Pacop Red Pharmaceutical Chemistry

Pharmaceutical Organic Chemistry
Answer key
1. The following statement is/are true regarding the relationship of bond length and bond polarity
except:
a. As the bond polarity increase, the bond length decreases

b. A C-F bond has a longer bond length than C-C
c. As bond polarity increases the bond length also increases
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
2. The following statement/s is/are true regarding the relationship of hybridization of orbitals and
bond length:
a. As the s character increases, the bond length increases

b. As the s character increases, the bond length decreases
c. The bond length of acetylene is longer than the bond length of ethylene
d. The bond length of ethane is shorter than the bond length of ethylene
e. None of the choices
3. Bond strength or bond energy is the energy necessary to break the only bond in a diatomic
molecule or to dissociate the bonded atoms to their bond state. Which of the following
statements is/are true regarding its relationship with orbital hybridization, bond length and bond
poarity?
a. When the s character of the bonding orbitals increases, the bond energy also increases
b. When the polarity of the bond increases, the bond energy also increases
c. Bond energy and bond length has inverse relationship.
d. All of the choices
e. A and B only
4. What is the name of the following structure?
a. 4 methyl hexane
b. Isohexane
c. 3-methyl hexane
d. 2-ethyl pentane
e. 2-propyl butane
5. What is the name of the following structure?

a. 2-methylpentene
b. 4-methylpentene
c. 2-methylpentane
d. 4-methylpentene
e. 2-methylpentyne
6. What is the name of the following structure: CH3CH2CH2-C=CH

a. 1- pentyne
b. N-propylacetylene
c. 4-pentyne
d. 1-pentatriene
e. A and B
7. The following structure is the side chain of amino acid tryptophan. What is the name of the
following structure?
a. Purine
b. Pyrimidine
c. Indole
d. Quinolene
e. Pyridine
8. The structure of nucleic acid base cytosine, uracil and thymine is based on following N-ring.
What is the name of the following structure?
a. Pyridine
b. Piperidine
c. Pyrazine
d. Piperazine
e. Pyrimidine
9. Organic pharmaceuticals are often complex molecules which have a variety of acidic and basic
functional groups. The behaviour of these groups in an aqueous environment will influence the
activity of the drug and its absorption in the different compartments of the body. Which of the
following statement is/are true regarding the pH of the medium and the acidic/basic property of
the drug?
a. The pKa is a property of the drug molecule, while pH is the property of the medium
b. Acidic drugs will most likely be dissociated in a basic medium
c. Basic drugs will most likely be dissociated in an acidic medium
d. The sum of the negative logarithm of dissociation constant of the acid and its conjugate base
is always equal to 14
e. All of the above
10. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding drug distribution and pKa?
a. Indomethacin (pKa=4.5) will be absorb from the stomach rather than intestinal mucosa
b. Ephedrine (pKa=9.6) will be absorb from the intestinal mucosa rather than the stomach
c. Both indomethacin and ephedrine will be absorbed from the stomach rather than the
intestinal mucosa
d. Both indomethacin and ephedrine will be absorbed from the intestinal mucosa rather than
the stomach
e. A and B only
11. These lipid soluble compounds are also paraffin or saturated hydrocarbons. They commonly
undergo halogination and combustion reaction and, in vivo, terminal carbon or side chain
hydroxylation may occur.
a. Alkanes
b. Alkenes
c. Aromatic hydrocarbon
d. Alkynes
e. Alkyl halides
12. These lipid soluble compounds are also known as olefins and unsaturated hydrocarbons. Their
common reactions are the addition of hydrogen or halogenation, hydration (to form glycols), and
oxidation (to form peroxides).
a. Alkanes
b. Alkenes
d. Alkynes
e. Alkyl halides
13. The structure of these compounds is based on benzene. These molecules exhibit multicenter
bonding, which confers unique chemical properties.
a. Alkanes
b. Alkenes
d. Alkynes
e. Alkyl halides
14. Which of the following alcohols is the most water soluble?
a. Methanol
b. Ethanol
c. Propanol
d. Butanol
e. Phentanol
15. Which of the following statement is /are true regarding oxidation of alcohols?
a. Primary alcohols are oxidized to ketones

b. Secondary alcohols are oxidized to aldehydes and then to acids
c. Tertiary alcohols ordinarily are not oxidized
d. A and B only
e. All of the statements are correct
16. Which of the following compounds has a general formula of R-O-R with an oxygen bonded to 2
carbon atoms?
a. Aldehydes
b. Ether
c. Phenols
d. Ketones
e. Esters
17. These compounds have a general formula of R-CHO and contain a carbon group (C=O). The
common reactions of these compounds are oxidation and hemiacetal and acetal formation.
a. Aldehydes
b. Ether
c. Phenols
d. Ketones
e. Esters
18. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the water solubility of amines?
a. Branching decreases water solubility

b. Secondary amines are more water soluble than primary amines
c. Tertiary amines are the least water soluble compared to primary and secondary amines
d. A and B only
e. A and C only
19. These compounds have a general formula of RCOOR and commonly undergo hydrolysis to form
carboxylic acid and alcohol.
a. Ketones
b. Ether
c. Esters
d. Amides
e. Carboxylic acid
20. These compounds have a general formula of RCOOH and commonly undergo salt formation
with bases, esterification and decaroxylation.
a. Ketones
b. Ether
c. Esters
d. Amides
e. Carboxylic acid
21. Which of the following classes of organic compounds reacts to form salts with hydrochloric acid?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
22. Which of the following terms best describes the following reaction:
a. Acetylation
b. Reductive cleavage
c. Oxidative deamination
d. Decarboxylation
e. N-dealkylation
23. Which of the following functional group when added to a benzene nucleus, decreases the lipid
solubility of the benzene
I. A carboxylic acid group

II. An ethyl group
III. A phenolic group
a. I only is correct
b. III only is correct
c. I, II, III are correct
d. II and III are correct
e. I and III are correct
24. For questions 24-26, refer to the drug molecule :
The drug molecule is soluble in

I. An aqueous base
II. An aqueous acid
III. Water
25. Decomposition the drug molecule at room temperature most likely would occur by
a. Hydrolysis of the ester

b. Reduction of the carboxylic acid
c. Oxidation of the ester
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
26. Reactions that will be possible metabolic pathways for the drug molecule include
I. Ring hydroxylation
II. Glucuronide formation
III. Enzymatic hydrolysis
27. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding drugs?
a. Drug are compounds that interact with a biological system to produce a biological
response
b. No drug is totally safe
c. Poisons a t low doses can be used a s drugs
d. Drugs used in high dosed can be considered as poisons
e. All of the above
28. Most drugs bind to their targets by means of intermolecular bonds. Which of the following
statements is/are true regarding these forces?
a. An ionic or electrostatic bond is the strongest of the intermolecular bonds and takes
place between groups having opposite charges
b. Hydrogen bonds are very weak interactions that involve interaction between hydrophobic
regions of different molecules
c. Van der Waals forces of interaction are cost by transient dipole-dipole interaction
d. A and B only
e. A and C only
29. A range of the following compounds in increasing strength of carbonyl oxygen as a hydrogen
bond acceptor:
a. IV, III, II, I

b. I, II, III, IV
c. II, III, I, IV
d. I, III, IV, II
e. III, II, I, IV
30. This is the type of enzyme inhibition where the drug react with the enzyme and forms a covalent
bond.
a. Reversible inhibition
b. Irreversible inhibition
c. Competitive inhibition
d. Uncompetitive inhibition
e. Non-competitive inhibition
31. These type of inhibitor binds to the enzyme substrate complex in which its effect cannot be
overcome by increasing the substrate concentration
a. Reversible inhibitor
b. Irreversible inhibitor
c. Competitive inhibitor
d. Uncompetitive inhibitor
e. Allosteric inhibitor
32. Which of the following drugs is incorrectly match with its target enzyme?
a. Imatinib: tyrosine kinase

b. Zidovudine: HIV reverse transcriptase
c. Zileuton: 5 lipoxygenase
d. 5-flourouracil: Bactericidal topoisomerase
e. Sildenafil: phosphodiesterase enzyme
33. This type of inhibitor binds to a binding site different from the active site. They alter the shape of
the enzyme such that the active site is no longer recognizable.
a. Reversible inhibitor
b. Irreversible inhibitor
c. Competitive inhibitor
d. Uncompetitive inhibitor
e. Allosteric inhibitor
34. Evaluate the following statements: Antagonists can mimic the natural messengers and activate
receptors. Antagonist can bind to the receptor but they do not activate it.
a. Both statements are correct

b. Both statements are incorrect
c. Only the first statement is correct
d. Only the second statement is correct.
35. The following factors must be considered in designing an agonist:
a. The drug must have the correct binding groups.

b. Specific functional groups must be correctly positioned.
c. The size and shape of the drug molecule.
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
36. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding structurally-specific and structurally non
specific drugs?
I. The biologic effect of structurally non specific drugs is more closely correlated with the
physical properties of the molecules than with the chemical structure.
II. Examples of structurally non specific drugs are 6-mercaptopurine, phenothiazines,
pyrimethamine, and primaquine.
III. The biologic effect of structurally specific drugs, although not completely independent of the
physical properties, depends on certain chemical structure on drug molecule. Chemical
reactivity of the drug plays an important role as reflected in bonding propensities and
exactness of fit on the receptors.
IV. General anesthetics, hypnotics and volatile insecticides are typical examples of structurally
specific drugs.
c. I, II, III, and IV is correct
d. II and IV is correct
e. I and III is correct
37. Which of the following drug-enzyme pairs is/are correctly matched?
I. Penicillins – transpeptidase
II. Cephalosphorins – transpeptidase
III. Pyrimethamine – Dihydrofolate reductase
IV. Epinephrine – Adenylyl cyclise
c. I, III, and IV are correct
d. I, II, and IV are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct
38. It is generally conceived that an exact fit of the drug molecule and receptor is necessary to evoke
maximal biologic response that is imperative to consider the stereochemical makeup of drugs.
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the biologic activity of some
stereochemical isomers?
I. Only the (-) isomer of ascorbic acid has antiscorbutic activity\

II. Only the D isomers of alpha and beta glucose show high affinity for the red blood cell
sugar transfer stem.
III. Only the (-) isomer of alpha methyldopa has hypotensive activity
IV. Only the D(threo) isomer has high anti-bacterial activity
c. I,III, and IV are correct
39. What is the rate-limiting step in drug absorption of orally administered solid dosage forms?
a. Dissolution rate
b. Metabolism rate
c. Elimination rate
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
40. Which of the following factors can influence the dissolution rate of drugs from solid dosage forms
and hence, the therapeutic activity?
I. Solubility, particle size, crystalline form and salt form of the drug
II. Rate of disintegration in the gastrointestinal lumen
III. Gastric pH, motility and presence of food at the absorption site
c. I, II, and III are correct
41. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding renal excretion of drugs?
I. Renal excretion involves three processes: glomerular filtration, secretion and tubular
reabsorption.
II. Both the free drug and the drug bond to plasma proteins are filtered by the kidneys.
III. Drugs with high lipid/water partition coefficients are reabsorbed readily while those with
low lipid/water partition coefficients are unable to diffuse back across the tubular membrane
and are excreted in the urine unless reabsorbed by an active carrier system.
IV. Altering the pH of urine can result to termination of biologic activity of weakly acidic and
basic drugs.
42. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Phase I and Phase II Metabolic
reactions?
I. Phase I reactions include oxidation, hydroxylation, reduction and hydrolysis-enzymatic

reactions in which a new functional group in introduced into the drug molecule or an existing
functional group is modified making the drug more polar and more readily excreted.
II. Phase II reactions are enzymatic syntheses whereby a functional group is masked by the
addition of a new group, for example, acetyl, sulphate, glucoronic acid or certain amino
acids, which increases the polarity of the drug.
III. Most drugs undergo phase I reactions only.
IV. Drugs that are resistant to drug-metabolizing enzymes or that are hydrophilic are
excreted largely unchanged.
43. Which of the following statements regarding NADPH-Dependent Oxidative Reactions in Liver
Microsomes is/are correct?
I. Aniline is converted to p-Aminophenol by aromatic hydroxylation

II. Codeine is converted to morphine and formaldehyde by N-dealkylation.
III. Imipramine is converted to Despiramine by O-dealkylation
IV. Amphetamine is converted to Phenylacetone by deamination
a. II only is correct
c. I and IV are correct
e. I, II, III and IV are correct
44. Phase I metabolic transformation introduce new and polar functional groups into the molecule,
which may produce one or more of the following changes, except:
a. Decreased pharmacologic activity-deactivation

b. Increased toxicity – intoxication
c. Altered pharmacologic activity
d. Increased pharmacologic activity – activation
45. Which of the following Phase II pathway is correctly paired with their activated conjugating
immediate?
I. Glucoronic acid conjugation: uridine phosphate glucoronic acid (UDP-GA)

II. Sulfate conjugation: 3’-phospho adenosine-5’-phosphosulfate (PAPS)
III. Methylation: S-adenosylmethionine
IV. Amide synthesis: Coenzyme A
46.
Sulfonamides can undergo which metabolic pathway?
I. Acetylation at the N4 amino group

II. Conjugation with glucoronic acid or sulphate at the N4 amino group
III. Acetylation or conjugation with glucoronic acid at the N1 amino group\
IV. Hydroxylation and conjugation in the heterocyclic ring, R
47. The first purely synthetic antimicrobial drug which was developed by Paul Erlich. This drug was
used in the treatment of tryponosomiasis and syphilis.
a. Prontosil
b. Salvarsan
c. Phenol
d. Streptomycin
e. Penicillin
48. Which of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting the metabolism of microbial
organism but not of the host?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
49. Which of the following antibacterial agents inhibit s bacterial cell wall synthesis?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
50. Which of the following antibacterial agent can interact with the plasma membrane of bacterial
cells to affect membrane permeability?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
51. Which of the following antibacterial agents can disrupt the synthesis of essential proteins and
enzyme required for the cell’s survival?
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
52. This antibacterial agent can inhibit the nucleic acid transcription and replication which prevents
cell division and.or protein synthesis.
a. Sulfonamides
b. Polymyxins
c. Penicillins
d. Rifamycin
e. Nalidixic acid
53. For questions 53-55, refer to the general structure of sulphonamides below:
Which part of the drug’s structure is essential for drug activity?
a. Aromatic ring
b. Sulphonamide group
c. P-amino group
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
54. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the structure-activity relationship of
sulphonamides?
I. The p-amino group must be unsubstituted unless it is a prodrug or when the body can further
metabolize it to generate the active compound.
II. Extra substitution of the aromatic ring increases activity.
III. The sulphonamide nitrogen must be primary or secondary.
a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. I only
d. II only
e. All of the above
55. Which part of the drug molecule can only be varied to retain the antibacterial activity?
a. Aromatic ring
b. p-amino group
c. R2
d. A and B
56. A sulphonamide used in combination with pyrimethamine in the treatment of Malaria.
a. Sulfadiazine
b. Sulfathiazole
c. Sulfadoxine
d. Sulfamethoxazole
e. Sulfones
57. It is an orally active dyaminopyridine structure which has proved to be highly selective
antibacterial and antimalarial agent often given in conjunction with sulfamethoxazole. It inhibits the
enzyme dihydrofolate reductase leading to the inhibition of DNA synthesis and cell growth.
a. Pyrimethamine
b. Trimethoprim
c. Pralidoxime
d. Cotrimoxazole
e. Fansidar
58. Successfully isolated penicillin using processes such as freeze-drying and chromatography.
a. Alexander Flemming
b. Florey and Chain
c. Dorothy Hodgkins
d. Beechams
e. None of the above
59. Below is the general structure of penicillins. Which part of its structure is not essential for
activity?
a. The free carboxylic acid

b. The strained B-lactam ring
c. The acyl amino side chain
d. The bicyclic system
e. The sulphur atom
60. Addition of electron-withdrawing group into the acyl side chain of penicillin structure will render
the drug
a. resistant to acid hydrolysis

b. Protected from B-lactamase enzymes
c. Broaden the spectrum of activity
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
61. What is the effect of steric shields to the penicillin structure?
a. It will make the drug stable in acidic conditions.

b. It will be protected from B-lactamase enzymes
c. It will have a broad spectrum of activity
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
62. This drug is a penicillin analogue with isoxazolyl incorporated in the acyl side chain making it
useful against Staphylococcus aureus infections and acid resistant.
a. Flucloxacillin
b. Ampicillin
c. Carbenicillin
d. Piperacillin
e. Tazobactam
63. Which of the following broad-spectrum penicillin analogues do not have a urea functional group
at the alpha-position?
a. Azlocillin
b. Mezlocillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. Piperacillin
64. Which of the following broad spectrum penicillin analogues has carboxylic acid group in the acyl
side chain?
a. Azlocillin
b. Mezlocillin
c. Ticarcillin
d. Piperacillin
65. Which of the following amino acids are the biosynthetic precursors of penicillin?
a. Alanine
b. Cysteine
c. Valine
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
66. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the chemical structure of
cephalosporins?
a. Cephalosporins contain a bicyclic system containing a 4-membered B-lactam ring.

b. The B-lactam ring of cephalosporins is fused to five-membered dihydrothiazine ring.
c. Biosynthetic precursors of its skeleton is the same as that of penicillins.
d. A and B
e. B and C
67. Which of the following statements correctly describe/s the structure of carbapenems such as
imipenem and meropenem?
a. Absence of sulphur atom in the bicyclic ring system

b. It has no acyl amino side chain
c. The lactam ring is fused to a sic membered ring
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
68. Clavulanic acid is a beta-lactamase inhibitor used in combination with amoxicillin and other B-
lactamase antibiotics. Which of the following statements correctly describe clavulanic acid?
a. Clavulanic acid has a strained lactam ring in its structure.
b. It has no amino acyl side chain compared to other B-lactam antibiotics
c. Sulfur atom is essential for its activity against lactamases
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
69. Clavulanic acid, Sulbactam and tazobactam are B-lactamase inhibitors that act as suicide
substrates are administered with B-lactam antibiotics to prevent their degradation. Which of the
following combinations are correctly matched to their brand names?
a. Sulbactam + Piperacillin = Zosyn

b. Tazobactam + Ticarcillin = Timentin
c. Clavulanic acid + amoxicillin = Augmentin
d. A and B only
e. A and C only
70. This antibiotic was isolated from Streptomyces garyphalus and inhibits bacterial cell wall
synthesis by mimicking the structure of D-Alanine and inhibiting the enzymes L-Alanine racemase
and D-Ala-D-Ala ligase.
a. Bacitracin
b. Vancomycin
c. D-cycloserine
d. Aztreonam
e. Teicoplanin
71. A polypeptide complex produced from Bacillus subtilis that binds and inhibits the carrier lipid
responsible for carrying the cell wall components across the cell membrane.
a. Bacitracin
b. Vancomycin
c. D-cycloserine
d. Aztreonam
e. Teicoplanin
72. A glycopeptide antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces orientalis.
a. Bacitracin
b. Vancomycin
c. D-cycloserine
d. Valinomycin
e. Teicoplanin
73. A glycopeptide antibiotic isolated from Actinomyces teichomyceticus
a. Bacitracin
b. Vancomycin
c. D-cycloserine
d. Aztreonam
e. Teicoplanin
74. An antibiotic composed of 16 amino acids that is described as a ‘tunnelling’ molecule that act on
the plasma membrane and result in the uncontrolled movement of ions across cell membrane
leading to cell death.
a. Daptomycin
b. Gramicidin A
c. Valinomycin
d. Polymyxin B
e. All of the above
75. An ionophore antibiotic with a cyclic structure obtained from Streptomyces fermentation that acts
on the plasma membrane structure by allowing the uncontrolled movement of ions across the cell
membrane. This ionophore is specific for potassium ions over sodium ions.
a. Daptomycin
b. Gramicidin A
c. Valinomycin
d. Polymyxin B
e. All of the above
76. A polypeptide antibiotic derived from Bacillus polymyxa which can cause leakage of small
molecules such as nucleosides from the cell resulting to cell death.
a. Daptomycin
b. Gramicidin A
c. Valinomycin
d. Polymyxin B
e. All of the above
77. A cyclic lipopeptide derived from a bacterial strain of Streptomyces roseosporus and works by
disrupting multiple functions of bacterial cell membrane.
a. Daptomycin
b. Gramicidin A
c. Valinomycin
d. Polymyxin B
e. All of the above
78. A bactericidal protein synthesis inhibitor that was isolated from Streptomyces griseus. This
antibiotic contains a carbohydrate and basic amine groups in its structure.
a. Chlortetracycline
b. Streptomycin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Lincomycin
e. Erythromycin
79. A bacteriostatic antibiotic which inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of
ribosomes and preventing aminoacyl tRNA from binding. This drug was isolated from Streptomyces
aureofasciens.
b. Streptomycin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Lincomycin
e. Erythromycin
80. Which of the following antibiotics has a large lactone ring, a ketone group and a glycosidically
linked amino sugar in its structure?
b. Streptomycin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Lincomycin
e. Erythromycin
81. Clindamycin, a sulphur containing antibiotic, must not be given with which of the following drugs
because of having the same binding site at the ribosomes?
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Erythromycin
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
82. Quinupristin and Dalfupristin are streptogramins isolated from
a. Streptomyces griseus
b. Streptomyces pristinaespiralis
c. Acremonium chrysogenu
d. Streptomyces nodosus
e. Streptomyces erythreus
83. Which of the following drug is an oxazolidinone that can prevent the formation of 70s ribosome
by binding to the 50s subunit?
a. Quinupristin
b. Linezolid
c. Ofloxacin
d. Metronidazole
e. Proflavine
84. Nalidixic acid was the first therapeutically agent in the class of compounds that inhibits
topoisomerase enzymes, resulting in inhibition of replication and transcription. Which of the following
is related to nalidixic acid?
a. Quinupristin
b. Linezolid
c. Ofloxacin
d. Metronidazole
e. Proflavine
85. An aminoacridine agent used topically to treat deep surface wounds. It can interact directly with
bacterial DNA by intercalation.
a. Quinupristin
b. Linezolid
c. Ofloxacin
d. Metronidazole
e. Proflavine
86. The antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces mediterranei which inhibits Gram positive bacteria and
works by binding noncovalently to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase and inhibiting the start of RNA
synthesis. The flat naphthalene ring and several of the hydroxyl groups in its structure are essential
for activity, and the drug exists in as zwitterions giving it good solubility in both aqueous acid and
lipids.
a. Rifamycin B
b. Methenamine
c. Metronidazole
d. Isoniazid
e. Nitrofurantoin
87. A nitroimidazole structure introduced as an anti-protozoal agent and later became anti bacterial
agent. Its mechanism of action involves the drug entering the bacterial cell wall where the nitro group
is reduced and free radicals are formed and act on DNA.
a. Rifamycin B
b. Methenamine
c. Metronidazole
d. Isoniazid
e. Nitrofurantoin
88. A drug used to treat urinary tract infections where it degrades in acid conditions to give
formaldehyde as the active agent.
a. Rifamycin B
b. Methenamine
c. Metronidazole
d. Isoniazid
e. Nitrofurantoin
89. An antiviral drug that has a nucleoside-like structure and contains the same nucleic acid base as
deoxyguanosine, but lacks the complete sugar ring. It specifically inhibits viral DNA polymerase and
used in the treatment of infections due to herpes simplex 1 and 2 as well as varicella-zoster viruses.
a. Acyclovir
b. Idoxuridine
c. Podophyllotoxin
d. Fomivirsen
e. Imiquimod
90. Which of the following is the valine ester prodrug of acyclovir useful in the treatment of varicella-
zoster virus infections?
a. Cidofovir
b. Penciclovir
c. Valaciclovir
d. Famciclovir
e. Ganciclovir
91. Which of the following antiviral drug is an analogue of deoxythymidine used in the treatment of
herpes keratitis? The triphosphate form of this drug inhibits viral DNA polymerase as well as
thymidylate synthetase.
a. Acyclovir
b. Idoxuridine
c. Podophyllotoxin
d. Fomivirsen
e. Imiquimod
92. A plant product used in the treatment of genital warts caused by DNA virus papilloma virus.
a. Acyclovir
b. Idoxuridine
c. Podophyllotoxin
d. Fomivirsen
e. Imiquimod
93. This drug consists of 21 nucleotides and phosphothionate backbone. It is a DNA antisense
molecule that blocks the translation of viral RNA and is used against retinal inflammation caused by
CMV in AIDS patients.
a. Acyclovir
b. Idoxuridine
c. Podophyllotoxin
d. Fomivirsen
e. Imiquimod
94. A nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor which is an analogue of deoxythymidine where the
3’hydroxyl group is replaced by an azido group.
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
95. The anti-HIV drug contains inosine as the nucleic acid base and is converted through a series of
enzyme reaction to 2’,3’-dideoxyadenosine triphosphate which is the active drug.
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
96. Which of the following anti-HIV drug is an analogue of deoxycytidine where the 3’ carbon has
been replaced by sulphur?
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
97. The only guanosine analogue that is used against HIV infections and Hepatitis B.
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
98. A second generation non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that has a benzoxaxinone
structure.
a. Zidovudine
b. Didanosine
c. Lamivudine
d. Abacavir
e. Efavirenz
99. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding anti-HIV drugs?
a. NRTIs are prodrugs that are converted by cellular enzymes to active triphosphates which
act as enzyme inhibitors and chain terminators.
b. NNRTIs act as enzyme inhibitors by binding to an allosteric binding site.
c. PIs are designed to act as transition state inhibitors
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
100. Below is the structure of chloramphenicol, a bacteriostatic agent that binds to the 50s subunit of
ribosome. Which part of its structure is essential for drug activity?
a. The nitro group
b. The 2 alcohol groups
c. The dichloroacetamide group
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
101. Which substituent of chloramphenicol is responsibe for its toxic effect?
a. The nitro group

b. The 2 alcohol groups
c. The dichloroacetamide group
d. The aromatic ring
e. A and B only
102. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Erythromycin?
I. Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes

II. When administered together with chloramphenicol, their bacteriostatic effect will increase.
III. The ketone and 2 alcohol groups in its structure are responsible for its acid sensitivity.
IV. Increasing the size of the macrocycle to a 16-membered ring can increase the acid stability
of the molecule.
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III
e. III, IV
103. Amantadine is one of the earliest antiviral drugs used clinically against flu. Which of
the following statements is correct regarding amantadine?
I. Amantadine is an adamantine related to rimantadine.

II. It inhibits the penetration and uncoating of the influenza virus.
III. It can inhibit replication of the influenza virus by blocking a viral ion channel
called matrix (M2) protein
IV. At high concentrations, it can alter pH of endosomes and prevent the acidic
environment required by the hemagglutinins to fuse the viral membrane with
that of the endosome.
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, IV
d. II, III
e. III, IV
For nos. 104-107, please refer to the structures below:
104. Which among the given structures can be intercalating agent which can slide between the base
pairs of the DNA double helix and thereby can inhibit the enzymes involved in the replication and
transcription processes?
a. Structure I
b. Structure II
c. Structure III
d. Structure IV
e. II and III
105. Which among the given structures is an antimetabolite that can inhibit the enzymes involved in
the synthesis of DNA or its nucleotide building blocks?
a. Structure I
b. Structure II
c. Structure III
d. Structure IV
e. II and III
106. Which of the given structures can form strong covalent bonds with the nucleophilic groups on
DNA which can eventually result to cross-linking of strands?
a. Structure I
b. Structure II
c. Structure III
d. Structure IV
e. II and III
107. Which of the given structures can be classified as an alkylating agent?
a. Structure I
b. Structure II
c. Structure III
d. Structure IV
e. II and III
108. A semi-synthetic analogue of camptothecin given intravenously and is a prodrug used in

combination with fluorouracil and folinic acid for the treatment of advanced colorectal cancer.
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
109. An antisense drug designed to inhibit the mRNA molecules that code for proteins which
suppress apoptosis.
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
110. A natural product that reacts with nucleophiles to produce diradical species. Its reaction with
DNA ultimately leads to cutting of the DNA chains.
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
111. It is the most commonly used alkylating agent in cancer chemotherapy, the metabolism of
which produces arcolein which is toxic to the bladder and kidneys.
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
112. An alkylating agent that can cause intrastrand cross-linking preferref over cisplatin for the
intravenous treatment of advanced ovarian tumors because of its less severe side effects.
a. Oblimersen
b. Calicheamicin
c. Carboplatin
d. Irinotecan
e. Cyclophosphamide
113. Which of the following drugs is not an alkylating agent used in cancer chemotherapy?
a. Carmustine
b. Busulfan
c. Procarbazine
d. Mitomycin C
114. A thiopurine prodrug which is converted to its corresponding monophosphate that inhibits
purine synthesis.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
115. An antimetabolite that is very similar in structure to the natural folates differing only in additional
amino and methyl groups. It inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase which is responsible in
maintaining levels of the enzyme cofactor tetrahydrofolate.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
116. This drug acts as a prodrug for a suicide inhibitor. It is converted in the body to the fluorinated
analogue of 2’deoxyuridylic acid monophosphate which then combines with the enzyme thymidylate
synthase and the cofactor.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
117. An anti-leukemia drug isolated from Streptomyces antibioticus and is a powerful inhibitor of
Adenosine deaminase.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
118. A prodrug analogue of 2’deoxycytidine which inhibits DNA polymerases.
a. Methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Pentostatin
e. Cytarabine
119. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
I. Glucocorticoids: Megestrol acetate

II. Progestins: prednisone
III. Estrogens: Diethylstilbestrol
IV. Androgens: Fluoxymesterone
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II
c. III, IV
d. I, III
e. II, IV
120. A decapeptide analogue of the luteinizing hormone – releasing hormone designed to be more
resistant to peptidase degradation.
a. Goserelin
b. Raloxifene
c. Cyproterone acetate
d. Anastrazole
e. 4-hydroxyandrostenedione
121. A reversible competitive inhibitor of the enzyme aromatase , the design of which is based on
structure of amino gluthetimide.
a. Goserelin
b. Raloxifene
c. Cyproterone acetate
d. Anastrazole
e. 4-hydroxyandrostenedione
122. This mode of therapy involves an antibody which has catalytic activity designed to activate a
prodrug.
a. Antibody-directed enzyme prodrug therapy (ADEPT)

b. Antibody-directed abzyme prodrug therapy (ADAPT)
c. Gene -directed enzyme prodrug therapy (GDEPT)
d. Photodynamic therapy
e. All of the above
123. This mode of therapy involves the delivery of a gene that codes for an enzyme capable of
activating an anticancer prodrug into a cancer cell.

e. All of the above
124. This involves irradiation of tumors containing porphyrin photosensitizers resulting to the
production of reactive oxygen species which are fatal to the cell.

e. All of the above
125. This therapy involves an antibody-enzyme conjugate that is targeted to specific cancer cells.
Once the antibody has become attached to the outer surface of cancer cells, a prodrug is
administered which is activated by the enzyme at the tumor site.

e. All of the above
126. Which of the following statements is true regarding acetylcholine?
I. It is very useful in treating such conditions that requires it because it can be readily
synthesized in the laboratory.
II. It is easily hydrolyzed in the stomach by acid catalysis and cannot be given orally.
III. It is administered intravenously as it is stable in blood because of the absence of enzymes
such as esterases.
IV. There is no selectivity of action upon administration of acetylcholine.
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II
c. III, IV
d. I, III
e. II, IV
For nos. 127-129, refer to the structure of acetylcholine below;

127. Which part of the acetylcholine structure can be altered without decreasing its activity on
cholinergic receptors?
a. The quaternary nitrogen

b. The ester functional group
c. The ethylene bridge between the ester and nitrogen
d. All of the above
128. Which part of the acetylcholine structure is essential for activity?
a. The quaternary nitrogen

b. The ester functional group
c. The ethylene bridge between the ester and nitrogen
d. All of the above
129. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the structure-activity relationship of
acetylcholine?
a. Replacing the nitrogen atom with a neutral carbon atom increases the activity
b. The overall size of the molecule cannot be altered greatly.
c. There must be two methyl groups on the nitrogen.
d. A and B
e. B and C
130. Which of the following statements is true regarding acetylcholine analogues?
a. Addition of steric shield in the ethylene bridge renders resistance to chemical and enzymatic
hydrolysis
b. Changing the ester to a carbamate increases resistance to hydrolysis
c. Changing the ester to a carbamate makes it selective to muscarinic receptor
d. A and B
e. B and C
For nos. 131-132, refer to the structures below:

131. Which of the given structures is more stable to acid hydrolysis than acetylcholine?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. I & II
e. All of the above
132. Which of the given structures is more selective to muscarinic receptor than nicotinic receptor?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. I & II
e. All of the above
133. Given below is the general structure of muscarinic antagonists which was mostly based on the
structure of atropine. Which of the following statements is true regarding the structural features of
muscarinic antagonists?
a. The alkyl group on nitrogen can be larger than methyl

b. The nitrogen can be tertiary or quaternary
c. Very large acyl groups (R1 and R2) are allowed
d. A and B only
e. All of the above
134. Physostigmine is a carbamate inhibitor of the enzyme

acetylcholinesterase which was first isolated from
Physostigma venenosum. Which of its functional group/s
is/are essential for its activity?
a. Carbamate group
b. Benzene ring
c. Pyrrolidine ring
d. A and C only
e. All of the above
For nos. 135-141, refer to the general structure below:
135. Which part of the catecholamine is not important in the binding site interactions?
a. The 2 phenolic groups

b. Secondary alcohol
c. Ionized amine
e. A and B only
136. Which part of the catecholamine structure is involved in Van der Waals interactions?

c. Ionized amine
e. A and B only
137. Which part of the catecholamine structure is involved in ionic binding to the receptor site?

c. Ionized amine
e. A and B only
138. Which part of the catecholamine structure is involved in H-bonding to the receptor binding site?

c. Ionized amine
e. A and B only
139. Which of the following modifications to the catecholamine structure can increase alpha-2
receptor activity?
a. Increasing the size of N-alkyl substituent

b. Addition of an alpha methyl group
c. Removal of the phenolic groups
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
140. Which of the following modifications to the catecholamine structure can increase the selectivity
for beta receptors?

d. A and B only
e. B and C only
141. Which of the following modifications to the catecholamine structure can result to a significant
drop in activity for the beta receptor?

d. A and B only
e. B and C only
For nos. 142-144, refer to the general structure of aryloxypropranolamine below:
142. Which of the following statements is true about the SAR of aryloxypropranolamines?
a. A secondary amine is essential for activity.

b. The alcohol group on the side chain is essential for activity.
c. Substitution in the methylene bridge increases the activity.
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
143. Which of the following is incorrect about the SAR of aryloxypropranolamines?
a. Variation of the aromatic ring is possible.

b. Heteroaromatic rings can be introduced to the system.
c. Substitution on the side chain methylene group increases metabolic stability.
d. Adding an N-arylethyl group is detrimental.
e. A, B, and C only
144. What is the clinical indication of aryloxypropranolamines?
a. Asthma
b. Hypertension
c. For cardiogenic shock
d. Obesity
e. All of the above
145. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the structural features
required for the hypnotic activity of barbiturates? (refer to the structure of
barbituric acid)
I. Replacement of sulphur for the carbonyl oxygen at carbon 2

results in quick onset and short duration of action.
II. Within the same series of barbituric acid derivatives, the
branched chain isomer has greater activity and shorter duration. The
greater the branching, the more potent the drug.
III. Within the same series of barbituric acid derivatives, the
unsaturated allyl, alkenyl and cycloalkenyl analogues have greater
potency than the saturated analogues with the same number of
carbon atoms.
IV. Methylation of one of the imide hydrogens (the transition from
5,5-disubstituted barbituric acid to 1,5,5-trisubstituted barbituric acid)
increases onset and decreases duration of action.
c. I and IV is correct
146. Which of the following statements describe the ideal antiepileptic drug?
I. It should completely suppress seizures in doses that also cause sedation.

II. It should be well tolerated, highly effective against various types of seizures and devoid of
undesirable side effects on vital organs and functions
III. Its onset of action should be rapid after parenteral injection for control of status epilepticus.
IV. It should have a long duration of effect after oral administration for prevention of recurrent
seizures.
c. II, III, and IV are correct
147. Which of the following correctly describes the barbiturate 5-ethyl-5-phenylbarbituric acid?
a. It is also known as Phenobarbital

b. The sedative-hypnotic effect of this drug limits its use in older children and adults
c. It exhibits anticonvulsant effects in doses that do not cause sedation.
d. A and B only
e. A and C only
148. Which of the following statements correctly describe 2-ethyl-2-methylsuccinide?
a. It is widely accepted treatment of petit mal condition.

b. It can cause ataxia and gingival hyperplasia.
c. It is also known as Dilantin.
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
149. Which of the following statements correctly describe 5,5-diphenyl-2,4-imidazolidinedione?
a. It is widely accepted treatment of petit mal condition.

b. It can cause ataxia and gingival hyperplasia.
c. It is also known as Dilantin.
d. A and B only
e. B and C only
150. Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure-activity relationship of tricyclic
psychotropic drugs?
I. Optimal psychotropic activity is observed in ring systems that have a six-membered or

seven-membered central ring.
II. Dihenylalamine and Diphenylmethane derivatives that lack a central ring are devoid of
psychotropic activity.
III. Derivatives that contain a five-membered central ring lack psychotropic activity.
IV. Rigidly planar tricyclic diphenylmethane derivatives such as anthracene are inactive.
c. II, III, and IV are correct
e. I, II, III, and IV are correct.
151. Which of the following are pharmacologic responses elicited by phenothiazine?
I. Antipsychotic effect
II. Antiparkinsonian effect
III. Anti-adrenergic, anticholinergic, antihistaminic and antiserotonin effects

IV. Antiemetic effect
A. I only is correct D. I,II,IV are correct
B. III only is correct E. I,II,III,IV are correct
C. II, III,IV are correct
152. Which of the following drugs is/are a butyrophenone derivative?
I. thioridazine
II. Fluphenazine
III. Droperidol
IV. Haloperidol
A. I only is correct D. III and IV are correct
B. IV only is correct E. I,II,III & IV are correct
C. I and II are correct
For numbers. 153-157, refer to the structure of morphine.
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding modifications at the phenolic function at
position 3?
A. masking the hydroxyl group at position 3 by either

esterificationor etherification increases all morphine type effects and almost always increases
convulsant action.
B. Methylmorphine, also known as codeine, is more potent than morphine.
C. Maximal analgesic effects are observed with the free phenolic group at the 3 position.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
154. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding modifications of the alcoholic function at
position 3?
A. Masking the hydroxyl group at position 6 increases all morphine type effects.
B. 6-ethylmorphine and 3,6-diacetylmorphine are more potent than morphine itself.

C. The oxygen function at position 6 is essential for analgesic activity
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
155. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the 7-8 double bond?
A. Reduction of the 7-8 double bonds in morphine results in a decrease in activity.
B. Dihydromorphine and dihydrocodeine is more potent than the parent compound morphine.
C. Unsaturation is essential for activity
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
156. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the tertiary nitrogen?
A. Conversion of the tertiary nitrogen to a quaternary nitrogen results in a decrease of analgesic

activity
B. Increasing the chain length to propyl on the nitrogen results in a compound that has
antagonistic properties to morphine effects.
C. Increasing the chain length to propyl on the nitrogen results in a compound that has
increased morphine type effects.
D. A and B
E. B and C
157. Which of the following statements correctly describe the cardiac glycosides digoxin and
digitoxin?
A. Digoxin is more toxic than digitoxin because of its additional hydroxyl group that makes it
more lipophilic.
B. Digoxin is less toxic than digitoxin because of its additional hydroxyl grouo that makes it
more hydrophilic.
C. Digoxin has longer duration of action than digitoxin.
D. A and B
E. B and C
158. What is the probable mechanism of action of cardiac agent with the following structure?
O₂NO CH ₂
CH ONO ₂
O ₂ NO CH ₂
A. It is an inotropic agent
B. It relaxes the vascular smooth muscle (vasodilation)
C. It inhibits the calcium ion reflux into myocardial cells
D. It blocks the beta adrenergic receptor
E. None of the above
159. A drug used in the treatment in myocardial insufficiency that is structurally similar to adenosine,
a natural vasodilatory substance released by the myocardium during hypoxic episodes.
A. Cyclandelate D. Diltiazem
B. Dypirydamole E. Nifedipine
C. Papaverine
160. An antiarrythmic drug composed of a quinoline ring and a bicyclic quinuclidine ring system
connected by a hydroxymethylene bridge that is a member of a family of alkaloids found in cinchona
bark.
A. Disopyridamole D. Tocainide
B. Flecainide E. Procainamide
C. Quinidine
161. An antiarrythmic drug that is an ᾳ-methyl analog structurally related to monoethylglycinexylide,

the active metabolite of xylocaine.
A. Disopyramide D. Tocainide
B. Flecainide E. Procainamide
C. quinidine
162. What is the use the mechanism of action of this antiplatelet drug with the following structure:
A. It blocks the platelet phosphodiesterase enzyme, therefore leading to higher cyclic

adenosine monophosphate levels.
B. It reversibly inhibits the cyclooxygenase enzyme

C. It irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation by acetylating cyclooxygenase enzyme
D. A and C only
E. None of the choices
163. Which of the following statement is true regarding agonist at the H1 and H2 receptor antagonist
of histamine?
A. H1 antagonist are hydrophobic molecules thus they are more likely to produce cns side
effects
B. H2 antagonist are hydrophobic molecules thus they are less likely to produce cns side
effects
C. Both H1 and H2 antagonist are indicated for ulcer theraphy
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
164. Which of the following statements correctly describes the ideal anesthetic agent?
I. it should provide adequate muscular contraction
II. It should produce rapid and uncomplicated induction and emergence
III. It should have no effect on myocardium or respiration at anesthetic doses.
IV. It should be non-flammable
A. I, II, III, IV D. I,II only
B. II,III,IV only E. III & Iv only
C. II & III only
165. Which f the following statement is true regarding anesthetics?
I. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers increases the anesthetic activity.
II. Along with toxicity, increasing the chain length of ethers decreases the anesthetic activity.
III. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether increases potency and shortens
induction and emergence
IV. Introduction of unsaturation into an aliphatic ether decreases potency and shortens
induction and emergence
A. I,IV only D. II,IV only
B. I,III only E. none of the above
C. II,III only
166. Which of the following statements is true regarding halogenated anesthetic agents?
I. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons decreases flamability

II. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons often increases anesthetic potency.
III. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons decreases flamability
IV. Addition of halogen atoms to ethers or hydrocarbons often decreases anesthetic potency.
A. I & II only D. none of the above
B. I & IV only
C. II & III only
167. Which of the following metabolic transformation of barbiturates can lead to loss of depressant
activity?
A. Oxidation of substituents
B. Desulfuration of 2-thiobarbiturates
C. Hydrolytic cleavage of the barbituric ring
D. All of the above
168. Which of the following acids has mycobacteriostatic activity?
A. Propionic acid
B. Chaulmoogric acid
C. Mandelic acid
D. Salicylic acid
E. Amino acid
169. Which of the following alcohols has a local anesthetic property?
A. Benzyl alcohol
B. 2-propanol
C. Ethanol
D. 2-pyridinemethanol
E. choline
170. Which of the following amino ethers has antihistamine property?
A. Dimethisoquin
B. Benzidioxanes
C. Clomiphene
D. Phenoxybenzamine
E. Methoxyphenamine
171. Which of the following halogenated compounds has hypnotic properties?
A. Ethyl chloride
B. Carbon tetrachloride
C. Chloral
D. Hexachlorophene
E. Chloroform
For nos 172-175, refer to the structure of cetirizine and clemastine as shown below:
Cetirizine Clemastine
172. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the structural features of cetirizine and
clemastine?
A. Cetirizine and clemastine can cross the blood brain barrier because of the hydrophobic
aromatic rings and aliphatic hydrocarbon chains
B. Cetirizine will more likely cause drowsiness than clemastine
C. clemastine will more likely cause drowsiness than cetirizine
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
173. Which of the following functional groups can decrease the absorption of cetirizine and
clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Tertiary amines
C. Ether
D. A and B
E. B and C
174. Which of the following functional groups can increase the absorption of cetirizine and
clemastine through the blood brain barrier?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon
B. Tertiary amines
C. Ether
D. A and B
E. B and C
175. If a truck driver asks you to recommend an antihistamine drug for his seasonal allergies, which
of the two drugs will you recommend?
A. Clemastine
B. Cetirizine
C. Either clemastine and cetirizine
D. None of the choices
176. A 35 year old woman comes to the pharmacy and asks you to recommend an antifungal cream
rather than a spray or powder. You recommended terbinafine, an effective topical antifungal agent
that is sold over the counter. What are the structural features/functional groups present in terbinafine
that makes it an agent that can be used topically?
A. Aromatic hydrocarbon D. Alkane
B. Alkene E. All of the above
C. AlkyneAll
177. Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target
enzyme of terbinafine and form an ionic interaction with the tertiary amine group?
A. Valine
B. Isoleucine
C. Alanine
D. Glutamic acid
E. Serine
178. . Which among the following amino acids is likely to be present in the active site of the target
enzyme of terbinafine and form an hydrophobic interaction with the aromatic hydrocarbons?
A. Phenylalanine
B. Serine
C. Threonine
D. Glutamic acid
E. Arginine
179. Wich of the following drugs is an ethylenediamine antihistamine?
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
E. All of the above
180. Which of the following drugs in an example of tricyclic antihistamine?
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
E. All of the above
181. Which of the following drugs is an example of an ethanolamine ether antihistamine?
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
E. All of the above
182. Which of the following drugs has a little or no sedative qualities?
A. Tripelennamine
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Promethazine
D. Astemizole
E. All of the above
183. According to this drug receptor theory, the number of drug receptor interactions per unit time
determines the intensity of the biological response
A. Rate theory
B. Occupational theory
C. Activation aggregation theory
D. Induced fit theory
E. Molecular pertubation theory
184. This drug receptor theory suggest that the biological response is directly related to the number
of receptors bound by an agonist.
A. Rate theory
185. This drug receptor theory suggest that the drug approaches the receptor, a conformational
change occurs in the receptor to allow effective binding.
A. Rate theory
186. According to this theory, receptors are always in dynamic equilibrium between active and
inactive states. Agonist function by shifting the equilibrium toward the activated state, whereas
antagonist prevent the activated state.
A. Rate theory
187. This drug receptor theory suggest that two types of conformational changes exist and the rate
of their existence determines the observed biological response.
A. Rate theory
188. Which of the following statements correctly describes an agonist?
A. these are compounds that mimics the natural ligand for receptor
B. They may have similar structure to the ligand
C. They can bind to regions of the receptor that are not involved in binding the natural ligand
D. A and B
E. B and C
189. Which of the following statements correctly describes an antagonist?
A. these are compounds that mimics the natural ligand for receptor
B. They may have similar structure to the ligand
C. They can bind to regions of the receptor that are not involved in binding the natural ligand
D. A and B
E. B and C
190. These are exogenous chemical messengers that act as antagonist, but also eliminate any
resting acivity associated with a receptor.
A. Partial agonist
B. Inverse agonist
C. Hormones
D. Neurotransmitters
191. This condition may occur when an agonist is bound to its receptor for a long period of time.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
192. This condition may occur when an antagonist is bound to a receptor for a long period of time.
The cell synthesize more receptor to counter the antagonist effect.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
193. This is a situation where increases doses of a drug over time to achieve same effect.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
194. This is related to the body’s ability to adapt to the presence of a drug. On stopping the drug,
withdrawal symptoms occur as a result of abnormal levels of target receptor.
A. Sensitization
B. Desensitization
C. Tolerance
D. Dependence
195. This is a measure of how strongly a drug binds to a receptor.
A. Potency
B. Affinity
C. Efficacy
D. All of the above
196. This is determined by measuring the maximum possible effects resulting from receptor-ligand
binding
A. Potency
B. Affinity
C. Efficacy
D. All of the above
197. This relates how effective a drug is in producing a cellular effect. It can be determined by
measuring the concentration of drug required to produce 50% of the maximum possible effect.
A. Potency
B. Affinity
C. Efficacy
D. All of the above
198. These are molecules that act as substrates for a target enzyme, but which are converted into a
highly reactive species as a result of the enzyme catalyzed reaction mechanism. The species
formed then reacts with amino acid residues present in the active site to form covalents bonds, and
act as irreversible inhibitors.
A. Transition state analogue
B. Suicide substrates
C. Allosteric inhibitors
D. Competitive inhibitor
E. All of the above
199. This type of inhibition binds to a different site other than the active site and can alter the shape
of the enzyme such that the active site is no longer recognizable.
E. All of the above
200. These are enzyme inducers that are designed to mimic the transition state of an enzyme-
catalyze reaction mechanism. They bind more strongly than either the substrate or product.
E. All of the above
201. The type of inhibitors that bind to the active site and compete with either substrate or cofactor.
E. All of the above
202. Physostigmine inhibit which of the following enzyme?
A. Adenosine deaminase
B. Arabinosyl transferase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. 3’,5’-cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase
E. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
203. sildenafil, a drug for erectile dysfunction, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
204. ethambutol, a drug for tuberculosis, inhibit which of the following enzyme?
205.Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-glucosidase?
A. Acarbose
B. Miglitol
C. Glimepiride
D. Metformin
E. Rosiglitazone
206. Which of the following drugs for diabetes inhibits the enzyme a-amylase?
A. Acarbose
B. Miglitol
C. Glimepiride
D. Metformin
E. Rosiglitazone
207. Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
A. terbinafine: squalene monooxygenase
B. Itraconazole: sterol14a –methylase
C. Caspofungin: 1,3-B-glucan synthase
D. All of the above
208. Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is incorrectly matched?
A. Alendronate: farnesyl-diphosphate farnesyl transferase
B. Mycophenolate: IMP dehydrogenase
C. Cilastin: renal dehydropeptidase
D. All of the above
209. Which of the following drug (inhibitor)-enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
A. captopril: peptidyl-dipeptidase A
B. Etodolac: prostaglandin endoperoxide synthase

C. Entacapone: catechol-O-methyl transferase
D. All of the above
E. B and C only
210. Which of the following drugs (inhibitor) enzyme inhibited pairs is correctly matched?
A. atorvastatin: HMG-CoA reductase
B. Oseltamivir: viral neuraminidase
C. Ciprofloxacin: DNA gyrase
D. All of the above
211. Which of the following phenolic drugs has an expectorant activity?
A. Amiodaquine
B. Guaiacol
C. Hydroxymorphinans
D. Diethylstilbestrol
E. Hexylresorcinol
212. Which of the following dyes is available as vaginal suppository for the treatment of yeast
infection and has also been used orally as a anthelmintic for strongyloidiasis and oxyurias?
A. Methylene blue
B. Phenolpthalein
C. Basic fuchsin
D. Methylrosaniline chloride
213. Which of the following dyes is a mixture of the chlorides of rosaniline and p-rosaniline? It is an
ingredient of castellanis paint which is used topically in the treatment of fungal infection, such as
ringworm and athletes foot?
A. Methylene blue D. Methylrosaniline chloride
B. Phenolpthalein E. None of the choices
C. Basic fuchsin
214. It is a non classical folate antagonist that is structurally similar to methotrexate. It inhibits the
enzyme dihydrofolate reductase and has been approved for the treatment of pneumocystis carinii in
patients with aids.
A. Nitoxadine B. Metronidazole
C. Trimetexrate E. Suramin
D. Diloxanide furoate
215. Which of the following anti-inflammatory analgesic is an arylacetic derivative that is comparable
to aspirin in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, with a lower incidence of side effects? It has also
been approved for used in primary dysmenorrhea.
A. Sodium salicylate D. Acetaminophen
B. Mefenamic acid E. Antipyrine
C. Ibuprofen
216. Which of the following anti-inflammatory agents is an arylanthranilic acid derivative that has
lower incidence of gastrointestinal bleeding than aspirin, and has been approved for use in the
management of primary dysmenorrhea?
B. Mefenamic acid E. antipyrine
C. Ibuprofen
217. Which of the following drugs is a derivative of aniline and has an analgesic and antipyretic
properties? The FDA requires a warning label that read as follows: Warning: Do not give to children
under 3 years of age or use for more than 10 days unless directed by a physician.
B. Mefenamic acid E. antipyrine
C. Ibuprofen
218. The following are synthetic estrogens except:
A. Chlorotrianisene D. B and C only
B. Diethylstilbestrol E. None of the choices
C. Benzestrol
219. Which of the following estrogens is an estradiol metabolite originally obtained from the urine of
horses especially pregnant mares?
A. Equilin sodium sulfate D. Diethylstilbestrol
B. Ethinyl estradiol E. Dienestrol
C. Estriol
220. Which of the following progestins is classified as a derivative of testosterone?
A. Megestrol acetate C. Norethindrone
B. Norgestrel D. Ethinodiol acetate

E. Dimethisterone
221. Which of the following progestins are classified as derivative of testosterone?
A. Ethisterone D. A and B only
B. Chlormadinone acetate E. B and C only
C. Medroxyprogesterone
222. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to improve the membrane permeability of its
active metabolite?
A. Enalapril D. A and C only
B. Levodopa E. All of the above
C. Pivampicillin
223. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to prolong the drug activity of its active
metabolite?
A. Cyclophosphamide D. Chloramphenicol succinate
B. Azathioprine E. Hetacillin
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate
224. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to lower water solubility of the active metabolite?
225. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to mask the toxic side effects of its active
metabolite?
226. Which of the following prodrugs was designed to increase the water solubility of the active
metabolite?
227. Which of the following prodrug was designed to increase the chemical stability of the active
metabolite?
A. Cyclophosphamide B. Azathioprine
C. Chloramphenicol palmitate E. Hetacillin
D. Chloramphenicol succinate
228. These are isomer that contain at least one assymetric, or chiral, carbon atom. Each asymmetric
carbon atom can exist in one of two non-superimposable isomeric forms.
A. Optical isomer D. All of the above
B. Geometric isomer E. None of the choices
C. Conformational isomer
229. This type of isomer occurs as a result of restricted rotation about a chemical bond, owing to
double bond or rigid ring system in the molecule.
230. Also known as rotamers, these are non-superimposable orientation of a molecule which result
from the rotation of atoms about single bonds.
231. Which of the following statements is true regarding ester-type local anesthetics?
A. They are generally long acting and are metabolized in the liver
B. They are generally short acting due to rapid hydrolysis in the plasma
C. Agents include procaine, benzocaine, lidocaine and dibucaine
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
232. Which of the following statements is true regarding amide-type local anesthetics?
A. They are generally long acting and are metabolized in the liver
B. They are generally short acting due to rapid hydrolysis in the plasma
C. Agents include procaine, benzocaine, lidocaine and dibucaine
D. A and B only
E. A and C only
233. Which of the following statements is true regarding the antipsychotic agents in the
phenothiazine class?
A. Phenothiazine must have a nitrogen containing side chain substituent on the ring nitrogen
for antipsychotic activity.
B. Phenothiazine in which the rings and side chain nitrogen are separated by a two carbn
chain have only antihistaminic activity.
C. Piperidine derivative confer the greatest potency and the highest pharmacologic
selectivity.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
234. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. butyrophenone, haloperidol
B. Phenothiazine, chlorprothixene
C. Thioxanthenes, thioridazine
D. A and B only
E. All of the above
235. Which of the following pairs of newer class of antipsychotic is correctly matched?
A. dihydroinolones, molindone
B. Dibenzoxazepines, loxapine
C. Dibenzodiazepines, clozapine
D. A and C only
E. All of the above
236. Which of the following statements is true regarding tricyclic antidepressants?
A. Imipramine and clompramine are derivatives of dibenzazepine
B. Amitriptyline and nortriptyline are derivatives of dibenzocycloheptadiene
C. TCA appear to produce their antidepressant effects by blocking the intraneuronal oxidative
deamination of brain biogenic amines.
D. A and B only
E. All of the above
237. Which of the following statements correctly describe the structure and mechanism of action of
mao inhibitors?
A. Tranylcypromine is an extremely potent phenylcyclopropanolamine derivative
B. Phenelzine isocarboxacid are weakly potent hydralazine derivative

C. MAO inhibitors appear to act principally by reducing cns neuronal re-uptake of biogenic
amines
D. A and B only
E. All of the above
For nos. 238-240, select the most appropriate pharmacologic category for the following structures:
238. What is the pharmacologic category of structure I?
A. Opioid antagonist D. General anesthetic
B. Anxiolytic E. Local anesthetic
C. Antidepressant
239. Structure II belongs to what pharmacologic category?
C. Antidepressant
240. Structure III belongs to what part of pharmacologic class?
C. Antidepressant
241. Structure IV belongs to what part of pharmacologic class?
C. Antidepressant
242. Give the amino acid of the autacoids with the following structure.
A. tyrosine D. Histidine
B. Phenylalanine E. Serine
C. Tryptophan
243. Give the amino acid of the autacoids with the following structure.
A. tyrosine D. Histidine
B. Phenylalanine E. Serine
C. Tryptophan
244. Certain metabolites retain the pharmacologic activity of their of their parent compounds to a
greater or lesser degree. Which of the following drugs produce such metabolites?
I. oxidation of the mercaptopurine
II. Demethylation of morphine
III. Dealkylation of iproniazid
IV. Isomerization of retinoic acid
A. I, IV D. II only
B. II,III E. I only
C. III, IV
245. Which of the following biotransformation produces a metabolite with an activity different from
that of their parent compound?

A. I, IV D. II only
B. II,III E. I only
C. III, IV
246. Which of the following biotransformation produces a inactive metabolite
A. I, IV D. II only
B. II,III E. I only
C. III, IV
247. Which of the following statements is true regarding oxidation reaction?
I. It is a most common phase 1 of biotransformation
II. Oxidation reactions can occur in the liver
III. The vast majority of oxidation is catalyze by a group or mixed function oxidases
known as CYP450.
IV. The increased polarity of the oxidized product (metabolites) enhances their water
solubility and increases their tubular reabsorption to some extent, thus favoring their
excretion in the urine
A. I,II,III,IV D. I and III Only
B. I,II only E. II And IV only
C. III, IV only
248. Which of the following statements is true regarding reduction reaction?
I. It has same goal as oxidation reaction to create polar functional groups that can be easily
excreted.
II. Bacteria resident in the GI tract are also responsible for reductions of azo and nitro
groups
III. Chloramphenicol, sulfasalazine and acetohexamide can undergo reduction reaction
IV. Cytochrome P450 enzymes is not involved in the reduction reaction

A. I, II, III, IV D. II and III only
B. I, II, III E. IV only
C.I, II only
249. Which of the following drugs is metabolized by CYP1A?
A. Acetaminophen D. Theophyliine
B. Fluoroquinolones E. All of the above
C. Imipramide
250. Which of the following drugs is metabolized by CYP4B?
A. prostaglandin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Dapsone
D. Hydrocortisone
E. All of the above

251. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Phase ll reactions?
l.These are reactions in which the functional groups of the original drug(or metabolite)are masked by conjugation
reaction
ll.These reactions require both a high-energy molecules and an enzyme
lll.High-energy molecules consist of a coenzyme bound to the endogenous substrate,the parent drug,or the
drug’s phase l metabolite.
lV.Most conjugates are highly polar and unable to cross cell membranes,making them almost almost always
pharmacology inactive and of little or no toxicity.
A)l,ll,lll,lV C)land ll only E)lV only
B) l,ll,lll only D)ll and lll only
252. Which of the following statements correctly describes Glucuronidation reaction?
l.It is the most common conjugation pathway because of readiy available supply of glucuronic acid as well
as a large variety of functional groups,which can enzymatically react with this sugar derivative.
ll.The high energy form of glucuronic acid is Uridine monophosphate glucuronic acid and the enzyme
involve in these reaction is glucuronyl transferase.
lll.Druds that posses hydroxyl or carboxyl functional groups readily undergo glucurinidation to form esters
and ethers,respectively.
lV.The addition of the glucuronide moiety greatly increases the hydrophilicity of the molecule which makes
it highly reabsorbed by the renal tubes.
A)l,ll,lll,lV C)l,ll only E)lV only
B)l,ll,lll only D)ll,lll only
253. Which of the following conjugation reactions requires 2’-phosphoadenosine-5’- phosphosulfate molecule?
A) Glutathione conjugation D) Sulfate conjugation
B) Acetylation E) Amino acid conjugation
C) Methylation
254.Which of the following conjugation reactions require the formation of the high-energy molecule AcetylCoA
A) Glutathione conjugation D) Sulfate conjugation
B) Acetylation E) Amino acid conjugation
C) Methylation
255. Which of the following conditions can greatly affect the metabolism of a certain drug?
A) Congestive heart failure D) Increase drug dosage
B) Deficiency of certain dietary minerals E) All of the above
C) Deficiency of vitamins
256. Which of the following drug administration route bypasses first-pass effect
A) Oral administration
B) Intravenous administration
C) Sublingual administration
D) A and B
E) B and C
257.Which of the following metabolites would be the least likely urinary excretion product of acetaminophen?
A) Ether glucuronide
B) Sulfate conjugate
C) N-acetyl-p-benziminoqiunoneimine
D) Unchange drug
E) N-acetyl-p-benziminoquinoneimine with glutathione
258. Which of te following statements correctly describes the first and second generation Sulfonylureas? (See
structure below)
l.First and second generation Sulfonylureas have a bulk

aliphatic substituent on the nonsufonyl have relatively simple aromatic
ll.First generation Sulfonylureas have relatively simple aromatic substituents such as methyl,amino,acetyl,chloro
lll Second generation Sulfonylureas have a larger aromatic substituent
lV.First generation Sulfonylureas are more potent than second generation.
A)l,ll,lll,lV
B)l,ll,lll only
C)l and ll only
D)ll and lll only
E)lV only
259. Which of the following is not the first generation sulfonylurea
A) Glyburide
B) Glipizide
C) Glimperide
D) All of the choices
E) None of the choices
260. Which of the following is the first generation sulfonylurea
A) Glyburide
B) glipizide
C) Glimperide
D) All of the choices
E) None of the choices
261. This drug has been highly effective against Schistoma mansoni.It is activated via esterification to a biological
ester that spontaneously dissociates to an electrophlie,which alkylates the helminth DNA,leading to irreversible
inhibition of nucleic acid metabolism.
A) Praziquantel
B) Oxaminiquine
C) Ivermectin
D) Pyrantel
E) Mebendazole
262.This drug acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that acts as a depolarizing neuromuscular
blocking agent that activates nicotinic receptors and inhibits cholinesters,ultimately leading to worm paralysis.It is
used as apamoate salt,which is quite insoluble and,as a result,is not readiy absorbed improving the usefulness of
the drug for the treatment of intestinal helminthes.
A) Praziquantel
B) Oxaminiquine
C) Ivermectin
D) Pyrantel
E) Mebendazole
263. A drug that belongs to a class of 16-membered macrocyclic lactones extracted from Streptomyces avermitilis
used in the treatment of various nematode infections.It acts either as a GABA agonist or as an inducer of chloride
ion influx,leading to hyperpolarization and muscle paralysis.
A)Praziquantel
B)Oxaminiquine
C)Ivermectin
D)Pyrantel
E)Mebendazole
264. It is an isoquinoline derivative with most of the biological activity found in the levo enantiomer.The compound
has no activity against nematodes,but is highly effective against cestodes abd trematodes.Its mechanism of action
appers to involve calcium ion redistribution either directly or indirectly and inhibition of phosphoinositide metabolism
A) Praziquantel
B) Oxaminiquine
C) Ivermectin
D) Pyrantel
E) Mebendazole
265. Buspirone,a long chain arylpiperazine derivative,is an anxiolytic agent that is a partial agonist to
A)5HT1A receptor
B)5HT4 receptor
C)5HT3 receptor
D)5HT2A
E)5HT1D
266. Sumatriptan and other indeleaklylamine derivatives used in the treatment of migraine is an agonist at which of
the following receptors.
A) 5HT1A receptor
B) 5HT4 receptor
C) 5HT3 receptor
D) 5HT2A
E) 5HT1D
For nos. 267-268, refer to the following reaction pathway
A)l,ll,lll,lV
B)l,ll only
C)lll,lV only
D)l,lll
E)ll,lV
268.Which of the givem reactions can be classified as Phase ll metabolism?
A)l,ll,lll,lV
B)l,ll only
C)lll,lV only
D)l,lll
E)ll,lV
269.Which of the following drugs would most likely undergo nitroreduction?
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
E)All of the above
270.Which of the following drugs would most likely undergo azoreduction
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
E)All of the above
271.Which of the following drugs would most likely undergo ester hydrolysis
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
E)All of the above
272.Which of the following drugs would likely undergo amide hydrolysis
A)Chloramphenicol
B)Procaine
C)Lidocaine
D)Sulfasalazine
E)All of the above
273.This conjugation pathway is extremely important in preveting toxicity from a variety of electrophilic agents.It
produces a mercaptopuric acid derivative upon reaction with an electrophile
A)Glutathione conjugation
B)Acetylation
C)Methylation
D)Sulfate conjugation
E)Amino acid conjugation
274.S-adenosylmethionine is required for the conjugation reaction
A)Glutathione conjugation
B)Acetylation
C)Methylation
D)Sulfate conjugation
E)Amino acid conjugation
275. Meperidine can undergo which of the following metabolic pathway?
I. Hydroxylation at thr aromatic ring
II. Ester hydrolysis
III. N-oxidation
IV. N-dealkylation
A. I,II,III,IV
B. I,II,III
C. I,II
D. I,III
E. II,IV
276. Which of the following selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) and antiestrogens has a
triphenylethylene structure used to treat early and advanced breast carcinoma in post menopausal women?
A. raloxifene
B. Fulvestrant
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphene
277. Which of the following SERMs and antiestrogen is a benzothiophene derivative that has been approved for the
prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in menopausal women? It has antagonist properties on the endometrium
and breast tissue and agonist properties on bone and cardiovascular system?
A. raloxifene
B. Fulvestrant
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphene
278. Which of the following SERMs and antiestrogen is an antagonist structurally on the estradiol structure which is
used in the treatment of women who have had disease progression after prior antiestrogen property?
A. raloxifene
B. Fulvestrant
C. Tamoxifen
D. Clomiphene
279. Which of the following drugs is not a nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitor?
A. Letrozole
B. Aminoglutethimide
C. Exemestane
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
280. Which of the following drugs is a nonsteroidal aromatase inhibitor?
A. Letrozole
C. Exemestane
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
281. An aromatase inhibitor used mainly in the treatment of cushing’s syndrome
A. Letrozole
C. Exemestane
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
282. What is the probable mechanism of action of diuretic drug with the following structure?
A. It increases intraluminal osmotic pressure, causing water to pass from the body into the tubules.
B. It can induce dieresis by inhibiting the formation of carbonic acid within the proximal and tubular cells to limit the
number of hydrogen ions available to promote sodium reabsortion
C. It inhibits the Na+/Cl- symportar located in the distal convulated tubule
D. It inhibits Na+/K=/Cl- transport system in the thick ascending limb loop of henle
E. It inhibits sodium and water reabsorption by competitive inhibition of aldosterone
283. What is the probable mechanism of action of a diuretic drug with the following structure?
286. Which of the following analgesic agent is 2 to 3 times more potent than morphine as analgesic and also known
as heroin?
A. Tramadol hydrochloride
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
E. Diacetylmorphine Hydrochloride
287. Which of the following drugs represent a fragment of codeine’s structure, consisting of the phenyl and
cyclohexane rings? This drug possesses opioid activity but has other analgesic activity that is not reversed by
naloxone.
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
288. This drug prepared by N-demethylation of morphine and has about one-fourth as active as morphine in
producing analgesia but has a much lower physical dependence capacity
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
289. Also known as N-cyclobutylmethylnoroxymorphone hydrochloride, this drug is analgesia of the agonist-
antagonist type with little or no abuse liability.
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
290. This drug has a strong structural relationship to the meperidine type analgesics and has the ability to inhibit
excessive gastrointestinal motility.
B. Normorphine
C. Diphenoxylate
D. Nalbuphine
291. Which of the following modifications can affect the onset , degree and duration of insulin activity?
A. Rearrangement of amino acid residues at the N- and C- terminus at the B chain of insulin
B. Changing the insulin crystal type (ex. From crystalline to amorphous)
C. Addition of modifying protein such as protamine
D. Changing the site of injection
E. All of the above
292. This is the only insulin analogue with a C14 fatty acid attached to an amino residue in the B chain of insulin
A. Lispro
B. Aspart
C. Glulisine
D. Glargine
E. Detemir
293. A highly purified protein containing 165 amino acids manufactured from a strain of E. coli bearing a genetically
engineered plasmid containing an interferon alfa 2a gene from leucocytes. This drug is used in patients 18 years or
older for treatment of hairy cell leukemia and chronic myelogenous leukemia.
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Gemtuzumab Ozogamicin
294. A highly purified protein produced by E.coli containing a plasmid with alfa 2b gene. This product is indicated
for hairy cell leukemia and also useful in treating malignant melanoma.
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
295. It is also known as interleukin 2 or T-cell growth factor. This product when administered stimulates T-cell
growth and regulation, proliferation and immunoglobulin production in B lymphocytes macrophage activity
enhancement
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
E. Trastuzumab
296. A monoclonal antibody approved for breast cancer which selectively binds with high affinity to the extracellular
domain of human epidermal growth factor 2 protein
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
297. A genetically engineered chimeric monoclonal antibody directed against CD20 antigen on malignant B
lymphocytes
A. Roferon-A
B. Interon
C. Aldesleukin
D. Rituximab
298. A type of immunobiological that contains a solution of antibodies derived from the serum of animals immunized
with specific antigens.
A. Toxoid
B. vaccine
C. Anti toxin
D. Intravenous immune globulin
E. Immune globulin
299. A product derived from blood plasma of a donor pool similar to the IG pool but prepared so it is suitable for IV
use. It is primarily use for replacement therapy in primary Ab deficiency disorders and for the treatment of
kawasaki’s disease.
A. Toxoid
B. vaccine
C. Anti toxin
E. Immune globulin
300. A modified bacterial toxin that has been made non toxic but remains the ability to stimulate the formation of
antitoxin.
A. Toxoid
B. vaccine
C. Anti toxin
E. Immune globulin
INORGANIC PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The upper oxidizing zone of a nonluminous Bunsen flame consists largely of:
A. Incandescent carbon
B. A mixture of reducing gases and oxygen
C. A large excess of oxygen
D. Nitrogen
E. Unburnt gas
2. Less volatile substances may be detected in:

A. Lower oxidizing zone
B. Upper oxidizing zone
C. Upper reducing zone
D. Lower reducing zone
E. Hottest portion of the flame
3. Sb imparts ______ color to the nonluminous Bunsen flame

A. Crimson
B. Yellowish green
C. Green
D. Blue
E. Brick red
4. Tl imparts ______ color to the nonluminous Bunsen flame

A. Crimson
B. Yellowish green
C. Green
D. Blue
E. Brick red
5. In the micro scale of qualitative analysis, the quantity of a substance employed is reduced by a
factor of
A. 0.1
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
E. 1000
6. A metallic deposit obtained after sublimation may indicate the presence of:
A. Ammonium salts
B. Sulphur
C. Mercury (I) iodide
D. Selenium (IV) oxide
E. Amalgams
7. The color of the flame caused by calcium chloride when viewed through cobalt glass is
A. Brick red
B. Light green
C. Violet
D. Crimson
E. Purple
8. A mixture of potassium and sodium chloride will produce _______ color in the flame test.
A. Orange
B. Violet
C. Yellow
D. Red
E. Reddish orange
9. In the microcosmic salt bead test, the microcosmic salt _________ is used.
A. Na2B4O7.10H2O
B. Cu(BO2)2
C. Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O
D. CuSO4.5H2O
E. NOTA
10. The color of borax bead produced by cerium salts in the oxidizing flame when hot is:
A. Orange red
B. Colorless
C. Yellow
D. Rose-violet
E. Bottle green
11. The upper edge of a filter paper used during filtration should be about ______ cm from the
upper rim of the funnel
A. 1 cm
B. 2 cm
C. 3 cm
D. 2/3 cm
E. 0.5 cm
12. When a precipitate tends to pass through the filter paper, this salt may be added to prevent the
formation of colloidal solutions.
A. Sodium chloride
B. Potassium nitrate
C. Lithium chloride
D. Ammonium nitrate
E. NOTA
13. Glass apparatus which are particularly greasy may be cleaned with
A. Hot nitric acid
B. Concentrated hydrochloric acid
C. Chromosulphuric acid
D. Perchloric acid
E. Glacial acetic acid
14. The reaction between lead nitrate and hydrogen sulphide will yield
A. A blue solution
B. A colorless solution
C. A white precipitate
D. A yellow precipitate
E. A black precipitate
15. This compound is formed when mercury (I) chloride dissolves in aqua regia
A. Mercury (II) amidochloride
B. Mercury (I) amidochloride
C. Mercury (I) nitrate
D. Mercury (II) nitrate
E. Mercury (II) chloride
16. Basic mercury (II) amidonitrate exists as:

A. A black precipitate
B. A white precipitate
C. A gray precipitate
D. A colorless precipitate
E. Colorless solution
17. The reaction between silver nitrate and potassium iodide will produce
A. A black precipitate
B. A white precipitate
C. A gray precipitate
D. A yellow precipitate
E. No precipitate
18. The reaction between mercury (II) nitrate and excess potassium iodide will produce:
A. A white precipitate of potassium nitrate
B. A black deposit of metallic mercury
C. A red precipitate of mercury (II) iodide
D. A colorless solution containing tetraiodomercurate (II) ions
E. NOTA
19. Purple colored compounds usually indicate the presence of

A. Dichromates
B. Cobalt salts
C. Permanganates
D. Purple sulphur
E. Sulphides
20. Devarda’s alloy contains

A. Cu, Al, Zn
B. Cu, Ni
C. Bi, Pb, Sn
D. Ni, Fe, Cr
E. Pb, Sb, Sn
21. A solution that yields a white precipitate with dilute HCl and dissolves in ammonia solution
indicates the presence of
A. Pb 2+
B. Hg2+ 2
C. Ag+
D. Hg2+
E. NOTA
22. A solution that yields a white precipitate with excess reagent of ammonium carbonate indicates
the presence of
A. Group I cations
B. Group II cations
C. Group III cations
D. Group IV cations
E. Group V cations
23. A solution that yields a white precipitate with excess reagent of Na2HPO4 indicates the presence
of
A. Mg 2+
B. NH 4+
C. Na+
D. K+
E. NOTA
24. The most stable complexes are found by ions of these groups of elements
A. Group VI A
B. Group VII A
C. Group I B
D. Group II B
E. Group VIII
25. The element that was named from a Greek word which means “acid former”
A. Hydrogen
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Chloride
E. Helium
26. Artificial radioactive isotopes emit the following except

A. Alpha particles
B. Beta particles
C. Gamma rays
D. K capture x rays
E. NOTA
27. Emitted when neutrons exceed protons beyond a stable ratio that occurs mainly in the elements
of atomic numbers above 63
A. Alpha particles
B. Positron
C. Negatron
D. Cyclotron
E. K capture x rays
28. The mineral spodumene contains

A. CaMg3(SiO3)4
B. Na3AIF6
C. CaSO4.2H2O
D. LiA([SiO3])2
E. NOTA
29. Compounds formed when molecules of two different halogens react

A. Interhalogens
B. Intrahalogens
C. Semihalogens
D. Cohalides
E. Reaction is not possible
30. CrCl2 (H2O) 4NO3 is

A. Aqueous chromochloronitrate
B. Hydrated chromodichloronitrate
C. Nitrated chromodichlorohydrate
D. Dichlorotetraaquochromium (III) nitrate
E. Dichlorotetraaquochromium (II) nitrate
31. Ethylenediamine is a type of ligand classified as

A. Unidentate
B. Bidentate
C. Hexadentate
D. Tetradentate
E. Pentadentate
32. Francium has Z=

A. 37
B. 55
C. 57
D. 87
E. 95
33. The most stable diatomic molecule is

A. Oxygen
B. Bromine
C. Nitrogen
D. Fluorine
E. NOTA
34. The bond existing between mercury (II) fluoride is

A. H bond
B. Ionic
C. Covalent
D. Metallic bond
E. NOTA
35. The most metallic of all halogens is

A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine
E. NOTA
36. If a basic solvent is used, the iodine solution obtained is usually colored
A. Colorless
B. Violet
C. Orange
D. Blue black
E. Black
37. Linus Pauling called this element a superhalogen, probably owing to its high electronegativity
value.
A. Fluorine
B. Chlorine
C. Bromine
D. Iodine
E. NOTA
38. This principle states that, in a stable complex, there may be no high concentration of negative or
positive charge, and that charge will tend to distribute itself over the atoms within a complex in such
a way that the net charge on each atom approaches zero.
A. Law of Hess
B. Aufbau Principle
C. Electropositvity principle
D. Electronegativity principle
E. Electroneutrality principle
39. Oxidation of phosphorous with oxygen may yield

A. P4O6
B. P4O10
C. P2O4
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
40. An element that has an electronegativity of 0.9 on the Pauling scale and an element with a
Pauling electronegativity of 3.0 has sufficient difference to form
A. Ionic bonds
B. Covalent bonds
C. Coordinate covalent bonds
D. H bonds
E. NOTA
41. Calcium Disodium Versenate may be used in the treatment for heavy metal poisoning, primarily
that caused by
A. Mercury
B. Arsenic
C. Gold
D. Lead
E. NOTA
42. The only alkali metal that melts above the boiling point of water is
A. Lithium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Rubidium
E. Cesium
43. Which alkali metal hydroxide has the highest alkalinity?

A. Lithium hydroxide
B. Sodium hydroxide
C. Potassium hydroxide
D. Rubidium hydroxide
E. Cesium hydroxide
44. All oxides and hydroxides of the coinage metals are freely basic except for
A. Cu2O
B. Ag2O
C. Au2O
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
45. The reagent that will precipitate out Group I cations

A. Dilute hydrochloric acid
B. Hydrogen sulphide
C. Ammonium sulphide
D. Ammonium carbonate
E. Sodium biphosphate
46. Which among these acid halides has the highest acidity?
A. HI
B. HBr
C. HCl
D. HF
E. NOTA
47. How many percent by weight of HCl does muriatic acid contain?
A. 96-98%
B. 97-99%
C. 10-16%
D. 35-38%
E. 9.5-105%
48. A type of water that contains iron in solution or suspension and are characterized by a
ferruginous taste
A. Alkaline water
B. Carbonated water
C. Chalybeate water
D. Lithia water
E. Saline water
49. The specific gravity of sulphuric acid is

A. 1.18
B. 1.84
C. 1.71
D. 1.14
E. NOTA
50. A type of water which is sometimes known as purgative water

A. Alkaline water
B. Carbonated water
C. Chalybeate water
D. Lithia water
E. Saline water
51. Graham’s salt is

A. Sodium sulfate
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Calcium phosphate
D. Sodium metaphosphate
E. Ammonium bicarbonate
52. Parenteral preparations containing bacteriostatic water for injection may be administered through
the following routes except:
A. Intravenous
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
53. This element decreases the coefficient of expansion in glass.

A. Potassium
B. Iron
C. Titanium
D. Boron
E. Rare earth metals
54. Element that predominates in the plasma and interstitial fluids

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium
E. Iron
55. The black precipitate produced in Marsh’s test is

A. Lead
B. Arsenic
C. Silver
D. Hydrogen sulfide
E. Cadmium
56. The xanthoproteic test make use of this acid

A. Boric acid
B. Hydrochloric acid
C. Nitric acid
D. Sulfuric acid
E. Phosphoric acid
57. Softening both temporary and permanent hard water may be achieved through:
A. Boiling
B. Clark’s lime process
C. Demineralization
D. Addition of ammonia
E. NOTA
58. The principal anion of the intracellular fluid compartment is

A. Chloride
B. Phosphate
C. Sulfate
D. Bicarbonate
E. Carbonate
59. Ringer’s injection contains_____ mEqs of potassium

A. 147 mEq
B. 130 mEq
C. 4 mEq
D. 2.7 mEq
E. NOTA
60. This is used both as a diuretic and in the treatment of chronic acidosis to restore bicarbonate
reserve.
A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Potassium bicarbonate
C. Sodium citrate
D. Sodium lactate
E. Ammonium chloride
61. Iron compound which has the superior resistance to oxidation upon exposure to air
A. Ferrous fumarate
B. Ferrous gluconate
C. Ferrous sulfate
D. Ferrous oxide
E. NOTA
62. Important component of the protein ceruloplasmin

A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Magnesium
D. Zinc
E. NOTA
63. Marsh test is a test for

A. Cadmium
B. Copper
C. Astatine
D. Arsenic
E. Lead
64. The positive result in Gutzeit’s test is the presence of

A. White precipitate
B. Evolution of colorless gas
C. Black spot in filter paper
D. Effervescence in solution
E. Silver mirror in test tube walls
65. Decoloration of fuchsin dye indicates the presence of

A. Phosphates
B. Sulphates
C. Oxides
D. Phosphites
E. Sulphites
66. Prussian blue is:

A. Fe4[Fe(CN6)]3
B. The same as Turnbull’s blue
C. Iron (III) hexacyanoferrate
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
67. Deficiency of this mineral result to parakeratosis

A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Copper
D. Magnesium
E. Iodine
68. This metal has the capacity to displace hydrogen in solution

A. Platinum
B. Mercury
C. Tin
D. Bismuth
E. Copper
69. These salts may contain two different cations combined with a single anion or may contain a
single cation combine with two or more anions.
A. Normal salts
B. Hydrogen salts
C. Mixed salts
D. Double salts
E. NOTA
70. Temporary hardness of water is usually caused by the presence of:

A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Calcium sulfate
D. Magnesium carbonate
E. Potassium sulfate
71. The element found in human bodies that is an important constituent of xanthine oxidase and
aldehyde oxidase.
A. Iodine
B. Zinc
C. Molybdenum
D. Selenium
E. Copper
72. Defacqz reaction is used to test for:

A. Molybdenum
B. Tungsten
C. Thallium
D. Gallium
E. Gold
73. Turnbull’s blue is

A. Fe3[Fe(CN)6]12
B. Iron (II) hexacyanoferrate
C. The same as prussian blue
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
74. A precipitate may result in an unknown solution upon the addition of hydrogen sulphide if this
action is present:
A. Ag+
B. As5+
C. Fe2+
D. Fe3+
E. Li+
75. This system of inorganic nomenclature cites the charge on a complex ion rather than the
oxidation state of the central unit.
A. Stock system
B. Ewens-Bassett System
C. Classical System
D. Modern System
E. AOTA
76. Being a bridge element, the behaviour of this element and its compound is often different that of
the other members of the Group I family.
A. Lithium
B. Sodium
C. Ammonium
D. Rubidium
E. Cesium
77. The most chemically active among the members in Group II A

A. Magnesium
B. Beryllium
C. Calcium
D. Strontium
E. Barium
78. The second most abundant element on earth

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Aluminum
D. Silicon
E. Hydrogen
79. This is the product when a base like sodium carbonate is fused with pure silica.
A. Smectite
B. Talc
C. Silanes
D. Glass
E. Pumice
80. One hundred volumes of hydrogen peroxide is equal to

A. 3%
B. 6%
C. 30%
D. 70%
E. 100%
81. The most stable allotropic form of sulphur at room temperature

A. α- sulfur
B. β- sulfur
C. Г-sulfur
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
82. The best expectorant is

A. KI syrup
B. NH4Cl solution
C. HI solution
D. H2O vapor
E. NOTA
83. Fatal bends in deep sea divers are caused by gaseous_____ in the blood
A. Carbon monoxide
B. Hydrogen
C. Helium
D. Pure oxygen
E. Nitrogen
84. Compounds which are capable of interfering with the passage of X rays are used as
A. Enema
B. Chemotherapeutic agents
C. Radiopaques
D. Radioisotopes
E. NOTA
85. Iron oxides are usually used as

A. Astringents
B. Topical protectives
C. Laxatives
D. Pigments
E. Buffers
86. A green precipitate that results after a solution was neutralized with ammonia solution and after
the addition of ammonium sulphide indicates the presence of:
A. Al3+
B. Mn2+
C. Cr3+
D. Co2+
E. Ni2+
87. Potassium alum is an example of a

A. Normal salt
B. Hydrogen salt
C. Mixed salt
D. Double salt
E. NOTA
88. Aromatic Ammonia Spirit, USP must be stored in

A. PET bottles
B. Rubber containers
C. PVC containers
D. Amber bottles
E. Clear glass containers
89. The only route of administration approved in administering Iron Dextran Injection
A. Intravenous
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Intra arterial
E. Intradermal
90. This metal will not react with acids to produce hydrogen
A. Potassium
B. Aluminum
C. Bismuth
D. Strontium
E. Lead
91. The softest mineral known is:

A. Mg5(Si8O20)(OH)2.8H2O
B. Mg3(OH)2Si4O10
C. [Al4(OH)6][Si4O10)(OH2)]
D. CaAl2Si4O12.6H2O
E. NOTA
92. A white precipitate after the addition of excess ammonium carbonate indicates the presence of
A. Group I cations
B. Group II cations
C. Group III cations
D. Group IV cations
E. Group V cations
93. A basic or “sub” salt is prepared by

A. Partial hydrolysis of a normal salt
B. Partial neutralization of a hydroxide
C. Partial reaction with a base
D. A and B
E. B and C
94. An example of an efflorescent substance is

A. Epsom salt
B. Glauber’s salt
C. Blue vitriol
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
95. Used as bone replacement for temporary braces of long bones and to close openings in the skull
A. Plaster of Paris
B. Zinc-eugenol cement
C. Silver
D. Tantalum
E. Adamantium
96. The following elements belongs to Period III of the periodic table except for:
A. Boron
B. Magnesium
C. Sulfur
D. Silicon
E. NOTA
97. Treatment with gold has been used in the following conditions except:
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Disseminated lupus
C. Nondisseminated lupus erythematosus
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
98. The oxidation state of sulphur that gives rise to sulphuric cid
A. -1
B. -2
C. +2
D. -3
E. +6
99. Metallic mercury is soluble in the following acids except

A. Hot H2SO4
B. HI
C. HCl
D. Cold HNO3
E. NOTA
100. A solution prepared from the complex compound produced when mercuric iodide reacts with
potassium iodide is known as:
A. Benedict’s reagent
B. Valser’s reagent
C. Bordeaux mixture
D. Nessler’s reagent
E. Fehling’s reagent
101. Native colloidal, hydrated silicate is also known as:

A. Kaolin
B. Talc
C. Bentonite
D. Silane
E. Siliceous earth
102. Burrow’s solution contains

A. Aluminum acetate
B. Lead subacteate
C. Magnesium hydroxide
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
103. Purple of Cassius consists of

A. Metallic gold
B. Colloidal gold
C. Tin chloride
D. Metallic tin
E. NOTA
104. A cofactor for phosphate transferring enzymes and also a constituent of bones and teeth
A. Magnesium
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. Copper
E. Zinc
105. Aluminum silicates that contain impurities of calcium, magnesium, iron oxides, fragments of
quartz etc. is known as ________
A. Bentonite
B. Montmorillonite
C. Kaolin
D. Attapulgite
E. Clay
106. The metal of Masynoeci is also more commonly known as

A. Wood’s alloy
B. Devarda’s alloy
C. Brass
D. Bronze
E. NOTA
107. This aluminum magnesium silicate, also known as floridin, is a low plasticity, clay-like material
which, when heated, exhibits an increase in its adsorptive properties.
A. Kaolin
B. Bentonite
C. Talc
D. Fuller’s earth
E. Pumice
108. The purest native form of uncombined carbon is

A. Coal
B. Charcoal
C. Diamond
D. Graphite
E. AOTA
109. What is formed when ozone dissolves and unites with the double bonds of substances such as
oil of turpentine, oil of cinnamon and olive oil?
A. Peroxides
B. Ozonides
C. Oxidized oils
D. Dehydrogenated oils
E. NOTA
110. The following are the known uses of sodium hypochlorite solution except:
A. Disinfectant
B. Antiseptic
C. Oxidizing agent
D. Bleaching agent
E. AOTA
111. Corrosive sublimate is:

A. Ammoniated mercury
B. Mercury bichloride
C. Mercurous chloride
D. Potassium hydroxide
E. NOTA
112. The only Group V cation that will yield a precipitate with sodium biphosphate
A. Li+
B. Na+
C. K+
D. NH4+
E. Mg2+
113. Water (as molecules) associated with cations and/or anions of salt in solution or in crystals.
A. Coordinated water
B. Zeolytic water
C. Lattice water
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
114. Rinman’s green is

A. Zinc acetate
B. Cobalt zincate
C. Copper acetoarsenate
D. Potassium ferrocyanide
E. NOTA
115. In testing for the presence of reducing sugars in a diabetic urine, 0.1% concentration of such
sugars will produce ______ with the Fehling’s solution.
A. Brick red precipitate
B. White precipitate
C. Colorless solution
D. Bluish-green solution
E. NOTA
116. Solution 2 of the Fehling’s reagent contains the:

A. Cupric sulfate
B. Reducing agent
C. Sequestering agent
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
117. Which of the following metals are placed higher than hydrogen in the electromotive series of
metals?
A. Barium
B. Strontium
C. Nickel
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
118. The oxidation state of oxygen in the peroxide ion is

A. 0
B. -1
C. -2
D. +2
E. NOTA
119. What is the color of the precipitate produced when mercuric salts are treated with sodium
hydroxide TS?
A. Yellow
B. Scarlet
C. White
D. Black
E. No precipitate
120. Complexes of iodine with carrier organic molecules serving as solubilizing agent to liberate
iodine in solution.
A. Iodates
B. Starch-iodoform
C. Iodophor
121. A procedure that employs gamma emitting isotopes and focused radiation directly on the area
under treatment
A. Teletherapy
B. Implantation therapy
C. Contact therapy
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
122. Why is it important to give a patient Lugol’s solution at least 24 hours before the administration
of radioactive iodine?
A. To saturate the thyroid gland with iodine
B. To prevent iodine depletion
C. To prevent the uptake of radioactivity
D. A and B
E. A and C
123. Vogel reaction is used to test for:

A. Nickel ions
B. Ferrous ions
C. Cobaltous ions
D. Ammonium ions
E. NOTA
124. Which is false from these statements?

A. Metallic properties of elements generally decrease in a given period as atomic number
increases
B. Ionization energy increases as the atomic number increases
C. Electronegativity of the elements increases from left to right across any period and from
bottom to top in any group (except VIIIA)
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
125. A useful diagnostic agent in determining renal function is:

A. Iodinated I 125 Serum Albumin
B. Sodium Iodohippurate I 131
C. Sodium Rose Bengal I 131
D. Ferric chloride Fe 59
E. NOTA
126. The quantitative Benedict’s solution contains all of the following except:
A. Cupric sulfate
B. Sodium citrate
C. Potassium thiocyanate
D. Potassium ferrocyanide
E. Sodium carbonate
127. In the Griess-Ilosvay test, diazotization of sulphanilic acid is affected by _____ acid, followed by
coupling with 1-naphthylamine reagent to form the red azo dye.
A. Sulphuric acid
B. Hypochlorous acid
C. Nitrous acid
D. Nitric acid
E. Glacial acetic acid
128. Which reagent may be used to differentiate mercurous salts from mercuric salts?
A. Sodium hydroxide TS
B. Copper foil
C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
129. Which of the following commercial preparations contain potassium iodide and is indicated for
goiter prophylaxis in iodine deficiency?
A. Eltroxin ®
B. Iodine ®
C. Jodid ®
D. Neo mercazole ®
E. Thyrax ®
130. These metals react vigorously with water to form hydrogen gas and metallic hydroxides
A. Alkali metals
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Coinage metals
D. Rare earth metals
E. AOTA
131. All of the members of the family of these metals form complex cations with ammonia
A. Alkali metals
B. Alkaline earth metals
C. Coinage metals
D. Rare earth metals
E. AOTA
132. All the other nitrates are soluble in the water except for ______ which is only sparingly soluble
in water.
A. Mercuric nitrite
B. Sodium nitrite
C. Ammonium nitrite
D. Silver nitrite
E. Mercurous nitrite
133. An entity providing a pair of electrons in a coordinate covalent bond is termed as

A. Acceptor species
B. Electron provider
C. Donor species
D. Acid
E. Base
134. This group of element hydroxides in aqueous solutions has the greatest alkalinity in nature with
alkalinity increasing as the ionic radius increases.
A. Group IA
B. Group IB
C. Group IIA
D. Group IIB
E. Group IIIA
135. All Group IA elements have increasing oxidation potentials except:

A. Cesium
B. Rubidium
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
E. Lithium
136. The following are the advantages of using Benedict’s solution over Fehling’s solution except:
A. Benedict’s solution is less alkaline than Fehling’s solution
B. The citrate solution in Benedict’s reagent is a better sequestering agent
C. Benedict’s solution is more stable than Fehling’s solution
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
137. Thenard’s blue is chemically known as:

A. Aluminum carbonate
B. Sodium cobaltnitarate
C. Cupric sulfate
D. Cobalt meta-aluminate
E. NOTA
138. This is also known as White Precipitate

A. Zinc sulfide
B. Ammoniated mercury
C. Calomel
D. Zinc oxide
E. Ammonium carbonate
139. All alkaline earth metals reduce water with the liberation of hydrogen and the formation of an
alkaline solution except:
A. Be
B. Ca
C. Sr
D. Ba
E. Ra
140. This group of elements have an additional ten electrons, giving it a “pseudo- inert gas” or an 18-
electron structure.
A. Group IA
B. Group IIA
C. Group IB
D. Group IIB
E. NOTA
141. Hydroxides of this group of elements tend to show amphoteric properties except those at the
top and the bottom elements of this group.
A. Group IA
B. Group IIA
C. Group IIIA
D. Group IVA
E. Group IVB
142. This group of elements predominantly exhibit covalent bonding, owing to the small size and
high charge on the tetravalent ions.
A. Group IA
B. Group IIA
C. Group IIIA
D. Group IVA
E. Group IVB
143. What is the relationship between the oxidation number and acidity of the oxyacids of a given
element in the case of the elements in Group VI?
A. Directly proportional
B. Inversely proportional
C. Acidity and oxidation number has no relation at all
D. NOTA
E. AOTA
144. The strongest acid among the members of the halogen family is
A. HF
B. HCl
C. HBr
D. HI
E. HNO3
145. An oxyacid of the halogen with the formula HOXO is appropriately named as
A. Hypohalous acid
B. Halous acid
C. Halic acid
D. Perhalic acid
E. NOTA
146. This group of elements are the most stable to any kind of chemical reaction.
A. Group IA
B. Group IB
C. Group VIIA
D. Group VIIIA
E. NOTA
147. If oxidizing impurities are rigidly excluded, all alkali metals in this group will dissolve in ammonia
to form a blue solution, which, if evaporated, will recover the uncharged metal eventually.
A. Group IA
B. Group IIA
C. Group IB
D. Group IIB
E. Group IIIA
148. According to this principle, hard acids are electron acceptors with high positive charges and
relatively small sizes while soft acids have low positive charges and relatively large sizes.
A. Lewis Acid and Base Principle
B. Bronsted-Lowry Principle
C. Arrhenius Principle
D. Pearson’s HSAB Principle
E. NOTA
149. Heating boric acid to temperature s over 160°C will produce

A. Metaboric acid
B. Pyroboric acid
C. Boron trioxide
D. Tetraboric acid
E. Sodium perborate
150. This group of elements are the first elements large enough to permit the addition of electrons to
the d orbital, beginning with the third principal quantum number.
A. Group IB
B. Group IIB
C. Group IIIB
D. Group IVB
E. Group VB
151. Nitric acid, NF 30 is an aqueous solution containing:

A. Not less than 36.5% and not more than 38% by weight of HNO3
B. Not less than 69% and not more than 71% by weight of HNO3
C. Not less than 85% and not more than 88% by weight of HNO3
D. Not less than 94% and not more than 98% by weight of HNO3
E. Not less than 27% and not more than 30% by weight of HNO3
152. This mixture is used for its ability to absorb CO2 from expired air in metabolic function test.
A. Slaked Lime D. AOTA
B. Soda Lime E. NOTA
C. Lime Water
153. Each element in this group has a core with an outer shell of 18 electrons, together with a single
valence electron in the outermost shell.
A. Group 1A D. Group IIB
B. Group IB E. Group IIIA
C. Group IIA
154. Sal soda or washing soda has the formula
A. NaHCO3
B. B. Na2CO3
C. C. Na2CO3. H2O
D. Na2CO3. 7 H2O
E. Na2CO3. 10 H2O
155. This buffer system is useful at alkaline pH and can be used in ophthalmic solutions, contact
lens solution and as solvent for soluble fluorescein.
A. Sorensen phosphate buffer
B. Atkins and Pantin buffer
C. Feldman’s buffer
D. Gifford’s buffer
E. NOTA
156. When combined with oxygen or in the form of their oxygen salts, the halogens have ___
valence/s.
A. one D. A and B
B. negative E. B and C
C. greater than one
157. Addition of Barium chloride solution to solutions containing nitrites will produce
A. Evolution of gas D. Transient pale blue solution
B. Brown precipitate E. No precipitate
C. White crystalline precipitate
158. An antioxidant usually found in solutions of drugs with phenol or catechol nucleus ex.
Epinephrine HCl to prevent oxidation of these compounds to quinines and similar substances.
A. Sulfur dioxide D. Nitrogen
B. Sodium hyposulfite E. Sodium nitrite
C. Sodium metabisulfite
159. This is used to provide an inert atmosphere to retard oxidation in cod liver oil, olive oil, and
multiple vitamin preparations.
A. Helium D. Carbon dioxide
B. Nitrogen E. NOTA
C. Hydrogen
160. Temporary hard water is caused by the presence in solution of calcium or magnesium ____.
A. sulfates D. chlorides
B. hydroxides E. NOTA
C. bicarbonate
161. Members of the “heavy platinum metals” include

A. Ruthenium D. Palladium
B. Iridium E. NOTA
C. Rhodium
162. Faulty calcium metabolism defined as a reduced volume of bone tissue per unit volume of
anatomical bone and commonly affects postmenopausal women is known as:
A. Osteoporosis D. Hypocalcemia
B. Rickets E. NOTA
C. Paget’s disease
163. Organic mercurial salts were previously used as diuretics and are all administered parenterally
except:
A. Meralluride D. Chlormerodrin
B. Sodium mercaptomerin E. NOTA
C. Calomel
164. This element can replace calcium in bone formation and has been used to hasten bone
remineralization in diseases such as osteoporosis.
A. Strontium D. Magnesium
B. Barium E. Tantalum
C. Beryllium
165. Betadine® antiseptic topical solution contains ____ % of iodine.

A. 0.5-1% D.10%
B. 5% E. NOTA
C. 7.5%
166. This compound has been used in the treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis and Monilia albicans.
However, extended use of this product may result to argyria and nephritis.
A. Silver nitrate D. Silver lactate
B. Silver nitrite E. Silver protein
C. Silver trinitrophenolate
167. This sodium salt does not produce systemic alkalosis readily and is antiketogenic. As such, it is
thought to be more suitable as an electrolyte replenisher.
A. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium tatrate
B. Sodium lactate E. Sodium citrate
C. Sodium gluconate
168. In the reaction: KMNO4 + 5 HNO2 + 3 H2SO4 3 MnSO4 + 5 HNO3 + K2SO4, the
reducing agent is:
A. KMnO4 D. H2O
B.HNO2 E. NOTA
C. H2SO4
169. Addition of ferric salts to solutions of thiocyanates causes the formation of a blood-red colored
solution, which has been variously ascribed to the formation of:
A. Fe (SCN) 3 D.AOTA
B. Fe (SCN) 6 E. NOTA
C. Fe (SCN) ++
170. KNaC4H4O6. 4 H2O is also known by the following names except:

A. Potassium Sodium tartrate D. Rochelle salt
B. Sal seignette E. NOTA
C. Seidlitz powder
171. Fresh silver stains on skin may be best removed by painting the affected area with
A. Tincture of iodine
B. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Sodium picrate
D. Potassium cyanide
E. NOTA
172. Citric acid is added to Milk of Magnesia to

A. prevent oxidation D. A and B
B. enhance palatability E. B and C
C. minimize alkalinity
173. This substance gives calamine its pink color.

A. Zinc oxide D. Ferric oxide
B. Ferrous oxide E. NOTA
C. Zinc carbonate
174. Flash-light powders are mixtures of potassium chlorate or barium peroxide and the powdered
form of this element
A. Calcium D. Sulfur
B. Aluminum E. Phosphorus
C. Magnesium
175. NaF may be stored

A. in dark, glass bottles D. AOTA
B. for one year E.NOTA
C. in cool temperatures
176. The explosive form of antimony is the

A. Metallic form D. Yellow antimony
B. Amorphous form E. Black antimony
C. Crystalline form
177. Salt of wormwood is

A. KHCO3 . 4 H2O D. K2HPO4
B. K2CO3 . ½ H2O E. NOTA
C. CH3COOK
178. In the compound sodium manganite, NaMnO3, manganese exhibits a valence of

A. 2 D. 6
B. 3 E. 7
C. 4
179. The following elements exhibit amphoteric property except

A. Aluminum D. Lead
B. Tin E. NOTA
C. Zinc
180. Fool’s gold is

A. Gold sodium thiomalate D. Ferrous carbonate with shale
B. Auric selenate E. NOTA
C. Iron pyrite
181. In a weakly acidic medium, the reaction between this metal and stannous chloride will produce
a purple precipitate commonly known as Purple of Cassius
A. Tin D. Gold
B. Silver E. Lead
C. Mercury
182. The most desirable form of talc for cosmetics and pharmaceuticals
A. amorphous D. steatite
B. foliated E. granular
C. fibrous
183. Quilonium-R® is also

A. Lithium bromide D. Lithium bicarbonate
B. Lithium chloride E. Lithium hydroxide
C. Lithium carbonate
184. The iron salt in this commercial preparation has the advantage of being the least irritating to the
GI tract.
A. Feosol® D. Cherifer® capsule
B. Hemobion® E. NOTA
C. Revicon Max®
185. A native form of calcium carbonate that has been freed from most of its impurities through
elutriation.
A. Drop chalk D. Lime
B. Precipitated chalk E. NOTA

C. Muriate of Lime
186. A property of some substances to lose water molecules from a crystalline structure.
A. Dehydration D. Efflorescence
B. Hygroscopic property E. NOTA
C. Deliquescence
187. This aluminum magnesium silicate, also known as Floridin, is a low plasticity clay-like material
with high water content. It finds its use in the decolorization of oils.
A. Kaolin D. Pumice
B. Bentonite E. NOTA
C. Fuller’s Earth
188. This compound is said to be the recommended calcium salt as electrolyte replenisher because
it provides an optimum ratio of 1:1 calcium to phosphorus.
A. Calcium lactate D. Tribasic calcium phosphate
B. Calcium carbonate E. NOTA
C. Dibasic calcium phosphate
189. Vleminckx’s solution, a mixture prepared by boiling lime and sublime sulfur, is used as
A. cathartic D. emetic
B. scabicide E. irritant
C. antifungal
190. Fowler’s solution

A. Dilute sodium hypochlorite D. Bromine, tenth-normal solution
B. Copper Acetoarsenate solution E. NOTA
C. Potassium arsenite solution
191. Nordhausen acid also refers to

A. Diluted hypochloric acid D. Fuming sulfuric acid
B. Phosphoric acid E. Muriatic acid
C. Concentrated nitric acid
192. Precipitation of copper salts can be prevented by sequestering agents found in

A. Fehling’s reagent D. AOTA
B. Benedict’s reagent E. NOTA
C. Haine’s reagent
193. Reduced iron is an odorless, grayish black and very fine powder, which should pass through
sieve
A. No. 20 D. No. 80
B. No. 40 E. No. 100
C. No. 60
194. The least abundant of all inert gases

A. Krypton D. Argon
B. Xenon E. Neon
C. Radon
195. What is the difference between Iodine Tincture and Iodine solution?
A. the concentration of iodine present D. AOTA
B. the comparative antiseptic efficiency E. NOTA
C. the solvent medium used
196. Acalka® is also

A. Sodium chloride D. Magnesium sulfate
B. Calcium carbonate E. Zinc oxide
C. Potassium citrate
197. The impurity, which is found more frequently in talc, is

A. Zinc oxide D. Magnesium oxide
B. Calcium oxide E. Ferrous oxide
C. Silica
198. Nessler’s reagent, an alkaline solution of Potassium tetraiodomercurate (II), is used to detect
A. Arsenic D. Aluminum
B. Ammonia E. Mercury
C. Zinc
199. The only single acid to dissolve gold

A. Nitric acid D. A and B
B. Hydrochloric acid E. B and C
C. Selenic acid
200. 750 mg of Kalium Durules contain an equivalent of ____ mEq of potassium chloride
A. 2.9 D. 9.8
B. 3.8 E. 12.2
C. 6.5
201. This cation does not react with HCl but forms precipitates with H2S in dilute mineral acid
medium.
A. Arsenic (III) D. Pb
B. Fe (II) E. Li
C. Ca
202. Which among these hydroxides are the most soluble?

A. Strontium chloride D. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Barium hydroxide E. NOTA
C. Calcium hydroxide
203. The group reagent for Group I cation

A. Dilute HCl
B. H2S in dilute mineral acid medium
C. Ammonium sulfide in neutral or Ammoniacal solution
D. Ammonium carbonate in ammonium chloride in neutral or slightly acidic media
E. NOTA
204. A strong, caustic substance also known as burnt lime

A. Calcium carbonate D. Calcium chloride
B. Calcium hydroxide E. Calcium sulfite
C. Calcium oxide
205. The compound commonly known as Plaster of Paris

A. Magnesium sulfate heptahydrate D. Aluminum chloride
B. Dried Calcium sulfate E. Chlorinated Lime
C. Sodium phosphate
206. Butter of Zinc

A. Zinc carbonate D. Zinc lactate
B. Zinc chloride E. NOTA
C. Zinc oxide
207. Tromdorff’s starch is used for detecting

A. nitrites D. A and B
B. free chlorides E. B and C
C. iodides
208. What acid can be used to purify talc?

A. Hydrochloric acid D. AOTA
B. Sulfuric acid E. NOTA
C. Nitric acid
209. Philosopher’s wool is also

A. Mercuric chloride D. Magnesium carbonate
B. Lithium carbonate E. Sodium phosphate
C. Zinc oxide
210. Which among the halogen is the most polarizable?

A. Iodine D. Fluorine
B. Bromine E. NOTA
C. Chlorine
211. Which reagent is more sensitive in the detection of sodium ions?

A. Uranyl magnesium acetate solution D. Tartaric acid

B. Uranyl zinc acetate solution E. NOTA
C. Chloroplatinic acid
212. Which reagent can be used to precipitate potassium salt but not sodium?
A. Sodium hexanitrocobaltate (III) D. AOTA
B. Tartaric acid solution E. NOTA
C. Chloroplatinic acid
213. Fenton’s test is a test for

A. chromates D. chlorides
B. tartrates E. iodides
C. sulfates
214. The only silver halide, which shows appreciable solubility in water
A. Silver chloride D. Silver fluoride
B. Silver bromide E. NOTA
C. Silver iodide
215. Helium is usually supplied in cylinders, which are colored ____

A. green D. grey
B.black E.blue
C. brown
216. Nitrous oxide is usually supplied in cylinders, which are colored ____
A. green D. grey
B.black E.blue
C. brown
217. This gas is lighter than air and causes the pitch of sounds uttered by the vocal cords to be
increased, producing unintelligible speech with a “Donald Duck” sound
A. Oxygen D. Nitrogen
B. Carbon dioxide E. Nitrous oxide
C. Helium
218. Which of the following statements is false regarding activated charcoal?

A. Activated charcoal is administered in a charcoal to poison ratio of 5:1 to 10:1
B. Higher doses of activated charcoal are necessary if the patient ate before the poisoning
occurred
C. Charcoal tablets may substitute the powdered form as it is as effective
D. Repeated administration of activated charcoal after an adequate initial dose of the antidote
appears to exert no additional inhibition of absorption of the poison
E. NOTA
219. An effective precipitant for both topical and gastric exposure to phosphorus is
A. Cupric sulfate D. Calcium gluconate
B. Sodium phosphate E. NOTA

C. Magnesium sulfate
220. Dry ice is the frozen form of

A. Hydrogen D. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen E. NOTA
C. Nitrogen
221. Preston’s salt is

A. Magnesium sulfate D. Cobaltous chloride
B. Calcium chloride E. Calcium carbonate
C. Ammonium carbonate
222. This precipitation can hasten absorption in the stomach, increase acid gastric juice secretion
and act as carminative. It is prepared by charging carbon dioxide in water at a pressure of 3-4
atmospheres.
A. Lime water D. Dilute hydrochloric acid
B. Soda water E. NOTA
C. Dakin’s solution
223. Pale yellow precipitate obtained after the reaction with silver nitrate solution
B. Silver iodide E. NOTA
C. Silver bromide
224. The only sodium halide, which has the least solubility in water
B. Silver bromide E. NOTA
C. Silver iodide
225. Howe’s solution is a solution of

A. Sodium hypochlorite D. Ammonium chloride
B. Cupric sulfate E. NOTA
C. Ammoniacal silver nitrate
226. Silver chloride is insoluble in

A. Dilute acids D. AOTA
B. Ammonium hydroxide E. NOTA
C. Sodium thiosulfate
227. This compound has been used in the treatment of Trichomonas vaginalis and Monilia albicans
infections in concentration from 1-2%
A. Mild silver protein D. Colloidal silver iodide
B. Strong silver protein E. Silver picrate
C. Colloidal silver chloride
228. Glauber’s salt

A. Sodium hydroxide D. Sodium sulfate
B. Magnesium sulfate E. NOTA
229. Yellow precipitate is used

A. Ophthalmic antiseptic D. Expectorant
B. Emetic E. NOTA
C. Scabicide
230. White precipitate is used as

A. Local anti- infective D. AOTA
B. Dusting powder E. NOTA
C. Topical anti-parasitic
231. Phosphorus allotrope occurring as a microcrystalline, non-poisonous powder, which is insoluble

in all solvents
A. White phosphorus D. Violet phosphorus
B. Red phosphorus E. Black phosphorus
C. Scarlet phosphorus
232. Fine, yellow, crystalline form of sulfur with a faint odor and taste
A. Amorphous sulfur D. Plastic sulfur
B. Precipitated sulfur E. NOTA
C. Sublimed sulfur
233. Also known as Iac sulfur

C. Sublime sulfur
234. Also known as Flowers of Sulfur

C. Sublime sulfur
235. Solder is an alloy of

A. Antimony D. Copper
B. Lead E. Zinc
C. Bismuth
236. Which of the following statements in Dalton’s Atomic Theory are valid in the light of researches
that are more recent in atomic structure?
A. All elements consist of minute discrete particles called atom
B. Atoms of a given element are alike and have the same mass.
C. Atoms cannot be subdivided nor those of one element changed into another
D. Atoms cannot be created nor destroyed

E. NOTA
237. An essential trace element which seemed to improve or normalize impaired glucose tolerance
of some diabetics, elderly and malnourished children.
A. Zinc D. Chromium
B. Manganese E. Copper
C. Iron
238. Iron Dextran must be administered via this route only

A. subcutaneous D. oral
B. intravenous E. topical
C. intramuscular
239. Iron interferes with the absorption of tetracycline through the mechanism of
A. Oxidation D. Chelation
B. Reduction E. NOTA
C. Neutralization
240. Parakeratosi is associated with a deficiency of

A. Calcium D. Iodine
B. Iron E. NOTA
C. Zinc
241. This trace element has been implicated in cellular respiration and as an antioxidant in
conjunction with Vitamin E
A. Manganese D. Sulfur
B. Selenium E. Iron
C. Molybdenum
242. How many mEq /L of sodium do the human plasma contains?

A. 4 D. 154
B. 5 E. 142
C. 3
243. How many mEq /L of potassium do the human plasma contains?

A. 4 D. 154
B. 5 E. 142
C. 3
244. The best food source of Copper

A. meat D. AOTA
B. egg yolk E. NOTA
C. whole grains
245. This trace element best found in legumes and whole grains, competes with calcium for
transport
A. Magnesium D. Zinc
B. Iron E. Copper
C. Iodine
246. A deficiency of this trace element results to hypochromic anemia and excessive hepatic storage
in Wilson’s disease
A. Magnesium D. Zinc
B. Iron E. Copper
C. Iodine
247. This trace element is a constituent of Factor 3, acts with Vitamin E to prevent liver necrosis and
muscular dystrophy in animals and inhibits lipid peroxidation
A. Cobalt D. Selenium
B. Manganese E. Chromium
C. Molybdenum
248. This trace element is a constituent of Vitamin B12

A. Cobalt D. Selenium
B. Manganese E. Chromium
C. Molybdenum
249. A deficiency of this inorganic ion results to cystinuria and cysteine renal calculi
A. Cobalt D. Magnesium
B. Sulfur E. Fluoride
C. Selenium
250. This trace element is poorly absorbed and needs to be aided by Vitamin D
A. Sodium D. Iron
B. Potassium E. Magnesium
C. Calcium
251. Deficiency of this inorganic ion results to osteomalacia and renal rickets
A. Calcium D. Chloride
B. Phosphorus E. NOTA
C. Sodium
252. This is added to whole blood to complex blood calcium and prevent clot formation in a collected
blood
A. EDTA D. Warfarin
B. Citrate E. NOTA
C. Heparin
253. Hypocalcemia can be caused by

A. hypoparathyroidism D. NOTA
B. Vitamin D deficiency E. AOTA
C. Steatorrhea
254. The fourth most abundant cation in the human body is

A. Magnesium D. Manganese
B. Iron E. Cobalt
C. Calcium
255. This cation exerts a powerful general anesthetic action similar to that produced by chloroform
when injected intramuscularly or intravenously
A. Magnesium D. Manganese
B. Iron E. Cobalt
C. Calcium
256. How many mEq /L of chlorine do Ringer’s Injection contains?

A. 147 D. 155.5
B. 4 E. NOTA
C. 4.5
257. This compound is used in the treatment of chronic acidosis to restore bicarbonate reserve and
also exerts a diuretic effect
A. Sodium bicarbonate D. Sodium biphosphate
B. Potassium bicarbonate E. NOTA
C. Sodium citrate
258. Salmiac refers to

A. Sodium lactate D. Sodium acetate
B. Potassium citrate E. NOTA
C. Ammonium chloride
259. The zone in the non-luminous Bunsen flame used for testing volatile substances on whether
they impact any color to the flame
A. upper reducing zone D. lower temperature zone
B. upper oxidizing zone E. NOTA
C. hottest portion of the flame
260. The fusion zone in the non-luminous Bunsen flame is also the
261. A large excess of oxygen is present in this zone of the non-luminous Bunsen flame
262. Salts containing the cation calcium will form a precipitate with
A. Dilute HCl
E. NOTA
263. This cation belong to the sub group IIA in the classification of cations except
A. Mercury (II) D. Copper
B. Tin (II) E. Cadmium
C .Bismuth
264. Salts containing the cation chromium (III) will form a precipitate with
A. Dilute HCl
B. B. H2S in dilute mineral acid medium
E. NOTA
265. Which zone in the Bunsen flame should you heat the thin platinum wire after cleaning it by
dipping into concentrated HCl?
266. Which zone in the Bunsen flame should one introduce the substance being investigated to
observe the color that imparts to the flame?
A. upper reducing zone D. lower oxidizing zone
267. Group reagent of Group IV cations

A. Dilute HCl
E. NOTA
268. Strontium imparts this color to the flame when viewed through cobalt glass
A. Crimson D. Light green
B. Purple E. Nil
C. Yellowish green
269. Which of these subatomic particles have the smallest mass?

A. electron D. AOTA
B. proton E. NOTA
C. neutron
270. Chemical activity, in general, increase for the elements listed in the Periodic Table in
descending order except for the _______ elements
A. Group IA D. Group IIB
B. Group IB E. Noble gases
C. Group IIA
271. Borax (Na2B4O7 .10 H2O) is also known as

A. Sodium borate D. Sodium pyroborate
B. Sodium tetraborate E. AOTA
C. Sodium biborate
272. The following are bulk-increasing laxative except

A. Castor oil D. Liquid petrolatum
B. Cellulose E. NOTA
C. Saline cathartics
C. Iron
273. The following are irritant laxative except

A. sulfur D. vegetable acids
B. Anthraquinones Cathartics E. NOTA
C. Mercurial purgatives
274. Other names of Potassium carbonate are the following except for one
A. potash D. Salt of Wormwood
B. Pearl ash E. NOTA
C. Cream of Tartar
275. Caution is highly exercised in handling potassium chlorate as great explosions may occur when
it is triturated with
A. Tannic acid D. charcoal
B. Sulfides E. AOTA
C. Reduced iron
276. This toxic potassium salt, which is excreted slowly by the kidney, may cause lysis of red blood
cells, which in turn, irritates the kidney and produces a marked interstitial nephritis. It can also cause
some conversion of hemoglobin to met hemoglobin
A. Potassium carbonate D. Potassium hydroxide
B. Potassium chlorate E. NOTA
C. Potassium chloride
277. If cuprous oxide is colored red, cupric oxide is colored

A. blue D. green
B. colorless E. NOTA
C. black
278. Which of the following elements occur highest in the electromotive series of metals?
A. Aluminum D. Bismuth
B. Calcium E. Hydrogen
C. Iron
279. Which of the following elements occur lowest in the electromotive series of metals?
A. Copper
B. Strontium
C. Iron
D.Tin
E.Lead
280. Which of the following metals will react with acids to produce hydrogen?
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Silver
D. Mercury
E. Nota
281. Potassium alum is an example of a

A. normal salt D. double salt
B. Hydrogen salt E. hydroxy salt
C. mixed salt
282. KCaPO4 is an example of a

A. normal salt D. double salt
B. Hydrogen salt E. hydroxy salt
C. mixed salt
283. An acetate salt, which is only sparingly soluble in water

A. Calcium acetate D. Sodium acetate
B. Mercurous acetate E. Potassium acetate
C. Lead acetate
284. White precipitate

A. ZnO D. HgNH2Cl
B. HgCl2 E. NOTA
C. ZnSO4
285. Yellow mercuric oxide turns red in the presence of

A. air D. A and B
B. heat E. B and C
C. light
286. Corrosive sublimate

A. 4 Bi (OH)2HNO2. BiO (OH) D. magnesium
B. HgCl2 E. NOTA
C. Zinc
287. Copper is associated to promote better assimilation of

A. Iron D. Magnesium
B. Calcium E. NOTA
C. Zinc
288. First prepared by Egyptians by subliming the ashes resulting from the slow burning of camel’s
dung
A. Ammonium hydroxide D. Ammonium bromide
B. Ammonium chloride E. NOTA
289. Argol is composed of

A. Potassium bitartrate
B. Calcium tartrate
C. Cream of Tartar
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
290. Eau Forte

A. water D. nitric acid
B. alcohol E. hydrochloric acid
C. sulfuric acid
291. The following acids have oxidizing properties except

A. Sulfuric acid D. AOTA
B. Phosphoric acid E. NOTA
C. Nitric acid
292. Which of the following anions will have a positive result to Fenton’s test?
A. tartrates D. succinates
B. citrates E. AOTA
C. malates
293. The color of the precipitate produced when Barium chloride solution reacts with solutions of
chromates
A. white D. brownish red
B. black E. no precipitate
C.pale yellow
294. Borate salts may be derived from

A. H3BO3 D. AOTA
B. H2B4O7 E. NOTA
C. HBO2
295. The precipitate produced in the reaction of magnesium salts with Sodium hydroxide will readily
dissolve in
A. excess reagent D. ammonia
B. water E. NOTA
C. Alcohol
296. Continuous washing is employed in the reaction between Magnesium sulfate and Sodium
hydroxide to prepare Milk of Magnesia
A. dissolved the unreacted magnesium sulfate D. AOTA
B. dissolve the unreacted sodium hydroxide E.NOTA
C. removes the byproduct sodium sulfate
297. Chile saltpeter is

A. KNO3 D. NaNO3
B. KNO2 E. NOTA
C. NaNO3
298. Niter is
A. KNO3 D. NaNO3
B. KNO2 E. NOTA
C. NaNO3
299. Which of the following cations is expected to react with hydrochloric acid?
A.Magnesium D. Ammonium
B. Sodium E. NOTA
C. Potassium
300. The purest native form of uncombined carbon

A. charcoal D. coal
B. graphite E. NOTA
C. diamond

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Pharmaceutical Organic Chemistry

a. As the bond polarity increase, the bond length decreases

a. As the s character increases, the bond length increases

4. What is the name of the following structure?

5. What is the name of the following structure?

6. What is the name of the following structure: CH3CH2CH2-C=CH

a. Primary alcohols are oxidized to ketones

a. Branching decreases water solubility

I. A carboxylic acid group

24. For questions 24-26, refer to the drug molecule :

The drug molecule is soluble in

a. Hydrolysis of the ester

a. IV, III, II, I

a. Imatinib: tyrosine kinase

a. Both statements are correct

35. The following factors must be considered in designing an agonist:

a. The drug must have the correct binding groups.

37. Which of the following drug-enzyme pairs is/are correctly matched?

I. Only the (-) isomer of ascorbic acid has antiscorbutic activity\

I. Phase I reactions include oxidation, hydroxylation, reduction and hydrolysis-enzymatic

I. Aniline is converted to p-Aminophenol by aromatic hydroxylation

a. Decreased pharmacologic activity-deactivation

I. Glucoronic acid conjugation: uridine phosphate glucoronic acid (UDP-GA)

I. Acetylation at the N4 amino group

56. A sulphonamide used in combination with pyrimethamine in the treatment of Malaria.

a. The free carboxylic acid

a. resistant to acid hydrolysis

61. What is the effect of steric shields to the penicillin structure?

a. It will make the drug stable in acidic conditions.

a. Cephalosporins contain a bicyclic system containing a 4-membered B-lactam ring.

a. Absence of sulphur atom in the bicyclic ring system

a. Sulbactam + Piperacillin = Zosyn

72. A glycopeptide antibiotic isolated from Streptomyces orientalis.

73. A glycopeptide antibiotic isolated from Actinomyces teichomyceticus

82. Quinupristin and Dalfupristin are streptogramins isolated from

101. Which substituent of chloramphenicol is responsibe for its toxic effect?

a. The nitro group

102. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Erythromycin?

I. Erythromycin binds to the 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes

I. Amantadine is an adamantine related to rimantadine.

For nos. 104-107, please refer to the structures below:

108. A semi-synthetic analogue of camptothecin given intravenously and is a prodrug used in

119. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

I. Glucocorticoids: Megestrol acetate

a. Antibody-directed enzyme prodrug therapy (ADEPT)

a. Antibody-directed enzyme prodrug therapy (ADEPT)

a. Antibody-directed enzyme prodrug therapy (ADEPT)

a. Antibody-directed enzyme prodrug therapy (ADEPT)

126. Which of the following statements is true regarding acetylcholine?

For nos. 127-129, refer to the structure of acetylcholine below;

a. The quaternary nitrogen

128. Which part of the acetylcholine structure is essential for activity?

a. The quaternary nitrogen

130. Which of the following statements is true regarding acetylcholine analogues?

For nos. 131-132, refer to the structures below:

a. The alkyl group on nitrogen can be larger than methyl

134. Physostigmine is a carbamate inhibitor of the enzyme

For nos. 135-141, refer to the general structure below:

a. The 2 phenolic groups

a. The 2 phenolic groups