A320/A321 QUESTIONNAIRE

CFM56-5
21 - AIR CONDITIONING & PRESSURIZATION
1. When HOT AIR “FAULT” Light comes ON on the air conditioning panel due to
overheat:
a. the Hot Air Press Regulating Valve closes and the Trim Air Valves close;
b. the Hot Air Press Regulating Valve opens and the Trim Air Valves close;
c. the Hot Air Press Regulating Valve closes and the Trim Air Valves open.

2. During normal flight and with Skin Temp +35oC, the Avionics Ventilation System
controls the temperature of the cooling air by:
a. adding air from the cockpit;
b. passing air through a skin heat exchanger;
c. adding conditioned air to the flow;
d. extracting air from overboard.

3. The Ram Air Switch should be used:

a. at anytime;
b. only when the Differential Pressure is less than 1 PSI;
c. when the Differential Pressure is greater than 1 PSI;
d. only when the outflow valve is fully opened.

4. What happens in case of failure of the primary channel of the Pack Controllers?
a. The secondary computer operates in back up mode and regulation is not
optimized;
b. The secondary computer takes over;
c. Pack is lost.

5. What happens in case of failure of the secondary channel of the Pack

Controllers?
a. No effect on pack regulation, back up mode is lost;
b. Pack is lost;
c. No effect.

6. What happens in case of failure of the Primary and Secondary Channels of the
Pack Controllers?
a. Pack Outlet Temperature is controlled at 15oC by the Anti-Ice Valve;
b. The Pack is closed.

7. What happens if the Hot-Air Pressure-Regulating Valve fails open?

a. Optimised regulation is lost;
b. The temperature stays at the value selected when the failure occurred;
c. No effect.

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 8. Bleed air supplied from the APU (APU Bleed Valve open), the pack flow is
automatically selected:
a. High
b. Normal
c. Low

9. Each Trim Air Valve optimizes the temperature by:

a. adding hot air;
b. adding fresh air;
c. modulation of pack flow.

10. The Hot-Air Pressure-Regulating Valve:

a. regulates the pressure of hot air tapped upstream of the packs;
b. is spring-loaded open in the absence of air;
c. opens automatically in case of duct overheat.

11. The Pack Flow Control Valve is:

a. pneumatically operated and electrically controlled;
b. electrically operated and pneumatically controlled;
c. opens automatically during engine starting.

12. The Temperature Selectors are located in:

a. the cockpit;
b. the cabin;
c. both.

13. Pack flow may be selected from:

a. the cockpit;
b. the cabin;
c. both.

14. For engine pressure demand, when the heating or cooling demand in one zone
cannot be satisfied:
a. the minimum idle must be increased manually;
b. the minimum idle must be increased automatically;
c. in any case, flight idle is sufficient.

15. What is the maximum normal cabin altitude?

a. 8,000 FT;
b. 9,550 + 350 FT;
c. 14,000 FT.

16. What is the maximum negative differential pressure for the cabin?
a. 0 PSI
b. 0.1 PSI
c. 0.-2 PSI

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17. Is it possible to simultaneously use Packs and LP Ground Unit during long
stops in hot airfield?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes, if external temperature is >50oC.

18. The Trim Air Valves are modulated by:

a. the Zone Controller
b. Pack Controllers
c. Hot Air Pressure Regulating Valve.

19. The Mixing Unit is connected to:

a. Packs, Cabin Air, Emergency Ram Air Inlet and LP Ground Connector;
b. Packs, Emergency Ram Air Inlet and LP Ground Connector;
c. Packs and Cabin Air.

20. Once set to “ON”, the Air Conditioning Packs operate:

a. automatically and independently of each other;
b. manually and independently of each other
c. automatically, Pack 1 as a master, Pack 2 as a slave.

21. When the Ram Air push button is set to “ON”, the Emer Ram Air Inlet Valve will
open:
a. in any case;
b. provided ditching is not selected;
c. P < 1PSI and ditching is not selected.

22. In case of Zone Controller Primary Channel failure, which temperature is

delivered by the Packs?
a. Pack 1 controls the cockpit temperature at 24oC (75oF), Pack 2 controls the
FWD and AFT Cabins temperature at 24oC (75oF);
b. Pack 1 controls a fixed temperature at 20oC (68oF), Pack 2 controls a fixed
temperature at 10oC (50oF);
c. the Outlet Temperature for Packs 1 and 2 is fixed at 15oC (59oF).

23. Conditioned Air is distributed to:

a. Cockpit, Cargo Bays and Cabin;
b. Cockpit, Forward Cabin and Aft Cabin;
c. Cockpit, Avionics Bay, Cabin.

24. The Cabin Zone Temperature Sensors are ventilated by the air extracted by
the Lavatory and Galley fans.
a. True
b. False

25. Temperature Control is automatic and is regulated by:

a. Zone Controller
b. Pack 1 and 2 Controllers
c. both A and B above.

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26. If a Pack Controller fails, the Pack Outlet Air Temperature is regulated to:
a. 10oC (50oF)
b. 18oC (64oF)
c. 15oC (59oF)

27. In case of Pack Controller failure, the Pack Outlet Air Temperature is controlled
by:
a. Pack By-Pass Valve
b. Pack Anti-Ice Valve
c. Pack Flow Control Valve

28. When the Ram Air push button is set to “ON”, the Outflow Valve:
a. closes;
b. opens each time;
c. opens when Differential Pressure is greater than 1 PSI.

29. The Pack Flow Control Valve closes automatically in case of:
a. Pack overheat, Engine Fire push button released, Engine Start, Ditching
push button pressed;
b. bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase;
c. Both A and B.

30. In case of Trim Air System Fault, the Secondary Channel of the Zone
Controller regulates the Zone Temperature at:
a. 14oC (57oF)
b. 24oC (75oF)
c. 15oC (59oF)

31. In case of Total Zone Controller failure:

a. Hot Air and Trim Valves open and Packs deliver air at fixed temperature –
15oC (59oF) Pack 1, 10oC (50oF) Pack 2;
b. Hot Air and Trim Valves close and Packs deliver air at fixed temperature –
15oC (59oF) Pack 1, 10oC (50oF) Pack 2;
c. Hot Air and Trim Valves close and Packs deliver air at fixed temperature –
20oC (68oF) Pack 1, 10oC (50oF) Pack 2.

32. During landing run, the Pack Air Flaps open when speed is less than:
a. 77 kts (after 30 seconds delay);
b. 70 kts (after 3 minutes);
c. 70 kts (after 20 seconds delay).

33. When the APU is supplying the Packs, the Pack Controller sends a demand
signal to increase air flow when a zone temperature cannot be satisfied:
a. to the Pack Ram Air Inlet Flap;
b. to the APU ECB;
c. Pack Flow Control Valve.

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34. In case of Zone Controller Primary and Secondary Channels failure, which
temperature is delivered by each Pack?
a. 25oC (59oF) Both;
b. 20oC (68oF) Pack 1, 10oC (50oF) Pack 2
c. 24oC (75oF) Pack 1 - 15oC (59oF) Pack 2
d. 15oC (59oF) Both

35. When the Ditching Switch is set to “ON”, a closure signal is sent to:
a. Outflow Valve;
b. Ram Air Inlet, and Ventilation Inlet and Extract Valves;
c. The Pack Flow Control Valves;
d. All of the above.

36. In normal operation, pressurization is:

a. fully automatic;
b. manually controlled;
c. both A and B.

37. In flight, with Pressure Controller 1 in use, if it fails:

a. You have to use the manual control;
b. Automatic transfer to Controller 2;
c. You have to manually select Controller 2;
d. You have to set the Landing Elevation.

38. The Outflow Valve is powered by:

a. One of two electric motors;
b. One of three electric motors;
c. Three mechanically linked electric motors.

39. During ground function operation, the Outflow Valve is:

a. fully open;
b. fully closed;
c. positioned according to FMGS demands.

40. To see the position of the Outflow Valve, it is necessary to call ECAM:
a. COND Page
b. BLEED Page
c. PRESS Page

41. Two identical independent, automatic digital pressurization controllers are used
for system control:
a. One controller active, one in standby;
b. Both controllers monitored by FMGC;
c. Controller No1 for climb phase and controller No2 in cruise and descent.

42. Which controller generates excess cabin altitude and pressure outputs for
ECAM indication in Manual Mode?
a. Both
b. No1
c. No2

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43. When the Ram Air push button set to “ON”, the Outflow Valve will partially
open when:
a. > 1.5 PSI
b. < 3 PSI
c. < 1 PSI

44. The purpose of the Safety Valves is to avoid:

a. Excessive positive differential pressure;
b. Excessive negative differential pressure;
c. Both A and B above.

45. The Safety Valves are operated:

a. Electrically
b. Hydraulically
c. Pneumatically

46. When Landing Elevation is set to Auto, the Landing Elevation is sent to the
controller from:
a. FMGS
b. FCU
c. ADIRS

47. When MODE SEL is set to Manual, the Outflow Valve is controlled by signals
sent via Controller 1 or 2.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

48. On ECAM CAB Press Page, the Outflow Valve indicator changes to AMBER if:
a. Fully closed;
b. Fully open in flight;
c. Fully open on ground.

49. On ECAM CAB Press Page, the Safety Valve indication changes to AMBER if:
a. Both Safety Valves are fully open;
b. One Safety Valve is open;
c. Both Safety Valves are fully closed.

50. On ECAM CAB Press Page, the Cabin Altitude indication changes to RED
when Cabin Altitude is:
a. > 14,000 FT
b. > 8,500 FT
c. > 9,550 FT

51. Following a System 1 fault:

a. Master Caution is activated and ECAM actions must be taken by the crew;
b. System 2 must be selected by the crew;
c. System 2 takes over automatically without crew action.

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52. Cabin Pre-Pressurization starts at:
a. Engine Start
b. Take-Off power selection
c. Lift-Off

53. The Pressure Safety Valves open at:

a. 8.06 PSI
b. 8.6 PSI
c. 9.0 PSI
d. 7.6 PSI

49 - AUXILIARY POWER UNIT

1. What are the APU Manual shut down possibilities in the cockpit?
a. APU Master Switch Push Button; APU Fire Push Button Switch
b. APU Master Switch Push Button
c. APU Fire Push Button Switch; APU Shut Off Push Button

2. When the APU is running, the APU Fuel Pump:

a. Runs when tank pumps pressure is not sufficient;
b. Runs all the time;
c. Runs only in flight;
d. Runs when the APU fuel pump is selected ON.

3. On ground, normal APU rotation speed (N%) without air conditioning is:
a. 99% (101% for Engine Start)
b. Steady at 99%
c. Steady at 101%

4. APU Master Switch selected “ON”:

a. ON comes on BLUE, APU system is supplied and APU starts; at 95%,
AVAIL comes ON;
b. ON comes on BLUE; APU system is supplied; APU starts as soon as the
START Push Button is pressed and Intake Flap opens.

5. APU Bleed Air is controlled:

a. By ECB (N% Adjustment)
b. Not Controlled
c. By APU Bleed Valve which operates as Shut Off Valve.

6. APU N indication becomes AMBER on ECAM SD whien:

a. N > 107%
b. N > 102%
c. N > 99%

7. APU EGT indication becomes RED on ECAM SD when:

a. EGT > 715oC (APU Running)
b. EGT > 1038oC (APU Running)
c. EGT > 711 (APU Running; OAT: 15oC (59oF); OP. EGT > 1038oC (During
APU start)

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 8. On ground, APU provides:
a. Electrical Power + Hydraulic Power
b. Electrical Power + Bleed Air

9. Air Bleed extraction for Wing Anti-Ice:

a. is permitted
b. is not permitted

10. Can you start the APU using the A/C Batteries?
a. Yes
b. No

11. The APU is supplied from the:

a. Left Fuel Feed Line
b. Right Fuel Feed Line

12. If Air Bleed was used, after a Manual Shut Down

Sequence, the APU:
a. stops immediately;
b. keeps running for four (4) minutes;
c. keeps running between 60 seconds and 120 seconds MAX.

13. AVAIL Light illuminates on start PB when:

a. external power is disconnected;
b. APU N reaches 95%;
c. APU Electric Power is used.

14. The APU has its own lubrication system:

a. Yes
b. No

15. On ground, the APU speed is determined in accordance with Air Bleed system
demand by:
a. Electronic Control Box
b. Air Conditioning System (Zone Controller)
c. Air Intake System

16. Besides the Master Switch on the cockpit APU panel, APU shut down is
possible by:
a. Switching Off the left fuel pumps;
b. Pushing the APU Fire Push Button;
c. Pressing APU Shut Off Push Button on external interphone panel;
d. Either B or C.

17. When the APU Master Switch is released out, a normal APU Shut Down
occurs:
a. after a time delay, in all cases;
b. after a time delay if the APU bleed air was in use;
c. without time delay, in all cases.

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18. Master Switch ON, the:
a. APU starts
b. ECB is electrically supplied
c. Air Intake Flap closes

23 - COMMUNICATIONS
1. In normal operation, RMP1 is dedicated to:
a. HF1 and HF2
b. VHF1
c. VHF2
d. HF1

2. If you select VHF2 on RMP1, the SEL light illuminates on:

a. RMP1 only
b. RMP2 only
c. RMP1 and RMP2

3. To activate the Voice Recorder before engine start, you have to press:
a. the Ground Control push button;
b. the CVR Erase push button;
c. the CVR Test push button.

4. By pressing the MECH Transmission Key on the Audio Control Panel (ACP)
a. You can speak to ground Mech through the handset;
b. You can speak to ground Mech via the Audio Control Panel Interphone
push button;
c. You are one line with Ground Mech via the Audio Control Panel Cabin push
button.

5. To erase CVR Recording:

a. You push the erase push button once;
b. You push the erase push button for 2 seconds in flight;
c. You push the erase on push button ground for more than 2 seconds and
check that the parking brake is ON.

6. Interphone System permits you to speak to:

a. The Cabin Attendants
b. All occupants in the Cockpit
c. The Mechanic on the ground
d. All of the above

7. Can you obtain an amplitude modulation GREEN “AM” light on RMP2?

a. Yes
b. No

8. How do you receive ATIS Information using the VOR?

a. Selection on voice push button on the Audio control Panel and VOR
Reception knob;

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 b. Selecting voice push button only.
9. How do you cancel the GREEN ON VOICE light?
a. By pressing the ON Voice push button again;
b. By pressing the VOR Reception push button;
c. Both

10. What is the function of the RESET Push Button on the Audio Control Panel?
a. To restart system operation;
b. To cancel the previous selections;
c. To cancel any lighted calls.

11. When using the OXY MASK on Boom Headset, if the INT/RAD Key is set to
INT, will the interphone background noise be heard when using the sidestick
press to talk for Radio Transmissions?
a. Yes
b. No

12. You make a STBY/NAV selection on a pedestal RMP. Can you confirm that
selection on MCDU-RAD/NAV Page?
a. Yes
b. No

13. Is STBY/NAV tuning possible on RMP3?

a. Yes
b. No

14. Can you hear the beacon identification selected through the STBY/NAV?
a. Yes, by pressing corresponding reception knob;
b. Yes, by pressing a LSK on the MCDU.

15. Can you hear the Voice Recorder Test Signal through the cockpit
loudspeakers, with the parking brake released?
a. Yes
b. No

16. If RMP2 fails:

a. All Com Systems can be controlled by any other RMP;
b. Only VHF2 Frequencies can not be controlled;
c. The whole system is inoperative;
d. VHF2 and HF2 frequencies can not be controlled.

17. You receive a SELCAL on VHF2, what happens on your Audio Control Panel?
a. AMBER Sign call flashes on VHF2 Key;
b. Three Green Bars come on
c. White SELCAL appears on VHF2 P/B and VHF2 reception selector
illuminates white.

18. Can you speak on VHF and the Passenger Address at the same time?
a. Never;
b. Yes, by pressing the RAD Toggle Switch and the Passenger Address Key.

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 c. Yes, by using the Stick Press-To-Talk Command and the PAX Address Key.
19. When you select CAPT 3 on the Audio Switching Panel:
a. The Captain uses the 3rd Occupant Headset;
b. The 3rd Occupant uses Captain equipment;
c. The Captain uses his acoustic equipment and the 3rd Occupant ACP.

20. Can you select VOR 2 Frequency with RMP 1?

a. Yes
b. No

21. If VHF 1 is selected on RMP 2, the SEL Light illuminates white:

a. On RMP 2
b. On RMP 1
c. On RMP 1 and RMP 2

22. If RMP 1 fails, the Crew can only use RMP 2:

a. By switching OFF RMP 1, then using RMP 2;
b. By using the overhead panel Audio Switching: CAPT 3

23. In case of dual FMGC failure, selection of Radio Navigation frequencies is

possible with:
a. RMP 1 Only
b. RMP 1 and RMP 2 Only
c. .RMP 1, 2 and 3

24. For communication with the Ground Mechanic at the engine nacelle, the Crew
must use the following Audio System selection:
a. Mechanic (MECH) + Interphone (INT)
b. Attendant (ATT) + Cabin (CAB)
c. Any of the above

25. The Cockpit Voice Recorder is energized, on ground as soon as the aircraft
electrical network is supplied but only for 5-minutes. It starts again as soon as:
a. GND CTL is ON
b. One engine is running
c. A or B

26. If an RMP fails, the selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP and
frequencies and bars disappear from this RMP:
a. Yes
b. No

27. What is the main purpose of the RMP:

a. To select Radio frequencies;
b. To select NAV Aids when the MCDU has failed;
c. Both

28. Can you use Service Interphone System in flight?

a. Yes
b. No

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29. If the ATC Mode Selector is set to AUTO:
a. Selected ATC operates only in flight;
b. Selected ATC operates when FLEX or TOGA power is selected for T.O.;
c. Selected ATC operates as soon as one engine is running.

30. On ATC Control Panel, the FAULT light comes on if:

a. Selected Transponder fails;
b. System 1 or 2 has failed.

31. On RMP, the ON/OFF Switch controls:

a. The power supply to the RMP;
b. Only the STBY NAV function of RMP;
c. Only the COM Function of RMP.

32. STBY NAV has been selected by using of NAV KEY:

a. VHF Function is lost on this RMP;
b. VHF is still available but only the last frequency selected can be used;
c. NAV KEY has no effect on Radio COM Frequency selection.

24 - ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
1. In normal configuration, how is the DC ESS BUS supplied?
a. from TR 1
b. from ESS TR
c. from TR 2
d. from BAT 2

2. AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by:

a. AC BUS 1
b. AC BUS 2
c. Emergency Generator
d. Static Inverter

3. DC BAT BUS can be supplied by:

a. DC BUS 1 on Batteries
b. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or Batteries
c. DC BUS 2 or Batteries

4. What happens during the EMER GEN Test?

a. The RAM Air Turbine (RAT) is extended;
b. The Blue System is pressurized and the Emergency Generator comes on
Line;
c. The Green System is pressurized and the Emergency Generator comes on
Line, supplied by HOT BUS 2.

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 5. On the EMER ELEC PWR Panel, a fault light illuminates under the “RAT and
EMER GEN” Label. What does it mean?
a. RAT is not extended;
b. Emergency Generator is not supplying when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not
powered (above 100 kts) or DC BAT BUS is not powered;
c. Emergency Generator is supplying but AC ESS BUS is not powered;
d. Emergency Generator is not supplying when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not
powered and the gear is retracted (Nose L/G is UP).

6. What happens when the GEN1 Line push button is set to OFF?
a. AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered and EMERgency GENerator is
automatically connected;
b. AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 because GEN 1 is deactivated;
c. AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 because GEN 1 Line Contactor is opened;
d. AC BUS 1 is not powered because GEN 1 Line Contactor is opened and the
Transfer Contactor is not closed.

7. In cold aircraft configuration (No AC and No DC Supply), where can the

Batteries Voltage be checked?
a. On the ECAM ELEC Page
b. On the ELEC Overhead Panel
c. There is no indication

8. What happens during the EMER GEN Test?

a. The EMERgency GENerator comes on line, supplied by HOT BUS 2, and
the Hydraulic Green System is pressurized;
b. The RAM Air Turbine (RAT) is extended;
c. As the Blue System is already pressurized, the EMERgency GENerator
comes on line.

9. BUS TIE Contactors when closed enable AC BUS 1 and 2:

a. To be supplied by any one of the main generators or external power;
b. To be supplied by APU GENerator or External Power only;
c. To be connected in parallel.

10. In flight, on Batteries only, the AC ESS SHED BUS and the DC ESS SHED
BUS are lost.
a. Yes
b. No

11. The Static Inverter works:

a. Always;
b. When A/C is in flight and on Batteries ONLY;
c. When one Main Generator fails.

12. Recommended Minimum Battery Voltage before APU Start is:

a. 25 V
b. 27.5 V
c. 22 V

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 d. No Minimum
13. On ground, what happens if the “RAT and EMER GEN MAN ON PUSH
BUTTON” is pressed in:
a. The RAT is extended;
b. The EMERgency GENerator is activated;
c. Nothing

14. On the EMER ELEC PWR Panel, if the FAULT Light comes ON under the
“RAT and EMER GEN” Label, what does it mean?
a. EMERgency GENerator is supplying but AC ESS BUS is not powered;
b. EMERgency GENerator is not supplying when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not
powered and the Landing Gear is retracted (Nose L/G is UP);
c. RAT is not extended;
d. EMERgency GENerator is not supplying when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not
powered (above 100 kts) or DC BAT BUS is not powered.

15. The Static Inverter transforms the DC Voltage from the Battery BUS into:
a. SINGLE PHASE 115 V // 400 HZ AC CURRENT
b. THREE PHASE 115/200 V // 400 HZ AC CURRENT

16. In flight, in case of loss of All Main Generators, EMERgency GENerator not
running, the STATIC INVERTER supplies:
a. APU and ENG START + AC ESS BUS
b. ENG START + AC ESS BUS + AC ESS SHED BUS
c. ENG START

17. The External Power has priority over the APU GEN.
a. Yes
b. No

18. GEN 1 and GEN 2, when operating, have priority over APU GEN.
a. Yes
b. No

19. With APU available, if one Eng Generator fails, the failed generator is replaced
by:
a. the APU
b. the other Eng Generator

20. In case of TR failure (TR2), does the ESS TR supply the DC ESS BUS?
a. Yes
b. No

21. In flight, in case of loss of All Generators, EMERgency GENerator not running,
the DC ESS BUS is supplied by:
a. HOT BUS 2
b. ESS TR
c. BOTH

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 22. In flight, in case of loss of All Main Generators, EMERgency GENerator running,
the DC ESS BUS is supplied by:
a. HOT BUS 2
b. ESS TR
c. BOTH

23. The IDG regulates the:

a. SPEED
b. VOLTAGE
c. FREQUENCY OF THE GENERATOR

24. Generators are sometimes connected in parallel:

a. Yes
b. No

25. What happens in case of Total Loss of Main Generators?

a. The RAT is automatically extended and powers the Yellow Hydraulic
System which drives the EMERgency GEN (provided Nose L/G is UP);
b. The RAT is extended and mechanically connected to the EMERgency
GENerator;
c. The RAT is automatically extended and powers the Blue Hydraulic System
which drives the EMERgency GENerator (provided Nose L/G is UP);
d. The RAT has to be manually extended.

26. If AC BUS 1 fails, the AC ESS BUS is supplied by:

a. EMER GEN
b. AC BUS 2
c. STATIC INVERTER

27. In case of Total Electrical Loss, the AC ESS BUS is supplied by:
a. STATIC INVERTER
b. EMER GEN
c. BOTH

28. In Emergency Configuration, AC ESS SHED BUS is automatically:

a. Shed with L/G Down;
b. Supplied by Static Inverter when L/G is Down.

29. With only One Generator operating in flight:

a. Main Galley is automatically shed;
b. Secondary Galley is automatically shed;
c. All Galleys are shed.

30. When disconnecting the IDG, the Pushbutton Switch should be pressed:
a. For no more than 3 seconds;
b. For no more than 5 seconds;
c. For no longer than 3 seconds;
d. Until the FAULT Light goes out.

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31. Can you reconnect the IDG in flight?
a. Yes
b. No

32 When GEN 1 or GEN 2 is selected OFF:

a. The GEN is de-energized and the Line Contactor is open;
b. The GEN is still energized and the Line Contactor is open.

33. The GREEN EXT PWRN Push Button AVAIL Light is ON, what does it mean?
a. The EXT POWR is plugged in;
b. The A/C network is supplied.

34. When do the Batteries supply the DC BAT BUS?

a. APU Starting
b. Loss of AC BUS 1
c. Loss of AC BUS 1 + 2 (Speed < 100 KTS)
d. A + C

35. When you want to check Battery Voltage, you must set the BAT Pushbutton to:
a. AUTO Position
b. OFF Position

36. The BAT FAULT Light comes on when:

a. Battery Voltage < 25
b. Battery Push Button is set to OFF in flight
c. Charging current increases at an abnormal rate

37. In certain cases, the Static Inverter is supplied by:

a. HOT BUS 1 and HOT BUS 2
b. HOT BUS 1
c. DC BAT BUS

31 - ELECTRONIC FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS SYSTEM

1. In case of PFDU failure, the PFD Image will be transferred to the NDU:
a. Automatically;
b. Either manually or automatically;
c. Manually

2. What is the basic role of the DMC’s?

a. Generation of Audio Warnings;
b. Generation of Amber Warnings;
c. They generate the Images to be displayed on DU’s

3. What is the meaning of a Diagonal Line on a CRT?

a. Corresponding CRT is not energized;
b. Electrical supply is good and corresponding DMC failed;
c. As in Answer B, plus it is possible to get an Image on again by switching
EIS DMC.

Page 16 of 62
 4. Can you read Amber Warnings on the FMA part of your PFD?
a. Yes
b. No

5. Do the “CHECK ATT” messages appear on both PFD’s at the same time?
a. Yes
b. No

6. During the approach, FAC’s calculate Speed Trend and VLS. The extremities
of the Trend Vector or VLS Segment indicates: Speed Value at the next 10
seconds and 1.23 VS1G with any CONF setting. Is this correct?
a. Yes
b. No

7. VLS indication is inhibited:

a. During the First 10-seconds after lift-off;
b. With Speed Brakes extended;
c. In both cases.

8. FAC’s compute VLS, F, S, shown on PFD according to the position of Slats

or/and Flaps. Is the above statement correct?
a. Yes
b. No

9. The Amber Altitude window appears flashing:

a. When A/C goes below MDA;
b. When A/C deviates from its selected altitude or selected FL;
c. Both answers are correct.

10. If the Upper ECAM Display is lost, the Engine Warning Display (E/WD)
automatically transferred to the Lower ECAM Display. If the system display is
required, you must:
a. Switch Off the corresponding ECAM Display Selector;
b. Press and Hold the relevant system pushbutton;
c. It is displayed automatically;
d. Press the RCL Button.

11. The R.A. gives height on PFD:

a. At the bottom of the Attitude Sphere;
b. On the Altitude Scale;
c. Both Indications.

12. On the Horizon Line, you find a CYAN HDG or TRK Symbol. Is your FD Push
Button switched on?
a. Yes
b. No

Page 17 of 62
13. Select the correct statement:
a. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 – PFD 2;
b. DMC 1 supplies data to PFD 1 – ND 1 – E/WD;
c. DMC 1 supplies data to ND 1 – ND 2.

14. When your FD Bars flash:

a. Reversion to the AFS basic modes has occurred;
b. ALT capture is active and you select another FL;
c. Loss of LOC or G/S in LAND Mode or Loss of LAND Mode;
d. A, B & C are correct.

15. During Take-Off, the FMA shows “SRS”,what is the order of horizontal FD Bar?
a. Climb at V2 + 10 KT with both engines running;
b. Climb at V2 with both engines running.

16. TRK-FPA is the selected Mode for AFS. The inertial FPV is normally on the
horizon line. Could you see it in Red Colour?
a. Yes
b. No

17. Could you find on PFD HDG Scale a space between Green Diamond and ILS
Course pointer?
a. Yes
b. No

If Yes, are you on LOC Center Line?

a. Yes
b. No, not necessarily.

18. Can you read optional data (WPT or VOR.D, NDB...) on Rose VOR or Rose
ILS?
a. Yes
b. No

19. With Radar selected ON, what can you read on ND about Antenna setting?
a. Tilt Angle
b. Tilt Angle + Calibration Mode

20. Which Computer generates the RED Warnings?

a. FWC
b. DMC
c. SDAC

21. What happens when ND shows RED Circle with ”MAP NOT AVAIL” message:
a. MCDU Failure;
b. A/C position delivered by FMGC is not valid;
c. Engines not running.

Page 18 of 62
26 - FIRE PROTECTION
1. What additional external warnings are activated in case of an APU Fire On
Ground Only?
a. An External Horn Warning;
b. A Fire Bell Warning;
c. APU Fire Light and An External Horn Warning.

2. Which Systems are tested through the Test Push Button?

a. The Fire Detection System
b. The Extinguishing System
c. BOTH

3. Are the Engine and APU Extinguishing Systems controlled by the associated
FDU’s (Fire Detection Unit)?
a. No
b. Yes

4. The Agent Push Button is active when :

a. The Engine Fire Push Button Switch is Pushed-In and Released-Out;
b. The corresponding “DISCH” Light is ON;
c. Engine Fire Push Button Switch is ON.

5. How is an APU FIRE ON GROUND normally extinguished?

a. From the APU Fire Panel;
b. Automatically;
c. From the External Power Panel.

6. How can a Thermal Discharge of the APU Fire Bottle be detected when No
Electrical Power is connected?
a. By the FDU;
b. By the ECAM;
c. By the RED DISC Indicator.

7. How many Fire Sensing Elements does the APU Fire Detection System
comprise?
a. THREE
b. TWO
c. ONE

8. What systems are isolated when the APU Fire Push Button is released out?
a. Fuel, Electricity
b. Air, Electricity
c. Fuel, Air, Electricity

9. When the Engine Fire Push Button is released out, which valve is affected?
a. LP Fuel Shut Off Valve + HYD + BLEED + PACK + ELEC GEN
b. Hydraulic Fire Shut Off Valve;
c. Fuel VS on later Valve

Page 19 of 62
10. When the APU Fire Pushbutton is released OUT, the:
a. APU GENerator is De-energized;
b. APU GENerator is Disconnected;
c. APU GENerator is Energized.

11. Is it necessary to use the APU Shut Off Switch on the External Power Panel in
case of APU Fire Auto-Extinguishing on ground?
a. Yes
b. No
o
12. Where are the Engine Fire Detectors located?
a. On the Pylon, the Fan and the Core Sections;
b. On the Core and the Gearbox;
c. On the Fan and the Turbine.p

13. When the ENG Fire Pushbutton is released out, what Aircraft Systems are
isolated?
a. Fuel, Electricity, Air
b. Fuel, Hydraulic, Air
c. Fuel, Air, Electricity, Hydraulic

14. When an ENG Fire Pushbutton is released out, are the SQUIB Lights ON?
a. Yes
b. No

15. The ENGine and APU Fire Protection Systems include:

a. 2 Fire Extinguishing Bottles for each Engine – 1 Fire Extinguishing Bottle for
the APU;
b. 1 Fire Extinguishing Bottle for each Engine – 1 Fire Extinguishing Bottle for
the APU;
c. 2 Fire Extinguishing Bottles for each Engine – 2 Fire Extinguishing Bottle for
the APU;

27 - FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. The PITCH DIRECT LAW is:
a. A Load Factor demand with No Protection;
b. A Direct Side Stick to Elevator relationship;
c. A Direct Side Stick to Elevator relationship with Auto-Trim Operation;
d. Achieved through the THS using Manual Trim Control.

2. Flight Control Computers are:

a. 2 ELAC’s – 2 SEC’s – 3 FAC’s
b. 2 ELAC’s – 3 SEC’s – 2 FAC’s
c. 3 ELAC’s – 2 SEC’s – 2 FAC’s

3. Which surfaces are used for Lift Dumping?

a. ALL SPOILERS;
b. SPOILERS 1 to 3;

Page 20 of 62
 c. SPOILERS 1 to 4.
4. If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed;
a. The Elevator and Pitch Trim are controlled by SEC 1 or 2;
b. Pitch control is provided by the FAC’s;
c. Pitch control can only be achieved from the Trim Wheel.

5. If FAC 1 and 2 have failed:

a. The Rudder can always be controlled from the pedals;
b. The Rudder control is lost;
c. The Rudder control is provided by SEC 3.

6. Elevators, Ailerons and Spoilers are:

a. Hydraulically actuated and Mechanically controlled;
b. Electrically actuated and Hydraulically controlled;
c. Hydraulically actuated and Electrically controlled;

7. Rudder control is electrical for YAW Damping and TRIM:

a. Yes
b. No

8. What statement is correct?

a. Ground Spoiler function: All Spoilers deploy;
b. Speed Brake function: Spoilers 1, 2, 3 deploy;
c. Roll function: Ailerons + Spoilers 4 and 5 deploy.

9. How many Control Modes are there for the Elevator Servo Jacks?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4

10. What are the limits for Manoeuvre Protection?

a. + 2.5 G – 1 G CLEAN or CONF 1;
b. + 2 G . 0 FLAPS Extended;
c. A and B

11. Which ELAC normally controls the Elevators and the Stabilizer?
a. ELAC 1
b. ELAC 2

12. When is the THS not available?

a. After Yellow and Green Hydraulic Systems failure;
b. Never Lost, always available Manually;
c. After Blue Hydraulic System failure;
d. After Loss of FAC 1 and 2.

13. How many Hydraulic Motors drive the Screw Jack of the Stabilizer?
a. 2
b. 3

Page 21 of 62
14. How many Electric Motors can control the Hydraulic Motor of the Stabilizer?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

15. If neither ELAC 1 nor ELAC 2 are available, Pitch Control is automatically
transferred to:
a. SEC 1 or SEC 2;
b. SEC 1 or SEC 3;
c. SEC 3.

16. In Normal Law, the Flight Mode changes to the Flare Mode at Landing when
passing:
a. 50 FT
b. 100 FT
c. 75 FT

17. At Landing when passing 30 ft:

a. The Attitude is memorized;
b. The Attitude is progressively reduced to 2o Nose Down.

18. How can a De-activated Stick be Re-activated?

a. By momentary action on Take-Over Push Button of the Deactivated Stick;
b. By momentary action on Take-Over Push Button of the Active Stick;
c. By simultaneous action on BOTH Take-Over Push Buttons;
d. A or B above.

19. In Roll Normal Law, the Bank Angle Protection is active when Bank Angle is:
a. > 15o
b. > 33o
c. > 67o

20. The Roll Normal Law provides combined control of the:

a. AILERONS + SPOILERS 2 to 5 + RUDDER;
b. AILERONS + SPOILERS 2 to 5.

21. If ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 HAVE FAILED:

a. ROLL control is provided by Ailerons Only;
b. ROLL control is provided by Ailerons and Spoilers;
c. ROLL control is provided by Spoilers Only.

22. In flight, if a WTB (Wing Tip Brake) is activated, can you release it?
a. Yes
b. No

23. Which signals cause Rudder Pedal movement?

a. Turn Coordination signals;
b. Yaw Damping signals;
c. Rudder Trim signals.

Page 22 of 62
24. What happens when SFCC 1 fails?
a. Nothing;
b. Flaps and Slats operate at Half Speed;
c. Flaps system lost.

25. If Flap One Power Control Unit fails, what happens?

a. Nothing;
b. Flaps operate at Half Speed;
c. Flaps are lost.

26. If CONF 0 is not selected after take-off, the FLAPS automatically retract at:
a. 180 KTS
b. 210 KTS
c. V2

27. After an automatic retraction of the FLAPS with CONF 1, the flaps will
automatically re-extend when Speed decreases?
a. Yes
b. No

28. Is it possible to select an intermediate position with the FLAPS and SLATS
selector?
a. Yes
b. No

29. If you are flying at an Angle Of Attack of more than ALPHA PROT, what
happens when you release the Stick?
a. SPEED returns to VLS
b. SPEED returns to ALPHA PROT

30. When Alternate Law is active, the High Speed and High Angle of Attack
protections are:
a. Degraded
b. Lost

31. When Alternate Law is active, the Yaw Damping is:

a. Available (Damper authority is limited to + 5o Rudder);
b. Lost

32. When Bank Angle Protection is active, is Auto-Trim In-operative?

a. Yes
b. No

33. How many Hydraulic Systems activate the Rudder?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3

Page 23 of 62
34. Which Surfaces are used as Ground Spoilers?
a. SPOILERS 1 to 4
b. ALL SPOILERS
c. SPOILERS 1 to 3

35. Is Slat retraction from 1 to 0 inhibited if Angle Of Attack exceeds 8o6 or Speed
<143 KTS?
a. YES
b. NO

36. In Alternate Law, the change to Direct Law occurs when:

a. Landing Gear Down or at the Selection of FLAPS 2 (LGCIU 1 + 2 FAULT);
b. Landing Gear Down
c. Passing 50FT

37. When both Sticks are moved in the same or opposite direction:
a. Both Pilot Inputs are algebraically added;
b. The Left Stick has a priority;p
c. The surface movement is proportional to the last Stick deflected;
d. Both Pilot Inputs are proportional to the first Stick deflected.

38. SLATS SYS 1 FAULT on the ECAM Warning Display means:

a. SFCC 1 has failed;
b. The SLAT Channel of one SFCC has failed.

39. With Hydraulic Blue System remaining and before Landing Gear Extension, the
Flight Control Law is:
a. ALTERNATE
b. NORMAL
c. DIRECT

40. In Flight Control Normal, the Stall Warning is activated:

a. If SLATS are not extended when reaching a Speed of 148 KTS;
b. When ALPHA MAX is reached;
c. When ALPHA PROT is reached.
d. When Angle Of Attack corresponding to Stall Warning cannot be reached in
Normal Law.

41. The Pitch Normal Law provides:

a. Manoeuvre + High Angle Of Attack + High Speed + Pitch Attitude
Protections;
b. Manoeuvre Protection + Pitch ATT Protection + Low Speed Stability;
c. Manoeuvre + Pitch Attitude + High Speed Protections;
d. Manoeuvre + High Angle Of Attack + High Speed Protections.

Page 24 of 62
34 - FMGS - NAVIGATION
1. What does it mean if the ADR FAULT Light comes ON on the ADIRS CDU?
a. A FAULT is detected in the AIR DATA REFERENCE Part;
b. The AIR DATA Output is disconnected;
c. The PITOT Tube Heating System is not supplied.

2. FMGS Components comprise:

a. 2 FMGC – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 2 FCU
b. 2 FMGC – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 1 FCU
c. 2 FMGC – 2 MCDU – 2 FAC – 2 ECAM
d. 2 FMGC – 2 MCDU – 2 ECAM – 1 FCU

3. Normal Electrical Power supplies the A/C and the MCDU CRT is DARK without
any other Warning. It means:
a. The FMGC is OFF;
b. The FMGC has failed;
c. The MCDU CB is pulled;
d. The MCDU “BRT” Knob is dimmed.

4. What happens when the ATT HDG and AIR DATA Selectors, on the pedestal
mounted switching panel, are set to NORM?
a. ADIRU 1 supplies DATA to PFD 1, ND 1
ADIRU 2 supplies DATA to PFD 2, ND 2;

b. ADIRU 1 supplies DATA to PFD 1, ND 1 and RMI/VOR DME

ADIRU 2 supplies DATA to PFD 2, ND 2;

c. ADIRU 1 supplies DATA to PFD 1

ADIRU 2 supplies DATA to PFD 2p

5. On the ground, when Electrical Power is initially supplied to the A/C, the MCDU
will automatically display:
a. AIRPORT Page
b. INIT ‘A’ Page
c. DATA INDEX Page
d. A/C STATUS Page

6. You press “ALIGN IRS” Prompt on INIT ‘A’ Page. On the ADIRS CDU, the
align lights flash but no message is displayed on the CDU:
a. The System can only be used in ATT MODE;
b. The System is unable to enter NAV MODE to compute coordinates: Switch
it OFF;
c. Make a Second “PRESENT” Position Entry.

Page 25 of 62
 7. These messages appear on Co-Pilot side ND: “SELECT OFF SIDE
RANGE/MODE” & “MAP NOT AVAILABLE”:
a. The IRS’s have not reached complete alignment;
b. The F-PLN entered in CAPTAIN’s FMGC has not been transferred into Co
-Pilot’s FMGC;
c. SINGLE FMGC Operation when the Two EFIS Control Panels are not set at
the same Range and Mode.

8. Engines running, ready to taxi, a message appears: “CHECK GW”. Access to

INIT ‘B’ Page is no longer available. On which page is it possible to insert the
correct GW (Gross Weight)?
a. T/O PERFORMANCE Page
b. PROGRESS Page
c. FUEL PREDICTION Page

9. In case of failure of FMGC 1 and 2, after NAV Selection on BOTH RMP:

a. VOR, ILS and ADF Receivers 1 and 2 can be tuned through RMP 1;
b. VOR, ILS and ADF Receivers 1 can be tuned through RMP 1;
c. RMP 1 controls VOR/DME, ILS and ADF Receivers 1;
RMP 2 controls VOR/DME, ILS and ADF Receivers 2 (if installed).

10. A/C on RWY centreline, ready for Take-Off. To preset a HDG of 233o:
a. Pull HDG Knob to disarm NAV Mode
Set 233o and press HDG Knob to engage;
b. Turn HDG Knob, set 233o and pull to engage;
c. Turn HDG Knob, set 233o
Pull HDG Knob when ATC clears to turn to 233o

11. One of the SRS disengagement conditions is not TRUE:

a. Disengages automatically at FCU ALT;
b. Disengages automatically at acceleration altitude;
c. Disengages manually by pulling the Speed Knob;
d. Disengaged by setting a new FCU Altitude.

12. Control of the A/C can be Automatic or Manual. Guidance of the A/C can be
MANAGED or SELECTED. How do you understand this situation:
MANAGED GUIDANCE – MANUAL CONTROL – SELECTED SPEED:
a. FMGC computes and sends steering orders for navigation purposes; the
Pilot flies using the Side Stick; Speed is adjusted in the FCU window (knob
has been pulled);
b. The autopilot follows the F-PLN; the Pilot sets the necessary DATA for
Longitudinal and Lateral Control of the A/C; The Target Speed is computed
and displayed by the FMGC.

13. A HOLD has been entered in the F-PLN. Speed and NAV are managed. You
want to leave this HOLD:
a. Use the CLR Key;
b. HOLD is automatically cancelled when overflying the FIX;
c. ACTIVATE “IMM EXIT” Prompt.

Page 26 of 62
14. For A/C Position determination, FMGC uses DATA from:
a. DME, VOR or ILS Systems;
b. Clocks + Ground Speed Computation;
c. 3 ADIRS
d. A and C.

15. In flight, following a Manual Position Up-Dating of the FMGC:

a. It is also necessary to Up-Date the IRS Position;
b. An IRS cannot be Up-Dated during A/C motion.

16. Tuning of VOR/DME and ILS are provided by:

a. AUTOMATIC TUNING; MANUAL TUNING; BACK-UP TUNING
b. AUTOMATIC TUNING; MANUAL TUNING
c. AUTOMATIC TUNING; BACK-UP TUNING

17. The expedite MODE is active. To disengage it, one of these statements is not
correct:
a. Pull the V/S-FPA Knob;
b. Pull the SPD Knob;
c. Pull the ALT Knob;
d. Press the EXPD Push Button again to cancel this Mode.

18. What are the Basic Modes of the AP/FD?

a. PITCH and ROLL
b. V/S and HDG
c. ALT and NAV
d. SPD and HDG

19. During an ILS Approach, the engagement of both Autopilots (APs) is possible:
a. When “LAND” illuminates GREEN on FMA;
b. When A/C is stabilized at G/S interception altitude;
c. As soon as the LOC has been intercepted;
d. After APPR Push Button Switch is pressed and illuminates.

20. The ALIGN Light flashes:

a. No present position entry after 10 minutes, or, difference between position
at shut down and entered position exceeds 1o of Latitude or Longitude;
b. In case of IR Alignment Fault;
c. When Alignment has been completed;
d. Both A and B.

21. Can you read the HDG on the PFD?

a. YES
b. NO

22. A/C in clean configuration and Normal Law. When the FAC detects a TOO
HIGH Angle Of Attack:
a. Stall Warning is activated;
b. THR LK flashes on FMA;

Page 27 of 62
 c. ALPHA FLOOR function operates.
23. During ILS Approach, LAND 3 Fail Passive (also called CAT 3 SINGLE), One
Engine fails below 100 FEET RA. This causes a Landing Capability Down
Grading and you must GO-AROUND.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

24. During an ILS Approach, the NAV MODE will be deactivated at:
a. GLIDE SLOPE Capture
b. LOCALIZER Capture
c. A + B

25. Can you display FD Bars and FPV at the same time for Cross-Checking on
different PFD’s?
a. YES
b. NO

26. What are the certified FMGS Limitations, MAX Wind conditions for CAT III
Automatic Approach,performed in Managed Speed Guidance and with A/THR?
HEADWIND TAILWIND CROSSWIND
a. 30 KTS 10 KTS 20 KTS
b. 40 KTS 10 KTS 15 KTS
c. 20 KTS 10 KTS 20 KTS

27. The Continuous Cavalry Charge Audio identifies only One of the following
situations:
a. Over Speed for the Actual A/C Configuration;
b. Fire or Oil Low Press on one engine;
c. AUTOPILOT disengagement;
d. Excess Cabin Altitude;
e. AUTO LAND Warning, requiring a GO-AROUND.

28. Setting the Thrust Levers to IDLE will disengage the A/THR Mode. A/THR will
re-engage:
a. As soon as the Thrust Levers position is changed;
b. When the A/THR Push Button is pressed;
c. Provided the Levers are set in CLB Gate;
d. Provided the Levers are moved from IDLE position and A/THR Push Button
is pressed.

29. In One of the cases listed below, A/THR does not disengage:
a. When the TWO Thrust Levers are set to IDLE Position;
b. Pressing the A/THR Push Button on the FCU;
c. When the AURAL Warning announces “RETARD”;
d. Pressing the INSTINCTIVE Disconnect Button.

Page 28 of 62
30. The LOC Push Button, on the FCU, is pressed to arm the LOC Mode. This
Mode is used for:
a. Performing a published Localizer Approach;
b. Tracking a VOR Beam during an Approach;
c. Performing those Non-Precision Approaches: VOR-ADF-R NAV;
d. Approaching on an ILS with NO G/S;
e. A and D.

31. What does a Triple Click mean during an ILS Approach?

a. a LEVEL 3 Warning to the Crew;
b. A primary failure is occurring; prepare for GO-AROUND;
c. Flaps are set at 3 and the Landing Gear is not Down;
d. Landing Capability Down Grading Warning.

32. The Active F-PLN is erased when:

a. The Pilot calls the A/C Status Page;
b. The wheels touch the Runway at landing;
c. The A/C has been on ground for 30 seconds following the landing;
d. One engine is shut down at parking place.

33. Following a Dual Engine Generator Failure, EMERgency GENerator supplies

the A/C:
a. FMGC 1 is available (NAV Function ONLY) instead of FMGC 1 ONLY is
available;
b. FMGC 2 ONLY is available;
c. Both FMGC’s are available;
d. No FMGC is available.

34. In which case are: AP/FD, ATS and Landing Capacities totally lost?
a. FAILURE of 2 IRS’s or FAILURE of 2 ADR’s;
b. FAILURE OF 2 RA’s;
c. FAILURE OF 2 ILS’s;
d. FAILURE OF BOTH FAC’s

35. The Mandatory Parameter used by the ALPHA FLOOR Detection is:
a. A/C Minimum Speed;
b. A/C Weight;
c. A/C Maximum Speed;
d. A/C Angle Of Attack

36. RUDDER TRAVEL Limitation is a function of:

a. FAC ONLY
b. FAC in Normal and ELAQC in Alternate;
c. ELAC ONLY;
d. ELAC in Normal and FAC in Alternate.

Page 29 of 62
37. When the Two Way Damper functions are engaged:
a. YAW DAMPER 1 has priority, YAW DAMPER ACTUATOR 2 is slaved;
b. YAW DAMPER 2 has priority, YAW DAMPER ACTUATOR 1 is slaved;
c. YAW DAMPER 1 and 2 are active; the TWO Actuators pressurized;
d. A Hydraulic device gives priority to YAW DAMPER.

38. The FMGC Internal Test is automatically performed:

a. On ground at Computer Power-Up;
b. In case of discrepancy between 2 computers;
c. In flight when a failure occurs;
d. in flight at Autopilot engagement.

39. When the Two Rudder Trim functions are engaged:

a. Rudder Trim 1 and 2 control their motors together;
b. Rudder Trim 1 controls the Single Trim Motor;
c. Rudder Trim 1 controls its Motor, Rudder Trim 2 is in Standby;
d. A mechanical device gives priority to Rudder Trim 1.

40. The FMGC functions are:

a. Flight Guidance and Flight Envelope Protection;
b. Flight Management and Flight Envelope Protection;
c. Flight Management and Flight Guidance;
d. Flight Envelope Protection and Yaw Axis Control.

41. The TRIM Function of the FAC is:

a. A PITCH TRIM
b. A RUDDER TRIM
c. AN AILERON TRIM
d. A PITCH TRIM AND A RUDDER TRIM

42. In flight, in case of Temporary Loss of Electrical Power on FAC 2, FAC 2 P/B
“FAULT” comes on, and:
a. It will be automatically reset;
b. It can be manually reset and the safety tests are performed;
c. It can be manually reset and the safety tests are not performed;
d. There is no way to re-engage FAC 2.

43. The AFS Computers are:

a. FMGC and ELAC
b. FMGC and SEC
c. FMGC and FAC
d. ELAC and SEC

44. With AP 1 and AP 2 not engaged, FD 1 and FD 2 engaged and A/THR active:
a. FMGC 1 controls Engine 1, FMGC 2 controls Engine 2;
b. FMGC 1 controls both Engines;
c. FMGC 2 controls both Engines;
d. Flight Controls and Engines are controlled by only one FMGC.

Page 30 of 62
45. In Normal Operation, with the Two MCDU showing the same page, a
modification made by the Pilot on MCDU 1 is sent to MCDU 2:
a. DIRECTLY
b. VIA FMGC 1
c. VIA FMGC 1 and FMGC 2
d. VIA FMGC 1, FMGC 2 and RMP 2.

46. The Flight Guidance (FG) functions are:

a. AUTOPILOT, FLIGHT PLAN, AUTOTHRUST
b. AUTOPILOT, PERFORMANCE, FLIGHT PLAN
c. AUTOPILOT, FLIGHT DIRECTOR, AUTOTHRUST
d. FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, AUTOPILOT, AUTOTHRUST

47. The position of the Aircraft, used in the Flight Plan is computed by:
a. FG Part of the FMGC
b. FM Part of the FMGC
c. The DMC
d. The MCDU

48. The FLIGHT DIRECTOR is engaged:

a. By pressing the FD Push Button on the FCU;
b. Automatically at System Power-Up;
c. By selecting a Mode on the FCU;
d. By selecting the INIT Page on the MCDU.

49. With Autopilot engaged, the Rudder is normally controlled by:

a. The FMGC
b. The FAC
c. The ELAC
d. The SEC

50. The Normal FMGC Operation is:

a. Only One FMGC can operate at a time;
b. FMGC 1 has priority; FMGC 2 is in Standby;
c. FMGC’s operate according to Master/Slave Principle;
d. FMGC’s operate independently.

51. The FCU allows:

a. Modification of the Flight Plan of FM Part;
b. Selection of FG Function Modes;
c. Selection of Radio-NAV Frequencies;
d. IRS Alignment

52. In cruise, Lateral AP Orders are executed by:

a. Ailerons and Spoilers;
b. Ailerons and Rudder;
c. Rudder and Spoilers;
d. Ailerons, Spoilers and Rudder

Page 31 of 62
53. With the Aircraft in flight, AP engaged and A/THR active, the A/THR Mode:
a. Can be chosen by the Pilot on the FCU;
b. Can be chosen by the Pilot on the MCDU;
c. Depends on the AP Lateral Mode;
d. Depends on the AP Longitudinal Mode.

54. With the Aircraft in flight, A/THR not engaged, Thrust Levers on CLB Gate, an
ALPHA-FLOOR is detected.
a. A/THR does not engage because the Engines are already in CLB Thrust;
b. A/THR automatically engages, but is not ACTIVE;
c. A/THR automatically engages and controls the Engines with CLB Thrust;
d. A/THR automatically engages and controls the Engines with TO/GA Thrust.

55. The FAC Computes Rudder Travel Limit:

a. Only when AP is engaged;
b. Only at Low Speed;
c. Only in case of ELAC Failure;
d. At any time.

56. With AP engaged in Land Mode, the Yaw Damper Actuator is controlled by:
a. A Yaw order computed by the FAC;
b. A Dutch Roll Damping Order computed by the FAC;
c. A turn coordination order computed by the FAC;
d. An AP Yaw Order computed by the FMGC, via the FAC.

57. On the FMA, on the Second Line of the Longitudinal Zone:

a. ALT can be only in GREEN or MAGENTA;
b. ALT in BLUE indicates that ALT Mode is active;
c. ALT in BLUE indicates that ALT Mode is armed;
d. ALT in BLUE indicates that ALT Mode is active or an FM Altitude constraint.

58. With the Thrust Levers in the CLB Gate,A/THR disengages; the Engines Thrust
a. Equals CLB Thrust Limit;
b. Is frozen at the existing thrust;
c. Corresponds to the Thrust Levers Position;
d. Progressively becomes equal to the Thrust Lever Position.

59. When Take-Off Mode is engaged:

a. A/THR automatically engages and is active;
b. A/THR automatically engages but is not active;
c. A/THR does not automatically engage and the Engines are controlled by the
Thrust Levers;
d. A/THR does not automatically engage and the Engines are controlled by the
Last Thrust Target.

60. ADIRU 3 can supply information to:

a. DMC 1 and DMC 2 only;
b. DMC 1 and DMC 3 only;
c. DMC 2 and DMC 3 only;

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 d. DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3.
61. AIR DATA MODULES (ADM) supply pressure information to the ADIRU’s from:
a. All Pitot Probes and Static Ports;
b. The Pitot Probes Only;
c. The Static Ports Only;
d. The Captain and First Officer Pitot Probes and Static Ports Only.

62. ADIRS 3 receives TAT Information from:

a. The Captain’s TAT Sensor;
b. The First Officer’s TAT Sensor;
c. The Captain and First Officer’s TAT Sensors;
d. The Stand-By TAT Sensor.

63. The BARO correction or Reference selected is sent to each ADIRU via:
a. The MASTER FMGC;
b. The FCU;
c. The RMPs
d. The DMCs

64. In flight, the FMGS Position is automatically updated:

a. Using DATA from the selected NDB, VOR or DME Stations;
b. Whenever a DME Station is selected by the Pilot;
c. By the DMEs through the Auto-tuning Function.

65. Each ADIRU receives Two Analog Inputs. They are:

a. Angle Of Attack (AOA) and Total Air Temperature (TAT);
b. Angle Of Attack (AOA) and BARO Correction or Reference;
c. Total Air Temperature (TAT) and BARO Correction or Reference;
d. FMGC Status and BARO Correction or Reference.

66. In Normal Operation, the ADIRUs are aligned using information from:
a. The ADIRS CDU;
b. The CFDs;
c. The FCU;
d. The MCDU.

67. If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is:

a. Set ATT HDG and Air Data Selectors to CAPT/3;
b. Set ATT HDG and Air Data Selectors to F/O/3;
c. Set ATT HDG Selectors to CAPT/3, Air Data Selector to F/O/3;
d. Set ATT HDG Selectors to F/O/3, Air Data Selector to CAPT/3;

68. In Normal Operation, ADIRU 1 supplies information to:

a. The Captain’s PFD and the First Officer’s ND;
b. The Captain’s ND and the First Officer’s PFD;
c. The Captain’s PFD and ND;
d. The First Officer’s PFD and ND;

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69. In Rose NAV Mode with VOR 1 selected, the ND Displays what VOR
Information?
a. Deviation BAR, selected course and the Bearing Pointer;
b. Bearing Pointer Only;
c. Deviation BAR and Selected Course Only;
d. Deviation BAR and Bearing Pointer Only.

70. In ROSE ILS Mode, what ILS Information does the ND Display?
a. G/S and LOC Scales;
b. Deviation BAR and Selected Course;
c. Deviation BAR, Selected Course and G/S Scale;
d. Deviation BAR, Selected Course, G/S and LOC Scales;

71. During ILS Approach, with AP/FD, “LAND” illuminates GREEN on FMA’s when
Radio Altimeter (RA) is below:
a. 1,000 FEET
b. 200 FEET
c. 700 FEET
d. 400 FEET

72. In the event of NO ADF 1 Reception, with ADF 1 selected on ND:

a. The Bearing Pointer goes out of view and ADF Flag is displayed;
b. The Bearing Pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by RED
crosses;
c. The Bearing Pointer goes RED and Station ID is replaced by Frequency;
d. The Bearing Pointer goes out of view and station ID is replaced by
Frequency.

73. On the ND, in the event of VOR receiver failure:

a. The RED VOR FLAG is displayed; the Course Pointer disappears;
b. The VOR Bearing becomes RED and the Course Pointer disappears;
c. The VOR Bearing and the Course Pointer disappear;
d. The VOR Bearing flashes and the Course Pointer disappears.

74. During Take-Off and Go-Around, the Speed Window on the FCU displays:
a. The Speed manually inserted by the Crew into the FCU and the Light is
Out;
b. The Speed manually inserted by the Crew into the MCDU and the Light is
Illuminated;
c. DASHES and the DOT are illuminated WHITE; Managed Speed such as V2
or memorized VAPP are automatically used by the FMGS.

75. The following AP/FD Lateral Modes are managed:

a. NAV, HDG, APPR, LOC,RWY, RWY TRK;
b. HDG, NAV, APPR, LOC, GA TRK;
c. NAV, APPR NAV, LOC*, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK, GA TRK, LAND, ROLL
OUT.

Page 34 of 62
76. On ground, the engagement of the Autothrust (A/THR) function:
a. Is automatic at the engagement of the Take-Off Modes of the FD (or,
provided at least One FD is ON);
b. Must be carried out manually by the Crew before Take-Off;
c. Is performed automatically upon the Second Engine Start.

77. Climbs and Descents are always restricted:

a. By the ALTITUDE manually selected on the FCU;
b. By the Aircraft Weight calculated by the FMGC;
c. By Flight Plan (T/C) and (T/D) points.

28 - FUEL SYSTEM
1. How many pumps are there in each Wing Fuel Tank?
a. Two Fuel Pumps in each Wing Tank;
b. There is no Fuel Pump because tanks are Air pressurized;
c. One Fuel Pump in each Tank;
d. Two Fuel Pumps only for all Tanks

2. Normally, where can you check the Fuel Quantity of each Tank?
a. On ECAM Upper Display, on Fuel Page;
b. On Fuel Page only, on ECAM Lower Display;
c. On ECAM Upper Display;
d. On ECAM Upper Display, or on Refuelling Control Panel

3. At which Fuel Quantity is the Low Level “LO LVL” Warning triggered on the
ECAM?
a. Below 500KG (1,100 LB);
b. Above 900 KG (1980 LB);
c. Below 750 KG (1,650 LB);
d. Below 250 KG (550 LB).

4. How many channels are used in the Fuel Computation System?

a. 3
b. 1
c. 2

5. Where is the Vent Surge Tank located?

a. Outboard of each Wing Tank;
b. In the Wing Tank.

6. What are Minimum Fuel Quantity for Take-Off and Maximum Fuel Quantity
UNBALANCE for Take-Off or Landing?
a. 750 KG – 1,200 KG;
b. 1,500 KG – 2,000 KG;
c. 2,000 KG – 1,500 KG;
d. 5,000 KG – 1,100 KG.

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 7. Which type of Motor controls the Fuel Cross-Feed?
a. SINGLE
b. DOUBLE

8. How can you check that Fuel Quantity Indicator (FQI) is in Degraded Mode?
a. FQ Indication is Boxed Amber;
b. FQ Indication is dashed across the Two Last Digits but it is impossible to
determine which side is affected;
c. FQ Indication is dashed across the Two Last Digits on the Upper ECAM and
ECAM Fuel Page must be called to check which Tank is affected;
d. FQ Indication flashes on ECAM Fuel Page on the affected Tank.

9. When passing FL200, gravity feeding occurs. What is the Maximum Flt Level?
a. FL300 (FL200 IF JET B);
b. FL200 (FL100 IF JET B);
c. FL100;
d. FL150 (FL100 IF JET B).

10. What is Refuelling Time at Nominal Pressure (Approx)?

a. 20 minutes for All Tanks;
b. 17 minutes for Wing Tanks;
c. 30 minutes for All Tanks;
d. A or B above

11. In case of Single Engine Operation, if Low Level is reached:

a. Cross Feed Valve must be kept OPEN;
b. Cross Feed Valve must be CLOSED;
c. The fuel of the opposite side of engine running is LOST;
d. Cross Feed Valve is automatically kept OPENED.

12. The Fuel Return Valve is controlled by:

a. FMGC
b. FADEC
c. FLSCU
d. FQI

13. Amber Fault Light illuminates on Wing Tank Pump Push Button when:
a. The delivery fuel pressure drops;
b. Pump is not energized;
c. Push Button set to OFF without failure;
d. Wing Tank below 750 KG (1,650 LB).

14. Amber Fault Light illuminates on Mode SEL Push Button when:
a. The delivery fuel pressure drops;
b. Center Tank has more than 250 KG and any Wing Tank has less than
5,000 KG.
c. The Two Center Tank Pumps are selected OFF.

Page 36 of 62
15. What is the Maximum Fuel UNBALANCE Quantity for Take-Off and Landing?
a. 750 KG (1,650 LB);
b. 1,500 KG (3,300 LB);
c. 2,000 KG (4,400 LB);
d. 5,000 KG (11,000 LB).

16. The Maximum Refuelling Pressure is:

a. 50 PSI (3.5 BARS);
b. 35 PSI (2.5 BARS);
c. 11 PSI (0.75 BARS).

17. In case of Single Engine Operation, if Low Level (LO LVL) is reached:
a. Cross Feed Valve must be kept OPEN;
b. Cross Feed Valve must be CLOSED;
c. The Fuel of the Opposite side of Engine running is LOST;
d. Cross Feed Valve is automatically kept OPEN.

18. FOB (Fuel On Board) Half-Boxed Amber on E/WD means:

a. The Quantity shown is not fully usable;
b. Fuel Quantity Indicator is degraded.

19. What is the purpose of the Capacitance Probes?

a. To measure the Fuel Level;
b. To measure the Fuel Temperature;
c. A and B above.

20. Other than for feeding the engines, what else is the fuel used for?
a. To cool the IDG Oil;
b. To cool the Engine Oil;
c. Both A and B.

21. APU Fuel is supplied by:

a. Tank Fuel Pump(s)’
b. APU Fuel Pump
c. Either One

22. What does the FAULT Light illuminated Amber in the Wing Tank Push Button
Indicate?
a. Delivery pressure too high;
b. Delivery pressure drops;
c. The Push Button is in OFF Position.

23. Why has a 2% additional space been provided in each fuel tank?
a. For cooling purpose;
b. For fuel expansion without spillage.

24. The Engine Low Pressure (LP) Valves are closed by:
a. Engine Fire Push Button or Center Tank Transfer Valve Control Logic;
b. Engine Fire Push Button or Mode Selector Push Button in Manual;

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 c. Engine Fire Push Button or the Engine Master Switch.
25. When the Wing Tank Push Button is set to OFF, the FAULT Light is:
a. Inhibited;
b. Illuminated when delivery pressure drops;
c. A or B above.

26. In Normal Operation, the Cross Feed Valve is:

a. Automatically opened when the Center Tank has more than 100 KG of fuel
and either Wing Tank has less 5,000 KG;
b. CLOSED for Take-Off;
c. OPEN for Take-Off;
d. Automatically opened by the Mode SEL Push Button Switch.

27. Are the engines still supplied in case of Fuel Filter CLOG?
a. YES, by using the fuel coming from the IDG Cooling and Outer Tank Line;
b. NO;
c. YES, bypassing the Fuel Filter (Bypass Valve).

28. On the Corssfeed Push Button, what is the meaning of the “ON” White Light?
a. The Valve is fully open;
b. The Valve is closed;
c. The Valve is in Transit.

29 - HYDRAULIC SYSTEM
1. Normal Hydraulic Power is provided by:
a. Engine Driven Pumps for all systems;
b. Engine Driven Pumps for Green and Yellow; ELEC Pump for Blue; ELEC
Pump for Yellow (Ground Operation Only).
c. Electric Pumps for Blue and Yellow; Engine Driven Pumps for Green;
d. Engine Driven Pumps for Green and Blue; Electric Pump for Yellow.

2. In flight, if the Blue ELEC Pump fails, the Blue System:

a. Is lost;
b. Can be recovered by the RAT;
c. Can be recovered by the PTU;
d. Both B and C.

3. With both engines stopped, how is it possible to pressurize the Green System?
a. By the Green Engine Pump;
b. By the Yellow Engine Pump and the PTU;
c. By the Yellow Electric Pump and the PTU.

4. On Ground, the Blue System is pressurized when:

a. The APU is running;
b. One engine is running;
c. EXT Power is available.

Page 38 of 62
 5. Engine 2 drives:
a. The Blue System
b. The Green System
c. The Yellow System Pump and the Green System via the PTU should the
Green System Pump fail.

6. The Yellow System comprises:

a. One Engine Driven Pump; One Electric Pump; One Hand Pump;
b. One Engine Driven Pump; Two Electric Pumps;
c. One Engine Driven Pump; One Hand Pump and the RAT.

7. In flight, the Blue Hydraulic System can be supplied by:

a. The RAT and the Electrical Pump;
b. The Engine Driven Pump;
c. The PTU (Power Transfer Unit);
d. It cannot be supplied.

8. The RAT is automatically extended in case of:

a. Loss of AC BUS 1 and BUS 2 and speed above 100 KTS;
b. Blue Hydraulic Pump failure;
c. Can only be extended manually;
d. Blue Pump delivery pressure dropping below 1,750 PSI.

9. The priority valves operate in case of:

a. High Hydraulic Pressure in the Green System;
b. Low Hydraulic pressure;
c. High Hydraulic pressure in the Green and Yellow Systems.

10. The Fire Shut Off Valves shut off:

a. The Blue and Yellow Systems;
b. The Yellow and Green Systems;
c. The Green and Blue Systems.

11. In case of Blue ELEC Pump failure, when the RAT MAN ON Push Button is
pressed:
a. The Blue Hydraulic System is pressurized by the RAT;
b. The EMERgency GEN supplies electrical power;
c. The Blue Hydraulic System is pressurized and the EMERgency GEN runs.

12. The Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized:

a. From the Pneumatic System;
b. From Packs 1 and 2;
c. From the LH Engine or the Pneumatic System.

13. In flight, the ENG 1 Pump FAULT Light comes on Amber in case of > A
Reservoir Low Level; OR, A Reservoir Overheat; OR, A Reservoir Low Air
Press; OR, A Pump Low Press.
a. YES
b. NO

Page 39 of 62
14. If on ground with Engine 1 stopped, does the ENG 1 Pump FAULT Light come
ON Amber due to Green Pump Low Press?
a. YES
b. NO

15. In case of Reservoir Overheat, the FAULT Light of the faulty system stay ON:
a. For 30 seconds;
b. Continuously;
c. As long as the Overheat is detected.

16. On ground and before Engine start, with Blue Pump Auto and AC Power
available, the Blue Pump is:
a. Automatically energized;
b. Energized when the Blue Pump OVRD Push Button is pressed.

17. The Blue System includes operation of:

a. The FLAPS
b. The SLATS
c. The FLAPS and the SLATS

18. The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) is:

a. Reversible between Blue and Yellow Systems;
b. One way between Green and Yellow Systems;
c. Reversible between Green and Yellow Systems;
d. Reversible between all three systems.

19. When extended in flight, the RAT pressurizes:

a. The Green System;
b. The Yellow System and the Green System via the PTU;
c. The Blue System.

20. The Yellow System includes operation of:

a. The Left and Right Elevator;
b. The Left Elevator Only;
c. The Right Elevator Only.

21. The Yellow System may be powered by:

a. ENG 1 Hydraulic Pump;
b. ENG 2 Hydraulic Pump; OR, the Yellow Electric Pump; OR, the PTU.
c. ENG 2 Hydraulic Pump; OR, the Yellow Electric Pump; OR, the RAT.

22. The Yellow System includes operation of:

a. The FLAPS
b. The FLAPS and SLATS
c. The SLATS

23. During First Engine Start, the PTU is:

a. Automatically running
b. Tested

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 c. Inhibited
24. The RAT can be re-stowed:
a. In Flight;
b. On Ground Only
c. On Ground and In Flight

25. In flight, the RAT is extended:

a. Manually Only
b. Manually or Automatically
c. Automatically Only

26. In flight, when the RAT is automatically extended:

a. The Blue Hydraulic System is pressurized but the EMER GEN does not run;
b. The Green Hydraulic System is pressurized and the EMERgency GEN runs;
c. The Blue Hydraulic System is pressurized and the EMERgency GEN runs.

27. Is it possible to interchange Hydraulic Fluid from Green to Yellow, OR, Yellow
to Green System?
a. NO
b. YES, through the PTU
c. YES, in case of leakage.

28. The Fire Shut Off Valve closes when:

a. The Master Switch is set to OFF;
b. The Fire Push Button is released OUT;
c. Automatically if a fire is detected.

29. If the Green System is lost, SLAT operation is:

a. NORMAL
b. SLOW
c. LOST

30. If the Green System is Lost, FLAP operation is:

a. SLOW
b. NORMAL
c. LOST

31. The Green System operates:

a. SPOILERS 3
b. SPOILERS 2 and 4
c. SPOILERS 1 and 5

32. The Green System operates:

a. The Right Elevator
b. The Left Elevator
c. Both

33. The Green System operates:

a. The LEFT Aileron
b. The RIGHT Aileron

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 c. BOTH
34. The Green System operates:
a. REVerser 1
b. REVerser 2
c. Both

35. The Yellow System operates:

a. REVerser 1
b. REVerser 2
c. Both

36. On ground with the Blue ELEC Pump Push Button set to AUTO, the circuit is
energized if:
a. One Battery is on AUTO;
b. Ground Electrical Power is ON;
c. One engine is running OR the Blue Pump OVRD Push Button has been
pressed.

37. If the Blue System is lost, SLAT operation is:

a. NORMAL
b. SLOW
c. LOST

38. If Blue System is lost, FLAP operation is:

a. NORMAL
b. SLOW
c. LOST

39. The Blue System operates:

a. SPOILERS 2 and 4;
b. SPOILERS 3
c. SPOILERS 1 and 5.

40. The RAT can be extended:

a. Automatically in case of loss of power to AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2;
b. Manually from the Overhead Panel;
c. Both

41. The Blue System operates:

a. The LEFT Aileron;
b. The RIGHT Aileron;
c. Both

42. Can you operate a Cargo Door when No ELECtrical PoWeR is available?
a. YES
b. NO

43. With the Yellow ELEC Pump Push Button set to OFF and Cargo Door Manual
Selector Valve set to OPEN or CLOSE, the PTU and the Flight Controls are:
a. OPERATIVE

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 b. INHIBITED
44. If the Yellow System is lost, SLAT Operation is:
a. NORMAL
b. SLOW
c. LOST

45. If the Yellow System is lost, FLAP Operation is:

a. NORMAL
b. SLOW
c. LOST

46. The ENGine 2 Fire Valve is between the Yellow Reservoir and:
a. The ENG 2 Hydraulic Pump;
b. The Yellow Electric Pump;
c. The Yellow Hand Pump.

47. The Yellow System Operates:

a. SPOILERS 2;
b. SPOILERS 2 and 4;
c. SPOILERS 1 and 5

48. In case of Single Hydraulic System Low Press:

a. The Master WARN Light comes ON;
b. The Master Caution Light comes ON and the Single Chime sounds;
c. There is No Warning.

49. In case of RSVR LO AIR PR, the Hydraulic System affected:

a. Is definitively lost;
b. May be recovered after descending to a lower altitude.

50. With a Single Hydraulic System FAILURE, the Flight Control Law is:
a. NORMAL
b. ALTERNATE
c. DIRECT

51. With Green Hydraulic System lost:

a. The Landing Gear Extension is NORMAL;
b. The Landing Gear Retraction is NORMAL;
c. The Landing Gear must be extended by GRAVITY.

52. With the Green Hydraulic System lost:

a. The NWS is lost;
b. The NWS is operative;
c. The NWS operates in alternate.

53. With the Green Hydraulic System lost, the Braking System is:
a. NORMAL
b. ALTERNATE
c. LOST

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54. With the Green Hydraulic System lost, the Anti-Skid is:
a. Lost
b. Limited to 2,000 PSI Brake Pressure
c. Operative on the Yellow Hydraulic System.

55. PTU at AUTO, the PTU automatically runs:

a. If the Blue Hydraulic System is lost;
b. When differential pressure between Green and Yellow System is more than
500 PSI;
c. As soon as a differential pressure between Green and Yellow System is
detected.

56. With only the Green Hydraulic System remaining, the Auto-Pilot function is:
a. Available with AP 1;
b. Lost
c. Available with AP 2.

57. With only the Green Hydraulic System remaining, the Horizontal Stabilizer is:
a. Available
b. Lost

58. With Green and Yellow Hydraulic Systems lost, MANUAL PITCH TRIM is:
a. AVAILABLE
b. LOST

59. With only the Green Hydraulic System remaining, the Auto-Brake is:
a. LOST
b. AVAILABLE
c. ALTERNATE

60. With only the Blue Hydraulic System remaining:

a. The Braking System is lost;
b. Seven Full Brake Applications are available;
c. The Anti-Skid is still available.

30 - ICE & RAIN PROTECTION

1. In case of loss of Electrical Power supply in flight, the ENGine Anti-Ice valve:
a. Opens when the Engine is stopped;
b. Opens when the Engine is running;
c. Closes when the Engine is running.

2. In case of Window Heat Computer Failure, the other Computer can replace the
failed one:
a. YES
b. NO

3. Window Heating comes ON automatically when one Engine is started:

a. YES

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 b. NO
4. The Window Heat Computer provides two heating levels for the Windshield:
a. High Power when above 20.000 FT; Low Power below 20,000 FT
b. High Power in flight; Low Power on ground
c. High Power in Icing Conditions; Low Power in other conditions

5. Pitot Heating operates:

a. At Low Power on ground and Normal Power in flight;
b. In flight only;
c. On ground above 8o KTS.

6. The Wing Anti-Ice Push Button Switch ON Light comes ON:

a. When the Anti-Ice valves OPEN;
b. When the Push Button Switch is set to ON;
c. When the FAULT Light goes OFF.

7. Window Heating can be selected ON Manually at any time by the Probe

Window Heat Push Button.
a. WRONG
b. RIGHT

8. Electrical Heating is provided for the protection of:

a. PITOTS and AOA
b. PITOTS and TAT
c. PITOTS, STATIC PORTS, TAT, AOA

9. What happens when you set the Wing Anti-Ice Push Button Switch to ON on
the ground?
a. The Wing Anti-Ice valves OPEN for 30 seconds then CLOSE;
b. The Wing Anti-Ice valves do not OPEN;
c. The Wing Anti-Ice valves remain OPEN.

10. The ENGine NACelle is Anti-Iced by:

a. Air Bleed from High Pressure Compressor;
b. Air Bleed from Low Pressure Compressor;
c. Electrically.

11. When ENGine Anti-Ice is selected ON:

a. Continuous Ignition is selected ON;
b. The associated PACK is CLOSED.

12. When an ENGine Anti-Ice valve is OPEN:

a. The N2 of the associated Engine decreases;
b. N1 Limit is automatically reduced;
c. There is no change in N1 Limit or N2.

13. The ENGine Anti-Ice Valve closes in case of Low Air Pressure.
a. RIGHT
b. WRONG

Page 45 of 62
14. How can you check that ENGine Anti-Ice has been selected?
a. With the ON Light on the associated Engine Push Button + ENG Anti-Ice on
the ECAM Memo Display;
b. With the ON Light on the associated Engine Push Button + ENGine Anti-Ice
on the ECAM Engine Page.

15. The Maximum Speed to use the Wind Shield Wipers is:
a. 200 KTS
b. 250 KTS
c. 230 KTS

16. The Probe Heating starts automatically when the Push Button Switch is in
AUTO Position:
a. Not heated on the ground, but heated automatically at Lift Off;
b. Operates in High Heat after Engine Star;
c. Operates in Low Heat until Manually selected to High;
d. In LOW Heat after Engine start and then NORM Heat after Lift-Off.

17. On a dry windshield, Rain Repellent System:

a. May be used as Windshield washer;
b. Must not be used.

18. The Rain Repellent System is INHIBITED:

a. When both Engines are shut down;
b. On ground below 80 KTS;
c. Above FL150.

19. The Rain Repellent Bottle should be replaced:

a. When the pressure indicator needle is in the yellow sector;
b. After each flight;
c. When the Refill Float is in view on the Quantity Indicator;
d. A or C above.

20. The Electric Wipers are controlled by two individual rotary selectors.
a. YES
b. NO

21. The Wipers can operate at different speeds:

a. Low Speed and High Speed;
b. Only one Speed;
c. Low, Medium, High Speed

22. The Rain Repellent Bottle is located:

a. In the rear of the cockpit on the left side;
b. in the Avionics Bay;
c. In the cockpit on the right side.

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23. The Timer supplies a measured quantity of Rain Repellent to the Windshield.
To repeat the cycle, the Push Button must be pressed again.
a. NO
b. YES

24. When not used, the Wipers are out of view?

a. RIGHT
b. WRONG

25. The Wing Anti-Ice Shut Off Valves close automatically in case of:
a. Engine Failure;
b. Loss of Electrical Power Supply or Leak Detection;
c. Cross Bleed Valve Fault when Wing Anti-Ice is used.

26. The SLATS protected by Hot Air supplied from the Pneumatic System are:
a. SLATS 1, 2, 4
b. SLATS 2, 3, 4
c. The Three Outboard Leading Edge SLATS

27. The Wing Anti-Ice Pressure Control Shut Off Valves are controlled by:
a. 1 Wing Anti-Ice Push Button;
b. 2 Wing Anti-Ice Push Buttons;
c. Automatically

28. Where do the Wing Anti-Ice indications appear on the ECAM?

a. There is no indication on ECAM Bleed Page for the Wing Anti-Ice System;
b. “ANTI-ICE” appears in white on the ECAM Bleed Page when the Wing Anti-
Ice Push Button is depressed;
c. A green arrow appears on the ECAM Bleed Page when the Wing Anti-Ice
Push Button is pressed and the valve is open.
d. B and C above.

32 - LANDING GEAR, BRAKES & ANTI-SKID

1. The Braking Systems are:
a. GREEN with Anti-Skid; YELLOW w/o Anti-Skid; Parking Brake
b. GREEN or YELLOW with Anti-Skid; YELLOW w/o Anti-Skid; Parking Brake
c. GREEN with or w/o Anti-Skid; YELLOW w/o Anti-Skid; Parking Brake

2. The Anti-Skid and Nose Wheel Steering Switch is set to OFF:

a. Nose Wheel Steering only is deactivated;
b. Anti-Skid and Nose Wheel Steering are deactivated;
c. Anti-Skid provides a fixed aircraft deceleration;
d. Anti-Skid only is deactivated.

3. Maximum Speed for Landing Gear Retraction is:

a. 200 KTS
b. 220 KTS
c. 250 KTS

Page 47 of 62
 d. 280 KTS
4. The Nose Wheel Steering is powered:
a. By the Hydraulic System;
b. By the Electrical System;
c. A or B

5. Nose Wheel Steering is available when:

a. Gear Doors are open;
b. Nose Gear Doors are closed;
c. All Gear Doors are closed.

6. Nose Wheel Steering is powered by:

a. Yellow Hydraulic System
b. Green Hydraulic System
c. Both A + B

7. When is the pressure in the Nose Wheel Steering System Shut Off:
a. With the Towing Lever in the towing position or Both Engines are shut down
or aircraft speed is above 130 KTS;
b. During ground towing with one engine shut down or when aircraft speed is
above 50 KTS.

8. The Handwheels in the cockpit provide a Wheel Steering Angle of:

a. 85o
b. 70o
c. 75o

9. When both Handwheels are operated simultaneously, the signals:

a. From the First Officer acting on his Handwheel have priority;
b. Coming from the Captain have priority;
c. Are algebraically added.

10. The Braking Modes are:

a. Normal with or w/o Anti-Skid; Alternate w/o Anti-Skid; Parking Brake
b. Normal with Anti-Skid; Alternate w/o Anti-Skid; Parking Brake
c. Normal or Alternate with Anti-Skid; Alternate w/o Anti-Skid; Parking Brake

11. Nose Wheel Steering by Rudder Pedals is limited to:

a. 2o to 6o under all circumstances;
b. 2o to 6o depending on A/C Speed;

12. L/G Position is indicated by:

a. A panel on the Center Instrument Panel, ECAM, Visual means on the Wing;
b. A panel on the Center Instrument Panel & a panel on the Overhead Panel;
c. ECAM only;
d. A panel on the Center Instrument Panel and ECAM.

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13. Nose Wheel Steering is available from the Handwheels when:
a. A/C speed is below 70 KTS, both engines running and the towing lever is in
normal position with the A/C on ground.
b. A/C speed is below 75 KTS, both engines running and the towing lever is in
normal position with the A/C or in the air;
c. A/C speed is below 70 KTS, one engine running and the towing lever is in
normal position with the A/C on ground;
d. A and C are right.

14. Hydraulic pressure to the Landing Gear is supplied up to:

a. 280 KTS
b. Any Speed
c. 260 KTS

15. After T/O, the Left Main Gear shock absorber is stuck in compressed position:
a. The gear can be retracted under all circumstances (SAFETY);
b. The gear can be retracted provided the Nose Gear is centered;
c. The gear can not be retracted. Gear Lever is blocked.

16. Is it possible (System Wise) to lower the gear by gravity above 260 KTS?
a. YES
b. NO

17. On the System Page “WHEEL”: L/G Position Indicators (Triangles); the first
line shows green triangles (Gear Down); the second line shows no triangles.
Is the L/G down?
a. YES
b. NO

18. During an approach, you get Master Warning and ECAM: “GEAR NOT
DOWN”. The reason is:
a. L/G not down locked and FLAPS at full and both Radio Altimeters failed;
b. L/G not down locked, FLAPS at 3 and Radio Height lower than 750 FT;
c. A or B

19. The brakes are actuated by two independent systems, pressurized by the:
a. BLUE and GREEN Hydraulic Systems
b. YELLOW and GREEN Hydraulic Systems
c. BLUE and YELLOW Hydraulic Systems

20. The Alternate Brake System uses:

a. The YELLOW Hydraulic System
b. The Hydraulic Accumulator (Pressurized);
c. A + B

21. Brake pressure from the Hydraulic accumulator is still available:

a. In NORMAL (with Anti-Skid);
b. In ALTERNATE (with Anti-Skid);
c. In ALTERNATE (without Anti-Skid).

Page 49 of 62
22. In flight with the PARKING BRK set to ON, a message on ECAM shows PARK
BRK:
a. In GREEN
b. In AMBER
c. In BLUE

23. The principle of the Anti-Skid is:

a. Comparing the speed difference between the four wheels;
b. Comparing wheel speed with A/C reference speed;
c. Comparing wheel speeds between Left and Right Landing Gear.

24. Following failure of ADIRS 1 and ADIRS 3, is the Anti-Skid still available?
a. YES
b. NO

25. With the Green Hydraulic System available, you find the A/SKID and N/W
STRG Switch in OFF position:
a. Braking is NORMAL, Nose Wheel Steering LOST;
b. Braking is ALTERNATE, Nose Wheel Steering NORMAL;
c. Braking is ALTERNATE without Anti-Skid; Nose Wheel Steering LOST.

26. Alternate Braking using the YELLOW System, Autobrake is:

a. Still available with Anti-Skid;
b. Lost
c. Still available without Anti-Skid.

27. The Landing Gear can be extended by:

a. Green Hydraulic System or Mechanical Gravity Extension;
b. Green Hydraulic or Yellow Hydraulic System in Stand-By;
c. Green Hydraulic System for unlocking; Gravity Extension and Green
Hydraulic System for downlocking;
d. Blue Hydraulic System or Mechanical Gravity Extension.

28. Setting the Parking Brake ON, deactivates all braking modes, except the Anti-
Skid:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

29. Setting the Parking Brake to ON, deactivates the Auto Brake:
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

30. Automatic Braking is initiated by:

a. Reverse Thrust Selection
b. Ground Spoilers Extension
c. A + B

Page 50 of 62
31. After landing, you retract the Ground Spoilers by bringing the Thrust Levers
from Reverse to Idle. The Auto Brake is now disarmed:
a. NO
b. YES

32. The Brake and Accumulator Pressure Indicator shows pressure:

a. From the Yellow Hydraulic System
b. From the Accumulator only
c. From both Yellow Brake System and Brake Accumulators

33. MAX Braking has been selected: Take-Off being aborted just before V1,
Engines in Reverse, you have forgotten to ARM the Ground Spoilers. Is Auto
Brake activated?
a. YES
b. NO

34. The Hot Light on the BRK FAN Push Button comes on when brake
temperature reaches:
a. 250oC
b. 300oC
c. 315oC

35. On the Wheel Page of the ECAM, AUTO BRK is flashing GREEN:
a. Auto Brake is disengaged;
b. Auto Brake Failure;
c. Anti-Skid Failure

36. On the Wheel Page of the ECAM, a Green Arc appears on a wheel number
identification, meaning the brake temperature is above:
a. 300oC
b. 100oC
c. 50oC

37. When the Auto Brake operates, it can be disarmed by:

a. Ground Spoilers retraction;
b. Pressing the Mode Push Button or Loosing an arming condition;
c. Action on ONE Pedal in MED or LO Mode or both pedals in MAX Mode;
d. Any: A, B, or C

38. After Lift Off, is Brakes Hot Warning on ECAM still available?
a. YES, Gear Down or Up;
b. YES, Gear Down only;
c. NO

39. On the ramp with APU running, Parking BRK is set ON, a message on the
ECAM shows PARK BRK:
a. In Green
b. Nothing at all
c. In Yellow (because of ACCU PRESS).

Page 51 of 62
40. After a Landing Gear Gravity Extension, is it possible to restore Normal
Landing Gear Operation if Green Hydraulic Pressure is available?
a. YES
b. NO

41. The Landing Gear Indicator Panel receives the information from microswitches
and proximity detectors connected to:
a. LGCIU 1
b. LGCIU 2
c. Both

42. The RED Arrow near the Landing Gear Lever comes ON when:
a. The Landing Gear is not down locked in Approach CONFIG;
b. The Landing Gear is not uplocked after retraction;
c. The Landing Gear is in Abnormal position.

43 LDG Gear Indicator Panel UNLK LT comes on RED if:

a. The Gear is not locked in the selected position;
b. The Gear is extended by Gravity and the Doors are not closed;
c. The Gear is extended normally and the Doors are not closed.

44. The MAX Speed with Landing Gear extended (VLE) is:
a. 300 KTS/M.70
b. 280 KTS/M.67
c. 260 KTS/M.60

45. The MAX Speed at which the Landing Gear may be extended is:
a. 260 KTS
b. 250 KTS
c. 240 KTS

46. Which ADIRs close the Safety Valve of the Green Hydraulic supply when
speed >260 KTS?
a. ADIRs 1 and 2
b. ADIRs 1 and 3
c. ADIRs 2 and 3

47. What is the MAX Tire Speed?

a. 205 KTS
b. 195 KTS
c. 185 KTS

48. Are there any visual Gear Down Lock Indicators?

a. YES
b. NO

49. How many turns are necessary to extend the L/G by gravity using handcrank?
a. TEN Turns Clockwise
b. FIVE Turns Clockwise

Page 52 of 62
 c. THREE Turns Clockwise
35 - OXYGEN & EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT
1. What happens when the mask is used with the selector at 100% position?
a. Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand;
b. Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand;
c. Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow.

2. A Thermal Discharge of the Crew oxygen bottle is indicated by:

a. A “THERMAL DISCHARGE” message on ECAM;
b. The Green Overboard DISCH Indicator missing;
c. The Red Overboard DISCH Indicator missing;
d. No indication of Thermal Discharge is provided.

3. In the Passenger Oxygen System, a Chemical Oxygen Generator, once

activated, delivers oxygen for:
a. 30 minutes, if only one mask is in use;
b. 5 minutes, if all masks are used;
c. 13 minutes, regardless of the number of the masks used.

4. In the cockpit, if the Master Selector of the EVAC Command Panel is in “CAPT”
Position and the Purser presses his EVAC “COMD” Push Button, what will
happen?
a. EVAC signals are activated in the Cabin only;
b. All EVAC signals are activated;
c. EVAC signals are activated from the COCKPIT only.

5. The Captain may call all Cabin Attendants at the same time.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

6. Where are the EVAC signals located?

a. In the COCKPIT and next to FORWARD Left and AFT Left Cabin Door;
b. In the COCKPIT and next to each Cabin Door;
c. In the COCKPIT and next to each Cabin Door and Emergency Wing Exit.

7. Masks are supplied with Undiluted Oxygen On Demand. If the Cabin Altitude
rises above 14,000 FT, Passenger (PAX) Oxygen Masks will drop out:
a. Only by actuation of a switch on the Captain Panel;
b. Automatically by Cabin Pressure and/or Cabin Attendant action;
c. Automatically by Cabin Pressure and/or Flight Crew action.

8. State the location of the “EVAC COMMAND” Switches.

a. Purser station and Cabin Attendant Aft Left;
b. Purser station and Pilot Overhead Panel;
c. Pilot overhead panel and all Cabin Attendant station.

Page 53 of 62
36 - PNEUMATIC SYSTEM
1. With Engines and APU running and APU Bleed Valve selected ON, what is the
correct statement?
a. Engine Bleed Valves close; X-Bleed Valve closes, APU Bleed Valve opens;
b. Engine Bleed Valves open; X-Bleed Valve opens, APU Bleed Valve closes;
c. Engine Bleed Valves close; X-Bleed Valve opens, APU Bleed Valve opens;
d. Engine Bleed Valves open; X-Bleed Valve closes, APU Bleed Valve opens;

2. To provide external air for engine start, the following switching is required:
a. Pneumatic X-Bleed AUTO;
b. Pneumatic X-Bleed OPEN;
c. Engine Bleed Switches OFF
d. APU Bleed Switch OFF

3. High Pressure air is supplied from:

a. Engine 1 and/or 2 Bleed Systems, APU Load Compressor, HP Ground
connection;
b. Engine 1 and 2 Bleed Systems;
c. Engine 1 and 2 Bleed Systems or APU Load Compressor.

4. Pneumatic System Operation is controlled and monitored by:

a. One Bleed Monitoring Computer;
b. Two Bleed Valve Computers;
c. Two Bleed Monitoring Computers.

5. Which source operates the Bleed Valve?

a. PNEUMATIC
b. ELECTRIC
c. BOTH

6. What happens when pressure and temperature are not sufficient to supply the
corresponding Engine Bleed Valve?
a. IP Valve closed;
b. HP Valve opened; IP Stage closed;
c. HP Valve opened; IP Stage remains in the same configuration.

7. Can you control the HP Valve position through the Air Bleed Cockpit panel?
a. YES
b. NO

8. If the Bleed Valve closes, the HP Valve:

a. Opens automatically
b. Closes automatically

9. In case of Low Upstream Pressure, the High Pressure Valve (HP Valve) is:
a. Pneumatically closed
b. Open
c. Electrically opened

Page 54 of 62
 d. Electrically closed
10. Temperature regulation is achieved by the precooler which regulates and limits
the temperature at:
a. 150o
b. 85o
c. 200o

11. Bleed Air from the Engines is:

a. Cooled in an air to air heat exchanger by using cold air bleed from the
engine fan section;
b. Not cooled prior to being used by the systems;
c. Only cooled in air conditioning part;
d. Cooled using ambient air.

12. Which source controls the Crossbleed Valve?

a. Pneumatic
b. Electric

13. The Crossbleed Valve is provided with 2 electrical motors:

a. One for the Automatic Mode; the other one for the Manual Mode;
b. Two for the Automatic Mode;
c. Two for the Manual Mode.

70 - POWER PLANT
1. On ground, the start sequence is automatically aborted.
a. There is no automatic abort sequence;
b. Only in case of Hot Start or Hung Start;
c. Only in case of No Light Up;
d. In case of Hot Start, Hung Start, Stall or No Light Up.

2. The FADEC is electrically supplied by:

a. An Aircraft Electrical System only;
b. Batteries if A/C electrical power fails;
c. Aircraft Electrical Circuit below 12% N2 and self powered above 12% N2;
d. Aircraft electrical System or Self-Powered in an Emergency.

3. What is the EGT Limit at starting?

a. 890oC
b. 790oC
c. 725oC

4. What is the Minimum Starting Oil Temperature?

a. -40oC
b. -10oC
c. 0oC

Page 55 of 62
 5. On ground, the automatic start sequence is:
a. Start Valve opens; Ignition starts when N2 >16%
LP and HP Fuel Valves open when N2 >22%
When N2> 50%, start valve closes and igniter OFF;
b. Start Valve opens, Ignition starts when N2 >16% when N2 >50%
Start Valve closes and Igniter OFF;
c. Start Valve and HP fuel valve open when N2 >22%; Start valve closes
when N2 >50%;
d. Start Valve opens; Ignition starts when N2 >16%; LP and HP fuel valves
open when N2 >22%. When engine mode selector is set to NORM, start
valve closes and igniter OFF.

6. What is the Minimum Oil Quantity (ECAM Indications)?

a. 5 QTS + estimated consumption (0.6 QTS/H);
b. 11 QTS + estimated consumption (0.6 QTS/H);
c. 11 QTS + estimated consumption before engine start or 5 QTS +
estimated consumption at Idle Power.

7. What is the Maximum N2?

a. 105%
b. 102%
c. 100%

8. What is the Maximum N2 for starter engagement?

a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 20%

9. What is the Maximum Starter Operating time?

a. 8 minutes followed by 15 minutes of no operation;
b. 5 minutes followed by 20 seconds of no operation;
c. 2 minutes followed by 20 seconds of no operation.

10. Starter cooling time requirements are:

a. 15 minutes cooling time after 4 cycles of 2 minutes;
b. 5 minutes cooling time after 4 cycles of 2 minutes;
c. 2 minutes cooling time after 4 cycles of 3 minutes;

11. The maximum reverse thrust may be used down to:

a. A/C stop according to EGT Limit;
b. 70 knots (Idle Reverse down to A/C stop);
c. 40 knots (Idle Reverse down to A/C stop).

12. Reduced thrust is not permitted:

a. If Outside Air Temp is lower than Corrected Temp;
b. On contaminated runway or with one (or more) Reverser INOP;
c. If Outside Air Temp is higher than TREF(ISA + 15oC).

Page 56 of 62
13. In Manual Thrust, in Cruise, the Pilot should limit the N1. What is this LIMIT?
a. Displayed MAX CLB N1, minus 2.4%;
b. Displayed MAX CLB N1;
c. Displayed MCT N1.

14. Is the N1 corresponding to MAX Cruise Level displayed on Upper ECAM?

a. NO
b. YES

15. TREF is 29oC, Outside Air Temp is 36oC and you found a Corrected FLEX
Temp of 33oC. Is it possible to use FLEX thrust for Take-Off?
a. YES
b. NO

16. What is the FADEC?

a. An Engine Control Box;
b. A Thrust Control Unit;
c. The Electronic Control Unit and its peripheral sensors and components.

17. In Manual Thrust Mode, when the Thrust Levers are positioned between the
CLB Detent and IDLE:
a. Each position of the Levers corresponds to an N1 value;
b. N1 value is CLB N1;
c. N1 value is IDLE N1.

18. The FADEC System is:

a. Always powered by the AC Electrical Circuit;
b. Self-powered;
c. Self-powered above 12% N2 with AC Power when N2 is below 12%.

19. What device provides direct closure of the HP Shut-Off Valves?

a. The Master Switch at OFF Position;
b. The ECU;
c. HMU.

20. Which Valve ensures an adequate Fuel Flow?

a. the HP Fuel Shut Off Valve;
b. The Burner Staging Valve (BSV);
c. The Fuel Metering Valve (FMV) of the Hydromechanical Unit (HMU).

21. Is the engine still supplied in case of Fuel Filter Clog?

a. YES. By using the fuel coming from the IDG Cooling Tank Line;
b. YES. By By-Passing the fuel filter (By-Pass Valves);
c. NO. The engine stops.

22. Cranking may be manually selected by setting:

a. The ENG Mode Selector to Crank and the Master Switch to ON;
b. ENG Master Switch to OFF; ENG Mode Selector to CRANK; and ENG MAN
Start Push Button to ON;

Page 57 of 62
 c. Same as B with ENG Master Switch ON.
23. During an automatic starting sequence, the Pack Valves close when:
a. IGN/START is selected;
b. APU Bleed is set to ON and IGN/START is selected;
c. The ENG Master Switch is set to ON with IGN/START selected.

24. During an automatic starting sequence:

a. Start Valve closes at N2 >43%;
b. Start Valve closes at N2 >45%;
c. Start Valve closes at N2 >50%.

25. Thrust Reversers are actuated by:

a. Hydraulic Actuators: GREEN for ENGine 1 - YELLOW for ENGine 2;
b. Hydraulic Actuators: GREEN for both ENGines;
c. Hydraulic Actuators: BLUE for ENGine 1 - YELLOW for ENGine 2;
d. Pneumatic Actuators.

26. Maximum EGT during engine start is:

a. 655oC
b. 390oC
c. 725oC

27. The FADEC automatically selects continuous ignition in the following cases:
a. Wing Anti-Ice ON or ENGine flame out;
b. In flight Restart or ENGine flame out or EIU failure;
c. In flight automatic Restart or ENGine flame out or EIU failure or ENGine
Anti-Ice ON.

28. How is the OIL cooled?

a. By the Servo Fuel Heater and the ENGine Fuel/Oil Heat Exchanger;
b. By OIL Recirculation;
c. By the Air/Oil Heat Exchanger.

29. The OIL Pressure Indicator becomes RED when the pressure is lower than:
a. 16 PSI
b. 20 PSI
c. 13 PSI

30. In Authothrust Mode, the thrust computed by the FMGC is limited:

a. By the ECU (with Throttle Lever Position {TLA});
b. By the Mode engaged on the FCU;
c. By the FMGC itself.

31. The Thrust Reverser activation conditions are:

a. Aircraft on the ground (LH + RH main L/G compressed); Thrust Lever
between Reverse Idle detent and MAX Reverse and One corresponding
FADEC Channel operating;
b. Spoilers armed and Thrust Levers on the reverse sector;
c. Thrust Levers in Full Reverse sector.

Page 58 of 62
32. REV appears in Green on the N1 Indicator when:
a. The Thrust Levers are set to Full Reverse sector;
b. The Reverse Doors are fully deployed;
c. The Thrust Lever position is in the Idle Reverse sector.

33. Reverse deployment requires a TLA signal from the SECs. One Reverse will
be lost if:
a. SECs 1 + 2 are lost;
b. SECs 1 + 3 are lost;
c. A or B

34. A/THR can be armed:

a. Manually on ground (ENG running), automatically after Take-Off;
b. In flight, Manually or Automatically if there is an ALPHA FLOOR detection;
c. Automatically when the Pilot initiates a Take-Off or a Go-Around or if there
is an ALPHA FLOOR detection from Lift-Off to 100 FT Radio Altimeter in
approach.

35. In flight, if the Instinctive Disconnect Push Button is pressed for more than 15
seconds, the A/THR functions including ALPHA FLOOR are definitely lost.
a. RIGHT
b. WRONG

36. At Take-Off, as soon as the power is set (FLEX or TO/GA):

a. The ATS function is armed provided the A/THR Push Button on FCU is
pressed-in;
b. The ATS function is active;
c. The ATS function is armed but not active.

37. After FLEX Take-Off, you have an Engine Failure and you want to select MCT:
a. You have the Throttle Lever in FLEX; MCT selection is automatic;
b. You take the Throttle Levers out of the FLX/MCT detent then back to
FLX/MCT position;

38. Pressing the ENG Fire PB Switch on the Eng Fire Panel causes the closure of:
a. The LP Fuel Shut Off Valve;
b. The Fuel LP Valve and the HP Valve (due to LP Valve closure);
c. The Fuel HP Valve.

39. A/THR active, ASYM Amber Message (FMA) means:

a. Only One Thrust Lever is set out of CLB detent or MAX Continuous Thrust
(both Engines running);
b. Asymetric Power is established due to FADEC malfunction;
c. Asymetric Power is established due to TLA Resolver Fault.

40. MCT Amber message (in the left part of the FMA) means:
a. Throttles are not in MCT position after engine failure in flight;
b. Throttles are not in MCT position after engine failure when speed is >Green
Dot.

Page 59 of 62
41.CLB flashes amber on FMA if the throttles are not in CLB Position when:
a. The A/C is above the altitude of Thrust Reduction (both ENGs running);
b. The A/C is at Lift-Off;
c. The Landing Gear is retracted.

SAFETY
1. The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT, RETURN TO SEAT and EXIT signs
come on when:
a. The appropriate switches are ON and/or excessive Cabin Altitude is
detected;
b. The appropriate switches are OFF and/or excessive Cabin Altitude is
detected;
c. All of the above.

2. With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, Cabin Emergency Lights
and Exit Signs automatically come ON when:
a. DC BUS fails
b. AC BUS 2 fails
c. AC ESSENTIAL BUS fails
d. AC BUS 1 or DC SHED ESSENTIAL BUS fails

3. The Cockpit door:

a. Can only open into the cockpit;
b. Can only open into the cabin;
c. Normally opens into the cockpit but can be forced open in either direction.

4. Is the alert active when the Command Push Button on the EVAC Purser Panel
is pressed?
a. YES, at any time;
b. YES, but only on ground;
c. YES, provided the Cockpit EVAC Switch is in the CAPT & PURS Position;
d. YES, it overrides all other signals.

5. If a slide fails to inflate automatically:

a. It cannot be inflated;
b. It must be inflated by Manual activation;
c. It may be used as a manually held escape slide;
d. B + C

6. When opened in an emergency, the passenger entry doors:

a. Are pneumatically assisted to the open position;
b. Will need 2 Flight Attendants to push them open;
c. Are assisted to the open position by slide inflation.

7. At the gate, a RED Light flashes under the Door Window when:
a. Slide is armed and engines are running;
b. Engines are stopped, slide is disarmed and cabin is pressurized;
c. Engines are running and slide is disarmed.

Page 60 of 62
 8. How many escape ropes are in the cockpit?
a. 2 Escape Ropes – 1 over each window. They can be used through the Left
of Right window;
b. 2 Escape Ropes – each of them must be used through the window to which
it corresponds;
c. 3 Escape Ropes for the 2 cockpit Crew members. The extra one is to be
used by some particularly big people.

9. Evacuation Command Button at the forward Flight Attendant position:

a. Can only be activated provided the Cockpit Switch is at the CAPT & PURS
position;
b. Can be activated at any time;
c. Can only be activated on ground;
d. Overrides all other signals.

10. Where are the EVAC Signals Command Push Button Switches installed?
a. In the cockpit and next to each cabin door;
b. In the cockpit overhead panel only;
c. On the overhead panel and at the Purser station.

SMOKE
1. Smoke Detection Systems are installed in:
a. The Avionics Bay and the Cargo Bay;
b. The Avionics Bay, the Cargo Bay and the Lavatories;
c. As in B, plus the Galleys.

2. With “AVIONICS SMOKE” Warning activated, the “SMOKE” comes ON

Associated with the:
a. BUS TIE Push Button
b. GEN 1 Push Button
c. GEN 1 Line Push Button

3. The Avionics Bay Smoke Detector is located in the:

a. Avionics Bay
b. Ventilation Extract Duct
c. Skin Heat Exchanger

4. With the Blower + Extract Push Buttons in Override position, the ventilation
gets air from the:
a. Inlet Valve
b. Skin Heat Exchanger By-Pass Valve
c. Air Conditioning Inlet Valve

5. The Avionics Smoke Warning is inhibited during Take-Off from:

a. 80 KTS to Lift-Off
b. 80 KTS to 1,500 FT
c. NOT INHIBITED

Page 61 of 62
 6. The Lavatory Smoke Detectors are situated in each Lavatory Air Extraction
Duct.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

7. At activation of “LAVATORY SMOKE” Warning, the Fire Extinguishing System

Is automatically discharged.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

8. Lavatory Smoke Detectors send warnings to:

a. ECAM and Nose Interphone panel
b. ECAM (via SDCU) and CIDS
c. ECAM, EIDS and Nose Interphone panel

9. The Air Conditioning Smoke Warning is activated if smoke is detected in:

a. The Air Conditioning Duct
b. The Hot Air Manifold
c. The Pack Outlet Ducts
d. No Warning System is installed.

10. In case of Cargo Bay Smoke Warning, the agent bottle should be empty in less
than:
a. 10 seconds
b. 3 minutes
c. 1 minute

11. When pressing the Cargo Smoke Test Push Button, the smoke detectors are
Tested by the SDCU. The RED Smoke Light comes ON twice associated with
ECAM and the Isolation Valves close.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

Page 62 of 62