue fever Spread by which of the following Mosquitoes ?
a. Aedes ✔
 b. Anopheles
c. Culex
d. All the above
125. Erythroprotein is related to :-
a. RBC ✔
b. WBC
c. Platelet
d. Blood
126. Which anticoagulant use for sugar estimation ?
a. EDTA
b. Sodium Fluoride (NaF) ✔
c. Sodium Citrate
d. Heparin
127. Lysis of clot :-
a. Hemostasis
b. Hemolysis
c. Fibrinolysis ✔
d. Glycolysis
128. Urea cycle accur in :-
a. Kidney
b. Heart
c. Brain
d. Liver ✔
129. Urine Specimen become cloudy due to :-
a. Bacteria
b. RBC
c. Pus cell
d. All Option ✔
130. Increase Number of RBC in urine is called :-
a. Polyuria
b. Oligouria
c. Haematuria ✔
d. Pyuria
131. All of the following is fat soluble except :-
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B ✔
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
132. Slide culture technique is used for the identification of :-
a. Yeast
b. Moulds
c. Yeast like Fungi
d. All of above ✔
133. Schuffner’s dots found in which plasmodium infection :-
a. P. Vivax ✔
b. P. Falcioarum
c. P. Ovale
d. P. Malariae
134. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis resist decolourisation with :-
a. 20% Sulphuric Acid ✔
b. 5 % Sulphuric Acid
c. 1 % Sulphuric Acid
d. 10 % Sulphuric Acid
135. Which of the following is not a test of LFT :-
a. S. Bilirubin
 b. SGPT
c. Albumin
d. Urea ✔
136. Which Cell Play role in Blood Clotting :-
a. RBC
b. WBC
c. Platelet ✔
d. All of above
137. Which serological test is not to diagnoses to enteric Fever :-
a. Widal ✔
b. Weil- Felix Test
c. ASO test
d. Elek’s Test
138. The Ratio of blood to Tri-Sodium for prothrombin time :-
a. 9:1 ✔
b. 1:9
c. 4:1
d. 1:4
139. Types of light chain present in immunoglobulin molecule :-
a. 2 ✔
b. 3
c. 5
d. 1
140. HbA1c test is done for following Patient :-
a. Tuberculosis
b. Diabetic ✔
c. Arthritis
d. Anaemia
141. Amina acid are building block of
a. Protein ✔
b. Carbohydrate
c. Lipid
d. Nucleic Acid
142. Vitamin K Dependent clotting Factor
a. II
b. VII
c. IX & X
d. All Options ✔
143. Study of Bacteria Called
a. Microbiology
b. Haematology
c. Bacteriology ✔
d. Microscopy
144. The Most Commonly used embedding media is
a. Paraffin Vax ✔
b. Celloidin
c. Gelatin
d. Resin
145. Which stain is best for Glycogen
a. PAS ✔
b. Van Kossa
c. Sudan Block B
d. Oil Red O Stain
146. Removal of Water From Tissue is Called
a. Dehydration ✔
 b. Hydration
c. Clearing
d. Grossing
147. Negri Bodies are seen in
a. Rabies ✔
b. Small Pox
c. HIV
d. Tuberculosis
148. Which Anticoagulant is not a Calcium Chelator
a. EDTA
b. Heparin ✔
c. Oxalate
d. Citrate
149. Carbohydrate reserve in Human body
a. Glucose
b. Glycogen ✔
c. Starch
d. Lactose
150. Which of the following immunoglobuline is pentamer.
a. IgG
b. IgM ✔
c. IgA
d. IgD
151. The Virus infact the bacteria is called
a. Mycophage
b. Bacteriophage ✔
c. Virdois
d. Infection
152. Bile is Secreted by which organ
a. Liver ✔
b. Gall Bladder
c. Pancrease
d. Salivary Gland
153. Which Instruments is used for separation of liquid from solid sediments
a. Autoclave
b. Centrifuge ✔
c. Analytical Balance
d. Microtome
154. Which Statement is true
a. Virus have both DNA & RNA
b. Gram Positive bacteria have thick peptidoglycan then gram negative ✔
c. Protozoa are prokaryotic
d. Bacteria have either DNA & RNA
155. Abnormal Variation in the size of rbc is known as
a. Microcytosis
b. Anisocytosis ✔
c. Poikilocytosis
d. Spherocytosis
156. Process of sharpening consist of
a. Honning
b. Embedding
c. Stropping
d. 1 & 3 Both ✔
157. Which types of media require special growth factor.
a. Enriched media ✔
 b. Transport media
c. Differential media
d. Simple media
158. Formal citrate solution is used for counting of
a. RBC ✔
b. WBC
c. Platelet
d. none
159. what is extra chromosomal genetic element in bacteria
a. Chromosome
b. Ribosomes
c. Conjugation
d. Plasmid ✔
160. Mature Cyst od E-histolytic is
a. Uninucleated
b. Binucleated
c. Quadrinucleated ✔
d. Octanucleated
161. Which method is used for Urea estimation ?
a. O Toludine method
b. Uricase method
c. DAM Method ✔
d. 2 & 3 both
162. Absence of spermatozoa in semen is called
a. Oligospermia
b. Hypospermia
c. Azospermia ✔
d. Hyperspermia
163. Lavender color top on tube of
a. EDTA ✔
b. Heparin
c. S Floride
d. ESR
164. Vitamin C Chemical name is
a. Retinol
b. Ascorbic Acid ✔
c. Folic Acid
d. Riboflavin
165. Fouchet Reagent is used to detect
a. Sugar
b. Keton body
c. Bile Pigment ✔
d. Protein
166. New Methylene blue stain is used for counting of
a. Reticulocyte ✔
b. Erythrocyte
c. Platelet
d. Malaria
167. Dehaemoglobinization is done in
a. Thin smear
b. Thick Smear ✔
c. Wet smear
d. none
168. RBC’s negativaly charge due to presence of
a. Antigen A & B
 b. Erythropoietin
c. Sialic Acid ✔
d. Iron
169. Which is the following cell from antibody
a. T Lymphocyte
b. B Lymphocyte ✔
c. Macrophage
d. Reticulocyte
170. Which is best method of Hb estimation ?
a. Cyan meth method ✔
b. Sahli’s Method
c. Alkali hematin method
d. Specific gravity method
171. Majortiy of iron present in
a. Hemoglobin ✔
b. Transferrin
c. Hemosiderin
d. None
172. What is the principle of Colorimeter ?
a. Beer’s law
b. Lambert’s Law
c. Beer & Lumbert’s law
d. Al of above ✔
173. Which Hemoglobin is called fetal hemoglobin
a. HbA1
b. HbF ✔
c. HbA2
d. HbS
174. Extrinsic hemolysis caused by
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. G6PD Deficiency
c. AIHA ✔
d. Spherocytosis
175. True about blood
a. Blood is Liquid connective tissue ✔
b. Blood contain only platelets
c. in vain blood is pinkish-red in colour
d. normaly blood contain bacteria
176. Who is father of Virology
a. Robert Koch
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Ivanovosky ✔
d. Antony Van Leevenhoek
177. Cocci present in pair of four is called
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Tetrads ✔
d. Sarcina
178. Decrease of all types of cell count in blood is seen in
a. Plastic Anemia ✔
b. Hemolytic Anemia
c. ITP
d. Iron Deficiency Anemia
179. Which is true for Major Cross match in blood bank
a. Donor Cells + Receiver Serum ✔
 b. Donor Cells + Receiver Cells
c. Donor Serum + Receiver Cells
d. Donor Serum + Receiver Serum
180. Which method is used for detection of bile salt in sample ?
a. Hay’s Test ✔
b. Rothera Test
c. Benedict’s Method
d. Biuret method
181. Removing of Calcium from tissue is called
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Decalcification ✔
c. Cleaning
d. Embedding
182. What is used to examine cyst of paracite under microscope
a. Normal Saline
b. Z-N Stain
c. Gram Stain
d. Iodine Preparation ✔
183. Which Parasitic infaction is congenital infaction
a. E. Vermicularis
b. T. Vaginalis
c. E. Granulosis
d. Toxoplasma Gonadii ✔
184. Virus Culture inside the embryo egg is detected with
a. Cytopathic effect
b. Pock formation ✔
c. turbidity
d. Bubbles formation
185. Staphylococcus is differentiate with straptococcus by which biochemical test
a. Catalase ✔
b. Indole
c. Motility
d. Coagulase
186. Swarming motility seen in
a. Vibrio Cholera
b. Clostridium
c. Proteus ✔
d. Treponema Palladum
187. in Which condition megaloblastic anemia accur
a. Vitamin B 12 Deficiency
b. Folic Acid Deficiency
c. Iron Deficiency
d. A & B Both ✔
188. Which coagulation factor is lacking in hemophilia
a. Factor-Viii ✔
b. Factor-ii
c. Factor-iX
d. Factor-Xi
189. Presence of RBC in urine is dected by
a. Physical Examination
b. Chemical Examination
c. Microscopic Examination ✔
d. All of Above
190. Breakdown of degradation process during metabolism is called
a. Anabolism
 b. Catabolism ✔
c. Destruction
d. Cutting
191. Which microtome is used to urgent biopsy ?
a. Base seledge
b. Sliding microtome
c. Rotary microtome
d. Cryostat ✔
192. Purssian blue stain is used for
a. Iron
b. Haemosidrin ✔
c. Glycogen
d. Bacteria
193. Corynebacterium dephtheria granules is stained with
a. Z.N Stain
b. Auramine Stain
c. Gram Stain
d. Alberts Stain ✔
194. Color code for heparine is
a. Green ✔
b. Yellow
c. Black
d. Red
195. Which medium is used for transportation of kidney biopsy ?
a. Michel’s Solution ✔
b. Normal Saline
c. Buffer Formalin
d. Ice Pack
196. In Harris Hematoxylin which types of mordant is used
a. Alum ✔
b. Iron
c. Tungsten
d. Mercuric Oxide
197. Flagler antigen is also called as
a. O Antigen
b. H Antigen ✔
c. Vi Antigen
d. Flagella
198. Which growth factor required by Haemophilus Influenza ?
a. X
b. X and V ✔
c. V
d. Egg
199. Excess amount of EDTA Cause?
a. Swelling of Platelets
b. Shrinking of WBC and RBC
c. A and B ✔
d. None
200. Which of the following used for counting of leukocytes
a. Turk’d Fluid ✔
b. Dacie formal solution
c. 1 % of Ammonium oxalate
d. Hayem’s Solution
201. In which of the following case we used Schilling test
a. In relation to vitamin 12
 b. in relation of sickle cell anemia
c. Pernicious anemia
d. A & C both ✔
202. N-95 Mask is used during dealing with
a. M. TB ✔
b. Ebola Virus
c. Malaria
d. HIV
203. Which diseases is occure due to lack of GP llb/llla receptor on platelet ?
a. Glanzmann Thrombasthenia ✔
b. Bernal Soliuer Syndrome
c. Plt Gray syndrome
d. Thrombocytopenia
204. Cooley’s anemia is accur due to
a. Absent of beta gene ✔
b. Absent of RBC’s
c. Absent of all blood cells
d. Increase of WBC
205. Glassware used to measure 24-hour urine volumes is a:
a. volumetric flask
b. beaker
c. Erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder ✔
e. safety bulb
206. Glassware used to make 100 ml of a 12% solution is a:
a. Volumetric flask ✔
b. Beaker
c. Erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder
e. safety bulb
207. A suction device used to draw up liquids is a:
a. volumetric flask
b. beaker
c. Erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder
e. safety bulb ✔
208. The pipette with a bulged-out portion in the middle is a:
a. Mohr pipette
b. pasture pipette
c. serological pipette
d. volumetric pipette ✔
e. micro-pipette
209. Which piece of glassware would not give critical measurement:
a. volumetric flask
b. Beaker ✔
c. Erlenmeyer cylinder
d. graduated cylinder
e. safety bulb
210. The durable material used to make heat resistant glassware is:
a. Polyethylene
b. soda lime
c. polystyrene
d. borosilicate ✔
e. polyvinyl chloride
211. Solid crystals of potassium oxalate are added to distilled water in a container. What term would describe
the potassium oxalate?
a. solution
b. solvent
c. solute ✔
d. reagent
e. a & c
212. The destruction of all micro-organisms including spores is called:
a. sanitation
b. antisepsis
c. sterilization ✔
d. disinfection
e. asepsis
213. A ug is a unit to describe:
a. time
b. volume
c. distance
d. weight ✔
e. length
214. A pH of 2 is _____ than a pH of 5:
a. 1000 times more acidic
b. 100 times more acidic
c. 2 times less acidic
d. 20 times less acidic
e. 1000 times more acidic ✔
215. Cells in a hypertonic solution will:
a. swell and burst
b. dehydrate ✔
c. hemolyze
d. not be affected
e. stop mitosis
216. The solution used to fix a pap smear is:
a. wright stain
b. hematoxylin
c. physiological saline
d. cytospray ✔
e. methylene blue
217. Blood for an RBC count must be prepared from:
a. EDTA blood ✔
b. citrated blood
c. heparinized blood
d. oxalated blood
e. clotted blood
218. Which reagent is not routinely used to preserve tissue in a life-like manner:
a. formic acid ✔
b. Zenker’s fluid
c. 40% formaldehyde dissolved in water
d. Bouin’s fluid
e. 10% formalin
219. Which piece of histology equipment is not temperature dependent:
a. wax
b. tissue processor
c. microtome ✔
d. embedding center
e. water bath
220. A biopsy is:
a. a removal of biological fluid
b. the removal of an organ
c. a post mortem examination
d. excision of a representative tissue sample ✔
e. a collection of blood
221. During tissue processing, what is the correct sequence of steps:
a. clearing, dehydration, infiltration
b. clearing, infiltration, dehydration
c. dehydration, infiltration, clearing
d. dehydration, clearing, infiltration ✔
e. embedding, sectioning, staining
222. Fixation is important in tissue processing because it:
a. prevents cell morphology changes and shrinkage
b. allows tissue to be examined in a life-like condition
c. facilitates the staining process
d. 1 & 3
e. 1, 2, & 3 ✔
223. The liquid portion of blood remaining after a clot has formed is called:
a. the buffy coat
b. serum ✔
c. plasma
d. lymph
e. tissue fluid
224. Which test could not be performed on a serum sample:
a. iron
b. vitamin B12
c. total lipids
d. clotting factors ✔
e. potassium
225. The shape of a normal erythrocyte is described as:
a. biconcave disc ✔
b. spherocyte
c. polymorphonucleocyte
d. thin column
e. bull’s eye
f.
226. Glucose results are correctly reported in:
a. g/mmol
b. mmol/L ✔
c. g/L
d. g/ml
e. g/dl
227. If a patient refuses to have a venipuncture done you should:
a. tear up the requisition
b. collect a urine sample
c. politely ask a patient to come back next week
d. restrain the patient and proceed with the venipuncture
e. notify the patient’s physician ✔
228. Which statement is false when performing a venipuncture:
a. the vein is entered at a 15-20 degree angle
b. the tubes are pushed onto the needle with the thumb of the strongest hand
c. the bevel of the needle is pointed up when entering the vein
d. the tourniquet is removed before withdrawing the needle
e. the patients arm is cleansed before palpating the vein ✔
229. A biohazardous container is used to discard:
a. lancets
b. needled
c. band-aid wrappers
d. 1 & 2 ✔
e. 1, 2 & 3
230. Which needle gauge corresponds with the smallest needle size:
a. 18
b. 20
c. 21
d. 22
e. 23 ✔
231. The vacutainer tube which is used to collect and separate serum is the:
a. red
b. green
c. lavender
d. light blue
e. SST ✔
232. If a lavender top, plain red top, grey top, and light blue top tubes are collected, what is the order of draw:
a. they can be collected in any order
b. plain red top, lavender, blue, grey
c. blue, plain red top, grey, lavender
d. grey, blue, lavender, plain red top
e. plain red top, light blue, lavender, grey ✔
233. The tourniquet is:
a. applied very tightly to the arm
b. used to increase venous fill ✔
c. applied about 6-8? above the elbow
d. tied in a knot to keep it on securely
e. released after the needle is withdrawn
234. If a patient faints during a venipuncture, you should:
a. call the physician at once
b. remove the needle and attend to the patient ✔
c. yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious
d. continue the procedure until all blood is collected
e. start artificial respiration immediately
237. What vein/veins is not used to obtain a venous blood sample:
a. basilica vein
b. cephalic vein
c. medial cubital vein
d. femoral vein ✔
e. veins on the back of the hand
238. A blood specimen collected in a heparinized tube is centrifuged. It will separate into:
a. serum and clot
b. plasma and clot
c. serum and plasma
d. plasma, buffy coat, RBC ✔
239. Hemolysis may result from:
a. using a 25-gauge needle on an adult
b. vigorously shaking the blood specimen
c. refrigerating the vacutainer before use
d. leaving the tourniquet on for 3 minutes
e. all of the above ✔
240. The test procedure that uses a Westergren tube is:
a. erythrocyte sedimentation rate ✔
 b. hematocrit
c. reticulocyte count
d. microhematocrit
e. differential
241. Latex gloves protect the lab employee from:
a. accidental needle puncture
b. microtome injury
c. patient aerosols
d. body fluid ✔
e. all of the above
242. Which statement is false when setting up an ESR:
a. it must be read in exactly one hour
b. it should be set up near a centrifuge ✔
c. the blood level must be at exactly zero
d. it should be performed on fresh blood
e. it must be set up in a vertical position
243. What is the normal temperature of a laboratory refrigerator:
a. -4 C
b. 0 C
c. 3 C ✔
d. 20 C
e. e.37 C
244. The purpose of doing a differential is to:
a. determine the proportion of RBC in whole blood
b. count the number of WBC’s in whole blood
c. determine the proportions of WBC’s in whole blood ✔
d. c & e
e. diagnose anemia
245. Blood samples for cell counts must be thoroughly mixed immediately before testing to:
a. prevent the clumping of platelets
b. prevent the formation of small clots
c. oxygenate the sample
d. ensure even distribution of all blood components ✔
e. mix anticoagulant with the blood
246. An automated hematology cell count uses the principle of:
a. diffusion
b. color absorption changes
c. high frequency sound waves
d. changes in cell electrical currents ✔
e. light wave scattering
247. The maximum depth to perform a heel puncture on a newborn is:
a. 1.5mm
b. 2.0mm
c. 2.4mm ✔
d. 2.8mm
e. 3.0mm
248. The first drop of blood is wiped away after performing a skin puncture to:
a. remove any pathogens that are present
b. increase blood flow to the area
c. remove the last traces of alcohol
d. remove any excess tissue fluid
e. c & d ✔
249. What areas on an infant are suitable for skin puncture:
a. any calloused areas of the foot
b. the second or third finger on either hand
 c. the posterior curvature of the heel
d. the lateral, flat portion of the heel ✔
250. What laboratory department studies antigen-antibody reaction:
a. ematology
b. crobiology
c. immunology ✔
d. chemistry
e. coagulation
251. what tube would be drawn for ANA:
a. red
b. grey
c. SST ✔
d. green
e. light blue
252. A disinfectant used on metal surface is:
a. 10% formalin
b. 2% glutaraldehyde ✔
c. 1% hypochlorite
d. 70% isopropyl alcohol
e. 15% iodine
253. What tube would be collected for a cross-match:
a. lavender
b. light blue
c. green
d. grey
e. plain red top ✔
254. Separated serum that is dark yellow to amber in color is termed:
a. crenated
b. lipemic
c. jaundiced
d. icteric ✔
e. hemolyzed
255. Which factor would interfere with the growth of a pathogen:
a. appropriate nutrients
b. darkness
c. a moist environment
d. an acidic pH ✔
e. a temperature of 37 C
256. A specimen is:
a. material spread on a slide
b. an amount of blood or urine
c. a small sample taken to represent the whole organism or system ✔
d. a colony of micro-organisms growing on solid medium
e. a technique used to microscopically examine urine
257. The purpose of heat fixing a bacterial smear is to:
a. prevent cells from being washed off during staining ✔
b. causes the cells to absorb the stain more easily
c. provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
d. make the cells visible under the microscope
e. destroy the bacterial cell wall
258. The site of a specimen must be written on a swab container:
a. to warn staff about a possible pathogen
b. only if time permits-it is always on the requisition
c. to determine suitable agar and atmospheric requirements ✔
d. to determine the o.h.i.p. fee
 e. a, b, c, d and e
259. 53. Identify the correct sequence of steps on the gram stain procedure:
a. primary stain, secondary stain, mordant, decolorizing
b. mordant, primary stain, decolorizing, counterstain
c. counterstain, mordant, primary stain, decolorizing
d. primary stain, mordant, decolorizing, counterstain ✔
e. none of the above
260. How should commercially prepared culture plates be stored:
a. in the freezer until several hours before use
b. inverted to prevent condensation dripping on the media
c. at room temperature in a dark area of the lab
d. at a temperature of 2*C – 4*C
e. b & d ✔
261. Which Gram stain reagent acts as a mordant to bind the stain to the bacteria:
a. Lugol’s iodine
b. safranin
c. acetone-alcohol
d. Gram’s iodine ✔
e. crystal violet
262. Identify the false statement regarding blood culture collection:
a. the site is cleaned with betadine and alcohol
b. an arterial sample is collected ✔
c. an aerobic specimen is required
d. blood culture tubes are always drawn first
e. the specimens are never refrigerated
263. Susceptibility testing:
a. measures how fast a micro-organism can be destroyed
b. identifies the types of micro-organisms in the specimen
c. determines growth requirements of organisms
d. produces a pure culture
e. identifies the appropriate antibiotic needed to kill the micro-organism ✔
264. Identify the false statement when a specimen is cultured:
a. the equipment required is a loop and a direct flame
b. the media is brought to room temperature before use
c. the media selected is dependent on the type of specimen
d. the loop is sterilized prior to inoculation
e. the petri lid is placed upright to the bench to prevent contamination ✔
265. Which statement is false when a Gram stain is performed:
a. distilled water is used for the washing steps ✔
b. acetone-alcohol decolorizes gram-negative bacteria
c. safranin stains the gram-negative bacteria red
d. Gram’s iodine is used to bind the primary stain
e. crystal violet stains the gram-positive bacteria purple
266. Which is most commonly used for protection when processing swabs, body fluid or blood:
a. fume hood
b. class l laminar flow hood
c. class ll laminar flow hood ✔
d. class lll laminar flow hood
e. glove box
267. You are collecting a blood glucose level. The patient asks if you think he has diabetes. You would tell him:
a. this is a possibility, but you are not positive
b. you are unable to give him any information
c. to discuss this with the doctor as he can answer the question ✔
d. you have been instructed not to give out any information, therefore you can’t discuss it
e. to read a prepared pamphlet and make his own decision
268. The autoclave is set at _____ for small loads:
a. 121°C for 50min at 6 p.s.i.
b. 130°C for 30min at 30 p.s.i.
c. 121°C for 15min at 15 p.s.i. ✔
d. 121°C for 45min at 15 p.s.i.
e. 154°C for 20min at 20 p.s.i.
269. The universally accepted disinfectant for the medical workplace is:
a. 2% glutaraldehyde
b. 1% hypochlorite ✔
c. 10% formalin
d. 70% isopropyl alcohol
e. 5% iodine
270. A patient’s health card # consists of ___ digits:
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10 ✔
e. 12
271. A 1/6 dilution of serum in water was made. The glucose result was 4.0 mmol/L. What is the reported result:
a. 0.66 mmol/L
b. 4.0 mmol/L
c. 24.0 mmol/L ✔
d. 40.0 mmol/L
e. 60.0 mmol/L
272. 100ml of 20% hydrochloric acid will make how many mls of 4% hydrochloric acid:
a. 50ml
b. 80ml
c. 100ml
d. 500ml ✔
e. 1000ml
273. How many grams of NaCl are needed to make 300ml of a 2% solution:
a. 2 grams
b. 4 grams
c. 6 grams ✔
d. 20 grams
e. unable to determine with information
274. Approximately how many centimeters are in one foot:
a. 3
b. 12
c. 24
d. 30 ✔
e. 100
275. Two standard deviations from the mean includes:
a. 5% of all values
b. 34% of all values
c. 50% of all values
d. 68% of all values
e. 95% of all values ✔
276. When performing a venipuncture, bright red blood spurts into the tube. This means:
a. an arterial puncture ✔
b. high hemoglobin
c. high hematocrit
d. high blood pressure
e. high blood pH
277. A patient has hepatitis, which test(s) will be increased:
 a. ALT
b. AST
c. alkaline phosphates
d. bilirubin
e. all of the above ✔
278. Acid phosphates is an enzyme which increases in:
a. gout
b. kidney disease
c. liver disease
d. prostatic cancer ✔
e. heart disease
279. Which enzyme(s) would be increased in a patient with acute myocardial infarction:
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Creatine kinase
c. Aspartate aminotransferase
d. b & c ✔
e. all of the above
280. Xylene is used in:
a. fixation of autopsy material
b. dehydration of tissues
c. paraffin wax embedding process
d. attaching cover slips to slides
e. histology as a clearing agent ✔
281. A 2 hr. p.c. glucose:
a. is collected 2 hours after eating a meal high in carbohydrates
b. is a valuable screening test for diabetes mellitus
c. measures glucose when it is at its highest level after a meal
d. is not affected by medication
e. a & b ✔
282. A routine GTT:
a. is three hours long
b. requires five blood samples ✔
c. includes 6 urine samples
d. uses 100 grams of glucose in a 300ml solution
e. uses 50 grams of glucose in a 500ml solution
283. Glycosylated hemoglobin:
a. causes sickle cell anemia
b. is affected by the patient’s food intake on the day of testing
c. is drawn on a green top tube
d. indicates blood glucose levels from preceding months ✔
e. requires an SST tube
284. Serum is acidified after separation for which test:
a. uric acid
b. Frederickson typing
c. acid phosphate ✔
d. BUN
e. creatine
285. WHMIS stands for:
a. worker harmful material information sheets
b. worker handbook on mechanical and industrial safety
c. workplace hazardous materials information system ✔
d. workplace harmful methods and industrial security
e. none of the above
286. MSDS sheets do not contain:
a. product identifier and use
 b. hazardous ingredients
c. first aid measures
d. preventative measures
e. hazard symbols ✔
289. When using acid and water:
a. acid is slowly added to water ✔
b. water is slowly added to acid
c. water and acid are added together
d. it makes no difference how they are added
e. they are never mixed as heat is produced
290. Insidious hazards:
a. include substances which react violently with each other
b. include aerosols, carcinogens, mutagens, and radiation ✔
c. are substances which injury by direct chemical action
d. are graded using TLV and TLV-S.T.E.L. values
e. are always chemical in nature
291. Which test would not be performed on plasma or serum:
a. lipoprotein electrophoresis
b. iron
c. BUN
d. hemoglobin electrophoresis ✔
e. electrolyte profile
292. The function unit of the kidney is the:
a. renal cell
b. renal cortex
c. renal tubule
d. bladder
e. nephron ✔
293. Pus cells or fat in urine would cause this color:
a. red
b. yellow-brown
c. greenish-blue
d. milky-white ✔
e. black
294. The end products of protein digestion are:
a. glycerol
b. fatty acid
c. triglycerides
d. monosaccharides
e. amino acids ✔
295. Which statement is true regarding the use of reagent dipsticks:
a. heat and moisture do not affect the reagent reactivity
b. timing of each reagent area is not necessary
c. reagent sticks are held vertically when reading
d. all reagent sticks tests do specific gravity
e. reagent strips should be tested daily with control ✔
296. A 1/8 dilution of urine is:
a. 1-part water and 8 parts urine
b. 1-part urine and 8 parts water
c. 1-part urine and 7 parts water ✔
d. 1-part water and 7 parts urine
e. 1-part water and 9 parts urine
297. Before performing an R & M on a specimen, the urine would be;
a. filtered
b. brought to room temperature
 c. centrifuged
d. well-mixed
e. b & d ✔
298. A backup test(s) to confirm a positive protein in urine would be:
a. ictotest
b. SSA test
c. Clinitest
d. TCA test
e. b & d ✔
299. Which test result would increase in a urine specimen sitting at room temperature for 3 hours:
a. bilirubin
b. nitrite ✔
c. leukocyte
d. urobilinogen
e. ketones
300. Water free of charged particles is:
a. distilled
b. radioactive
c. chlorinated
d. de-ionized ✔
e. heavy
301. Identify the incorrect step when using a serological pipette:
a. the pipette tip is below the liquid surface when filling
b. releasing the safety bulb will draw liquid into the pipette
c. it delivers total capacity or multiple volumes
d. it is held vertically and allowed to drain freely
e. the last portion of the pipette contents is discarded in a separate container ✔
302. A “TC” pipette is:
a. allowed to drain freely
b. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
c. used for toxic corrosive liquids
d. emptied forcibly with a safety bulb
e. rinsed out after delivery ✔
303. The destruction of erythrocytes to release hemoglobin is called:
a. hemorrhage
b. hemostasis
c. erythropoiesis
d. hemolysis ✔
e. hypoxia
304. Which factor may cause a blood smear to be too thin:
a. the angle of the spreader is too high
b. the edge of the spreader is cracked
c. the smear is spread too slowly
d. the angle of the spreader is too low ✔
e. a dirty spreader is used
305. The test measuring the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBC’s is the:
a. CBC
b. Hct
c. ESR
d. Hgb ✔
e. MCV
306. An immature neutrophil is called:
a. blast cell
b. LE cell
c. band cell ✔
 d. reticulocyte
e. packed cell
307. The test that counts the number of immature RBC’s is the:
a. osmotic fragility test
b. differential
c. reticulocyte count ✔
d. RBC count
e. stab cell count
308. Which test does not monitor a patient’s coagulation mechanism:
a. PT
b. ACTH ✔
c. APTT
d. FDP
e. platelet count
309. Erythroprotein hormone secreted by
a. Liver
b. Kidney ✔
c. Spleen
d. Bone marrow
310. What is a diameter of RBC (Red Blood Cells)
a. 1 μm
b. 7.2 μm ✔
c. 8 μm
d. 6.5 μm
311. What is the normal Range of Reticulocytes ?
a. 2-4 %
b. 0.2 – 2 % ✔
c. 2.2 – 4.4 %
d. 1-2 %
312. Fero\en section is used to demonstrate ?
a. Lipid ✔
b. Glycogen
c. Pigmemt
d. All
313. Which anticoagulant is used in ESR by westernern’s method ?
a. EDTA
b. Heparine
c. 3.8% Tri-Sodium Citrate ✔
d. Any of above
314. Which Method is used to check complete declacification process ?
a. X-Ray method
b. Mechimal Method
c. Both 1 & 2 Method ✔
d. None
315. How many Lobs normally seen in Neutrophils ?
a. 3 lobs ✔
b. 5 lobs
c. 6 lobs
d. No lobs
316. Plasma without fibrinogen is called as ?
a. Blood
b. Serum ✔
c. Plasma
d. Water
317. Clearing fluid make the tissue
 a. Turbid
b. Transparent ✔
c. Swell
d. Dry
318. What is the color of Gram Positive Bacteria in gram stain ?
a. Pink
b. Purple ✔
c. Green
d. None
319. Which is part of pre-analytical in quality control ?
a. Dispatch of report
b. Performing a test
c. Check the vain before sample collection ✔
d. Maintain the Record of reports
320. Which of the following carbohydrate is disaccharides ?
a. Glactose
b. Glucose
c. Lactose ✔
d. Fructose
321. Which media is commonly used for fungle culture ?
a. SDA ✔
b. Blood Culture
c. Nutrient agar
d. Chocolate Agar
322. Best medium for urine culture ?
a. Blood Agar
b. Nutrient Agar
c. CLED Agar ✔
d. Chocolate Agar
323. Megakaryocytes are precursor of
a. RBC
b. Platelet ✔
c. WBC
d. Plasma cell
324. Sexual reproduction and adult paracite is seen in ?
a. Man
b. Definitive host ✔
c. Intermediat host
d. B & C Both
325. Which Vitamin important for blood clotting ?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin K ✔
326. Which type of antibody include in seconadry immune responce ?
a. IgM
b. IgG ✔
c. IgA
d. IgD
327. What is the optimum temperature of reactivity for IgG ?
a. 37 °C ✔
b. 4 °C
c. -4 °C
d. 25 °C
328. What is Pancytopenia ?
 a. Reduction of all type of blood cells ✔
b. Low number of RBC
c. Increasing of all type of blood cells
d. Reduction is cytoplasmic Ratio
329. What is name for the phagocytic cells of liver ?
a. Kupffer cells ✔
b. Neutrophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Macrophage
330. Which cell life span is approx. 4 months?
a. WBC
b. RBC ✔
c. Platelet
d. Neutrophils
331. What is other name of factor XIII ?
a. Fibrinogen
b. Anti-Hemophilic factor
c. Fibrin stabilizing factor ✔
d. Calcium
332. Which stain used for capsule ?
a. India ink
b. Negative Stain
c. 1 & 2 Both ✔
d. Crystal Violet
333. What happened when foreign particle enter into body ?
a. Production of Antibody ✔
b. Production of Antigen
c. 1 & 2 Both
d. None of above
334. Which factor deficiency involved in Haemophilia V ?
a. Factor – VIII
b. Factor – II
c. Factor – IX ✔
d. Factor – XI
335. Which Stain is Not a category of Romanaworasky ?
a. Giemsa Stain
b. Wright’s Stain
c. Leishman Stain
d. ZN Stain ✔
336. Sharps of Needles discarded in ?
a. Blue Container
b. Red Container ✔
c. Yellow Container
d. Black Container
337. Widal Test Use for Which Organism ?
a. Salmonella ✔
b. Vibrio Cholera
c. Staphylococcus
d. Shigella
338. 121°C for 15 mint in Sterilization for ?
a. Hot air oven
b. Water Bath
c. Autoclave ✔
d. Incubator
339. Which method is used for Bilirubin Estimation ?
 a. Malloy & Evelyn method ✔
b. DAM Method
c. Biuret method
d. Heat Method
340. Candle Jar Method used for ?
a. Aerobic Bacteria
b. Anaerobic Bacteria ✔
c. 1 & 2 Both
d. Capnophilic Bacteria
341. Bacteria Having Flagella All over the body called as ?
a. Monotrichous
b. Peritrichous ✔
c. Lophotrichous
d. Amphitrichous
342. Metachromatic granules associated with ?
a. Clostridium
b. Staphylococcus
c. Corynebacterium ✔
d. Vibrio
343. Obstriction in bile Duet due to stone or Tumor seen in ?
a. Pre-hepatic Jaundice
b. Post-Hepatic Jauindice ✔
c. Hepatic Jaundice
d. All of Above
344. Fouchet’s Reagent used for which Test ?
a. Bile Salt
b. Bile Pigment ✔
c. Bilirubin
d. Biliverdin
345. Which type of changes seen in Jaundice ?
a. Yellow Collor of Skin and EYE
b. Increase Level of bilirubin in Blood
c. Both 1 and 2 ✔
d. None
346. What is the Renal Threshold value of glucose ?
a. 108 mg/dl
b. 180 mg/dl ✔
c. 150 mg.dl
d. 70 – 110 mg/dl
347. Which Hormone id responsible to increase the level of glucose in blood ?
a. Oral glucose tolerance test
b. Insulin
c. Glacagone ✔
d. All of Above
348. Mobile phase and stationary phase are part of ?
a. Electrophoresis
b. Chromatography ✔
c. Spectrophotometer
d. Atomic absorption spectroscopy
349. In General how many wells present in Elisa Plate for test ?
a. 96 Wells ✔
b. 98 Wells
c. 94 Wells
d. 108 Wells
350. Which Condition is not Required for BMR (basal metabolic rate)
 a. Mentally and physically rest
b. Tempertaure = 25°C
c. Post absorptive state
d. Test should be done in Eventing ✔
351. Which of the following is not a part of nucleotide ?
a. Pentose sugar
b. Phosphate group
c. Purine & Pyrimidine Base
d. Primer ✔
352. Which of the following method for water Purification ?
a. Filtering
b. Chlorinating
c. Boiling
d. All of Above ✔
353. If Anti-A and Anti-B antibody are seen in Person, then whta is the Blood group of that Person ?
a. “A”
b. “B”
c. “O” ✔
d. “AB”
354. Platelet rich Plasma (PRP) is stored at ?
a. 37°C
b. 4°C
c. 22°C ✔
d. -180°C
355. Which type of blood componant given in Von willebrand deficiency ?
a. FFP (Fresh Frozen Plasma)
b. Plasma
c. Platelet Rich plasma
d. Cryoprecipitate ✔
356. Whis test is done to measure intrinsic pathway ?
a. PT
b. APTT ✔
c. TT
d. Fibrinolysis
357. Which type of medium used in electrone microscrope for embedding
a. Paraffin Wax
b. Resin ✔
c. Carbowax
d. Celloidin
358. Sudan Black-b Stain used for ?
a. Glycogen
b. Fat ✔
c. Protein
d. Bacteria
359. Which of the following is not a DNA Virus ?
a. Adenoviridae
b. Poxviridae
c. Papovaviridae
d. Orthomyxoviridae ✔
360. In HIV Positive patient Which blood cells decrease in number ?
a. CD4 ✔
b. CD8
c. Small Lymphocyte
d. All of above
361. Which of the following is not a florescent dyes ?
 a. Auramine
b. Calcoflour
c. Rhodamine
d. Methylene blue ✔
362. Which of the following Contain protein but no Nucleic Acid ?
a. Virus
b. Mycoplasma
c. Prions ✔
d. Rickettsia
363. Hydated cyst Associated with, which of the following ?
a. Ascaris Lumbricoid
b. Echinococcus Granulosus ✔
c. Giardia Lamblia
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
364. Cerebral malaria is caused by ?
a. Plasmodium Vivax
b. Plasmodium falciparum ✔
c. Plasmodium Ovale
d. All of above
365. True about malarial capsule following except ?
a. Lost by repeated subculture
b. Stain by Gram stain ✔
c. Protect bacteria by lytic enzymes
d. Prevent phagocytosis
366. FNAC (Fine needle Aspiration cytology) taken from ?
a. Nodules
b. Breast Lump
c. Lymph node
d. All of above ✔
367. Which anticoagulant present in blood culture bottle ?
a. SPS ✔
b. Heparin
c. Doubal Oxalate
d. None of above
368. Antimicrobial agent that kill the bacteria are called ?
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Antibiotic
c. Bacteriocidal ✔
d. Bacterial Killer
369. Spreading of disease worldwide called as ?
a. Epidamic
b. Endamic
c. Pandamic ✔
d. Infection
370. Cancer of bone called as ?
a. Carcinoma
b. Sarcoma ✔
c. Leukemia
d. Lymphoma
371. Measurementof all overall strength of antigen and antibody by ?
a. Affinity
b. Colorimeter
c. Avidity ✔
d. Elisa
372. Antibody found in mother milk ?
 a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA ✔
d. IgE
373. Paratope is site present on ?
a. Antigen
b. Antibody ✔
c. Both on 1 and 2
d. Epitope
374. Which of the following is incorrect statement of fixation ?
a. Stop autolysis
b. 10% buffer formaline is best
c. Fixation depend open temperature
d. Only used in histopathology and cytology ✔
375. Which is not a part of Cytology ?
a. Efxolivative Cytology
b. FNAC
c. Body fluid study
d. Calcoflour ✔
376. Which of the following is nuclear stain ?
a. Eosin Stain
b. Orange-G Stain
c. Haematoxylin ✔
d. Nigrosin
377. Translocation between 9 & 22 chromosome called as ?
a. Fanconi syndrome
b. Philadelphia Chromosome ✔
c. Down Syndrome
d. Gilbert Syndrome
378. Megaloblastic anemia occure due to deficiency of ?
a. Folate
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin B9
d. All of above ✔
379. Subcutaneous Solid mass of blood at the site of venepuncture ?
a. Sarcoma
b. Hematoma ✔
c. Bleeding
d. Hemolysis
380. Which of the following play role in blood clotting except ?
a. Platelet
b. Clotting Factor
c. Vasoconstriction
d. Fibrinolysis ✔
381. When a blood clott moving throughout the body called as ?
a. Vector
b. Hematoma
c. Embolism ✔
d. Thrombus
382. Which Factor act of fibrin clot and make it trouble clot ?
a. Factor- I
b. Thrombin
c. Prothrombin
d. Factor- XIII ✔
383. What is mean by Histology ?
 a. Study of Diseased tissue
b. Study of normal Cells
c. Study of normal structure of tissue ✔
384. All of the following is granulocyte except ?
a. Lymphocyte ✔
b. Basophil
c. Nutrophil
d. Eosinophil
385. Which bond is not a part of Ag, Ab Reaction ?
a. Hydrogen bond
b. Covalent Bond ✔
c. Hydrophobic Interactions
d. Ionic
386. In a reaction if antibody number are decrease they called as ?
a. Prozone
b. Postzone ✔
c. Zone of equivalence
d. Without Zone
387. In Florescent mocroscope, what is used ?
a. Electrone beam
b. U.V Rays ✔
c. Simple light
d. Sunlighte
388. What indicate if report say retrovirus positive ?
a. Herpes
b. HIV ✔
c. Hepatitis
d. Robies
389. Peplomers present on which site in virus ?
a. Nucleic acid
b. Envelope ✔
c. Capsid
d. Nucleocapsid
390. Which of the following not a part of ketone bodies ?
a. Acetone
b. Beta Hydroxybutyric acid
c. Acetic acid ✔
d. Acetoacetate
391. What do you mean by polyuria ?
a. Increase amount of urea
b. Increase amount of Uric Acid
c. Increase amount of Urine ✔
d. Increase amount of urea in Urine
392. In Which instrument we take reading of Radioisotopes ?
a. Scintillation
b. Ionisation chamber
c. Auto Radiograph
d. All of above ✔
393. Which clearance test is more specific for kidneys ?
a. Insuline clearance test
b. Urea clearance test
c. Inuline clearance test
d. Creatinine clearance test ✔
394. In case of pancreatic disease which of following is elevated ?
a. Amylase
 b. Lipase
c. Carboxy peptidase
d. 1 & 2 Both ✔
395. Mother antobody goes into baby via placenta/ milk called as a ?
a. Active Natural Immunity
b. Passive artificial Immunity
c. Passive Natural Immunity ✔
d. Active Artificial Immunity
396. What is a Scientific name of pin worm ?
a. Introbius Vermicularis ✔
b. Ansylostoma duodenale
c. Trichuris Trichura
d. Ascaris lumbricoids
397. Mycobacterium laprae resist decolourization from ?
a. 20% Sulphuric acid
b. 5% Sulphuric acid ✔
c. 25% Sulphuric acid
d. 3% Sulphuric acid
398. Dick test is assosiated with ?
a. Staphylococus albus
b. Streptococci pyogenes ✔
c. Streptococci Viridance
d. Staphylococus Aureus
399. Flaming is done in following for sterilization except ?
a. Glass Slides
b. Mouth of tubes
c. Forceps ✔
d. Flask Mouth
400. What is correct order for bacteria growth ?
a. Log, Lag, Stationary, decline
b. Lag, Stationary, Log, Decline
c. Lag, Log, Stationary, Decline ✔
d. Log, Lag, Decline, Stationary
401. Ultra-thin Section for electrone microscope cut at ?
a. 1-2 nm
b. 50-90mm
c. 50-90nm ✔
d. 1-2mm
402. Polishing of knife is called as ?
a. Sharpening ✔
b. Stropping
c. Honning
d. Clearing
403. Which of the following reagent not a part of clearing ?
a. Xylene
b. Dioxine
c. Acetone ✔
d. Toulene
404. Which of the following is mandatory screening test before blood transfusion ?
a. Hepatitis C
b. HIV
c. Malaria
d. All of above ✔
405. Which of the following test is used to detect In-Vitro sensitization of RBCs ?
a. Indirect Coombs test ✔
 b. Direct Coonbs Test
c. Agglutination
d. Precipitation
406. Which Statement is Incorrect for sodium floride ?
a. It inhibit enolase enzyme
b. It is an Anticoagulant
c. It Prevent Glucose level to fall down
d. It is also used in urine glucose detection ✔
407. Nucleoside made up of ?
a. Nitrogenous + Pentose sugar ✔
b. Nitrigenous Base + Nucleotide
c. Nucleotide + Phosphate
d. Nitrogenous Base + Pentose Sugar + Phosphate
408. Protein are made up of ?
a. Peptide
b. Uric acid
c. Amino Acid ✔
d. Amino- Peptidase
409. Which one of the following develops the blood bank?
a. Sir Alexander Godefroy
b. Sir Charles Richard Drew ✔
c. Sir John Biggins
d. Sir Louis Braille
410. Formation of blood cell is called:
a. Mitosis
b. Hemopoiesis ✔
c. Photosynthesis
d. Complement fixation
411. During blood donation, the removal of blood components is called:
a. Cytophresis
b. Plasmaphresis
c. Aphresis ✔
d. Leakophresis
412. In Sickle cell anemia, red cell count is :
a. Reduced ✔
b. Increased
c. Normal
d. None
413. Size of red blood cell is:
a. 10 micro meter
b. 7 micro meter ✔
c. 8 micro meter
d. 2 micro meter
414. The minimum weight of blood donor should be:
a. 45kg
b. 50kg ✔
c. 55kg
d. 60Kg
415. The lower limit of Hb in female blood donor is:
a. 10 gm/dl
b. 12 gm/dl ✔
c. 13 gm/dl
d. 14 gm/dl
416. The disease cannot be transmitted through transfusion of blood is:
a. Hepatitis B
 b. AIDS
c. Cancer ✔
d. Malaria
417. Red blood cells can be frozen and stored up to:
a. 3 years ✔
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 8 years
418. 500ml whole blood contains plasma approximately:
a. 100 to 150ml
b. 200 to 250ml ✔
c. 300 to 350ml
d. 350 to 400ml
419. Immunological reactions of Blood transfusion include all except:
a. Allergic
b. Anaphylactic
c. Leak agglutinin
d. Circulatory overload ✔
420. Primary reaction of Ag-Ab interaction is:
a. Invisible ✔
b. Visible
c. pH dependent
d. No reaction
421. The conditions in which Bleeding time does not become prolonged is:
a. Deficiency of vitamin K
b. Hemophilia
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Afibrinoginemia ✔
422. Clotting time has normal value of:
a. 2 to 8 min ✔
b. 3 to 6 min
c. 4 to 5 min
d. 6 to 8 min
423. The common Blood group among these is:
a. AB-Negative
b. B-Positive ✔
c. A-Negative
d. AB-Positive
424. Donation of blood can cause:
a. Malaria
b. AIDS
c. Hepatitis
d. No disease ✔
425. Whole blood is contraindicated except in:
a. Chronic anemia
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Exchange transfusion ✔
d. Incipient Cardiac failure
426. In embryonic life, the blood cell development stage is:
a. Hepatic stage
b. Mesoblastic stage ✔
c. Myeloid stage
d. Mature stage
427. All coagulation factors are stable at low freezing point except:
a. Factors V & VIII ✔
 b. Factors IX & X
c. Factors IV &V
d. Factors II
428. The normal platelet count in adult is:
a. 100,000 to 300,000 mm3
b. 150,000 to 250,000 mm3
c. 150,000 450,000 mm3 ✔
d. 200,000 300,000 mm3
429. In Blood, lack of intrinsic factors causes:
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. Pernicious anemia ✔
c. Target cell anemia
d. Iron deficiency anemia
430. MC blood transfusion reaction is:
a. Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction ✔
b. Hemolysisc
c. Transmission of infections
d. Electrolyte imbalance
431. All of the following infections may be transmitted via bloodtransfusion, except:
a. Parvo B-19
b. Dengue virus ✔
c. Hepatitis G
d. Cytomegalovirus
432. Which of the following is the least likely complication a ermassive blood transfusion ?
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Citrate toxicity
c. Hypothermia
d. Metabolic acidosis ✔
433. Fresh hold blood transfusion is done with in how much timeof collection ?
a. Immediately
b. 1 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 24 hours ✔
434. Which of the following investigations should be doneimmediately to best confirm a non matched blood
transfusionreaction ?
a. Indirect Coomb’s test
b. Direct Coomb’s test ✔
c. Antibody in patient’s serum
d. Antibody in donor serum
435. Blood components products are:
a. Whole blood
b. Platelets
c. Fresh frozen plasma
d. Leukocyte reduced RBC
e. All of the above ✔
436. One unit of fresh blood arises the Hb% concentration by:
a. 0.1 gm%
b. 1 gm% ✔
c. 2 gm%
d. 2.2 gm%
437. Which of the following statements about acute hemolytic blood transfusion reaction is true ?
a. Complement mediated hemolysis is seen ✔
b. Type III hypersensitivity is responsible for most cases
c. Rarely life threatening
d. Renal blood ow is always maintained
 e. No need for stopping transfusion
438. True about blood transfusions:
a. Antigen ‘D” determines Rh positivity ✔
b. Febrile reaction is due to HLA antigens
c. Anti-d is naturally occurring antibody
d. Cryoprecipitate contains all coagulation factors
439. Which of the following is better indicator of need fortransfusion ?
a. Urine output
b. Hematocrit ✔
c. Colour of skin
d. Clinical examination
440. Massive blood transfusion is defined as:
a. 350 ml in 5 min
b. 500 ml in 5 min
c. 1 litre in 5 min
d. Whole blood volume ✔
441. How long can blood stored with CPDA?
a. 12 days
b. 21 days
c. 35 days ✔
d. 48 days
442. Massive transfusion in previous healthy adult male can cause hemorrhage due to:
a. Increased t-PA
b. Dilutional thrombocytopenia ✔
c. Vitamin K deficiency
d. Decreased Fibrinogen
443. Arterial blood gas analysis in a bottle containing heparincauses a decrease in value of:
a. pCO2
b. HCO3
c. pH
d. All of the above ✔
444. Massive blood transfusion is defined as:
a. Whole blood volume in 24 hours ✔
b. Half blood volume in 24 hours
c. 40% blood volume in 24 hours
d. 60% blood volume in 24 hours
445. After blood transfusion the febrile non-hemolytic transfu-sion reaction (FNHTR) occurs due to ?
a. Alloimmunization
b. Antibodies against donor leukocytes and HLA Ag ✔
c. Allergic reaction
d. Anaphylaxis
446. Blood grouping and cross-matching is must prior to infusionof:
a. Gelatin
b. Dextran ✔
c. Albumin
d. FFP
447. Blood grouping and cross matching is must prior to infusionof:
a. Gelatin
b. Albumin
c. Dextran ✔
d. Hemaceal
448. Collection of blood for cross matching and grouping is done before administration of which plasma
expander ?
a. Hydroxyl ethyl starch
b. Dextran ✔
 c. Mannitol
d. Hemacele
449. Mismatched blood transfusion in anesthetic patient presentsis:
a. Hyperthermia and hypertension
b. Hypotension and bleeding from site of wound ✔
c. Bradycardia and hypertension
d. Tachycardia and hypertension
450. What is Anticoagulant ?
a. Liques which stop Bleeding
b. Chemical which prevent bleeding
c. Salt That allow Blood to clot
d. All of above ✔
e. none of above
451. Most common Chemical that used as blood bank anticoagulant ?
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Tri-Sodium Citrate ✔
d. Double Oxalate
452. Advantage of blood donation to donor
a. Free health Check up
b. Reduce iron in body
c. Decrease Heart disease
d. All of above ✔
453. Before 24 hour which type of donor avoide for donation ?
a. Person who drunk Alcohol ✔
b. Dental Extraction Patient
c. Menstrual bleed women
d. All of above
454. Which needle used for blood donation ?
a. 21g
b. 10g
c. 16g ✔
d. 23g
455. Which of the following not testing as a transfusion related infection in blood bank ?
a. Hepatitis A ✔
b. Malaria
c. AIDS
d. HIV
456. 450 ml of blood require how much amount of anticoagulant ?
a. 49ml
b. 63ml ✔
c. 50ml
d. 36ml
457. RH Blood grouping discoverd by ?
a. Karl Landsteiner + Weiner ✔
b. Weiner + Alexander Fleming
c. Alexander Fleming
d. Karl Landsteiner
458. RH Antigen present on ?
a. Chromosome 19
b. Chromosome 1 ✔
c. Chromosome 9
d. Chromosome 16
459. Which is Important for ABO antigen ?
a. H Substance ✔
 b. I Substance
c. Alfo antigen
d. Beta antigen
460. Blue color of antisera A is due to ?
a. Trypan Blue ✔
b. Methylene Blue
c. Cynide
d. None of Above
461. D Antigen is also called as ?
a. Rh+ve
b. Rh-Ve
c. Bombay Blood Group
d. RH Antigen ✔
462. O Negative is Universal ?
a. Donor ✔
b. Recipient
c. Donor as well as Recipient
d. All of above
463. Removal of Specific Component of blood for human body by process of –
a. Apheresis ✔
b. Centrifuge
c. All of above
d. None of above
464. Platelet Rich Plasma Prepare in how much hour after collection ?
a. 24 Hours
b. 8 Hours
c. 6 Hours ✔
d. Any time but should be referigerated
465. Centrifuge whole blood in low speed give us ?
a. RPR ✔
b. PPP
c. PC
d. WBC
466. Fresh Frozen Plasma store for –
a. 5 Years at -70°C ✔
b. 1 Year at -4°C
c. 24 hours at -20°C
d. 71 hours at Room Temperature
467. 1 Unit rise Hb
a. 1% ✔
b. 0.1%
c. 10%
d. 5%
468. How often we donate blood ?
a. After 24 hours
b. After 3 Hours
c. After 3 Months ✔
d. After 6 Months
469. What is an Advantage of apheresis ?
a. Avoide Circulatory Overload
b. Avoide Iron Overload
c. Different Blood Componants to Different patients
d. Save Multiple Life
e. All of above ✔
470. The minimum Hematocrit for an antologus blood donor is ?
 a. 35%
b. 33% ✔
c. 32%
d. 36%
471. Donor Samples must be stored in transfusion service foe what period of time after Transfudion ?
a. 2 weeks
b. 3 days
c. 7 days ✔
d. 1 month
472. An individual who has recently been diagnosis with syphilis is deferred for ?
a. 2 weeks
b. Permanently
c. 4 weeks
d. 1 year ✔
473. Which of the following is the minimum weight for routien blood donor ?
a. 9 lbs
b. 100 lbs
c. 90 lbs
d. 110 lbs ✔
474. Which one of the following test is performed by the blood center to prevent disease transmission ?
a. ABO Typing
b. Hb
c. Hbsag ✔
d. HCT
475. Fresh frozen plasma can be utilize till ?
a. 35 days
b. 6 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 1 year ✔
476. Individual with Blood Group have both Anti-A and Anti-B antobodies in serum ?
a. Group A
b. Group B
c. Group AB
d. Group O ✔
477. Agglutination with both Anti-A and Anti-B typing indicates the blood group is ?
a. A
b. B
c. AB ✔
d. O
478. Blood containing neither antigen A nor B is which of the following Group ?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O ✔
479. Both parent are group AB which of the following are possible in offspring ?
a. Group A
b. Group B
c. Group AB
d. All of above ✔
480. Why are transfusions given?
a. To increase the amount of blood
b. To increase the blood’s ability to carry oxygen
c. To decrease the risk of bleeding
d. All of the above ✔
481. Which parts of the blood can be transfused?
 a. Whole blood
b. Platelets
c. Red blood cells
d. All of the above ✔
482. What is the minimum you should weigh to donate blood?
a. 100 pounds
b. 110 pounds ✔
c. 115 pounds
d. 125 pounds
483. How often can a donor give blood?
a. At any time
b. Every 2 months
c. Every 3 months ✔
d. Every 6 months
484. How much blood usually is donated at a time?
a. 1 pint ✔
b. 2 pints
c. 1 quart
d. 2 quarts
485. What are the common risks of donating blood?
a. Contract common viruses
b. Bacterial infection
c. Low blood pressure
d. None of the above ✔
486. Donated blood undergoes screening for which diseases?
a. AIDS
b. Viral hepatitis
c. Diabetes
d. A and B ✔
487. An advisory panel of experts has suggested that anyone who received transfusions before March 1992 be
screened for which of these diseases?
a. AIDS
b. Hepatitis C ✔
c. Mononucleosis
d. Leukemia
488. Which is the most common blood type among Americans?
a. O positive ✔
b. O negative
c. AB positive
d. AB negative
489. In ABO Blood Grouping antigen is present on __ and antibody in present on __ ?
a. Antigen on Red cells, Antobodies in Serum ✔
b. Antigen on Serum, Antobodies on Red cells
c. Both Present on Red cells
d. Both Present in Serum
490. Red cells in Grouping Used as ?
a. Known cells reacts with unknown serum
b. Unknown cells reacts with known serum ✔
c. Unknown cells reacts with known Cells
d. Non of the above
491. A normal healthy man can donate blood after how many months ?
a. 2 Months
b. 3 Months ✔
c. 6 Months
d. After 1 Year
492. To Check Compatibility reaction, Patient Serum and donor cells is used in which type of Cross Match ?
a. Major Cross Match ✔
b. Minor Cross match
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of above
493. A donor is considered as defferred if donor is ?
a. Havind Diahorrea
b. Hepatitis A
c. HIV Positive ✔
d. All of the above
494. If mother is Rh- Negative, in second pregnancy indirect antibody test is used to detect ?
a. IgG antibody
b. IgM antibody
c. Sensitized RBCs in mother blood
d. Sensitized antibodies in mother serum ✔
495. A person having Blood group O containing antibodies ?
a. Anti A Only
b. Anti B Only
c. Anti A and Anti B ✔
d. Anti D only
496. Hemolytic Disease of new born in manifested ?
a. Mother is Rh Positive, Baby is Rh Negative
b. Mother is Rh Positive, Baby is Rh Positive
c. Mother is Rh Negative, Baby is Rh Positive ✔
d. Mother is Rh Negative, Baby is Rh Negative
497. Blood grouping is discovered by scientist in 1990 name was ?
a. Charles Richard Drew
b. Alexander S, Weiner
c. Karl Landsteiner ✔
d. None of the above
498. Donor Serum and patient Cells are used in which type of Cross-match ?
a. Minor Cross match ✔
b. Major Cross Match
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of above
499. In hemolytic disease of new born, Direct coombs test is used to detect ?
a. Sensitized antobodies in patients serum
b. IgG antibodies
c. Sensitized RBCs in patient serum ✔
d. IgM antibodies
500. A person having Blood Group AB Positive is ?
a. Universal Donor
b. Universal Recipient ✔
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of above
501. A donor will not be considered as permanent defferred if donor have ?
a. HIV Positive
b. Hepatitis A ✔
c. Hepatitis B
d. Hepatitis C
502. Antisera A Color is __ and Antisera B color is __ ?
a. Blue and Yellow ✔
b. Yellow and Blue
c. Blue and Red
d. Yellow and Red
503. Most fetal incompatibility Causing ?
a. Iron deficiency Anemia
b. Macrocytic anemia
c. Leukemia
d. Hemolytic Disease of new born ✔
504. Which of the following is present in Cryoprecipitate?
a. Factor XI
b. Factor V
c. Factor X
d. Factor VIII ✔
505. Which immunoglobuline is involved in the delayed hemolytic reaction ?
a. IgG ✔
b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgE
506. The D antigen is present in ?
a. Platelets
b. RBCs ✔
c. WBCs
d. None of these
507. What are the hepatitis virus screened in donor blood ?
a. A and B
b. B and C ✔
c. A and C
d. A, B and C
508. ___ cannot be a reason for transfusion reaction ?
a. Hemolyzed Blood
b. Compatible Blood ✔
c. Mismatched blood
d. Infected blood
509. Thiamine is vitamin
a. B1 ✔
b. B2
c. B6
d. B12
510. The iron stored in intestinal mucosal cells is complexed to
a. Ferritin ✔
b. Intrinsic factor
c. Oprelvekin
d. Transcobalamin II
e. Transferrin
511. Which of the following is most likely to be required by a 5-year-old boy with chronic renal in sufficiency?
a. Erythropoietin ✔
b. G-CSF
c. Interleukin – 11
d. Stem cell factor
e. Thrombopoietin
512. in adults, approximately ______ mg of thiamine per day is completely degraded by the tissue
a. 0.01
b. 0.1
c. 1.0 ✔
d. 10.0
513. The drug of choice for the management of osteoporosis caused by high-dose use of glucocorticoids is
a. Alendronate ✔
b. Calcitonin
 c. Mestranol
d. Oxandrolone
e. Vitamin D
514. Which of the following drugs is correctly associated with its clinical application?
a. Erythropoietin : Macrocytic anemia
b. Filgrastim : Thrombocytopenia due to myelocytic leukemia
c. Iron dextran : Severe macrocytic anemia
d. Ferrous sulfate : Microcytic anemia of pregnancy ✔
e. Folic acid : Hemochromatosis
515. Conversion of methionine to cysteine depends on vitamin
a. B1
b. B2
c. B6 ✔
d. B12
516. Avidin, a protein found in egg white is an antagonist of
a. Biotin ✔
b. Pantothenic acid
c. Choline
d. Pyridoxal
517. All of the following are important functions of magnesium (Mg) except
a. Nerve conduction
b. Phospholipid synthesis ✔
c. Muscle contractility
d. Carbohydrate, fat, and electrolyte metabolism
518. Factors likely to cause an increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level include
a. Intramuscular (IM)injection of diazepam(Valium)
b. Severe liver disease
c. Chronic kidney disease ✔
519. Physiologically carnitine plays following role
a. Important for oxidation of fatty acids ✔
b. Decreases aerobic metabolism of carbohydrates
c. Decreases rate of oxidative phosphorylation
d. All of the above
520. Patients receiving iron therapy should be warned about
a. Dizziness
b. Ringing in the ears
c. Danger of sunlight
d. Blackening of the stool ✔
e. Paresthesia
521. Therapeutically vitamin B1 has been employed most successfully in the treatment of
a. Microcytic anemia
b. Pellagra
c. Scurvy
d. Beriberi ✔
e. Macrocytic anemia
522. Magnesium ion is necessary in
a. Stimulating enzyme systems
b. Muscular contraction
c. Nerve conduction
d. All of the above ✔
e. None of the above
523. The following derivatives of retinal shows the greatest biological potency than others
a. 9-Cis-retinoic acid
b. All-trans-retinoic acid
c. All-trans-retinol ✔
 d. 11-Cis-retinal
524. The drug used for controlling tetany is
a. Intravenous diazepam
b. Intramuscular vitamin D
c. Intravenous calcium gluconate ✔
d. Intravenous calcitonin
525. Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering
a. Antacids
b. Tetracyclines
c. Phosphates
d. Ascorbic acid ✔
526. The gut controls the entry of ingested iron in the body of
a. Regulating the availability of apoferritin which acts as the carrier of iron across the mucosal cell
b. Regulating the turnover of apoferritin-ferritin interconversion in the mucosal cell
c. Complexing excess iron to form ferritin which remains stored in the mucosal cell and is shed off ✔
d. Regulating the number of transferring receptors on the mucosal cell
527. The percentage of elemental iron hydrated ferrous sulfate is
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20% ✔
d. 33%
528. In isolated fibroblast or epithelial cells, retinoids enhance the synthesis of following protein
a. Fibronectin ✔
b. Collagenase
c. Certain species of keratin
d. All of the above
529. The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is
a. Epigastric pain and bowel upset ✔
b. Black stools
c. Staining of teeth
d. Metallic taste
530. Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that
a. It cannot be injected i.v. ✔
b. It is not excreted in urine
c. It is not bound to transferritin in plasma
d. It produces fewer side effects
531. Which of the following is true about iron therapy ?
a. Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy
b. Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia
c. Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy ✔
d. Infants on breast feeding do not require medicinal iron
532. Concentrations of retinal in plasma in excess of _____ µg/dl usually are diagnostic of hypervitaminosis A
a. 10
b. 50
c. 100 ✔
d. 200
533. Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in
a. Vitamin B12 but not folic acid deficiency
b. Folic acid but not Vitamin B12 deficiency
c. Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency ✔
d. Only combined Vitamin B12 + folic acid deficiency
534. The daily dietary requirement of Vitamin B12 by an adult is
a. 1-3 µg ✔
b. 50-100 µg
c. 0.1-0.5 µg
 d. 5-10 µg
535. Which of the following factor(s) is/are required for the absorption of Vitamin B12 ingested in physiological
amounts ?
a. a. Gastric acid
b. b. Gastric intrinsic factor
c. Transcobalamine
d. Both (a) and (b) ✔
536. Hydroxocobalamine differs from cyanocobalamine in that
a. a. It is more protein bound and better retained]
b. b. It is beneficial in tobacco amblyopia
c. It benefits haematological but not neurological manifestations of Vit B12 deficiencey
d. Both (a) and (b) ✔
537. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of
a. Iron
b. Vitamin B12 ✔
c. Vitamin C
d. All of the above
538. Vitamin B12 is a required co-factor for the following reaction
a. Conversion of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl- CoA
b. Conversion of 5-CH3-H4-folate to H4-folate
c. Conversion of homocysteine to methionine
d. All of the above ✔
539. Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients
a. Being treated with heparin
b. Being treated with streptokinase
c. Of obstructive jaundice ✔
d. Of peptic ulcer
540. Menadione (Vitamin K3)
a. Can cause hemolysis in patients with G-6-PD deficiency ✔
b. Is given in large doses in patients with severe liver disease
c. Is useful to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn
d. Is the preparation of choice to antagonize the effect of warfarin overdose
541. Vitamin K promotes the hepatic biosynthesis of following blood clotting factor
a. Factor I
b. Factor II ✔
c. Factor VIII
d. All of the above
542. folinic acid is principally used
a. In pernicious anaemia
b. In megaloblastic anaemia secondary to Vitamin B12
c. Along with methotrexate therapy ✔
d. In treatment of folic acid deficiency
543. Penicillamine
a. Is effective orally ✔
b. Can cause anaphylactic reactions in patients allergic to penicillin
c. Is safe in pregnancy
d. Is not effective in lead poisoning
544. Succimer
a. Can significantly mobilize essential metals
b. Produces less toxicity than Dimercaprol ✔
c. Is ineffective orally
d. Is contraindicated in children
545. Causes spurious decrease in MCV
a. Cryofibrinogen ✔
b. hyperglycemia
 c. autoagglutination
d. high WBC ct
e. reduced red cell deformability
546. When the entire CBC is suppressed due to either anemia, infection, or hemorrhage is called?
a. Erythroplasia
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Pancytopenia ✔
d. Leukopenia
547. Total RBC count for Women is?
a. 4.4 -6
b. 4.2-5
c. 4.0-5.0 ✔
d. 4.2-5.2
548. Total RBC for men?
a. 4.0-5.0
b. 4.6-6.0 ✔
c. 4.2-6.5
d. 4.0-6.0
549. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
a. Hemosiderin
b. Ferritin ✔
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin
550. The best source of active bone marrow from a 20-year old would be:
a. Iliac Crest (hip) ✔
b. Femur (thigh)
c. Distal radius (forearm)
d. Tibia (shin)
551. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Determination of relative size of RBC. 82-98 fl
a. MCH
b. MCV ✔
c. MCHC
d. HCT
552. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Measurement of average weight of Hb/RBC. 27-33 pg
a. HCT
b. MCV
c. MCH ✔
d. MCHC
553. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Evaluation of RBC saturation with Hb. 32-36%
a. HCT
b. MCV
c. MCH
d. MCHC ✔
554. There are 3 classifications of Anemia. What are they?
a. In adequate production of Hb ✔
b. Decreased RBC production
c. Increased Erythrocyte destruction
d. Blood loss
555. Vitamin B12 and folic have the similar adverse effects, but what separates one form the other?
a. Glossitis
b. No neurological symptoms in folic acid ✔
c. muscle wasting
d. Dizziness
556. Folic acid therapy can cause sickle cell anemia
a. True
 b. False ✔
c. Equal
d. All are above
557. Both vitamin B12 AND iron have drug interactions with which of the following drugs?
a. PPI, H2 blockers ✔
b. Methyldopa
c. Metformin
558. Hydroxyurea increases hemoglobin production and decreases reticulocyte cells.
a. True ✔
b. False
559. Hydroxyurea:
a. decreases nitric oxide
b. increases neutrophil and monocytes
c. inhibits DNA synthesis by acting as a ribonucleotide ✔
d. reductase inhibitor
560. Hydroxyurea increases the serum uric acid levels.
a. True ✔
b. False
561. Decitabine increases the fetal hemoglobin production by inducing methylation of DNA and thus prevents the
switch from gamma to beta-globin production.
a. True
b. False ✔
562. Hypocupremia is seen in
a. osetoporosis, nephrotic disease
b. sprue, cliac disease
c. cardiovascular disease, colon cancer
d. All of the above ✔
563. Wilsons disease can cause liver problems
a. True ✔
b. False
564. What are the treatment options for wilson’s disease?
a. Pencillamine
b. Trientine
c. Potassium disulfide
d. Zinc
e. All of Above ✔
565. Aplasia can occur because of riboflavin deficiency?
a. True ✔
b. False
566. Angular stomatitis.cheilosis is a symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?
a. True
b. False ✔
567. Antimalarial drugs and high dose birth control will increase riboflavin.
a. True
b. False ✔
568. Which test can be used to detect hemolytic anemia ?
a. Coombs test ✔
b. Genetic testing
c. Peripheral blood smear (PBS)
d. Schilling test
569. Which anemia is classified as not being able to use iron properly to synthesize hemoglobin because of a inherited
cause.
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. hypochromic anemia ✔
 c. aplastic anemia
570. Apalstic anemia can be induced by drugs such as Litium, acetazolamide and aspirtin
a. True ✔
b. False
571. This fatal disorder results from clot/thrombus formation in the blood ciruclation
a. thromboembolism
b. DVT
c. PAD
d. Pulmonary embolism
e. All of the above ✔
572. Homan’s sign is classified as pain behind the knee
a. True ✔
b. False
573. Patients that are sensitive to aspirin can take:
a. Sulfinpyrazone
b. Clopidogrel
c. Ticlopidine
d. All of Above ✔
574. What is the life span of RBC
a. 200
b. 120 ✔
c. 100
d. 80
575. This drug can potentiate the effect of prostacyclins to antagonize platelet stickiness and therefore decreases
platelet adhesion to thrombogenic surfaces.
a. Sulfinpyrazone
b. Dipyridamole ✔
c. ticlopidine
576. Which drug can be given as a prophylaxis  for cadriovascular effects ?
a. Ticlopidine
b. Clopidogrel ✔
c. dipyridamol ✔
577. Which drug can increase intracellular levels of cAMP by inhibiting cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase ?
a. Sildenafil ✔
b. Ticlopidine
c. Clopidogrel
d. dipyridamol ✔
578. Warfarin should be used with caution in the following:
a. Alcoholic liver disease
b. Gastrointestinal bleeding
c. recent neurosugery
d. Liver impairment ✔
579. Isozymes of 2C can greatly effect warfarin
a. True ✔
b. False
580. absolute lymphocytosis (>5000/mm^3) without adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia
is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?
a. Stage 0 ✔
b. Stage I
c. Stage II
d. Stage III
e. Stage IV
581. Conventional treatment is ______ for Rai stage II
a. Antibiotics
 b. chemotherapy ✔
c. Antivirals
d. rest
582. In patients with low numbers of neoplastic cells, sometimes due to treatment, PCR to amplify DNA can improve
sensitivity, and detect signs of relapse.
a. True ✔
b. False
583. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is most common leukemia in what kind of people? Slide 4
a. young adults
b. older adults ✔
584. absolute lymphocytosis &nbsp;and thrombocytopenia( < 100,000/mm^3) with or without lymphadenopathy,
hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or anemia &nbsp;is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System ?
a. Stage 0
b. Stage I
c. Stage II
d. Stage III
e. Stage IV ✔
585. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is characterized by peripheral blood and bone marrow _____.
a. lymphocytopenia
b. lymphocytosis ✔
586. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is characterized by gradual accumulation of small mature ______ cells.
a. T
b. B ✔
c. NK
587. Which of the following is the most mature normoblast ?
a. Orthochromic Normoblast ✔
b. Basophilic Normoblast
c. Pronormoblast
d. Polychromatic Normoblast
588. absolute lymphocytosis with either hepatomegaly or splenomegaly with or without lymphadenopathy is what
stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System ?
a. Stage 0
b. Stage I
c. Stage II ✔
d. Stage III
e. Stage IV
589. absolute lymphocytosis without lymphadenopathy without hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, or thrombocytopenia is
what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System ?
a. Stage 0
b. Stage I ✔
c. Stage II
d. Stage III
e. Stage IV
590. IN Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia the Lymphocyte appearance: small or slightly larger than normal, hyper-
condensed(almost ________ appearing. nuclear chromatin patter, bare nuclei called “smudge cells” are common.
a. soccer-ball ✔
b. basketball
c. football
d. tennis-ball
591. Which of the following forms of Hb molecule has the lowest affinity for oxygen?
a. Tense ✔
b. Relaxed
c. Arterial
d. Venous
592. What is the recommended cleaner for removing all oil from objective lens ?
 a. 70 % alcohol or lens cleaner ✔
b. Xylene
c. Water
d. Benzene
593. Intravascular hemolysis is the result of trauma to RBCs while in the circulation
a. True ✔
b. False
594. A 1:20 dilution was made in a unopette, with glacial acetic acid as the diluent. The four corner squares on BOTH
sides of the hemacytometer are counted for a total of 100 cells. What is the total WBC (x10^9/L.?
a. 0.25
b. 2.5 ✔
c. 5
d. 10
595. The shape of a cell is maintained by which of the following?
a. Microtubules ✔
b. Spindle Fibers
c. Ribosomes
d. Centrioles
596. At which month of fetal development does the bone marrow ecome the primary site of hematopoiesis ?
a. 2nd
b. 5th
c. End of 6th month ✔
d. End of 7th month
597. Which types of cells develop from yolk sacs (Mesoblastic phase) ?
a. Hb F, Hg A2, and Hg A
b. Gower 1 and Gower 2 Hgb
c. Portland Hgb
d. Only Erythroblasts ✔
598. Normal Adult Hb A contains the following polypeptide chains:
a. alpha and beta ✔
b. alpha and epsilon
c. alpha and delta
d. alpha and brotherton
599. Allergic reactions are frequently associated with an increase in the prescence of :
a. Lymphocytes
b. Neutrophils
c. Monocytes
d. Eosinophils ✔
600. Lipid exchange between the RBC membrane and the plasma occurs:
a. To replace lost lipids in the membrane ✔
b. To provide a mechanism for excretion of lipid-soluble RBC waste products
c. To ensure symmetry between the composition of the interior and exterior lipid layers
d. To provide lipid-soluble nutrients to the RBC
601. After the microscope has been adjusted for Kohler illumination, light intensity should never be regulated by using
the…
a. Rheostat
b. Neutral density filter
c. Kohler magnifier
d. Condenser ✔
602. Which of the followong types of microscopy is valuable in the identification of crystals that are able to rotate light
?
a. Compound brightfield
b. Darkfield
c. Polarizing ✔
d. Phase-contrast
603. During the Medullary Phase of hematopoietic development, which bone is the first to show hematopoietic activity
?
a. Femur
b. Iliac Crest
c. Skull
d. Clavicle ✔
604. Given the following values, calculate the RPI Observed reticulocyte count – 6% Hct- 30%
a. 2 ✔
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
605. The lipids of the RBC membrane are arranged:
a. In chains beneath a protein exoskeleton
b. So that the hydrophobic portions are facing the plasma
c. In a hexagonal lattice
d. In two layers that are not symmetric in composition ✔
606. The hexose monophosphate pathway activity increases the RBC source of
a. Glucose and lactic acid
b. 2,3-BPG and methemoglobin
c. NADPH and reduced glutathione ✔
d. ATP and other purine metabolites
607. Which single feature of normal RBC’s is most responsible for limiting their life span ?
a. Loss of mitochondria
b. Increased flexibility of the cell membrane
c. Reduction of Hb iron
d. Loss of nucleus ✔
608. In the Iron cycle, the transferrin receptor carries:
a. Iron out of duodenal cells from the intestinal lumen
b. Iron out of duodenal cells into the plasma
c. transferrin-bound iron in the plasma
d. transferrin-bound iron into erythrocytes ✔
609. A multilineage cytokine among the ILs is:
a. IL-1 ✔
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
610. Which of the following cells may develop in sites other than the bone marrow?
a. Monocyte
b. Lymphocyte ✔
c. Megakaryocyte
d. Neutrophil
611. The acceptable range for hemoglobin values on a control sample is 13 + or – 0.4 g/dL. A hemoglobin
determination is performed five times in succession on the same control sample. The results are (in g/dL. 12 12.3,
12, 12.2, and 12.1) These results are:
a. Precise, but not accurate ✔
b. Both accurate and precise
c. Accurate, but not precise
d. Neither accurate nor precise
612. The layer of the erythrocyte membrane that is largely responsible for the shape, structure, and deformability of the
cell is the:
a. Integral protein
b. Exterior lipid
c. Peripheral protein ✔
d. Interior lipid
613. During midfetal life, the primary source of blood cells is the:
 a. Bone marrow
b. Spleen
c. Lymph Nodes
d. Liver ✔
614. In the bone marrow, RBC precursors are located:
a. In the center of the hematopoietic cords
b. Adjacent to megakaryocytes along the adventitial cell lining
c. Surrounding fat cells in apoptotic islands
d. Surrounding macrophages near the sinus membrane ✔
615. Which of the following gathers, organizes, and directs light through the specimen ?
a. Ocular
b. Objective lens
c. Condenser ✔
d. Optical Tube
616. How are the globin chains genes arranged? Note: a means alpha, B means beta
a. With a genes and B genes on the same chromosome including two a genes and two B genes
b. With a genes and B genes on seperate chromosomes, two a genes on one chromosome and one B gene on
a different chromosome ✔
c. With a genes and B genes on the same chromosome – including four a genes and four B genes
d. With a genes and B genes on separate chromosomes – four a genes on one chromosome and two B genes
on a different chromosome
617. The maximum number of erythrocytes generated by one Multipotential Stem Cell is:
a. 8
b. 1
c. 12
d. 16 ✔
618. What is the distribution of normal Hb in adults ?
a. 80-90% Hb A, 5-10% Hb A2, 1-5% Hb
b. 95% Hb A, &lt;3.5 % Hb A2, &lt;1-2% Hb F ✔
619. The most frequent cause of needle punctures is:
a. Patient movement during venipuncture
b. Improper disposal of phlebotomy equipment ✔
c. Inattention during removal of needle after venipuncture
d. Failure to attach needle firmly to tube holder
620. Iron is incorporated into the heme molecule in which of the following forms:
a. Ferro
b. Ferrous ✔
c. Ferric
d. Apoferritin
621. The most important practice in preventing the spread of disease is:
a. Wearing masks during patient contact
b. Proper handwashing ✔
c. Wearing disposable lab coats
d. Identifying specimens from known or suspected HIV and HBV patients with a red label
622. Which of the following would correlate with an elevated ESR value ?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Polycythemia
c. Decreased globulins
d. Inflammation ✔
623. The enzyme deficiency in the Embden-Meyerhof pathway that is responsible for most cases of nonspherocytic
hemolytic anemia is:
a. Hexokinase
b. Phosphotriptokinase
c. Pyruvate Kinase ✔
d. Glyceraldehyde 3-Phosphate
624. The most common type of protein found in the cell membrane is:
a. Lipoprotein
b. Mucoprotein
c. Glycoprotein ✔
d. Nucleoprotein
625. Neutrophil Count is high in
a. Acute bacterial Infaction ✔
b. Iron Deficiency Anemi
c. Megaloblastic Anemia
626. HbA2 is consisting of
a. 3 α chains and 2 γ chains
b. 2 α and 2 β chains
c. 2 α and 2 δ chains ✔
d. 3 α and 2 δ chains
627. The Main (most) Hb found in Adult is
a. Hb A ✔
b. Hb A2
c. Hb F
628. Detection of Malarial parasite is by :
a. Thick Blood Film ✔
b. Thin Blood Film
629. Leukocyte that involve in adaptive and chest pain
a. Lymphocyte ✔
b. Monocyte
c. Neutrophil
d. Basophil
630. Retuclocyte is immature
a. RBC ✔
b. WBC
c. Platelet Count
631. Leukocyte responsible for cellular immunity
a. B-Lymphocyte
b. Basophil
c. Monocyte
d. T-Lymphocyte ✔
632. malarial Infection transmitted by
a. Male anopheles mosquito
b. Female anopheles mosquito ✔
633. One stage prothrombin time is used to detect disorders in
a. Extrinsic coagulation pathway (Factors) ✔
b. Intrinsic coagulation pathway (Factors)
634. Thrombin time is
a. Extrinsic coagulation pathway (Factors)
b. Intrinsic coagulation pathway (Factors)
c. The conversion of protrombin to fibronigen in addition of thrombin ✔
635. The sever malarial infection caused by
a. Plasmodium Falciparum ✔
b. Plasmodium Malaria
c. Plasmodium Oval
d. Plasmodium Vivax
636. Leukocyte responsible for responce to parasitic and all allergic infections
a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
 d. Eosinophils ✔
e. Basophils
637. With romanowsky stain, 2-3 lobs and violet or pinkish granules
a. Neutrophils ✔
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
638. Lymphocytes is elevated in
a. Acute bacterial Infaction
b. Iron Deficiency Anemi
c. Megaloblastic Anemia
d. None of above ✔
639. Thrombin Time Measure
a. Convert fibrinogen to fibrin with activate of thrombin ✔
b. Prothrombin Time
c. FDP’s Level
640. In Presence of clotting defect on of this not measure
a. Leukocyte ✔
b. Monocyte
c. Basophils
d. Target Cells
641. Which of the White blood cell give immunoglobulin:
a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes ✔
c. Monocytes
d. Eosinophils
e. Basophils
642. Which of the following is a natural anticoagulant
a. EDTA
b. Double Oxalate
c. ACD
d. Heparin ✔
643. Ideal time of collecting blood sample for detection of filarial worm
a. 2 pm – 4 pm
b. 10 pm – 2 am
c. 6 am – 8 am
d. 10 am to 2 pm ✔
644. What is ‘Sex Ratio’ ?
a. Number of females per thousand males ✔
b. Number of females per hundred males
c. Difference between birth rate and death rate
d. Study of population growth
645. Aorta arises from
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle ✔
646. The protein portion of the enzyme is
a. Apoenzyme ✔
b. Prosthetic group
c. Co-factor
d. Coenzyme
647. Which of the following cells is not a WBC ?
a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Manocyte
 d. Thrombocyte ✔
648. The colouring agent used in antisera AB is
a. Methelene blue
b. Acriflavin
c. Eosin ✔
d. Safranin
649. Name the anticoagulant present in purple coloured vacutainer tube
a. Heparin
b. EDTA ✔
c. Sodium citrate
d. None of these
650. Blood collected in CPD-A can be stored in blood bank refrigerator for ____ days.
a. 35 ✔
b. 28
c. 21
d. 25
651. HDN due to Rh incompatibility can be prevented by giving anti-D antibody to Rh negative mother within ___
hours of delivery of Rh positive infant.
a. 48 hrs
b. 72 hrs ✔
c. 24 hrs
d. 36 hrs
652. Which of the following is not an RBC diluting fluid ?
a. Normal saline
b. Dacies fluid
c. Turkes fluid ✔
d. Toissons fluid
653. During donor screening persons having history of malaria should be avoided for a period of ___ years.
a. 1 week
b. 2 years
c. 1 year
d. 3 years ✔
654. Depth of improved neubauer counting chamber is
a. 0.1 mm ✔
b. 0.01 mm
c. 0.001 mm
d. 1 mm
655. Name the enzyme estimation done in semen sample to analyse the secretory function of prostate
a. Alanine transaminase
b. asparte transaminase
c. acid phosphatase ✔
d. alkaline phasphatase
656. The only cell in normal CSF is
a. Neutrophil
b. Lymphocyte ✔
c. Manocyte
d. None of these
657. Name the tests used to detect bile salt in urine.
a. Benzidine test
b. Fouchet’s test
c. Ehrlich’s test
d. Hays test ✔
658. Ketone bodies in urine are
a. acetone
b. ‘beta’ hydroxy butyric acid
 c. Both 1 and 2 ✔
d. None of these
659. Normal sperm count is
a. 80 – 160 millions / ml ✔
b. 40 – 80 millions / ml
c. 100 – 120 millions / ml
d. 140 – 200 millions / ml
660. Name the hormone detected in pregnancy.
a. ADH
b. GH
c. TSH
d. hCG ✔
661. Specific gravity of urine less than 1.010 indicates
a. Diabetes millitus
b. Diabetes insipidus ✔
c. Diabetic ketoacidosis
d. None of the above
662. ‘Glucose memory test’ is
a. GCT
b. HbA1C ✔
c. GTT
d. PPBS
663. Which of the following is not a renal function test ?
a. Serum urea
b. Serum creatinine
c. Cystatin – C
d. Total cholesterol ✔
664. Who is known as ‘father of microbiology’
a. Louis Pasteur ✔
b. Robert Koch
c. Alexander Fleming
d. Edward Jenner
665. Serum electrolytes are analysed using
a. Calorimeter
b. Flamephotometer ✔
c. Spectrophotometer
d. None of these
666. Van-den-Bergh reaction is used to detect
a. Serum creatinine
b. Serum urea
c. Serum bilirubin ✔
d. Blood glucose
667. Cob-Web appearance of clot in CSF indicates
a. Jaundice
b. Haemorrhage
c. Spinal constriction
d. Tuberculous meningitis ✔
668. ______is known as ‘bad cholesterol’.
a. LDL ✔
b. HDL
c. VLDL
d. Chylomicrons
669. All the following are motile bacteria except
a. E.Coli
b. Klebsiella ✔
 c. Vibrio
d. Proteus
670. Oils and grease can be sterilised using
a. Autoclave
b. Vaccine bath
c. Hot air oven ✔
d. None of these
671. Solidifying agent of a culture media is
a. peptone
b. meat extract
c. sodium chloride
d. agar ✔
672. ____is added to Mac Conkeys agar to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria.
a. A:-Bile salt ✔
b. Peptone
c. Neutral red
d. Agar
673. All the following are examples of transport media except
a. VR medium
b. Thioglycollate medium ✔
c. Stuarts medium
d. Amies medium
674. Which of the following tests come under IMViC tests ?
a. Coagulase test
b. Catalase test
c. Citrate utilisation test ✔
d. None of above
675. The type of immunoglobulin which provides local immunity is
a. ‘1_g‘ M
b. ‘1_g’ D
c. ‘1_g‘ G
d. 1_g’ A ✔
676. Confirmatory tests for AIDs is
a. Western blot ✔
b. Southern blot
c. ELISA
d. CLIA
677. The bacteria which require ‘X’ and ‘V’ factors for its growth is
a. staphylococcus
b. haemophilus ✔
c. brucella
d. salmonella
678. RPR and VDRL tests are done for the diagnosis of
a. AIDs
b. Hepatitis
c. Syphilis ✔
d. Malaria
679. All the following are examples of blood parasites except
a. Plasmodium
b. Brugia malayi
c. Leishmania
d. Giardia lamblia✔
680. The fixative used for blood containing specimen is
a. Carnoy’s fluid ✔
b. 95% ethyl alcohol
 c. 10% formalin
d. D:-Zenker’s fluid
681. Staining technique for assessment of hormonal status is
a. Pap stain
b. Shorrs stain ✔
c. H & E stain
d. JSB stain
682. The ‘word’ which refers to the ‘closeness of a result on repeated analysis’ is
a. accuracy
b. sensitivity
c. precision ✔
d. specificity
683. ‘Mycology’ means the study of
a. bacteria
b. immunity
c. parasites
d. fungus ✔
684. Infections induced by a ‘physician’ is known as
a. iatrogenic ✔
b. nosocomial
c. congenital
d. subclinical
685. The enzyme estimation done for the diagnosis of pancreatitis
a. acid phosphatase
b. amylase ✔
c. alkaline phosphatase
d. creatinine kinase
686. The basic component of Leishman’s stain is
a. cosin
b. malachite green
c. methelene blue ✔
d. none of the above
687. Name the blood cells increased in asthma
a. Basophil
b. Neutrophil
c. Lymphocyte
d. Eosinophil ✔
688. Intermediate host of plasmodium is
a. man ✔
b. female anopheles mosquito
c. male anopheles mosquito
d. none of the above
689. Which of the following is a Romanowsky stain
a. Leishmans stain
b. Giemsas stain
c. Jenners stain
d. All the above ✔
690. In wintrobes mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate is mixed in the ratio
a. 2 : 3
b. 3 : 2 ✔
c. 1 : 4
d. 2 : 1
691. The anticoagulant used in OFT is
a. EDTA
b. Citrate
 c. Heparin ✔
d. Sodium flouride-potassium oxalate mixture
692. The bacteria showing swarming growth is
a. E.coli
b. Salmonella
c. Proteus ✔
d. All the above
693. To remove blood clots from blood pipette, it is immersed in
a. KOH ✔
b. ‘NH_40H’
c. INHCI
d. 3% acetic acid
694. Incomplete antibodies are detected using
a. Electrophoresis
b. Coombs test ✔
c. Agglutination test
d. VDRL test
695. The resolution of an Electron microscope is expressed in
a. Millimeters
b. Micrometers
c. Nanometers ✔
d. Centimeters
696. Which of the following is not a flammable chemical
a. Ether
b. Xylol
c. Alcohol
d. H202 ✔
697. Which of the following is not a carcinogen
a. 0-toludene
b. Picric acid ✔
c. Selenite
d. β naphthyl amine
698. The temperature required for many of the clinical investigations to be done in a laboratory incubator in degree
Celsius is
a. 22
b. 42
c. 56
d. 37 ✔
699. Which of the following not comes under moist heat sterilization ?
a. Hot air oven ✔
b. Autoclave
c. Pasteurization
d. Tyndalisation
700. Disposable plastics are sterilized by
a. Alcohol
b. Ethylene oxide ✔
c. Gluteraldehyde
d. Chlorine
701. A normal solution contains
a. Grain equivalent weight per litre ✔
b. Molecular weight of solute in grams per litre
c. Weight per unit volume
d. None of the above
702. Average urine output of an adult per day
a. 30 — 60 ml
 b. 500 — 600 ml
c. 800 — 1400 ml
d. 1000 — 2000 ml ✔
703. Which of the following is not found in normal urine ?
a. Creatinine
b. Uric acid
c. RBC ✔
d. Glucose
704. Which one of the following is used to test ketone bodies ?
a. Rothera’s test ✔
b. Diazo test
c. Benzedene test
d. Ehzlich’s test
705. Normal VMA level is
a. Upto 9 mg/24 hour ✔
b. 8-18 mg/ 24 hour
c. 0.2-0.5 gm/24hour urine
d. 100-250 mg/24 hour
706. Normal GFR rate is (A) 500-800 mlAinit
a. 1000-1500 mlAmit
b. 100-130 mlAmit ✔
c. None of the above
707. Bloody stool with pus and mucous seen in the following condition except
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Mucous colitis ✔
c. Bacilliary dysentery
d. Carcinoma of colon
708. In Amoebiasis, the cyst of Entamoeba histolytica identified from
a. Liver abscess
b. Stool ✔
c. Lung abscess
d. All the above
709. Which of the following parasite has no cystic stage ?
a. Giardia lamblia
b. Balantidium coli
c. Trichomonas vaginalis ✔
d. E.histolytica
710. Multiple mng forms are seen in which type of malaria ?
a. Plasmodium malariae
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Plasmodium falciparum ✔
d. Plasmodium ovale
711. LD bodies are seen in the Reticulo endothelial system of
a. Human ✔
b. Ruduvid bug
c. Tsetse fly
d. Sand fly
712. Which of the following parasitic ova is not bile stained ? (38-3)
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Ancylostoma duodenale ✔
c. Tnchuris triichura
d. Tinea saginata
713. The causative agent of “Colabar swelling”
a. W. bancrofti
b. Brugia malayi
 c. Loaloa ✔
d. Oncocercus volvulus
714. Night blood sample is collected for the diagnosis of
a. Malaria
b. Filaria ✔
c. Trypanosoma
d. Leishmania
715. Casoni’s test is used for the diagnosis of
a. Hydatid disease ✔
b. Leishmaniasis
c. Malana
d. Filaria
716. Which one of the parasitic ova seen in urine ?
a. Schistosoma haematobium ✔
b. Fasciola hepatica
c. Paragonimus westermami
d. Clonorchius sinensis
717. The ratio of anti-coagulant and blood used for ESR test is
a. 1:2
b. 1:4 ✔
c. 1:8
d. 1:16
718. Normal value of haemoglobin for an adult
a. 4-6gm%
b. 6-8 gm%
c. 8-10gm%
d. 12-15 gm% ✔
719. Normal platelet count is
a. 4-5 muillion/emm
b. 4000 -—11000/cmm
c. 1.5 -3.5 lakhs/emm ✔
d. 200/cmm
720. Glass wares containing organic matter are treated with
a. 5% HCl
b. 2% detergent
c. 2% phenol
d. Potassium dichromate ✔
721. Which of the following is not a Romanowsky stain ?
a. Leishman stain
b. Wright stain
c. Giemsa stain
d. Grams stain ✔
722. The main site of haemopoesis takes place in
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Bone marrow ✔
d. Lymphoid tissue
723. Which of the following condition, the RBCs are microcytic & hypochromic
a. Pernicious anaemia
b. Haemolytic anaemia
c. Iron deficiency anaemia ✔
d. Megaloblastic anaemia
724. Eosinophilia seen in (A) Allergic conditions
a. Parasitic infections
b. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
 c. All the above ✔
725. LE cells are not seen in the following condition :
a. Infectious mononucleosis ✔
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Collagen disorders
726. Which of the following condition shows Bence-Jones protein in urine ?
a. Acute myeloid Leukemia
b. Malignant lymphoma
c. Multiple myeloma ✔
d. Chronic myeloid Leukemia
727. APTT increased in the following condition :
a. Haemophilia
b. Vitamin K deficiency
c. Liver diseases
d. All the above ✔
728. ABO grouping discovered by
a. Robert Koch
b. Karl Landsteiner ✔
c. Paul Ehrlich
d. Antony Van Levenhoek
729. Ina blood bank CPD anti-coagulated blood can be stored at 2 — 8 degree celcius for
a. 2 days
b. 14 days
c. 28 days ✔
d. 45 days
730. CSF protein fractions are evaluated by
a. Colloidal gold test ✔
b. Pandy’s test
c. Rose Jone’s test
d. Protein Electrophorosis
731. In pregnancy, the peak level of HCG in urine seen at
a. 4 weeks of gestation
b. 6 weeks of gestation
c. 10 weeks of gestation ✔
d. 14 weeks of gestation
732. Cushing syndrome is due to
a. excess production of thyroid hormone
b. excess production of Glucocorticoides ✔
c. excess production of FSH
d. excess production of growth hormone
733. In obstructive jaundice, which of the following serum enzyme level elevated
a. SGOT
b. SGPT
c. ALP
d. All the above ✔
734. Normal fasting blood glucose level is
a. 50-80 mg/dl
b. 70-110 mg/dl ✔
c. 120-160 mg/dl
d. 180-220 mg/dl
735. Serum uric acid level increased in
a. Gout ✔
b. Renal failure
c. Addison’s disease
 d. Rickets
736. Which of the following elevated enzyme level is not a marker of myocardial infarction ?
a. SGOT
b. SGPT ✔
c. LDH
d. Creatine kinase
737. Increased level of PCO, seen in
a. (A) Hypoxia
b. Obstructive lung disease ✔
c. Polycythemia
d. Anaemia
738. TORCH infections are best analysed by
a. Capture ELISA
b. Competitive ELISA
c. Immuno capture ELISA ✔
d. Streptavidin-Biotin ELISA
739. The best diagnostic assay for infections and autoimmune disease parameters by
a. EIA
b. RIA
c. Fluorescence immuno assay
d. Chemluminescence assay ✔
740. Which of the following steps are included in a PCR cycle ?
a. Denaturation
b. Annealing
c. Extension
d. All the above ✔
741. Which of the following serological test is specific test for Syphilis ?
a. TPHA ✔
b. RPR
c. TRUST
d. VDRL
742. WIDAL test is for the serological diagnosis of
a. Enteric fever
b. Typhoid fever ✔
c. Para typhoid fever
d. Brucellosis
743. The vector which transmit Dengue fever
a. Culex mosquito
b. Anophilus mosquito
c. Aedes mosquito ✔
d. Mansonia mosquito
744. Which of the following is not a rapid diagnostic test ?
a. Dengue check WB
b. Leptockeck WB
c. PARA MAX-3
d. Brucel-RB ✔
745. Significant titre of ASO test by latex agglutination is
a. >200 IU/nl ✔
b. <200 IU/ml
c. >10 IU/ml
d. <10IU/ml
746. Route of transmission of Hepatitis A virus is by
a. Contaminated food and water ✔
b. Blood transfusion
c. Sexual contact
 d. Air
747. Opportunistic infections associated with AIDS includes
a. Candidiasis
b. Cryptococcosis
c. Cryptosporidiosis
d. All the above ✔
748. Which of the following fixative contains picric acid ?
a. Bouin’s fluid ✔
b. Carnoy’s fluid
c. Zenker’s flud
d. Lugol’s solution
749. Ferozen sections are obtained from
a. Histokinate
b. Cryostat ✔
c. Microtome
d. None of the above
750. The stain used to detect gycogen by
a. Masson Fontana stain
b. Mucicarmine
c. PAS ✔
d. Hand E stain
751. The most common staining technique used in cytology is
a. Giemsa stain
b. Papani colaou stain ✔
c. Hand E stain
d. Shorr’s stain
752. Tubercle bacillae identified by
a. Robert Koch ✔
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Edward Jenner
d. Joseph Lister
753. Ziehl – Neelsen stain is used for demonstration of
a. Streptococci
b. Anthrax Bacilli
c. Mycobacteria ✔
d. Spirochaetes
754. Triple sugar iron agar contains
a. Glucose, Maltose, Sucrose
b. Glucose, Mannitol, Sucrose
c. Glucose, Lactose, Sucrose ✔
d. Glucose, Lactose, Maltose
755. Blood agar is
a. Enriched media ✔
b. Enrichment media
c. Selective media
d. Differential media
756. RCM is used for the primary cultivation of
a. Tubercle bacilli
b. Clostridium Perfringens ✔
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Haemophilus
757. Which of the following sensitivity test is used to diagnose Group A Streptococci isolate
a. Novobiosin
b. Optochin
c. Bacitracin ✔
 d. Polymixin
758. Elek’s test is used for the invitro toxigenicity of
a. Coryne bacteria diphthreriae✔
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Group B Streptococcus
d. Clostridium Perfringens
759. Which of the following bacteria shows swarming growth ?
a. Salmonella
b. Shigella
c. Pesudomonas
d. Proteus ✔
760. Example of dimorphic fungi
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Histoplasma Capsulatum ✔
c. Candida albicans
d. Nocardia
761. Mantoux test is for the diagnosis of
a. Tuberculosis ✔
b. Diphtheria
c. Echinococcus
d. Toxoplasma
762. Negative staining is used for the demonstration of
a. Capsule ✔
b. Flagella
c. Cell wall
d. None of the above
763. The basic principle behind spectrophotometer is
a. Beer’s law
b. Lambert’s law
c. Beer- Lambert law ✔
d. None of the above
764. Which of the following Immunoglobin can cross the placenta
a. IgG ✔
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE
765. Which of the following condition shows 48XXY chromosomes ?
a. Down syndrome
b. Turner’s syndrome
c. Klinefelter’s syndrome ✔
d. All the above
766. Negri bodies are demonstrated for the diagnosis of
a. Hepatitis
b. HIV
c. Polio
d. Rabies ✔
767. Electrophoretic separation of major protein is known as
a. Western blotting ✔
b. Southern blotting
c. Northern blotting
d. None of the above
768. Which of the following is non-nucleic acid based diagnostic method ?
a. PCR
b. LCR
c. RFLP
 d. GLC ✔
769. Monoclonal antibodies are produced from
a. Myeloma cells
b. Lymphoma cells
c. Hybridoma cells ✔
d. All the above
770. Which of the following is not an automated culture system ?
a. BACTEC
b. BaCT/ALERT
c. ESP system
d. Casteneda method✔
771. Osmotic fragility test is used for the diagnosis of
a. Sickle cell anaemia
b. Thalassemia
c. Spherocytosis✔
d. Megaloblastic anaemia
772. Haemolytic disease of newborn is due to
a. ABO incompatibility
b. Rhincompatibility✔
c. Leucocyte incompatibility
d. None of the above
773. Which of the following automated system 1s introduced recently ?
a. Continuous flow analyser
b. Descrete analyser
c. Centrifugal analyser ✔
d. None of the above
774. Biuret method is used for determination of
a. Protein✔
b. Sugar
c. Urea
d. Cholesterol
775. Which of the following is an example of an enrichment media ?
a. MacConkey agar
b. Nutrient Agar
c. Peptone water
d. Selenite F broth ✔
776. Name the parasite causing Malaria.
a. Plasmodium vivax ✔
b. Wuchereria bancrofti
c. Brugia malayi
d. Leishmania donovani
777. Which of the following antibody can cross the placenta ?
a. IgM
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgG ✔
778. Which of the following is a RBC diluting fluid ?
a. Hinglemann’s fluid
b. Tuerk’s fluid
c. Dacies fluid ✔
d. Rees — Ecker solution
779. Bacteria which require oxygen for their growth is
a. Aerobic bacteria ✔
b. Carboxyphilic bacteria
c. Anaerobic bacteria
 d. Obligate anaerobes
780. Who discovered ABO blood group system ? (8-4)
a. Weiner
b. Karl Landsteiner ✔
c. William Harvey
d. Denis
781. Which of the following is not a Romanowsky stain ?
a. Leishman’s stain
b. Geimsa stain
c. Jenner stain
d. Crystal violet✔
782. The cell present in normal CSF (cerebrospinal fluid)
a. Plasma cell
b. Neutrophils
c. Lymphocytes ✔
d. Monocytes
783. Staining method used for detecting Mycobacterium tuberculosis is
a. Leishman’s staining
b. Zeihl-Neelsen’s staining ✔
c. Simple staining
d. Gram’s staining
784. Urinometer is used to measure which of the following property of Urine ?
a. Reaction
b. Transparency
c. Volume
d. Specific gravity ✔
785. Identify a Renal function test from the following tests.
a. Blood sugar
b. Serum bilirubin
c. Blood urea ✔
d. Total cholesterol
786. The accurate method for estimation of haemoglobin is
a. Sahlis method
b. Cyanmeth haemoglobin method ✔
c. Spencer method
d. Dare method
787. Solidifying agent used for preparation of solid culture media is
a. DPX
b. Meat extract
c. Agr ✔
d. Peptone
788. Post-Prandial Blood Sugar (PPBS) sample is taken
a. 2 hr after intake of food ✔
b. ‘%hr after intake of food
c. after 12 hrs of fasting
d. at anytime after intake of food
789. Round shaped bacterias are called
a. Bacilli
b. Vibrios
c. Actinomycetes
d. cocci ✔
790. Normal value of bleeding time by Dukes method is
a. 3-8 minutes
b. 2-6 minutes ✔
c. 3-8 seconds
 d. 2-6 seconds
791. Size of a normal red blood cell is
a. 10-15 micro metre
b. 15-20 micro metre
c. 6-8 micro metre ✔
d. None of these
792. The dilution that can be made using an RBC pipette is
a. 1/200 ✔
b. 1/10
c. 1/50
d. 1/20
793. Major plasma protein is
a. Globulin
b. Albumin ✔
c. Bence Jones Protein
d. Fibrinogen
794. Leucocytosis is seen in
a. Systemic lupus erythematosis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Leukemia ✔
d. Aplastic anaemia
795. Which blood group is known as “Universal Donor” ?
a. O group ✔
b. A group
c. B group
d. AB group
796. Staining method used in cytology is
a. Haematoxylin and eosin staining
b. Negative staining
c. Leishman’s staining
d. Papanicoloau staining ✔
797. Temperature used for storing blood in a blood blank refrigerator is
a. 4-6°C ✔
b. 8-10°C
c. 10-12°C
d. 0-1°C
798. Which of the following step is not included in tissue processing ?
a. Dehydration
b. Fixation
c. Oxidation ✔
d. Clearing
799. Length of an ideal blood smear is
a. 1-2cm
b. 5-6cm
c. 6-7cm
d. 3-4cm✔
800. Gmelin’s testis used for detecting which of the following compound in urine ?
a. Sugar
b. Ketone bodies
c. Bile salts
d. Bile pigment ✔
801. VDRL test is used for detecting which of the following disease ?
a. Rabies
b. Syphilis ✔
c. Typhoid
 d. Weils disease
802. Normal platelet count is
a. 1.5-4.5 lakhs/mm? of blood ✔
b. 50,000-1 lakhs/mm? of blood
c. 5000-11000 cells/mm? of blood
d. 5-6 lakhs/mm? of blood
803. Which of the following compound is a normal constituent of urine ?
a. Sugar
b. Bile salt
c. Urea ✔
d. Ketone bodies
804. Colour code used for EDTA anticoagulant bottles
a. Green
b. Grey
c. Purple ✔
d. Red
805. Commonly used fixative in histopathology is
a. Alcohol
b. Carnoys fixative
c. Alcohol-ether mixture
d. 10% formalin ✔
806. In Leishman’s staining fixation is done by
a. Eosin
b. Methyl alcohol ✔
c. Distilled water
d. Acetone
807. Which of the following test is included in IMViC Reaction test ?
a. Nitrate test
b. Citrate test ✔
c. Coagulase test
d. Catalase test
808. Which of the following anticoagulant is also known as Versene ?
a. (A) Heparin
b. Double oxalate
c. ACD
d. EDTA ✔
809. Volume of ACD solution used to collect 100 ml of blood is
a. 16ml ✔
b. 30ml
c. 28ml
d. Sml
810. Automatic tissue processing machine is called
a. Microtome
b. Histokinete ✔
c. Cryostat
d. Coulter counter
811. Which white blood cell shows fine violet coloured granules after Leishman’s staining ?
a. Neutrophils ✔
b. Eosinophils
c. Lymphocytes
d. Monocyte
812. Meliturea refers to the presence of
a. Sugar in urine ✔
b. Protein in urine
c. Blood in urine
 d. Ketone bodies in urine
813. Cob-web appearance of CSF is seen in
a. Syphilis
b. Tubercular meningitis ✔
c. Malaria
d. Hepatitis
814. Hyponatremia is the term used to denote
a. low potassium level in blood
b. low sodium level in blood ✔
c. low calcium level in blood
d. low bicarbonate level in blood
815. Method used for the estimation of total protein in blood is
a. GOD-POD method
b. CHOD-PAP method
c. Biuret method ✔
d. Jaffe method
816. The test used to detect CSF protein is
a. Hay’s test
b. Smith’s test
c. Pandy’s test ✔
d. Hart’s test
817. Area of an improved Neubauer counting chamber is
a. 3mm?
b. 6mm?
c. 4mm?
d. 9mm?✔
818. Autoclave is an example of which of the following method of sterilization ?
a. Moist heat method ✔
b. Dry heat method
c. Filtration method
d. Radiation method
819. Erythropoiesis is the development of
a. Red blood cells ✔
b. Granulocytes
c. Agranulocytes
d. Platelets
820. Colony colour of lactose fermenting bacteria on MacConkey agar
a. Colourless
b. Pink ✔
c. Green
d. Black
821. Father of Microbiology is
a. Robert Koch
b. Joseph Lister
c. Edward Jenner
d. Louis Pasteur ✔
822. Van den Bergh reaction is used for estimation of
a. Total protein
b. Serum creatinine
c. Serum Bilirubin ✔
d. Serum uric acid
823. Among basic forces exist in nature the weakest is
a. Gravitational force ✔
b. Electromagnetic force
c. Strong nuclear force
 d. Nuclear weak force
824. Unit of power is
a. Waitt ✔
b. Joule
c. Kilowatt hour
d. Newton
825. The property by which a body opposes the change in rotatory motion of a body about an axis
a. Angular momentum
b. Torque
c. Inertia
d. Moment of inertia ✔
826. Zero degree Celsius is equal to degree Fahrenheit.
a. 28
b. 32 ✔
c. 38
d. 42
827. Sound waves travel faster through
a. Solid ✔
b. Liquid
c. Gas
d. Vacuum
828. Light can pass along the optical fibre by mechanism
a. Refraction
b. Interference
c. Total internal reflection ✔
d. Diffraction
829. Heat radiations lies in the
a. Microwave region
b. Ultraviolet region
c. Infra-red region ✔
d. Visible region
830. Laws of electromagnetic induction was developed by
a. Einstein
b. Faraday ✔
c. Newton
d. Heisenberg
831. No magnetic flux lines passes through
a. Ferromagnetic material
b. Paramagnetic matenal
c. Ferri magnetic material
d. Dia magnetic material ✔
832. Lens used to correct short sight of an eye
a. Plane glass
b. Cylindrical lens
c. Convex lens
d. Concave lens ✔
833. Two electrons in the same atomic orbital is distinguished by their
a. Principal quantum number
b. Azimuthal quantum number
c. Magnetic quantum number
d. Spin quantum numbers ✔
834. Which of the following species have minimum size ?
a. O-2
b. Mg2+
c. F–
 d. Al+3 ✔
835. According to V.S.E.P.R. theory the shape of PC/, molecule is
a. Trigonal bipyramidal
b. Tetrahedral s ✔
c. Seesaw
d. Square planar
836. One method to remove temporary hardness is
a. Using washing soda
b. By Calgon process
c. Clark’s method s ✔
d. Permutit method
837. The group of elements which does not belong to Dobereiner triads is
a. (Li, Na, K)
b. (C, Si, Ge) ✔
c. (P, As, Sb)
d. (CI Br,l
838. Name the crystal system in which all the sides and all the angles are different.
a. Orthorhombic
b. Monoclinic
c. Triclinic s ✔
d. Hexagonal
839. Artificial graphite is prepared by
a. Acheson’s process s ✔
b. Deacon’s process
c. Dow’s process
d. Hall — Herault’s process
840. Kaolinite is the ore of
a. Copper
b. Iron
c. Aluminium ✔
d. Zinc
841. An electron transits from 7th orbit to 3rd orbit of Li2+ ion. The spectrum will occur in
a. U-V region
b. Visible region
c. Far Infra-red region
d. Near Infra-red region s ✔
842. Among the following which is not an interhalogen compound ?
a. ClF₃
b. BrF5
c. ICl3
d. FBr3 ✔
843. Large empty cells found in the adaxial epidermis in grasses
a. Lerticel
b. Bulliform cell ✔
c. Subsidiary cell
d. Mesophyll cell
844. Diabetes insipidus is caused due to
a. Deficiency of insulin
b. Excess of insulin
c. Hyposecretion of ADH ✔
d. Hypersecretion of ADH
845. Excretory organ in insects is
a. Green gland
b. Malpigian tubules ✔
c. Nephrida
 d. Protonephrida
846. Identify the 5 Carbon compound
a. CO2
b. NADPH
c. RUBP ✔
d. PEP
847. Canary grass experiment related hormone
a. Auxin ✔
b. Gibberellin
c. ABA
d. Ethylene
848. Joint between Atlas and Axis
a. Pivotjoint ✔
b. Hing joint
c. Ball and Socket joint
d. Hinge joint
849. Downs Syndrome is related to
a. Nullisomy
b. Monosomy
c. Trisomy ✔
d. Tetrasomy
850. Biological glue is
a. Ligase ✔
b. Restriction
c. DNA polymerates
d. Permeate
851. Other than Green house gas
a. CO2
b. CH4
c. NO2
d. NH4✔
852. Basic unit of classification is
a. Family
b. Genes
c. Species ✔
d. Order
853. Haemoglobinopathies can be detected by doing
a. Electrophoresis ✔
b. Sahli’s method
c. Flame photometer
d. Cyan meth method
854. are seen in stool microscopy of an amoebic dysentry patient.
a. Haematoidin crystals
b. Charcot Leyden crystals ✔
c. Fatty acid crystals
d. Triple phosphate crystals
855. The condition where we get milky white urine
a. Proteinuria
b. Alkaptanuria
c. Polyuria
d. Chyluria ✔
856. Question24:-Urinometer is used to detect
a. pH of urine
b. colour of urine
c. sp. gravity of urine ✔
 d. urobilinogen
857. Question25:-Total erythrocyte count is calculated by
a. N x 1000
b. N x 50
c. N x 2000
d. N x 10000 ✔
858. Question26:-What is the action of phenol in Hinglomann’s solution?
a. lyses the RBC ✔
b. stains the platelets
c. fixes the cell
d. prevents clotting
859. ASO test is used to detect bacterial infection.
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus ✔
c. Pneumococcus
d. Salmonella
860. Solution used for the preparation of grease free coverslip (28-6)
a. KOH solution
b. Formalin and ether
c. 95% ethanol and ether ✔
d. 70% ethanol and ether
861. For detecting the hemoglobinopathies by electrophoresis we use
a. clotted blood
b. plasma
c. red cell
d. lysed red cell ✔
862. Serum complements can be inactivated at a temperature of
a. 56°C for 15 mts
b. 56°C for 30 mts ✔
c. 37°C for 20 mts
d. 37°C for 30 mts
863. Bombay blood group can be detected by
a. Cell grouping
b. Forward grouping
c. Serum grouping ✔
d. Lewis method
864. Giardia lamblia causes
a. Traveller’s diarrhoea ✔
b. Kala azar
c. Hydatid cyst
d. Malaria
865. is not a component of flame emission photometer.
a. Bulb ✔
b. Nebulizer
c. Flame
d. Photodetector
866. Envelope shaped crystals seen in acidic urine
a. Calcium oxalate ✔
b. Triple phosphate
c. Uric acid
d. Cystine
867. The ideal temperature of blood bank refrigeration is
a. 2 to -6°C
b. 6 – 8°C
c. 2 to 6°C ✔
 d. 2 to 2°C
868. The process by which the specimen is preserved in its original condition
a. Mounting
b. Autolysis
c. Clearing
d. Fixation ✔
869. The egg of which worm is referred to as a ‘Japanese Lantern’
a. Strongyloides stercoralis
b. Trichuris trichura ✔
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Ancylostoma duodenale
870. Germ tube test is used to confirm
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Trichophyton
c. Microsporum
d. Candida Albicans ✔
871. Sodium flouride – oxalate mixture is used for doing blood sugar estimation why?
a. enhances glycolysis
b. prevent glycolysis ✔
c. preserves morphology
d. none of the above
872. Satellite test is used for the identification of
a. S. aureus
b. S. typhi
c. H. influenzae ✔
d. Cl. perfringes
873. Increased osmotic fragility is seen in
a. Hereditary spherocytosis ✔
b. lron deficiency anaemia
c. Sickle cell anaemia
d. Thalassemia
874. Du antigen is detected by
a. DCT
b. ICT ✔
c. ABO grouping
d. None of the above
875. Normal RBC count
a. 4.5 to 6.5 millions/”mm3” ✔
b. 80 – 160 millions/ml
c. 4.5 to 6.5 lakhs /'”mm3”
d. None of the above
876. The dilution used for doing total sperm count
a. 1 : 100
b. 1 : 200
c. 1: 20 ✔
d. 1: 50
877. The anticoagulant used for doing coagulation studies
a. Oxalate
b. EDTA
c. Heparin
d. Citrate ✔
878. The temperature maintained in a cryostat is
a. 10°C
b. 30°C
c. 4°C
 d. 20°C ✔
879. The cellophane tape test is used to detect
a. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
b. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Echinococcus granulosus
880. Hydatid cyst is caused by
a. Enterobius vermicularis
b. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Echinococcus granulosus ✔
881. The holding period of sterilization for hot air oven
a. 160°C for 1 hr ✔
b. 121°C for 30 mts
c. 160°C for 30 mts
d. 121°C for 1 hr
882. Widal test is used to detect
a. Jaundice
b. Enteric fever ✔
c. Diphtheria
d. Tetanus
883. The metachromatic granules of corneybacterium diphtheria can be demonstrated by
a. Tuberculin test
b. Gram’s stain
c. Alberts stain ✔
d. India ink
884. Eleks gel precipitation test is used for
a. S. aureus
b. Corneybacterium diphtheriae ✔
c. Cl. tetani
d. Bacillus
885. L.J. medium, Loeffler’s serum slope etc are sterilized by
a. Tyndallization
b. Autoclave
c. Inspissation ✔
d. Hot air oven
886. Hospital wards and operation rooms are disinfected by
a. UV rays ✔
b. X rays
c. Gamma rays
d. Visible light
887. Example for transport medium
a. Wilson and Blairs media
b. TCBS
c. Cary blair media ✔
d. Tellurite agar
888. Benign tertian malaria is caused by
a. Pl. falciparum
b. Pl. ovale
c. Pl. malariae
d. Pl. vivax ✔
889. The method used for the estimation of T. protein
a. Kjeldhal’s method ✔
b. Nesslerization
c. Salkowsky reaction
 d. Van den Bergh reaction
890. The stain used for the demonstration of iron pigments
a. Van Geison’s stain
b. Perl’s stain ✔
c. PAS stain
d. D:-Masson trichrome
891. The inner diameter of wintrobes tube
a. 1.5 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 2.5 mm ✔
d. 1.5 cm
892. Which is not a diluting fluid for absolute eosinophil count?
a. Hinglemann’s fluid
b. Piolet’s stain
c. Dunger’s fluid
d. Rees Eckers fluid ✔
893. Area used for counting AEC in an improved neubauer chamber
a. 9 “mm2” ✔
b. B:-4 “mm2“
c. C:-1 “mm2“
d. D:-5 “mm2“
894. String test is used to identify
a. S. aureus
b. V. cholerae ✔
c. Proteus
d. Pseudomonas
895. ESR is done by A:-Westergrons tube
a. Wintrobes tube
b. Westergrons tube
c. Esrite tube
d. All the above ✔
896. The factor that increases the ESR
a. presence of microcytes
b. presence of albumin
c. exposure to sunlight ✔
d. unclean tubes
897. For doing LE cell test we use
a. citrated blood
b. oxalated blood
c. clotted blood
d. heparinised blood ✔
898. The chemical used to detect ketone bodies in urine
a. Sodium nitroprusside ✔
b. PDAB
c. “H_20_2”
d. Ferric chloride
899. The blue colour of the benedict’s reagent is due to
a. sodium citrate
b. copper sulphate ✔
c. ammonium sulphate
d. sodium carbonate
900. The condition in which CSF shows clott with ‘cob-web’ appearance
a. Xanthochromia
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Tuberculous meningitis ✔
 d. All the above
901. The first step for the sputum smear prepared for cytological examination is
a. Fix with ether ethyl alcohol mixture ✔
b. -Fix with formation
c. Papanicolaou staining
d. None of the above
902. Preservative used in pelkian India ink is
a. lactic acid
b. 0.3% tricresol ✔
c. phenol
d. none of the above
903. The colour of Schiff’s reagent is
a. yellow
b. blue
c. pink
d. colourless✔
904. The bluing solution used for H & E staining
a. 1% HCl
b. 70% ethanol
c. Tap water ✔
d. All the above
905. Bleeding time is increased in
a. Platelet dysfunction
b. Vitamin K deficiencies
c. Severe clotting factor deficiency
d. All the above ✔
906. The refractive index of DPX is
a. 1.38
b. 1.45
c. 1.52 ✔
d. 1.85
907. The fixative used for electron microscopy
a. Potassium dichromate
b. luteraldehyde ✔
c. methyl alcohol
d. all the above
908. The normal value of cholesterol is
a. 150-250 mg%
b. 100-200 mg% ✔
c. 250-350 mg%
d. 120-180 mg%
909. The smear used for supra vital staining
a. unstained unfixed smear ✔
b. fixed and stained smear
c. fixed smear
d. all the above
910. Cysticircus bovis is the larval form of
a. Taenia solium
b. Taenia saginata ✔
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Echinococcus granulosus
911. The bullet shaped virus is
a. Pox virus
b. Varicella zoster
c. Rabies virus ✔
 d. HIV
912. Lawn culture or carpet culture is used to
a. obtain large amount of growth
b. for preparation of antigens
c. for ABST
d. all the above ✔
913. The antibodies that can pass through the placenta
a. IgG ✔
b. IgM
c. (1) and (2)
d. None of the above
914. Vandenbergh reaction is used for the estimation of
a. Cholesterol
b. Bilirubin ✔
c. Protein
d. None of the above
915. In an unstained sputum smear we can see
a. Gushman’s spirals
b. Charcot Leyden crystals
c. Elastic fibres
d. All the above ✔
916. Normal concentration of sodium in blood
a. 95-110 mEq/L
b. 3-5 mEq/L
c. 130-150 mEq/L ✔
d. 150-190 mEq/L
917. Clostridium perfringes can be identified by
a. Nagler reaction ✔
b. Satellite test
c. Coagulase test
d. String test
918. Cocci that are seen in grape like clusters
a. Staphylococcus ✔
b. Streptococcus
c. Corney bacterium
d. Cryptococcus
919. Fixative that contains mercuric chloride
a. Carnoys fluid
b. Bouins fluid
c. Zenkers fluid ✔
d. Rossman’s fluid
920. SGOT is increased in
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Viral hepatitis
c. Toxic hepatitis
d. All the above ✔
921. In a colorimeter, the cuvette made of is used for UV range of light.
a. Borosilicate
b. Quartz ✔
c. (1) and (2)
d. None of the above
922. RBC pipette can be used for
a. RBC count
b. Platelet count
c. (1) and (2) ✔
 d. D:-None of the above
923. Basophilic stippling can be seen in
a. G6 PD deficiency
b. Metal poisoning ✔
c. Splenectomy
d. Erythroblastosis foetalis
924. Dehaemoglobinisation of a thick smear can be done by
a. glacial acetic acid and tartaric acid mixture
b. methanol
c. distilled water
d. (1) and (3) ✔
925. Sickle cell can be demonstrated by
a. Scriver and Waugh method
b. Solubility test
c. Dithionite method
d. All the above ✔
926. Bence Jonce proteins can be detected by
a. Pandy’s test
b. SSA test
c. Bradshaws test ✔
d. Heat and acetic acid test
927. Bile pigments are detected by
a. Rotheras test
b. Fouckets test ✔
c. Hays test
d. Benzidine test
928. Urease test is positive for all except
a. E. coli ✔
b. Proteus
c. Cryptococcus
d. Citrobacter
929. In plasmodium falciparum infection, erythrocytes shows
a. Shuffner’s dot
b. Maurer’s dot ✔
c. Ziemann’s dot
d. James dot
930. Casoni’s test is related to
a. Trichuris trichura
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Echinococcus granulosus ✔
d. Taenia solium
931. Seitz filters are example for
a. Asbestos ✔
b. Glass
c. Membrane
d. Candle
932. The red colour of the blood is due to
a. Myoglobin
b. Globulin
c. Albumin
d. Haemoglobin ✔
933. For routine staining of blood smear by Giemsa method, the smear is fixed by –
a. Acetone
b. Acetic acid
c. Methanol ✔
 d. Chloroform
934. Tha thickness of a tissue section taken using microtome for histopathology is :
a. 5 microns ✔
b. 50 microns
c. 100 microns
d. 1000 microns
935. The part of a microscope that serves to regulate light entering the condenser is –
a. Stage
b. Irie diaphragm ✔
c. Blue filter
d. Revolving nose piece
936. Which of the following fixative contains picric acid, formaldehyde and glacial acetic acid?
a. Clarke’s fluid
b. Bouin’s solution ✔
c. Carnoy’s fluid
d. Neutral buffered formaldehyde
937. For fixation, the recommended quantity of the fixative should be : (16-7)
a. 20 times the volume of the tissue ✔
b. Half the volume of the tissue
c. 100 times the volume of the tiasue
d. Equal to the volume of tissue
938. The unit for expressing Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is :
a. Centimetre/minute
b. Millimetre/minute
c. Centimetre/hour
d. Milkimetres/hour✔
939. The old name of aspartate aminotransferase (AST) ia:
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Serum glutamate-pyruvate transaminase
c. Serum glutamic-oxaloacetic transaminase ✔
d. Creatine phosphokinase
940. Which ia not a liver function test?
a. Test for AST
b. Test for serum creatinine ✔
c. Test for ALT
d. Albumin test
941. Anexample of a special staining is :
a. Periodic acid Schiff’s staining ✔
b. Acid fast staining
c. Grams staining
d. Leishman’s staining
942. The staining technique that is preferred for viewing intracellular haemoprotozoans is :
a. Leiashman’s staining
b. Giemsa staining ✔
c. Wright’s staining
d. Gram’s staining
943. The sterilization conditions in a steam jacketed autoclave is :
a. 121°C at 16 psi pressure for 5 min
b. 121°C at 5 pei pressure for 15 min
c. 121°C at 15 psi pressure for 150 min
d. 121°C at 15 psi pressure for 15 min ✔
944. The special microscope used for detecting leptospirea in blood sample is :
a. Dark field microscope ✔
b. Phase contrast microscope
c. Stereo zoom miercscope
 d. Fluorescence microscope
945. The incorporation percentage of agar in common bacteriological media is :
a. 0.26% — 0.5%
b. 5%-10%
c. 1.5% -2% ✔
d. 10% – 20%
946. An example for anaerobic media is :
a. Fluid thioglycollate medium ✔
b. Nutrient broth
c. MacConkey broth
d. Peptone water
947. Which among the following is not a modification of Gram’s staining?
a. Kopeloffand Bearman’s modification
b. Burke’s modification
c. Weigert’s modification
d. Fleming’s modification ✔
948. In lactophenol cotton blue stain, the function of cotton blue is to :
a. Kill the fungus
b. Clear the fungus
c. Stain the fungus ✔
d. Fix the fungus
949. The most common method of fixing a bacterial smear is :
a. Phenol fixing
b. Heat fixing ✔
c. Acetic acid fixing
d. Methanol fixing
950. The natural immunity present in an individual is:
a. Innate immunity ✔
b. Adaptive immunity
c. Active immunity
d. Adoptive immunity
951. Nosccominl infection means infection acquired from :
a. Shops .
b. Community
c. Hospitals ✔
d. Households.
952. The specimen taken from a dead dog for diagnosis of rabies is :
a. Spleen
b. Brain ✔
c. Liver
d. Tongue
953. For separation of serum, blood is collected in:
a. EDTA
b. Heparin
c. Sodium citrate
d. Dry tubes without any chemicals ✔
954. Bacterial colonies having a raised or bulging centre is called :
a. Umbilicate
b. Flat
c. Umbonate ✔
d. Pinpoint
955. Methyl red test is used to detect :
a. Acid production from glucose ✔
b. Indole production
c. Urease production
 d. Hydrogen sulphide production
956. The most common enzyme used in a polymerase chain reaction is :
a. RNA polymerase
b. Taq polymerase ✔
c. Reverse trancriptase
d. DNA ligase
957. The agar recommended for antibiotic sensitivity testing is :
a. Nutrient agar
b. Potato dextrose agar
c. MacConkey agar
d. Mueller Hinton agar ✔
958. Which among the following is not a platform test for milk? .
a. Total plate count teat ✔
b. Organcleptic test
c. Aleohol test
d. Clot on boiling test
959. Urinary crystal having coffin lid appearance is :
a. Uric acid
b. Triple phosphate ✔
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Urate
960. Drepanocytes are seen in:
a. Alcoholism
b. Thalassaemia
c. Uremia
d. Sickle celi anaemia ✔
961. Urobilinogen is completely absent in :
a. Obstructive jaundice ✔
b. Haemolytie jaundice
c. Hepatic jaundice
d. Physiological jaundice
962. Non specific PAS staining is encountered after this fixation :
a. Mercuric chloride
b. Potassium dichromate
c. Osmium tetroxide
d. Glutaraldehyde ✔
963. DIC is a complication of :
a. Acute promyelocytic leukaemia ✔
b. Chronic myeloid leukaemia
c. Hairy cell leukaemia
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
964. Black coloured urine is a feature of :
a. Phenyl ketonuria
b. Alkaptonuria ✔
c. Urinary tract infections
d. Keto acidosis
965. Glanzmann’s disease is associated with :
a. Defective platelet aggregation ✔
b. Defective platelet adhesion
c. Normal clot retraction
d. None of these
966. Length of wintrobes haematocrit tube :
a. 9cm
b. 19cm
c. l1 cm ✔
 d. 12cm
967. Betke-Kleihauer method ia used to detect :
a. HbA
b. HbF ✔
c. HbC
d. None of these
968. Green coloured vacutainer tube contains :
a. Fluoride
b. EDTA
c. Citrate
d. Heparin ✔
969. Coulter counter is based on:
a. Impedence method ✔
b. Light reflection
c. Light refraction
d. All the above
970. The stain used to demonstrate Barr Body :
a. H& Estain
b. Reliculin stain
c. PAS stain
d. Shorr stain ✔
971. Glycosidic linkage in maltose is :
a. Alpha 1-4 linkage ✔
b. Beta 1-4 linkage
c. Alpha 1-6 linkage
d. Alpha 1-2 linkage
972. Bence Johns protein is seen in:
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Multiple myeloma ✔
c. Cirrhosis of liver
d. Hepatitis
973. Amino acids involved in creatinine synthesis :
a. Glycine
b. Arginine
c. Methionine
d. All the above ✔
974. Cocci arranged in packets of eight :
a. Micrococci
b. Gonococci ✔
c. Sarcina
d. Pneumococci
975. Which among the following is a best marker of myocardial ischemia?
a. ALP
b. GGT
c. Cystanin C
d. CKMB (mass) ✔
976. Microalbuminuria is defined as:
a. < 10 mg Albumin/day
b. 30-300 mg Albumin/day ✔
c. 1-3 gm Albumin/day
d. > 1-3 mg Albumin/day
977. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals
a. A high hematocrit
b. Hemolysis
c. A heavy buffy coat ✔
 d. Icteric plasma
978. A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred
a. Permanently ✔
b. For 5 years
c. For 6 months
d. For 1 year
979. Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle? 1. lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) (LD) 2. creatinine
phosphokinase (CPK) (CK) 3. serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT)
a. 1,2, and 3 ✔
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 only
d. 2 and 3 only
980. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing
a. D(u) testing
b. Reverse typing ✔
c. Autoagglutination tests
d. Immunoglobulin testing
981. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the
a. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
b. Size of the particle being counted ✔
c. Value of the cell indices
d. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
982. In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as
a. Infectious hepatitis
b. Lupus erythematosus ✔
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Pneumonia
983. Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is
a. Bound to albumin
b. Free
c. Bound to cholesterol
d. Bound to globulin ✔
984. Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
a. Serum haptoglobin ✔
b. Pre-transfusion bilirubin
c. Urine porphyrins
d. Post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin
985. A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains
a. Red blood cells int he cytoplasm ✔
b. A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod
c. Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm
d. Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus
986. Beer’s law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light
absorbed, the
a. Lower the concentration of the analyte
b. Longer the wavelength required
c. Higher the concentration of the analyte ✔
d. More light transmitted
987. In using a urinometer to measure specific gravity, the correction facotr for each 3 degrees C higher or lower than
calibration temperature is
a. +/- 1.001
b. +/- 0.001 ✔
c. +/- 0.100
d. +/- 0.010
988. A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be
 a. Homozygous Rh(D) positive
b. Heterozygous Rh(D) positive ✔
c. Erythroblastotic
d. 50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D)negative
989. The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is
a. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
b. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
c. Streptococcus viridans
d. Staphylococcus aureus
990. A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test
a. Indicates the severity of infection
b. Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies ✔
c. Indicates no infection
d. Is positive during the chancre stage
991. The end-product of purine metabolism is
a. Creatine
b. Uric acid ✔
c. Creatinine
d. Urea
992. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of
a. Blood coagulation
b. Osmotic pressure of body fluids ✔
c. Salt intake
d. Cardiac muscle contractions
993. The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is
a. Microcytic
b. Macrocytic
c. Hemolytic ✔
d. Aplastic
994. Hansel’s stain is appropriate for
a. Phagocytic neutrophils
b. Nasal secrection for eosinophiles ✔
c. Circulating eosinophiles
d. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
995. Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of
a. Pasteurello
b. Bordetella ✔
c. Haemophilus
d. Yersinia
996. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be used to help identify the antibody that
is attached to the patient’s cells IN VIVO?
a. Elution ✔
b. Direct anti-human globulin test
c. Indirect anti-human globulin test
d. D(u)
997. Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO Group should be centrifuged for
a. 15-30 seconds @ 1000 ✔
b. 5 min @ 5000
c. 2 min @ 2000
d. 3 min @ 3000
998. Which of the following tests is used to measure capillary fragility?
a. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
b. Prothrombin time
c. Bleeding time
d. Tourniquet ✔
 999. According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus species, the neterococci are placed in group
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D ✔
1000. During the crossmatch procedure, a negative rsult on the addition of Coombs control cells indicated that the
a. Antiglobulin reagent is detecting antibody globulin, indicating adequate washing during the crossmatch
procedures.
b. Crossmatch is incompatible
c. Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test. ✔
d. Crossmatch is compatible and the blood may be infused
1001. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in
a. Liver disease
b. Kidney disease
c. Obstructive jaundice ✔
d. Myocardial infarction
1002. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on
a. Serum only
b. Any body fluid
c. Either serum or plasma
d. Plasma only ✔
1003. The infective stage of the hookworm is the
a. Filariform larva with a pointed tail ✔
b. Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity
c. Filariform larva with a notched tail
d. Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity
1004. Antihuman serum globulin reagent
a. Is produced in humans
b. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies
c. Is produced in laboratory animals ✔
d. Occurs naturally in most humans
1005. Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their
a. Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide
b. Serologic and biochemical characteristics
c. Staining properties with polychrome dyes
d. Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae ✔
1006. Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
a. Howell-Jolly bodies
b. Reticulocytes ✔
c. Malaria
d. Platelets
1007. Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring
a. Freezing point depression ✔
b. Ionic strength
c. Refractive index
d. Specific gravity
1008. Enterobius vermilcularis is a
a. Filarial worm
b. Flat worm
c. Hookworm
d. Pinworm ✔
1009. The modified Griess nitrite test, when positive to any degree, is virtually dianostic of
a. Phenylalanine in the urine
b. Significant bacteriuria (10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine) ✔
c. Bilirubin in the urine
 d. Any bacteriuria (10(1) to 10(5) organisms per milliliter of urine)
1010. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
a. Is present in the serum
b. Is absent from the serum ✔
c. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
d. Is present in the blood cells
1011. Carbohydrates are organic compounds of 1. carbon 2. hydrogen 33. oxygen
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1,2, and 3 ✔
d. 1 and 3 only
1012. The etiologic agent of chancroid is
a. Haemophilus aegyptius
b. Haemophilus ducreyi ✔
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. Haemophilus influenzae
1013. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
a. Landsteiner ✔
b. Bernstein
c. Levine
d. Weiner
1014. Blood group A individuals have
a. Anti-O in their serum
b. Antigen A and B on their red cells
c. Anti-A in their serum
d. Anti-B in their serum ✔
1015. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?
a. Isoenzyme electrophoresis
b. Blood viscosity studies
c. Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum
d. Immunoelectrophoresis ✔
1016. Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of
a. Factor VII deficiency
b. Platelet function ✔
c. Factor X deficiency
d. Hemophilia
1017. A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains
a. A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod
b. Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm
c. Red blood cells int he cytoplasm ✔
d. Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus
1018. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears
a. Greeen
b. Bright red
c. Clear (colorless)
d. Light yellow or straw colored ✔
1019. Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency of Factor VIII?
a. First ✔
b. Third
c. Second
d. Fourth
1020. Which organisms are described as minute, very plemorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram-negative rods that
must have media enriched with X and V factors?
a. Haemophilus influenzae ✔
b. Escherichia coli
 c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Bacillus anthracis
1021. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
a. Is present in the blood cells
b. Is present in the serum
c. Is absent from the serum ✔
d. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
1022. The screenign or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in
a. 0.50% NaCl ✔
b. 0.90% NaCl
c. 1.34% NaCl
d. 0.85% NaCl
1023. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and
a. Acetic anhydride
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Alkaline picrate ✔
d. Ammonium hydroxide
1024. Which one fo the following test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of staphlococci?
a. Oxidase
b. Fibrinolysin
c. Catalase
d. Coagulase ✔
1025. Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of
a. Yersinia
b. Pasteurello
c. Haemophilus
d. Bordetella ✔
1026. The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is
a. Macrocytic
b. Hemolytic ✔
c. Microcytic
d. Aplastic
1027. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT
a. Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi
b. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction ✔
c. Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow
d. Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure
1028. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is
a. Chloride
b. Potassium
c. Sodium ✔
d. Bicarbonate
1029. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be
a. WBC and Hgb
b. RBC and WBC ✔
c. Hct and WBC
d. RBC and Hgb
1030. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with
a. Anti-A serum
b. Anti-AB serum
c. Anti-A2 serum
d. Dolichos biflorus serum ✔
1031. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of
a. Protein
b. Uric acid
 c. Ketone bodies ✔
d. Glucose
1032. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
a. Specific gravity
b. Hydrometry
c. Refractive index
d. Osmolality ✔
1033. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with
a. Alkaline copper
b. Ferric chloride
c. Nitroprusside ✔
d. 2,4 dichloraniline
1034. When a patient has been sensitized, which of the following tests would be used to help identify the antibody that
is attached to the patient’s cells IN VIVO?
a. Indirect anti-human globulin test
b. D(u)
c. Direct anti-human globulin test
d. Elution ✔
1035. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
a. Lysing reagent only
b. Highly-diluted blood
c. Distilled water
d. Diluting fluid ✔
1036. Beer’s law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light
absorbed, the
a. Longer the wavelength required
b. Higher the concentration of the analyte ✔
c. More light transmitted
d. Lower the concentration of the analyte
1037. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in
a. Myocardial infarction
b. Liver disease
c. Obstructive jaundice ✔
d. Kidney disease
1038. Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring
a. Ionic strength
b. Refractive index
c. Freezing point depression ✔
d. Specific gravity
1039. The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is
a. Schistosoma haematobium
b. Schistosoma hepatica
c. Schistosoma japonicum
d. Schistosoma mansoni ✔
1040. Reticulocytes contain
a. Howell-Jolly bodies
b. DNA remnants
c. Basophilic granules
d. RNA remnants ✔
1041. Enterobius vermilcularis is a
a. Flat worm
b. Filarial worm
c. Hookworm
d. Pinworm ✔
1042. Strepococcus pneumoniae
 a. Capsules are produced by virulent strians ✔
b. Is motile
c. Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures
d. Grows best at slightly acid pH
1043. The end-product of purine metabolism is
a. Creatinine
b. Uric acid ✔
c. Creatine
d. Urea
1044. Which one of the following methods could be used to study protein abnormality?
a. Immunoelectrophoresis ✔
b. Isoenzyme electrophoresis
c. Electrophoresis of penicilliamine-treated serum
d. Blood viscosity studies
1045. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of
a. Cardiac muscle contractions
b. Blood coagulation
c. Salt intake
d. Osmotic pressure of body fluids ✔
1046. In serologic tests for syphulis, reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as
a. Infectious hepatitis
b. Pneumonia
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Lupus erythematosus ✔
1047. A variety of media may be safely stored for months is care is taken to
a. Maintain them in an incubator
b. Avoid exposing them to light
c. Maintain them at room temperature
d. Retain their moisture ✔
1048. Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?
a. Pandy
b. Benedict’s
c. Clinitest
d. Dip stick ✔
1049. The cystic stage of development has NOT been demonstrated in which of the following organisms?
a. Iodamoeba butschlii
b. Balantidium coli
c. Endolimax nana
d. Trichomonas vaginalis ✔
1050. The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer is
a. 1.0 mm
b. 0.1 cm
c. 0.1 mm ✔
d. 1.0 cm
1051. Which one of the following hemoglobin determination methods is recommended by the International Committee
for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards?
a. Methemoglobin
b. Oxyhemoglobin
c. Sulfhemoglobin
d. Cyanmethemoglobin ✔
1052. The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and
a. Lactic acid
b. 3-hydroxy butyric acid ✔
c. Acetic acid
d. Oxaloacetic acid
1053. In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in
a. Cattle ✔
b. Fish
c. Swine
d. Man
1054. Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh (D)
a. Positive mother who has an Rh(D) negative husband
b. Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus ✔
c. Negative mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus
d. Positive mother with an Rh(D) negative fetus
1055. If test results are within +/-2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results beyond the +/-2 SD limit will be 1 out of
a. 20 ✔
b. 3
c. 5
d. 300
1056. Fungi are commonly identified on their basis of their
a. Serologic and biochemical characteristics
b. Staining properties with polychrome dyes
c. Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae ✔
d. Solubility in 20% potassium hydroxide
1057. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes
a. More dense ✔
b. Less dense
c. Finer
d. More acidic
1058. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
a. Percent deviation
b. Stardard deviation ✔
c. Quality control
d. Coefficient variation
1059. In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is
a. Re-absorption of water
b. Secretion
c. Simple filtration ✔
d. Selective re-absorption
1060. Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Nocardia asteroides
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Clostridium botulinum ✔
1061. An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes USUALLY indicates
a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Allergic reaction
c. Bacterial infection ✔
d. Viral infection
1062. Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta, and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of
a. Serum protein ✔
b. Serum lipoprotein
c. Amino acid
d. Hemoglobin
1063. Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as
a. Conjugated bilirubin
b. Biliverdin
c. Prehepatic bilirubin ✔
d. Total bilirubin
1064. Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
a. Malaria
b. Reticulocytes ✔
c. Platelets
d. Howell-Jolly bodies
1065. Dilute normal urine is usually
a. Amber
b. Dark yellow
c. Pale yellow ✔
d. Reddish-yellow
1066. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of
a. Howell-Jolly bodies
b. Plasmodium species
c. Heniz bodies ✔
d. Rubriblasts
1067. The light colored zone adjacent to the nucleus in a plasmacyte is the:
a. Ribosome
b. Chromatin
c. Mitochondria
d. Transferrin ✔
1068. The majority of iron in a adult is found as a constituent of:
a. Hemoglobin ✔
b. Hemosiderin
c. Myoglobin
d. Transferrin
1069. The main function of the hexose monophosphate shunt in the erythrocyte is to:
a. Regulate the level of 2,3 dpg
b. Provide reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin ✔
c. Prevent the reductoin of heme iron
d. Provide energy for membrane maintenance
1070. In order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly with oxygen the iron must be :
a. Complexed with haptoglobin
b. Freely circulating in the cytoplasm
c. Attached to transferrin
d. In the ferrous state ✔
1071. In which of the following disease states are teardrop cells and abnormal platelets most characteristically seen?
a. Hemolytic anemia
b. Multiple myeloma
c. G-6PD deficiency
d. Myeloid metaplasia ✔
1072. In the normal adult the spleen acts as a site for:
a. Storage of red blood cells
b. Production of red blood cells
c. Synthesis of erythropoietin
d. Removal of imperfect and aging cells ✔
1073. After removal of red blood cells from the circulation hemoglobin is broken down into:
a. Iron,porphyrin, and amino acids
b. Iron, protoporphyrin, and globin ✔
c. Heme, protoporphyrin, and amino acids
d. Heme, hemosiderin, and globin
1074. Heinz bodies are:
a. Readily identified with polychrome stains
b. Rarely found in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficient erythrocytes
c. Closely associated with spherocytes
d. Denatureed hemoglobin inclusiond that are readily removed by the spleen ✔
1075. Cells for the transport of O2 and CO2 are:
a. Granulocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Erythrocytes ✔
d. Thrombocytes
1076. Erythropoietin acts to:
a. Shorten the replication time of the granulocytes
b. Stimulate RNA synthesis of erythroid cells ✔
c. Increase colony-stimulating factors produced by the B-lymphocytes
d. Decrease the release of marrow reticulocytes
1077. What cell shape is most commonly associated with increased mchc?
a. Tear drop cells
b. Target cells
c. Spherocytes ✔
d. Sickle cells
1078. Which of the following characteristics are common to hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis,
hereditary stomatocytosis, and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
a. Autosomal dominant inheritance
b. Red cell membrane defects ✔
c. Positive direct antiglobulin test
d. Measured platelet count
1079. The biuret reaction for the analysis of serum protein depends on the number of?
a. Free amino acids
b. Free carboxyl groups
c. Peptide bonds ✔
d. Tyrosine residues
1080. Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by?
a. Insulin
b. Parathyroid hormone ✔
c. Thyroxin
d. Vitamin C
1081. In the liver, bilirubin is converted to:
a. Urobilinogen
b. Urobilin
c. Bilirubin-albumin complex
d. Bilirubin diglucuronide ✔
1082. The osmolality of a urine or serum specimen is measured by a change in the?
a. Freezing point ✔
b. Sediment point
c. Midpoint
d. Osmotic pressure
1083. Which of the following steroids is an adrenal cortical hormone?
a. Angiotensinogen
b. Corticosterone ✔
c. Progesterone
d. Pregnanetriol
1084. Which two conditions can “physiologically” elevate serum alkaline phosphatase?
a. Rickets, hyperparathyroidism
b. Obstructive jaundice
c. Growth, third trimester of pregnancy ✔
d. Viral hepatitis, infectious mononucleosis
1085. During an elevation of adrenal function, a patient had plasma cortisol determination is the morning after
awakening and in the evening. Laboratory results indicated that the morning value was higher than the evening
concentration. This is indicative of?
a. A normal finding ✔
 b. Cushing’s syndrome
c. Addison’s disease
d. Hypopituitarism
1086. In electrophoretic analysis, buffers?
a. Stabilize electrolytes
b. Maintain basic PH
c. Act as a carrier for ions ✔
d. Produce an effect on protein configuration
1087. The T3 resin uptake test is a measure of?
a. Circulating T3
b. Binding capacity of thyroxine-binding globulin ✔
c. Total thyroxine-binding globulin
d. Circulating T3
1088. Blood PCO2 may be measured by?
a. Direct colorimetric measurement of dissolved CO2
b. Calculations of blood PH and total CO2 concentration ✔
c. Measurement of CO2-saturated hemoglobin
d. Measurement of CO2 consumed at the cathode
1089. Which of the following serum constituents is unstable if a blood specimen is left standing at room temperature for
8 hours before processing?
a. Cholesterol
b. Triglyceride
c. Creatinine
d. Glucose ✔
1090. Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of?
a. Hemoglobin
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. Transferrin ✔
d. Ferritin
1091. In a spectrophotometer, light of a specific wavelength can be isolated from white light with a(n)?
a. Double beam
b. Diffraction grating ✔
c. Aperture
d. Slit
1092. Absorbance (A) of a solution may be converted to percent transmittance (%T) using the formula?
a. 1 + Log %T
b. 2 + Log %T ✔
c. 1 – Log %T
d. 2 – Log %T
1093. A condition in which erythrocyte protoporphyrin is increased is?
a. Acute intermittent porphyria
b. Iron Deficiency anemia ✔
c. Porphyria cutanea tarda
d. Acute porphyric attack
1094. The formula for calculating serum osmolaliity that incorporates a correction for the water content of plasma is?
a. 2 Na x (Glucose/20) x (BUN/3)
b. Na + (2 x Glucose/20) x (BUN/3) ✔
c. 2 Na + Glucose/20 + (BUN/3)
d. 2 Na + Glucose/3 + (BUN/20)
1095. The first step to be taken when attempting to repair a piece of electronic equipment is?
a. Check all the electronic connections
b. Reset all the printed circuit boards
c. Turn the instrument off ✔
d. Replace all the fuses
1096. Most of the carbon dioxide present in the blood is in the form of?
 a. Dissolve CO2
b. Carbonate
c. Bicarbonate ion ✔
d. Carbonic acid
1097. The statistical term for the average value is the?
a. Mode
b. Median
c. Mean ✔
d. Coefficient of variation
1098. An index of precision is statistically known as the?
a. Median
b. Mean
c. Standard deviation
d. Coefficient of variation ✔
1099. The most frequent value in a collection of data is statistically known as the?
a. Mode ✔
b. Median
c. Mean
d. Standard deviation
1100. The middle value of a data set is statistically known as the?
a. Mean ✔
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Standard deviation
1101. In a specimen collected for plasma glucose analysis, sodium floride?
a. Serves as a coenzyme of hexokinase
b. Prevents reactivity of non-glucose reducing substances
c. Precipitates proteins
d. Inhibits glycolysis ✔
1102. The serum that contributes to most serum osmolality is?
a. Glucose
b. Sodium ✔
c. Chloride
d. Urea
1103. Which family of steroid hormones is characterized by an unsaturated A ring?
a. Progestins
b. Estrogens ✔
c. Androgens
d. Glucocorticoids
1104. Which of the following serum protein fractions is most likely to be elevated in patients with nephrotic syndrome?

a. Alpha-1 globulin
b. Alpha1- globulin and alpha-2 globulin
c. Alpha-2 globulin and beta globulin ✔
d. Beta globulin and gamma globulin
1105. The following lab results were obtained from arterial blood: sodium 136 mEq/L pH 7.32
Potassium 4.4 mEq/L PCO2 79 mm Hg Chloride 92 mEq/L Bicarbonate 40 mEq/L these results
are compatible with?
a. Respiratory alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis ✔
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Metabolic acidosis
1106. Which of the following statements about fluorometry are true?
a. A compound is said to fluoresce when it absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at a second wave
length ✔
 b. Detectors in fluorometers are placed 180 degrees from the excitation source
c. It is less sensitive than spectrophotometry
d. It avoids the necessity for complexing of components because fluorescence is a native property
1107. Two standard deviations is the acceptable limit of error in the chemistry laboratory. If you run the normal control
100 times, how many of the values wou;d be out of control due to random error?
a. 1
b. 5 ✔
c. 10
d. 20
1108. Serum anion gap is increased in patients with?
a. Renal tubular acidosis
b. Diabetic alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis due to diarrhea
d. Lactic acidosis ✔
1109. The nanometer is used as a measure of?
a. Absorbance
b. % transmittance
c. Intensity of radiant energy
d. Wavelength of radiant energy ✔
1110. A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is?
a. Vomiting
b. Starvation
c. Asthma
d. Hyperventilation ✔
1111. Major actions of angiotensin II include?
a. Increased pituitary secretion of rennin
b. Increased vasoconstriction ✔
c. Increased parathyroid hormone secretion by the parathyroid
d. Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone
1112. The anion gap is useful for QC of laboratory results for?
a. Amino acids and proteins
b. Blood gas analyses
c. Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2 ✔
d. Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium
1113. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic
pressure?
a. Chloride
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Sodium ✔
1114. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 18.7 g of KCI (MW=74.5) in 500 ml of water?
a. 0.1
b. 0.5 ✔
c. 1.0
d. 5.0
1115. The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Chloride ✔
1116. The different water content of erythrocytes and plasma makes true glucose concentrations in whole blood a
function of the?
a. Hematocrit ✔
b. Leukocyte count
c. Erythrocyte count
 d. Erythrocyte indices
1117. Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations in blood pH and CO2 content due to changes in?
a. Bohr’s effect
b. O2 content
c. Bicarbonate buffer ✔
d. Carbonic anhydrase
1118. Metabolic acidosis is described as a(n)?
a. Increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH
b. Decrease in CO2 content with an increased pH
c. Increase in CO2 with and increased pH
d. Decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH ✔
1119. The normal range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37 degrees Celsius is?
a. 7.28-7.34
b. 7.33-7.37
c. 7.35-7.45 ✔
d. 7.45-7.50
1120. Hydrogen ion concentration (pH) in blood is usually determined by means of which of the following electrodes?
a. Silver
b. Glass ✔
c. Platinum
d. Platinum-lactate
1121. The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called?
a. Glycogenesis
b. Glycogenolysis
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Glycolysis ✔
1122. A reciprocal relationship exists between?
a. Sodium and potassium
b. Calcium and phosphorus ✔
c. Chloride and CO2
d. Calcium and magnesium
1123. Respiratory acidosis is described as a(n)?
a. Increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH ✔
b. Decrease in CO2 content with an increased pH
c. Increase in CO2 content with an increased pH
d. Decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH
1124. Which of the following hemoglobins has glucose-6-phosphate on the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain?
a. S
b. C
c. A2
d. A1C ✔
1125. The function of the major lipid components of the very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) is to transport?
a. Cholesterol from peripheral cells to the liver
b. Cholesterol and Phospholipids to peripheral cells
c. Exogenous triglycerides
d. Endogenous triglycerides ✔
1126. A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany). Which of the following tests
should be ordered immediately?
a. Calcium ✔
b. Phosphorus
c. BUN
d. Glucose
1127. Sixty to seventy-five percent of the plasma cholesterol is transported by?
a. Chylomicrons
b. VLDL
 c. LDL ✔
d. HDL
1128. Measurement of total T4 by competitive protein binding or displacement is based on the specific binding
properties of?
a. Thyroxine-binding prealbumin
b. Albumin
c. Thyroxine-binding globulin ✔
d. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
1129. Which of the following methods employs a highly specific antibody to thyroxine?
a. Total T4 by competitive protein binding
b. T4 by RIA ✔
c. T4 by column
d. T4 by equilibrium dialysis
1130. The extent to which measurements agree with the true value of the quantity being measured is known as?
a. Reliability
b. Accuracy ✔
c. Reproducibility
d. Precision
1131. When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated is?
a. CK ✔
b. LD
c. AST
d. ALT
1132. In the Jaffe reaction, creatinine reacts with?
a. Alkaline sulfasalazine solution to produce an orange-yellow complex
b. Potassium iodide to form a reddish-purple complex
c. Sodium nitroferricyanide to yield a reddish-brown color
d. Alkaline picrate solution to yield and orange-red complex ✔
1133. Which of the following represents the end product of purine metabolism in humans?
a. AMP and GMP
b. DNA and RNA
c. Allantoin
d. Uric acid ✔
1134. The biological most active, naturally occurring androgen is?
a. Androstenedione
b. Dehydroepiandrosterone
c. Epiandrosterone
d. Testosterone ✔
1135. Bile acid concentrations are useful to asses?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hepatobiliary disease ✔
c. Intestinal Malabsorption
d. Kidney function
1136. Which of the following is secreted by the placenta and used for the early detection of pregnancy?
a. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
b. Human Chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) ✔
c. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
d. Progesterone
1137. Decreased serum iron associated with increased TIBC is compatible with which of the following disease states?
a. Anemia of chronic infection
b. Iron deficiency anemia ✔
c. Chronic liver disease
d. Nephrosis
1138. The principle excretory form of nitrogen is?
a. Amino acids
 b. Creatinine
c. Urea ✔
d. Uric acid
1139. The parent substance in the biosynthesis of androgens and estrogens is:
a. Cortisol
b. Catecholamines
c. Progesterone
d. Cholesterol ✔
1140. In the Malloy and Evelyn method for the determination of bilirubin, the reagent that is reacted with bilirubin to
form a purple azobilirubin is:
a. Dilute sulfuric acid
b. Diazonium sulfate
c. Sulfobromophthalein
d. Diazotized sulfanilic acid ✔
1141. Maple syrup urine disease is characterized by an increase in which of the following urinary amino acids?
a. Phenylalanine
b. Tyrosine
c. Valine, leucine, and isoleucine
d. Cystine and cysteine ✔
1142. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose?
a. Malate dehydrogenase (MD)
b. Amylase (AMS) ✔
c. Creatine kinase (CK)
d. Isocitric dehydrogenase (ICD)
1143. The greatest activities of serum AST and ALT are seen in?
a. Acute hepatitis ✔
b. Primary Biliary cirrhosis
c. Metastatic hepatic carcinoma
d. Alcoholic cirrhosis
1144. Bioavailability of a drug refers to the?
a. Availability for therapeutic administration
b. Availability of the protein-bound fraction of the drug
c. Drug transformation
d. The fraction of the drug absorbed into the systemic circulation ✔
1145. The cyclic antidepressants are classified as?
a. Basic drugs ✔
b. Neutral drugs
c. Acidic Drugs
d. Structurally cycloparaffinic
1146. The most widely employed screening technique for drug abuse is?
a. High performance liquid chromatography
b. Gas liquid chromatography
c. Thin layer chromatography ✔
d. UV spectrophotometry
1147. Phenobarbital is a metabolite of?
a. Primidone ✔
b. Phenytoin
c. Amobarbital
d. Secobarbital
1148. Increased serum albumin concentrations are seen in which of the following conditions?
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Acute hepatitis
c. Chronic inflammation
d. Dehydration ✔
1149. Which of the following amino acids is associated with sulfhydryl group?
 a. Cysteine ✔
b. Glycine
c. Serine
d. Tyrosine
1150. Night blindness is associated with deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
a. A ✔
b. C
c. Niacin
d. Thiamine
1151. Scurvy is associated with deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
a. A
b. C ✔
c. Niacin
d. Thiamine
1152. A cardiac glycoside that is used in the treatment of congenital heart failure and arrhythmias by increasing the
force and velocity of myocardial contraction is?
a. Digoxin ✔
b. Acetaminophen
c. Lithium
d. Phenytoin
1153. Pellagra is associated with deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
a. A
b. C
c. Niacin ✔
d. Thiamine
1154. A drug that relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages is?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Lithium
c. Phenytoin
d. Theophylline ✔
1155. Which of the following is the formula for calculating the unknown concentration based on Beer’s Law (A=
absorbance, C= Concentration)?
a. (A unknown/A standard) x C standard ✔
b. C standard x A unknown
c. A standard x A unknown
d. (C standard)/(A standard) x 100
1156. Which of the following is the formula for coefficient of variation?
a. (standard deviation x 100)/standard error
b. (mean x 100)/standard deviation
c. (standard deviation x 100)/mean ✔
d. (variance x 100)/mean
1157. Rickets is associated with deficiency in which of the following vitamins?
a. A
b. C
c. Niacin
d. D ✔
1158. The regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism is accomplished by which of the following glands?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid ✔
c. Adrenal glands
d. Pituitary

1159. Lithium therapy is widely used in the treatment of?

a. Hypertension
 b. Hyperactivity
c. Aggression
d. Manic-depression ✔
1160. An arterial blood specimen submitted for blood gas analysis was obtained at 8:30 am but was not received in the
laboratory until 11:00 am. The technologist should?
a. Perform the test immediately upon receipt
b. Perform the test only if the specimen was submitted in ice water
c. Request a venous blood specimen
d. Request a new arterial specimen be obtained ✔
1161. The anticonvulsant used to control tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures is?
a. Digoxin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Lithium
d. Phenytoin ✔
1162. A carbonate salt used to control manic-depressive disorders is?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Lithium ✔
c. Phenytoin
1163. A potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L is obtained. Before reporting the results, the first step the technologist should take
is to?
a. Check the serum for hemolysis ✔
b. Rerun the test
c. Check the age of the patient
d. Do nothing, simply report the result
1164. Specimens for blood gas determination should be drawn into a syringe containing?
a. No preservatives
b. Heparin ✔
c. EDTA
d. Oxalate
1165. The measurement of light scattered by particles in the sample is the principle of?
a. Spectrophotometer
b. Fluorometry
c. Nephelometry ✔
d. Atomic absorption
1166. Coulometry is used to measure?
a. Chloride ✔
b. PH
c. Bicarbonate
d. Ammonia
1167. The measurement of the amount of electricity passing between two electrodes in an electro-chemical cell is the
principle of:
a. Electrophoresis
b. Amperometry
c. Nephelometry
d. Coulometry ✔
1168. Which of the following lipid results would be expected to be falsely elevated on a serum specimen from a
nonfasting patient?
a. Cholesterol
b. Triglyceride ✔
c. HDL
d. LDL
1169. Turbidity in serum suggests elevation of?
a. Cholesterol
b. Total protein
c. Chylomicrons ✔
 d. Albumin
1170. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay techniques (EMIT) differ from all other types of enzyme immunoassays in that?
a. Lysozyme is the only enzyme used to label the hapten molecule
b. No separation of bound and free antigen is required ✔
c. Inhibition of the enzyme label is accomplished with polyethyleneglycol
d. Antibody absorption to polystyrene tubes precludes competition to labeled and unlabeled antigen
1171. The TRH stimulation test is useful in assessing which of the following?
a. TRH concentration
b. Iodine deficiency
c. Depression
d. Hyperthyroidism ✔
1172. Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for?
a. Screening for the presence of cancer
b. Monitoring the course of a known cancer ✔
c. Confirming the absence of disease
d. Identifying patients at risk for cancer
1173. The following results were obtained in a creatinine clearance evaluation: Urine
concentration: 84 mg/dL Urine volume: 1440 mL/24hr Serum
concentration: 1.4 mg/dL Body surface area: 1.60 m2 (average = 1.73m2) The
creatinine clearance in mL/min is:
a. 6
b. 22
c. 60 ✔
d. 65
1174. TSH is produced by the?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Pituitary Gland ✔
c. Adrenal Cortex
d. Thyroid
1175. Estrogen and progesterone receptor assays are useful in assessing prognosis in which of the following?
a. Ovarian Cancer
b. Breast Cancer ✔
c. Endometriosis
d. Amenorrhea
1176. Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be?
a. Refrigerated
b. Analyzed immediately ✔
c. Heated to 56 degrees Celsius
d. Stored at room temperature after centrifugation
1177. An analgesic that alleviates pain without causing loss of consciousness is?
a. Digoxin
b. Acetaminophen ✔
c. Lithium
d. Phenytoin
1178. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are both elevated in which of the
following diseases?
a. Muscular dystrophy
b. Viral hepatitis ✔
c. Pulmonary emboli
d. Infectious mononucleosis
1179. Urobilinogen is formed in the?
a. Kidney
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Intestine ✔
1180. Insufficient centrifugation will result in:
a. A false increase in Hct value ✔
b. A false decrease in Hct value
c. No effect on Hct value
d. All of the above depending on the patient
1181. Erythrocytes that vary in size from the normal 6-8 um are described as exhibiting:
a. Anisocytosis ✔
b. Hypochromia
c. Poikilocytosis
d. Pleocytosis
1182. Which of the following is the preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy in an adult?
a. Iliac crest ✔
b. Sternum
c. Tibia
d. Spinous processes of the vertebra
1183. Mean cell volume (MCV) is calculated using the following:
a. (Hgb/RBC)x10
b. (Hct/RBC)x10 ✔
c. (Hct/Hgb)x100
d. (Hgb/RBC)x100
1184. What term describes the change in shape of erythrocytes seen on a Wright’s-stained peripheral blood smear:
a. Poikilocytosis ✔
b. Anisocytosis
c. Hypochromia
d. Polychromasia
1185. Calculate the mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) using the following values: Hgb: 15 g/dL RBC: 4.50
x 10^6/uL Hct: 47 mL/dL
a. 9.5% (.095)
b. 10.4% (.104)
c. 31.9% (.319) ✔
d. 33.3% (.333)
1186. A manual white blood cell count was performed. A total of 36 cells were counted in all 9-mm^2 squares of a
Neubauer-ruled hemacytometer. A 1:10 dilution was used. White is the WBC?
a. 0.4×10^9/L ✔
b. 2.5×10^9/L
c. 4.0×10^9/L
d. 8.0×10^9/L
1187. When an erythrocyte containing iron granules is stained with Prussian blue, the cell is called a:
a. Spherocyte
b. Leptocyte
c. Schistocyte
d. Siderocyte ✔
1188. A 7.0 mL etheylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) tube is received in teh lab containing only 2.0 mL of blood. If
the lab is using manual techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous?
a. RBC count
b. Hemoglobin
c. Hct ✔
d. WBC count
1189. A 1:200 dilution of a patient sample was made and 336 red cells were counted in an area of 0.2 mm^2. What is
the RBC count?
a. 1.68 x 10^12/L
b. 3.36 x 10^12/L ✔
c. 4.47 x 10^12/L
d. 6.66 x 10^12/L
1190. What phagocytic cells produce lysozymes that are bacteriocidal?
 a. Eosinophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Platelets
d. Neutrophils ✔
1191. If a patient has a retic count of 7% and a Hct of 20% what is the corrected retic count?
a. 1.4%
b. 3.1% ✔
c. 3.5%
d. 14%
1192. A decreased osmotic fragility test would be associated with which of the following conditions?
a. Sickle cell anemia ✔
b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
d. Acquired hemolytic anemia
1193. What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on a Wright’s-stained smear?
a. Red cells would be stained too pink ✔
b. White cell cytoplasm would be stained too blue
c. Red cells would be stained too blue
d. Red cells would lyse on the slide
1194. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but cannot be detected on a
Wright’s stained blood smear?
a. Basophilic stippling
b. Heinz bodies ✔
c. Howell Jolly bodies
d. Siderotic granules
1195. A falsely elevated Hct is obtained. Which of the following calculated values will not be affected?
a. MCV
b. MCH ✔
c. MCHC
d. Red cell distribution width (RDW)
1196. A Miller disk is an ocular device used to facilitate counting of:
a. Platelets
b. Reticulocytes ✔
c. Sickle cells
d. Nucleated red blood cells
1197. RBC indices obtained on a patient are as follows: MCV: 88 um^3 MCH: 30 pg MCHC: 34% The RBC on the
peripheral smear would appear:
a. Microcytic, hypochromic
b. Microcytic, normochromic
c. Normocytic, normochromic ✔
d. Normocytic, hypochromic
1198. All of the following factors may influence the ESR except:
a. Blood drawn in a sodium citrate tube ✔
b. Anisocytosis, poikilocytosis
c. Plasma proteins
d. Caliber of the tube
1199. What staining method is used most frequently to stain and count reticulocytes?
a. Immunofluorescence
b. Supravital staining ✔
c. Romanowsky staining
d. Cytochemical staining
1200. The Coulter principle for counting cells is based upon the fact that:
a. Isotonic solutions conduct electricity better than cells do ✔
b. Conductivity varies proportionally to the number of cells
c. Cells conduct electricity better than saline does
 d. Isotonic solutions cannot conduct electricity
1201. A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBC are seen on the peripheral smear because:
a. The WBC count would be falsely lower
b. The RBC count is too low
c. Nucleated RBC’s are counted as leukocytes ✔
d. Nucleated RBC’s are confused with giant platelets
1202. Using a Coulter counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with:
a. Spherocytosis
b. Anisocytosis ✔
c. Leukocytosis
d. Presence fo NRBCs
1203. Given the following values, which set of red blood cell indicies suggests spherocytosis?
a. MCV 76 um^3 MCH 19.9 pg MCHC 28%
b. MCV 90 um^3 MCH 30.5 pg MCHC 32.5%
c. MCV 80 um^3 MCH 36.5 pg MCHC 39% ✔
d. MCV 81 um^3 MCH 29 pg MCHC 34%
1204. Which of the following statistical terms reflects the best index of precision?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Coefficient of variation ✔
d. Standard deviation
1205. Which of the following is considered a normal hemoglobin?
a. Carboxyhemoglobin
b. Methemoglobin
c. Sulfhemoglobin
d. Deoxyhemoglobin ✔
1206. Which condition will shift the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the right?
a. Acidosis ✔
b. Alkalosis
c. Multiple blood transfusions
d. Increased quantities of hemoglobin S or C
1207. Which is the major type of leukocyte seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?
a. Segmented neutrophil
b. Lymphocyte ✔
c. Monocyte
d. Eosinophil
1208. What is the normal WBC differential lymphocyte percentage (range) in the adult population?
a. 20-50% ✔
b. 10-20%
c. 5-10%
1209. 50-70%In which age group would 60% lymphocytes be a normal finding?
a. 40-60 years
b. 11-15 years
c. 6 months – 2 years ✔
d. 4-6 years
1210. Which of the following results on an automated differential suggests that a peripheral smear should be review
manually?
a. Segs 70%
b. Bands 6%
c. Mono 15% ✔
d. Eos 2%
1211. In which stage of erythrocytic maturation does Hgb formation begin?
a. Reticulocyte
b. Pronormoblast
c. Basophilic normoblast
 d. Polychromatic normoblast ✔
1212. Which of the following can shift the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve to the right?
a. Increases in 2,3 DPG
b. Acidosis
c. Hypoxia
d. All of the above ✔
1213. Which of the following Hbg configurations is characteristic of Hgb H?
a. Y^4
b. A2-y2
c. B4 ✔
d. A2-b2
1214. Autoagglutination of red cells at room temp can result in which of the following?
a. Low RBC count
b. High MCV
c. Low hematocrit
d. All of the above ✔
1215. Antibodies are secreted by
a. Killer cells
b. Marrow stem cells
c. Mast cells
d. B cells ✔
1216. Antibody class and antibody subclass is determined by major physiochemical differences and antigenic variation
found primarily in the
a. Constant region of heavy chain ✔
b. Constant region of light chain
c. Variable regions of heavy and light chains
d. Constant regions of heavy and light chains
1217. With which of the following immunoglobulin classes is secretory component or transport piece associated?
a. IgA ✔
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
1218. The immunoglobin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is
a. IgG
b. IgE ✔
c. IgM
d. IgD
1219. The immunoglobulin isotype that is bound to mast cells or basophils is
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG ✔
d. IgM
1220. Cells involved in phagocytosis include: 1. Polymorphonuclear neutrophil 2. Monocytes 3. Histiocytes 4.
Macrophages
a. 1, 2, & 3
b. 1 & 3
c. 4
d. All of the above ✔
1221. IgA is found in: 1. Saliva 2. Tears 3. Colostrum 4. Serum
a. 1, 2, & 3
b. 1 & 3
c. 4
d. All ✔
1222. The immunoglobulin class associated with hypersensitivity or allergenic reactions:
a. IgA
 b. IgM
c. IgD
d. IgE ✔
1223. Which of the following immunoglobulins is the most efficient agglutinator?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM ✔
d. IgE
1224. All of the following events are mediated by both the alternative and classical pathways except:
a. Proteolysis of C4 to C4a and C4b ✔
b. Proteolysis of C3 to C3a and C3b
c. Proteolysis of C5 to C5a and C5b
d. Release of anaphylatoxins
1225. Which of the following is an important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury?
a. Monocyte
b. Neutrophil ✔
c. Basophil
d. Eosinophil
1226. The visible serologic reaction between soluble antigen and its specific antibody is
a. Sensitization
b. Precipitation ✔
c. Agglutination
d. Opsonization
1227. While performing a test for febrile agglutinins, an analyst observes that the first 3 tubes have no reaction, the next
4 tubes have agglutination, and the last 3 tubes show no agglutination. Tubes #1, 2 and 3 indicate:
a. Prozone phenomenon ✔
b. Antigen excess
c. Equivalence
d. Postzone phenomenon
1228. A substrate is first exposed to patient’s serum, then exposed to a fluorescent antihuman immunoglobulin. The
procedure described is:
a. Fluorescent quenching
b. Direct fluorescence
c. Indirect fluorescence ✔
d. Fluorescence inhibition
1229. Which statement(s) is/are correct concerning the nephelometric determination of immunoglobulin levels? 1. Uses
a beam of light to pass through a suspension in a cuvette. 2. Utilizes the precipitation of soluble antigen with its
antibody. 3. Measures light that has been scattered as it passes through a suspension. 4. Most easily detects large
particles formed by the reactants.
a. 1 2 and 3 ✔
b. 1 and 3
c. 4
d. All
1230. A rubella enzyme immunoassay which utilizes patient serum, rubella antigen, and enzyme bound to antibuman
gamma globulin describes a/an ________ assay.
a. Inhibition
b. Competitive
c. Double antibody
d. Indirect ✔
1231. If 3 ml of a butter were added to a tube containing 1 ml of a standard reagent, the resulting dilution of the standard
reagent would be:
a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 1:4 ✔
d. 3:1
 e. 4:1
1232. The more specific immunoassay procedure for serum HCG utilizes antisera against whivh subunit of HCG?
a. Alpha
b. Gamma
c. Chorionic
d. Beta ✔
1233. Which of the following describes the relationship between test data and analyte concentration in the classical
competitive binding immunoassay:
a. Directly proportional
b. Indirectly proportional ✔
c. Relative
d. Non-specific
1234. A serologic test for syphilis that depends upon the detection of cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigen is:
a. FTA-ABS
b. RPR ✔
c. MHA-TP
d. TPI
1235. An important use of non-terponemal antibody (NTA) testing is in:
a. Establishing the diagnosis of acute active syphilis
b. Establishing the diagnosis of chronic syphilis
c. Evaluating the success of therapy ✔
d. Determining the prevalence of disease in the general population
1236. The serologic test for syphilis recommended for detecting antibody in cerebrospinal fluid is
a. Non-treponemal antibody
b. CSF-VDRL ✔
c. FTA-ABS
d. MHA-TP
1237. In direct fluorescent antibody screening for the diagnosis of primary syphilis, which of the following labels is
used?
a. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the chancre ✔
b. Antibody for the presence of spirochetes in the skin rash
c. Antigen for the presence of circulating antibodies
d. Antigen for the presence of antibodies in situ
1238. The initial immune response following fetal infection with rubella is in the production of:
a. IgG antibody
b. IgA antibody
c. IgM antibody ✔
d. Both IgG and IgA antibody
1239. A 26 year old nurse developed fatigue, a low-grade fever, polyarthralgias and urticaria. Two months earlier she
has cared for a patient with hepatitis. Which of the following findings are liely to be observed in this nurse?
a. A negative hepatitis B surface antigen test
b. Elevated AST and ALT activites ✔
c. A positive rheumatoid factor
d. A positive Monospot test
1240. The rapid rise, elevated level, and prolonged production of antibody following a repeat exposure to antigen is
called:
a. Hypersensitivity
b. Arthus reaction
c. Anamestic response ✔
d. Primary response
1241. The antigen marker most closely associated with transmissibility of HBV infection is:
a. HBs
b. Hbe ✔
c. HBc
d. HBV
1242. Which of the following causes 90% of post-transfusion hepatitis?
a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV ✔
d. HDV
1243. Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular
cancer?
a. Carcinoembryonic antigen
b. Prolactin
c. Testosterone
d. 17-ketosteroids
e. Alpha-fetoprotein ✔
1244. When testing a patient for HIV antibody, which of the following is used to confirm a positive screening test?
a. Radioimmunoassay
b. Western blot ✔
c. Immunofluorescence
d. ELISA
1245. A false-negative cold agglutinin test may result if:
a. The specimen is centrifuged at room temperature
b. The cold agglutinin demonstrates anti-I specificity
c. The specimen is refrigerated prior to serum separation ✔
d. Adult human O red cells are used in the assay
1246. The cold agglutinin test is used for the diagnosis of infection with
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Legionella pneumophilia
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae ✔
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
1247. Antigenic determinants for the RA factor are found on the patient’s own:
a. IgG ✔
b. IgA
c. IgE
d. IgM
1248. The causative agent for rheumatoid arthritis is:
a. An antigen
b. An antibody ✔
c. A virus
d. Bacterial cells
1249. Which of the following diseases is associated with a high circulating concentration of T3 and T4, but a low
concentration of TSH?
a. Rheumatoid Arthritis
b. Graves’ Disease ✔
c. Hashimoto’s Disease
d. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
1250. The Rheumatoid Factor:
a. Agglutinates inert substance
b. Precipitates inert substance
c. Hemolyzes red blood cells
d. Agglutinates gamma globulin coated inert substance ✔
1251. Infectious mononucleosis is a disease caused by a
a. Virus ✔
b. Bacterium
c. Fungus
d. Spirochete
1252. Heterophile antibody of infectious mononucleosis is absorbed by:
a. Guinea pig kidney
 b. Beef erythrocyte ✔
c. Both
d. Neither
1253. Which one of the following disorders is associted with autoantibodies to phospholipid?
a. Rheumatoid Arthritis
b. Gravees Disease
c. Hashimoto’s Disease
d. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus ✔
1254. Which of the following forms of exposure places a technologist at the highest risk for infection with human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
a. Aersol
b. Ingestion
c. Needlestick ✔
d. Splash
1255. The most prevalent job related disease hazard in clinical laboratories is:
a. Tuberculosis
b. Hepatitis ✔
c. AIDs
d. Meningitis
1256. How many kinds of DNA viruses exist in nature?
a. Two kinds ✔
b. Four kinds
c. Five kinds
d. Six kinds
1257. Which of these is more complex than viruses?
a. Euglena ✔
b. Satellites
c. Viroids
d. Prions
1258. Which of these is not a viral disease?
a. Influenza
b. Tuberculosis ✔
c. Polio
d. Hepatitis
1259. What kind of virus contribute to the development of cancer?
a. Adrenovirus
b. Oncovirus ✔
c. Papillomavirus
d. Spongiovirus
1260. What is the degree to which a virus causes diseases called in medical laboratory technology?
a. Viral pathogenesis
b. Viral evolution
c. Virulence
d. Viral strength ✔
1261. What type of immunity is mounted against viruses?
a. Cell-mediated immunity ✔
b. Innate immunity
c. Second line immunity
d. General immunity
1262. Which of these is regulated through medical laboratory technology?
a. PH buffer
b. Temperature
c. Steatosis ✔
d. Osmotic pressure
1263. What kind of virus is associated with cervical cancer?
 a. HIV
b. Human papillomavirus ✔
c. Influenza A Virus
d. Polio virus
1264. What kind of viruses infect bacteria?
a. Adenovirus
b. Bacteriophages ✔
c. Interferon
d. Eukaryotes
1265. What part of the body is attacked by the Hepatitis B virus?
a. Bone marrow
b. Lungs
c. Liver ✔
d. Brain
1266. The renal medulla is composed of tissue called _________.
a. Renal pyramids ✔
b. Nephrons
c. Macula densa
d. Renal pelvis
1267. Which is found in the highest concentration in the urine?
a. Uric acid
b. Urea ✔
c. Glucose
d. Creatinine
1268. Juxtaglomerular cells combine with ________ cells to form the juxtaglomerular apparatus in the kidney.
a. Macula densa ✔
b. Renal pelvis
c. Nephron
d. Bowman’s capsule
1269. Which of the folllowing match the definition of “poor output of urine”?
a. Oliguria ✔
b. Pyruia
c. Albuminuria
d. Diuresis
1270. Capillary loops located in the medulla of the kidneys are also known as ___________.
a. Vasa recta ✔
b. Urea collectors
c. Capillary tuft
d. Trigone
1271. A function of the descending loop of Henle is the___________.
a. Re-absorption of sodium ions
b. Re-absorption of water by osmosis ✔
c. Secretion of hydrogen ions
d. Secretion of potassium ions
1272. When glucose is found in the urine it is called _______.
a. Glucosuria ✔
b. Uremia
c. Glucose intolerance
d. Ureteritis
1273. ADH has which of the following effects on the distal convoluted tubule?
a. Decrease water re-absorption
b. Increase water re-absorption ✔
c. Decrease urine concentration
d. Increase urine volume
1274. Each kidney contains approximately _______ nephrons.
 a. 10 million
b. 1 million ✔
c. 100,000
d. 10,000
1275. Which is not a funtion of the kidney?
a. Conjugation of bile ✔
b. Excretion of water
c. Conservation of water
d. Excretion of wastes
1276. The function(s) of the kidney in regard to the blood is ______.
a. To maintain fluid volume
b. To maintain solute concentration
c. To eliminate waste
d. All of the above ✔
1277. The basic functional unit of the kidney is the _____.
a. Nephron ✔
b. Collecting tubule
c. Loop of Henle
d. Meatus
1278. During tubular re-absorption tje movement of a solute attached to a carrier protein _________.
a. Is called passive transport
b. Requires little or no energy
c. Is called active transport ✔
d. Only occurs in the glomerulus
1279. Bowman’s capsule and both convoluted tubules are located in the _____.
a. Cortex ✔
b. Renal calyx
c. Medulla
d. Renal pelvis
1280. The Loop of Henle and the collecting tubules are located in the ______.
a. Cortex
b. Medulla ✔
c. Renal pelvis
d. Renal calyx
1281. The structures which transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder are _____.
a. Ureters ✔
b. Renal veins
c. Urethras
d. Renal calyx
1282. Blood enters the glomerulus through the _____.
a. Afferent arteriole ✔
b. Aorta
c. Efferent arteriole
d. Juxtaglomerular apparatus
1283. The glomerular filtrate rate is _____.
a. 125 ml/min ✔
b. 1250 ml/min
c. 1,000,000 ml/min
d. 12 ml/min
1284. Reabsorption is the ______.
a. Elimination of wastes through the meatus
b. Taking back of needed substances from the tubules into the body ✔
c. Elimination of wastes from capillaries into the lumen
d. Elimination of large molecular weight proteins through the efferent arterioles
1285. The plasma concentration of a substance at which active transport stops and increased amounts are excreted in the
urine is called the_______
a. Renal threshold ✔
b. Maximal reabsorptive capacity
c. Renal concentration
d. Osmotic gradient
1286. The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of 1.010
a. True ✔
b. False
1287. The hormone aldosterone is responsible for sodium retention.
a. True ✔
b. False
1288. The normal serum osmolarity is 50 – 100 mOsm.
a. True
b. False ✔
1289. Disposable containers with a capacity of 25 ml or less are recommended for the collection of specimens for
routine urinalysis.
a. True
b. False ✔
1290. A properly labelled urine specimen for routine urinalysis delivered to the lab in a gray top blood collection tube
can be tested.
a. True
b. False ✔
1291. If an arterial blood sample had a bicarbonate of 25 mmol/L and a pCO2 of 58 mmHg, which of the following
conditions most likely exists in this patient?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis ✔
d. Respiratory alkalosis
e. There is no way of telling
1292. The selective membrane of the potassium ISE is most commonly composed of:
a. Potassium selective membrane
b. Silver chloride
c. Valincomycin ✔
1293. A patient being evaluated for diabetes mellitus is given a two-hour OGTT. The patient is diagnosed as having
severe diabetes if the serum glucose:
a. Elevates after 60 minutes and then returns to normal
b. Elevates 60-120 minutes after ingestion and remains elevated ✔
c. Does not elevate after 120 minutes
1294. Hypersplenism is characterized by:
a. Polycythemia
b. Pancytosis
c. Leukopenia ✔
d. Myelodysplasia
1295. Which of the following organs is reponsible for the “pitting process” for RBC’s?
a. Liver
b. Spleen ✔
c. Kidney
d. Lymph nodes
1296. Spherocytes differ from normal red cells in all of the following except:
a. Decreased surface to volume
b. No central pallor
c. Decreased resistance to hypotonic saline
d. Increase deformability ✔
1297. Which of the following is not associated with hereditary spherocytosis?
 a. Increased osmotic fragility
b. An MCHC greater than 36%
c. Intravascular hemolysis ✔
d. Extravascular hemolysis
1298. Which of the following disorders has an increase in osmotic fragility?
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. Hereditary elliptocytosis
c. Hereditary stomatocytosis
d. Hereditary spherocytosis ✔
1299. The anemia seen in sickle cell disease is usually:
a. Microcytic, normochromic
b. Microcytic, hypochromic
c. Normocytic, normochromic ✔
d. Normocytic, hypochromic
1300. Which is the major Hgb found in the RBC’s of patients with sickle cell trait?
a. Hgb S
b. Hgb F
c. Hgb A2
d. Hgb A ✔
1301. All of the following are usually found in Hgb C disease except:
a. Hgb C crystals
b. Target cells
c. Lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the B-chain
d. Fast mobility of Hbg C at pH 8.6 ✔
1302. Which of the following hemoglobins migrates to the same position as Hgb A2 at pH 8.6?
a. Hgb H
b. Hgb F
c. Hgb C ✔
d. Hgb S
e.
1303. Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait?
a. Hgb A: 40% Hgb S: 35% Hgb F: 5%
b. Hgb A: 60% Hgb S: 40% Hgb A2: 2% ✔
c. Hgb A: 0% Hgb A2: 5% Hgb F: 95%
d. Hgb A: 80% Hgb S: 10% Hgb A2: 10%
1304. In which of the following conditions will autosplenectomy most likely occur?
a. Thalassemia major
b. Hgb C disease
c. Hgb SC disease
d. Sickle cell disease ✔
1305. Whic of the following is most true about praoxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)?
a. It is an acquired hemolytic anemia ✔
b. It is inherited as a sex-linked trait
c. It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait
d. It is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait
1306. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) is characterized by all of the following except:
a. Hemorrhage
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Hemoglobinuria
d. Reticulocytopenia ✔
1307. An autohemolysis test is positive in all the following areas except:
a. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
b. Hereditary spherocytosis
c. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria ✔
1308. Which antibody is associated with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)?
a. Anti-I
b. Anti-i
c. Anti-M
d. Anti-P ✔

1309. All of the following are associated with hemolytic anemia except:
a. Methemoglobinemia
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Hemoglobinemia
d. Increased haptoglobin ✔
1310. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is best characterized by which of the following?
a. Increased levels of plasma C3
b. Spherocytic red cells ✔
c. Decreased osmotic fragility
d. Decreased unconjugated bilirubin
1311. “Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with:
a. Rh null trait
b. Chronic granulomatous disease
c. G6PD deficiency ✔
d. PK deficiency
1312. The morphological classification on anemias is based on which of the following:
a. M:E ratio
b. Prussian blue stain
c. RBC indicies ✔
d. Reticulocyte count
1313. Which of the following is a common finding in aplastic anemia?
a. A monoclonal disorder
b. Tumor infiltration
c. Peripheral blood pancytopenia ✔
d. Defective DNA synthesis
1314. Congenital dyserythropoietic anemias (CDAs) are characterized by:
a. Bizarre multinucleated erythroblasts ✔
b. Cytogenetic disorders
c. Megaloblastic erythropoiesis
d. An elevated M:E ratio
1315. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is characterized by:
a. Target cells and cabot rings
b. Toxic granulation and Dohle bodies
c. Pappenheimer bodies and basophilic stippling
d. Schistocytes and nucleated RBCs ✔
1316. Which antibiotics are most often implicated in the development of aplastic anemia?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Penicillin
c. Tertrcycline
d. Chloramphenicol ✔
1317. Sickle cell disorders are:
a. Hereditary, intracorpuscular RBC defect ✔
b. Hereditary, extracorpuscular RBC defect
c. Acquired, intracorpuscular RBC defects
d. Acquired, extracorpuscular RBC defects
1318. Which of the following conditions may produce spherocytes in a peripheral smear?
a. Pelger-Huet anomaly
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia ✔
 d. Sideroblastic anemia
1319. A patient’s peripheral smear reveals numerous NRBC’s marked variation of red cell morphology, and pronounced
polychromasia. In addition to a decreased Hgb and decreased Hct values, what other CBC parameters may be
anticipated?
a. Reduced platelets
b. Increased MCHC
c. Increased MCV ✔
d. Decreased red cell distribution width (RDW)
1320. What red cell inclusions may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient postsplenectomy?
a. Toxic granulation
b. Howell-Jolly bodies ✔
c. Malarial parasite
d. Siderotic granules
1321. Reticulocytosis usually indicates:
a. Response to inflammation
b. Neoplastic process
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Red cell regeneration ✔
1322. Hereditary pyropoikilocytosis (HP) is a red cell membrance defect characterized by:
a. Increased pencil-shaped cells
b. Increased oval macrocytes
c. Misshappen budding fragmented cells ✔
d. Bite cells
1323. Following overnight fasting, hypoglycemia in adults is defined as glucose of:
a. A <_70 mg/dl (<_3.9 mmol/L)
b. B <_60 mg/dl (<3.3 mmol/L)
c. C <_55 mg/dl (<_3.0 mmol/L)
d. D <_45 mg/dl (<2.5 mmol/L) ✔
1324. The preparation of a patient for standard for glucose tolerance testing should include:
a. A high carbohydrate diet for 3 days ✔
b. A low carbohydrate diet for 3 days
c. Fasting for 48 hours prior to testing
d. Bed rest for 3 days
1325. If a fasting glucose was 90 mg/dl, which of the following 2hr postprandial glucose results would most closely
represent normal glucose metabalism
a. 55 mg/dl (3.0 mmol/L)
b. 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L) ✔
c. 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)
d. 260 mg/dl (14.3 mmol/L)
1326. A healthy person with a blood glucose of 80 mg/dl (4.4 mmol/L) would have a simultaneously determined
cerebrospinal fluid glucose value of:
a. 25 mg/dl (1.4 mmol/L)
b. 50 mg/dl (2.3 mmol/L) ✔
c. 100 mg/dl (5.5 mmol/L)
d. 150 mg/dl (8.3 mmol/L)
1327. Cerebrospinal fluid for glucose assay should be:
a. Refrigerated
b. Analyzed immediately ✔
c. Heated to 56 degrees celsius
d. Stored at room temperature
1328. Which of the following 2 hr postprandial glucose values demonstrates unequivocal hyperglycemia diagnostic for
biabetes mellitus
a. 160 mg/dl (8.8 mmol/L)
b. 170 mg/dl (9.4 mmol/L)
c. 180 mg/dl (9.9 mmol/L)
 d. 200 mg/dl (11. mmol/L) ✔
1329. Serum levels that define hypoglycemia in pre-term or low birth weight infants are:
a. The same as adults
b. Lower than adults ✔
c. The same as a normal full-term infant
d. Higher than a normal full-term infant
1330. The conversion of glucose or other hexoses into lactate or pyruvate is called:
a. Glycogenesis
b. Glycolysis ✔
c. Gluconeogenesis
d. Glycogenolysis
1331. Which of the following values obtained during a glucose tolerance test are diagnosticof diabetes mellitus?
a. 2hr specimen= 150 mg/dl
b. Fasting plasma glucose= 126 mg/dl ✔
c. Fasating plasma glucose= 110 mg/dl
d. 2hr specimen = 180 mg/dl
1332. The glycated hemoglobin value represents the integrated values of glucose concentration during the preceding:
a. 1-3 weeks
b. 4-5 weeks
c. 6-8 weeks ✔
d. 16-20 weeks
1333. Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus can best be accomplished by
measuring:
a. Weekly fasting 7am serum glucose
b. Glucose tolerance testing
c. 2hr postprandial serum glucose
d. Hemoglobin A1c ✔
1334. The glycosylated hemoglobin levels in a hemolysate reflect the:
a. Average blood glucose levels of the past 2-3 months ✔
b. Average blood glucose levels for the past week
c. Blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn
d. Hemoglobin a1c level at the time the sample is drawn
1335. Which of the following hemoglobins has a glucose-6-phosphate on the amino-terminal valine of the beta chain:
a. S
b. C
c. A2
d. A1c ✔
1336. A person with hemolytic anemia will:
a. Show a decrease in glycated hgb value ✔
b. Show an increase in glycated hgb value
c. Show lil or no change in glycated hgb value
d. Demonstrate an elevated hgb A1
1337. In using ion-exchange chromotographic methods, falsely increased levels of hgb A1c might be demonstrated in
the presence of:
a. Iron defiency anemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Thalassemias
d. Hgb S ✔
1338. An increase in serum acetone is indicative of a defect in the metabolism of:
a. Carbohydrates ✔
b. Fat
c. Urea nitrogen
d. Uric acid
1339. What is the best method to diagnose lactase deficiency?
a. H2 breath test ✔
 b. Plasma adolase lvl
c. LDH level
d. D-xylose test
1340. The expected blood gas results for a patient in chronic renal failure would match the pattern of:
a. Metabolic acidosis ✔
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis
1341. Severe diarrhea causes
a. Metabolic acidosis ✔
b. Repiratory acidosis
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis
1342. Factors that contribute to a PCO2 electrode requiring 60-120 seconds to reach equilibrium include the:
a. Diffusion characteristics of the membrane ✔
b. Actual blood pO2
c. Type of calibrating standard (ie, liquid or humidified gas)
d. Potential of the polarizing mercury cell
1343. An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces is the likely to be in what
metabolic state?
a. Respiratory acidosis ✔
b. Respiratoy alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
1344. At blood ph 7.40, what is the ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid?
a. 15:1
b. 20:1 ✔
c. 25:1
d. 30:1
1345. The referance range for the pH of arterial blood measured at 37 degree celsius is:
a. 7.28-7.34
b. 7.33-7.37
c. 7.35-7.45 ✔
d. 7.45-7.50
1346. Metabolic acidosis is described as a (n):
a. Increase in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH ✔
b. Decrease in CO2 content with an increased pH
c. Increase in CO2 with an increased pH
d. Decrease in CO2 content and PCO2 with a decreased pH
1347. A common cause of respiratory alkalosis is:
a. Vomiting
b. Starvation
c. Asthma
d. Hyperventilation ✔
1348. Acidosis and alkalosis are best defined as fluctuations in blood pH and CO2 content due to changes in:
a. Bohr effect
b. O2 content ✔
c. Bicarbonate buffer
d. Carbonic anhydrase
1349. Select the test which evaluates renal tubular function:
a. IVP
b. Creatinine clearance
c. Osmolarity ✔
d. Microscopic urinalysis
1350. The degree to which the kidney concentrates the glomerular filtrate can be determined by:
 a. Urine creatine
b. Serum creatine
c. Cratinine clearance
d. Urine to serum osmolality ratio ✔
1351. Osmolal gap is aa difference between:
a. The ideal and real osmolality values
b. Calculated and measured osmolality values ✔
c. Plasma and water osmolality values
d. Molality and molarity at 4 degres celsius
1352. The most important buffer pair in plasma is the
a. Phosphate/biphosphate pair
b. Hemoglobin/imidazole pair
c. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair ✔
d. Sulfate/bisulfate pair
1353. Quantitation of Na+ and K+ by ion-selective electrode is the standard method because:
a. Dilution is required for flame photometry
b. There is no lipoprotein interference
c. Of advances in electrochemistry ✔
d. Of the abscence of an internal standard
1354. Most of the carbon dioxide present in blood in the form of:
a. Dissolved CO^2
b. Carbonate
c. Bicarbonate ion ✔
d. Carbonic acid
1355. Serum “anion gap” is increased in patients with:
a. Renal tubular acidosis
b. Diabetic alkalosis
c. Metabolic acidosis due to diarrhea
d. Lactic acidosis ✔
1356. The anion gap is useful for quality control of laboratory results for:
a. Amino acids and proteins
b. Blood gas analyses
c. Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total CO2 ✔
d. Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium
1357. The buffering capacity of blood is maintained by a reversible exchange process between bicarbonate and:
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Chloride ✔
1358. In respiratory acidosis, a compensatory mechanism is the increase in :
a. Respiratory rate
b. Ammonia formation
c. Blood PCO2
d. Plasma bicarbonate concentration ✔
1359. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main fuction is maintaining osmotic
pressure?
a. Chloride
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Sodium ✔
1360. The solute that contributes the most to the total serum osmolality is:
a. Glucose
b. Sodium ✔
c. Chloride
d. Urea
1361. Which of the following is true about direct ion selective electrode is falsely decreased by:
a. Whole blood specimens are acceptable ✔
b. Elevated lipids cause falsely decreased results
c. Elevated proteins cause falsely decreased results
d. Elevated platelets cause falsely increased results
1362. Sodium determination by indirect ion selective electrode is falsely decreased by:
a. Elevated chloride levels
b. Elevated lipid levels ✔
c. Decreased protein levels
d. Decreased albumin levels
1363. Which percentage of total serum calcium is nondiffusible protein bound?
a. 80%-90%
b. 51%-60%
c. 40%-50% ✔
d. 10%-30%
1364. Calcium concentration in the serum is regulated by:
a. Insulin
b. Parathyroid hormone ✔
c. Thyroxine
d. Vitamin C
1365. The regulation of calcium and phosphorus metabolism is accomplished by which of the following glands?
a. Thyroid
b. Parathyroid ✔
c. Adrenal glands
d. Pituitary
1366. A hospitalized patient is experiencing increased neuromuscular irritability (tetany). Which of the following tests
should be ordered immediately?
a. Calcium ✔
b. Phosphate
c. BUN
d. Glucose
1367. Which is the following is most likely to be ordered in addition to serum calcium to determine the cause of tetany?
a. Magnesium ✔
b. Phosphate
c. Sodium
d. Vitamin
1368. A reciprocal relationship exists between:
a. Sodium and potassium
b. Calcium and phosphate ✔
c. Chloride and CO2
d. Calcium and magnesium
1369. Fasting serum phosphate concentration is controlled primarily by the:
a. Pancreas
b. Skeleton
c. Parathyroid glands ✔
d. Small intestine
1370. A low concentration of serum phosphorus is commonly found in:
a. Patients who are receiving carbohydrate hyperalimentation ✔
b. Chronic renal disease
c. Hypoparathyroidism
d. Patients with pituitary tumors
1371. The primary function serum albumin in the peripheral blood is to:
a. Maintain colloidal osmotic pressure ✔
b. Increase antibody production
c. Increase fibrinogen formation
 d. Maintain blood viscosity
1372. The first step in analyzing a 24-hour urine specimen for quantitative urine protein is:
a. Subculture the urine for bacteria
b. Add the appropriate preservative
c. Screen for albumin using a dipstick
d. Measure the total volume ✔
1373. Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of :
a. Hemoglobin
b. Cerruloplasmin
c. Transferrin ✔
d. Fetrritin
1374. The first step in the quantitation of serum iron is:
a. Direct reaction with appropriate chromagen
b. Iron saturation of transferrin
c. Free iron precipitation
d. Separation of iron from transferring ✔
1375. A serum sample demonstrates an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:
a. Prolonged hypothermia
b. Renal functional impairment ✔
c. Pregnancy
d. Arrhythmia
1376. Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:
a. Tubular secretion of creatinine
b. Glomerular secretion of creatinine
c. Renal glomerular and tubular mass
d. Glomerular filtration rate ✔
1377. 90% of the copper present in the blood is bound to:
a. Transferrin
b. Ceruloplasmin ✔
c. Albumin
d. Cryoglobulin
1378. Hemoglobin S can be separated from hemoglobin D by:
a. Electrophoresis on a diffirent medium and acidic pH ✔
b. Hemoglobin A2 quantitation
c. Electrophoresis at higher voltage
d. Kleihauer-Betke acid elution
1379. On electrophoresis at alkaline pH, which of the following is the slowest migrating hemoglobin?
a. Hgb A
b. Hgb S
c. Hgb C ✔
d. Hgb F
1380. Urobilinogen is formed in the:
a. Kidney
b. Spleen
c. Liver
d. Intestine ✔
1381. Kernicterus is an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in:
a. Heart tissue
b. Brain tissue ✔
c. Liver tissue
d. Kidney tissue
1382. A stool specimen that appears black and tarry should be tested for the presence of:
a. Occult blood ✔
b. Fecal fat
c. Trypsin
 d. Excess mucus
1383. The most specific enzyme test for acute pancreatitis is:
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase
d. Lipase ✔
1384. Which of the following enzymes are used in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
a. Amylase (AMS) and lipase (LPS) ✔
b. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
c. 5′ -nucleotidase (5’N) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT)
d. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and lactate dehydrogenase(LD)
1385. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose?
a. Malate dehydrogenase (MD)
b. Amylase (AMS) ✔
c. Creatine kinase (CK)
d. Isocitric dehydrogenase (ICD)
1386. Aspartate amino transferase (AST) is characteristically elevated in diseases of the:
a. Liver ✔
b. Kidney
c. Intestine
d. Pancreas
1387. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT ) are both elevated in which of the
following diseases ?
a. Muscular dystrophy
b. Viral hepatitis ✔
c. Pulmonary emboli
d. Infectious mononucleosis
1388. The greatest activities of serum AST and ALT are seen in which of the following?
a. Acute viral hepatitis
b. Primary biliary cirrhosis ✔
c. Metastatic hepatic cirrhosis
d. Alcoholic cirrhosis
1389. Which of the following clinical disorders is associated with the greatest elevation of lactate dehydrogenase
isoenzyme 1?
a. Pneumonia
b. Glomerulonephritis
c. Pancreatitis
d. Pernicious anemia ✔
1390. The enzyme present in almost all tissues that may be separated by electrophoresis into 5 components is:
a. Lipase
b. Transaminase
c. Creatine kinase
d. Lactate dehydrogenase ✔
1391. A common cause of falsely increased LD1 fraction of lactic dehydrogenase is:
a. Specimen hemolysis ✔
b. Liver disease
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Drug toxicity
1392. The presence of which of the following isoenzymes indicates acute myocardial damage?
a. CKMM
b. CKMB ✔
c. CKBB
d. None
1393. In which of the following conditions would a normal level of creatine kinase be found?
a. Acute myocardial infarct
 b. Hepatitis ✔
c. Progressive muscular dystrophy
d. Intramuscular injection
1394. Of the following diseases, the one most often associated with elevations of lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes 4
and 5 on electrophoresis is:
a. Liver disease ✔
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Myocardial infarction
d. Pulmonary edema
1395. When myocardial infarction occurs, the first enzyme to become elevated is:
a. CK ✔
b. LD
c. AST
d. ALT
1396. In the immunoinhibition phase of the CKMB procedure:
a. M subunit is inactivated ✔
b. B subunit is inactivated
c. MB is inactivated
d. BB is inactivated
1397. The presence of increased CKMB activity on a CK electrophoresis pattern is most likely found in a patient
suffering from:
a. Acute muscular stress following strenuous exercise
b. Malignant liver disease
c. Myocardial infarction ✔
d. Severe head injury
1398. Increaseed serum lactic dehydrogenase activity due to elevation of fast fraction (1 and 2) on elctrophoretic
seperation is caused by:
a. Nephrotci syndrome
b. Hemolytica anemia ✔
c. Pancreatitis
d. Hepatic damage
1399. Regan isoenzyme has the same properties as alkaline phosphatase that orginates in the
a. Skeleton
b. Kidney
c. Intestine
d. Placenta✔
1400. The most heat labile fraction of alkaline phosphatase is obtained from:
a. Liver
b. Bone ✔
c. Intestine
d. Placenta
1401. The most sensitive enzymatic indicator for liver damage from ethanol intake is:
a. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
b. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
c. Gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT) ✔
d. Alkaline phosphatase
1402. Isoenzyme assays are performed to improve:
a. Precision
b. Accuracy
c. Sensitivity
d. Specificity ✔
1403. The protein portion of an enzyme complec is called the:
a. Apoenzyme ✔
b. Coenzyme
c. Holoenzyme
 d. Proenzyme
1404. Which of the following chemical determinations may be of help in establishing the presence of seminal fluid?
a. Lactic dehydrogenase (LD)
b. Isocitrate dehydrogenase (ICD)
c. Acid phosphatase ✔
d. Alkaline phosphatase
1405. Chylomicrons are present in which of the following dylipidemias?
a. Familial hypercholoesterolemia
b. Hypertriglyceridemia
c. Deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity ✔
d. Familial hypoalphalipoprotein
1406. Turbidity in serum siggest elevation of:
a. Cholesterol
b. Total protein
c. Chylomicrons ✔
d. Albumin
1407. TSH is prouced by the:
a. Hypothalamus
b. Pituitary gland ✔
c. Adrenal cortex
d. Thyroid
1408. The majority if thyroxine (T4) is converted into the more biologically active hormone:
a. Thyroglubulin
b. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c. Triiodothyronine ✔
d. Thyrotropoin-releasing hormone
1409. The screening test for congenital hypothyroidism is based upon:
a. TSH level in the newborn
b. Thyroid-binding glubulin level in the newborn
c. Iodine level in the newborn
d. Al thyroxine (t4) level in the newborn ✔
1410. Which of the following is secreted by the placents and used for the early detection of pregnancy?
a. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
b. Human chronic gonadotropin (HCG) ✔
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Progesterone
1411. In amniotic fluid, the procedure used to detect hemolytic disease of the newborn is:
a. Measurement of absorbance at 450 nm ✔
b. Creatinine
c. Lecithin/sphingomyelin ratio
d. Estriol
1412. During a normal pregnancy, quantitative human chorionic gonadotropin levels peak at how many weeks after the
last menstrual period?
a. 2-4
b. 8-10 ✔
c. 14-16
d. 18-20
1413. Whi the following steroids is an adrenal cortical hormone?
a. Angiotensinogen
b. Aldosterone ✔
c. Epinephrine
d. Growth hormone
1414. What common substrate is used in the biosynthesis of adrenal steroids, including androgens and estrogens?
a. Cortisol
b. Catecholamines
 c. Progesterone
d. Cholesterol ✔
1415. The major action of angiotensin II is:
a. Increased pituitary secretion of vasopressin
b. Increased parathormone secretion by the parathyroid
c. Decreased adrenal secretion of aldosterone
d. Increased vasoconstriction ✔
1416. The urinary excretion product measured as an indicator of epinephrine production is:
a. Dopamine
b. Dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA)
c. Homovanillic acid
d. Vanillymandelic acid (VMA) ✔
1417. Which of the following hormones regulates normal blood calcium levels?
a. Thyroxine
b. Estriol
c. Parathyroid hormone ✔
d. Growth hormone
1418. A diagnosisof primary adrenal insufficiency requires demonstration of:
a. Decreased urinary 17-keto and 17-hydroxysteroids
b. Decreased cortisol production
c. Impaired response to ACTH stimulation ✔
d. Increased urinary cortisol excretion after metyrapone
1419. The screen for adrenal cortical hyperfunction with the greatest sensitivity and specificity is:
a. A 24 hour free cortisol ✔
b. Plasma cortisol
c. Urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroids
d. Plasma corticosterone
1420. Aldosterone is released by the adrenal cortex upon stimulation by:
a. Renin
b. Angiotensinogen
c. Angiotensin I
d. Angiotensin II ✔
1421. Clinical assays for tumor markers are most important for:
a. Screeening for the presence of cancer
b. Monitoring the course of a known cancer ✔
c. Confirming the abscence of disease
d. Identifying patients at risk for cancer
1422. Detection of which of the following substances is most useful to monitor the course of a patient with testicular
cancer?
a. Alpha-fetoprotein ✔
b. Carcinoembryonic antigen
c. Prolactin
d. Testosterone
1423. Increased concentrations of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in adults are most characteristically associated with:
a. Hepatocellular carcinoma ✔
b. Alcoholic cirrhosis
c. Chronic active hepatitis
d. Multiple myeloma
1424. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is most likely to be produced in a malignany involving the:
a. Brain
b. Testes
c. Colon ✔
d. Bone
1425. Which of the following is useful in the detection and management of carcinoma of the prostate?
a. Total prostate-specific antigen ✔
 b. Prostatic acid phosphatase
c. Human chronic gonadotropin
d. Alpha-fetoprotein
1426. Which of the following statements most correctly describes the utility of clinical laboratory assays for tumor
markers?
a. Tumor markers are useful to screen asymptomatic patients for tumors
b. Tumor markers are highly specific
c. Tumor markers indicate the likelihgood of an indvidual developing a tumor
d. Tumor markers are useful in tracking the effcacy of treatment ✔
1427. Cancer antigen 125 (CA 125) is a tumor marker associated with:
a. Breast carcinoma
b. Colon cancer
c. Lung cancer
d. Ovarian and endometrial carcinoma ✔
1428. In addition to carcinoma of the prostate, elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA) can occur due to:
a. Aspirin therapy
b. Exogenous steroid use
c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia ✔
d. Statin therapy (cholesterol lowering drug)
1429. Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone
a. Hydrocortisone
b. Insulin ✔
c. Thyroxin
d. ACTH
1430. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
a. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
b. Is present in the serum
c. Is present in the blood cells
d. Is absent from the serum ✔
1431. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of
a. Glucose
b. Uric acid
c. Ketone bodies ✔
d. Protein
1432. The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is
a. Chloride
b. Bicarbonate
c. Sodium ✔
d. Potassium
1433. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
a. Levine
b. Landsteiner ✔
c. Weiner
d. Bernstein
1434. Safranin in a Gram stain is used as a
a. Primary stain
b. Secondary stain ✔
c. Mordant
d. Decolorizer
1435. Antihuman serum globulin reagent
a. Is produced in laboratory animals ✔
b. Is produced in humans
c. Never detects complement-dependent antibodies
d. Occurs naturally in most humans
1436. Strepococcus pneumoniae
 a. Grows best at slightly acid pH
b. Is motile
c. Is consistently gram-positive even in old cultures
d. Capsules are produced by virulent strians ✔
1437. The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is
a. Macrocytic
b. Microcytic
c. Aplastic
d. Hemolytic ✔
1438. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is
a. Heparin
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Saliclate
d. Coumadin ✔
1439. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the
a. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
b. Size of the particle being counted ✔
c. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
d. Value of the cell indices
1440. On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be
a. Hct and WBC
b. RBC and WBC ✔
c. RBC and Hgb
d. WBC and Hgb
1441. Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals
a. Hemolysis
b. A heavy buffy coat ✔
c. Icteric plasma
d. A high hematocrit
1442. A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. All of their offspring will be
a. Homozygous Rh(D) positive
b. Heterozygous Rh(D) positive ✔
c. 50% Rh(D) positive and 50% Rh(D)negative
d. Erythroblastotic
1443. The quantity of inactivated serum used for qualitative VDRL test is
a. 0.05 mL ✔
b. 0.10 mL
c. 0.15 mL
d. 0.02 mL
1444. Hansel’s stain is appropriate for
a. Phagocytic neutrophils
b. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
c. Nasal secrection for eosinophiles ✔
d. Circulating eosinophiles
1445. As a general rule, when a blood cell matures
a. The cell decreases in size ✔
b. There is no change in the cell’s size
c. The nucleus increases in size
d. The cell increases in size
1446. An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being
a. Packed with hemoglobin
b. Variable in shape
c. Markedly bluish in color ✔
d. Markedly pale in central color
1447. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
 a. Refractive index
b. Osmolality ✔
c. Hydrometry
d. Specific gravity
1448. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments
a. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes ✔
b. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
c. Do not count nucleated red blood cells
d. Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes
1449. The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is
a. Schistosoma mansoni ✔
b. Schistosoma haematobium
c. Schistosoma japonicum
d. Schistosoma hepatica
1450. Fibrinogen determinations are performed on
a. Serum only
b. Plasma only ✔
c. Either serum or plasma
d. Any body fluid
1451. A fladellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is
a. Trichomonas tenax
b. Trichomonas hominis
c. Trichomonas vaginalis ✔
d. Entamoeba coli
1452. Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as
a. Biliverdin
b. Total bilirubin
c. Conjugated bilirubin
d. Prehepatic bilirubin ✔
1453. According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody
a. May or may not be present depending on the agglutinogens present
b. Is present in the serum
c. Is present in the blood cells
d. Is absent from the serum ✔
1454. A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test
a. Indicates no infection
b. Is positive during the chancre stage
c. Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies ✔
d. Indicates the severity of infection
1455. The screenign or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in
a. 0.50% NaCl ✔
b. 0.90% NaCl
c. 1.34% NaCl
d. 0.85% NaCl
1456. Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and
a. Sulfuric acid
b. Alkaline picrate
c. Ammonium hydroxide
d. Acetic anhydride
1457. Hansel’s stain is appropriate for
a. Nasal secrection for eosinophiles ✔
b. Circulating eosinophiles
c. Phagocytic neutrophils
d. Leukocytes in spinal fluid
1458. Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting
 a. Platelets
b. Reticulocytes ✔
c. Howell-Jolly bodies
d. Malaria

1459. Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of
a. Rubriblasts
b. Howell-Jolly bodies
c. Heniz bodies ✔
d. Plasmodium species
1460. A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred
a. For 5 years
b. For 1 year
c. For 6 months
d. Permanently ✔
1461. The end-product of purine metabolism is
a. Uric acid ✔
b. Creatine
c. Creatinine
d. Urea
1462. Water-soluble pigments are produced by
a. Yeasts
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa ✔
d. Group A streptococcus
1463. Alkaline phosphatase is GREATLY elevated in
a. Kidney disease
b. Obstructive jaundice ✔
c. Liver disease
d. Myocardial infarction
1464. A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used
a. Zinc chloride
b. Concentrated formalin
c. Ammonium sulfate
d. Zinc sulfate ✔
1465. The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
c. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
d. Streptococcus viridans
1466. In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is
a. Secretion
b. Re-absorption of water
c. Selective re-absorption
d. Simple filtration ✔
1467. Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of
a. Protein
b. Uric acid
c. Glucose
d. Ketone bodies ✔
1468. A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is
a. Protamine sulfate
b. Coumadin ✔
c. Heparin
d. Saliclate
1469. Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?
a. Produced by action of antibody
b. High molecular weight
c. Foreign to animal
d. High order of specificity ✔
1470. A variety of media may be safely stored for months is care is taken to
a. Retain their moisture ✔
b. Avoid exposing them to light
c. Maintain them at room temperature
d. Maintain them in an incubator
1471. The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and
a. Acetic acid
b. Oxaloacetic acid
c. Lactic acid
d. 3-hydroxy butyric acid ✔
1472. The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is
a. 25 C for 1 hour
b. 37 C for 30 min
c. 56 C for 30 min ✔
d. 56 C for 10 min
1473. When using white blood cell pipets for performing a white cell count, blood is diluted
a. 1:200
b. 1:10
c. 1:50
d. 1:20 ✔
1474. The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as
a. Stardard deviation ✔
b. Coefficient variation
c. Percent deviation
d. Quality control
1475. Which of the following tests is specific for urinary glucose?
a. Dip stick ✔
b. Benedict’s
c. Clinitest
d. Pandy
1476. Dilute normal urine is usually
a. Dark yellow
b. Reddish-yellow
c. Amber
d. Pale yellow ✔
1477. The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the
a. Amount of hemoglobin in the red cell
b. Value of the cell indices
c. Weight of the hemoglobin in the red cell
d. Size of the particle being counted ✔
1478. All of the following influence glomerular filtration EXCEPT
a. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction ✔
b. Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure
c. Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow
d. Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi
1479. To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with
a. Dolichos biflorus serum ✔
b. Anti-A serum
c. Anti-AB serum
d. Anti-A2 serum
1480. Who is credited with processing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance?
a. Levine
b. Bernstein
c. Weiner
d. Landsteiner ✔
1481. On most automated cell counted, background counts are made using
a. Lysing reagent only
b. Diluting fluid ✔
c. Distilled water
d. Highly-diluted blood
1482. Blood group A individuals have
a. Anti-B in their serum ✔
b. Antigen A and B on their red cells
c. Anti-A in their serum
d. Anti-O in their serum
1483. The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with
a. Alkaline copper
b. Ferric chloride
c. 2,4 dichloraniline
d. Nitroprusside ✔
1484. Which of the following tests is used to measure capillary fragility?
a. Prothrombin time
b. Bleeding time
c. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
d. Tourniquet ✔
1485. Most of the plasma thyroxine (T4) is
a. Free
b. Bound to cholesterol
c. Bound to globulin ✔
d. Bound to albumin
1486. The etiologic agent of chancroid is
a. Haemophilus aegyptius
b. Bordetella pertussis
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Haemophilus ducreyi ✔
1487. WHich one of the following is a function of gamma globulin?
a. Transports glucose
b. Regulates body temperature
c. Performs as fibrinogen for blood coagulation
d. Provides humoral immunity ✔
1488. During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes
a. Finer
b. More acidic
c. Less dense
d. More dense ✔
1489. Cerebral spinal fluid patients with post-cerebral hemmorrhage appears
a. Light yellow or straw colored ✔
b. Bright red
c. Greeen
d. Clear (colorless)
1490. Freezing point depression measurements are part of which one of the following urine test procedures?
a. Hydrometry
b. Refractive index
c. Osmolality ✔
d. Specific gravity
1491. The infective stage of the hookworm is the
a. Rhabditiform larva with a short buccal cavity
b. Filariform larva with a notched tail
c. Filariform larva with a pointed tail ✔
d. Rhabditiform larva with a long buccal cavity
1492. Enterobius vermilcularis is a
a. Hookworm
b. Flat worm
c. Filarial worm
d. Pinworm ✔
1493. Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of
a. Blood coagulation
b. Osmotic pressure of body fluids ✔
c. Cardiac muscle contractions
d. Salt intake
1494. In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in
a. Man
b. Swine
c. Fish
d. Cattle ✔
1495. When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counted instruments
a. Count nucleated red blood cells with leukocytes ✔
b. Do not count nucleated red blood cells
c. Count nucleated red blood cells with erythrocytes
d. Count nucleated red blood cells with platelets
1496. Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is NOT used in performing
a. Reverse typing ✔
b. Immunoglobulin testing
c. D(u) testing
d. Autoagglutination tests
1497. The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly and scratching his anal area. You suspect
the child may have pinworms. Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that diagnosis?
a. Examine the stool for the presence of trophozoites
b. Determine the titer of IgE antibody against the organism
c. Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria
d. Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs ✔
e. Examine the stool for the presence of cysts
1498. Larval stage of Taenia saginata is called
a. hydatid cyst
b. cysticercus cellulosae
c. cysticercoid
d. cysticercus bovis ✔
1499. A 4-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with intense perianal itching. His mother explains that the child has
also been extremely irritable during the day and has not been sleeping well at night. Eggs with a flattened side
were identified by the laboratory technician from a piece of scotch tape brought in by the parent. Infection with
which of the following organisms is most likely?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Trichuris trichiura
e. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
1500. Four weeks after his arrival from Africa, a 24-year-old graduate student presents with blood in his urine.
Microscopic examination of his urine reveals the presence of eggs with terminal spines. In the interview he admits
that he has been working on his family’s rice field occasionally since his early childhood. The most likely
etiologic agent of his complaint is
 a. Schistosoma japonicum
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Schistosoma haematobium ✔
d. Fasciolopsis buski
e. Schistosoma mansoni
1501. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Ancylostoma duodenale ✔
c. Paragonimus westermani
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
1502. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Ancylostoma duodenale
c. Paragonimus westermani ✔
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
1503. Each of the following statements concerning neisseriae is correct EXCEPT:
a. They produce IgA protease as a virulence factor.
b. They are oxidase-positive.
c. They are gram-negative diplococci.
d. They grow best under anaerobic conditions. ✔
1504. Several pathogens are transmitted either during gestation or at birth. Which one of the following is LEAST likely
to be transmitted at these times?
a. Haemophilus influenzae ✔
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. Chlamydia trachomatis
1505. A 30-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus is found to have a positive serologic test for syphilis
(VDRL test). She denies having had sexual contact with a partner who had symptoms of a venereal disease. The
next best step would be to:
a. Perform a fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test on a specimen of her serum ✔
b. Reassure her that the test is a false-positive reaction related to her autoimmune disorder
c. Trace her sexual contacts for serologic testing
d. Treat her with penicillin
1506. Each of the following is associated with the Lancefield group B streptococci (S. agalactiae) EXCEPT:
a. Vaginal carriage in 5% to 25% of normal women of childbearing age
b. Neonatal sepsis and meningitis
c. Pyoderma (impetigo) ✔
d. Beta-hemolysis
1507. Each of the following statements concerning gonorrhea is correct EXCEPT:
a. Gonococcal conjunctivitis of the newborn rarely occurs in the United States, because silver nitrate or
erythromycin is commonly used as prophylaxis.
b. A presumptive diagnosis can be made by finding gram-negative kidney bean-shaped diplococci within
neutrophils in a urethral discharge.
c. Infection in men is more frequently symptomatic than in women.
d. The definitive diagnosis can be made by detecting antibodies to Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the patient’s
serum. ✔
1508. Each of the following statements concerning chlamydial genital tract infections is correct EXCEPT:
a. There is no vaccine against these infections.
b. Infection can persist after administration of penicillin.
c. Symptomatic infections can be associated with urethral or cervical discharge containing many
polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
d. Infection can be diagnosed by finding antichlamydial antibody in a serum specimen. ✔
1509. Each of the following statements concerning Actinomyces and Nocardia is correct EXCEPT:
a. A. israelii is an anaerobic rod found as part of the normal flora in the mouth.
b. Infections are usually diagnosed by detecting a significant rise in antibody titer. ✔
 c. Both Actinomyces and Nocardia are branching, filamentous rods.
d. N. asteroides causes infections primarily in immunocompromised patients.
1510. Each of the following statements concerning the fluorescent treponemal antibody-absorbed (FTA-ABS) test for
syphilis is correct EXCEPT:
a. The patient’s serum is absorbed with saprophytic treponemes.
b. The test is rarely positive in primary syphilis. ✔
c. Once positive, the test remains so despite appropriate therapy.
d. The test is specific for Treponema pallidum.
1511. Regarding Chlamydiae, which one of the following is MOST accurate?
a. They replicate in the nucleus of infected cells, where they form inclusions that are useful diagnostically.
b. Their life cycle consists of a metabolically inactive particle in the extracellular phase. ✔
c. They exhibit swarming motility on a blood agar plate.
d. They are gram-positive rods that do not form spores.
e. They can replicate only within cells because they lack the ability to produce certain essential mRNAs.
1512. Regarding human papillomavirus (HPV), which one of the following is MOST accurate?
a. HPV induces the formation of koilocytes in the skin that are an important diagnostic feature of HPV
infection. ✔
b. Amantadine is a chain-terminating drug that inhibits HPV replication by blocking DNA synthesis.
c. HPV is an enveloped virus with a genome composed of double-stranded RNA.
d. The P2 capsid protein of HPV activates the c-sarc oncogene in human cells, which is the process by
which HPV predisposes to malignancy
e. Blood and blood products are an important mode of transmission of HPV.
1513. A 30-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist with complaints of vaginal itching and a frothy, yellow
discharge. She also complains of painful urination. She admits to being sexually active with several men in the
past two weeks. Cultures are negative for bacterial growth, but organisms are visible via a wet preparation on low
power. The most likely causal agent is
a. Trichomonas vaginalis ✔
b. Candida albicans
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Trichophyton rubrum
e. Giardia lamblia
1514. Each of the following statements concerning Chlamydia trachomatis is correct EXCEPT:
a. It is an important cause of nongonococcal urethritis.
b. It is an important cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis. ✔
c. It is the cause of lymphogranuloma venereum.
d. It is an important cause of conjunctivitis.
1515. A 20-year-old woman presents with a history of vaginal discharge for the past 3 days. On pelvic examination, you
see a mucopurulent exudate at the cervical os, and there is tenderness on palpation of the right fallopian tube. You
do a Gram stain and culture on the cervical discharge. The culture is done on Thayer-Martin medium. Of the
following, which findings are the MOST likely to be found?
a. A Gram stain reveals many neutrophils and gram-variable rods, and culture on Thayer-Martin medium
reveals ß-hemolytic colonies.
b. A Gram stain reveals many neutrophils but no gram-negative diplococci are seen, and culture on Thayer-
Martin medium reveals coagulase-positive colonies.
c. A Gram stain reveals many neutrophils and spirochetes, and culture on Thayer-Martin medium reveals no
colonies.
d. A Gram stain reveals many neutrophils and gram-negative diplococci, and culture on Thayer-Martin
medium reveals oxidase-positive colonies. ✔
1516. Regarding human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which one of the following is MOST accurate?
a. Both zidovudine and lamivudine block HIV replication by inhibiting cleavage of the precursor
polypeptide by the virion-encoded protease.
b. The Western blot test for antibodies to HIV has more false-positive results than the ELISA test.
c. The antigenicity of the GAG protein of HIV is highly variable, which is a significant impediment to the
development of a vaccine against HIV.
d. The term viral load refers to the concentration of HIV RNA in the patient’s blood plasma. ✔
1517. Each of the following statements concerning chlamydiae is correct EXCEPT:
a. Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple serotypes that can cause different diseases.
b. Chlamydiae are strict intracellular parasites because they cannot synthesize sufficient adenosine
triphosphate (ATP).
c. Most chlamydiae are transmitted by arthropods. ✔
d. Chlamydiae possess both DNA and RNA and are bounded by a cell wall.
1518. Which of the following statements about Transmission Electron Microscopy is not true.
a. The beam is focused by electromagnetic lenses.
b. The specimen must be stained with osmium or other heavy metal. ✔
c. The specimens are placed in a high vacuum for viewing.
d. The specimens must be sliced very thin, 20-100 nm in thickness.
1519. Phase Contrast microscopy
a. Continuously changes the phase of the incident light from the condenser to improve contrast in the
specimen.
b. Uses circular filters in the condenser and objective to give contrast to parts of the cell with different
refractive indices. ✔
c. Uses special lenses to change the color of light passing through them.
d. Uses special lenses to distinguish between solid and liquid phases of the cell.
1520. Place the structures of the compound light microscope in the order that light passes through them on the way to
the observer’s eyes: (1) condenser, (2) ocular lens, (3) illuminator, (4) specimen, (5) objective lens.
a. 2-1-4-5-3
b. 3-5-4-1-2
c. 2-5-4-1-3
d. 3-1-4-5-2 ✔
e. 3-4-1-5-2
1521. Most light microscope contain a/an…. that converges the light beam so that it passes through the specimen
a. objective lens
b. mechanical stage
c. ocular lens
d. condenser ✔
e. iris diaphragm
1522. Light of… wavelength typically will result in…. resolving power.
a. shorter, worse
b. any, poor
c. longer, better
d. shorter, better ✔
1523. “Parfocal” refers to microscopes with multiple objectives where
a. objectives are used in pairs for stereoscopic effects.
b. sequential objectives increase power by a factor of two.
c. each objective is positioned to be in focus at the same stage height. ✔
d. each objective has the same working distance above the specimen.
1524. Regarding the Gram stain, which one of the following is the MOST accurate?
a. If you forget to stain with the red dye (safranin or basic fuchsin), both gram-positive bacteria and gram-
negative bacteria will appear blue.
b. One reason why bacteria have a different color in this stain is because the gram-positive bacteria have
lipid in their membrane, whereas gram-negative bacteria do not.
c. After adding crystal violet and Gram’s iodine, both gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria
will appear blue. ✔
d. If you forget to heat-fix, both gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria will appear blue.
1525. Negative staining is useful for observing the presence of ..
a. Endospores
b. Motility
c. Mycolic acid
d. Flagella
e. Capsule ✔
1526. In this type of microscopy, surface of a specimen is bombarded with electrons during sample preparation step.
a. Phase-contrast Microscope
b. Scanning Electron Microscope ✔
c. Transmission Electron Microscope
d. Bright-light Microscope
e. Dark field Microscope
1527. When a microscopic image is brightly illuminated, but is surrounded by a black field, what type of microscope is
being used?
a. Dark-field ✔
b. Bright-field
c. Fluorescence
d. Phase-contrast
e. Electron
1528. Monochromatic light is sometimes used to increase the resolution of light microscopes. Light of which color
below would give you the best resolution?
a. Green
b. Blue ✔
c. Orange
d. Red
1529. While viewing the stained slides in 100x, a drop of oil is placed between the tip of the oil immersion lens and the
specimen on a glass slide. What is the purpose of using the oil.
a. The oil increases the degree of refraction.
b. The oil prevents light from bending as it passes through the specimen. ✔
c. The oil increases the total power of magnification.
d. The oil decreases the numerical aperture.
e. The oil helps to illuminate the specimen.
1530. Differential Interference Contrast microscopy
a. compares two identical specimens on the same microscope.
b. illuminates the specimen with light of two different colors.
c. illuminates the specimen with both reflected and transmitted light.
d. illuminates the specimen with light of two different phases. ✔
1531. Each of the following statements concerning malaria is correct EXCEPT:
a. Early in infection, sporozoites enter hepatocytes.
b. Release of merozoites from red blood cells causes periodic fever and chills.
c. The female Anopheles mosquito is the vector.
d. The principal site of gametocyte formation is the human gastrointestinal tract. ✔
1532. Black water fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by;
a. P. falciparum ✔
b. P. malariae
c. P. vivax
d. P. ovale
1533. All of the following statements about mosquitoes are true except:
a. Only female mosquitoes sucks human blood.
b. They are definitive host in Filaria ✔
c. Its life cycle is completed in 3 weeks
d. They are definitive host in Malaria
1534. Malaria is transmitted by a bite of female Anopheles mosquito, but what causes the disease?
a. A Bacteria
b. A parasite ✔
c. An yeast
d. A virus
1535. Which one of the following agents can be used to prevent malaria?
a. Chloroquine ✔
b. Praziquantel
c. Mebendazole
 d. Inactivated vaccine
1536. Which of the following mosquito is responsible for malaria transmission?
a. Anopheles ✔
b. Culex tritaeniorhynchus
c. Aedes albopictus
d. Aedes aegypti
1537. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Plasmodium falciparum are true?
a. causes benign tertian malaria
b. is associated with recurrent relapses after initial treatment because of liver hypnozoites
c. is the only malarial parasite causing greater than 20% parasitaemia ✔
d. is the only cause of cerebral malaria
1538. The word “malaria” comes from which two medieval Italian words?
a. Evil insect
b. Painful breathing
c. Bad air ✔
d. Dirty water
1539. Can malaria be transmitted from person to person?
a. Yes, you can get malaria touching a person with malaria
b. Yes, you can get malaria sharing space with malaria patients
c. No, except from mother to child during pregnancy ✔
d. Yes, you can get malaria through kissing
1540. After sporozoite gain entrance to human body it undergoes developmental cycle first in liver than in RBC, only
after which fever is seen. This incubation period varies between plasmodium species, and ………….. species has
longest incubation period.
a. P. ovale
b. P. vivax
c. P. falciparum ✔
d. P. malariae
1541. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is the:
a. Hypnozoite
b. Merozoite
c. Sporozoite ✔
d. Gametocyte
1542. A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of high fever, chills, severe headache, and
confusion. He has recently returned from Africa. A peripheral blood smear reveals multiple ring structures and
crescent-shaped gametes. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
a. Plasmodium falciparum ✔
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium ovale
e. Leishmania species
1543. Children at day care centers in the United States have a high rate of infection with which one of the following?
a. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
b. Necator americanus
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
1544. Each of the following statements concerning Strongyloides stercoralis is correct EXCEPT:
a. S. stercoralis produces filariform larvae.
b. Migrating larvae of S. stercoralis induce a marked eosinophilia.
c. S. stercoralis is acquired by ingestion of eggs. ✔
d. S. stercoralis undergoes a free-living life cycle in soil.
1545. Each of the following statements concerning hydatid cyst disease is correct EXCEPT:
a. The disease is caused by Echinococcus granulosus.
b. The disease is caused by a parasite whose adult form lives in dogs’ intestines.
c. The disease occurs primarily in tropical Africa. ✔
 d. The cysts occur primarily in the liver.
1546. The skin test used for the diagnosis of Hydatid cyst is known as:
a. Schick test
b. Casoni test ✔
c. Montenegro test
d. Dick test
1547. A 13-year-old boy from India was brought to the emergency room with a prolapsed rectum. Examination of the
rectum reveals small worms that resemble whips attached to the mucosa. A stool sample reveals eggs that are
barrel shaped, with bipolar plugs. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Trichuris trichiura ✔
e. Enterobius vermicularis
f. Giardia lamblia
1548. Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human infection EXCEPT:
a. Strongyloides stercoralis
b. Wuchereria bancrofti ✔
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Necator americanus
1549. Larval stage of Taenia solium is called
a. cysticercus cellulosae ✔
b. hydatid cyst
c. cysticercus bovis
d. cysticercoid
1550. At a school nurse’s request, a clinic in rural South Carolina sees a 9-year-old girl who appears listless and
inattentive, although hearing and visual testing has been within normal limits. The physician finds the child thin,
with the “potbelly” of malnutrition, and orders a fecal exam and CBC. The CBC reveals a microcytic,
hypochrornic anemia, and the fecal exam detects brown, oval nematode eggs approximately 65 microns in size,
too numerous to count. What was the most likely means by which this child was infected?
a. Ingestion of ova
b. Ingestion of cysts in muscle
c. Skin penetration by larvae ✔
d. Ingestion of larvae
e. Mosquito transmission of sporozoites
1551. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Taenia solium
c. Trichinella spiralis ✔
d. Echinococcus granulosus
1552. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by flies EXCEPT:
a. Loa loa
b. Trypanosoma gambiense
c. Onchocerca volvulus
d. Schistosoma mansoni ✔
1553. Each of the following statements concerning Schistosoma haematobium is correct EXCEPT:
a. S. haematobium infection predisposes to bladder carcinoma.
b. S. haematobium eggs have no spine. ✔
c. Snails are intermediate hosts of S. haematobium.
d. S. haematobium is acquired by humans when cercariae penetrate the skin.
1554. Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct EXCEPT:
a. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin.
b. Hookworm infection can cause anemia.
c. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool. ✔
d. Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus.
1555. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct EXCEPT:
a. Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of A. lumbricoides. ✔
b. A. lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes.
c. A. lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs.
d. A. lumbricoides can cause pneumonia.
1556. Which of the following tapeworms is acquired by eating raw or under-cooked pork?
a. Hymenolepis nana
b. Taenia solium ✔
c. Taenia saginata
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
1557. The main anatomic location of Schistosoma mansoni adult worms is:
a. Lung alveoli ✔
b. Intestinal venules
c. Renal tubules
d. Bone marrow
1558. How many magnifying lenses does a compound light microscope contain?
a. Two ✔
b. One
c. Three
d. Four
1559. In light microscopes, what function does a condenser serve?
a. Increases light intensity
b. Focuses the light rays on the sample ✔
c. Reduces glare
d. Focuses the light rays onto our eyes
e. Magnifies the light rays after their passage through the sample
1560. The order of reagents used in the Gram stain are:
a. Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin ✔
b. Alcohol, crystal violet, iodine, safranin
c. Crystal violet, safranin, alcohol, iodine
d. Crystal violet, iodine, safranin, alcohol
e. Iodine, crystal violet, safranin, alcohol
1561. The compound light microscope can be used to observe:
a. Bacteria, cell organelles, and red blood cells ✔
b. Amino acids, bacteria, and red blood cells
c. Ribosomes, bacteria, cell organelles, and red blood cells
d. Atoms, proteins, viruses, and bacteria
e. Viruses, bacteria, cell organelles, and red blood cells
1562. All of the following are examples of special stains except:
a. Flagellar stain
b. Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain
c. Negative stains ✔
d. Endospore stain
1563. Which of the following statements is most correct about the differential Gram stain?
a. Acetone/Alcohol differentially destains Gram negative cells. ✔
b. Crystal violet differentially stains Gram positive cells.
c. Safranin differentially stains Gram negative cells.
d. Gram’s iodine differentially stains Gram positive cells.
1564. The total magnification of a microscope is calculated by:
a. The objective lens power squared
b. Multiplication of the objective lens and ocular lens magnification powers ✔
c. Multiplication of the objective lens and condenser lens magnification powers
d. Addition of the objective lens and ocular lens magnification powers
1565. Which of the following stains is used to classify microorganisms based on their cell wall content?
a. Gram stain ✔
 b. Methylene blue
c. Capsular stain
d. Spore stain
e. Negative stain
1566. Which of the following microscopic techniques provide three-dimensional images of a bacterial cell?
a. Dark-field microscopy
b. Fluorescent microscopy
c. Transmission electron microscopy
d. Scanning electron microscopy ✔
1567. Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct EXCEPT:
a. M. tuberculosis appears as a red rod in Gram-stained specimens. ✔
b. After being stained with carbolfuchsin, M. tuberculosis resists decolorization with acid alcohol.
c. M. tuberculosis has a large amount of mycolic acid in its cell wall.
d. M. tuberculosis appears as a red rod in acid-fast stained specimens.
1568. Which of the following is defined as the ability to distinguish or separate two adjacent objects or points
from one another in a microscopic specimen?
a. Reflection
b. Illuminate
c. Image
d. Resolving power ✔
e. Refraction
1569. The presence of a capsule around bacterial cells usually indicates their increased disease-causing potential
and resistance to disinfection. Capsules are generally viewed by:
a. Scanning electron microscopy
b. Negative staining ✔
c. Ziehl-Neelsen staining
d. Gram staining
1570. Drumstick appearance in the microscopy is the distinguishing characteristics of:
a. Clostridium tetani ✔
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Clostridium botulinum
1571. What type of microscopy allows for the visualization of internal components within live, unstained
specimens?
a. Phase-contrast ✔
b. Fluorescence
c. Electron
d. Bright-field
e. Dark-field
1572. Transmission electron microscopy is best for high magnification viewing of
a. surface structure of fixed cells
b. surface membranes of live, motile cells.
c. internal structure of live, motile cells.
d. internal structure of fixed cells. ✔
1573. Your patient is a 30-year-old woman with nonbloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of the
following organisms is LEAST likely to cause this illness?
a. Clostridium difficile
b. Salmonella enteritidis
c. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
d. Shigella dysenteriae
1574. Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea EXCEPT:
a. Enterococcus faecalis ✔
b. Escherichia coli
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Vibrio cholerae
1575. Which one of the following organisms that infects the gastrointestinal tract is the MOST frequent cause of
bacteremia?
a. Salmonella typhi ✔
b. Pyrazinamide
c. Streptomycin
d. Rifampicin
1576. Which one of the following bacteria has the LOWEST 50% infectious dose (ID50)?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Shigella sonnei ✔
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Vibrio cholerae
1577. A family has a diarrhea after eating raw shellfish due to an oxidase positive, gram-negative curved bacillus
that requires a special media for growth. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Escherichia coli
d. Vibrio parahaemolyticus ✔
1578. A 26-year-old male with AIDS presents with painful bloody diarrhea. Stool culture on MacConkey agar
medium and subsequent analyses reveals predominantly a gram -negative facultative anaerobic rod, which
is oxidase negative, lactose negative, H2S negative and non-motile. Which of the following is the most likely
cause of this infection?
a. Shigella flexneri ✔
b. Vibrio cholerae
c. Enterobacter aerogenes
d. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
e. Salmonella enteritidis
1579. Which of the following pathogenic bacteria is MOST COMMONLY associated with traveler’s diarrhea?
a. Shigella sonnei
b. Salmonella typhimurium
c. Yersinia enterocolitica
d. Escherichia coli ETEC (enterotoxingenic). ✔
e. Campylobacter jejuni
1580. Diarrhea associated with prolonged antibiotic treatment, including pseudomembranous colitis, is MOST
FREQUENTLY caused by
a. Yersinia enterocolitica
b. Salmonella enteritidis
c. Clostridium difficile ✔
d. Shigella dysenteriae
e. Rota Virus
1581. A 25-year-old female medical student reports that she had lunch at a Indian restaurant in the afternoon.
She is presented in the emergency department of hospital with the complaints of abdominal cramps, nausea
and vomiting. Culture and gram stain reveal gram- positive aerobic rods. Which of the following is the
most likely cause of this infection?
a. Staphylococcal food poisoning
b. Bacillus cereus food poisoning ✔
c. Clostridium perfringens food poisoning
d. Clostridium botulinum food poisoning
1582. A specimen suspected of containing members of the Enterobacteriaceae was subjected to a few laboratory
diagnostic tests and generated the following results: Gram negative rod; colorless/pale colonies on
MacConkey agar. All of the following microorganisms may be included in the diagnosis, EXCEPT
a. Shigella spp
b. Salmonella spp
c. Both Salmonella and Shigella
d. Escherichia coli ✔
1583. Five hours after eating reheated rice at a restaurant, a 24-year-old woman and her husband both developed
nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Which one of the following organisms is the MOST likely to be involved?
a. Bacillus cereus
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
1584. A 29-year-old man with a long history of heartburn and dyspepsia presents to the primary care doctor with
severe mid-epigastric pain. He was initially treated with an H2 blocker twice a day. He immediately had
relief but his symptoms returned after two weeks. What is the most likely cause for the relapse in his
symptoms?
a. Outlet obstruction due to fibrous tissue repair
b. Giardia lamblia infection
c. Helicobacter pylori infection ✔
d. Acute gastric ulcerations
e. Tapeworm infestation
1585. For which one of the following enteric illnesses is a chronic carrier state MOST likely to develop?
a. Campylobacter enterocolitis
b. Shigella enterocolitis
c. Cholera
d. Typhoid fever ✔
1586. The pathogenesis of which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to involve invasion of the
intestinal mucosa?
a. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Shigella sonnei ✔
d. Vibrio cholerae
1587. A 70-year-old man underwent bowel surgery for colon cancer 3 days ago. He now has a fever and
abdominal pain. Attending physician is concerned that he may have peritonitis. Which one of the following
pairs of organisms is MOST likely to be the cause?
a. Bordetella pertussis and Salmonella enteritidis
b. Clostridium botulinum and Shigella dysenteriae
c. Actinomyces israelii and Campylobacter jejuni
d. Bacteroides fragilis and Klebsiella pneumoniae ✔
1588. Which one of the following host defense mechanisms is the MOST important for preventing dysentery
caused by Salmonella?
a. Salivary enzymes
b. Normal flora of the mouth
c. Alpha interferon
d. Gastric acid ✔
1589. The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea EXCEPT
a. Salmonella
b. Rotavirus
c. Enterovirus
d. Campylobacter
e. Enterobacter ✔
1590. A local day care center has several simultaneous cases of diarrhea. A methylene blue fecal smear was taken
during the outbreak from one of the children and revealed numerous PMN’s and occult blood. Culture of
the stool revealed a typical gram negative rod which fermented glucose but not lactose, was nonmotile and
did not produce H2S. The agent which MAY have caused this outbreak was
a. Escherichia coli
b. Salmonella typhimurium
c. Campylobacter jejuni
d. Rota Virus
e. Shigella sonnei ✔
1591. A 27-year-old IV drug user presents with difficulty swallowing. Examination of the oropharynx reveals
white plaques along the tongue and the oral mucosa. Which of the following best describes the microscopic
appearance of the microorganism responsible for this patient’s illness?
a. Mold with septate hyphae
b. Encapsulated yeast
c. Budding yeast and pseudohyphae ✔
d. Mold with nonseptate hyphae
1592. Two hours after a delicious Thanksgiving dinner of barley soup, roast turkey, stuffing, sweet potato, green
beans, cranberry sauce, and pumpkin pie topped with whipped cream, the Smith family of four experience
vomiting and diarrhea. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to cause these symptoms?
a. Campylobacter jejuni
b. Salmonella enteritidis
c. Shigella flexneri
d. Staphylococcus aureus ✔
1593. Following specialized transduction, if any of the bacterial genes transferred in are to be stabilized, what
process must occur?
a. Generalized transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Site-specific recombination
d. Transformation
e. Specialized transduction
f. Homologous recombination ✔
1594. Which genetic material is found in pathogenic Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not in nonpathogenic
normal flora diphtheroids?
a. Highly repetitive bacterial DNA
b. A diphthamide on eEF-2
c. An F factor
d. An integrated temperate phage ✔
e. An episome
1595. Which one of the following processes involves a sex pilus?
a. Conjugation resulting in transfer of an R (resistance) factor ✔
b. Transduction of a chromosomal gene
c. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
d. Transposition of a mobile genetic element
1596. How is a prophage created?
a. Through site-specific recombination of a temperate phage and bacterial DNA ✔
b. Through infection of a bacterial cell with lambda phage, lacking the lambda repressor
c. Through activation of the recA gene product of an exogenote
d. Through excision of bacterial DNA and active lytic replication of a bacteriophage
e. Through infection of a bacterial cell with a virulent bacteriophage
1597. Which of the following events is MOST likely to be due to bacterial conjugation?
a. A gene encoding resistance to gentamicin in the Escherichia coli chromosome appears in the genome of a
bacteriophage that has infected E. coli.
b. An encapsulated strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae acquires the gene for capsule formation from an
extract of DNA from another encapsulated strain.
c. A strain of Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces ß-lactamase encoded by a plasmid similar to a plasmid of
another gram-negative organism. ✔
d. A strain of Corynebacterium diphtheriae produces a toxin encoded by a prophage.
1598. The process by which bacterial or plasmid DNA may be mistakenly incorporated (during assembly) into
one phage being produced by the lytic life cycle and then that DNA-transferred to another bacterial cell
which may acquire some new genetic traits is called
a. Specialized transduction
b. Conjugation
c. Homologous recombination
d. Generalized transduction ✔
 e. Transformation
1599. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to be involved in multiple drug resistance transfer from
one cell to another?
a. Transformation of chromosomal genes
b. Transposition
c. Specialized transduction of a chromosomal gene for drug resistance
d. Conjugation with a cell with a free plasmid carrying drug resistance ✔
1600. Conjugation with a cell with chromosomal drug resistance appears in the genome of a bacteriophage that
has infected it.
a. is the conversion of a virulent phage into a temperate phage.
b. is a change in pathogenicity due to the presence of a prophage. ✔
c. is the immunity that a prophage confers on a bacterium.
d. refers to the incorporation of a prophage into the chromosome.
e. is the induction of a prophage to its virulent state.
1601. Which of the following events is most likely due to bacterial transformation?
a. A formerly non-toxigenic strain of Corynebacterium diphtheriae becomes toxigenic.
b. A gene for gentamicin resistance from an Escherichia coli chromosome
c. A strain of Neisseria gonorrhoeae starts producing a plasmid-encoded beta-lactamase similar to that
another Gram-negative strain.
d. A non-encapsulated strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae acquires a gene for capsule formation from the
extract of an encapsulated strain. ✔
1602. Which of the following statements concerning recombinant DNA technology is false?
a. Recombinant DNA technology provides a high degree of risk to the health of the general population. ✔
b. Thus far, no illnesses in laboratory workers have been traced to genetic recombinants.
c. Recombinant DNA technology offers specific benefits to the scientific, medical, and general population.
d. Mutant strains of bacteria produced by genetic recombination are often unable to survive in the natural
environment.
e. Production of large amounts of proteins such as insulin and human growth hormone has been made
possible using recombinant DNA technology.
1603. The ability of a cell to bind DNA to its surface and import it is required for which genetic process?
a. Transformation ✔
b. Homologous recombination
c. Conjugation
d. Specialized transduction
e. Generalized transduction
1604. Hybridomas are formed by fusing antibody-producing white blood cells with:
a. Bone marrow cells
b. Viruses
c. Red blood cells
d. Bacteria
e. Myeloma cells ✔
1605. Which type of genetic exchange in bacteria is susceptible to the activity of deoxyribonuclease?
a. Transduction
b. Transformation ✔
c. Transfection
d. Conjugation
1606. The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the recipient by a bacterial virus is
a. Transformation
b. Horizontal transfer
c. Transfection
d. Conjugation
e. Transduction ✔
1607. The formation of a mating pair during the process of conjugation in Escherichia coli requires
a. Restriction endonuclease
b. Transfer of both strands of DNA
 c. sex pilus ✔
d. Intergration of Transposon
e. Lysis of the donor
1608. The first vaccine for human use produced using recombinant DNA technology was the:
a. AIDS vaccine
b. Polio vaccine
c. Hepatitis A vaccine
d. Hepatitis B vaccine ✔
e. MMR vaccine
1609. Each of the following events involves recombinantion of DNA EXCEPT:
a. Transduction of a chromosomal gene
b. Integration of a temperate bacteriophage
c. Transposition of a mobile genetic element
d. Conjugation, eg, transfer of an R (resistance) factor ✔
1610. Mutations in katG gene of Mycobacterium tuberculosis are responsible for resistance to: isoniazid
(INH)11XDR TB is defined as
a. Strain resistant to more than one drug (excluding co resistance to INH and rif)
b. resistant to two most effective first-line therapeutic drugs, isoniazid and rifampin irrespective of
resistance to any other drug
c. MDR TB that also is resistant to fluoroquinolones and at least one of the three injectable second-line
drugs used to treat TB (amikacin, kanamycin, or capreomycin) ✔
d. MDR TB that is resistant to either one of the injectable second line drugs or second-line therapeutic
fluoroquinolones
1611. A case of leprosy with good Cell mediated immunity usually presents as following form of disease
a. Tuberculoid ✔
b. Lepromatous
c. Indeterminate
d. Borderline
1612. Which of the following environmental factors do NOT increase the probability that M tuberculosis will be
transmitted?
a. Inadequate local or general ventilation that results in insufficient dilution or removal of infectious droplet
nuclei.
b. Improper specimen handling procedures that generate infectious droplet nuclei.
c. Recirculation of air containing infectious droplet nuclei.
d. Negative pressure in an infectious TB patient’s room. ✔
e. Exposure in small enclosed spaces.
1613. Tubercular Granulomas are made up of
a. damaged tissue cells and bacilli only
b. fibrous and damaged tissue and bacilli only
c. organized aggregates of immune cells that surround foci of infected tissues ✔
d. necrotic tissue and damaged tissue and bacilli only
1614. MDR TB is defined as resistance to
a. more than three anti tubercular drugs
b. fluoroquinolones and at least one of the three injectable second-line drugs used to treat TB
c. Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide and Rifampicin
d. isoniazid and rifampin irrespective of resistance to any other drug ✔
1615. Swimming pool granuloma is caused by
a. M. chelonei
b. M. marinum ✔
c. M. tuberculosis
d. M. ulcerancs
1616. Cord growth seen on mycobacterial culture is characteristic of
a. Saprophytic strains
b. Virulent strains ✔
c. Avirulent strains
 d. Atypical mycobacteria
1617. Buruli ulcer is caused by
a. M. marinum
b. M. chelonei
c. M. ulcerancs ✔
d. M. tuberculosis
1618. The scientist who discovered M. tuberculosis was:
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Jean-Antoine Villemin
c. Robert Koch ✔
d. Calmette and Guerin
1619. The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly and scratching his anal area. You
suspect the child may have pinworms. Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that
diagnosis?
a. Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria
b. Examine the stool for the presence of cysts
c. Determine the titer of IgE antibody against the organism
d. Examine the stool for the presence of trophozoites
e. Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs ✔
1620. Each of the following statements concerning Schistosoma haematobium is correct EXCEPT:
a. S. haematobium infection predisposes to bladder carcinoma.
b. S. haematobium is acquired by humans when cercariae penetrate the skin.
c. Snails are intermediate hosts of S. haematobium.
d. S. haematobium eggs have no spine. ✔
1621. A 34-year-old woman presents to her physician with complaints of midepigastric pain. She describes the
pain as moderate, occasionally waking her at night, and improving immediately following meals. A urease
breath test was positive. Which of the following correctly describes the causal agent?
a. Gram-negative rod; aerobic
b. Gram-negative rod; facultative anaerobe
c. Gram-negative curved rod; microaerophilic 11
d. Gram-positive rod; aerobic
e. Gram-positive rod; microaerophilic
1622. Cholera toxin effects are mediated by stimulation of which of the following second messengers:
a. cGMP
b. Ca++ calmodulin
c. cAMP 11
d. IP3/DAG
1623.
1624. An infant presents to the emergency department due to difficulty breathing, constipation, and anorexia.
Upon examination, the physician notes flaccid paralysis. A toxin screen of the stool identified the agent.
What is the mechanism of action of the toxin?
a. ADP ribosylation of eukaryotic elongation factor 2 (eEF-2)
b. ADP ribosylation of Gi
c. Blocks release of inhibitory transmitters GABA and glycine
d. ADP ribosylation of GTP-binding protein
e. Blocks release of acetylcholine ✔
1625. A group of 6 college students undertake to climb Mt. Rainier outside Seattle on their spring break. They
pack food and camping provisions except for water, which they obtain from the many fresh water
mountain streams that arise at the summit. The adventure takes a little over a week to accomplish, and all
return safely in good spirits to their classes the following week. Within the first week after their return, 5 of
the 6 students report to the infirmary with profuse diarrhea and tenesmus. Each affected student
experiences weakness and weight loss, and stool samples submitted to the lab are yellow, greasy, and foul
smelling. What attribute of this parasite imparts its pathogenicity?
a. Encystment
b. Lytic enzymes
c. Toxic metabolites
 d. Flagella
e. Ventral sucking disc ✔
1626. Each of the following statements concerning Strongyloides stercoralis is correct EXCEPT:
a. S. stercoralis produces filariform larvae.
b. Migrating larvae of S. stercoralis induce a marked eosinophilia.
c. S. stercoralis is acquired by ingestion of eggs. ✔
d. S. stercoralis undergoes a free-living life cycle in soil.
1627. Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins is correct EXCEPT:
a. Botulism is caused by a toxin that hydrolyzes lecithin (lecithinase), thereby destroying nerve cells. ✔
b. Some strains of Escherichia coli produce an enterotoxin that causes diarrhea.
c. Cholera toxin acts by stimulating adenylate cyclase.
d. Diphtheria is caused by an exotoxin that inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating an elongation factor.
1628. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct EXCEPT:
a. A. lumbricoides can cause pneumonia.
b. Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of A. lumbricoides. ✔
c. A. lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs.
d. A. lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes.
1629. Which of the following ‘Vibrios’ is most commonly associated with ear infections:
a. V. parahemolyticus
b. V. fulnifcus
c. Vibrio fluvialis
d. V. alginolyticus ✔
1630. A 4-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with intense perianal itching. His mother explains that the
child has also been extremely irritable during the day and has not been sleeping well at night. Eggs with a
flattened side were identified by the laboratory technician from a piece of scotch tape brought in by the
parent. Infection with which of the following organisms is most likely?
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Trichuris trichiura
c. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
e. Entamoeba histolytica
1631. An HIV-positive patient with a CD4+ count of 47 presents with diarrhea. Acidfast structures are found in
the stool. From this finding, which of the following is true?
a. Even with the best treatment, the infection may be unrelenting ✔
b. Infection will resolve only with a combination of antituberculous drugs, and then it may take weeks
c. Infection is short lasting and self-resolving and requires no treatment
d. Infection could have been prevented by avoiding cat feces and undercooked or raw meat
e. If treated with antibiotics, the infection should resolve in 3-6 days
1632. Five days ago a 65-year-old woman with a lower urinary tract infection began taking ampicillin. She now
has a fever and severe diarrhea. Of the organisms listed, which one is MOST likely to be the cause of the
diarrhea?
a. Bacteroides fragilis
b. Proteus mirabilis
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. Clostridium difficile ✔
1633. Children at day care centers in the United States have a high rate of infection with which one of the
following?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Necator americanus
1634. A 32-year-old man who recently visited Nepal on business presents to the emergency department with
profuse watery diarrhea flecked with mucus, and severe dehydration. Which of the following correctly
describes the causal agent?
a. Gram-negative curved rod; toxin that increases cAMP
 b. Gram-negative rod; toxin that inhibits protein synthesis
c. Gram-negative rod; toxin that increases cAMP ✔
d. Intoxication with a heat labile toxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine
e. Gram-negative curved rod; toxin that inhibits protein synthesis
1635. Each of the following statements concerning Diphyllobothrium latum is correct EXCEPT:
a. D. latum has operculated eggs.
b. D. latum causes a megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency.
c. D. latum is a tapeworm that has a scolex with a circle of hooks. 11
d. D. latum is transmitted by undercooked fish.
1636. Each of the following statements concerning gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT:
a. E. coli ferments lactose, whereas the enteric pathogens Shigella and Salmonella do not.
b. Escherichia coli is part of the normal flora of the colon; therefore, it does not cause diarrhea. ✔
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae, although a cause of pneumonia, is part of the normal flora of the colon.
d. Proteus species are highly motile organisms that are found in the human colon and cause urinary tract
infections.
1637. Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human infection EXCEPT:
a. Wuchereria bancrofti ✔
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Necator americanus
d. Strongyloides stercoralis
1638. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
a. Trichinella spiralis
b. Ascaris lumbricoides ✔
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Taenia solium
1639. Endotoxin of which gram negative bacteria have no part in pathogenesis of disease:
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. E. coli
c. Klebsiella
d. Vibrio cholera ✔
1640. In the U.S., a baby has the greatest chance of acquiring which virus in utero?
a. Rubella virus
b. Hepatitis B virus
c. Herpes simplex virus
d. Respiratory syncytial virus
e. Cytomegalovirus ✔
1641. Which one of the following is the BEST explanation for the selective action of acyclovir (acycloguanosine)
in herpes simplex virus (HSV)-infected cells?
a. Acyclovir binds specifically to viral receptors only on the surface of the HSV-infected cell.
b. Acyclovir selectively inhibits the RNA polymerase in the HSV virion.
c. Acyclovir specifically blocks the matrix protein of HSV, thereby preventing release of progeny HSV.
d. Acyclovir is phosphorylated by a virus-encoded phosphokinase only within HSV-infected cells. ✔
1642. Varicella-zoster virus and herpes simplex virus share many characteristics. Which one of the following
characteristics is NOT shared?
a. Linear, double-stranded DNA genome
b. Inapparent disease, manifested only by virus shedding, is common ✔
c. Vesicular rash
d. Persistence of latent virus after recovery from acute disease
1643. A 24-year-old primiparous woman in her eighth month of gestation develops a positive IgM titer to
Toxoplasma gondii for the first time. She should be advised by her physician that
a. a newborn with a positive anti-Toxoplasma IgG response should be treated with anti-parasitics
b. major organ damage can be reversed by prompt treatment of the newborn
c. this child and all future fetuses are likely to be infected
d. retinochoroiditis can be prevented by drug treatment of an infant with a positive IgM response ✔
e. future infections can be avoided by proper vaccination and worming of cats
1644. Which one of the following outcomes is MOST common following a primary herpes simplex virus
infection?
a. Persistent asymptomatic viremia
b. Persistent cytopathic effect in infected cells
c. Complete eradication of virus and virus-infected cells
d. Establishment of latent infection ✔
1645. Which one of the following statements about genital herpes is LEAST accurate?
a. Initial disease episodes are generally more severe than recurrent episodes.
b. Multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions are found in the lesions.
c. Genital herpes can be transmitted in the absence of apparent lesions.
d. Acyclovir reduces the number of recurrent disease episodes by eradicating latently infected cells. ✔
1646. Each of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma gondii is correct EXCEPT:
a. T. gondii can be transmitted across the placenta to the fetus.
b. T. gondii can be transmitted by cat feces.
c. T. gondii can cause encephalitis in immunocompromised patients.
d. T. gondii can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in the stool. ✔
1647. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) is distinct from HSV-2 in several different ways. Which one of the
following is the LEAST accurate statement?
a. HSV-1 causes lesions above the umbilicus more frequently than HSV-2 does.
b. Infection by HSV-1 is not associated with any tumors in humans.
c. Antiserum to HSV-1 neutralizes HSV-1 much more effectively than HSV-2.
d. HSV-1 causes frequent recurrences, whereas HSV-2 infection rarely recurs. ✔
1648. Herpes simplex virus and cytomegalovirus share many features. Which one of the following features is
LEAST likely to be shared?
a. Important cause of morbidity and mortality in the newborn
b. Important cause of serious disease in immunosuppressed individuals
c. Congenital abnormalities due to transplacental passage ✔
d. Mild or inapparent infection
1649. A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a fever and a lacy body rash. Her mother says
that yesterday the rash was only on her face, but by this morning, had spread to her trunk and extremities.
Which of the following agents is most likely?
a. Rubella
b. Varicella zoster virus
c. Parvovirus B19 ✔
d. Measles
e. HHV-6
1650. The neuraminidase of influenza virus exhibit all the following properties EXCEPT
a. lowers the viscosity of the mucous film in the respiratory tract
b. forms a spike structure composed of four identical monomers, each with enzyme activity
c. facilitates release of virus particles from infected cells
d. is embedded in the outer surface of the viral envelope
e. attaches with the sialic acid receptor present in upper respiratory tract ✔
1651. Internationally accepted naming convention is used for the nomenclature of Influenza Virus. WHO has
reported the outbreak of A/duck/X/Y/Z (H1N1) influenza virus? What does X denotes in this
nomenclature?
a. Strain Id
b. Year of isolation
c. Origin ✔
d. Type
1652. Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?
a. It results in major antigenic changes
b. It results in new sub types over time ✔
c. It is due to frame shift mutations in viral genes
d. It is exhibited by only influenza A viruses
e. It affects predominantly the matrix protein
1653. A 42 year old man developed a “flu-like” syndrome with fever, sore throat, headache, and myalgia. Viral
culture was ordered for laboratory confirmation of influenza. Which of the following would be the best
specimen for isolating virus responsible for the infection?
a. Blood
b. Vesicle fluid
c. Stool
d. Saliva
e. Nasopharyngeal washing ✔
1654. All of the following is responsible for the genetic diversity of Influenza A virus EXCEPT
a. RNA Virus
b. Ability to grow in many species
c. Ability to attach in sialic acid receptor ✔
d. Segmented genome
1655. What virus commonly undergoes both antigenic shifts and antigenic drifts?
a. Influenza ✔
b. HIV
c. Rabies
d. Rotavirus
e. Ebola
1656. The type specific antigen (A, B or C) of influenza viruses is found on which viral constituent?
a. Hemagglutinin
b. Lipid in viral envelope
c. Major structural protein
d. Nucleocapsid ✔
e. Neuraminidase
1657. Which of the following statements reflects the pathogenesis of influenza virus?
a. Pneumonia is not associated with secondary bacterial infections
b. The virus frequently establishes persistent infections in the lung
c. The virus enters the host in airborne droplets ✔
d. Viral infection does not kill cells in the respiratory tract
e. Viremia is common
1658. Influenza virus contains hemagglutinin and neuraminidase. What does these represent?
a. Proteins found in the nucleus of influenza virus
b. Proteins that surround each segment of the nucleic acid in influenza
c. Glycoproteins on influenza virus that contribute to virulence ✔
d. Glycoprotein receptors on influenza’s target cells
e. Exotoxins produced by the influenza virus
1659. All of the following statements correctly describes the properties of Influenza A virus EXCEPT
a. Single stranded positive sense RNA virus ✔
b. Viral transcription occurs in the nucleus
c. Mature virion are released by budding
d. Attaches to cell-surface sialic acid
1660. Which of the following items could be sterilized by dry heat sterilization?
a. glass pipette ✔
b. Intravenous (IV) solution
c. Plastic IV bags
d. plastic petri dishes
e. rubber gloves
1661. Which factor has an impact on the effectiveness of a disinfectant?
a. the disinfectant solution is more potent after several uses
b. using soap in the sanitization process is desirable
c. items should be placed in the disinfectant bath wet
d. evaporation can alter the chemical makeup of the solution ✔
1662. Which of the following substances can sterilize?
a. Chlorine
 b. Alcohol
c. Cetylpyridinium chloride
d. Silver nitrate
e. Ethylene oxide ✔
1663. Which of the following process does not kill bacterial endospores?
a. Autoclave
b. Incineration
c. Pasteurization ✔
d. Hot air sterilization
1664. The most suitable way of sterilization of oils and fats is:
a. Pasteurization
b. Autoclaving
c. Hot air oven ✔
d. Tyndallisation
1665. Any process that destroys the non-spore-forming contaminants on inanimate objects is:
a. antisepsis
b. Disinfection ✔
c. degermation
d. sterilization
1666. Which is a form of cold sterilization
a. Infrared rays
b. Gamma rays ✔
c. UV rays
d. Steam sterilization
1667. Browne’s tube is used as indicator for efficacy of:
a. Ultraviolet rays
b. Filtration
c. Heat sterilization ✔
d. Chemical sterilization
1668. Identify the term that is used to ensure surgical instruments are free from micro-organisms:
a. Debrided
b. Disinfected
c. Sterilization ✔
d. Cleaned
1669. All of the following are sporicidal except
a. glutaraldehyde
b. alcohol ✔
c. formaldehyde
d. stabilized hydrogen peroxide
e. ethylene oxide
1670. The lowest temperature that kills all microorganisms in a liquid suspension in 10 minutes is known as the
a. thermal death time
b. thermal death temperature
c. thermal death point ✔
d. decimal reduction time
e. D value
1671. The time in minutes at a specific temperature needed to kill a population of cells is the
a. D value
b. thermal death temperature
c. decimal reduction time
d. F value ✔
e. thermal death point
1672. Which of the following is commonly used in the laboratory setting to provide a measure of protection
against transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
a. germicidal soap
 b. bleach
c. hot air
d. iodine ✔
1673. Which of the following method is best to sterilize heat labile solutions?
a. Autoclave
b. Hot Air Oven
c. Membrane filtration ✔
d. Pasteurization
1674. Which of the following scientist introduced the “Sterilization” technique?
a. Louis Pasteur ✔
b. Joseph Lister
c. John Needham
d. Robert Koch
1675. Sharp instruments should not be sterilized by:
a. Autoclaving
b. Hot air ovens ✔
c. Boiling
d. Chemical disinfectants
1676. Which of the following methods of infection control requires the use of an autoclave?
a. irradiation
b. sanitization
c. disinfection
d. sterilization ✔
1677. Which of the following is permissible in ultrasonic cleaning?
a. place all instruments together in the special bath
b. remove the instruments from the ultrasonic cleaner and immediately wrap in a towel without rinsing
c. place all instruments with hinges or ratchets in the ultrasonic cleaner in the closed position
d. reuse the ultrasonic cleaning solution for several baths ✔
1678. Which of the following methods is useful for sterilization of antisera?
a. Autoclaving
b. Tyndallisation
c. Hot air oven
d. Filtration ✔
1679. Tyndallization is a type of
a. Pasteurization
b. Boiling
c. Intermittent sterilization ✔
d. Dry heat
1680. Which of the following disinfectants acts by disrupting microbial membranes?
a. Aldehydes
b. Sterilizing gases
c. Heavy metals
d. Halogens
e. Cationic detergents ✔
1681. Which of the following is most effective for sterilizing mattresses and plastic Petri plates?
a. Glutaraldehyde
b. Chlorine
c. Ultraviolet radiation
d. Ethylene oxide ✔
e. Autoclave
1682. Each of the following statements concerning the killing of bacteria is correct EXCEPT:
a. Iodine kills by causing the formation of thymine dimers in bacterial DNA.
b. An autoclave uses steam under pressure to reach the killing temperature of 121°C.
c. A 70% solution of ethanol kills more effectively than absolute (100%) ethanol. ✔
d. The pasteurization of milk kills pathogens but allows many organisms and spores to survive.
1683. Which of the following is bactericidal?
a. Membrane filtration
b. Ionizing radiation ✔
c. Freeze-drying
d. Deep freezing
1684. Identify the term that can describe a disinfectant that can inhibit the growth of fungi:
a. fungistatic
b. microbiostatic
c. microbicidal
d. fungicidal 11
1685. A 13-year-old boy from India was brought to the emergency room with a prolapsed rectum. Examination
of the rectum reveals small worms that resemble whips attached to the mucosa. A stool sample reveals eggs
that are barrel shaped, with bipolar plugs. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Trichuris trichiura ✔
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Giardia lamblia
e. Enterobius vermicularis
f. Entamoeba histolytica
1686. Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Ascaris lumbricoides ✔
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. Taenia solium
1687. Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct EXCEPT:
a. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin.
b. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool. ✔
c. Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus.
d. Hookworm infection can cause anemia.
1688. Each of the following statements concerning trichinosis is correct EXCEPT:
a. Trichinosis is caused by a protozoan that has both a trophozoite and a cyst stage in its life cycle. ✔
b. Eosinophilia is a prominent finding.
c. Trichinosis is acquired by eating undercooked pork.
d. Trichinosis can be diagnosed by seeing cysts in muscle biopsy specimens.
1689. Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human infection EXCEPT:
a. Strongyloides stercoralis
b. Necator americanus
c. Ascaris lumbricoides
d. Wuchereria bancrofti ✔
1690. Children at day care centers in the United States have a high rate of infection with which one of the
following?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
d. Necator americanus
1691. At a school nurse’s request, a clinic in rural South Carolina sees a 9-year-old girl who appears listless and
inattentive, although hearing and visual testing has been within normal limits. The physician finds the child
thin, with the “potbelly” of malnutrition, and orders a fecal exam and CBC. The CBC reveals a microcytic,
hypochrornic anemia, and the fecal exam detects brown, oval nematode eggs approximately 65 microns in
size, too numerous to count. What was the most likely means by which this child was infected?
a. Ingestion of larvae
b. Skin penetration by larvae ✔
c. Ingestion of ova
d. Ingestion of cysts in muscle
e. Mosquito transmission of sporozoites
1692. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:
a. Paragonimus westermani
b. Clonorchis sinensis
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Ancylostoma duodenale ✔
1693. A 4-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with intense perianal itching. His mother explains that the
child has also been extremely irritable during the day and has not been sleeping well at night. Eggs with a
flattened side were identified by the laboratory technician from a piece of scotch tape brought in by the
parent. Infection with which of the following organisms is most likely?
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Trichuris trichiura
e. Ascaris lumbricoides
1694. The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly and scratching his anal area. You
suspect the child may have pinworms. Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that
diagnosis?
a. Determine the titer of IgE antibody against the organism
b. Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria
c. Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs ✔
d. Examine the stool for the presence of cysts
e. Examine the stool for the presence of trophozoites
1695. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct EXCEPT:
a. A. lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes.
b. A. lumbricoides can cause pneumonia.
c. A. lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs.
d. Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of A. lumbricoides. ✔
1696. Each of the following statements concerning Strongyloides stercoralis is correct EXCEPT:
a. Migrating larvae of S. stercoralis induce a marked eosinophilia.
b. S. stercoralis is acquired by ingestion of eggs. ✔
c. S. stercoralis undergoes a free-living life cycle in soil.
d. S. stercoralis produces filariform larvae.
1697. Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections EXCEPT:
a. Proteus mirabilis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Bacteroides fragilis ✔
1698. A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with intense pain in her lower back and a
burning sensation upon urination. A urine culture was taken and plated on MacConkey agar. Gram-
negative rods that did not ferment lactose were identified. Which virulence factor of the causal agent is
most important to pathogenesis?
a. Coagulase
b. Catalase
c. Capsule
d. Exotoxin
e. Urease ✔
1699. A 65-year-old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A Gram stain of a urine sample shows gram-negative
rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals lactose-negative colonies without evidence of swarming
motility. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the cause of his urinary tract
infection?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa ✔
b. Enterococcus faecalis
c. Escherichia coli
d. Proteus vulgaris
1700. A 9-year-old child develops glomerulonephritis a week after she was treated for a sore throat. The causal
agent is identified by serotyping of the
a. capsule
b. teichoic acids
c. M proteins ✔
d. outer membrane proteins
e. pili
1701. A 4-year-old girl has papular and pustular lesions on her face. The lesions are exuding a honey-colored
serous fluid. You make a clinical diagnosis of impetigo. A Gram stain of the exudate reveals gram-positive
cocci in chains, and a culture reveals ß-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. For which one of the following
sequelae is she MOST at risk?
a. Bloody diarrhea
b. Paralysis of the facial nerve (Bell’s palsy)
c. Red blood cells and albumin in her urine ✔
d. Blurred vision
1702. A 70-year-old man is found to have a hard mass in his prostate, which is suspected to be a carcinoma.
Twenty-four hours after surgical removal of the mass, he develops fever to 39°C and has several shaking
chills. Of the organisms listed, which one is LEAST likely to be involved?
a. Legionella pneumophila ✔
b. Escherichia coli
c. Enterococcus faecalis
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
1703. Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which one of the
following organisms?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
b. Enterococcus faecalis
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Streptococcus pneumoniae
1704. A 60-year-old woman is hospitalized following a stroke and develops a highgrade fever with chills. She is
catheterized due to urinary incontinence and receives cephalosporin for treatment of pneumonia. Blood
cultures and Gram stain are performed by the laboratory. The organisms isolated are gram-positive cocci
that are catalase-negative and capable of growth in 6.5% sodium chloride. Which of the following is the
most likely causal agent?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Enterococcus faecalis ✔
c. Viridans streptococci
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
e. Staphylococcus epidermidis
1705. A 27-year-old woman, after returning home from her honeymoon, has developed urinary frequency,
dysuria, and urgency. Her urine is grossly bloody. Which lab data are most likely to define the causal
agent?
a. A gram-positive bacillus grown on a low oxidation-reduction medium
b. An optochin-resistant, catalase-negative, gram-positive coccus
c. A gram-negative diplococcus, which is oxidase positive but does not ferment maltose
d. A gram-positive coccus, which is catalase positive and coagulase negative
e. A gram-negative bacterium capable of reducing nitrates to nitrites ✔
1706. Four weeks after his arrival from Africa, a 24-year-old graduate student presents with blood in his urine.
Microscopic examination of his urine reveals the presence of eggs with terminal spines. In the interview he
admits that he has been working on his family’s rice field occasionally since his early childhood. The most
likely etiologic agent of his complaint is
a. Schistosoma haematobium ✔
b. Schistosoma japonicum
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Schistosoma mansoni
e. Fasciolopsis buski
1707. The first vaccine for human use produced using recombinant DNA technology was the:
a. Hepatitis A vaccine
b. Polio vaccine
c. AIDS vaccine
d. MMR vaccine
e. Hepatitis B vaccine ✔
1708. Disease caused by which one of the following bacteria can be prevented by a toxoid vaccine?
a. Haemophilus influenzae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Corynebacterium diphtheriae ✔
d. Salmonella typhi
e. Neisseria meningitidis
1709. The two most common types of viral vaccines are killed vaccines and live, attenuated vaccines. Regarding
these vaccines, which one of the following statements is the MOST accurate?
a. Killed vaccines induce a longer-lasting response than do live, attenuated vaccines.
b. Killed vaccines induce a broader range of immune responses than do live, attenuated vaccines.
c. Killed vaccines are safer to give to immunocompromised patients than are live, attenuated vaccines. ✔
d. Killed vaccines are no longer used in this country because they do not induce secretory IgA.
1710. A 45-year-old man was attacked by a bobcat and bitten repeatedly about the face and neck. The animal
was shot by a companion and brought back to the public health authorities. Once you decide to immunize
against rabies virus, how would you proceed?
a. Use hyperimmune serum and active immunization ✔
b. Use active immunization only
c. Use hyperimmune serum only
1711. A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered:
a. Denatured
b. Dormant
c. Attenuated ✔
d. A toxoid
e. Virulent
1712. To design a vaccine against HIV infection, a logical goal would be to alter some native molecule or product
of the virion in order to make it highly immunogenic. If you wished to prevent the attachment of the virus
to helper T lymphocytes, which molecule or family of molecules might best be targeted?
a. gp41
b. p24
c. nucleocapsid protein
d. gp l20 11
e. p 17
1713. Each of the following statements concerning rubella vaccine is correct EXCEPT:
a. The immunogen in the vaccine is killed rubella virus. ✔
b. The vaccine prevents reinfection, thereby limiting the spread of virulent virus.
c. The incidence of both childhood rubella and congenital rubella syndrome has decreased significantly
since the advent of the vaccine.
d. The vaccine induces antibodies that prevent dissemination of the virus by neutralizing it during the
viremic stage.
1714. Which one of the following statements concerning immunization against diseases caused by clostridia is
CORRECT?
a. Antitoxin against tetanus protects against botulism as well, because the two toxins share antigenic sites.
b. Immunization with tetanus toxoid induces effective protection against tetanus toxin. ✔
c. The toxoid vaccine against Clostridium difficile infection should be administered to
immunocompromised patients.
d. Vaccines containing alpha toxin (lecithinase) are effective in protecting against gas gangrene.
1715. The MOST important protective function of the antibody stimulated by tetanus immunization is:
a. To neutralize the toxin of the pathogen ✔
b. To prevent adherence of the pathogen
 c. To prevent growth of the pathogen
d. To opsonize the pathogen (Clostridium tetani)
1716. Each of the following statements concerning the rabies vaccine for use in humans is correct EXCEPT:
a. If your patient is bitten by a wild animal (e.g., a skunk) the rabies vaccine should be given.
b. The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures, thus decreasing the risk of allergic
encephalomyelitis.
c. When the vaccine is used for postexposure prophylaxis, rabies immune globulin should also be given.
d. The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus. 11
1717. Each of the following parasites has an intermediate host as part of its life cycle EXCEPT:
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Taenia solium
c. Trichomonas vaginalis ✔
d. Toxoplasma gondii
1718. A 24-year-old primiparous woman in her eighth month of gestation develops a positive IgM titer to
Toxoplasma gondii for the first time. She should be advised by her physician that
a. future infections can be avoided by proper vaccination and worming of cats
b. this child and all future fetuses are likely to be infected
c. a newborn with a positive anti-Toxoplasma IgG response should be treated with anti-parasitics
d. major organ damage can be reversed by prompt treatment of the newborn
e. retinochoroiditis can be prevented by drug treatment of an infant with a positive IgM response ✔
1719. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Plasmodium falciparum are true?
a. causes benign tertian malaria
b. is the only malarial parasite causing greater than 20% parasitaemia ✔
c. is associated with recurrent relapses after initial treatment because of liver hypnozoites
d. is the only cause of cerebral malaria
1720. A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of high fever, chills, severe headache,
and confusion. He has recently returned from Africa. A peripheral blood smear reveals multiple ring
structures and crescent-shaped gametes. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
a. Plasmodium ovale
b. Leishmania species
c. Plasmodium falciparum ✔
d. Plasmodium malariae
e. Plasmodium vivax
1721. After sporozoite gain entrance to human body it undergoes developmental cycle first in liver than in RBC,
only after which fever is seen. This incubation period varies between plasmodium species, and …………..
species has longest incubation period.
a. P. falciparum
b. P. vivax
c. P. ovale
d. P. malariae ✔
1722. After one week vacationing in Mexico, a 14-year-old girl presents with abdominal pain, nausea, bloody
diarrhea, and fever. Stool specimens are collected and sent to the laboratory for bacteriologic and
parasitologic examination. Bacterial cultures are negative for intestinal pathogens. The laboratory report
reveals organisms with red blood cells inside them. The most likely causal agent is
a. Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Giardia lamblia
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d. Entamoeba histolytica ✔
e. Toxoplasma gondii
1723. Which one of the following protozoa primarily infects macrophages?
a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. Leishmania donovani ✔
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Trichomonas vaginalis
1724. Trophozoites, Schizonts and gametocytes of all the malarial parasites are seen in the peripheral blood
smear except;
a. P. falciparum ✔
b. P. ovale
c. P. vivax
d. P. malariae
1725. How many pairs of flagella are present in the trophozoite of Giardia lamblia?
a. Two pairs
b. Three pairs
c. Four pairs ✔
d. One pair
1726. Each of the following statements concerning mucormycosis is correct EXCEPT:
a. Hyphae typically invade blood vessels and cause necrosis of tissue.
b. The fungi that cause mucormycosis are transmitted by airborne asexual spores.
c. Ketoacidosis in diabetic patients is a predisposing factor to mucormycosis.
d. Tissue sections from a patient with mucormycosis show budding yeasts. ✔
1727. Several fungi are associated with disease in immunocompromised patients. Which one of the following is
the LEAST frequently associated?
a. Mucor species
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Malassezia furfur ✔
d. Cryptococcus neoformans
1728. A 33-year-old HIV-positive man complains of headache and blurred vision. Physical examination reveals
papilledema and ataxia. A head CT scan is normal, but CSF obtained by lumbar puncture reveals
encapsulated organisms visible by India ink. Which of the following is true concerning this organism?
a. It exists as a mycelial form at room temperature and a yeast at 37°C
b. It is an encapsulated non dimorphic yeast found worldwide ✔
c. It consists of branching septate hyphae
d. It is a nonencapsulated dimorphic yeast that reproduces by budding
e. It can also be seen as “spaghetti and meatballs” on KOH stain
1729. You have made a clinical diagnosis of meningitis in a 50-year-old immunocompromised woman. A latex
agglutination test on the spinal fluid for capsular polysaccharide antigen is positive. Of the following
organisms, which one is the MOST likely cause?
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Cryptococcus neoformans ✔
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
1730. Each of the following statements concerning Candida albicans is correct EXCEPT:
a. C. albicans causes thrush.
b. C. albicans is transmitted primarily by respiratory aerosol. ✔
c. Impaired cell-mediated immunity is an important predisposing factor to disease.
d. C. albicans is a budding yeast that forms pseudohyphae when it invades tissue.
1731. You suspect that your patient’s disease may be caused by Cryptococcus neoformans. Which one of the
following findings would be MOST useful in establishing the diagnosis?
a. The finding of encapsulated budding cells in spinal fluid ✔
b. A positive heterophil agglutination test for the presence of antigen
c. Recovery of an acid-fast organism from the patient’s sputum
d. A history of recent travel in the Mississippi River valley area
1732. A 55-year-old man who recently recovered uneventfully from a heart valve transplant presents to the
emergency room with pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, fever, and chills. While he is being examined, he has
a myocardial infarction and the medical team is unable to revive him. An autopsy revealed septate, acutely
branching hyphae in many tissues. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be identified?
a. Aspergillus fumigatus ✔
b. Mucor species
c. Histoplasma capsulatum
 d. Cryptococcus neoformans
e. Blastomyces dermatitidis
1733. Your patient is a woman with a vaginal discharge. You suspect, on clinical grounds, that it may be due to
Candida albicans. Which one of the following statements is LEAST accurate or appropriate?
a. The clinical laboratory can use germ tube formation to identify the isolate as C. albicans.
b. Antibiotics predispose to Candida vaginitis by killing the normal flora lactobacilli that keep the vaginal
pH low.
c. Culture of the discharge on Sabouraud’s agar should produce a white mycelium with aerial conidia. ✔
d. A Gram stain of the discharge should reveal budding yeasts.
1734. Aspergillus fumigatus can be involved in a variety of clinical conditions. Which one of the following is
LEAST likely to occur?
a. Allergy following inhalation of airborne particles of the fungus
b. Colonization of tuberculous cavities in the lung
c. Tissue invasion in immunocompromised host
d. Thrush ✔
1735. A 42-year-old man who has AIDS presents to his physician with progressively increasing dyspnea over the
past 3 weeks. He also complains of a dry, painful cough, fatigue, and low-grade fever. A chest x-ray reveals
bilateral symmetrical interstitial and alveolar infiltration. Which of the following agents is the most likely
cause of the above?
a. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Pneumocystis jiroveci ✔
d. Cryptococcus neoformans
e. Cryptosporidium parvum
1736. A 1 5-year-old member of the high school swim team notices painless, umbilicated cutaneous lesions on the
toes. Large eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions are present in the affected epithelia. What is the most likely
causal agent?
a. Adenovirus
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Human papilloma virus
d. Molluscum contagiosum virus ✔
1737. Nagler’s reaction is useful for the identification of
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Clostridium perfringens ✔
c. Clostridium tetani
d. Clostridium difficile
1738. A 35-year-old man who is positive for HIV develops sepsis with the subsequent development of a necrotic
lesion on the buttock that has a black center and an erythematous margin. Which of the following is the
most likely causal agent?
a. Enterococcus faecalis ✔
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Clostridium perfringens
1739. Each of the following statements concerning Clostridium perfringens is correct EXCEPT:
a. It causes gas gangrene.
b. It produces an exotoxin that degrades lecithin and causes necrosis and hemolysis.
c. It is a gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose. ✔
d. It causes food poisoning.
1740. A 4-year-old girl has papular and pustular lesions on her face. The lesions are exuding a honey-colored
serous fluid. You make a clinical diagnosis of impetigo. A Gram stain of the exudate reveals gram-positive
cocci in chains, and a culture reveals ß-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. For which one of the following
sequelae is she MOST at risk?
a. Blurred vision
b. Bloody diarrhea
c. Red blood cells and albumin in her urine ✔
 d. Paralysis of the facial nerve (Bell’s palsy)
1741. Each of the following statements concerning clostridia is correct EXCEPT:
a. Anaerobic conditions at the wound site are not required to cause tetanus, because spores will form in the
presence of oxygen. ✔
b. Pathogenic clostridia are found both in the soil and in the normal flora of the colon.
c. Botulism, which is caused by ingesting preformed toxin, can be prevented by boiling food prior to eating.
d. Antibiotic-associated (pseudomembranous) colitis is due to a toxin produced by Clostridium difficile.
1742. Contamination of umbilical cord at birth may lead to infection by:
a. Clostridium difficile
b. Clostridium perfringens
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium tetani ✔
1743. Stormy clot reaction is useful in the identification of:
a. Clostridium tetani
b. Clostridium perfringens ✔
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Clostridium botulinum
1744. Each of the following statements concerning Staphylococcus aureus is correct EXCEPT:
a. The coagulase test is positive.
b. Endotoxin is an important pathogenetic factor. ✔
c. Treatment should include a ß-lactamase–resistant penicillin.
d. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters are seen on Gram-stained smear.
1745. A 25-year-old man gets into a fight at the local bar and punches another patron in the mouth. The
following day his fist becomes infected and he visits a local urgent care center. Exudate from the wound is
cultured on blood and chocolate agar and reveals gram-negative rods that have a bleach-like odor. Which
of the following agents is the most likely cause?
a. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Eikenella corrodens ✔
d. Kingella kingae
e. Cardiobacterium hominis
1746. A 50-year-old homeless alcoholic has a fever and is coughing up 1 cup of green, foul-smelling sputum per
day. You suspect that he may have a lung abscess. Which one of the following pairs of organisms is MOST
likely to be the cause?
a. Fusobacterium nucleatum and Peptostreptococcus intermedius
b. Clostridium perfringens and Chlamydia psittaci
c. Listeria monocytogenes and Legionella pneumophila
d. Nocardia asteroides and Mycoplasma pneumoniae ✔
1747. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an
immunocompetent young adult?
a. Nocardia asteroides
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae ✔
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Legionella pneumophila
1748. Each of the following statements concerning Corynebacterium diphtheriae is correct EXCEPT:
a. Toxin production is dependent on the organism’s being lysogenized by a bacteriophage.
b. Antitoxin should be used to treat patients with diphtheria.
c. Diphtheria toxoid should not be given to children younger than 3 years because the incidence of
complications is too high. ✔
d. C. diphtheriae is a gram-positive rod that does not form spores.
1749. For which one of the following bacterial vaccines are toxic side effects an important concern?
a. The vaccine containing pneumococcal polysaccharide
b. The vaccine containing tetanus toxoid
c. The vaccine containing killed Bordetella pertussis ✔
d. The vaccine containing diphtheria toxoid
1750. Each of the following statements concerning certain gram-negative rods is correct EXCEPT:
a. Legionella pneumophila infection is acquired by inhalation of aerosols from environmental water sources.
b. Whooping cough, which is caused by Bordetella pertussis, is on the rise because changing antigenicity of
the organism has made the vaccine relatively ineffective. ✔
c. In unimmunized individuals, invasive disease caused by Haemophilus influenzae is most often due to
strains possessing a type b polysaccharide capsule.
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes wound infections that are characterized by blue-green pus as a result of
pyocyanin production.
1751. A bone marrow transplant recipient becomes febrile and hypoxic and chest films demonstrate diffuse
interstitial pneumonia. What is the most likely causal agent?
a. Cytomegalovirus ✔
b. Varicella-zoster virus
c. Molluscum contagiosum virus
d. Herpes simplex virus
e. Paramyxovirus
1752. A 1 9-year-old migrant worker from the southwestern U.S. is brought to the family doctor complaining of
cough, pleuritic chest pain, fever, and malaise. He also complains of a backache and headache. He is found
to have an erythematous skin rash on his lower limbs. A chest radiograph reveals several calcifying lesions.
Which of the following structures is most likely to be found?
a. Septate hyphae branching dichotomously at acute angles
b. Spherules with endospores ✔
c. Monomorphic encapsulated yeast
d. Nonseptate hyphae with broad angles
e. Broad-based budding yeast
1753. A 42-year-old man who has AIDS presents to his physician with progressively increasing dyspnea over the
past 3 weeks. He also complains of a dry, painful cough, fatigue, and low-grade fever. A chest x-ray reveals
bilateral symmetrical interstitial and alveolar infiltration. Which of the following agents is the most likely
cause of the above?
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Toxoplasma gondii
c. Cryptosporidium parvum
d. Histoplasma capsulatum
e. Pneumocystis jiroveci ✔
1754. A 16-year-old has pneumonia with a dry, hacking cough. The x-ray pattern shows a light, diffuse
infiltrative pattern. The most likely organism producing these symptoms is
a. A coagulase positive, gram-positive, catalase positive coccus in clusters
b. A non-Gram-staining bacterium requiring sterols ✔
c. A bacillus showing granules when stained with methylene blue
d. A gram-positive bacillus grown on a low oxidation-reduction medium
e. A bacitracin-sensitive, catalase-negative gram-positive coccus
1755. The MOST important contribution of the capsule of Streptococcus pneumoniae to virulence is:
a. To accelerate tissue invasion by its collagenase-like activity
b. To retard phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear leukocytes ✔
c. To inhibit polymorphonuclear leukocyte chemotaxis
d. To prevent dehydration of the organisms on mucosal surfaces
1756. Which genetic material is found in pathogenic Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not in nonpathogenic
normal flora diphtheroids?
a. An F factor
b. A diphthamide on eEF-2
c. An integrated temperate phage ✔
d. An episome
1757. A 22-year-old woman complains of a persistent nonproductive cough and a fever of 101°F that came on
slowly over the last 4 days. Physical examination reveals some rales in the left lung base. A patchy infiltrate
is seen on chest X-ray. She works as a secretary in a law office and has not traveled recently. She is not
immunocompromised and has not been hospitalized recently. A sample of her serum agglutinates red blood
 cells at 4°C but not at 37°C. Which one of the following BEST describes the organism that is the MOST
likely cause of her disease?
a. An acid-fast rod that forms colonies within 7 days
b. A very small bacterium that has no cell wall ✔
c. A filamentous gram-positive rod that is weakly acid-fast
d. A gram-negative diplococcus with a large capsule
e. A spirochete that has never been grown on blood agar
1758. Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct EXCEPT:
a. Some strains of M. tuberculosis isolated from patients exhibit multiple drug resistance (i.e., they are
resistant to both isoniazid and rifampin).
b. The antigen in the tuberculin skin test is a protein extracted from the organism.
c. M. tuberculosis grows slowly, often requiring 3 to 6 weeks before colonies appear.
d. M. tuberculosis contains a small amount of lipid in its cell wall and therefore stains poorly with the Gram
stain. ✔
1759. Your patient has a brain abscess that was detected 1 month after a dental extraction. Which one of the
following organisms is MOST likely to be involved?
a. Mycobacterium smegmatis
b. Lactobacillus acidophilus
c. Anaerobic streptococci ✔
d. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
1760. Each of the following statements concerning Pneumocystis carinii is correct EXCEPT:
a. P. carinii infections primarily involve the respiratory tract.
b. P. carinii symptomatic infections can be prevented by administering penicillin orally. ✔
c. P. carinii can be diagnosed by seeing cysts in tissue.
d. P. carinii infections are symptomatic primarily in immunocompromised patients.
1761. A 50-year-old homeless alcoholic has a fever and is coughing up 1 cup of green, foul-smelling sputum per
day. You suspect that he may have a lung abscess. Which one of the following pairs of organisms is MOST
likely to be the cause?
a. Listeria monocytogenes and Legionella pneumophila
b. Fusobacterium nucleatum and Peptostreptococcus intermedius
c. Clostridium perfringens and Chlamydia psittaci
d. Nocardia asteroides and Mycoplasma pneumoniae ✔
1762. A 22-year-old woman presents with “the worst sore throat I’ve ever had.” She also complains of fatigue
and anorexia. She is not immunocompromised and has not been hospitalized recently. On examination, she
is febrile to 38°C, the pharynx is inflamed, and there are a few tender cervical nodes bilaterally. There are
no white lesions on the tongue or pharynx. A throat culture grows alpha-hemolytic colonies on blood agar
that are optochin-resistant. Of the following, which one is the MOST likely cause?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Epstein–Barr virus ✔
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Parvovirus B19
e. Streptococcus mutans
1763. A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and a productive cough.
His sputum was gelatinous and bloody. Gram stain of the sputum revealed numerous PMNs and gram-
negative rods. Which of the following descriptions is most likely to fit the patient?
a. IV drug user
b. Hiker
c. Homeless
d. Veterinarian
e. Alcoholic ✔
1764. Which one of the following organisms is MOST likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an
immunocompetent young adult?
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae ✔
b. Nocardia asteroides
c. Serratia marcescens
 d. Legionella pneumophila
1765. The MOST important way the host counteracts the function of the pneumococcal polysaccharide capsule is
via:
a. Activated macrophages
b. Anticapsular antibody ✔
c. Polysaccharide-degrading enzymes
d. T lymphocytes sensitized to polysaccharide antigens
1766. A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fever of 103.5°F, a dry cough, tachypnea,
and chest pain. History reveals he has been smoking since he was a teen. He mentions that several people at
the assisted living community where he resides have had similar symptoms. A sputum sample isolated
organisms that grew on buffered charcoal yeast extract agar and stained weakly gram-negative. Which of
the following properties is consistent with the above organism?
a. Optochin sensitive
b. Requires iron and cysteine for growth ✔
c. Capsule
d. No cell wall
e. Serpentine growth in vitro
1767. Which one of the following statements concerning Legionella pneumophila is CORRECT?
a. It is part of the normal flora of the colon.
b. It does not have a cell wall.
c. It causes atypical pneumonia, especially in those with reduced cell-mediated immunity. ✔
d. It cannot be grown on laboratory media.
1768. A 12-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with fever, malaise, and a sore throat. Physical examination
reveals a fever of 103°F, cervical lymphadenopathy, and pharyngeal erythema. A swab is taken from some
of the tonsillar exudate and cultured on blood agar. Culture reveals beta hemolytic, gram-positive cocci,
and a rapid antigen test is positive. What is the major component that protects the causal agent from
osmotic damage?
a. Peptidoglycan ✔
b. Polysaccharide
c. Phospholipids
d. Teichoic acid
e. Lipopolysaccharide
1769. A 45-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with fever and night sweats, coughing
up blood. Acid-fast bacilli are identified in his sputum. Which of the following virulence factors allows the
causal agent to inhibit phagosome-lysosome fusion to survive intracellularly?
a. Sulfatides ✔
b. Calcium dipicolinate
c. Peptidoglycan
d. Tuberculin
e. Cord factor
1770. Each of the following statements concerning Mycobacterium tuberculosis is correct EXCEPT:
a. Some strains of M. tuberculosis isolated from patients exhibit multiple drug resistance (i.e., they are
resistant to both isoniazid and rifampin).
b. The antigen in the tuberculin skin test is a protein extracted from the organism.
c. M. tuberculosis contains a small amount of lipid in its cell wall and therefore stains poorly with the Gram
stain. ✔
d. M. tuberculosis grows slowly, often requiring 3 to 6 weeks before colonies appear.
1771. A 14-year-old girl develops a sore throat, fever, and earache of approximately 1 week duration. Upon
examination by her physician, an erythematous rash is noted covering most of her body and her tongue
appears bright red. Which of the following is the description of the causal agent?
a. Gram-positive coccus, alpha hemolytic, catalase negative
b. Gram-positive coccus, gamma hemolytic, catalase negative
c. Gram-positive coccus, beta hemolytic, catalase positive ✔
d. Gram-positive coccus, alpha hemolytic, catalase positive
e. Gram-positive coccus, beta hemolytic, catalase negative
1772. Each of the following statements concerning infection with Chlamydia psittaci is correct EXCEPT:
a. The organism appears purple in Gram-stained smears of sputum. ✔
b. The infection is more commonly acquired from a nonhuman source than from another human.
c. C. psittaci can be isolated by growth in cell culture and will not grow in blood agar.
d. The infection is more readily diagnosed by serologic tests than by isolation of the organism.
1773. A 22-year-old woman complains of a persistent nonproductive cough and a fever of 101°F that came on
slowly over the last 4 days. Physical examination reveals some rales in the left lung base. A patchy infiltrate
is seen on chest X-ray. She works as a secretary in a law office and has not traveled recently. She is not
immunocompromised and has not been hospitalized recently. A sample of her serum agglutinates red blood
cells at 4°C but not at 37°C. Which one of the following BEST describes the organism that is the MOST
likely cause of her disease?
a. A filamentous gram-positive rod that is weakly acid-fast
b. A spirochete that has never been grown on blood agar
c. An acid-fast rod that forms colonies within 7 days
d. A gram-negative diplococcus with a large capsule
e. A very small bacterium that has no cell wall ✔
1774. Which one of the following is NOT an important characteristic of Streptococcus pyogenes?
a. Beta-hemolysin
b. Polysaccharide group-specific substance
c. Protein A ✔
d. M protein
1775. Which genetic material is found in pathogenic Corynebacterium diphtheriae but not in nonpathogenic
normal flora diphtheroids?
a. A diphthamide on eEF-2
b. An episome
c. An integrated temperate phage ✔
d. Highly repetitive bacterial DNA
e. An F factor
1776. A 55-year-old woman had her rheumatic heart valve replaced with a prosthetic valve. Six blood cultures
became positive after 3 days of incubation. An optochin- resistant, catalase-negative gram-positive coccus
that was alpha-hemolytic was isolated. What was the most likely causal agent?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Serratia marcescens
d. Streptococcus viridans ✔
e. Staphylococcus aureus
1777. Your patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis caused by a member of the viridans group of streptococci.
Which one of the following sites is MOST likely to be the source of the organism?
a. Colon
b. Skin
c. Urethra
d. Oropharynx ✔
1778. A 70-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her spouse with complaints of shortness
of breath and fever. Physical examination revealed a fever of 103°F, hypotension, and a diastolic murmur.
History revealed a cardiac valve replacement 5 years earlier. Three consecutive blood cultures taken
during febrile periods revealed gram-positive cocci that were catalase-positive and coagulase-negative.
Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
a. Enterococcus faecalis
b. Kingella kingae
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis ✔
e. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
1779. Each of the following statements concerning kala-azar is correct EXCEPT:
a. Kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of sandflies.
b. Kala-azar is caused by Leishmania donovani.
 c. Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding amastigotes in bone marrow.
d. Kala-azar occurs primarily in rural Latin America. ✔
1780. Regarding Lyme disease, which one of the following is MOST accurate?
a. Mice are the main reservoir of the causative organism. ✔
b. The Lyme disease vaccine contains toxoid as the immunogen.
c. Fleas are the principal mode of transmission of the causative organism.
d. The causative organism is a small gram-positive rod.
e. The diagnosis in the clinical laboratory is typically made by culturing the organism on chocolate agar.
1781. Which one of the following protozoa primarily infects macrophages?
a. Trypanosoma cruzi
b. Leishmania donovani ✔
c. Trichomonas vaginalis
d. Plasmodium vivax
1782. A 35-year-old captain in the army reserves has been plagued by a painful, erosive lesion near his ear lobe
since his return from Operation Desert Storm several years ago. He denies exposure to the toxic by-
products of burning oil fields. Punch biopsy of the leading edge of the erosion reveals macrophages
distended with oval amastigotes. How was this infection acquired?
a. Bite of reduviid bug
b. Bite of tsetse fly
c. Contact with contaminated drinking water
d. Bite of Anopheles mosquito
e. Bite of sandfly ✔
f. Fecal contamination of food
1783. Listed below are five bacteria paired with a mode of transmission. Which one of the pairings is MOST
accurate?
a. Coxiella burnetii—bat guano
b. Borrelia burgdorferi—mosquito bite
c. Yersinia pestis—flea bite ✔
d. Rickettsia rickettsii—contaminated food
e. Haemophilus influenzae—penetrating wound contaminated with soil
1784. Each of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma gondii is correct EXCEPT:
a. T. gondii can be transmitted by cat feces.
b. T. gondii can be transmitted across the placenta to the fetus.
c. T. gondii can cause encephalitis in immunocompromised patients.
d. T. gondii can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in the stool. ✔
1785. Each of the following statements concerning spirochetes is correct EXCEPT:
a. Species of Borrelia cause a tick-borne disease called relapsing fever.
b. Species of Treponema are part of the normal flora of the mouth.
c. The species of Leptospira that cause leptospirosis grow primarily in humans and are usually transmitted
by human-to-human contact. ✔
d. Species of Treponema cause syphilis and yaws.
1786. An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are
called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the MOST likely
source of the organism?
a. Throat
b. Nose ✔
c. Vagina
d. Colon
1787. Which one of the following zoonotic illnesses has NO arthropod vector?
a. Lyme disease
b. Brucellosis ✔
c. Plague
d. Epidemic typhus
1788. A 81-year-old woman who is receiving chemotherapy for leukemia develops a fever to 40°C and has two
episodes of teeth-chattering chills, and her blood pressure drops to 80/20 mmHg. Of the following factors,
which one is MOST likely to be the cause of her fever, chills, and hypotension?
a. Coagulase
b. Lipid A ✔
c. Mycolic acid
d. Polysaccharide capsule
1789. A 68-year-old woman on chemotherapy for leukemia has developed sepsis due to an infection with
Escherichia coli . The following day the patient develops septic shock and dies. The structure on the
bacterium most likely responsible for causing septic shock in this patient is
a. capsule
b. teichoic acid
c. pili
d. spore
e. lipopolysaccharide ✔
1790. Each of the following statements concerning Trypanosoma cruzi is correct EXCEPT:
a. T. cruzi can be diagnosed by seeing amastigotes in a bone marrow aspirate.
b. T. cruzi typically affects heart muscle, leading to cardiac failure.
c. T. cruzi is transmitted by the reduviid bug.
d. T. cruzi occurs primarily in tropical Africa. ✔
1791. A 28-year-old woman with a previous history of rheumatic fever now has a fever for the past 2 weeks.
Physical examination reveals a new heart murmur. You suspect endocarditis and do a blood culture, which
grows a viridans group streptococcus later identified as Streptococcus sanguis. Of the following body sites,
which one is the MOST likely source of this organism?
a. Colon
b. Skin
c. Stomach
d. Vagina
e. Mouth ✔
1792. A 24-year-old primiparous woman in her eighth month of gestation develops a positive IgM titer to
Toxoplasma gondii for the first time. She should be advised by her physician that
a. this child and all future fetuses are likely to be infected
b. future infections can be avoided by proper vaccination and worming of cats
c. retinochoroiditis can be prevented by drug treatment of an infant with a positive IgM response ✔
d. major organ damage can be reversed by prompt treatment of the newborn
e. a newborn with a positive anti-Toxoplasma IgG response should be treated with anti-parasitics
1793. A 33-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a fever of 102.5°F, facial palsy, headache,
and malaise. A circular maculopapular rash was identified on the patients left shoulder; the patient was
unaware of the rash. The patient likely acquired the above infection via which of the following routes?
a. Respiratory route
b. Sexual contact
c. Consumption of contaminated food
d. Arthropod vector ✔
e. Direct contact with fomite
1794. Black water fever is a special manifestation of malaria caused by;
a. P. vivax
b. P. falciparum ✔
c. P. ovale
d. P. malariae
1795.
1796. Which one of the following statements concerning the organisms that cause brucellosis is CORRECT?
a. Brucellae are transmitted primarily by tick bite.
b. The principal reservoirs of Brucellae are small rodents.
c. Brucellae are obligate intracellular parasites that are usually identified by growth in human cell culture.
d. Brucellae infect reticuloendothelial cells in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow. ✔
1797. Which one of the following illnesses is NOT a zoonosis?
a. Q fever
b. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
c. Tularemia
d. Typhoid fever ✔
1798. Mosquitoes is/are the vector in the following disorder(s)
a. Onchocerciasis
b. Bancroftian filariasis ✔
c. African trypanosomiasis
d. Visceral leishmaniasis
1799. Sixteen residents in a retirement home have fever, malaise, and anorexia. These residents have taken their
meals prepared by the same kitchen. Blood cultures from of these residents grow Salmonella enterica
subsp. typhi. The primary reservoir of this organism is
a. dogs and cats
b. turkeys
c. people ✔
d. water
e. hen’s egg
1800. Each of the following statements concerning Rocky Mountain spotted fever is correct EXCEPT:
a. The disease is caused by a Rickettsia.
b. Headache, fever, and rash are characteristic features of the disease.
c. The causative organism forms beta-hemolytic colonies on blood agar. ✔
d. The disease occurs primarily east of the Mississippi.
1801. Each of the following statements concerning epidemic typhus is correct EXCEPT:
a. The disease is caused by a Rickettsia.
b. The Weil-Felix test can aid in diagnosis of the disease.
c. The causative organism is transmitted from rodents to humans by a tick. ✔
d. The disease is characterized by a rash.
1802. What organism is most likely responsible for bacterial endocarditis in men following urological
instrumentation.
a. Ureaplasma urealyticum
b. Enterococcus faecalis ✔
c. Streptococcus pyogenes
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Viridans streptococci
1803. A 12-year-old boy from North Carolina presents to the emergency department with rash, fever, and severe
headache that began 3 days ago. The rash began on his arms and legs and then spread to the trunk. The
pediatrician notes conjunctival redness, and lab tests reveal proteinuria. Which of the following events
likely led to the child’s illness?
a. Cutting himself while butchering rabbits
b. Hiking in the woods ✔
c. Kissing
d. Not washing his hands
e. Eating undercooked meat
1804. After sporozoite gain entrance to human body it undergoes developmental cycle first in liver than in RBC,
only after which fever is seen. This incubation period varies between plasmodium species, and …………..
species has longest incubation period.
a. P. malariae ✔
b. P. ovale
c. P. falciparum
d. P. vivax
1805. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Plasmodium falciparum are true?
a. is the only cause of cerebral malaria
b. is associated with recurrent relapses after initial treatment because of liver hypnozoites
c. is the only malarial parasite causing greater than 20% parasitaemia ✔
 d. causes benign tertian malaria
1806. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by mosquitoes EXCEPT:
a. Leishmania donovani ✔
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
d. Plasmodium falciparum
1807. A 35-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of high fever, chills, severe headache,
and confusion. He has recently returned from Africa. A peripheral blood smear reveals multiple ring
structures and crescent-shaped gametes. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause?
a. Leishmania species
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Plasmodium ovale
d. Plasmodium falciparum ✔
e. Plasmodium malariae
1808. Ticks are vectors for the transmission of each of the following diseases EXCEPT:
a. Tularemia
b. Lyme disease
c. Epidemic typhus ✔
d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
1809. Each of the following statements concerning Q fever is correct EXCEPT:
a. Rash is a prominent feature. ✔
b. Farm animals are an important reservoir.
c. It is transmitted by respiratory aerosol.
d. It is caused by Coxiella burnetii.
1810. Each of the following statements concerning sleeping sickness is correct EXCEPT:
a. Sleeping sickness is caused by a trypanosome.
b. Sleeping sickness occurs primarily in tropical Africa.
c. Sleeping sickness can be diagnosed by finding eggs in the stool. ✔
d. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by tsetse flies.
1811. Trophozoites, Schizonts and gametocytes of all the malarial parasites are seen in the peripheral blood
smear except ;
a. P. falciparum ✔
b. P. malariae
c. P. vivax
d. P. ovale
1812. Which one of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells?
a. Rickettsia rickettsii ✔
b. Haemophilus influenzae
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Coxiella burnetii
1813. Regarding the effect of benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) on bacteria, which one of the following organisms is
LEAST likely to be resistant?
a. Enterococcus faecalis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
1814. Each of the following statements concerning penicillin is correct EXCEPT:
a. Penicillin inhibits transpeptidases, which are required for cross-linking peptidoglycan.
b. The structure of penicillin resembles that of a dipeptide of alanine, which is a component of
peptidoglycan.
c. Penicillin is a bacteriostatic drug because autolytic enzymes are not activated. 11
d. An intact ß-lactam ring of penicillin is required for its activity.
1815. Each of the following statements concerning the mechanism of action of antimicrobial drugs is correct
EXCEPT:
a. Vancomycin acts by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis.
 b. Quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, act by inhibiting the DNA gyrase of bacteria.
c. Aminoglycosides such as streptomycin are bactericidal drugs that inhibit protein synthesis.
d. Erythromycin is a bactericidal drug that disrupts cell membranes by a detergent-like action. ✔
1816. Each of the following statements concerning the resistance of bacteria to antimicrobial drugs is correct
EXCEPT:
a. Resistance to chloramphenicol is known to be due to an enzyme that acetylates the drug.
b. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to cleavage by ß-lactamase.
c. Resistance to tetracycline is known to be due to an enzyme that hydrolyzes the ester linkage. 11
d. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to reduced affinity of transpeptidases.
1817. The use of antibiotics that inhibit or inactivate cellular ribosomes will result directly in the loss of which of
the following functions:
a. ATP production
b. Cell division
c. Protein synthesis ✔
d. DNA replication
1818. Each of the following statements concerning the mechanism of action of antibacterial drugs is correct
EXCEPT:
a. Cephalosporins are bactericidal drugs that inhibit the transpeptidase reaction and prevent cell wall
synthesis.
b. Erythromycin is a bacteriostatic drug that inhibits protein synthesis by blocking translocation of the
polypeptide.
c. Aminoglycosides are bacteriostatic drugs that inhibit protein synthesis by activating ribonuclease, which
degrades mRNA. ✔
d. Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic drugs that inhibit protein synthesis by blocking tRNA binding.
1819. Each of the following statements concerning the mechanisms of resistance to antimicrobial drugs is correct
EXCEPT:
a. Resistance to some drugs is due to a chromosomal mutation that alters the receptor for the drug.
b. R factors are plasmids that carry the genes for enzymes that modify one or more drugs.
c. Resistance to some drugs is due to transposon genes that code for enzymes that inactivate the drugs.
d. Resistance genes are rarely transferred by conjugation. ✔
1820. Regarding viroids, which one of the following statements is the MOST accurate?
a. They cause tumors in experimental animals.
b. They consist of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat. ✔
c. They are defective viruses that are missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein.
d. They require an RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.
1821. Reasonable mechanisms for viral persistence in infected individuals include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Generation of defective-interfering particles
b. Virus-mediated inhibition of host DNA synthesis ✔
c. Host tolerance to viral antigens
d. Integration of a provirus into the genome of the host
1822. A 5-year-old presents to the pediatrician with complaints of a sore throat. Her mother also noticed that
both of her eyes were slightly red. Examination reveals rhinopharyngitis with bilateral conjunctivitis. What
activity likely led to the above illness?
a. Eating undercooked shellfish
b. Hiking in a heavily wooded area
c. Traveling to a developing country
d. Playing with toys in a day care center
e. Swimming in a community pool ✔
1823. Regarding the serologic diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis, which one of the following is CORRECT?
a. A heterophil antibody is formed that reacts with a capsid protein of Epstein–Barr virus.
b. A heterophil antigen occurs following infection with cytomegalovirus.
c. A heterophil antibody is formed that agglutinates sheep or horse red blood cells. ✔
d. A heterophil antigen occurs that cross-reacts with Proteus OX19 strains.
1824. What is the primary means of spread for measles?
a. Animal bite
 b. Respiratory droplet spread ✔
c. Fomite spread
d. Tick bite
e. Fecal-oral
1825. An 11 -month-old infant was brought to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and wheezing.
History and physical examination reveal a slight fever, cough, and rhinorrhea that began about 2 days
before. Analysis of the sputum reveals normal flora with the presence of giant multinucleated cells. Which
of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Measles
b. B 19
c. Respiratory syncytial virus ✔
d. Parainfluenza
e. Influenza
1826. Each of the following statements concerning retroviruses is correct EXCEPT:
a. During infection, the virus synthesizes a DNA copy of its RNA, and this DNA becomes covalently
integrated into host cell DNA.
b. The virion is enveloped and enters cells via an interaction with specific receptors on the host cell.
c. The viral genome consists of three segments of double-stranded RNA. ✔
d. The virion carries an RNA-directed DNA polymerase encoded by the viral genome.
1827. Viruses enter cells by adsorbing to specific sites on the outer membrane of cells. Each of the following
statements regarding this event is correct EXCEPT:
a. If the sites are occupied, interference with virus infection occurs.
b. The interaction can be prevented by neutralizing antibody.
c. The interaction determines the specific target organs for infection.
d. The interaction determines whether the purified genome of a virus is infectious. ✔
1828. Which one of the following statements about virion structure and assembly is CORRECT?
a. The symmetry of virus particles prevents inclusion of any nonstructural proteins, such as enzymes.
b. Helical nucleocapsids are found primarily in DNA viruses.
c. Most viruses acquire surface glycoproteins by budding through the nuclear membrane.
d. Enveloped viruses use a matrix protein to mediate interactions between viral glycoproteins in the plasma
membrane and structural proteins in the nucleocapsid. ✔
1829. Each of the following statements concerning viruses is correct EXCEPT:
a. The proteins on the surface of the virus mediate the entry of the virus into host cells.
b. Viruses replicate by binary fission. ✔
c. Neutralizing antibody is directed against proteins on the surface of the virus.
d. Viruses can reproduce only within cells.
1830. In the U.S., a baby has the greatest chance of acquiring which virus in utero?
a. Respiratory syncytial virus
b. Rubella virus
c. Hepatitis B virus
d. Cytomegalovirus ✔
e. Herpes simplex virus
1831. Each of the following statements about both measles virus and rubella virus is correct EXCEPT:
a. They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.
b. Their virions contain an RNA polymerase. ✔
c. They have a single antigenic type.
d. They are RNA enveloped viruses.
1832. A 5-year-old girl presents with a fever and a generalized macular rash that is most dense on the scalp and
trunk of the body. Several waves of lesions appear, one after another, and evolve rapidly into vesicles and
then pustules over several days. The most likely disease and causal agent is
a. Whitlow infection due to herpes simplex virus type 1
b. Infectious mononucleosis due to the Epstein-Barr virus
c. Exanthem subitum due to cytomegalovirus
d. Chickenpox due to the varicella-zoster virus ✔
e. Herpetic gingivostomatitis due to the varicella-zoster virus
1833. Which of the following statements concerning antigenic drift in influenza viruses is correct?
a. It results in major antigenic changes
b. It is exhibited by only influenza A viruses
c. It is due to frame shift mutations in viral genes
d. It affects predominantly the matrix protein
e. It results in new sub types over time ✔
1834. Which one of the following viruses possesses a genome of single-stranded RNA that is infectious when
purified?
a. Influenza virus
b. Measles virus
c. Rotavirus
d. Poliovirus ✔
1835. Which one of the following statements about genital herpes is LEAST accurate?
a. Acyclovir reduces the number of recurrent disease episodes by eradicating latently infected cells. ✔
b. Initial disease episodes are generally more severe than recurrent episodes.
c. Multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions are found in the lesions.
d. Genital herpes can be transmitted in the absence of apparent lesions.
1836. Each of the following statements concerning the antigenicity of influenza A virus is correct EXCEPT:
a. The protein involved in antigenic drift is primarily the internal ribonucleoprotein. ✔
b. Antigenic shifts, which represent major changes in antigenicity, occur infrequently and are due to the
reassortment of segments of the viral genome.
c. Antigenic shifts affect both the hemagglutinin and the neuraminidase.
d. The worldwide epidemics caused by influenza A virus are due to antigenic shifts.
e. Many viruses mature by budding through the outer membrane of the host cell.
1837. Each of the following statements regarding these viruses is correct EXCEPT:
a. Some new viral antigens appear on the surface of the host cell.
b. Some of these viruses contain host cell lipids.
c. Some of these viruses cause multinucleated giant cell formation.
d. Some of these viruses do not have an envelope. ✔
1838. Each of the following viruses possesses double-stranded nucleic acid as its genome EXCEPT:
a. Adenovirus
b. Coxsackie virus ✔
c. Rotavirus
d. Herpes simplex virus
1839. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. Each of the following statements concerning this fact is correct
EXCEPT:
a. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside of cells.
b. Viruses cannot generate energy outside of cells.
c. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides. ✔
d. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes.
1840. Each of the following statements concerning Coccidioides immitis is correct EXCEPT:
a. In the body, spherules containing endospores are formed.
b. A rising titer of complement-fixing antibody indicates disseminated disease.
c. The mycelial phase of the organism grows primarily in the soil, which is its natural habitat.
d. Most infections are symptomatic and require treatment with amphotericin B. ✔
1841. Each of the following statements concerning Histoplasma capsulatum is correct EXCEPT:
a. The natural habitat of H. capsulatum is the soil, where it grows as a mold.
b. Within the body, H. capsulatum grows primarily intracellularly within macrophages.
c. Passive immunity in the form of high titer antibodies should be given to those known to be exposed. ✔
d. H. capsulatum is transmitted by airborne conidia, and its initial site of infection is the lung.
1842. An obese 32-year-old diabetic woman presents with complaint of red and painful skin in her abdominal
skin folds. Examination reveals a creamy white material at the base of the fold. It is erythematous
underneath and extends beyond the creamy material. Microscopic examination of the exudate reveals oval
budding structures (3 X 6 µm) mixed with more budding elongated forms. The most likely causal agent is
a. Epidermophyton floccosum
 b. Microsporum canis
c. Aspergillus fumigatus
d. Candida albicans ✔
e. Sporothrix schenckii
1843. A 33-year-old HIV-positive man complains of headache and blurred vision. Physical examination reveals
papilledema and ataxia. A head CT scan is normal, but CSF obtained by lumbar puncture reveals
encapsulated organisms visible by India ink. Which of the following is true concerning this organism?
a. It is an encapsulated non dimorphic yeast found worldwide ✔
b. It exists as a mycelial form at room temperature and a yeast at 37°C
c. It can also be seen as “spaghetti and meatballs” on KOH stain
d. It is a nonencapsulated dimorphic yeast that reproduces by budding
e. It consists of branching septate hyphae
1844. Each of the following statements concerning fungi and protozoa is correct EXCEPT:
a. Both fungi and protozoa generate energy in mitochondria.
b. Fungi possess a cell wall, whereas protozoa do not.
c. Both fungi and protozoa use flagella as their organ of motility. ✔
d. Both fungi and protozoa are eukaryotic organisms.
1845. Fungal cells that reproduce by budding are seen in the infected tissues of patients with:
a. Mycetoma, candidiasis, and mucormycosis
b. Sporotrichosis, mycetoma, and aspergillosis
c. Tinea corporis, tinea unguium, and tinea versicolor
d. Candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and sporotrichosis ✔
1846. An 18-year-old high school student in rural north Mississippi develops fever, cough, and chest pain. The
cough, associated with weight loss, persisted. Because of poor performance at football practice, he was
advised to see a physician. Lymph node biopsies stained with H and E reveal granulomatous inflammation
and macrophages engorged with oval structures measuring 2-4 µm. Cultures incubated at room
temperature grow powdery white colonies, which on microscopic study have tuberculate spores. The high
school student most likely acquired the infection from which of the following?
a. Contaminated drinking water
b. Cat feces
c. Soil enriched with bird excrement ✔
d. Another human via respiratory secretions
e. Desert sand
1847. Each of the following statements concerning Blastomyces dermatitidis is correct EXCEPT:
a. B. dermatitidis causes granulomatous skin lesions.
b. B. dermatitidis infection is commonly diagnosed by serologic tests because it does not grow in culture. ✔
c. B. dermatitidis grows as a mold in the soil in North America.
d. B. dermatitidis is a dimorphic fungus that forms yeast cells in tissue.
1848. A 42-year-old man who has AIDS presents to his physician with progressively increasing dyspnea over the
past 3 weeks. He also complains of a dry, painful cough, fatigue, and low-grade fever. A chest x-ray reveals
bilateral symmetrical interstitial and alveolar infiltration. Which of the following agents is the most likely
cause of the above?
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Pneumocystis jiroveci ✔
d. Cryptosporidium parvum
e. Toxoplasma gondii
1849. Fungi often colonize lesions due to other causes. Which one of the following is LEAST likely to be present
as a colonizer?
a. Aspergillus
b. Sporothrix ✔
c. Candida
d. Mucor
1850. When immune complexes from the serum are deposited on glomerular basement membrane, damage to the
membrane is caused mainly by:
 a. Gamma interferon
b. Enzymes released by polymorphonuclear cells ✔
c. Phagocytosis
d. Cytotoxic T cells
1851. Toxoplasma gondii is an intracellular parasite that lives inside phagocytic and nonphagocytic cells by
generating its own intracellular vesicle. This may allow it to avoid recognition and killing by CDS+
lymphocytes, which require the presentation of foreign peptides transported into the endoplasmic
reticulum and loaded onto MHC molecules that have
a. a beta2 domain instead of a beta 2 microglobulin
b. a single transmembrane domain ✔
c. invariant chains
d. two similar chains
e. a peptide-binding groove
1852. Each of the following statements concerning class II MHC proteins is correct EXCEPT:
a. They are involved in the presentation of antigen by macrophages.
b. They are found on the surface of both B and T cells. ✔
c. They have a high degree of polymorphism.
d. They have a binding site for CD4 proteins.
1853. Macrophages are major source of:
a. IL-5
b. IFN?
c. IL-1 ✔
d. IL-7
1854. A patient skin-tested with purified protein derivative (PPD) to determine previous exposure to
Mycobacterium tuberculosis develops induration at the skin test site 48 hours later. Histologically, the
reaction site would MOST probably show:
a. Eosinophils
b. Neutrophils
c. Helper T cells and macrophages ✔
d. B cells
1855. Each of the following statements concerning immunologic tolerance is correct EXCEPT:
a. Tolerance is more easily induced in T cells than in B cells.
b. Tolerance is not antigen-specific (i.e., paralysis of the immune cellsresults in a failure to produce a
response against many antigens). ✔
c. Tolerance is more easily induced by simple molecules than by complex ones.
d. Tolerance is more easily induced in neonates than in adults.
1856. Which one of the following substances is NOT released by activated helper T cells?
a. Interleukin-2
b. Interleukin-4
c. Gamma interferon
d. Alpha interferon ✔
1857. Cytotoxic T cells induced by infection with virus A will kill target cells:
a. Infected by virus A and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells ✔
b. From the same host infected with any virus
c. Infected with a different virus and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
d. Infected with a different virus and identical at class I MHC loci of the cytotoxic cells
e. Infected by virus A and identical at class II MHC loci of the cytotoxic T cells
1858. Antigen-presenting cells that activate helper T cells must express which one of the following on their
surfaces?
a. Class I MHC antigens
b. Class II MHC antigens ✔
c. Gamma interferon
d. IgE
1859. Your patient is a child who has no detectable T or B cells. This immunodeficiency is most probably the
result of a defect in
 a. The membrane attack complex of complement
b. T cell–B cell interaction
c. Stem cells originating in the bone marrow ✔
d. The thymus
1860. Which category of hypersensitivity BEST describes hemolytic disease of the newborn caused by Rh
incompatibility ?
a. Immune complex
b. Atopic or anaphylactic
c. Delayed
d. Cytotoxic ✔
1861. Wheal and flare is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. Type V
b. Type IV
c. Type I ✔
d. Type II
1862. Mediated through allergen specific IgE A patient with severe asthma gets no relief from antihistamines.
The symptoms are MOST likely to be caused by:
a. Interleukin-2
b. Bradykinin
c. Serotonin
d. Slow-reacting substance A (leukotrienes) ✔
1863. A patient with a central nervous system disorder is maintained on the drug methyldopa. Hemolytic anemia
develops, which resolves shortly after the drug is withdrawn. This is MOST probably an example of:
a. Atopic hypersensitivity
b. Immune-complex hypersensitivity
c. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity
d. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity ✔
1864. Type I hypersensitivity includes all of the following except:
a. Hay fever
b. Extrinsic asthma
c. Anaphylaxis
d. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia ✔
1865. Bone marrow transplantation in immunocompromised patients presents which major problem?
a. Potentially lethal graft-versus-host disease ✔
b. Inability to use a live donor
c. High risk of T-cell leukemia
d. Delayed hypersensitivity
1866. A 40-year-old woman has a history of chronic inflammation of the small joints of the hands bilaterally. You
suspect rheumatoid arthritis. Which one of the following statements is the MOST accurate regarding the
pathogenesis of this disease?
a. It is caused by antibody against human IgG-forming immune complexes within the joints.
b. It is caused by superantigens inducing the release of large amounts of lymphokines from helper T cells
within the joints. ✔
c. It is caused by the release of mediators from mast cells when environmental agents cross-link adjacent
IgEs within the joints.
d. It is caused by sensitized CD4-positive T lymphocytes and macrophages invading the joints.
1867. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE ✔
1868. The principal difference between cytotoxic (type II) and immune complex (type III) hypersensitivity is:
a. The class (isotype) of antibody
b. Whether the antibody reacts with the antigen on the cell or reacts with antigen before it interacts with the
cell ✔
 c. The participation of complement
d. The participation of T cells
1869. A child stung by a bee experiences respiratory distress within minutes and lapses into unconsciousness.
This reaction is probably mediated by:
a. IgG antibody
b. IgM antibody
c. Sensitized T cells
d. Complement
e. IgE antibody ✔
1870. A 4-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with intense perianal itching. His mother explains that the
child has also been extremely irritable during the day and has not been sleeping well at night. Eggs with a
flattened side were identified by the laboratory technician from a piece of scotch tape brought in by the
parent. Infection with which of the following organisms is most likely?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
e. Trichuris trichiura
1871. Each of the following statements concerning sleeping sickness is correct EXCEPT:
a. Sleeping sickness is caused by a trypanosome.
b. Sleeping sickness occurs primarily in tropical Africa.
c. Sleeping sickness can be diagnosed by finding eggs in the stool. ✔
d. Sleeping sickness is transmitted by tsetse flies.
1872. An HIV-positive patient with a CD4+ count of 47 presents with diarrhea. Acidfast structures are found in
the stool. From this finding, which of the following is true?
a. Infection is short lasting and self-resolving and requires no treatment
b. Even with the best treatment, the infection may be unrelenting ✔
c. If treated with antibiotics, the infection should resolve in 3-6 days
d. Infection will resolve only with a combination of antituberculous drugs, and then it may take weeks
e. Infection could have been prevented by avoiding cat feces and undercooked or raw meat
1873. Each of the following statements concerning Toxoplasma gondii is correct EXCEPT:
a. T. gondii can be transmitted across the placenta to the fetus.
b. T. gondii can cause encephalitis in immunocompromised patients.
c. T. gondii can be transmitted by cat feces.
d. T. gondii can be diagnosed by finding trophozoites in the stool. ✔
1874. A 35-year-old captain in the army reserves has been plagued by a painful, erosive lesion near his ear lobe
since his return from Operation Desert Storm several years ago. He denies exposure to the toxic by-
products of burning oil fields. Punch biopsy of the leading edge of the erosion reveals macrophages
distended with oval amastigotes. How was this infection acquired?
a. Bite of Anopheles mosquito
b. Bite of tsetse fly
c. Bite of reduviid bug
d. Fecal contamination of food
e. Contact with contaminated drinking water
f. Bite of sandfly ✔
1875. Each of the following statements concerning Ascaris lumbricoides is correct EXCEPT:
a. A. lumbricoides is one of the largest nematodes.
b. Both dogs and cats are intermediate hosts of A. lumbricoides. ✔
c. A. lumbricoides is transmitted by ingestion of eggs.
d. A. lumbricoides can cause pneumonia.
1876. Each of the following statements concerning Trichomonas vaginalis is correct EXCEPT:
a. T. vaginalis is transmitted sexually.
b. T. vaginalis causes bloody diarrhea. ✔
c. T. vaginalis can be diagnosed by visualizing the trophozoite.
d. T. vaginalis can be treated effectively with metronidazole.
1877. Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct EXCEPT:
a. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the trophozoite in the stool. ✔
b. Hookworm infection is caused by Necator americanus.
c. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when filariform larvae penetrate the skin.
d. Hookworm infection can cause anemia.
1878. Each of the following statements concerning kala-azar is correct EXCEPT:
a. Kala-azar is transmitted by the bite of sandflies.
b. Kala-azar can be diagnosed by finding amastigotes in bone marrow.
c. Kala-azar occurs primarily in rural Latin America. ✔
d. Kala-azar is caused by Leishmania donovani.
1879. Mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica is:
a. binucleate
b. quadrinucleate ✔
c. uninucleate
d. octanucleate
1880. The mother of a 4-year-old child notes that her child is sleeping poorly and scratching his anal area. You
suspect the child may have pinworms. Which one of the following is the BEST method to make that
diagnosis?
a. Examine the stool for the presence of trophozoites
b. Examine transparent adhesive tape for the presence of eggs ✔
c. Examine the stool for the presence of cysts
d. etermine the titer of IgE antibody against the organism
e. Examine a blood smear for the presence of microfilaria
1881. Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is:
a. trophozoite
b. quadrinucleate cyst ✔
c. sporozoite
d. filariform larvae
1882. Each of the following statements concerning Schistosoma haematobium is correct EXCEPT:
a. Snails are intermediate hosts of S. haematobium.
b. S. haematobium infection predisposes to bladder carcinoma.
c. S. haematobium eggs have no spine. ✔
d. S. haematobium is acquired by humans when cercariae penetrate the skin.
1883. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by mosquitoes EXCEPT:
a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Plasmodium falciparum
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Leishmania donovani ✔
1884. At a school nurse’s request, a clinic in rural South Carolina sees a 9- year-old girl who appears listless and
inattentive, although hearing and visual testing has been within normal limits. The physician finds the child
thin, with the “potbelly” of malnutrition, and orders a fecal exam and CBC. The CBC reveals a microcytic,
hypochrornic anemia, and the fecal exam detects brown, oval nematode eggs approximately 65 microns in
size, too numerous to count. What was the most likely means by which this child was infected?
a. Ingestion of ova
b. Mosquito transmission of sporozoites
c. Skin penetration by larvae ✔
d. Ingestion of larvae
e. Ingestion of cysts in muscle
1885. Each of the following statements concerning hydatid cyst disease is correct EXCEPT:
a. The disease occurs primarily in tropical Africa. ✔
b. The disease is caused by Echinococcus granulosus.
c. The disease is caused by a parasite whose adult form lives in dogs’intestines.
d. The cysts occur primarily in the liver.
1886. Each of the following statements concerning Diphyllobothrium latum is correct EXCEPT:
a. D. latum has operculated eggs.
 b. D. latum is transmitted by undercooked fish.
c. D. latum is a tapeworm that has a scolex with a circle of hooks. ✔
d. D. latum causes a megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency.
1887. A 24-year-old primiparous woman in her eighth month of gestation develops a positive IgM titer to
Toxoplasma gondii for the first time. She should be advised by her physician that
a. retinochoroiditis can be prevented by drug treatment of an infant with a positive IgM response ✔
b. future infections can be avoided by proper vaccination and worming of cats
c. a newborn with a positive anti-Toxoplasma IgG response should be treated with anti-parasitics
d. major organ damage can be reversed by prompt treatment of the newborn this child and all future fetuses
are likely to be infected
1888. Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human infection EXCEPT:
a. Wuchereria bancrofti ✔
b. Ascaris lumbricoides
c. Necator americanus
d. Strongyloides stercoralis
1889. Each of the following parasites is transmitted by eating inadequately cooked fish or seafood EXCEPT:
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b. Paragonimus westermani
c. Ancylostoma duodenale ✔
d. Diphyllobothrium latum
1890. Laboratory diagnosis of a patient with a suspected liver abscess due to Entamoeba histolytica should
include:
a. Stool examination and indirect hemagglutination test ✔
b. Indirect hemagglutination test and skin test
c. Xenodiagnosis and string test
d. Stool examination and blood smear
1891. Children at day care centers in the United States have a high rate of infection with which one of the
following?
a. Necator americanus
b. Enterobius vermicularis ✔
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
1892. Mosquitoes is/are the vector in the following disorder(s)
a. Onchocerciasis
b. Bancroftian filariasis ✔
c. African trypanosomiasis
d. Visceral leishmaniasis
1893. The main anatomic location of Schistosoma mansoni adult worms is:
a. Lung alveoli
b. Renal tubules
c. Bone marrow
d. Intestinal venules ✔
1894. A 13-year-old boy from India was brought to the emergency room with a prolapsed rectum. Examination
of the rectum reveals small worms that resemble whips attached to the mucosa. A stool sample reveals eggs
that are barrel shaped, with bipolar plugs. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
a. Echinococcus granulosus
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Enterobius vermicularis
d. Trichuris trichiura ✔
e. Ascaris lumbricoides
f. Giardia lamblia
1895. Which one of the following statements concerning immunoglobulin allotypes is CORRECT?
a. Allotypes are confined to the variable regions.
b. Allotypes are found only on heavy chains.
c. Allotypes are due to genetic polymorphism within a species. ✔
 d. Allotypes are determined by class I MHC genes.
1896. The MOST important protective function of the antibody stimulated by tetanus immunization is:
a. To opsonize the pathogen (Clostridium tetani)
b. To prevent growth of the pathogen
c. To neutralize the toxin of the pathogen ✔
d. To prevent adherence of the pathogen
1897. Inactivation of a toxin by an antibody is termed:
a. Opsonization
b. Neutralization ✔
c. Lyophilization
d. Lysis
e. Attenuation
1898. An epitope is
a. the antigen determinant site ✔
b. a B-cell
c. an antibody
d. a hapten
1899. Which of the following antibodies have a positive effect on babies through breast feeding?
a. IgG
b. IgA ✔
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
1900. Isotypes of Antibodies refer to variations in the:
a. light chain variable region
b. heavy chain variable region ✔
c. heavy chain constant region
d. light chain constant region
1901. DNA vaccine contain………….. DNA that stimulates cells to make………….antigens.
a. Human/ RNA
b. Microbial/ Carbohydrate
c. Human/Lipid
d. Microbial/Protein ✔
e. Human/ Protein
1902. Regarding the primary and secondary antibody responses, which one of the following statements is MOST
accurate?
a. The amount of IgG made in the secondary response is greater than the amount made in the primary
response. ✔
b. The lag phase is shorter in the primary response than in the secondary response.
c. Antigen must be processed and presented in the primary response but not in the secondary response.
d. In the primary response, memory B cells are produced, but memory T cells are not.
e. The IgM made in the primary response is made primarily by memory B cells.
1903. “Isotype switching” of immunoglobulin classes by B cells involves:
a. Simultaneous insertion of VH genes adjacent to each CH gene
b. Activation of homologous genes on chromosome 6
c. Successive insertion of a VH gene adjacent to different CH genes ✔
d. Switching of light chain types (kappa and lambda)
1904. Of the following choices, the MOST important function of antibody in host defenses against bacteria is:
a. Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
b. Activation of lysozyme that degrades the cell wall
c. Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins
d. Facilitation of phagocytosis ✔
1905. In agglutination reactions, the antigen is a ……………… in precipitation reactions, the antigen is a
……………..
a. Protein/ Carbohydrate
 b. Soluble molecule/ Whole cell
c. Bacterium/ Virus
d. Whole cell/ Soluble molecule ✔
e. Protein/ Antibody
1906. Each of the following statements concerning haptens is correct EXCEPT:
a. A hapten can combine with (bind to) an antibody.
b. Haptens must be processed by CD8+ cells to become immunogenic. ✔
c. A hapten cannot induce an antibody by itself; rather, it must be bound to a carrier protein to be able to
induce antibody.
d. In both penicillin-induced anaphylaxis and poison ivy, the allergens are haptens.
1907. An antibody directed against the idiotypic determinants of a human IgG antibody would react with:
a. The Fc part of the IgG
b. All human kappa chains
c. All human gamma chains
d. An IgM antibody produced by the same plasma cell that produced the IgG ✔
1908. An Rh-negative woman married to a heterozygous Rh-positive man has three children. The probability
that all three of their children are Rh-positive is:
a. 1:2
b. 1:8 ✔
c. 1:4
d. Zero

1909. An immunoglobulin is a
a. glycoprotein ✔
b. fatty acid
c. protein
d. carbohydrate
1910. An antigen that overstimualtes the immune system by binding nonspecifically to MHC on antigen presenting cells
is termed
a. Non specific antigen
b. Toxic shock syndrome
c. Super necrotic
d. Super antigen ✔
e. Epitope
1911. Individuals of blood group type AB:
a. Are Rh(D)-negative
b. Have circulating anti-A and anti-B antibodies
c. Are “universal recipients” of transfusions ✔
d. Have the same haplotype
1912. The membrane IgM and IgD on the surface of an individual B cell:
a. Are identical except for their CH regions ✔
b. Have identical heavy chains but different light chains
c. Are identical except for their VH regions
d. Have different VH and VL regions
1913. Which of the following antibodies would most likely be found in body secretions such as tears, milk, saliva and
mucus?
a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgA ✔
e. IgD
1914. Which one of the following is NOT true of the gene segments that combine to make up a heavy chain gene?
a. A V segment and a J segment are preselected by an antigen to make up the
b. variable-region portion of the gene. ✔
 c. Many V region segments are available.
d. Several J segments and several D segments are available.
e. V, D, and J segments combine to encode the antigen-binding site.
1915. Mitochondria are missing in
a. Filamentous fungi
b. Cestodes
c. Protozoan parasites
d. Yeasts
e. Bacteria ✔
1916. Which one of the following statements is the MOST accurate comparison of human, bacterial, and fungal cells?
a. Human and bacterial cells have plasmids, whereas fungal cells do not
b. Human and fungal cells have a similar cell wall, in contrast to bacteria,
c. whose cell wall contain peptidoglycan
d. Human and fungal cells have similar robosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different ✔
e. Human cell undergo mitosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do
1917. Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT:
a. They are formed by gram-positive rods
b. They can be killed by being heated to 121oC for 15 minutes
c. Their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity ✔
d. They contain much less water than bacterial cells
1918. Which of the following BEST describes the mode of action of endotoxin?
a. Degrades lecithin in cell membranes
b. Blocks release of acetylcholine
c. Causes the release of tumor necrosis factor ✔
d. Inactivates elongation factor 2
1919. A cancer chemotherapy patient has to have her intravenous port revised after it becomes blocked and the catheter
is found to contain bacterial contaminants. Which of the following attributes is most likely to be a factor in this
pathogenesis?
a. Possession of IgA protease
b. Possession of pili
c. Peptidoglycan layer
d. Ergosterol containing membrane
e. Biofilm production ✔
1920. Each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct EXCEPT:
a. Spores are resistant to boiling
b. Spores are formed primarily by organisms of the genus Neisseria ✔
c. Spores are metabolically inactive and contain dipicolinic acid, a calcium chelator
d. Spores are formed under adverse environmental conditions such as the absence of a carbon source
1921. Usually, bacteria form more endospores in response to:
a. Nutrient surplus
b. Adverse environmental stress ✔
c. Colony formation
d. Need for reproduction
1922. Each of the following statements concerning endotoxin is correct EXCEPT:
a. They are part of the bacterial cells wall, whereas exotoxins are not
b. They are less potent (ie, less active on a weight basis) than exotoxins
c. They are more stable on heating than exotoxins
d. They bind to specific cells receptors whereas exotoxins do not ✔
1923. Each of the following statements regarding the selective action of antibiotics on bacteria is correct EXCEPT:
a. Penicillins affect bacteria rather than human cells because bacteria have a cell wall, whereas human cells
do not.
b. Sulfonamides affect folic acid synthesis in bacteria, a pathway that does not occur in human cells. ✔
c. Isoniazid affects the DNA polymerase of bacteria but not that of human cells.
d. Chloramphenicol affects the large subunit of the bacterial ribosome, which is different from the large
subunit of the human ribosome.
1924. A 12-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with fever, malaise, and a sore throat. Physical examination reveals
a fever of 103°F, cervical lymphadenopathy, and pharyngeal erythema. A swab is taken from some of the tonsillar
exudate and cultured on blood agar. Culture reveals beta hemolytic, gram-positive cocci, and a rapid antigen test
is positive. What is the major component that protects the causal agent from osmotic damage?
a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Polysaccharide
c. Phospholipids
d. Teichoic acid
e. Peptidoglycan ✔
1925. The effect of endotoxin include each of the following EXCEPT:
a. Activation of the coagulation cascade
b. Fever
c. Hypotension
d. Opsonization
1926. Bacterial surface structures that show antigenic diversity include each of the following EXCEPT:
a. Peptidoglycan ✔
b. Flagella
c. Pili
d. Capsules
1927. Which of the following microscopic techniques provide three-dimensional images of a bacterial cell?
a. Transmission electron microscopy
b. Scanning electron microscopy ✔
c. Dark-field microscopy
d. Fluorescent microscopy
1928. Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct EXCEPT:
a. Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium
b. Polysaccharide capsules retard phagocytosis
c. Both gram-negative rods and cocci have lipopolysaccharide “endotoxin” intheir cell wall
d. Bacterial flagella are nonantigenic in humans because they closely resemble human flagella in chemical
composition ✔
1929. Each of the following statements concerning exotoxins are correct EXCEPT:
a. When treated chemically, some exotoxins lose their toxicity and can be used as immunogens in vaccine
b. Some exotoxins are capable of causing disease in purified form, free of any bacteria
c. Some exotoxins act in the gastrointestinal tract to cause diarrhea
d. Some exotoxins contain lipopolysaccharides as the toxic components ✔
1930. Each of the following statements concerning the structure and chemical composition of bacteria is correct
EXCEPT:
a. Some gram-positive cocci contain a layer of teichoic acid external to the peptidoglycan
b. Some gram-negative rods contain lipid A in their cell wall
c. Some mycoplasmas contain pentaglycine in their peptidoglycan ✔
d. Some gram-positive rods contain dipicolinic acid in their spores
1931. The presence of a capsule around bacterial cells usually indicates their increased disease-causing potential and
resistance to disinfection. Capsules are generally viewed by:
a. Scanning electron microscopy
b. Ziehl-Neelsen staining
c. Gram staining
d. Negative staining ✔
1932. What structure is most responsible for triggering Gram-negative shock?
a. Capsule
b. Periplasmic space
c. Peptidoglycan- teichoic acid fragments
d. Outer Membrane ✔
e. Heat Shock Proteins
1933. What is an organism called that respires on the presence of oxygen and ferments in the absence of oxygen?
a. Facultative anaerobe ✔
 b. Aerobe
c. Anaerobe
d. Facultative aerobe
e. Microaerophile
1934. The MAIN host defense against bacterial exotoxins is
a. Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin
b. IgG and IgM antibodies ✔
c. Activated macrophages secreting proteases
d. Helper T cells

1935. Identify correct statement regarding Robert Koch

a. He is known as father of bacteriology
b. the causative organism of cholera, Vibrio cholera was
c. identified by him
d. He discovered hypersensitivity phenomenon
e. All the above ✔
1936. Father of antiseptic surgery is
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch
c. Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
d. Lister ✔
1937. which among the following is a contribution by Louis Pasteurin the field of microbiology?
a. Techniques of Pasteurization
b. Process of Fermentation
c. Rabies, cholera and anthrax vaccine
d. All the above ✔
1938. Mycobacterium leprae is also known as ……………
a. Golden bacilli
b. B. Koch’s bacillus
c. Magical bacilli
d. D. Hansen’s bacilli ✔
1939. Drug of choice to treat leprosy is ………
a. Rifampicin
b. Acyclovir
c. Zidovudine
d. Dapsone ✔
1940. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is also known as
a. Golden bacilli
b. Koch’s bacillus ✔
c. Magical bacilli
d. Hansen’s bacilli
1941. Correct statement regarding microscope is…….
a. Electrons are used as a source of illumination in Electron microscope
b. Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek developed microscope first time
c. Knoll & Ruska developed electron microscope
d. All the above ✔
1942. All of the following are acid-fast organisms EXCEPT
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Nocardia
c. Isospora belli
 d. Staphylococcus ✔
1943. Bacterial structure involved in respiration is
a. Ribosome
b. Pili
c. Mesosome ✔
d. Flagella
1944. Identify correct statement regarding bacteria
a. Respiration, cell division and sporulation are the functions of mesosome in bacteria
b. Capsule in bacteris enables adherence to surface and protection against phagocytosis
c. Heterotrophs are the bacteria that are unable to Synthesize their own food materials
d. All the above ✔
1945. Correct regarding cocci are ………….
a. Cocci are spherical shaped bacteria
b. Cocci present in chain is known as streptococci
c. Cocci present in the shape of grapes is known as staphylococci
d. All the above ✔
1946. Coma shaped bacteria are known as
a. Staphylococci
b. Streptococci
c. Vibrio ✔
d. Bacillus
1947. Which of the following is most resistant to sterilization?
a. Tubercle bacilli
b. Viruses
c. Spores
d. Prions ✔
1948. Endoscope is sterilized by:
a. Glutaraldehyde ✔
b. Formaldehyde
c. Atuoclaving
d. Hot ait oven
1949. Recommended transport medium for stool specimen suspected a contain VibrioCholerae is:
a. Buffered glycerol saline medium ✔
b. Venkatraman-Ramakrishanan medium
c. Nutrient broth
d. Boood agar
1950. Which is an enriched media?
a. Selenite F broth
b. Peptone water ✔
c. MacConkey agar
d. Chocolate agar
1951. Which of the following factor does not affect microbial growth?(RPSC Nsg Tutor 2009)
a. Moisture
b. Disinfection
c. Darkness ✔
d. Temperature
1952. Agar concentration required to prepare nutrient agar is:
a. 1-2% ✔
b. 4-6%
c. 0.25-0.5%
d. 0.5-1%
1953. HIV is a
a. Retrovirus ✔
b. DNA virus
c. Fungus
 d. Bacteria
1954. MRSA is mediated due to
a. Plasmid
b. Chromosome ✔
c. Transposons
d. None
1955. All of the following are vector bone diseases except
a. Malaria
b. Filariasis
c. Rubella ✔
d. Chagas disease
1956. Primary immune response the correct statement is:
a. Involves IgG
b. Antibody producing cells. Memory B cell
c. No lag period
d. Slow and sluggish ✔
1957. Which of the following infectious agents can be transmitted through blood transfusion?
a. HIV
b. Treponemapallidum
c. Toxoplasmagondi
d. All of the above ✔
1958. which one of the following is post streptococcal sequelae:
a. Acute rheumatic fever ✔
b. Cellulitis
c. cPharyngitis
d. impetigo
1959. A positive tuberculin test is indicated by and area of induration of:
a. <5mm in diameter
b. B. 6-9 mm in diameter
c. 10 mm in diameter ✔
d. Noinduration
1960. Diagnostic test used for typhoid fever is
a. Blood culture
b. Dick Test
c. shick test
d. Widal test ✔
1961. Diagnostic test used for diphtheria is
a. Blood culture
b. Dick Test
c. Shick test ✔
d. Widal test
1962. Diagnostic test used for TB is…..
a. Mantoux test ✔
b. Dick Test
c. hick test
d. Widal test
1963. Diagnostic test used for scarlet fever is ….
a. Mantoux test
b. Dick Test ✔
c. shick test
d. Widal test
1964. Diagnostic test used for typhus fever is
a. Mantoux test
b. Dick Test
c. shick test
 d. Weil Felix ✔
1965. Route of injecting shick test toxin/ purified protein derivative(mauntox test) is …………
a. Intra vascular
b. Intra dermal ✔
c. intra muscular
d. Subcutaneous
1966. Site for injecting shick test toxin/ purified protein derivative mauntox test) is …
a. Right upper arm
b. Left upper arm
c. Left fore arm ✔
d. Right forearm
1967. Most accurate method of diagnosis of Helicobacter pylori is:
a. Culture
b. Biopsy urease test
c. Histopathology
d. Urea breath test ✔
1968. All of the following viruses are transmitted by respiratory route except:
a. influenza virus
b. Rota virus ✔
c. Respiratory syncytial virus
d. Rhinovirus
1969. Acid fast staining is used to detect
a. Mycobacterium TB ✔
b. Ctetani
c. HIV/AIDS
d. Meningococci
1970. During the window period of patient with AIDS, best diagnostic test is:
a. ELISA
b. Western Blot
c. Rapid test
d. RT-PCR ✔
1971. Best indicator of HIV prognosis
a. CD4T cell count ✔
b. CD8 T cell count
c. HIV RNA
d. ELIS
1972. Most effective mode of transmission of HIV:
a. Sexual
b. Blood product ✔
c. Needle/syringe
d. Mother of fetus
1973. Most common malignancy in AIDS is;
a. Kaposi sarcoma ✔
b. B-cell lymphoma
c. Leukemia
d. Burkitt’s lymphoma
1974. Food poison is caused by ..
a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium botulism ✔
c. Corynebacteriumdiphtherae
d. Clostridium tetani
1975. Which of the following is used for sterilization of ystoscopesendoscopes and bronchoscopes?
a. Gluteraldehyde ✔
b. Ethanol
c. Methanol
 d. Ethylene oxide
1976. Method of sterilization used for culture media is…
a. Autoclave ✔
b. Hot air oven
c. Pasteurization
d. None of the above
1977. Which of the following is LIVE ATTENUATED VACCINE?
a. BCG vaccine ✔
b. Rabies vaccine
c. Diphtheria toxoid
d. Tetanustoxoid
1978. Which of the following single dose is sufficient for immunization
a. Live attenuated vaccine ✔
b. Killed vaccine
c. Taxoids
d. None of the above
1979. The method of killing of all microorganisms including their spores is known as
a. Sterilization ✔
b. Disinfection
c. Incineration
d. Lysis
1980. The method of reducing the number of pathogens from anyarticle, surface or medium is called as
a. Sterilization
b. Disinfection ✔
c. Incineration
d. lysis
1981. The causative agent of Tuberculosis (T.B.) is
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis ✔
b. Mycobacterium leprae
c. Treponemapallidum
d. Borrelia species
1982. The causative agent of Syphilis is
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Mycobacterium leprae
c. Treponemapallidum ✔
d. Borrelia species
1983. VDRL test is used for the diagnosis of
a. Syphilis ✔
b. Tuberculosis
c. Pneumonia
d. AIDS
1984. Which of the following is moist heat method ofsterilization?
a. Boiling
b. Autoclaving
c. Hot air oven
d. Both a &b ✔
1985. Temperature range used for autoclaving is….
a. 100°C for 10 min
b. 100°C for 30 min
c. 121°C for 15 min ✔
d. 121°C for 30 min
1986. ELISA is used for the diagnosis of
a. AIDS ✔
b. Night blindness
c. Sickle cell anaemia
 d. All of the above
1987. Name the first organic acid produced by microbial fermentation.
a. Acetic acid
b. Lactic acid ✔
c. Butyric acid
d. None of the above
1988. The most common viral cause of gastroenteritis:
a. Rotavirus ✔
b. Norwalk virus
c. Adenovinis
d. Hepadnavirus
1989. All are true about SARS EXCEPT:
a. Epidemic is seen in India ✔
b. Spreads by droplet
c. Diagnosed by PCR
d. Caused by a type of coronavirus
1990. Perinatal Hepatitis B transmission is maximum in
a. 1″ trimester
b. 2-trimester
c. 3 trimester
d. During delivery ✔
1991. Which Hepatitis virus is associated with highest mortality in pregnancy?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis E ✔
1992. Hepatitis virus that spreads by fecal-oral route:
a. Hepatitis A ✔
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
1993. Acute hepatitis B infection is best diagnosed by:
a. HBsAg
b. HBeAg
c. IgM Anti HBc antobody ✔
d. HBcAg
1994. Which parameter is not included in HAI surveillance?
a. CA-UTI (catheter associated urinary tract infection)
b. CLABSI (central line associated bloodstream infection)
c. VAP (ventilator associated pneumonia)
d. Open wound infections ✔
1995. Hand rub should not be used in which condition?
a. Before touching patient
b. After touching patient
c. After touching patient’s surrounding
d. Hands are visibly soiled ✔
1996. How many moments of hand hygiene have been laid down by WHO?
a. 5 ✔
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
1997. Which antibody crosses placenta?
a. IgG ✔
b. IGA
c. IgE
 d. IgM
1998. Which is an example of surface lg?
a. IgA ✔
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgM
1999. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulins?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE ✔
2000. Wheal and flare is which type of hypersensitivity reaction:
a. Type I ✔
b. Type II
c. Type IV
d. Type V
2001. Type I hypersensitivity includes all of the following except:
a. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia ✔
b. Anaphylaxis
c. Extrinsic asthma
d. Hay fever
2002. A positive tuberculin test is an example of:
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type Il hypersensitivity
c. Type IlI hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity ✔
2003. Application of skin graft for the second time from the same donor will result in:
a. First set rejection
b. Second set rejection ✔
c. Both
d. None
2004. Transplantation between members with same genetic constitution is known as:
a. Autograft
b. Isograft ✔
c. Allograft
d. Xenograft
2005. All of the following are live-attenuated vaccines except:
a. MMR
b. Yellow fever 17D vaccine
c. Salk polio vaccine ✔
d. Sabin polio vaccine
2006. Amphitrichous flagella means
a. Flagella all-round the cell
b. Flagella at both ends ✔
c. Flagella at one end
d. Flagella in tufts
2007. When Flagella is present all around the cell it is called
a. Amphitrichous
b. Monotrichous
c. Peritrichous ✔
d. Lopotrichous
2008. India ink is used to demonstrate the following part of bacteria
a. Cell wall
b. Nucleus
c. Capsule ✔
 d. Flagella
2009. Reflected light is used in
a. Light microscope
b. Phase contrast microscope
c. Darkfield microscope ✔
d. Electron microscope
2010. Bacteria that grow between 25 to 40’C are
a. Capnophilic
b. Psychrophilic
c. Thermophilic
d. Mesophilic ✔
2011. Shape of cocci
a. Rod
b. Spherical ✔
c. Comma
d. Spiral
2012. Best way of sterilizing disposable plastic syringes is:
a. UV rays
b. Autoclave
c. Gamma rays ✔
d. Hot air oven
2013. The most suitable disinfectant for decontamination of HIV contaminated endoscope is (MAH19)
a. 1% sodium hypochlorite
b. 2% glutaraldehyde ✔
c. 5% phenol
d. 70% ethanol
2014. Flexible fibre optic endoscopes are sterilized by
a. Autoclave
b. Cetrimide
c. 2% glutaraldehyde ✔
d. Gamma-radiation
2015. Which of the following organism can survive pasteurization by Holder method?
a. Mycobacterium
b. Brucella
c. Coxiella burnetii ✔
d. Salmonella
2016. Temperature and duration for flash process of Pasteurization
a. 77″ for 20 seconds ✔
b. 100°C for 20 seconds
c. 63°C for 20 seconds
d. 63C for 30 minutes
2017. Sterilization of heat labile media is done by
a. Filtration
b. Pasteurization
c. Autoclaving
d. Tyndalization ✔
2018. Immunoglobulin that is inactivated at high temperature
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. Ig?
d. IgE ✔
2019. Immunoglobulins are
a. Glycolipids
b. Glycoproteins ✔
c. Polypeptides
 d. Proteoglycans
2020. Exotoxins are usually
a. Protein ✔
b. Heat labile
c. More antigenic
d. Non-enzymatic
2021. True about exotoxins
a. Produced only by gram positive bacteria
b. Neutralized by antitoxin ✔
c. Less potent than endotoxin
d. Pyrogenic
2022. The function of an adjuvant in a vaccine is to enhance its:
a. Distribution
b. immunogenicity ✔
c. Absorption
d. Shelf life
2023. The Immunity resulting in the infant, as a result of immunization of a pregnant woman with tetanus tosold
is called
a. innate immunity
b. Natural active immunity
c. Artificial active immunity
d. Natural passive immunity ✔
2024. Anti-D given to a Rh negative pregnant woman with Rh?positive fetus, before delivery is an example of
a. Artificial active immunity
b. Artificial passive immunity ✔
c. Natural passive immunity
d. Adoptive immunity
2025. Gram-positive bacterials which is usually sensitive to penicilinis
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Enterococcus faecalis
c. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
d. Staphylococcus epidermidis
2026. Streptococ causing neonatal meningitis
a. Group-A
b. Group-B ✔
c. Group-C
d. Group-D
2027. Which of the following gram positive bacteria is responsible for food poisoning?
a. Mycoplasmas
b. Pseudomonas
c. Clostridia ✔
d. All of the above
2028. Methicillin resistance bacteria are
a. Streptococci
b. Pseudomonas
c. Haemophilus
d. Staphylococci ✔
2029. The organism causing UTI in sexually active women
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus epidermidis
c. Staphylococcus saprophyticus ✔
d. Streptococcus viridians
2030. Antibiotic used in Toxic shock syndrome
a. Vancomycin
b. Cephalosporins
 c. Streptomycin
d. Clindamycin ✔
2031. Grave’s disease belongs to
a. Type I hypersensitivity
b. Type Il hypersensitivity ✔
c. Type III hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity
2032. Type of hypersensitivity involved in Rh incompatibility
a. Type i hypersensitivity
b. Type ii hypersensitivity ✔
c. Type iii hypersensitivity
d. Type iv hypersensitivity
2033. Chemically an antigen may be
a. Lipid
b. Polysaccharide
c. Protein
d. Any of the above ✔
2034. Example of cell mediated hypersensitivity
a. Transfusion reactions
b. Arthus reactions
c. Type Il lepra reaction
d. Tuberculin test ✔
2035. Tuberculin test is an example of
a. Type hypersensitivity
b. Type Ilhypersensitivity
c. Type Ill hypersensitivity
d. Type IV hypersensitivity ✔
2036. Organism that has considerable resistance to antiseptics disinfectants and antibiotics
a. E.coli ✔
b. Pseudomonas
c. Staphylococci
d. Streptococci
2037. Endocarditis in a patient with colon cancer is caused by
a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Streptococcus bovis ✔
c. Streptococcus sanguis
d. Streptococcus mutans
2038. Which is a lactose fermenter?
a. Pseudomonas
b. Salmonella
c. Klebsiella ✔
d. Shigella
2039. Rice water stool is associated with? DNB 2015
a. Cholera ✔
b. Bacillary dysentery
c. Salmonella infection
d. Pseudomembranous colitis
2040. Bacteria associated with dental caries
a. Streptococcus mutans ✔
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Streptococcus faecalis
d. Streptococcus agalactiae
2041. Dose of human teanus Ig for post exposure prophylaxis
a. 250-500 units ✔
b. 500-750 units
 c. 750-1000 units
d. 1000-1200 units
2042. Most important cause of traveler’s diarrhea is
a. Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli ✔
b. Enteroinvasive E.coli
c. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli
d. Enteropathogenic E.coli
2043. Smallest virus is:
a. Pox virus
b. Herpes virus
c. Parvo virus ✔
d. Adeno virus
2044. incubation period of measles
a. 1-2 days
b. 3-6 days
c. 1-7 days
d. 9 – 11 days ✔
2045. Dengue is caused by
a. Alphavirus
b. Bunyavirus
c. Flavivirus ✔
d. Hantavirus
2046. Yellow fever is caused by
a. Flavivirus ✔
b. Alphavirus
c. Calcivirus
d. Bunyavirus
2047. Infective period of Aedes mosquitoes in dengue
a. 1-2 days
b. 8-10 days
c. Till next bite
d. Till death ✔
2048. Scrub typhus is transmitted by:
a. Louse
b. Trombiculid mite
c. Rat fles
d. Soft tick
2049. Tinea pedis is casued by
a. E floccosum
b. T rubrum
c. Microsporum ✔
d. T schoenleinii
2050. Tenia pedia is seen among
a. People of cold countries
b. Those wearings socks and shoes ✔
c. Those walking barefoot
d. Hospitalized peope
2051. Chances of perinatal HIV infectin to the baby
a. 0.5-1%
b. 30% 11
c. 50%
d. 90%
2052. VDRL is used in the diagnosis of
a. Syphilis ✔
b. HIV
 c. Typhoid
d. Tuberculosis
2053. Incubation period for primary syphilis
a. 1-2 days
b. 1-2 weeks
c. 1 month ✔
d. 3 months
2054. Jarisch-Harxheimer reaction is common in
a. Congenital syphilis
b. Primary syphilis
c. Secondary syphilis ✔
d. Tertiary syphilis
2055. Lyme disease is caused by
a. Borrelia vincenti
b. Borrelia burgdoferi ✔
c. Borrelia recurrentis
d. Leptospira interrogans
2056. SARS virus is a
a. Coronavirus ✔
b. Lentivirus
c. Calcivirus
d. Arenavirus
2057. Which one of the following agent can be used to malaria?
a. Chloroquine ✔
b. Albendazole
c. Attenuated vaccine
d. Chloramphenice
2058. Range of incubation period in typhoid
a. 3-21 days ✔
b. 10- 30 Day
c. 1 – 3 months
d. 3-6 months
2059. Route of administration of influenza vaccine
a. Intradermal
b. Subcutaneous
c. Per oral
d. intranasal ✔
2060. Incubation period for influenza pandemic H1N1
a. 12-24 hours
b. 1-3 days
c. 1 – 7 days ✔
d. 5-10 day
2061. Incubation period of mumps
a. 1-7 days
b. 7-14 days
c. 12-24 days ✔
d. 21-28 days
2062. Usual dose of purified protein derivative in Mantoux testis
a. 5 IU ✔
b. 50 IU
c. 100 IU
d. 500IU
2063. Corneal beading is a complication of
a. Leprosy ✔
b. AIDS
 c. Herpes simplex keratitis
d. Acanthamoeba keratitis
2064. Most common site of extrathoracic TB in children
a. Lymph node ✔
b. Skeleton
c. Central nervous system
d. Heart
2065. Mantoux +ve is induration measuring
a. 10mm ✔
b. 6-9mm
c. <5mm
d. 20mm
2066. The botulism intoxication occurs due to
a. An endotoxin
b. An exotoxin
c. Neurotoxin ✔
d. Mycotoxin
2067. Aorta arises from
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle ✔
2068. The protein portion of the enzyme is
a. Apoenzyme ✔
b. Prosthetic group
c. Co-factor
d. Coenzyme
2069. Which of the following cells is not a WBC ?
a. Neutrophil
b. Basophil
c. Manocyte
d. Thrombocyte ✔
2070. The colouring agent used in antisera AB is
a. Methelene blue
b. Acriflavin
c. Eosin ✔
d. Safranin
2071. Name the anticoagulant present in purple coloured vacutainer tube
a. Heparin
b. EDTA ✔
c. Sodium citrate
d. None of these
2072. pH of buffered distilled water used in Leishman’s staining is
a. 6.8 ✔
b. 7.2
c. 7.4
d. 8
2073. Blood collected in CPD-A can be stored in blood bank refrigerator for __ days.
a. 35 ✔
b. 28
c. 21
d. 25
2074. HDN due to Rh incompatibility can be prevented by giving anti-D antibody to Rh negative mother
within __ hours of delivery of positive infant.
a. 48 hrs
 b. 72 hrs ✔
c. 24 hrs
d. 36 hrs
2075. Which of the following is not an RBC diluting fluid ?
a. Normal saline
b. Dacies fluid
c. Turkes fluid ✔
d. Toissons fluid
2076. During donor screening persons having history of malaria should be avoided for a period of ___ years.
a. 1 week
b. 2 years
c. 1 year
d. 3 years ✔
2077. Bombay blood group persons have _ antigen in their blood.
a. A Ag
b. B Ag
c. h Ag ✔
d. H Ag
2078. Depth of improved neubauer counting chamber is
a. 0.1 mm ✔
b. .01 mm
c. .001 mm
d. 1 mm
2079. Name the enzyme estimation done in semen sample to analyse the secretory function of prostate
a. alanine transaminase
b. asparte transaminase
c. acid phosphatase ✔
d. alkaline phasphatase
2080. The only cell in normal CSF is
a. Neutrophil
b. Lymphocyte ✔
c. Manocyte
d. None of these
2081. Name the tests used to detect bile salt in urine.
a. Benzidine test
b. Fouchet’s test
c. Ehrlich’s test
d. Hays test ✔
2082. Ketone bodies in urine are
a. acetone
b. beta` hydroxy butyric acid
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of these
2083. Normal sperm count is
a. 80 – 160 millions / ml ✔
b. 40 – 80 millions / ml
c. 100 – 120 millions / ml
d. 140 – 200 millions / ml
2084. Name the hormone detected in pregnancy.
a. ADH
b. GH
c. TSH
d. hCG ✔
2085. Specific gravity of urine less than 1.010 indicates
a. Diabetes millitus
 b. Diabetes insipidus ✔
c. Diabetic ketoacidosis
d. None of the above
2086. ‘Glucose memory test’ is
a. GCT
b. HbA1c ✔
c. GTT
d. PPBS
2087. Which of the following is not a renal function test ?
a. Serum urea
b. Serum creatinine
c. Cystatin – C
d. Total cholesterol ✔
2088. Who is known as ‘father of microbiology’ ?
a. Louis Pasteur ✔
b. Robert Koch
c. Alexander Fleming
d. Edward Jenner
2089. Serum electrolytes are analysed using
a. Calorimeter
b. Flamephotometer ✔
c. Spectrophotometer
d. None of these
2090. Van-den-Bergh reaction is used to detect
a. Serum creatinine
b. Serum urea
c. Serum bilirubin ✔
d. Blood glucose
2091. Cob-Web appearance of clot in CSF indicates
a. Jaundice
b. Haemorrhage
c. Spinal constriction
d. Tuberculous meningitis ✔
2092. _ is otherwise known as ‘bad cholesterol’.
a. LDL ✔
b. HDL
c. VLDL
d. Chylomicrons
2093. All the following are motile bacteria except
a. E.Coli
b. Klebsiella ✔
c. Vibrio
d. Proteus
2094. Oils and grease can be sterilised using
a. autoclave
b. vaccine bath
c. hot air oven ✔
d. none of these
2095. Solidifying agent of a culture media is
a. peptone
b. meat extract
c. Sodium chloride
d. agar ✔
2096. __ is added to Mac Conkeys agar to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria.
a. Bile salt ✔
 b. Peptone
c. Neutral red
d. Agar
2097. All the following are examples of transport media except
a. VR medium
b. Thioglycollate medium ✔
c. Stuarts medium
d. Amies medium
2098. Which of the following tests come under IMViC tests ?
a. Coagulase test
b. Catalase test
c. Citrate utilisation test ✔
d. None of above
2099. The type of immunoglobulin which provides local immunity is
a. IgM
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgA ✔
2100. Confirmatory tests for AIDs is
a. Western blot ✔
b. Southern blot
c. ELISA
d. CLIA
2101. The bacteria which require ‘X’ and ‘V’ factors for its growth is
a. staphylococcus
b. haemophilus ✔
c. brucella
d. salmonella
2102. RPR and VDRL tests are done for the diagnosis of
a. AIDs
b. Hepatitis
c. Syphilis ✔
d. Malaria
2103. All the following are examples of blood parasites except
a. Plasmodium
b. Brugia malayi
c. Leishmania
d. Giardia lamblia ✔
2104. The fixative used for blood containing specimen is
a. Carnoy’s fluid ✔
b. 95% ethyl alcohol
c. 10% formalin
d. Zenker’s fluid
2105. Staining technique for assessment of hormonal status is
a. Pap stain
b. Shorrs stain ✔
c. H & E stain
d. JSB stain
2106. The ‘word’ which refers to the ‘closeness of a result on repeated analysis’ is
a. accuracy
b. Sensitivity
c. precision ✔
d. specificity
2107. ‘Mycology’ means the study of
a. bacteria
 b. immunity
c. parasites
d. fungus ✔
2108. Infections induced by a ‘physician’ is known as
a. iatrogenic ✔
b. nosocomial
c. congenital
d. subclinical
2109. The enzyme estimation done for the diagnosis of pancreatitis
a. acid phosphatase
b. amylase ✔
c. alkaline phosphatase
d. creatinine kinase
2110. The basic component of Leishman’s stain is
a. cosin
b. malachite green
c. methelene blue ✔
d. none of the above
2111. Name the blood cells increased in asthma
a. basophil
b. neutrophil
c. lymphocyte
d. cosinophil ✔
2112. Intermediate host of plasmodium is
a. man ✔
b. female anopheles mosquito
c. male anopheles mosquito
d. none of the above
2113. Which of the following is a Romanowsky stain
a. Leishmans stain
b. Giemsas stain
c. Jenners stain
d. All the above ✔
2114. In wintrobes mixture, ammonium oxalate and potassium oxalate is mixed in the ratio
a. 2 : 3
b. 3 : 2 ✔
c. 1 : 4
d. 2 : 1
2115. The anticoagulant used in OFT is
a. EDTA
b. Citrate
c. Heparin ✔
d. Sodium flouride-potassium oxalate mixture
2116. The bacteria showing swarming growth is
a. E.coli
b. Salmonella
c. Proteus ✔
d. All the above
2117. To remove blood clots from blood pipette, it is immersed in
a. KOH ✔
b. NH_4OH
c. INHCl
d. 3% acetic acid
2118. Incomplete antibodies are detected using
a. Electrophoresis
 b. Coombs test ✔
c. Agglutination test
d. VDRL test
2119. Causes spurious decrease in MCV
a. Cryofibrinogen ✔
b. hyperglycemia
c. autoaggutination
d. high WBC ct
e. reduced red cell deformability
2120. When the entire CBC is suppressed due to either anemia,infection, or hemorrhage is called?
a. Erythroplasia
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Pancytopenia ✔
d. Leukopenia
2121. Total RBC count for Women is?
a. 4.4-6
b. 4.2-5
c. 4.0-5.0 ✔
d. 4.2-5.2
2122. Total RBC for men?
a. 4.0-5.0
b. 4.6-6.0 ✔
c. 4.2-6.5
d. 4.0-6.0
2123. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
a. Hemosiderin
b. Ferritin ✔
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin
2124. The best source of active bone marrow from a 20-year old would be:
a. Iliac Crest (hip) ✔
b. Femur (thigh)
c. Distal radius (forearm)
d. Tibia (shin)
2125. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Determination of relative size of RBC. 82-98 f1
a. MCH
b. MCV ✔
c. MCHC
d. PCV
2126. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices: Measurement of average weight of Hb/RBC. 27-33 pg
a. MCH
b. MCV ✔
c. MCHC
d. PCV
2127. Laboratory Studies: Red Cell Indices Evaluation of RBC saturation with Hb. 32-36%
a. MCV
b. MCH
c. MCHC ✔
d. PCV
2128. There are 3 classifications of Anemia. What are they?
a. In adequate production of Hb ✔
b. Decreased RBC production
c. Increased Erythrocyte destruction
d. Blood loss
2129. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
 a. Hemosiderin
b. Ferritin ✔
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin
2130. Folic acid therapy can cause sickle cell anemia
a. True
b. False ✔
c. Both
d. none
2131. Hydroxyurea increases hemoglobin production and decreases reticulocyte cells.
a. True ✔
b. False
c. Both
d. none
2132. Hydroxyurea:
a. decreases nitric oxide
b. increases neutrophil and monocytes
c. inhibits DNA synthesis by acting as aribonucleotide reductase inhibitor ✔
d. none
2133. Hydroxyurea icreases thhe serum uric acid levels.
a. True ✔
b. False
c. Both
d. none
2134. Decitabine increases the fetal hemoglobin production by inducing methylation of DNA and thus prevents
the switch from gamma to beta-globin production.
a. True
b. False ✔
c. Both
d. none
2135. Hypocupremia is seen in
a. osetoporosis, nephrotic disease
b. sprue, cliac disease
c. cardiovascular disease, colon cancer
d. A andB
e. B and C
f. All of the above ✔
2136. Wilsons disease can cause liver problems
a. True ✔
b. False
c. Both
d. none
2137. What are the treatment options for wilson’s disease?
a. A. Pencillamine
b. B. Riboflavin
c. C. Trientine
d. D. Potassium disulfide
e. E. Zinc
f. A, B and C
g. A, C, and D
h. A, C, D, and E ✔
2138. Aplasia can occur because of riboflavin deficiency?
a. True ✔
b. False
c. Both
 d. none
2139. Angular stomatitis. cheilosis is a symptom of vitamin B12 deficiency?
a. True
b. False ✔
c. Both
d. none
2140. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
a. Hemosiderin
b. Ferritin ✔
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin
2141. Which test can be used to detect hemolytic anemia?
a. Coombs test ✔
b. Genetic testing
c. Peripheral blood smear (PBS)
d. Schilling test
2142. Which anemia is classified as not being able to use iron properly to synthesize hemoglobin because of a
inherited cause.
a. Iron deficiency anemia
b. hypochromic anemia ✔
c. aplastic anemia
2143. what is normal fasting Blood sugar,
a. 100-200
b. 70-110 ✔
c. 90_120
d. None
2144. This fatal disorder results from clot/thrombus formation in the blood ciruclation
a. thromboembolism
b. DVT
c. PAD
d. Pulmonary embolism
e. All of the above ✔
2145. Homan’s sign is classified as pain behind the knee
a. True ✔
b. False
c. None
2146. Patients that are sensitive to aspirin can take
a. Sulfinpyrazone
b. Clopidogrel
c. Ticlopidine
d. 1 and 2
e. 2 and 3 ✔
2147. What is the life span of RBC
a. 120 ✔
b. 100
c. 200
d. 80
2148. What is the major metabolically available storage form of iron in the body?
a. Hemosiderin
b. Ferritin ✔
c. Transferrin
d. Hemoglobin
2149. The most common type of protein found in the cell membrane is:
a. Lipoprotein
b. Mucoprotein
 c. Glycoprotein ✔
d. Nucleoprotein
2150. A multilineage cytokine among the ILs is
a. IL-1 ✔
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
2151. Warfarin should be used with caution in the following:
a. Alcoholic liver disease
b. Gastrointestinal bleeding
c. recent neurosugery
d. Liver impairment ✔
2152. Isozymes of 2C can greatly effect warfarin
a. True ✔
b. False
c. none
2153. absolute lymphocytosis 5000/mm^3) without adenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia
is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?
a. Stage 0 ✔
b. Stage I
c. Stage II
d. Stage III
e. Stage IV
2154. Conventional treatment is Rai stage II for
a. Antibiotics
b. chemotherapy ✔
c. Antivirals
d. rest
2155. In patients with low numbers of neoplastic cells, sometimes due to treatment, PCR to amplify DNA can
improve sensitivity, and detect signs of relapse.
a. True ✔
b. False
c. none
2156. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is most common leukemia in what kind of people? Slide 4
a. young adults
b. older adults ✔
c. None
2157. absolute lymphocytosis and thrombocytopenia( < 100,000/mm^3) with or without lymphadenopathy,
hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, or anemia is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?
a. Stage 0
b. Stage I
c. Stage II
d. Stage III
e. Stage IV ✔
2158. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia is characterized by peripheral blood and bone marrow
a. lymphocytopenia
b. lymphocytosis ✔
2159. absolute lymphocytosis with either hepatomegaly or splenomegaly with or without lymphadenopathy is
what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring-Rai Staging System?
a. Stage 0
b. Stage II
c. Stage II ✔
d. Stage II
e. Stage Iv
2160. absolute lymphocytosis without lymphadenopathy without hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, or
thrombocytopenia is what stage in CLL prognosis Scoring Rai Staging System?
a. Stage 0
b. Stage I ✔
c. Stage II
d. Stage II
e. Stage IV
2161. IN Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia the Lymphocyte appearance: small or slightly larger than normal,
hyper?condensed(almost. nuclear chromatin patter, bare nuclei called “smuA. sdge cells” are common.
a. occer-ball ✔
b. basketball
c. football
d. tennis-ball
2162. Which of the following forms of Hh molecule has the lowest affinity for oxygen?
a. Tense ✔
b. Relaxed
c. Arterial
d. Venous
2163. What is the recommended cleaner for removing all oil from objective lens?
a. 70 % alcohol or lens cleaner ✔
b. Xylene
c. Water
d. Benzene
2164. Intravascular hemolysis is the result of trauma to RBCs while in the circulation
a. True ✔
b. False
2165. Blood Hb level changes in mornging and evening Time.
a. 1gm%
b. 2gm%
c. 1.5Gm% ✔
d. 2.5gm%
2166. The shape of a cell is maintained by which of the following?
a. Microtubules ✔
b. Spindle Fibers
c. Ribosomes
d. Centrioles
2167. At which month of fetal development does the bone marrow become the primary site of hematopoiesis?
a. 2nd
b. 5th
c. End of 6th month ✔
d. End of 7th month
2168. Which types of cells develop from yolk sacs (Mesoblastic phase)?
a. Hb F, Hg A2, and Hg A
b. Gower 1 and Gower 2 Hgb
c. Portland Hgb
d. Only Erythrobla ✔
2169. Normal Adult Hb A contains the following polypeptide chains:
a. alpha and beta ✔
b. alpha and epsilon
c. alpha and delta
d. alpha and brotherton
2170. Allergic reactions are frequently associated with an increase in the prescence of:
a. Lymphocytes
b. Neutrophils
c. Monocytes
 d. Eosinophils ✔
2171. Lipid exchange between the RBC membrane and the plasma occurs:
a. To replace lost lipids in the membrane ✔
b. To provide a mechanism for excretion of lipid-soluble RBC waste products
c. To ensure symmetry between the composition of the interior and exterior lipid layers
d. To provide lipid-soluble nutrients to the RBC
2172. After the microscope has been adjusted for Kohler illumination, light intensity should never be regulated
by using the…
a. Rheostat
b. Neutral density filter
c. Kohler magnifier
d. Condenser ✔
2173. Which of the followong types of microscopy is valuable in the identification of crystals that are able to
rotate ight?
a. Compound brightfield
b. Darkfield
c. Polarizing ✔
d. Phase-contrast
2174. During the Medullary Phase of hematopoietic development, which bone is the first to show hematopoietic
activity?
a. Femur
b. Iliac Crest
c. Skull
d. Clavicle ✔
2175. Given the following values, calculate the RPI Observed reticulocyte count – 6% Hct-30°%
a. 2 ✔
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
2176. The lipids of the RBC membrane are arranged:
a. In chains beneath a protein exoskeleton
b. So that the hydrophobic portions are facing the plasma
c. In a hexagonal lattice
d. In two layers that are not symmetric in composition ✔
2177. The hexose monophosphate pathway activity increases the RBC source of
a. Glucose and lactic acid
b. 2,3-BPG and methemoglobin
c. NADPH and reduced glutathione ✔
d. ATP and other purine metabolites
2178. Which single feature of normal RBC’s is most responsible for limiting their life span?
a. Loss of mitochondria
b. Increased flexibility of the cell membrane
c. Reduction of Hb iron
d. Loss of nucleus ✔
2179. In the Iron cycle, the transferrin receptor carries:
a. Iron out of duodenal cells from the intestinal lumen
b. Iron out of duodenal cells into the plasma
c. transferrin-bound iron in the plasma ✔
d. transferrin-bound iron into erythrocytes
2180. A multilineage cytokine among the ILs is
a. IL-1 ✔
b. IL-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
2181. Which of the following cells may develop in sites other than the bone marrow?
 a. Monocyte
b. Lymphocyte ✔
c. Megakaryocyte
d. Neutrophil
2182. The acceptable range for hemoglobin values on a control sample is 13+or-0.4 g/dL. A hemoglobin
determination is performed five times in succession on the same control sample. The results are (in g/dL. 12
12.3,12, 12.2, and 12.1) These results are:
a. Precise, but not accurate ✔
b. Both accurate and precise
c. Accurate, but not precise
d. Neither accurate nor precise
2183. The layer of the erythrocyte membrane that is largely responsible for the shape, structure, and
deformability of the cell is the
a. Integral protein
b. Exterior lipid
c. Peripheral protein ✔
d. Interior lipid
2184. During midfetal life, the primary source of blood cells is the:
a. Bone marrow
b. Spleen
c. Lymph Nodes
d. Liver ✔
2185. According to Pasteur statements which one of the following is true
a. Living organisms discriminate between stereoisomers ✔
b. Fermentation is a aerobic process
c. Living organisms doesn’t discriminate between stereoisomers
d. Both a and b
2186. “I found floating therin earthly particles, some green streaks, spirally wound serpent-wise, and orderly
arranged, the whole circumstance of each of these streaks was abut the thickness of a hair on one’s
head”…. These words are of
a. Leeuwenhoek ✔
b. A. Jenner
c. Pasteur
d. Koch
2187. The principle light- trapping pigment molecule in plants, Algae, and cyanobacteria is
a. Chlorophyll a ✔
b. Chlorophyll b
c. Porphyrin
d. Rhodapsin
2188. During Bio Geo chemical cycle some amount of elemental carbon was utilized by the microorganisms. The
phenomenon is called as
a. Dissimilation
b. Immobilization ✔
c. Decomposition
d. Neutralization
2189. Who demonstrated that open tubes of broth remained free of bacteria when air was free of dust.
a. Abbc Spallanzani
b. John Tyndall ✔
c. Francisco Redi
d. Pasteur
2190. Reverse isolation would be appropriate for
a. a patient with tuberculosis ✔
b. a patient who has had minor surgery
c. a patient with glaucoma
d. a patient with leukemia
2191. The symptome “ general feeling of illness and discomfort “ is called
a. Cystitis
b. Malaise ✔
c. Anaphylactic shock
d. Arthritis
2192. On soybean which of the following forms symbiotism
a. Azatobactor paspali
b. Rhizobium
c. Nostoc
d. Bradyrhizobium ✔
2193. Who provide the evidence that bacteriophage nucleic acid but not protein enters the host cell during
infection
a. Alfred D.Hershey & Leonard Tatum in 1951.
b. Alfred D.Hershey & Zindar Lederberg in 1951.
c. Alfred D.Hershey & Martha Chase in 1952. ✔
d. Alfred D.Hershey & Macleod in 1952.
2194. Spirulina belongs to
a. Xanthophyceae
b. Cyanophyceae ✔
c. Rhodophyceae
d. Pheophyceae
2195. The first antibody to contact invading microorganisms was
a. IgG
b. IgM ✔
c. IgA
d. IgD
2196. The light emitted by luminescent bacteria is mediated by the enzyme
a. Coenzyme Q
b. Luciferase
c. Lactose dehydrogenase ✔
d. Carboxylase reductase
2197. Pick out the vector using in human Genome project
a. Phagemid vector
b. Yeast artificial chromosomes ✔
c. Cosmid vectors
d. Yeast episomal plasmids
2198. Salt and sugar preserve foods because they
a. Make them acid
b. Produce a hypotonic environment
c. Deplete nutrients
d. Produce a hypertonic environment ✔
2199. In a fluorescent microscope the objective lens is made of
a. Glass
b. Quartz
c. Polythene ✔
d. None of these
2200. Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen is by means of
a. Biological process
b. Lightining
c. Ultraviolet light
d. All of the above ✔
2201. Which one of the following fungi is the most serious threat in a bone marrow transplant unit?
a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus ✔
c. Blastomyces
 d. Cryptococus
2202. Direct microscopic count can be done with the aid of
a. Neuberg chamber ✔
b. Anaerobic chamber
c. Mineral oil
d. Olive oil
2203. The image obtained in a compound microscope is
a. Real
b. Virtual ✔
c. Real inverted
d. Virtual inverted
2204. Enzymes respons ib le for a lcoho l ic fermentation
a. Ketolase
b. Zymase ✔
c. Peroxidase
d. Oxidase
2205. Which type of spores are produced sexually?
a. Conidia
b. Sporangiospores
c. Ascospores ✔
d. None of these
2206. Bacterial transformation was discovered by
a. Ederberg and Tatum ✔
b. Beadle and Tatum
c. Griffith
d. None of these
2207. Father of microbiology is
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Lister
c. A.V. Leeuwenhock ✔
d. Robert Koch
2208. The antiseptic method was first demonstrated by
a. Lwanowski
b. Lord Lister ✔
c. Edward Jenner
d. Beijerinck
2209. Small pox vaccine was first discovered by
a. Robert Koch
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Lister
d. Edward Jenner ✔
2210. The term mutation was coined by
a. Pasteur
b. Darwin
c. Hugo devries ✔
d. Lamark
2211. Compound microscope was discovered by
a. Antony von
b. Pasteur
c. Johnsen & Hans ✔
d. None of these
2212. Father of Medical Microbiology is
a. Pasteur
b. Jenner
c. Koch ✔
 d. A.L.Hock
2213. Disease that affects many people at different countries is termed as
a. Sporadic
b. Pandemic ✔
c. Epidemic
d. Endemic
2214. Prophylaxis of cholera is
a. Protected water supply
b. Environmental sanitation ✔
c. Immunization with killed vaccines
d. All of these
2215. In electron microscope, what material is used as an objective lense?
a. Magnetic coils ✔
b. Superfine glass
c. Aluminium foils
d. Electrons
2216. The main feature of prokaryotic organism is
a. Absence of locomotion
b. Absence of nuclear envelope ✔
c. Absence of nuclear material
d. Absence of protein synthesis
2217. The stalked particles on the cristae of mitochondria are called
a. Glyoxysomes
b. Peroxisomes ✔
c. Oxysomes
d. Spherosomes
2218. Antiseptic methods were first introduced by
a. Lord Lister ✔
b. Iwanowski
c. Beijernick
d. Edward Jenner
2219. Kuru disease in Humans is caused by
a. Bacteria
b. Viroides
c. Prions ✔
d. Mycoplasma
2220. A mutation that produces termination codon is
a. Mis-sense mutation
b. Neutral mutation
c. Non-sense mutation ✔
d. Reverse mutation
2221. During conjunction the genetic material will be transferred through
a. Cell wall
b. Medium
c. Pili ✔
d. Capsule
2222. Antiseptic surgery was discovered by
a. Joseph Lister ✔
b. Ernest Abbe
c. Pasteur
d. Beijerink
2223. Tuberculosis is a
a. Water borne disease
b. Air borne disease ✔
c. Food borne disease
 d. Atthropod borne disease
2224. Phagocytic phenomenon was discovered by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Alexander Fleming
c. Metchnikof ✔
d. Robert Koch
2225. Meosomes are also known as
a. Mitochondria
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Plasmids
d. Chondroids ✔
2226. Hybridoma technique was first discovered by.
a. Kohler and Milstein ✔
b. Robert Koch
c. ‘D’ Herelle
d. Land Steiner
2227. The minimum number of bacter is required to produce clinical evidence of death in a susceptible animal
under standard condition is called
a. LD50
b. ID
c. MLD ✔
d. All of these
2228. In Electron Microscope source of electrons is from
a. Mercury lamp
b. Tungsten metal ✔
c. both a and b
d. None of these
2229. Griffith (1928) reported the phenomenon of transformation first in
a. H. influenzae
b. Bacillus species
c. Pneumococci ✔
d. E.coli
2230. The resolution power of the compound microscope is
a. 0.2 micron ✔
b. 0.2 millimeter
c. 0.2 Angstrom units
d. 0.2 centimeter
2231. The capacity of a given strain of microbial species to produce disease is known as
a. Pathogen
b. Virulence ✔
c. Infection
d. None of these
2232. Monoclonal antibodies are associated with the name of
a. Burnet ✔
b. Medwar
c. Milstein kohler
d. Owen
2233. Lederberg and Tatum (1946) described the phenomena of
a. Conjunction ✔
b. Transformation
c. Mutation
d. Plasmids
2234. Hanging drop method for motility study was first introduced by
a. Robert Koch
b. Louis Pasteur
 c. Jenner
d. Leeuwenhock ✔
2235. Electron microscope gives magnification upto
a. 100 X
b. 2000 X
c. 50,000 X
d. 2,00,000 X ✔
2236. Term vaccine was coined by
a. Robert Koch
b. Pasteur ✔
c. Needham
d. None of these
2237. The inventor of Microscope is
a. Galileo
b. Antony von ✔
c. Pasteur
d. Koch
2238. First Pasteur conducted fermentation experiments in
a. Milk
b. Food material
c. Fruit juices ✔
d. Both a and c
2239. Modern concepts of chemotherapy was proposed by
a. Paul Ehrlich ✔
b. Joseph Lister
c. Elie Metchnikoff
d. None of these
2240. The role of phagocytosis was discovered by
a. Paul Ehrlich
b. Joseph lister
c. Elie Metchikoff ✔
d. Pasteur
2241. L – forms are discovered by
a. Klein Berger ✔
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Robert Koch
d. Antony von Leeuwenhock
2242. The causative organism of rocky mountain spotted fever was first described by
a. Howard Ricketts
b. da Rocha-lima
c. Both a and b ✔
d. Robert Koch
2243. The term bacteriophage was coined by
a. De’Herelle ✔
b. F.W. Twort
c. Beijernick
d. Jwanosky
2244. Viral infection of bacteria was discovered by
a. De’Herelle
b. F.W. Twort ✔
c. Beijernick
d. Jwanoksy
2245. Eye cannot resolve any image less than
a. 1ìm
b. 2ìm
 c. 7ìm
d. 5ìm ✔
2246. Compound Microscope was discovered by
a. A.V. Lewenhoek
b. Pasteur
c. Janssen and Hans ✔
d. None of these
2247. Electron Microscope was discovered by
a. Prof. Fritz
b. Janssen and Hans
c. Knoll and Ruska ✔
d. None of these
2248. Magnification range of light microscope is
a. 1000x – 5000x
b. 1000x – 2000x ✔
c. 500x – 1000x
d. None of these
2249. Condensation of light in light Microscope is by
a. Objective
b. Condensor ✔
c. Ocular
d. All of these
2250. Light gathering capacity of Microscope is called
a. Numerical aperture ✔
b. Angular aperture
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
2251. If 10x and 40x objectives are used (air is the medium), the numerical aperture is
a. 1.5
b. 2.0
c. 1.0 ✔
d. 1.8
2252. The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects into two separate objects, is called.
a. Resolving power ✔
b. Wave length
c. N.A.
d. None of these
2253. Limit of resolution of compound microscope is
a. 0.018 Ao
b. 0.1 mm ✔
c. 5 ìm
d. 1 mm
2254. Source of light in fluorescence microscopy is from
a. Mercury lamp ✔
b. Sunlight
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
2255. Who perfected a magnetic lens in 1927
a. Gabor ✔
b. Broglie
c. Busch
d. None of these
2256. The magnefication power of electron microscope developed by Knell and Ruska is
a. 10,000x
b. 12,000x ✔
 c. 15,000x
d. 20,000x
2257. In electron microscope source of electrons is from
a. Mercury lamp
b. Tungsten metal ✔
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
2258. The e lectron passed out from the specimen are called
a. Primary electrons
b. Secondary electrons ✔
c. Tertiary electrons
d. None of these
2259. Mycorrhiza was first observed by
a. Funk
b. Frank ✔
c. Fisher
d. Crick
2260. The transfer of genetic material during transformation is proved basing on Griffith’s experiment by
a. Avery Macleod & Mc.Carthy ✔
b. Lederberg & Taulum
c. Zinder & Lederberg
d. Watson & Crick
2261. Phagocytic theory was proposed by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Elie Metchnikoff ✔
c. Behring
d. Widal
2262. Anaphylaxia was first observed by
a. Parter & Richet ✔
b. Coombs
c. Gell
d. None of these
2263. Primary mediators in anaphylaxis
a. Histamine
b. Seratonin
c. Heparin
d. All of these ✔
2264. Arthus reaction was discovered by
a. Marrice Arthus ✔
b. Von Perquit
c. Richet
d. Porter
2265. Serum sickness reaction was discovered by
a. Marrice Arthus
b. Von perquit ✔
c. Richet
d. Porter
2266. Hybridoma technique was developed by
a. Kochler & Milston
b. Niel’s Jerne
c. Both a and b ✔
d. None of these
2267. Disease that effects many people at different countries is termed as
a. Sporadic ✔
b. Pandemic
 c. Epidemic
d. Endemic
2268. If the vectors transmit the infection mechanically they are called
a. Biological vectors
b. Mechanical vectors ✔
c. Biological reservoir
d. Both a and c
2269. If a person can be infected by direct contact with infected tissue of another person, it is termed as
a. Indirect contact transmission
b. Attachment
c. Direct contact transmission ✔
d. None of these
2270. Reduction of virulence is known as
a. Exaltation
b. Attenuation ✔
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
2271. Enhancement of virulence is known as
a. Exaltation ✔
b. Attenuation
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
2272. The virulence of a pathogen is usually measured by
a. LD
b. MLD
c. ID
d. All of the above ✔
2273. The lethal dose required to kill 50% of the lab animals tested under standard called
a. ID
b. LD50 ✔
c. ID50
d. MLD
2274. The most important virulence factors are
a. Adhesions
b. Invasiveness
c. Toxigenicity
d. Enzymes
e. All of the above ✔
2275. The ability of a pathogen to spread in ths host tissues after establishing the infection is known as
a. Adhesion
b. Invasiveness ✔
c. Toxigenicity
d. None of these
2276. Which is the following enzyme acts as a spreading factor?
a. Hyaluronidase ✔
b. Coagulase
c. Catalase
d. DNase
2277. Vibrio Cholerae was discovered by
a. Koch
b. Metchnikoff ✔
c. John Snow
d. Virchow
2278. E.coli was first isolated by
a. Louis Pasteur
 b. Escherich ✔
c. Shiga
d. Robert Koch
2279. Mycobacterium tuberculosis was first discovered by
a. Robert Koch ✔
b. Edward Jenner
c. Louis Pasteur
d. None of these
2280. Mycobacterium lepree was discovered by
a. Robert Koch
b. Hansen ✔
c. Edward Jenner
d. Louis Pasteur
2281. Streptococcus pneumoniae was isolated by
a. Robert Koch
b. Edward Jenner
c. Antony von Leewenhock
d. Louis Pasteur ✔
2282. B.anthracis was isolated by
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch ✔
c. Antonyvon Leewenhok
d. None of these
2283. Staphylococcus aureus was isolated by
a. Rosenbach
b. Louis Pasteur ✔
c. Passet
d. Sir Alexander Ogston
2284. Pseudomonas aeruginosa was first named
a. Schroeter and Gessard ✔
b. Robert Koch
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Edward Jenner
2285. T. pallidum was discovered by
a. Robert Koch
b. Schaudinn and Hoffman ✔
c. Louis Pasteur
d. Edward Jenner
2286. Neisseria gonorrhoeae was first described by
a. Neisser in 1879
b. Pasteur in 1878 ✔
c. Robert Koch
d. None of these
2287. Rh factor of the blood was discovered by scientist
a. Louis Pasteur
b. Landsteiner and Weiner ✔
c. Janskey
d. Moss
e. None of these
2288. Trepanema pallidum was discovered by
a. Schaudinn and Hoffman ✔
b. Louis Pasteur
c. Burgey
d. Laennec
e. None of these
2289. Fluroscent substance used in fluorescent microscopy are
a. Quinine sulphate
b. Auramine
c. All of these ✔
d. None of these
2290. Cold like symptoms are caused by which bacteria
a. Pseudomonas
b. E.coli
c. Haemophilus influenza ✔
d. Haemophilus streptococcus
2291. In Streptococcus fecalis, the conjugation takes place at
a. Pili
b. Cell membrane
c. Cell wall ✔
d. Flagella
2292. The infected mad dogs may contain
a. Nergi bodies
b. Niagri bodies
c. Negri bodies ✔
d. Neisser bodies
2293. What disease the Nesser will produce?
a. Mumps
b. Rubella
c. Polio
d. Measles ✔
2294. Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to
a. Lipolytic organisms ✔
b. Proteolytic organisms
c. Toxigenic microbes
d. Saccharolytic microbes
2295. The Baterium that is most commonly used in genetic engineering is
a. Escherichia ✔
b. Klebsiella
c. Proteius
d. Serratia
2296. The functions of plasmid are
a. DNA replication
b. Protein synthesis
c. Cell wall synthesis
d. None of the above ✔
2297. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that
a. Fail to reproduce on artificial meida
b. Have a rigid cell wall
c. Are resistant to penicillin ✔
d. Stain well with Gram’s stain
2298. The etiologic agent of botulism is a
a. Neurotoxin ✔
b. Endotoxin
c. Enterotoxin
d. All of the above
2299. The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during
a. Lag phase
b. Log ✔
c. Stationary
d. Decline
2300. Protein particles which can infect are called
a. Virons
b. Prions ✔
c. Nucleoida
d. None of these
2301. In most of purple bacteria, the light harvesting centers are
a. B 850 & Fe-S
b. B 850 & B 875 ✔
c. B 845 & B 875
d. B 850 & B830
2302. Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in
a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lippolysacharide ✔
c. Theichoic acid
d. Inner membrane
2303. Which one of the following was Gramnegative, chemolithotrophic bacteria?
a. Siderococcus
b. E.coli ✔
c. Spirellum
d. Mycoplasms
2304. The mode of reproduction which occurs in mycoplasma is
a. Budding
b. Bursting
c. Binary fission ✔
d. Binary fusion
2305. Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses?
a. Icosahedral, with envelope, ds DNA ✔
b. Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA
c. RNA, helical with envelope
d. ds DNA, brick shape
2306. Which one of the following produce typical fried egg appearance colonies on solid media?
a. Mycobacteria
b. Mycoplasts
c. Mycoplasms ✔
d. Bacteroides
2307. An organism that is osmophilic and has a specific requirements for sodium chloride resembles
a. Halophile ✔
b. Basophile
c. Barophile
d. Xerophile
2308. A population of cells derived from a single cell are called
a. Monclonal cells
b. Clones ✔
c. Protoplasts
d. Sub culture
2309. Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce
a. Lactic acid only
b. Lactic acid + H2O + CO2
c. Lactic acid + CO2
d. Lactic acid + alchohol + CO2 ✔
2310. In which of the follwing microorganism, conjunction tube was not produced during conjunction process?
a. Thiobaillus thiooxidence ✔
b. T. ferroxidance
c. Tetrahymena thermophila
d. Cryptaporiclium
2311. Which of the following is most similar to Rickettsia and Chlamydia?
a. Bdellovibrio
b. Clostridium
c. Mycobacterium ✔
d. Mycoldaima
2312. How would you distinguish pseudomonas species from E-cloi?
a. Gram staining
b. Morphology
c. Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration ✔
d. All of the above
2313. Which of the following is pathogenic to humans?
a. Spirogyra
b. Cephaleuros
c. Prototheca ✔
d. Both b and c
2314. Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively used in production of
a. Avirulent phases
b. Single cell proteins
c. Transgenic plants ✔
d. Nitrogen fixing bacteria
2315. The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are
a. Fungi
b. Commensels
c. Bacteriophages ✔
d. None of these
2316. The anthrax disease is most frequently infected from
a. Cattle
b. Sheeps
c. Rats
d. Both a and b ✔
2317. The colonies produced by Pseudomonas on Mac Conkey’s medium are
a. Purple colored
b. Pink colored
c. Pale colored ✔
d. Green colored
2318. Staining material of gram positive bacterium is
a. Fast green
b. Haematoxylon
c. Crystal violet ✔
d. Safranin
2319. The pigment present in red algae is
a. Rhodochrome
b. Fucoxanthin
c. Chlorophyll only
d. Chlorophyll + phycobilin ✔
2320. During mitosis, synapsis occurs in the phase called
a. Telophase
b. Anaphase
c. Prophase ✔
d. None of the above
2321. Which of the following change is a transition?
a. ATGC’!ATCC
b. ATGC’!ATGG
c. ATGC’!AGGC
d. None of these ✔
2322. Citrus canker is caused by
a. Phytomonas ✔
b. Salmonella
c. Lactobacillus
d. Hay bacillus
2323. Bacter ia that are respons ib le for fermentation of dairy milk are
a. Azetobacter
b. Rhizobium
c. Lactobacillus ✔
d. Hay bacillus
2324. The fungal disease that affect the internal organs and spread through the body are called
a. Mycoses
b. Systemic mycoses ✔
c. Mycotoxicosis
d. Superficial mycoses
2325. The staining technique used to stain the metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium
a. Giemsa stain
b. Alberts stain ✔
c. Acid fast staining
d. Both a and b
2326. The orderly increase in all components of protoplasm of a cell is called
a. Reproduction
b. Cell division
c. Growth ✔
d. All of the above
2327. The causative organism of cholera, i.e., Vibrio show the movement called
a. Gliding movement
b. Darting movement ✔
c. Pseudopoidal movement
d. None of these
2328. Erythrocytes will get its ATP energy only by
a. Glycolysis ✔
b. Kreb’s cycle
c. Electron Transport
d. HMP shunt
2329. Virus will contain
a. Cell membrane
b. Cell wall
c. DNA
d. DNA or RNA ✔
2330. The bacterial pili mainly contain
a. Carbohydrates
b. Lipids
c. Proteins ✔
d. Minerals
2331. The wonder drug of second world war is produced by
a. Algae
b. Fungi ✔
c. Bacteria
d. Plants
2332. Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is
a. Photosynthesis
b. Chemosynthesis
c. Breakdown of organic compounds ✔
d. Assimilation of nitrogen compounds
2333. Centromere is that part of chromosome where
a. Nucleoli are formed
b. Crossing over takes places ✔
c. Chromatids are attached
d. Naking occurs
2334. Somatic cell of the adult body are haploid in many except
a. Vertebrates
b. Invertebrates
c. Fungi ✔
d. Vascular plants

2335. Congential diseases are

a. Diseases present at birth ✔
b. Deficiency disease
c. Occur during life
d. Spread from one individual to another
2336. The enzyme needed in biological systems for joining two molecules is called
a. Lyases
b. Diastases
c. Polymerases ✔
d. Hydrolase
2337. Meosomes are the part of
a. Plasma membrane ✔
b. ER
c. Lysosomes
d. Golgi
2338. All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell wall except
a. Mycoplasms ✔
b. Sperochetes
c. Actinomycetes
d. Methanogena
2339. Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall
a. Lysozome
b. Reductase
c. Protease
d. Lysozyme ✔
2340. Cows can digest straw because they contain
a. Cellulose hydrolyzing microorganisms ✔
b. Protein hydrolyzing bacteria
c. Lipid hydrolyzing microorganisms
d. Amino acid degrading bacteria
2341. The nucleus controls protein synthesis in the cytoplasm by sending
a. Chromatin
b. A DNA template
c. m RNA molecule ✔
d. A pecialized protein
2342. The site of energy production in a cell
a. Micro body
b. Chromosome
c. Ribosome
d. Mitochondria ✔
2343. Thylakoid is present in
a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplast ✔
 c. ER
d. Golgi apparatus
2344. Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants?
a. Clostridum septicum
b. Xanthomonas oriza
c. Bacillus coagulens
d. Agrobacterium tumefaciens ✔
2345. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of
a. Insulin
b. Interferons
c. Vaccines ✔
d. Edible proteins
2346. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of
a. Protein and DNA
b. Protein and mRNA
c. Protein and rRNA ✔
d. Protein and tRNA
2347. The potorespiration involves
a. Calvin cycle
b. Hatch-Slack cycle
c. Glycolate cycle ✔
d. Kreb’s cycle
2348. Bioleaching is done by
a. Protozoa
b. Bacteria ✔
c. Algae
d. All of the above
2349. Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are called
a. Elementary bodies
b. Pascheur bodies
c. Negri bodies ✔
d. Guarnieri bodies
2350. Which of the following genera is most likely to contain organisms capable of surviving high temperature?
a. Vibrio
b. Pseudomonas
c. Torula ✔
d. Coxiella
2351. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as
a. Co-factors of enzymes ✔
b. Building blocks of important amino acids
c. Constituents of hormones
d. Binder of cell structure
2352. The apparatus used to ma inta in a continuous culture
a. Chemostat ✔
b. Autostat
c. Thermostat
d. Both a and c
2353. The test used to detect the deamination of the amino acids by bacteria
a. Nessler’s reagent test ✔
b. Proteolytic test
c. Lactose test
d. Rose aindole reagent test
2354. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium ✔
b. Staphylococcus
 c. Streptococcus
d. None of these
2355. Koplic spots observed in the mucous membrane is characteristic feature of the disease
a. Rubella
b. Measles
c. Mumps ✔
d. Influenza
2356. A bacterium containing prophage is called as
a. Lytic
b. Lysogen ✔
c. Lytogen
d. None of these
2357. The most infectious food borne disease is
a. Tetanus
b. Dysentery
c. Gas gangrene
d. Botulism ✔
2358. An example for common air borne epidemic disease
a. Influenza ✔
b. Typhoid
c. Encephalitis
d. Malaria
2359. Vrial genome can become integrated into the bacterial genomes are known as
a. Prophage
b. Temperatephage ✔
c. Bacteriophage
d. Metaphage
2360. Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of
a. Toxigenic microbes
b. Proteolytic microbes
c. Saccharolytic microbes
d. Lipolytic microbes ✔
2361. Virion means
a. Infectious virus particles
b. Non-infectious particles
c. Incomplete particles ✔
d. Defective virus particles
2362. Virulence of the microorganisms can be reduced by
a. Attenuation ✔
b. A virulence
c. Inactivation
d. Freezing
2363. The test used for detection of typhoid fever
a. WIDAL test ✔
b. ELISA
c. Rosewaller test
d. Westernblotting
2364. Bacteriophage capable of only lytic growth is called
a. Temperate ✔
b. Avirulent
c. Virulent
d. None of these
2365. Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as
a. Fried-Landers bacillus
b. Kleb’s hofflers bacillus ✔
 c. Frchs bacillus
d. Koch’s bacillus
2366. Acridine dyes are more effective against
a. Gram positive ✔
b. Gram negative
c. Ricke Hsia
d. Mycoplasma
2367. In bacteria pigment bearing structures are
a. Chloroplast
b. Protoplast
c. Sphaeroplast
d. Chromatophores ✔
2368. The procedure of differential staining of bacteria was developed by
a. A.H. Gram
b. H.C. Gram ✔
c. N.C. Gram
d. H.A. Gram
2369. Intermediate group of pathogen between bacteria and viruses which are intracellular parasites are called
a. Mucoplasmas
b. Rickettsias ✔
c. Prions
d. Virusoides
2370. Bacillus is an example of
a. Gram positive bacteria ✔
b. Gram negative bacteria
c. Virus
d. Viroid
2371. Amoebic dysentery in humans is caused by
a. Plasmodium
b. Paramecium
c. Yeast
d. Entamoeba histolytica ✔
2372. Viral genome that can become integrated into bacterial genome is called
a. Prophage ✔
b. Temperate phage
c. Bacteriophage
d. Metaphage
2373. Cytochromes are
a. Oxygen acceptors
b. ATP acceptors
c. Electron acceptors ✔
d. Protein acceptors
2374. The ce l ls hav ing F p lasm id in the chromosomes were termed as
a. Hfr ✔
b. F–
c. Hbr
d. C+
2375. Recombination process occurring through the mediation of phages is
a. Conjunction
b. Transduction ✔
c. Transformation
d. Transfection
2376. Mordant used in grams staining is
a. Crystal violet
b. Iodine ✔
 c. Saffranin
d. All of these
2377. Parasitic form must contain
a. Capsule
b. Cell-wall ✔
c. Endospores
d. Flagella
2378. Gram staining is an example for
a. Simple staining
b. Differential staining
c. Negative staining
d. None of these ✔
2379. Following Cocci are non-motile except
a. Staphylococcus ✔
b. Meningococcus
c. Gonococcus
d. Rhodococcus agilis
2380. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a. Birds
b. Animals ✔
c. Man
d. All of them
2381. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is secreted by
a. Enterococci
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Enterobacteriaceae
d. Straphylococci ✔
2382. Autolysis is done by
a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes ✔
c. Golgi bodies
d. Peroxisomes
2383. A facultative anaerobic is
a. Only grow anaerobically
b. Only grow in the presence of O2
c. Ordinarily an anaerobe but can grow with O2
d. Ordinarily an aerobe but can grow in absence of O2 ✔
2384. The percentage of O2 required by moderate anaerobe is
a. 0%
b. < 0.5%
c. 2 – 8% ✔
d. 5 – 10%
2385. Interferon is formed by
a. Lymphocytes
b. Lymphoblasts
c. Fibroblasts
d. All of these ✔
2386. Pigment bearing structure of bacteria are
a. Mesosomes
b. Plasmids
c. Mitochondria
d. Chromophores ✔
2387. Spirochete is
a. Gonococci
b. Strphylococci
 c. Treponema pallidum ✔
d. Streptococci
2388. Histones are found in
a. Prokaryotes
b. Eukaryotes ✔
c. Viruses
d. None of these
2389. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is
a. Thick
b. Lipids are present
c. Teichoic acids are absent ✔
d. None of these
2390. Cytoplasmic streaming is present in
a. Prokaryotes
b. Animals
c. Eukaryotes ✔
d. Both a and b
2391. The motile bacteria is
a. S. typhi ✔
b. K. pneumoniae
c. B. anthracis
d. Shigella
2392. The stain used to demonstrate fungus
a. Albert
b. Nigerosin
c. Lactophenol cotton blue ✔
d. None of these
2393. Exotoxina are
a. Heat labile ✔
b. Heat stable
c. Part of cell wall
d. Polymerized complexes
2394. The viruses that attack bacteria are
a. Bacterial viruses
b. Bacterial pathogens
c. Bacteriophages ✔
d. Various
2395. The size of virus particle may range
a. 0.02–0.2 ìm
b. 0.5–10 ìm
c. 0.015–0.2 ìm ✔
d. 0.1–100 ìm
2396. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by
a. Mitosis
b. Meiosis
c. Conjugation
d. ]Binary-fission ✔
2397. Rod shaped bacteria are known as
a. Cocci
b. Comma forms
c. Bacilli ✔
d. Plemorphic froms
2398. ll the groups of bacteria have cell wall
a. Mycobacteria
b. Mycoplasmas ✔
 c. Clostridia
d. Rickettsia
2399. Thickness of cell wall ranges from
a. 9-10 nm
b. 12-13 nm
c. 10-25 nm ✔
d. 30-40 nm
2400. Teichoic acids and Teichuronic acids are found in
a. Gram positive bacteria ✔
b. Gram negative bacteria
c. Fungi
d. None of these
2401. Meosomes are
a. Kind of ribosomes
b. Formed during cell lysis
c. A part of cell wall
d. Principal sites of respiratory enzymes ✔
2402. The characteristic shape of the bacteria is maintained because of
a. Capsule
b. Cell wall ✔
c. Cell membrane
d. Slime layer
2403. Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of
a. Polypeptide
b. Polynucleotides
c. Polysaccharides
d. Polypeptides or polysaccharides ✔
2404. The cell wall deficient form of bacteria is
a. Mycoplasma
b. ‘L’ form ✔
c. Protoplast
d. Spheroplast
2405. Mesosomes are also known as
a. Mitochondria
b. Chloroplasts
c. Golgi complex
d. Chondroids ✔
2406. The differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is shown to reside in the
a. Cell wall ✔
b. Nucleus
c. Cell membrane
d. Mesosomes
2407. Capsule formation occurs in the presence of
a. Albumin
b. Charcoal
c. Serum ✔
d. Starch
2408. The virulence determining antigens of microorganisms may be
a. Proteins and polysaccharides
b. Carbohydrate – protein complexes
c. Polysaccharide – Phospholipid – Protein complexes
d. All of these ✔
2409. Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are
a. Mitochondria
b. Golgi complex
 c. Lysosomes ✔
d. Ribosomes
2410. Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by
a. Fimbria
b. Flagella
c. Cytoskeleton
d. Both a and b ✔
2411. Fimbriae are demonstrated by
a. Culture
b. Gram stain
c. Biochemical reactions
d. Haemaggulation test ✔
2412. The motile bacteria is
a. Salmonella typhi ✔
b. Klebsiella pneumoniae
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Shigella flexneri
2413. Following cocci are non-motile except
a. Staphylococcus
b. Meningococcus
c. Gonococcus
d. Rhodococcus agilis ✔
2414. Metachromatic granules are chemically composed of
a. Lipids
b. Proteins
c. Polymetaphosphates ✔
d. Polysaccharide
2415. Metachromatic granules can be stained with
a. Saffranine
b. Methylene blue ✔
c. Crystal violet
d. Pienic acie
2416. Bacteria multiply by
a. Spore formation
b. Simple binary fission
c. Conjugation
d. Gametes ✔
2417. Bacterial spores are
a. Weakly acid fast ✔
b. Strongly acid fast
c. Alcohol fast
d. Non acid fast
2418. Endospores can be stained with
a. Safranine
b. Crystal violet
c. Methylene blue
d. Malachite green ✔
2419. The following bacteria produce pigment, except
a. Pseudomonas pyocyaneus
b. Serratia marcescens
c. D. pneumoniae ✔
d. Staphylococcus aureus
2420. The order of stains in Gram-staining procedure is
a. Crystal violet, Iodine solution, Alcohol, Saffranine ✔
b. Iodine solution, Crystal Violet, Saffranine, Alcohol
 c. Alcohol, Crystal Violet, Iodine solution, Saffranine
d. All of these
2421. The percentage of alcohol used in Gramstaining is
a. 75%
b. 90% ✔
c. 60%
d. 25%
2422. Gram positive bacteria appear as
a. Pink
b. Violet ✔
c. both a & b
d. None of these
2423. Gram negative bacteria appear as
a. Pink ✔
b. Violet
c. both a & b
d. None of these
2424. The action of alcohol during Gramstaining is
a. Allows the color
b. It adds color
c. Decolorises the cells ✔
d. None of these
2425. Lipid contents is more in
a. Gram negative bacteria ✔
b. Gram positive bacteria
c. Same in both
d. None of these
2426. Cell-wall is
a. Thick in Gram positive than Gram negative ✔
b. Thick in Gram negative than Gram positive
c. Equal in both
d. In Gram negative cell-wall is absent
2427. The Lipid content present in Gram positive bacterial cell-wall is
a. 1-10 %
b. 1-5 % ✔
c. 2-8 %
d. None of these
2428. Rickettsiae stained by this technique responds as
a. Gram positive
b. Gram negative ✔
c. Between positive and negative
d. None of these
2429. Chlamydiae occur in
a. Elementary bodies
b. Reticulate bodies
c. Complex structures
d. a and b ✔
2430. Chlamydiae can be stained better with
a. Ziehl neelsen staining
b. Castaneda & Machiavello stains
c. Giminez stains
d. Both b and c ✔
2431. Algae means
a. Fresh water organisms
b. Sea weeds ✔
 c. Fresh water weeds
d. None of these
2432. The study of algae is known as
a. Algalogy
b. Phycology ✔
c. Mycology
d. Bacteriology
2433. The free floating algae are known as
a. Phytoplankins ✔
b. Benthons
c. Sea weeds
d. None of these
2434. Sexual reproduction of algae is carried by
a. Isogamy
b. Anisogamy
c. Oogamy
d. All the above ✔
2435. In algae, advanced type of sexual reproduction is
a. Isogamy
b. Anisogamy
c. Oogamy ✔
d. None of these
2436. Alginic acids and its salts are obtained from the wall of
a. Red algae
b. Brown algae ✔
c. Green algae
d. Red and brown algae
2437. The molds obtained nutrition from dead and decaying matter which are called
a. Saphrophytes ✔
b. Parasites
c. Commensals
d. None of these
2438. Most molds are capable of growing in the temperature range between
a. 0o – 25oC
b. 0o – 35oC ✔
c. 10o – 25oC
d. 10o – 35oC
2439. Examples for actinomycetes
a. Streptomyces
b. Spirillospora
c. Frankia
d. Dermatophillia ✔
e. All of the above
2440. Pellicle is found in only
a. Algae
b. Fungi ✔
c. Bacteria
d. Protozoans
2441. The Largest virus is
a. Parvo virus
b. Pox virus ✔
c. Rhabdo virus
d. None of these
2442. The smallest virus is
a. Parvo virus
 b. Rhabdo virus ✔
c. Pox virus
d. Adeno virus
2443. The extra cellular infections virus particle is called
a. Capsid
b. Nucleocapsid
c. Virion ✔
d. None of these
2444. Shape of bacteriophage is
a. Brick shape
b. Bullet shape
c. Helical shape
d. Tadpole shape ✔
2445. If only one stain is used for staining a specimen
a. Simple staining ✔
b. Negative staining
c. Differential staining
d. None of these
2446. Other than the sample (specimen) the remaining portion is stained then it is called
a. Simple staining
b. Negative staining ✔
c. Differential staining
d. None of these
2447. If more than one stain is used, such staining is called
a. Simple staining
b. Negative staining
c. Differential staining ✔
d. None of these
2448. ‘Fluorescence’ was first observed by
a. Kohler ✔
b. Coons
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
2449. By using fluorescence property fluorescent antibody technique was developed by
a. Kohler
b. Coons ✔
c. Both and b
d. None of these
2450. During staining for Electron Microscopy, the method which improves contrast of specimen is
a. Positive staining
b. Negative staining ✔
c. Shadow staining
d. None of these
2451. The inorganic forms of nitrogen, which are accepted by bacteria are
a. Nitrates
b. Nitrites
c. Ammonium salts
d. All of these ✔
2452. Archaeo bacteria are known as
a. Halophiles
b. Red extreme halophiles ✔
c. Osmophiles
d. Extreme thermophiles
2453. Nitrite is converted into nitrate by the bacteria
a. Nitrosomonas
 b. Nitrosocytes
c. Nitrobacter ✔
d. Azatobacter
2454. Sulphur oxidizing bacteria is
a. Alcaligenes
b. Pseudomonas
c. Thiobacillus ✔
d. None of these
2455. Bacillus Schlegelli is
a. Hydrogen – Oxydising bacteria ✔
b. Sulphur – Oxydising bacteria
c. Iron-Oxidising bacteria
d. Nitrite oxidizing bacteria
2456. The group of bacteria which deopends on organic sources in nature for their energy requirements. They
are said to be
a. Chemotrophs
b. Phototrophs
c. Heterotrophes ✔
d. Organotrophs
2457. Majority of bacteria are
a. Saprophytes
b. Symbionts
c. Commensals
d. Parasites ✔
2458. Symbionts are
a. Bacteria in symbiotc association
b. The group of fungi in symbiotic association
c. The groups participating in symbiotic association ✔
d. All of these
2459. The best example for symbiotic association is
a. E.coli in intestine of man
b. Lichens ✔
c. Normal floraof skin
d. All of the above
2460. The enzymes responsible for decomposition is
a. Lipolytic
b. Proteolytic ✔
c. Lysozyme
d. Both a and b
2461. Urea is decomposed by the species
a. Micrococcus sps.
b. Nitrosomonas sps.
c. Proteus sps.
d. Both a and c ✔
2462. Phycobiont is
a. The algal part in Lichens ✔
b. The fungal part in Lichens
c. Laustoria formation
d. None of these
2463. Parasitic form must contain
a. Capsules ✔
b. Cell-wall
c. Endospores
d. Flagella
2464. The total no. of genes in the group of same individuals is
 a. Genome
b. Gene map
c. Gene pool ✔
d. None of these
2465. Transformation was observed mainly in
a. Bacteriophages
b. Temperate phages ✔
c. ? –phage
d. All of these
2466. Capsulated forms of bacteria are
a. Virulent
b. A virulent
c. Useful ✔
d. Symbiotic
2467. The bacterial cells participating in conjugation are
a. Conjugants ✔
b. Fertile cells
c. Exconjugants
d. None of these
2468. Phagocytes are
a. Monocytes
b. Macrophages
c. Basophils
d. All of these ✔
2469. The microorganism engulfed by phagocyte resides in a vacuole is known as
a. Phagosome ✔
b. Lysosome
c. both a and b
d. None of these
2470. Toxic products in phagolysosome are
a. H2 SO4
b. Singlet O2
c. Superoxide radicals
d. All of these ✔
2471. During destruction of antigen particle in phagolysosome the product formed in phagolysosome the product
formed during formulation is
a. Acetic acid
b. Lactic acid ✔
c. Citric acid
d. None of these
2472. The coating of a bacterium with antibody or complement that leads to enhanced phagocytosis of the
bacterium by phagocytes is called
a. Opsonisation ✔
b. Aggulation
c. CFT
d. None of these
2473. Attenuation means
a. Killing of the bacteria (microorganism)
b. Inactivation of bacteria ✔
c. More activating the bacteria
d. Both 1 and 2
2474. Infection that results in pus formation are called
a. Focal infection
b. Acute infection
c. Pyogenic infection ✔
 d. Chronic infection
2475. Presence of viable bacteria in the blood stream is called
a. Viraemia
b. Septicaemia
c. Bacteraemia ✔
d. Bactericidal
2476. Presence of viruses in the blood stream is known as
a. Viraemia ✔
b. Bacteraemia
c. Septicaemia
d. Pyemia
2477. Opsonin is the
a. Cellwall component
b. Plasma component
c. Serum component ✔
d. Cytoplasm component
2478. ßßß-haemolytic bacteria is
a. Streptococcus pyogenes ✔
b. Str. pneumoniae
c. Str. viridans
d. Str. faecalis
2479. The natural reservoir of infection for cholera is
a. Flies
b. Horse
c. Man ✔
d. None of these
2480. Main cause for Cholera is
a. Poverty and insanitation ✔
b. Mosquitoes
c. Toxin produced by pesticides
d. None of these
2481. Vibrio cholera differs from vibrio eltor by
a. It shares some Inaba, Ogawa subtypes with eltor
b. Resistant to polymuxin
c. Eltor is non-motile
d. Causes less subclinical infections as compared to eltor ✔
2482. Cholera vaccine gives protection for
a. 1 – 3 months
b. 3 – 6 months ✔
c. 6 – 9 months
d. 9-12 months
2483. Prophylaxis of cholera is
a. Protected water supply
b. Environmental sanitation
c. Immunisation with killed vaccines
d. All of these ✔
2484. Sh.dysenteriae is also known as
a. Sh.shiga
b. Sh.schmitzi
c. Both a and b ✔
d. Sh.para dysenteriae
2485. Acid fast bacteria are
a. Neisseria
b. Staphylococci
c. Mycobacteria ✔
 d. All of the above
2486. Mycobacteria are stained with
a. Gram’s staining
b. Simple staining
c. Both a and b
d. Ziehl – Neelsen’s staining ✔
2487. Niacin test is positive in case of
a. Corynebacterium
b. M. tuberculosis ✔
c. M. bovis
d. M. avium
2488. Lepromin test
a. Is negative in tubercular leprosy
b. Positive in lepromatous type
c. Indicated delayed hypersensitivity test ✔
d. Indicates infection
2489. Streptococcus forms causes which type of infections?
a. Fever
b. Zoonotic
c. Pyogenic
d. None of these ✔
2490. Streptococcus pyogenes classification is based on
a. Protein M ✔
b. Protein T
c. Protein R
d. Polysaccharide C
2491. aaa-haemolytic streptococci are also known as
a. Str. pyogenes
b. Virulence group
c. Viridans group ✔
d. None of these
2492. Streptolysin O is inactivated by
a. CO2
b. Nitrogen
c. Oxygen ✔
d. Serum
2493. Streptolysin ‘S’ is
a. Oxygen unstable
b. Thermostable
c. Oxygen stable ✔
d. None of these
2494. Influenza virus is identified by using
a. Haemaggulutinin inhibition test ✔
b. Tissue culture method
c. Embryonated eggs
d. Plaque formation
2495. Growth of influenza virus is identified by
a. Cytopathic effects
b. Hela cells ✔
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
2496. Glutamic acid is oxidized by the species except
a. B. abortus
b. B. melienasis
c. B. suis
 d. B.canis ✔
2497. “Prozone phenomenon” is encountered in
a. A typical mycobacteria
b. Brucella ✔
c. Streptococcus
d. Bordetella pertusis
2498. Of the following, this is a capsulated organism
a. Bacillus anthracis ✔
b. Escherichia-coli
c. Corynebacterium
d. Brucella
2499. Anthrax is a
a. Vector borne
b. Zoonotic infection ✔
c. Wound bone
d. Soil borne
2500. Mc Fadyean’s reaction is used to detect
a. Bacillus anthracis ✔
b. Brucella
c. Corynaebacterium
d. None of these
2501. Gasgangarene bacillus is
a. Facultative anaerobe
b. Obligate anaerobe ✔
c. Facultative aerobe
d. Obligate aerobe
2502. Coagulase test is used for
a. Salmonella
b. Staphylococcus ✔
c. Bordetella
d. Pneumococcus
2503. HIV is belonging to
a. Retro Viridae ✔
b. Rhabdo Viridae
c. Toga Viridae
d. Paramyxo Viridae
2504. Special feature of Retro viruses
a. Reverse transcriptase
b. RNA directed DNA polymerases
c. Both a & b ✔
d. Boils
2505. AIDS virus is
a. RNA virus
b. DNA virus
c. Retro virus ✔
d. Entero virus
2506. AIDS is caused by
a. HTLV – I
b. Bunya virus
c. HTLV – III
d. All ✔
2507. Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with AIDS pneumonia?
a. Klebsiella
b. Str. pneumonia
c. Mycoplasma
 d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis ✔
2508. Sero conservation in HIV infection takes place in
a. 3 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 9 weeks ✔
d. 12 weeks
2509. Following is the marker of HIV infection in blood:
a. Reverse transcriptase ✔
b. DNA polymerase
c. RNA polymerase
d. None of these
2510. Which of the following is the most specific in diagnosis of AIDS?
a. IHA
b. Western blot ✔
c. ELISA
d. Immuno electrophoresis
2511. The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of antibodies in serum is called
a. Intrinsic period
b. Incubation period
c. Window period ✔
d. None of these
2512. Screening test for AIDS is
a. Western blot test
b. ELISA test ✔
c. Both a and b
d. VDRL test
2513. Confirmatory test for AIDS is
a. Western blot test ✔
b. ELISA test
c. Karpas test
d. Fujerbio test
2514. The most common infection in AIDS is
a. LGV
b. CMV
c. Pnemocystis carnii ✔
d. Syphilis
2515. During AIDS, HIV infects
a. CD3 lymphocytes
b. CD4 lymphocytes ✔
c. CD2 lymphocytes
d. Blymphocytes
2516. Lab diagnosis of Leishmaniasis is done by
a. CFT
b. Peripheral smear
c. Blood culture
d. All of these ✔
2517. Those fungi which do not have a sexual stage are classified as
a. Phycomycetes
b. Ascomycetes
c. Basidiomycetes
d. Fungi imperfecti ✔
2518. Tinea capitis is
a. Ring worm of the foot
b. Ring worm of scalp
c. Ring worm of non-hairy skin of body ✔
 d. Both a and c
2519. Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by
a. Finding bacteria in pathological fluids
b. Isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates or blood
c. Both a and b ✔
d. None of these
2520. Staphylococcus aureus are characterized by
a. Formation of acid in sucrose, dextrose
b. Liquification of gelatin due to production of gelatinase
c. Strains are catalase positive ✔
d. All of above
e. None of these
2521. Cholera occurs in _ form
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Sporadic
d. all ✔
e. None of these
2522. Endemic typhus is caused by
a. R.mooseri ✔
b. R.quintana
c. R.prowazekii
d. any of them
e. None of these
2523. A man is usually infected for tick typhus by –
a. Drinking milk of sick animals
b. Tending cattle
c. Inhaling infected dust ✔
d. All of these
2524. In Gram positive bacteria, ratio of RNA to DNA is
a. 8 : 1 ✔
b. 1 : 2
c. Almost equal
d. None of these
2525. Ziehl – Neelson stain is a __
a. Simple stain
b. Counter stain
c. Differential stain ✔
d. None of them
2526. Wet mount slide preparations are used in microbiology as they allow to see
a. Size and shape of individual organisms
b. Characteristic arrangement or grouping of cells
c. Motility of the organism
d. All of these ✔
e. None of these
2527. Organism resistant to degradative lysosomal enzymes includes
a. M.tuberculosis
b. Legionella pneumophila
c. M.leprae
d. Both a and b
e. Both b and c ✔
2528. Freeze-etch particles (used in preparing cell for electron microscopy) can be located in the
a. Cytoplasm
b. Cell wall
c. Cell membrane ✔
 d. Nucleus
2529. The properties common to Gram positive and negative cell walls are
a. Equal susceptibility to hydrolysis by lysozyme
b. Peptide crosslinks between polysaccharides
c. Rigid peptoglycon activity
d. Greater resistance to drying than vegetative cell. ✔
e. All of these
2530. The main difference in true bacteria and mycoplasma is that it does not posses –
a. Flagella
b. Cell wall ✔
c. ATP synthesis
d. A capsule
2531. The organism responsible for retarding penetration of host cell by an inhibitor of ATP synthesis.
a. M.pneumoniae
b. Rickettsia rickettsii ✔
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Chlamydia psitacci
2532. Mycoplasmas differ from Chalamy-diae in that, it
a. has ability to cause urinary tract infection
b. lack of atrue bacterial cell wall ✔
c. susceptible to penicillin
d. All of these
e. None of these
2533. Fungal disease in human is caused by –
a. Inhalation of conidia
b. Invasion of mucous membrane
c. Contamination of wounds with conidia or myceliat fragments
d. All of these ✔
e. None of these
2534. Fungi differs with bacteria in that it –
a. Contain no peptidoglycan
b. Are prokaryotic
c. Susceptible to griseofulvin
d. Have nuclear membranes
e. All of these ✔
2535. A polysaccharide capsule is present on cryptococci which –
a. Inhibits phagocytosis ✔
b. Is an aid to diagnose
c. Cross reacts with rheumatoid factor
d. All of these
2536. The largest protozoa is –
a. Balantidium coli ✔
b. Entamoeba coli
c. Trichomonus vaginalis
d. Toxoplasma gondii
2537. Premunition is particularly seen in –
a. Ascaris
b. Giardia
c. Plasmodium ✔
d. None of these
2538. Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated form of bacteria?
a. BCG ✔
b. TAB
c. Polio
d. Cholera
2539. The bacteria, which is motile at 22oC but non-motile at 37oC is
a. Tranformation
b. Transduction
c. Conjugation
d. Cell fusion ✔
2540. Techoic acid is –
a. Found in the walls of Gram positive bacteria ✔
b. Provide receptors for phages
c. Make up outer wall of Gram negative bacteria
d. Influence the permeability of the membrane
2541. One flagelium at one end of the organ is called –
a. Monotrichate ✔
b. Amphitrichate
c. Iophotrichate
d. Peritrichate
2542. What is the function of bacterial capsule?
a. Production of organism from phagocytosis
b. Helps in adherence of bacteria to surface in its environment
c. Both a and b ✔
d. None of these
2543. Which of the following is the charachteristic of bacterial spore?
a. Highly refractile
b. Usually dehydrated
c. Sensitive to formaldehyde
d. All of these ✔
2544. Which of the following are acid fast structures?
a. Mycobacteria
b. Bacterial spores
c. Nocardia
d. All of these ✔
2545. All of the following are acid fast structures except
a. Clostridium ✔
b. Bacterium spores
c. Exoskeleton
d. None of these
2546. All of the following are energy source of bacteria except
a. Oxidation of inorganic compounds
b. Oxidation of organic compounds
c. Absorption of heat ✔
d. Utilisation of visible light
2547. Identify the obligate anaerobes
a. Salmonella
b. Vibrio cholera
c. Cl. tetani ✔
d. Sarcinae
2548. Streptococci which are destroyed at 60°C for 30 minutes
a. Preptostreptococci
b. Strepto viridans
c. Strepto hemolyticus
d. All of these ✔
2549. Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by streptococcus pyrogens
a. Hyaluronides ✔
b. Phosphate
c. Hemolysin
d. Streptokinase
2550. Cholera red reaction is identified by
a. Sulphuric acid ✔
b. Nitric acid
c. Hydrochloric acid
d. Carbolic acid
2551. Diagnosis of carrier of salmonella typhi may be shown by
a. Fecal culture
b. Bile culture
c. Urine culture
d. All of these ✔
2552. Daisy head colony is associated with
a. M.tuberculosis
b. C.diphtheriae ✔
c. Cl. tetani
d. None of these
2553. Neil mooseri reaction is related to
a. Rickettsiae ✔
b. Chlamydiae
c. Spirochaetes
d. Clostridium periringens
2554. All of the following are DNA viruses except –
a. Parvo virus
b. Paramyxo virus ✔
c. Herpes virus
d. Pix virus
2555. The dengue fever virus is –
a. Arbo virus ✔
b. Echo virus
c. Entero virus
d. Orthomyxo virus
2556. Dengue fever is caused by –
a. Bacteria
b. Virus ✔
c. Fungi
d. Rickettsia
2557. Which of the following characters are related to viruses?
a. No growth on inanimate culture media
b. Not sensitive to antibiotics
c. No energy producing enzymes
d. Insensitive to interferon ✔
2558. Main causative organism of chiken pox is
a. Fox virus
b. Mumps virus
c. Measles virus
d. None of these ✔
2559. Rickesia are stained with
a. Giesna and Castaneda stains
b. Macchiavello and Gimnezstains
c. Both a and b ✔
d. Malachite green
2560. A rise in the anti-HBc immunoglobulin in a patient indicates______?
a. Acute infection ✔
b. Carrier state
c. Prodromal phase
d. Convalescence
2561. Cytopathic effect is shown by_______?
a. Virus ✔
b. Bacteria
c. Spirochete
d. Anaerobe
2562. Which of the following would you consider to be general properties of viruses________?
a. New virus particle arises directly (by division) from preexisting viruses
b. Fall in to the general size range of 200-3000 angstrom unit ✔
c. Contain equal proportions of protein, lipo polysaccharide and nucleic acids
d. Contain DNA but no RNA
2563. Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS is_______?
a. Cryptococcosis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Candidiasis ✔
d. Aspergilosis
2564. Viruses can be cultured in all except______?
a. Chick embryo
b. Blood agar ✔
c. Guinea pigs
d. Cell culture
2565. Following hepatitis B infection through blood transfusion disease manifests in_____?
a. 1 week ✔
b. 6 week
c. 3 months
d. 6 months
2566. The Window period in HIV infection means_____?
a. The time lapse between the infection and detection of viral antibodies ✔
b. The time lapse between the infection and development of AIDS
c. The time lapse between obtaining the sample and detection of virus in the lab
d. None of the above
2567. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) affects_______?
a. Red blood cells
b. Fibroblasts
c. Helper T lymphocytes (CD4) ✔
d. Mast cells
2568. The classic opportunistic infection in acquired immune deficiency syndrome is______?
a. Apthous stomatitis
b. Tuberculosis
c. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia ✔
d. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
2569. Influenza is caused by______?
a. Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
b. Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA virus
c. Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA virus
d. Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus ✔
2570. Human immune deficiency virus is __ virus?
a. Rheo
b. Retro ✔
c. Rhabdo
d. Flavi
2571. Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions are present in which of the following viruses______?
a. Pox virus
b. Measles virus ✔
c. Hepatitis B virus
d. HIV
2572. In which of the following immunization is given after infection is started______?
a. Rabies ✔
b. Poliomyelitis
c. Influenza
d. Herpes
2573. Incubation period of herpes zoster is______?
a. 7-14 days ✔
b. 1 months
c. 1-2 years
d. 3-6 months
2574. True about prions________?
a. Composed largely proteins without any nucleic acid ✔
b. Phase in which virus cannot be demonstrated in host cell
c. Viruses which are genetically deficient
d. Viral components may be synthesized but maturation & assembling is defective
2575. Pigs are important source of_____?
a. Japanese encephalitis ✔
b. Kuru
c. Yellow fever
d. Rabies
2576. Herpes virus_______?
a. Acquires its envelope from nuclear membrane ✔
b. Acquires its envelope from nucleolar membrane
c. Acquires its envelope from cytoplasmi membrane
d. None of the above
2577. The presence of Which of the following factors in viruses makes protective vaccines a possibility ?
a. Enzymes
b. Protein coat ✔
c. Polysaccharide
d. Lipids
2578. Certain viruses have been isolated in crystalline form and have been found to be_____?
a. Nucleotides
b. Phospholipids
c. Scleroproteins
d. Nucleoproteins ✔
2579. The HIV virus can be destroyed invitro by which of the following_______?
a. Boiling
b. Ethanol
c. Cidex
d. All of the above ✔
2580. Portal of entry of poliovirus in mainly______?
a. Gastrointestinal tract ✔
b. Nasal mucosa
c. Lung
d. Skin
2581. Presence of HBe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates______?
a. Simple carriers
b. Late convalescence
c. High infectivity ✔
d. Carrier status
2582. Which does not have a viral etiology_____?
a. Carcinoma Cervix
b. Hepatoma ✔
c. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d. Lymphoma
2583. Viron is defined as_______?
a. Extracellular infectious virus particle ✔
b. Smallest virus
c. A smallest particle similar to virus
d. None of the above
2584. One virus particle prevents multiplication of 2nd virus. This phenomena is_____?
a. Viral interference ✔
b. Mutation
c. Supervision
d. Permutation
2585. The only virus, which has double stranded RNA, is_____?
a. Bunya virus
b. Reo virus ✔
c. Calci virus
d. Rhabdo virus
2586. Which of the following correctly indicates the infectivity of hepatitis virus in human ?
a. HBCAg
b. HBeAg ✔
c. Anti-HBC
d. Anti-HBS
2587. Which of the following represents the serologic evidence of recent Hepatitis B virus infection during
window period ?
a. HBs Ag
b. IgM anti – HBc ✔
c. Anti HBs
d. None of the above
2588. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except______?
a. Give immunoglobulins for passive immunity
b. Give ARV
c. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage ✔
d. Immediately wash wound with soap and water
2589. Which of the following is a RNA virus ?
a. Measles virus ✔
b. Herpes Virus
c. Papavo virus
d. Adeno virus
2590. Following is a retrovirus_______?
a. Immunodeficiency virus ✔
b. Influenza
c. Polio virus
d. Hepatitis virus
2591. Type of Human papilloma virus associated with carcinoma cervix_____?
a. Type 6,12,18
b. 16,18,31 ✔
c. 6,8,11
d. 3,10,19
2592. The viral action is differentiated from bacterial action by______?
a. Interferon production ✔
b. Toxin production
c. Lymphocytes production
d. Neutrophils production
2593. What is the sequence which a retro virus follows on entering a host cell ?
a. RNA -DNA-RNA ✔
b. RNA-DNA
c. DNA-RNA
 d. DNA-RNA-DNA
2594. Which of the following viruses appears to be involved in the pathogenesis of Kaposi’s sarcoma_____?
a. Human Herpes Virus 3
b. Human Herpes Virus 1
c. Human Herpes Virus 8
d. Human Herpes Virus 4 ✔
2595. Seroconversion in HIV infection takes place in______?
a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks ✔
c. 9 weeks
d. 12 weeks
2596. Babu, a 28 year old male comes with complaint of exposure 3 wks back, having cervical Lymphadenopathy,
Hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis of HIV is done by______?
a. ELISA
b. Western blot
c. P24 antigen ✔
d. Lymph node biopsy
2597. Anti HBsAB indicates_______?
a. Resistance to hepatitis B
b. Acute infection
c. Good prognosis ✔
d. Hepatocellular carcinoma
2598. Presence of HBe Ag in Patients with hepatitis indicates_______?
a. Simple carriers
b. Late convalescence
c. High infectivity ✔
d. Carrier status
2599. Which of the following does not go into chronic hepatitis stage ?
a. HBV
b. HCV
c. HDV
d. HEV ✔
2600. Which of the following belongs to cell fraction derived vaccine______?
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rubella
d. Hepatitis B ✔
2601. Dengue virus belongs to______?
a. Flavi virus ✔
b. Togaviridae
c. Reoviridae
d. Rhabdoviridae
2602. Which of the following statement about P24 antigen of HIV is Not True ?
a. It can be detected during the window period
b. Free P24 antigen disappears after the appearance of IgM response to it:
c. Virus load parallel P24 titre
d. It remains during asymptomatic phase ✔
2603. Which of the following viruses are most likely to cross placenta and cause feudal defect ?
a. Herpes Simplex
b. Mumps
c. Rubella ✔
d. Papilloma
2604. Which of the following viruses produces both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies______?
a. Chicken pox
b. Rabies
 c. Small pox
d. Measles ✔
2605. Characteristic feature of retrovirus is____?
a. Ribonuclease
b. Reverse transcriptase ✔
c. DNA polymerase
d. Restriction endonuclease
2606. Dengue Hemorrhagic fever is caused by______?
a. Virus ✔
b. Bacteria
c. Parasite
d. Bacteria superadded on virus
2607. Interferon interferes with replication of virus at the time of_______?
a. Protein synthesis ✔
b. DNA/RNA replication
c. When virus enters the cell
d. Uncoating of the virus proteins capsule
2608. Which of the following microbial cell is most resistant to antiseptics & disinfectants ?
a. Mycobacteria
b. Spore
c. Prions ✔
d. Coccidia
2609. Which of the following lesions is NOT an infection from human papilloma virus ?
a. Verruca vulgaris
b. Focal epithelial hyperplasia
c. Condyloma acuminatum
d. Keratoacanthoma ✔
2610. Prions true is_____?
a. Readily inactivated by autoclave at 121 C ✔
b. Evokes strong immunogenic reaction
c. Sensitive to most chemical sterilization
d. Contains DNA/ RNA
2611. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely etiological agent
is______?
a. Hepatitis B virus
b. Hepatitis C virus
c. Hepatitis E virus ✔
d. Hepatitis A virus
2612. Salivary protein, which prevents transmission of human immunodeficiency virus via saliva, is_____?
a. Sialoperoxidase
b. Secretory IgA
c. Salivary leukocyte proteinase inhibitor ✔
d. Histidine rich proteins
2613. A dentist suffred from Hepatitis B infection 3 months back. His laboratory tests are normal but he is not
allowed by the medical board to do surgical practice. He is______?
a. Inactive carrier
b. Healthy carrier
c. Convalscent carrier ✔
d. Paradoxical carrier
2614. Virus is cultured in_______?
a. Saubourd’s agar
b. Rogosa medium
c. Nonembryonated egg
d. Embryonated egg ✔
2615. Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS) usually occurs when CD4 Lymphocyte counts are______?
 a. Above 600
b. Between 1000-2000
c. Below 200 ✔
d. Above 2000
2616. Mark true in following ?
a. Hanta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces ✔
b. Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal
c. Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks
d. None of the above
2617. The world German measles is applied for_____?
a. Rubella ✔
b. Rubeola
c. Herpes simplex
d. Herpetic ginglvostomatitis
2618. Hepatitis A virus is best diagnosed by_______?
a. IgM antibodies in serum ✔
b. Isolation form stool
c. Culture from blood
d. Isolation from bile
2619. Which of the following is not a pox virus ?
a. Cowpox
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Small pox
d. chicken pox ✔
2620. Serological study for prevalence of Hepatitis B is best done by_____?
a. Surface antigen ✔
b. Surface antibody
c. Core antigen
d. Core antibody
2621. ELISA test when compared to western blot technique is______?
a. Less sensitive less specific
b. More sensitive, more specific
c. Less sensitive, more specific
d. More sensitive, less specific ✔
2622. The virus which causes Aplastic anemia in chronic hemolytic disease is______?
a. Adeno
b. Hepatitis
c. EB virus
d. Parvo virus ✔
2623. In HIV, gp 120, envelope glycoproteins bind specifically to____?
a. CD8 T-cells
b. CD4 T-cells ✔
c. B – cells
d. NK – cells
2624. The small nonparticulate protein leading to enhanced replication of HBV as well as HIV is______?
a. HBc Ag
b. HBs Ag
c. Hbe Ag
d. HBx Ag ✔
2625. Patients with organ transplants are most frequently infected with______?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. CMV ✔
d. EBV
2626. EBV is responsible for all except_____?
 a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
b. Burkitt’s lymphoma
c. Hepatoma ✔
d. Infectious mononucleosis
2627. Most common tumor associated with AIDS is________?
a. Carcinoma
b. Kaposi’s sarcoma ✔
c. Melanoma
d. Ewing’s sarcoma
2628. The overall effect of HIV is to gradually impair the immune system by interference with_____?
a. Helper T lymphocytes ✔
b. Natural killer cells
c. Plasma cells
d. Macrophages
2629. Hepatitis C virus belongs to which one of the following virus groups ?
a. Picorna viruses
b. Herpes viruses
c. Hepadana viruses
d. Flavi viruses ✔
2630. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except_______?
a. Tissue culture
b. Embryonated eggs
c. Animals
d. Chemically defined media ✔
2631. During the Window period of patient with AIDS_______?
a. ELISA IS – ve
b. Western Blot is – ve
c. Both are – ve ✔
d. PCR is – ve
2632. Plaque test is used routinely in virology lab’s for______?
a. Identification of viral disease ✔
b. To separate specific clone of virus
c. To maintain certain viral culture
d. To prepare vaccines
2633. All are oncogenic except_______?
a. Anopheles
b. Aedes ✔
c. Culex
d. Mansoni
2634. DNA covering material in a virus is called as_____?
a. Capsomere
b. Capsid ✔
c. Nucleocapsid
d. Envelope
2635. All are oncogenic except_______?
a. EB virus
b. Papilloma virus
c. Herpes simplex virus ✔
d. Varicella zoster virus
2636. True about HIV are all except____?
a. DNA virus ✔
b. Attacks CD4 cells
c. Macrophages are the reservoir
d. Decrease CD4 count in late stages
2637. EBV causes all except_________?
 a. Carcinoma of nasopharynx
b. Papilloma ✔
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Burkitt’s lymphoma
2638. Australian antigen is________?
a. HB Ag
b. HBs AG 11
c. HBV
d. None of the above
2639. Which of the following methods is adopted for screening HIV infection ?
a. Virus isolation
b. Western blot followed by ELISA
c. LISA followed by western blot technique ✔
d. Polymers chain reaction
2640. Enterically transmitted NANB hepatitis B______?
a. Hepatitis C
b. Hepatitis D
c. epatitis E ✔
d. Hepatitis F
2641. True about immune response of hepatitis B is_______?
a. Antibody of HBs Ag is associated with resistance to infection ✔
b. Antibody to HBC is not protective
c. Highest titres of anti HBC are found in persistent carriers of HBs Ag
d. CMI disappears soon after recover
2642. The best way of detecting the presence of viruses in the infected cell – culture is______?
a. Cytopathic changes in culture cells ✔
b. Presence of viral protein in the infected monolayer
c. Haemagglutination test
d. Haemagglutination inhibition test
2643. The Dane particle is the_______?
a. HBV ✔
b. IgG anti HAV
c. Delta Virus
d. HBC Ag
2644. Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except_______?
a. Failure to thrive
b. Have infections
c. 50% chances to have AIDS ✔
d. All are true
2645. The time gap between appearance of Koplik’s spot and cutaneous rash in measles is_______?
a. 24 Hrs
b. 3-4 days ✔
c. 2 weeks
d. 10 days
2646. Rabies virus______?
a. Cytotropic
b. Dermatotropic
c. Chromophilic
d. Neurotropic ✔
2647. Virus are sharply differentiated from bacteria by_____?
a. Presence of either DNA or RNA
b. Simple structure
c. Complex multiplication
d. All of the above ✔
2648. The following hepatitis virus is transmitted by faeco-oral route_______?
 a. Hepatitis B virus
b. Hepatitis C virus
c. Hepatitis D virus
d. Hepatitis E virus ✔
2649. Confirmatory test for HIV infection is a______?
a. ELISA
b. Immunodot
c. IPA
d. Western Blot ✔
2650. Bacteriophage was discovered by______?
a. Robert koch
b. Twort and d’herelle ✔
c. Menkin
d. Metchinkoff
2651. Australia antigen is associated with_______?
a. Hepatitis B surface antigen in acute hepatitis ✔
b. AIDS
c. Chronic leukemia
d. Basal cell carcinoma
2652. Antibody to HSV will begin to appear_______?
a. in a week and reach a peak in 3 weeks ✔
b. only after one year
c. no antibodies are present in primary HSV
d. antibodies are present in recurrent and chronic apthous stomatitis
2653. Half-life of free HIV in plasma is_____?
a. 24 hours
b. 6 hours ✔
c. 12 hours
d. 3 months
2654. The culture media used for cultivation of HSV is______?
a. Chocolate agar
b. Robertoson’s cooked-meat broth
c. Chorio allantoic membrane ✔
d. Sabourad’s agar
2655. All of the following infections may be transmitted be dental instruments except_______?
a. HIV
b. Hepatitis C
c. Hepatitis B
d. Hepatitis E ✔
2656. HIV is transmitted by all of the following routes except_______?
a. Saliva ✔
b. Needle prick injury
c. Blood transmission
d. Sexual intercourse
2657. The mechanism by which most fungi caused disease is __?
a. exotoxin production
b. lecithinase production
c. hypersensitivity ✔
d. Coagulase production
2658. Fungus capable to forming fungal ball is __?
a. Penicillium
b. Aspergillus ✔
c. Mucor
d. Rhizopus
2659. The culture media for fungus is_______?
 a. Tellurite medium
b. NNN medium
c. Chocolate agar medium
d. Sabourauds medium ✔
2660. The medium of choice for culturing yeast from of dimorphic fungi is_______?
a. Brain – heart infusion
b. Sabouraud’s
c. Sabouraud’s plus antibiotics ✔
d. Any medium incubated at 35-37°C
2661. Dematophytes are fungi infecting______?
a. Subcutaneous tissue
b. Systemic organs
c. Nails, hair and skin ✔
d. Superficial skin and deep tissue
2662. Transmission of all of the following intestinal parasites takes place by the feco-oral route except______?
a. Giardia lambia
b. Ascaris lumbriocoides
c. Strongyloides ✔
d. Entamoeba
2663. Investigation of choice for invasive amoebiasis is_______?
a. Indirect hemagglutination
b. ELISA ✔
c. Counter immune electroporesis
d. Microscopy
2664. Black water fever is caused by_____?
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium falciparum ✔
c. Leishmania donovani
d. Microfilaria
2665. Causative organism of Kalahazar is_____?
a. Plasmodium ovaie
b. Leishman donovani ✔
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Toxoplasma
2666. All the following amoeba live in the large intestine except_______?
a. coli
b. nana
c. gingivalis ✔
d. histolytica
2667. All are true about Entamoeba histolytica except______?
a. Cysts are 8 nucleated ✔
b. Cysts are 4 nucleated
c. Trophozoites colonise in the colon
d. The chromatid bodies are stained by iodides
2668. All are seen in a cysts of E. histolytica except_______?
a. Glycogen mass
b. Chromatid bars
c. Eccentric nucleus
d. Refractile nucleus ✔
2669. Sporozoites of plasmodium falciparum are shaped_______?
a. Dot
b. Comma
c. Banana
d. Sickle ✔
2670. True about Toxaplasma gondi is, it is carried by______?
 a. cats ✔
b. Dogs
c. Rats
d. Cow
2671. Which worm is longest_____?
a. T. Solium
b. T. Saginata ✔
c. Hook worm
d. A. Lumbricoides
2672. Thread worm is_____?
a. Enterobius ✔
b. Ancylostoma
c. Ascaris
d. Necator
2673. Highest incidence of anemia in the tropics is due to_____?
a. Hook worm ✔
b. Thread worm
c. Ascaris
d. Guinea worm
2674. Medusa lock appearance in X ray is seen in_____?
a. Ascariasis ✔
b. Tapeworm
c. Hood worm
d. Ascariasis and tapeworm
2675. Culture media of candida is_______?
a. Methylene blue dextrose agar
b. Saboraud’s medium ✔
c. Pingolevin
d. All of the above
2676. The following is not true of Candida albicans_____?
a. Yeast like fungus
b. Forms Chlamydospores
c. Blastomeres seen in isolates ✔
d. Seen in immunocompromised and causes meningitis in them
2677. Opportunistic infection is caused by_______?
a. Penicillium
b. Mucor
c. Aspergillus
d. All of the above ✔
2678. The inflammatory type of tinea capitis with superadded secondary bacterial infection leading to a painful,
circumscribed, boggy, and indurated lesion, is called_______?
a. Kerison ✔
b. Alopecia areata
c. Pilomatrixoma
d. Tenia incognito
2679. Reynolds Braude phenomenon is shown by _?
a. Candida albicans ✔
b. Mucor
c. Cryptococcus
d. Aspergillus
2680. Candidal hyphae can be stained using______?
a. Van Gieson’s stain
b. Periodic acid schiff stain ✔
c. Masson Trichrome stain
d. Toluidine blue stain
2681. Following are the characteristics of Cryptococcus neoformans EXCEPT________?
a. Noncapsulated fungus infecting man ✔
b. Causes meningitis
c. Melanin production related to virulence
d. Basidiomycetes yeast
2682. Normal ratio of CD4 (T4) : CD8 (T8) is______?
a. 2:1 ✔
b. 1:2
c. 3:1
d. 1:3
2683. Lesions caused by Entameoba histolytica predominantly involve______?
a. Caecum and large intestine ✔
b. Duodenum
c. Stomach
d. Jejunum and Ileum
2684. Which of the following parasite causes autoinfection______?
a. Giardia lambella
b. Isopora belli
c. Balantidium coli
d. Taenia solium ✔
2685. Probiotic organism used______?
a. E coli
b. Bifido bacteria ✔
c. Staphylococcus
d. Salmonella
2686. Sleeping sickness is caused by______?
a. House fly
b. Sand fly
c. Tick
d. Reduvid bug ✔
2687. Injection abscesses due to use of contaminated vaccines occurs in infections caused by______?
a. M. Kansasii
b. M. ulcerans
c. M. chelonae ✔
d. M. smegmatis
2688. Donovanosis, true is______?
a. Caused by Calymmatobacterium granulomatis ✔
b. Lymphadenopathy is remarkable & diagnostic
c. Penicillin is drug of choice
d. Characterized by painful genital ulcers
2689. CD4 count in normal healthy adult is______?
a. 500
b. 200
c. 1000 ✔
d. 300
2690. A cerebrospinal fluid of a 2 years old child has been sent to the laboratory to detect the presence of
capsulated yeast. The staining technique most commonly employed for the purpose is_____?
a. India ink preparation ✔
b. Methanamine silver stain
c. Ziehl-Neelsen stain
d. Pyte-ferraco stain
2691. Most fungi of medical importance belongs to_____?
a. Zygomycetes
b. Ascomycetes
c. Basidiomycetes
 d. Deuteromycetes ✔
2692. A mother donated a kidney to her daughter having chronic renal failure, which kind of graft it
represents_______?
a. Allo ✔
b. ISO
c. Xeno
d. Auto
2693. Which of the following is most potent antigen for stimulating both humoral and cell mediated immunity ?
a. Adjuvant
b. Proteins ✔
c. Polysaccharides
d. Lipids
2694. In falciparum malaria, causes of anemia are due to all except______?
a. Hemolysis
b. Malabsorption ✔
c. Spleen sequestration
d. Bone marrow depression
2695. Which of the following is not transmitted by lice ?
a. Trench fever
b. Relapsing fever
c. Q fever ✔
d. Epidemic typhus
2696. Which stage of plasmodium vivax is infective to mosquito_______?
a. Sporozoite
b. Gametocyte ✔
c. Merozoite
d. Zygote
2697. Schuffner’s dots are seen in infection due to_____?
a. Plasmodium falciparum
b. Plasmodium vivax ✔
c. Plasmodium malariae
d. Plasmodium ovale
2698. Man is the only reservoir for_______?
a. Salmonella
b. Camphylobacter jejuni
c. histolytica ✔
d. Y. enterocolitica
2699. A 30 years old patient developed high fever of sudden onset. Peripheral blood smear showed cresent shaped
gametocytes. Malaria pigment was dark brown in colour Which of the following malarial parasites is the
causative agent ?
a. Plasmodium vivax
b. Plasmodium malaria
c. Plasmodium falciparum ✔
d. Plasmodium ovale
2700. Commonest site of extra intestinal amoebiasis is________?
a. Brain
b. Liver ✔
c. Spleen
d. Lungs
2701. Delhi boil refer to________?
a. Solar Keratosis
b. Malignant pustule
c. L. Tropica sore ✔
d. Venereal ulcer
2702. Madura mycosis produces_____?
 a. Brown to black granules
b. White to yellow granules ✔
c. Red granules
d. No granules
2703. Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-5m in size, multi-septate, chestnut, brown color is characteristic of______?
a. Histoplasmosis
b. Rhinosporodiosis
c. Phaeohypomycosis
d. Chromoblastomycosis ✔
2704. Methods for the diagnosis of superficial fungal infection______?
a. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings
b. KOH staining
c. Wood light examination
d. All of the above ✔
2705. The following statement is true regarding fungal infection______?
a. Dermatophyte infection are exclusively man to animal
b. Rhinosporidium causes deep infection in man
c. albicans is not pathogenic to lab animals
d. Candida infection is usually endogenous ✔
2706. Common name for Trichuris trichura_______?
a. Round worm
b. Whip worm ✔
c. Tape worm
d. Seat woman
2707. Rapid evaluation of fungal hyphae/spores can be achieved with_______?
a. Grocott Gomori Methenamine silver
b. Hematoxylin and Eosin
c. KOH wet mount ✔
d. Peri-iodic Acid Schiff
2708. Leishmania is cultured in __ media ?
a. Chocolate agar
b. NNN ✔
c. Tellurite
d. Sabourauds
2709. Which is false about Wucheraria bancrofti_______?
a. Causes filariasis
b. Body is slender and long
c. Terminal nuclei absent
d. Man and anapheles mosquito are hosts ✔
2710. Kolmer test is a screening test done for______?
a. Syphilis ✔
b. Tuberculosis
c. Gonorrhea
d. Lymphoma
2711. Cysticercosis celluosae is caused by______?
a. T. Solium ✔
b. Echinococcus granulosus
c. T. Saginata
d. nana
2712. Malaria pigment is______?
a. Bilurubin
b. Haemoglobin
c. Iron
d. Haematin-globin pigment ✔
2713. In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers_____?
 a. Sporozoite ✔
b. Merozoite
c. Hypnozoite
d. Gametocyte
2714. Amoebic liver abscess can be diagnosed by demonstratig______?
a. Cysts in the sterile pus
b. Trophozoites in the pus ✔
c. Cysts in the intestine
d. Trophozoites in the feces
2715. Parasitic inflammation would show predominantly______?
a. Lymphocytes
b. Neutrophilis
c. Eosinophils ✔
d. Basophils
2716. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by____?
a. Dog tapeworm
b. Hookworm
c. Fish tapeworm ✔
d. Threadworm
2717. L.D bodies are seen in______?
a. Kalahazar ✔
b. Toxoplasmosis
c. Malaria
d. Sleeping sickness
2718. Hydatid cyst is_____?
a. Parasitic in nature ✔
b. Fungal
c. Congenital
d. Viral
2719. Candida albicans causes all of the following except______?
a. Endocarditis
b. Mycetoma ✔
c. Meningitis
d. Oral thrush
2720. Candida is most often implicated in causation______?
a. Conjunctivitis
b. Tenea capitis
c. Desert rheumatism
d. Thrush ✔
2721. Pseudohphae are seen in_____?
a. Alternaria
b. Aspergillus
c. Osporium
d. Candida albicans ✔
2722. A sporangium contains_____?
a. Spherules
b. porangiospores ✔
c. Chlamydospores
d. Oidia
2723. Aflatoxins are produced by_______?
a. Aspergillus Niger
b. Aspergillus fumigatus
c. Aspergillus flavus ✔
d. All of the above
2724. Germ tubes are formed mainly by____?
 a. Candida albicans ✔
b. Candida stellatoidea
c. Candida tropicalis
d. Candida pseudotropicalls
2725. Fungal infection of human beings is called as______?
a. Mucorsis
b. Mycosis ✔
c. Fungosis
d. Micromia
2726. Which of the following is true about amoebic liver disease ?
a. Left lobe of liver is commonly involved
b. Portal system is the main filtration system
c. Trophozoites can be visualized in the pus ✔
d. Non-suppurative form is the serious form of extra intestinal amoebiasis
2727. Which of the following is NOT a live attenuated vaccine?
a. Tuberculosis (BCG)
b. Typhoid
c. Varicella Zoster virus
d. Cholera ✔
2728. Out of the following hypersensitivity reactions, in which type a single dose of the antigen can act as both the
sensitizing and shocking dose______?
a. Anaphylaxis
b. Arthus reaction
c. Serum sickness ✔
d. Contact dermatitis
2729. Anaphylaxis refers to the____?
a. Severe reaction following the injection of protein solution in a sensitized individual ✔
b. Severe reaction following primary injection of Protein solutions
c. State of immunity developed by repeated injections of any foreign substance
d. Severe reaction resulting from sensitivity to common allergens
2730. Which of the following is not used as disinfectant______?
a. 1-2% cetrimide
b. 100% alcohol ✔
c. 2% Lysol
d. 5% chloroxylene
2731. Components of innate immunity that are active against viral cells includes_____?
a. NK Cells ✔
b. Cytotoxic T cells
c. B cells
d. Memory B cells
2732. Chemotactic cytokine is______?
a. IL-1
b. IL-6
c. IL-8 ✔
d. TNF
2733. Antibiotic sensitivity and resistance of micro organisms is determined by_____?
a. Direct microscopy
b. Culture ✔
c. ELISA
d. DNA probe
2734. The cell wall deficient bacteria______?
a. Rickettsiae
b. Mycoplasma ✔
c. Chlamydiae
d. Ehrlichiae