2019 BIO 2019 Past Biology Trial Papers Pack

2019 Trial HSC Paper
Disclaimer: This paper is written as a trial HSC paper.

It is designed to provide practice consistent with the
demands of the current HSC course and its
examination. However, we do not guarantee it
predicts question content for the actual HSC
examination.
HIGHER
2019 SCHOOL
CERTIFICATE
TRIAL EXAMINATION
Biology
General • Reading time – 5 minutes
Instructions • Working time – 3 hours
• Write using black pen
• Draw diagrams using pencil
• NESA approved calculators may be used
• Write your Student ID at the bottom of this page and at the
top of page 9

Total marks: Section I — 20 marks (pages 2-8)
100 • Attempt Questions 1–20
• Allow about 35 minutes for this section

Section II — 80 marks (pages 9-22 )
• Attempt Questions 21–32
• Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for this section

Student ID: __________________________________
THIS PAPER CANNOT BE RELEASED IN PUBLIC UNTIL AFTER 30th AUGUST 2019
This paper is used with the understanding that it has a Security Period. ©Total Education Centre

Biology HSC Trial 2019
Section I
20 marks
Part A – 20 marks
Attempt Questions 1–20
Allow about 35 minutes for this part
Use the multiple-choice answer sheet for Questions 1–20.
1 Which organisms reproduce via binary fission?
A. Fungi
B. Plants
C. Animals
D. Bacteria
2 What type of mutagen is ultraviolet radiation?
A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Biological
D. Naturally occurring
3 Identify the cellular component of your adaptive immunity that remains in the body to
respond to future infections.
A. Helper T cell
B. Memory T cell
C. Cytotoxic T cell
D. Suppressor T cell
4 A cross between a white rose and a red rose produces offspring that all have pink
flowers.
Which of the following would best describe the pattern of inheritance?
A. Sex-linkage
B. Co-dominance
C. Multiple alleles
D. Incomplete dominance
© Total Education Centre 2019 –2–

5 What is the best description of a mutation occurring in the reproductive tissues of an

organism and passed onto half its offspring?
A. Somatic
B. Genetic
C. Germ-line
D. Environmental
6 Sneezing without covering your mouth can cause those around you to become ill.
What mode of transmission is this?
A. Reservoirs
B. Direct contact
C. Indirect contact
D. Vector transmission
7 Identify the effector in the negative feedback loop below.
Hand touches hotplate
Thermoreceptor
Central Nervous
System
Arm muscle contracts
Hand moves off

hotplate
A. Hand
B. Arm muscle
C. Thermoreceptor
D. Central nervous system

8 Scurvy is a disease caused by lack of Vitamin C and can be prevented by eating fresh
fruits and vegetables.
How can this disease be classed?
A. Genetic
B. Cancer
C. Nutritional
D. Environmental exposure
9 Hydrangeas are blue in acidic soils and pink in alkaline soils.
What is this an example of?
A. Environment affecting phenotypic expression

B. Environment affecting genotypic expression
C. Genes affecting phenotypic expression
D. Genes affecting genotypic expression
10 Which of the following could be considered an ancient form of biotechnology?
A. Gene splicing
B. DNA amplification
C. Selective breeding
D. Recombining DNA
11 What is a disadvantage of genetic technologies?
A. Pest-resistant crops
B. Decreased biodiversity
C. Insulin production for diabetics
D. Crops with increased nutritional value

12 Which of the following is best practice by doctors when prescribing medicine to

patients?
A. Tell patient to only take half the course of antibiotics

B. Prescribe both antivirals and antibiotics for viral infection
C. Prescribe a narrow spectrum antibiotic specific to pathogen
D. Prescribe a drug used to inhibit bacterial growth rather than kill
13 In pea plants a tall allele (T) is dominant over a short allele (t).
Which punnet square depicts a 1:1 ratio of tall plants to short plants?
X T T
A. t Tt Tt
t Tt Tt
X T t
B. t Tt tt
t Tt tt
X T t
C. T TT Tt
t Tt tt
X T T
D. T TT TT
t Tt Tt

14 A gene from a tomato is inserted into a salmon to make its flesh a brighter red colour.
What is this an example of?
A. Cloning
B. Transgenics
C. In vitro fertilisation
D. Artificial insemination
15 Which shows an appropriate classification of pathogens?
Cellular (living) Non-cellular (non-living)
A. Prokaryotes, protozoans,
Virus
fungi, prions
B. Prokaryotes, fungi, Virus, protozoans, prions
C. Prions, protozoans, fungi, Virus, prokaryotes
D. Protozoans, fungi,
Virus, prions
prokaryotes
16 Which is a component of the adaptive immune system?
A. Skin
B. B cell
C. Macrophage
D. Inflammation

17 A patient is experiencing hearing loss in the left ear. She can hear sound, but not very
well.
Which of the following technologies could assist with the patient’s hearing loss?
A. Hearing aid
B. Laser surgery
C. Cochlear implant
D. Bone conduction implant
18 Observe the following diagram.
Identify where genetic variation can occur.
A. A and B
B. B and C
C. A and C
D. A, B and C

19 Use the graph for Question 19.
Membrane potential (mV)

0
X
Y
Z
Times (ms)
At what point is the action potential on the graph?
A. X
B. Y
C. Z
D. 0
20 An alpine species of rodent was discovered in the Himalayan Mountains.
Which of the following most likely describes its appearance?
A. Rounded body, thick hair and short limbs

B. Thin body, short hair and long limbs
C. Rounded body, short fur and large ears
D. Thin body, thick fur and webbed feet

Student ID:
HIGHER SCHOOL CERTIFICATE
2019 TRIAL EXAMINATION
Biology
Section II
Answer Booklet

80 marks
Allow about 2 hours 25 minutes for this section

Instructions • Answer the questions in the spaces provided. These spaces
provide guidance for the expected length of response.

• Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.

• Extra writing space is provided at the back of this booklet.
If you use this space, clearly indicate which question you are
answering.

Please turn over

Question 21 (8 marks)
The ‘blueprint’ of all life on Earth is contained within deoxyribose nucleic acid (DNA). In
1953 James Watson and Frances Crick constructed a model of DNA’s molecular
structure.
(a) Draw a diagram to show DNA structure including base paring, bonding and the 4
composition of a nucleotide.
(b) Outline the major steps involved in DNA replication. 4
© Total Education Centre 2019 – 10 –

Describe the response of an Australian plant to a named pathogen. 4
In the hot Australian climate kangaroos have to be able to cool down in the middle of the
day. They can often be seen lying in the shade and licking their forearms.
(a) What type of adaptation are these kangaroos exhibiting? 1
(b) Construct a negative feedback loop to show how an endotherm uses a physiological 4
adaptation to maintain homeostasis in increasing temperature.

(a) Differentiate between mutation and mutagen. 2
(b) Describe how a named mutagen can cause genetic change. 3
(c) Other than mutation, explain how gene flow and genetic drift contribute to genetic 4
variation within a population.

Two species of endangered orchid, Orchidus viotletus and Orchidus aquas are at risk of
being completely eliminated due to housing development.
Data was collected examining the gene for flower colour in Orchidus aquas. The blue
flower allele is dominant to a white flower allele. The number of each genotype in the
population of 24 individuals is shown below:
Genotype Number of individuals

BB 16
Bb 5
bb 3
(a) Construct a punnet square to show a cross between heterozygotes. 2
(b) Use the information above to calculate allele frequency in the Orchidus aquas 3
population. Show all your working.
(c) How could population genetics assist in the conservation management of the two 2
endangered orchid species?

The following graph shows hormone changes that occur across the menstrual cycle.
(a) Mark on the graph when ovulation occurs. 1
(b) Describe the role different hormones play in various stages of mammalian 4
pregnancy. Include reference to two hormones shown in the graph above.

Discuss the effect on biodiversity of using biotechnology in agriculture. 5

Ebola is a highly contagious virus which can cause rapid death. It is transmitted through
human to human contact/exchange of bodily fluids.
The diagram shows the spread of the Ebola epidemic in West Africa in 2014.
(a) Identify possible procedures that could be employed by countries surrounding 1

Guinea to prevent the spread of Ebola.
(b) Assess the effectiveness of Côte d’Ivoire’s quarantine program during this 3
epidemic, using the map to support your answer.
Question 28 continues on page 17

Question 28 (continued)
(c) Outline ONE other successful quarantine program you studied. 3
End of Question 28

Artificial Insemination and Artificial Pollination are two methods of reproductive

technology.
Complete the table to describe and compare the processes and outcomes of artificial
insemination and pollination.
Reproductive Technology Description and Comparison

Artificial Insemination Artificial Pollination
Process
Positive
Outcomes
Negative
Outcomes

(a) Name a visual disorder and describe its impact on normal function. 2
(b) Evaluate the effectiveness of a technology used in assisting people who experience 7
disorders. Use examples to support your answer.

The map shows the prevalence of nutritional diseases across the world in 2009.
https://commons.wikimedia.org
(a) Define nutritional disease and give an example. 2
(b) Analyse the pattern of nutritional diseases across the globe. Refer to the map in your 4
answer.

During Queen Victoria’s reign in the 1800s there was an epidemic of cholera in London. 9
John Snow, a local doctor used the first epidemiolocal methods to identify a water pump
on Broad St as the source of the contagion.
Design an investigation that could test the water from the pump for microbes.
Question 32 continued on page 21


Section II extra writing space
If you use this space, clearly indicate which question you are answering.


STUDENT ID _____________________
2019 Biology Trial HSC Examination

Section I Answer Sheet
20 marks
Allow about 35 minutes for this section
Select the alternative A, B, C, or D that best answers the question. Fill in the response circle
completely.
1 A B C D
2 A B C D
3 A B C D
4 A B C D
5 A B C D
6 A B C D
7 A B C D
8 A B C D
9 A B C D
10 A B C D
11 A B C D
12 A B C D
13 A B C D
14 A B C D
15 A B C D
16 A B C D
17 A B C D
18 A B C D
19 A B C D
20 A B C D
Biology HSC Trial © Total Education Centre 2019

2019 HSC Trial Biology

Marking Guidelines

Section I

Multiple-choice Answer Key

Question Answer
1 D
2 A
3 B
4 D
5 C
6 C
7 B
8 C
9 A
10 C
11 B
12 C
13 B
14 B
15 D
16 B
17 A
18 B
19 A
20 A

© Total Education Centre 2019 – 1 – 2019 Biology HSC Trial

Section II

(a) 4 marks
Criteria Marks
• Shows clear and labelled diagram
• Shows base pairing and bonding correctly 4
• Identifies nucleotide
• Shows labelled diagram
3
• Shows generally correct base pairing, bonding and nucleotide
• Shows some understanding of DNA structure 2
• Provides some relevant information 1

Sample answer

Sample answer
1. Double helix unwinds
2. Enzyme helicase unzips and separates double strand.
3. Nucleotide are built against each single strand.
4. Replication errors are identified by DNA polymerase and corrected.
5. Newly replicated DNA re-winds to double helix.

(b) 4 marks
Criteria Marks
• Correctly identifies all major steps in DNA replication
4
• Gives steps in correct/logical order
• Identifies most steps in DNA replication
2-3
• Gives steps mostly in correct/logical order
• Identifies a step in DNA replication 1

Sample answer
1. Double helix unwinds
2. Enzyme helicase unzips and separates double strand.
3. Nucleotide are built against each single strand.
4. Replication errors are identified by DNA polymerase and corrected.
5. Newly replicated DNA re-winds to double helix.


Criteria Marks
• Identifies Australian plant and appropriate pathogen
4
• Shows thorough description of plant response to pathogen
• Identifies Australian plant and appropriate pathogen
2-3
• Shows some description of plant response to pathogen

Sample answer
Phytophthora is a fungal disease that affects Wollemi pine. It causes root lesions which prevents
the uptake of water and nutrients from the soil. Insufficient water to the Wollemi causes
discoloration of leaves and wilting. The plant will drop its leaves to conserve energy to fight the
fungus.


(a) 1 mark
Criteria Marks
• Identifies actions as behavioural adaptations 1

Sample answer
Behavioural adaptations

(b) 4 marks
Criteria Marks
• Shows thorough understanding of negative feedback loops
• Correctly identifies physiological adaptation 4
• Shows thorough understanding of temperature control in endotherms
• Shows sound understanding of negative feedback loops
• Correctly identifies physiological adaptation 3
• Shows sounds understanding of temperature control in endotherms
• Shows some understanding of negative feedback loops
2
• Shows some understanding of temperature control in endotherms

Sample answer



(a) 2 marks
Criteria Marks
• Correctly defines mutagen and mutation
2
• Identifies difference(s) between
• Correctly defines mutagen OR mutation 1

Sample answer
A mutagen is an agent that causes mutation within DNA, while a mutation is a damage/change
from the original DNA sequence.

(b) 3 marks
Criteria Marks
• Identifies a valid type of mutagen
• Describes correctly the process of DNA mutation within the context of the 3
named mutagen
• Identifies a valid type of mutagen
2
• Provides some explanation of its effect on DNA
• Identifies a valid type of mutagen 1

Sample answer
Ionising radiation such as UVb can cause significant damage to DNA. As the radiation is high
energy it can free electrons from molecules. These electrons can form free radicals and cause
breaks in the DNA strands to occur which can result in chromosome loss and deletions.

(c) 4 marks
Criteria Marks
• Correctly describes genetic drift and gene flow
• Shows the effect these processes can have on genetic variation within a 4
population
• Defines genetic drift and gene flow
2-3
• Some explanation of effect on genetic variation

Sample answer
Although mutation can bring about new alleles within a population, genetic drift and gene flow
are also contributors to genetic change. These factors can have significant effects particularly in
smaller populations. Gene flow causes in allele frequency within a population by the movement
of individuals into and out of a population. New individuals can bring in new alleles and alleles
can be lost when an organism leaves. Not all changes to allele frequency are advantageous.
Genetic drift can cause changes due to random chance. Populations can be significantly
decreased by natural disaster, and those left do not represent the variation found in the original
population.



(a) 2 marks
Criteria Marks
• Performs a cross between two heterozygous individuals
2
• Utilises punnet square format
• Utilises punnet square format 1

Sample answer

X B b

B BB Bb
b Bb bb

(b) 3 marks
Criteria Marks
• Provides correct answer for frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles
3
• Shows all working
• Provides correct answer for frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles
2
• Shows some working
• Correctly answer given for frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles 1

Sample answer
Dominant Alleles = number of BB x 2 + Bb = 37
Recessive alleles = number of bb x 2 + Bb = 11
Frequency of dominant allele = 37/48 = 0. 77
Frequency of recessive allele = 11/48 = 0.23

(c) 2 marks
Criteria Marks
• Describes a way/ways population genetics can assist conservation
2
• Uses context of orchid populations

Sample answer
By gathering data regarding the genetic makeup of the orchid species it will allow scientists to
make informed decisions about protecting the species and devising future strategies to assist
and manage the populations. Population genetics can be used to examine the orchid’s genetic
variation, microevolution and adaptations to its environment.



(a) 1 mark
Criteria Marks
• Annotates Day 14 1

Sample answer

(b) 4 marks
Criteria Marks
• Shows a thorough understanding of the role of two or more hormones
during mammalian pregnancy
4
• Refers to different stages of pregnancy
• Includes reference to two hormones shown in the graph
• Shows solid understanding of the role of two or more hormones during
mammalian pregnancy
3
• Refers to different stages of pregnancy
• Includes reference to two hormones shown in the graph
• Shows some understanding of the role of hormones during mammalian
pregnancy 2
• Describes the role of at least one hormone in pregnancy

Sample answer
Hormones responsible for controlling pregnancy are at first secreted by the pituitary gland, and
then by an established placenta. Two major hormones involved in this process are oestrogen
and progesterone.

Oestrogen is responsible for promoting thickening of the lining of the uterus for implantation to
occur. Progesterone stimulates the secretion of mucus in the lining of the uterus and the
development of blood vessels. Once implantation has occurred, progesterone stops uterine
activity to prevent the foetus from being disturbed.


(a) 5 marks
Criteria Marks
• Demonstrates thorough knowledge and understanding of the effect on
biodiversity of using biotechnology in agriculture
• Identifies types of biotechnologies used in agriculture 5
• Provides points both for and against the use of biotechnology in agriculture
• Relates effects to biodiversity of species
• Demonstrates solid knowledge and understanding of the effect on
• Identifies types of biotechnologies used in agriculture 4
• Provides points both for and against the use of biotechnology in agriculture
• Demonstrates some knowledge and understanding of the effect on
• Provides some points for and/or against the use of biotechnology in 2-3
agriculture

Sample answer
The use of biotechnology in agriculture can have both positive and negative effect on
biodiversity, dependant on the method used and timespan.

Recombinant DNA technologies and selective breeding can introduce new alleles into a
population, creating new genotypes and increasing biodiversity in the short term. Through
selective breeding an abundance of dog breeds has been produced, each bringing new
phenotypes, from a single domesticated wolf species.

Selective breeding in the longer term can decrease biodiversity as not all traits are considered
‘desirable’ for human use. Many ‘pure-breed’ dogs have massive health issues due to lack of
genetic variation and inbreeding such as Pugs and the respiratory issues that accompany their
characteristic nose.

Similarly, the use of recombinant DNA technologies to create large numbers of species that
have ‘beneficial’ characteristics which can again reduce biodiversity. This is a major fear that has
prevented many genetically modified organisms from being released into wild populations, so
that they do not replace existing diversity.



(a) 1 marks
Criteria Marks
• Identifies relevant procedures to prevent the spread of infectious disease 1

Sample answer
Quarantine, hygiene practices and Public Health campaigns

(b) 3 marks
Criteria Marks
• Shows sound understanding of quarantine processes
• Makes a judgement based on evidence 3
• Refers to diagram in response
• Shows some understanding of quarantine processes
2
• Refers to diagram in response

Sample answer
Quarantine refers to the practice of isolating thereby restricting the movement of individuals
suspected of possessing a disease. It is evident that Côte d’Ivoire was thorough in its quarantine
practices as there were no outbreaks of Ebola in that country during the 2014 period (shown in
diagram). Its borders are next to the outbreak so it can be assumed there were border controls
checking people moving into the country or restrictions on them being allowed in completely.
Therefore, the country’s quarantine programs can be considered successful in response to the
Ebola epidemic.

(c) 3 marks
Criteria Marks
• Describes applicable example of a quarantine program
3
• Identifies why quarantine was successful
• Describes example of a quarantine program 2

Sample answer
Australia’s quarantine/biosecurity program has so far been considered successful in response to
keeping out the Varrora mites responsible for decimating European honey bees across the
globe. Some quarantine measures have included thorough checks of all incoming boats/ ships
and vegetative matter from affected areas, random sampling, as well as insecticide spraying to
kill any mites. Although the mite is present in our close neighbour Indonesia, it has not reached
Australia due to its stringent quarantine and biosecurity measures.



(a) 6 marks
Criteria Marks
• Outlines thoroughly the processes of artificial insemination and pollination
• Shows potential positive outcomes for both reproductive technologies 6
• Shows potential negative outcomes for both reproductive technologies
• Outlines solidly the processes of artificial insemination and pollination
• Shows potential positive outcome(s) for both reproductive technologies 4-5
• Shows potential negative outcome(s) for both reproductive technologies
• Outlines briefly the processes of artificial insemination and/or pollination
• Shows some understanding of positive both positive and negative 2-3
outcomes of these reproductive technologies

Sample answer -
Reproductive Technology Description and Comparison
Artificial Insemination Artificial Pollination
Collecting sperm from a selected Removing stamen from a flower and

Process male and inserting it using a syringe manually dusting pollen from the same
to a chosen female. plant or another onto the stigma.
* Can be used in conservation for

* Provides alternative form of pollination
individuals in zoos across the world
Positive with decreasing bee populations
* Frozen sperm can be used for long
Outcomes * Can create hybrids and increase genetic
periods of time after the animal has
diversity
died
*Can lead to a decrease in *Can be costly and time consuming

Negative * Can only be done in relatively small
biodiversity
Outcomes * Requires specialised equipment quantities


(a) 2 marks
Criteria Marks
• Identifies a visual disorder
2
• Shows the impact on normal function
• Identifies a visual disorder 1

Sample answer
Myopia is a condition of the eye where the image falls short of the retina because the lens
cannot accommodate properly. People with myopia are unable to clearly see long distances.


(b) 7 marks
Criteria Marks
• Shows a thorough understanding of a named disorder and associated
technology
• Identifies an appropriate technology and makes detailed links to its 7
improvements for quality of life
• Makes a clear judgement on the effectiveness of the named technology
• Shows a sound understanding of disorder and associated technology
• Identifies an appropriate technology and links it to improvements in quality
5-6
of life
• Makes a judgement on the effectiveness of the named technology
• Shows some understanding of disorder and associated technology
3-4
• Identifies an appropriate technology and its results
• Provides some relevant information 1-2

Sample answer
Cataracts are a clouding of the lens in the eye. They can be caused by age and exposure to UV.
Cataracts can render a person vision impaired at best and blind at worst. Cataracts surgery is a
technology that has aided in the correction of the cataract visual disorder. Cataracts surgery is a
process whereby the old and cloudy lens of the eye is removed and replaced by an
intraocular/artificial lens. This enables patients to be able to see again and is the only way in
which cataracts can be fixed.

Cataract eye surgery has allowed the affected individual to regain independence and improve
not only vision, but quality of life. Without this technology the disorder would have rendered
the patient blind, forcing them to become more dependent on family members or outside
services to survive. This loss of independence, career etc can cause reduced metal and physical
health.

With the invention and implementation of cataract surgery has come huge benefits to
individuals who experience cataracts. Such people can lead normal lives and maintain a high
quality of life.


(a) 2 marks
Criteria Marks
• Correctly defines nutritional disease
2
• Shows an appropriate example
• Correctly defines nutritional disease
OR 1
• Shows an appropriate example

Sample answer
Nutritional disease is caused the lack of a balanced diet/malnutrition. For instance, scurvy is
from a lack of Vitamin C.


(b) 4 marks
Criteria Marks
• Identifies correctly countries of high and low prevalence
• Shows thorough understanding of relationships between countries and
4
prevalence of nutritional disease
• Refers to stimulus in answer
• Shows some understanding of relationship between countries and
2-3
prevalence of nutritional disease

Sample answer
The map above shows countries like Australia and the USA with low prevalence of nutritional
diseases, while African countries have some of the highest rates across the world. The
prevalence of nutritional disease can be linked to the standard of living that those countries
possess. Australia and the USA have easy and abundant access to a variety of foods which
ensures a balanced diet. However, countries with lower standards of living, such as Africa, can
sometimes have limited access to a balanced diet and hence are susceptible to a higher rate of
nutritional diseases.


(a) 2 marks
Criteria Marks
• Shows comprehensive understanding of designing an investigation that
takes into account validity and reliability
• Shows comprehensive understanding of the process required for testing
9
for microbes in water
• Identifies relevant risks and shows how they can be minimised
• Describes process in clear, accurate and logical order
• Shows thorough understanding of designing an investigation that takes
into account validity and reliability
• Shows thorough understanding of the process required for testing for
7-8
microbes in water
• Identifies relevant risks and shows how they can be minimised
• Describes process in clear, accurate and logical order
• Shows sound understanding of designing an investigation that takes into
account validity and reliability
• Shows sound understanding of the process required for testing for
5-6
microbes in water
• Some risks identified
• Most steps provided are clear and in logical order
• Shows some understanding of the process required for testing for
microbes 3-4
• Shows some consideration of validity and/or reliability in the design
• Provides some relevant information 1-2


Sample answer
Testing Water for Microbes

Risks

Risk Precautions
Seal Petri dishes and do not open.
Sterilise all equipment after experimental use.
Microbes grown are pathogenic to Do not handle water samples directly. Wear
humans gloves, safety glasses and lab coat at all times.
Keep in sealed vessels.

Materials: nutrient agar plates x 5, Water sample, Burette/pipette, distilled water, incubator,
tape or parafilm, safety glasses, lab coat, gloves, mask, fume hood

Note: Entire experiment should be conducted in the fume hood with appropriate safely gear.

1. Collect water sample from affected area. Ensure sample is sealed, gloves and mask
worn.
2. Prepare new nutrient agar plates to prevent contamination.
3. Seal one of the nutrient agar plates immediately after setting to ensure no
contamination in the medium itself.
4. Using the burette/pipette, measure out 2 mL of distilled water.
5. Open agar plate as slightly as possible to avoid contamination from the air. Immediately
place water sample onto agar surface.
6. Seal plate and swirl water around to ensure maximum exposure to medium.
7. Repeat for three replicates using the water sample.
8. Incubate for 24 hrs at 37 degrees Celsius.
9. Look for microbial growth in the form of colonies on the plate. Compare to controls.
10. Once results collected, autoclave all plates to kill pathogen.



2019 HSC Trial Biology
Mapping grid

Question Marks Content Syllabus outcomes

Section I
1 1 Module 5 Reproduction BIO12-12
2 1 Module 6 Mutation BIO12-13
3 1 Module 7 Immunity BIO12-14
4 1 Module 5 Genetic Variation BIO12-12
5 1 Module 6 Mutation BIO12-13
6 1 Module 7 Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-14
7 1 Module 8 Homeostasis BIO12-15
8 1 Module 8 Cause and Responses BIO 12-15
9 1 Module 5 DNA and Polypeptide Synthesis BIO12-12

10 1 Module 6 Biotechnology BIO12-13
11 1 Module 6 Genetic Technologies BIO12-13
12 1 Module 7 Treatment and Control BIO12-14

13 1 Module 5 Genetic Variation BIO12-12
15 1 Module 7 Causes of Infectious Disease BIO12-14

16 1 Module 7 Immunity BIO12-14
17 1 Module 8 Technologies and Disorders BIO12-15
Module 5 Genetic Variation and Cell
18 1 BIO12-12
Replication
19 1 Module 8 Homeostasis BIO 12-15
20 1 Module 8 Homeostasis BIO12-15

Section II
BIO11/12-7
21a 4 Module 5 Cell Replication
BIO12-12
BIO11/12-7
21b 4 Module 5 Cell Replication
BIO12-12
BIO12-14
22 4 Module 7 Responses to Pathogens
BIO11/12-7
23a 1 Module 8 Homeostasis BIO12-15
23b 4 Module 8 Homeostasis BIO12-15

24a 2 Module 6 Mutation BIO12-13

24b 3 Module 6 Mutation BIO12-13
24c 4 Module 6 Mutation BIO12-13

25a 2 Module 5 Genetic Variation
BIO12-12
BIO12-12
25b 3 Module 5 Genetic Variation
BIO 11/12-4
25c 2 Module 5 Inheritance Patterns in a Population BIO12-12
BIO11/12-4
26a 1 Module 5 Reproduction
BIO12-12
26b 4 Module 5 Reproduction BIO12-12
Module 6 Biotechnology and Genetic
27 5 BIO12-13
Technologies
BIO12-14
28a 3 Module 7 Prevention, treatment and control

BIO12-14
28b 4 Module 7 Prevention, treatment and control
BIO11/12-2
30a 2 Module 8 Technologies and Disorders BIO12-15
BIO12-15
30b 7 Module 8 Technologies and Disorders
BIO11/12-7
31a 2 Module 8 Cause and response BIO12-15
BIO11/12-5
31b 4 Module 8 Epidemiology
BIO12-15
BIO12-14
32 9 Module 7 Causes of Infectious Disease
BIO11/12-2


Exam Choice
Student Number
TRIAL
2019 EXAMINATION
Biology
General Instructions • Reading time – 5 minutes.

• Working time – 3 hours.
• Write using black pen.
• Draw diagrams using pencil.
• For questions in Section II, show all relevant working in
questions involving calculations.
• NESA approved calculators may be used.
Total marks: 100 Section I – 20 marks (pages 3 – 12)
• Attempt questions 1 – 20.

• Allow about 35 minutes for this section.
Section II – 80 marks (pages 13 – 34)
• Attempt questions 21 – 36
• Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for this section.
1
Section I – 20 marks
Attempt Questions 1-20
Use the multiple-choice answer sheet.
Select the alternative A, B, C or D that best answers the question. Fill in the response oval
completely.
Sample: 2+4= (A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
A B C D
If you think you have made a mistake, put a cross through the incorrect answer and fill in the
new answer.
A B C D
If you change your mind and have crossed out what you consider to be the correct answer,
then indicate the correct answer by writing the word correct and drawing an arrow as
follows.
A B C D
correct
2
1. The diagram below summarises a negative feedback mechanism which operates in the
control of human body temperature.
Detected by
hypothalamus
Message sent
to effectors
Blood
temperature
decreases
Response
o
Blood temperature of 37 C
Which one of the following best describes the Response in this diagram?
(A) vasodilation
(B) reduced metabolic rate
(C) vasoconstriction
(D) sweating
2. A potential pathogen was found to be heterotrophic and have a cell wall and
membrane bound organelles.
It should be classified as a:
(A) prion
(B) bacterium
(C) protozoan
(D) fungus
3
3. The karyotype below shows the chromosomes present in the nucleus of a human cell.
The cell must be a:
(A) sperm cell

(B) egg cell
(C) adult female cell
(D) adult male cell
4. The diagram below points out four parts of the human eye.
A
D
Which letter points to the part which is targeted by laser surgery?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
4
The next two questions refer to the information about Ebola below.
Ebola virus disease was first described from the Sudan and the Congo in 1976.
Since then it has recurred regularly in Central and Western Africa. The most recent
outbreak is in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
The mortality rate is 90%.
The virus is transmitted in human body fluids, particularly blood, vomit and
faeces, placing health workers who care for sufferers, or the people who dispose of
the bodies, at particular risk.
Infection rates of health workers in remote, poorly equipped locations are much
higher than those in well equipped, modern hospitals.
From the World Health Organisation website.
5. From the information above, how would you classify the most recent Ebola outbreak?
(A) an epidemic
(B) a pandemic
(C) a plague
(D) an endemic disease
6. Health workers in modern, well-equipped hospitals have much lower Ebola infection
rates than those in remote, poorly equipped ones.
This is most likely due to:
(A) greater availability of antibiotic and antiviral drugs in modern hospitals.

(B) understaffing and poor training in remote hospitals.
(C) poorer diagnostic services in remote hospitals.
(D) better use of sterile procedures and personal protection equipment in modern
hospitals.
5
7. The diagram below shows the life cycle of the schistosome parasite which causes the
tropical disease Bilharzia.
This disease is prevalent in populations which live in close contact with paddy fields
and wetlands.
Worms bore through human Eggs pass into water

skin and reproduce inside the via human faeces and
body hatch to give larvae
Worm stage Larvae bore in to

released into aquatic snail,
water where they
multiply
In this life cycle the snail is the:
(A) pathogen.
(B) antigen.
(C) disorder
(D) vector
8. Dialysis is a technology which can be used to help address a disorder in the function
of which organ of the body?
(A) kidney
(B) pancreas
(C) liver
(D) ear
6
9. Some farmers have noticed that their sheep are becoming sick and are losing
condition. They engage a microbiologist to find the pathogen.
The microbiologist discovers that all the sick animals have a particular bacterium
present in their blood. This bacterium cannot be found in healthy sheep.
The microbiologist isolates some of the bacteria and grows them in a pure culture.
What is the next step that the microbiologist needs to take?
(A) Find out whether an antibiotic which kills the bacteria also cures the sheep.
(B) Inoculate healthy sheep with different bacteria to see whether they develop
similar symptoms.
(C) Inoculate healthy sheep with the cultured bacteria to see whether they develop
similar symptoms.
(D) Culture bacteria from sheep with similar, but different, diseases.
10. Select the row below which correctly contrasts the characteristics of internal and
external fertilisation.
External fertilisation Internal fertilisation
Many eggs produced Few eggs produced

(A)
Little parental care of young Significant parental care of young
Many eggs produced Few eggs produced

(B)
Significant parental care of young Little parental care of young
Few eggs produced Many eggs produced
(C)
Significant parental care of young Little parental care of young
Few eggs produced Many eggs produced
(D)
Little parental care of young Significant parental care of young
7
11. The diagrams below show how the skin cancer, melanoma, grows downwards to
invade deeper tissues.
epidermis
dermis
subcutaneous
layer
early stage later stage
Once it reaches the later stage it can metastasise. Cells break off and are transported to
other parts of the body.
Which one of the following is mainly responsible for facilitating metastasis?
(A) the inflammatory response

(B) the capillaries
(C) the killer T lymphocytes
(D) the lymphatic system
12. Occasionally a sheep and a goat will mate and produce a baby called a geep.
Sheep have a chromosome number of 54, goats 60.
What would the chromosome number of the geep be?
(A) 54
(B) 57
(C) 60
(D) 114
8
The next two questions refer to the table below, which compares the germination rates of
pollen stored in different ways for some commercially important plant species.
% of pollen which germinate

Plant species Stored in liquid
Fresh Dry
nitrogen
Date 54 59 29
Pine 82 88 84
Pear 50 47 41
Apple 58 17 27
Maize 45 49 39
KRISTINA. F.C. & L.E. TOWILL. (1993): Pollen-handling protocol and hydration/dehydration characteristics of pollen for
application to long-term storage. Euphytica 68: 77-84.
13. For which of the species listed is it most important to use fresh pollen?
(A) Date
(B) Pine
(C) Pear
(D) Apple
14. Artificial pollination is a very important reproductive technology in agriculture.
Which one of the following is its chief advantage?
(A) It reduces genetic diversity.

(B) It makes it possible to self-pollinate plants.
(C) It increases the frequency of favourable alleles.
(D) It increases biodiversity.
9
The next two questions concern data obtained from twin studies.
Studies of human twins allow inferences to be made about the relative contributions of
genetic and environmental factors to the phenotypes of individuals.
The graph below compares the extent to which certain characteristics are the same between
the two members of a pair of twins. Each pair of twins was raised in the same home.
MZ refers to monozygotic (identical) twins, DZ refers to dizygotic (fraternal or non-identical)

twins.
The numbers on the columns refer to the number of pairs of twins surveyed to obtain those
data.
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/en/5/54/Heritability-from-twin-correlations1.jpg
15. From these data, which trait appears to be least determined by genetic factors?
(A) General intelligence

(B) Memory
(C) Processing speed
(D) Extraversion
10
16. Which one of the following is the independent variable in this study?
(A) The amount of correlation between the members of each pair of twins.
(B) The environment in which each pair of twins was raised.
(C) The different traits tested.
(D) The degree of genetic similarity between the members of each pair of twins.
17. The pedigree diagram below shows the occurrence of red-green colour blindness in a
family.
Red-green colour blindness is a sex-linked trait. It is caused by a recessive allele

carried on the X chromosome.
Colour blind individuals are shaded. The mother’s phenotype is not indicated.
From this information, which of the following is a valid inference about the mother?
(A) She must be colour blind.

(B) She is not colour blind, but is heterozygous for the colour blindness allele.
(C) She is not colour blind, and does not carry the colour blindness allele.
(D) She is not colour blind, but may or may not carry the colour blindness allele.
18. What is the name given to cells which make antibodies?
(A) plasma cells

(B) memory B cells
(C) killer T cells
(D) helper T cells.
11
19. The diagram below shows a homologous pair of chromosomes paired up early in
meiosis.
The letters represent the alleles of three genes.
A A a a
b b B B
C C C C
Which process would need to occur for a gamete of genotype ABC to be produced?
(A) Crossing over

(B) Random segregation
(C) Fertilisation
(D) Dominance assertion
20. Which one of the following is a structural adaptation of a plant to help it reduce water
loss?
(A) A deep root system

(B) The ability to close stomates during the heat of the day.
(C) Dropping leaves during times of severe drought.
(D) Leaves with a reduced surface area.
12
TRIAL
2019 EXAMINATION
Biology
Section II
Answer Booklet
80 marks
Attempt Questions 21 – 36
Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for this part
Instructions • Answer the questions in the spaces provided. These spaces

provide guidance for the expected length of response.
• Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.
• Extra writing space is provided at the back of this booklet. If

you use this space, clearly indicate which questions you are
answering.
13
Marks
The human menstrual cycle is under the control of four hormones.
Two, FSH and LH are made by the pituitary gland, and the other two, oestrogen
and progesterone, are made within the ovaries.
The information box below describes how they act.
The Hormonal Control of the Menstrual Cycle
1. FSH stimulates the ‘ripening’ of an egg. As it develops it produces

oestrogen which, amongst other things ‘switches off’ FSH production to
make sure that only one egg ‘ripens’ at once.
2. LH levels remain low throughout the cycle, except for a sudden surge
which triggers ovulation -the release of the egg, on about the 14th day.
3. The follicle which released the egg then produces progesterone, which
targets the lining of the uterus, making it receptive to a fertilised egg
should fertilisation occur.
4. After about 22 days of the cycle, if fertilisation hasn’t occurred,

progesterone and oestrogen levels drop. Once they get below a certain
level menstruation is triggered on around the 28th day of the cycle.
The graph below shows how oestrogen and FSH levels change during the cycle.
Oestrogen (dashed line)

FSH (solid line)
Hormone
conc.
(arbitrary
units)
0 14 28 (Days)
menstruation ovulation
Question 21 continues on page 15.
14
Marks
(a) Sketch lines on the axes below to show how levels of LH and 2
progesterone also change over the same time. (make sure you label which
is which)
Hormone
conc.
(arbitrary
units)
0 14 28 (Days)
(b) Outline the steps which occur between the fertilisation of an egg and the 2
implantation of a blastocyst in the lining of the uterus.
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(c) Show how oestrogen and FSH have a negative feedback relationship. 2
15
Read the information below about the relationship between diabetes and a type of
kidney disease called nephropathy.
Diabetes and nephropathy

Sufferers from Type 1 diabetes do not produce sufficient insulin, the function of which is
to facilitate the movement of glucose from the blood into respiring cells.
Treatment involves the administration of synthetic insulin. Diabetics need to monitor their
blood glucose levels, manage their diet and adjust their insulin intake in order to maintain
their blood glucose levels within healthy limits.
Patients who manage their blood glucose levels poorly have levels which fluctuate widely
and are susceptible to a range of degenerative diseases. One of these is nephropathy, a
condition which involves damage to nephrons of the kidney, and which can lead to kidney
failure.
Measuring blood glucose levels
There are two different useful measures of blood glucose concentration. One is an
instantaneous measure, taken using a monitoring device and giving a measure of blood
glucose concentration at that moment in time.
The other involves a chemical analysis of the blood. Haemoglobin, when exposed to high
levels of glucose, can become glycated – chemically combined with glucose. By
measuring the level of glycated haemoglobin, biochemists can gain a proxy measure of
the average blood glucose level over the previous three months.
Graph to show the relationship between glycated

haemoglobin levels and the relative risk of
developing nephropathy
16
14
12
Relative risk
10
8
6
4
2
0
6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
Glycated haemoglobin (%)
16
Marks
(a) Analyse the graph. 4
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(b) Explain why glycated haemoglobin levels are a more useful measurement 2
than instantaneous blood glucose measurements in a study of this type.
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17
Marks
Complete the table below to outline how the measures stated help to control the
spread of a named disease.
Outline of how this helps to control the spread of a

Control measure
named disease.
Spraying pesticide.
Washing hands before

preparing food
Genetic engineering
18
Marks
(a) Use diagrams to help you explain what a single nucleotide polymorphism 2
(SNP) is.
(b) Explain, in terms of evolution, why SNPs are more common in non-coding 2
regions of DNA than coding regions.
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19
Marks
Polio is a disease which has now almost been eradicated worldwide through
vaccination.
The virus mainly infects cells lining the intestinal tract; but can sometimes infect
nervous tissue.
The vaccination schedule for polio recommends four doses of the vaccine for
children.
The first is given at 2 months of age and the others are spaced out until the age of
6 years.
(a) Explain why multiple doses of the vaccine might create a more effective 3
immunity than a single dose.
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(b) Vaccination provides individual protection from a disease. Explain how it 2

can also provide protection to a whole community.
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20
Marks
The photograph below shows a genetically modified AquAdvantage Salmon

(top) compared to an Atlantic Salmon of the same age.
geneticliteracyproject.org
The AquAdvantage Salmon is basically an Atlantic Salmon which has had a

growth hormone gene from the Chinook Salmon and a gene promoter from the
Ocean Pout inserted into its genome.
As a result of this it grows to market size in 16 – 18 months, instead of the 30

months needed by farmed Atlantic Salmon.
(a) The AquAdvantage Salmon is an example of a transgenic species.
Outline what this means. 1
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21
Marks
(b) Discuss the potential impacts on agriculture of this reproductive 4

technology.
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Describe how a named Australian plant responds to a specific pathogen. 3
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22
Marks
In 2017 there were 249,882 reported cases of influenza in Australia.
The table below shows the incidence of reported cases by month.
Incidence (No. of
Month
new cases)
January 2744
February 2738
March 2810
April 1978
May 3274
June 7761
July 33115
August 98687
September 75549
October 15838
November 3391
December 1997
All data in this question were taken from the immunisation coalition website
https://www.immunisationcoalition.org.au/news-media/2019-influenza-statistics/
(a) Calculate the percentage of 2017 cases which were detected in August. 1
(show working).
23
Marks
(b) Plot these data on the grid below. 3
The graph below shows the same data for the following year, 2018.
Monthly incidence of Influenza in Australia in

2018
14000
12000
Incidence (No of new cases)
10000
8000
6000
4000
2000
0
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
Month
24
Marks
(c) Refer to these two graphs to compare the influenza outbreaks of 2017 and 4
2018.
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Explain how a named pathogen is adapted to facilitate its transmission between 3

hosts.
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25
Marks
The drawing below shows the sexual reproductive structures of a flowering plant.
(a) Annotate this drawing to explain how TWO of the features illustrated help 2
to ensure reproduction.
(b) Most plants can also reproduce asexually.
Assess the relative advantages and disadvantages to flowering plants of 3

sexual and asexual reproduction.
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26
Marks
The diagram below represents part of the template strand of a DNA molecule.
(a) Give the letter code of the section of mRNA that is coded for here. 1
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(b) Describe the role of mRNA in polypeptide synthesis. 3
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(c) Explain how controlling polypeptide synthesis gives control over the 3
structure and function of the body.
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27
Marks
(a) The photographs below show stages of the cell cycle, including mitosis and
interphase, in the nuclei of onion root cells.
Use the right hand column to describe the key parts of the process 3
occurring in each of the three photographs. (Stage names are not required)
28
Marks
(b) Mitosis aims to produce nuclei which are genetically identical to the parent.
Assess the importance of this exact replication to the individual. 3
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Justify the design of an example of an educational program or campaign which 3

you have studied which aims to prevent a non-infectious disease.
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29
Marks
The bacterium Bacillus subtilis is a very common member of the human intestinal
flora. It is not considered to be a pathogen.
A student performed an experiment to investigate the following hypothesis:
As temperature increases, B. subtilis grows at an increasing rate until its

optimum temperature of 36oC is reached, above which it grows at a decreasing
rate.
They obtained three petri dishes containing sterilized nutrient agar broth from the
same source and inoculated each of them with the same amount of B.subtilis.
The table below summarises the procedure and results.
Left at room temperature % cover of bacterial

(average 22oC) for 48 colonies estimated at
Nutrient agar plate hrs. 30%
inoculated with B.
subtilis
Incubated at 36oC for 48 % cover of bacterial

hrs. colonies estimated at
Nutrient agar plate 90%
inoculated with B.
subtilis
Incubated at 45oC for 48 % cover of bacterial

hrs. colonies estimated at
Nutrient agar plate 60%
inoculated with B.
subtilis
30
Marks
(a) Justify TWO measures that you would adopt to minimise risk in this 2
experiment.
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(b) Evaluate the student’s experiment in terms of the validity of the method and 4
the reliability of the data produced.
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31
Marks
There are many more humans than chimpanzees, seven billion compared to
between two and three hundred thousand.
However, there is much greater genetic diversity within the chimpanzee

population than the human one.
Assess the roles of mutation, meiosis and fertilisation in producing genetic 4

diversity within a species.
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32
Marks
Evaluate the potential of genetic techniques to change the Earth’s biodiversity. 8
In your answer include:
• Specific examples of genetic techniques.
• Potential changes to the three main types of biodiversity:

- Species diversity
- Genetic diversity within a species
- Habitat diversity
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Section II extra writing space.
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Section II extra writing space.
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35
Exam Choice
2019 Biology Trial Examination.
Marking Guidelines and Model Answers.
Section I Multiple Choice
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 2
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 0
C D C B A D D A C A D B D C B D B A A D
Section II
21.a.
Marking Criteria Marks
● LH level stays low with a spike around day 14
2
● Progesterone level stays low till day 14, rises, then decreases.
● One of the above 1
Hormone
conc. LH – solid line
(arbitrary Progesterone – dashed line
units)
0 14 28 (Days)
21.b.
● At least two important steps in the process outlined 2
● One step outlined 1
After fertilisation, changes occur to the membrane of the egg to prevent the entry of other sperm
The zygote moves down the oviduct.
Cell division occurs to give a ball of undifferentiated cells called a morula.
Once a critical number of cells is reached they differentiate to give an outer ball of cells and an inner clump
which will become the embryo.
21.c.
● A flow diagram or description of the relationship, showing how a stimulus
2
produces a response which counteracts that stimulus.
● The above done less well 1
1
FSH released by pituitary
Growth of follicle stimulated
Oestrogen released
High oestrogen ‘switches off’ FSH production
22.(a)
● Key components identified and relationships shown.
● Implications discussed.
● Should include:
4
- Description of trend, both in terms of increase and rate of increase.
- Analysis backed by quantitative data from the graph.
- Implications for diabetics discussed.
● The above done less well 1-3
For levels of glycated haemoglobin up to 6% the relative risk is 1.0. As levels rise above 6% the risk of
nephropathy increases. At only 7% the risk is doubled and it increases exponentially until someone at 12% is at
14 times the risk of nephropathy. High levels of glycated haemoglobin are the result of high average blood
glucose levels, so to minimise the risk of this condition diabetics need to carefully monitor and control their
blood glucose levels.
22.(b)
● Description of what each measure gives
2
● Explanation of why glycated haemoglobin is more useful in this instance.
● One of the above 1
Glycated haemoglobin measurements give a measure of average glucose levels over a three-month period, rather
than an instantaneous one-off measure (which might vary widely). This longer term average measure is more
useful as it better reflects the longer term exposure of capillaries to high glucose levels.
23.
● 3 correct explanations, each must include:
- A named disease 3
- An explanation which relates to the pathogen.
● 1-2 of the above 1-2
Spraying pesticide.
This is a common control measure for malaria. It kills the mosquito vector which carries the pathogen
which causes the disease, reducing the chance of infection.
Washing hands before preparing food.

Washing hands physically removes pathogens from the skin. This is important in food preparation as it
minimises the chances of transmitting pathogens deposited on the hands from sneezing – such as those
which cause influenza.
2
Genetic Engineering.
Genetic engineering of the mosquito vector of Zika virus inserts a gene which reduces the mosquito life
span, thus reducing their numbers and reducing transmission of the pathogen which causes Zika.
24.(a)
● Diagrams drawn which demonstrate understanding of the principle, through
showing two nucleic acid sequences which differ by one base or nucleotide.
2
(students are not required to draw correct arrangement of sugar and phosphate groups)
● Difference between SNP and mutation made clear.
● Concept explained without diagrams. 1
A T A T
A
T
A
A
A
T A
A
A
T A
A
A
T A
A
A
C
A
G
A
T
A
A
A
G
A
C
A
G
A
C
A
A
A
T
A
A
A
T
A A A A
SNP
An SNP is basically a single base change in the base sequence of a section of DNA. To be regarded as a
polymorphism and not simply a mutation it must be present in at least 1% of the population.
24.(b)
● Explanation relating ‘hidden’ nature of SNPs in non-coding regions to:
- Fact that base sequences in coding regions are expressed.
2
- Changes to sequences may cause phenotypic changes
- These changes may be disadvantageous and be selected against.
● The above less well done. 1
An SNP in a non-coding region is effectively hidden and not subject to natural selection, while one in a coding
region may lead to a change in the polypeptide a gene codes for. This may affect the phenotype in a
disadvantageous way and result in natural selection reducing the frequency or eliminating the SNP in question.
For this reason they more commonly persist in non-coding regions.
25.(a)
● Explanation in terms of:
3
- Description of primary response
3
- Role of memory cells
- Ability of multiple vaccinations to build up memory cells.
● (Other answers discussing immaturity of infant immune system also
possible.)
The initial vaccination at 2 months would stimulate the primary immune response. B cells, sensitised by Helper
T cells, would be induced to clone and produce both memory B cells and plasma cells.
These memory B cells allow the individual to respond more rapidly and more strongly to a subsequent infection
by the pathogen – they give immunity.
Repeated vaccinations have the effect of successively boosting the numbers of memory B cells, ensuring a
strong and long-lasting immunity.
25(b)
● Explanation of how herd immunity works 2
● Herd immunity mentioned, but not explained 1
Mass vaccination of a population provides protection not just to the vaccinated individuals, but also to
unvaccinated members of the population. This is called herd immunity. Unvaccinated individuals are protected
because the reservoir of pathogen in the population is very low – they are much less likely to come in contact
with someone who is infected and hence are less likely to become infected themselves.
26.(a)
● Correct definition of transgenic species 1
A transgenic species is one which has had genetic material from another species inserted into its genome.
26.(b)
● At least 2 key issues identified
4
● Points given for and/or against each issue
The ability to produce transgenic species has many potential benefits to agriculture; however some of these
benefits come with a cost. In the example given here farmers are able to greatly increase productivity and hence
profitability. Farmers who grow these fish will be at a significant competitive advantage over those who don’t,
or over fishers who exploit a wild resource. However, transgenic technologies are developed and owned by
large businesses, and much of the profitability will likely remain with these companies. Farmers will have the
choice of paying significant amounts to grow these animals or else be uncompetitive.
Widespread adoption of these technologies will reduce the genetic diversity of the commercial stock – people
growing unmodified strains will go out of business. This will make producers more susceptible to disease.
27.
● Australian Plant named
● Pathogen named 3
● Response of plant to pathogen described
4
Marri gum (Eucalyptus calophylla) when exposed to the water mould, Phytophthora cinnamomi, an oomycete
which infects the roots of trees, produces extra lignin in the root cells and the pathogen is unable to penetrate the
cells and cause harm.
28.(a)
● Percentage calculated correctly 1
98687/249882 X 100 = 39.5%
28.(b)
● Accurate plot
● Correct graph type (bar graph) 3
● Correct labels and units.
28(c)
● At least one major similarity described
● Major differences described in:
4
- Total numbers
- Timing of peaks
Both outbreaks were similar in that their peaks were in late winter/ early spring, with the peak in August in 2017
and in September in 2018. In both years, levels were low from December through to June.
They were different in terms of the slightly later peak in 2018, but much more significantly in terms of severity.
In August and September 2017 there were 98,687 and 75549 cases respectively – about eight times the level in
the peak of the 2018 outbreak.
29.
● Pathogen named
● Adaptive feature described 3
● Explanation of how this feature helps pathogen transmission
Influenza viruses are able to stimulate coughing and sneezing in sufferers. This is highly adaptive as it leads to
them being expelled in aerosols and makes it easier for them to be breathed in by another potential sufferer.
30.(a)
● 2 structures labelled and annotated to explain how each assists reproduction. 2
● 1 of the above 1
5
Petals: brightly coloured to attract pollinators
Stigma: sticky end to trap pollen grains
30.(b)
● Assessment made, covering the following:
- Advantages and disadvantages of sexual reproduction.
3
- Advantages and disadvantages of asexual reproduction.
- Consideration of circumstances under which each are advantageous.
● 1-2 of the above. 1-2
Both types of reproduction are found in flowering plants and both have their advantages and disadvantages.
Sexual reproduction is advantageous in the long term as it gives variation between offspring. This makes it more
likely that some of the offspring of a plant will survive changing environmental conditions. So, for a plant
growing as part of a population of the same species where competition with other members of that species is
what determines survival, sexual reproduction is advantageous. Asexual reproduction produces offspring which
are genetically the same, this is advantageous to a weed species which might need to quickly colonise an area to
which it is adapted.
31.(a)
● Correct answer given 1
UCAAGU
31.(b)
● Description of role including:
- Role in transcription 3
- Transport to RER/ribosome
6
- Role in translation
mRNA is the molecule which forms on the template strand of the DNA during transcription. The sequence of
bases in mRNA is precisely determined by the complementary sequence on the template strand.
The mRNA then transports this message from the nucleus to the ribosomes on the rough endoplasmic reticulum,
where polypeptide synthesis occurs.
At the ribosome translation occurs. Each triplet of bases, or codon, on the mRNA molecule attracts a tRNA
molecule, showing the anticodon and carrying a specific amino acid. In this way the sequence of codons on the
mRNA molecule precisely determines the sequence of amino acids in the resulting polypeptide.
31.(c)
● Links made between:
- Polypeptides and proteins
3
- Proteins and enzymes (functional)
- Proteins and structural proteins (structural)
The polypeptides coded for by genes are assembled to make proteins. The molecular structure of these proteins
is therefore completely dependent on the control of polypeptide synthesis. Some of the proteins produced are
enzymes – which control the metabolism and hence the function of the body. Other proteins are structural
proteins and hence control the structure of the body.
32.(a)
● One key event described for each photograph 3
Photo 1. DNA replication is occurring.

Photo 2. Chromosomes line up on the equator of the cell.
Photo 3. Chromatids have moved to opposite poles of the cell and a cell plate has formed.
32.(b)
● Assessment made of the importance
3
● Reasons given for and/or against the assessment.
● The above done less well. 1-2
It is essential for the individual that mitosis produces cells with nuclei that are identical. The precise duplication
of the genetic code ensures that cells will all produce enzymes and structural proteins correctly. These are
essential for the correct structure and function of the cell. If duplication is not exact then there may be changes
in gene expression, causing malfunction of the cell or a change in its structure.
33.
● Educational program described
3
● Elements of the program justified in terms of helping to achieve aims.
● The above done less well. 1-2
7
“Don’t make Smokes Your Story” is a federal government anti-smoking campaign aimed mainly at indigenous
Australians. This recognises the fact that smoking rates, and the rates of associated health effects like lung
cancer are higher in indigenous communities than in the general population. The campaign uses television, radio
and social media advertisements in which the messages about the health benefits of quitting are delivered by
indigenous people and placed in an indigenous family context. These ads are also produced in a range of
indigenous languages.
34.(a)
● Two measures outlined and justified 2
● Two measures outlined OR one justified. 1
Sterile techniques should be used in order to minimise the risk of contamination and subsequent culturing of a
pathogen.
All plates should be kept sealed after the experiment and autoclaved before disposal, so as to minimise the risk
of exposure to a pathogen.
34.(b)
● Judgements made about validity of the method and the reliability of the
results.
4
● Judgements about each supported by clear reasoning, involving the most
obvious aspects of the experiment.
● Judgements made about validity of the method and the reliability of the
results.
2-3
● Judgements about each supported by poorer reasoning, or involving
peripheral aspects of the experiment.
● Valid comments made about some aspects of the experiment. 1.
In terms of validity, there are significant problems with the method. While some control of variables was
achieved through using nutrient agar from the same source, and the same amounts of B. subtilis, there were
some major flaws. There was no use of a control experiment – uninoculated plates cultured alongside the
inoculated ones – these would have ensured that the bacterial growth observed was indeed B. subtilis, and not
something already in the agar.
Also compromising validity was the use of an estimate to measure the % bacterial cover. A more precise and
less subjective measure should have been devised.
Overall the method cannot be regarded as valid.
The results cannot be regarded as reliable. Using just three plates means that it is not possible to know whether
the results obtained were just due to chance, or whether they truly represent the effect of temperature on the
growth of B. subtilis.
35.
● Contribution of mutation to diversity described 4
8
● Contribution of meiosis to diversity described
● Contribution of fertilisation to diversity described.
● Assessment made of the roles of each of the above.
Mutation is of central importance as a source of genetic diversity. Mutations are changes to the DNA. As such
they are the only source of new alleles within a population.
Meiosis is the type of nuclear division which occurs when gametes are formed. It produces gametes which are
haploid and are all genetically distinct. Processes occur during meiosis which produce new combinations of
alleles. Random segregation produces gametes with different combinations of maternal and paternal
chromosomes, and crossing over gives new combinations of alleles on the same chromosome. This mixing of
the existing genetic material is a major source of diversity.
Fertilisation is the fusion of the nuclei of two gametes. Each fertilisation brings about completely new
combinations of alleles and thereby contributes significantly to diversity.
36.
● At least two genetic techniques outlined
● Clear explanation given of how a change could be brought about by one of
these techniques in:
- Species diversity 8
- Genetic diversity
- Habitat diversity
● Some judgement made about the likelihood or extent of this change.
● Two genetic techniques outlined
● Some consideration of their affect on the different aspects of biodiversity 3-7
● Some judgement made about the likelihood or extent of this change.
● One genetic technique outlined
1-2
● Links made to aspects of biodiversity
Modern genetic techniques give humans the ability to change the genomes of species here on Earth.
Transgenic species are produced by inserting genetic material from one species into another. This is usually
done to produce more productive agricultural species. While this can improve agricultural production it has the
potential to change the Earth’s biodiversity.
It affects genetic diversity within a species by introducing genes which were not previously part of that genome,
increasing genetic diversity in the short term. In the longer term, genetic diversity is reduced because since these
strains are more productive, farmers stop using other strains. Changes of this sort are inevitable and will be
major. They are a continuation of the sorts of changes brought about already by selective breeding.
Transgenic species technology also has the potential to affect species diversity. Transgenic species which escape
into the wild may outcompete or predate natural species, leading to their extinction and a consequent reduction
9
in species diversity. This sort of effect is likely, but its magnitude is likely to be overshadowed by loss of
species diversity due to habitat destruction and other causes.
Transgenic species have the potential also to reduce habitat diversity. Highly successful escaped transgenic
species have the capacity through competition or predation to disrupt ecosystems in the way that introduced
species do. This can lead to simpler ecosystems with shorter food chains, less species diversity and less
difference between them. Again, while this effect is likely, it is likely to be overshadowed by the effects of
introduced species.
Another genetic technique with the potential to affect biodiversity, or more specifically human genetic diversity,
is gene therapy. Using this technology sufferers from genetic disorders such as SCID, Severe Combined
Immunodeficiency, and potentially cystic fibrosis, can be given genetic material which allows them to
manufacture the proteins their cells lack. These genes are not transmitted to germ cells and so are not passed on
to offspring, but they have the potential to allow people to better survive these conditions. This technique will
have the consequence of increasing the frequency of the alleles which cause these conditions, as sufferers are
more likely to survive and reproduce. This change is likely, but is nowhere near as large as the effect on the
human genome of other conventional medicines.
10
HSC Trial Examination 2019
Biology
General • Reading time – 5 minutes

Instructions
• Working time – 3 hours
• For questions in Section II, show all relevant working in
questions involving calculations
Total marks: Section I – 20 marks (pages 2–7)

100 • Attempt Questions 1–20
• Allow about 35 minutes for this section
Section II – 80 marks (pages 8–19)

• Attempt Questions 21–36
• Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for this section
Students are advised that this is a trial examination only and cannot in any way guarantee the content or the format of the 2019 HSC Biology Examination.
Neap Trial Exams are licensed to be photocopied or placed on the school intranet and used only within the confines of the school purchasing them, for
the purpose of examining that school's students only. They may not be otherwise reproduced or distributed. The copyright of Neap Trial Exams remains
with Neap. No Neap Trial Exam or any part thereof is to be issued or passed on by any person to any party inclusive of other schools, non-practising
teachers, coaching colleges, tutors, parents, students, publishing agencies or websites without the express written consent of Neap.
Copyright © 2019 Neap ABN 49 910 906 643 PO Box 214 St Leonards NSW 1590 Tel: (02) 9438 1386 Fax: (02) 9438 1385 TENBIO_QA_19.FM
HSC Biology Trial Examination
Section I
20 marks
Use the multiple-choice answer sheet for Questions 1–20.
1. Which of the following is an advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction?
(A) Sexual reproduction requires two different parents.

(B) Sexual reproduction gives genetic variation among offspring.
(C) Sexual reproduction is less complex than asexual reproduction.
(D) Sexual reproduction usually produces fewer offspring than asexual reproduction.
2. Consider the diagram.

final group
of cells
initial cell
Which type of reproduction in cells is shown in the diagram?
(A) budding
(B) sporulation
(C) binary fission
(D) fertilisation
3. Which of the following statements about single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) is correct?
(A) SNPs ensure genetic similarity between related individuals.

(B) SNPs always result in differences in phenotypes.
(C) SNPs are variations in the DNA sequence at particular locations.
(D) SNPs are not passed down to an individual’s offspring.
2 TENBIO_QA_19.FM Copyright © 2019 Neap

4. Consider the diagram.
female gamete male gamete
fertilisation
zygote
Which statement about these cells is correct?
(A) No genetic information is passed to the zygote from either gamete.

(B) The genetic information carried in the nuclei of both of the gametes is the same.
(C) The zygote contains all the genetic information from both gametes.
(D) The gametes lose some of their genetic information when they combine to form the zygote.
5. The pedigree shows the presence or absence of a particular characteristic.
male without characteristic

female without characteristic
male with characteristic
female with characteristic
Which of the following is the most likely type of inheritance for this characteristic?
Dominant or recessive Sex-linked or not sex-linked

(A) dominant sex-linked
(B) recessive sex-linked
(C) dominant not sex-linked
(D) recessive not sex-linked
Copyright © 2019 Neap TENBIO_QA_19.FM 3

6. Canola is an oilseed crop grown for its edible oil and seed meal (the fibre left after the oil pressing
process). It is often used as stock feed. Glyphosate is a herbicide that kills ‘normal’ canola. A type of
canola has been developed to be resistant to this herbicide. This was done by an agrochemical
company introducing genetic material from two types of bacterium into the canola’s genome.
This is an example of
(A) selective breeding.

(B) genetic modification.
(C) natural genetic change.
(D) replicating an extended DNA sequence that occurs in nature.
7. Which statement about germ-line mutations is correct?
(A) They are always harmful.

(B) They occur in somatic cells.
(C) They are not carried onto the offspring of the affected organism.
(D) They are incorporated into the DNA of the offspring of the affected organism.
8. The diagram shows the populations of birds of the same species on two islands (X and Y) that have
become geographically separated.
Island X Island Y
sea
offspring offspring
population X population Y
Population X has homozygous alleles for a particular characteristic and population Y has different
homozygous alleles for the same characteristic. Heterozygous offspring arose when there was some
movement of birds between the two islands.
The occurrence of these offspring is an example of
(A) gene flow.

(B) gene drift.
(C) asexual reproduction.
(D) evolution.

9. Which of the following statements about meiosis is correct?
(A) It makes exact copies of body cells.

(B) It gives two daughter cells after replication.
(C) It forms new combinations of genotypes.
(D) It maintains genetic uniformity between generations.
10. Which of the following statements about ‘non-coding’ DNA segments is correct?
(A) They are less common than ‘coding’ DNA segments.

(B) They have some functions.
(C) They are structural mirror images of ‘coding’ DNA.
(D) They only occur in the DNA of humans.
11. Hormones are chemicals that are released by which type of effector?
(A) muscles
(B) glands
(C) peripheral nerves
(D) ovaries
12. Blood oxygen levels fall and carbon dioxide levels increase when a person exercises. The increase in
carbon dioxide causes the blood to become more acidic. This change in pH is detected and the
response is to contract and relax the diaphragm at a faster rate, causing more oxygen to be inhaled and
carbon dioxide to be exhaled.
Which of the following is the correct description of the above situation?
(A) Chemoreceptors detect the change in pH and the diaphragm is the effector that responds.
(B) Mechanoreceptors cause the diaphragm to contract, resulting in a decrease in pH.
(C) Photoreceptors detect the change in oxygen and the diaphragm is the effector that
releases hormones.
(D) Thermoreceptors detect the change in body temperature and glands release hormones to
increase sweating.
13. What is the process that occurs in the glomerulus?
(A) secretion
(B) absorption
(C) filtration
(D) dilution

Refer to the following information to answer Questions 14 and 15.
For many years, health professionals have been concerned about the increase in
new cases of childhood obesity. Recent policies to educate pre-school children
about nutrition and exercise have had some impact and the rate of new cases
diagnosed each year has stabilised.
14. The data above relates to the
(A) incidence of childhood obesity.

(B) prevalence of childhood obesity.
(C) mortality of childhood obesity.
(D) frequency of childhood obesity.
15. The strategy to address childhood obesity was
(A) public policies in hospitals.

(B) genetic engineering.
(C) drug trials.
(D) education campaigns.
16. Which of the following gives the best description of innate immunity?
(A) non-specific barriers to prevent entry of a pathogen

(B) specific barriers to prevent entry of a macroorganism
(C) non-specific responses that produce antibodies to fight infection
(D) individual factors that fight pathogens
17. ‘Herd immunity’ describes a population where the vast majority of people are immunised.
Herd immunity is an effective way to control the spread of infection as
(A) there are less potential carriers in the population.

(B) even those who are not immunised will be protected from the pathogen.
(C) diseases that originated in cows cannot spread.
(D) everyone has already had the disease.

18. Which row of the table correctly attributes the scientists to their scientific contributions?
Koch Pasteur
experiments to find a cure experiments to test if boiled
(A)
for smallpox broth contained any microbes
experiments to determine how
experiments to see if microbes
(B) dead pathogens could trigger
could be captured in a glass tube
the immune response
experiments to develop vaccines experiments to test if broth
(C)
for specific pathogens could support microbial life
experiments to determine a
set of criteria to see if a experiments to test if microbes
(D)
specific microbe caused a existed in the air
particular disease
19. Transmission of a pathogen by a vector means
(A) an organism or object transports the pathogen from one infected individual to another.
(B) the pathogen is a virus that can become a vector as it moves between organisms.
(C) the pathogen must be a prion that formed from a protein.
(D) the pathogen can live outside a cell for extended periods of time.
20. Patients receiving organ transplants take medication to suppress their immune system. While this
presents a greater risk of infection for the patients, it is essential.
Which part of the immune response would be dangerous to the patient?
(A) T cells reproducing when exposed to an antigen

(B) cytotoxic T cells recognising and killing foreign cells
(C) memory T cells being stored for future exposure to the antigen
(D) helper B cells stimulating production of T cells

Section II
80 marks
Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for this section
Answer the questions in the spaces provided. These spaces provide guidance for the expected length
of response.
Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.
Extra writing space is provided at the back of this booklet. If you use this space, clearly indicate which
question you are answering.
Knowledge of reproduction of plants and animals is important. 4
Draw a table that shows the main features of fertilisation, implantation and hormonal control of
pregnancy and birth in mammals.

(a) The diagram shows an incomplete short segment of DNA. The complementary bases for 2
the sequence GTCA on the left-hand strand are represented by ‘?’ on the right-hand strand.
?
G
?
T ?
C ?
A
Complete the complementary base pair sequence in the table below.
Base guanine thymine cytosine adenine

Complementary
base
(b) Describe the process of DNA replication using the Watson and Crick model. 3
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DNA sequencing and profiling are technologies used in investigations into genetics. 6
Compare these two technologies.
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Assess how genes and environment affect phenotypic expression. 5
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Achondroplasia (dwarfism) is a genetic disorder that occurs in approximately 1 in 20 000–30 000
live births. It is caused by a spontaneous genetic mutation in approximately 80 percent of patients.
In the remaining cases, it is inherited from a parent. Typically, the torso and head of the affected
individuals are of normal size, but the arms and legs are short.
(a) The table shows the fold increase (how many times more likely) of the occurrence of 3
achondroplasia related to the age range of the parents.
Age range 24 and 25–29 30–34 35–39 40–44 45–49 50–54

(years) under
Fold increase 1.0 1.4 3.0 5.2 7.9 8.3 11.5
Using these figures, construct a line of best fit on the grid provided.
(b) Give a hypothesis that would be supported by the statistics. 1
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(c) (i) What is the general name for external factors that increase the chances of mutation 1
in organisms?
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(ii) Name TWO specific external factors that increase the chances of mutation 1
in organisms.
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As part of your course you investigated the uses and applications of biotechnology.
(a) How did you ensure that your investigation collected valid information? 2
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(b) Analyse the ethical uses of biotechnology. Include examples in your answer. 5
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Humans have many processes that regulate a relatively constant internal environment in a
changing external environment.
(a) Construct a diagram to show how the human body responds to consumption of 4
sugar-rich foods.
(b) Explain how the process given in part (a) is a negative feedback mechanism that helps 3
maintain homeostasis.
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You have a friend who is ten years old and has just been diagnosed with myopia 4
(short-sightedness). Her parents are considering glasses, contact lenses or laser surgery and have
asked for your opinion.
State TWO questions you would ask about the ten-year-old friend, and explain why each of these
questions are relevant to the decision about which technology to select.
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Some diseases are caused by exposure to substances in the environment.
(a) Identify ONE harmful substance and state the disease it causes. 2
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(b) Discuss the incidence and mortality rates of the disease identified in part (a). 2
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(c) Suggest ONE strategy that may reduce the incidence of the disease identified in part (a). 1
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(d) State ONE advantage of using epidemiology to study the disease identified in part (a), or 1
another disease you have studied.
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Non-infectious diseases in humans can be caused by a range of factors.
(a) Name ONE nutritional disease and outline ONE impact of the disease. 2
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(b) Describe ONE way to treat the nutritional disease named in part (a). 1
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Cells are the building blocks of living things. Some pathogens are non-cellular.
(a) Identify ONE example of a non-cellular pathogen. 1
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(b) Explain why the pathogen identified in part (a) is classified as non-cellular. 2
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(c) Describe how the pathogen identified in part (a) is transmitted. 2
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(d) Outline ONE adaptation of the pathogen identified in part (a), or another named pathogen, 2
to facilitate its entry into a host.
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Using an example, describe evidence of an infection by a fungal pathogen in an Australian plant. 3
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Describe ONE historical strategy used to control the spread of disease, and evaluate its 4
effectiveness in preventing the spread of disease. You may not use an example previously given
in other questions.
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The diagram shows details of the humoral response that occurs when B cells respond in the 4
presence of antigens.
Humoral response
B cells activated by antigen
produce many copies

of themselves
Describe how the human body would respond after these steps and explain how this would reduce
the impact of the pathogen.
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The use of pharmaceuticals is a treatment strategy for infectious disease. 2
Using an example, describe how ONE pharmaceutical strategy works and assess its effectiveness.
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Artificial insemination, artificial pollination and whole organism cloning are examples of 7
reproductive technologies.
Compare these processes and their outcomes.
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HSC Trial Examination 2019
Biology
Solutions and marking guidelines
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Copyright © 2019 Neap ABN 49 910 906 643 PO Box 214 St Leonards NSW 1590 Tel: (02) 9438 1386 Fax: (02) 9438 1385 TENBIO_SS_19.FM
HSC Biology Trial Examination Solutions and marking guidelines
Section I
Syllabus content, outcomes and targeted

Answer and explanation
performance bands
Question 1 B Mod 5 Reproduction/Genetic Variation
Needing two parents is a disadvantage because they have to come BIO12–12 Band 2
together, which takes more time than asexual reproduction. Genetic
variation is an advantage as it gives rise to different individuals with, for
example, different resistances to diseases that might kill all genetically
identical organisms. Sexual reproduction is more complex than asexual
reproduction. Sexual reproduction does produce fewer offspring than
asexual reproduction but this is not seen as an advantage.
Question 2 A Mod 5 Reproduction
Budding involves a new organism developing from an outgrowth or bud BIO12–12 Band 2
due to cell division at one particular site. In sporulation a vegetative cell
forms a single spore which, after germination, develops into a single
cell. Binary fission involves a single cell splitting into two identical
daughter cells. Fertilisation involves two cells merging. Budding most
closely matches the diagram.
Question 3 C Mod 5 Genetic Variation
Cells sometimes make mistakes during the copying process and these BIO12–12 Bands 2–3
can lead to single nucleotide polymorphisms, or SNPs. SNPs can
generate biological variation between people by causing differences in
the recipes for proteins that are written in genes. While some SNPs lead
to differences in health or physical appearance, most SNPs seem to lead
to no observable differences between people. DNA is passed from
parent to child, so you inherit your SNPs from your parents.
Question 4 C Mod 5 Reproduction/Genetic Variation
The zygote (a diploid cell) results from the union of a male gamete BIO12–12 Band 3
(haploid) and female gamete (haploid). The complete genetic
information from both gametes is passed onto the zygote.
Question 5 D Mod 5 Genetic Variation
For one set of parents, neither of them has the characteristic, but it BIO12–7, BIO12–12 Bands 3–4
appears in their offspring and so must be recessive. Most sex-linked
alleles are located on the X chromosome. A male only receives these
alleles from his mother. A male therefore needs only one copy of a
sex-linked recessive allele to show the recessive trait. A female must
inherit two such recessive alleles (one from both parents) to exhibit the
trait. Hence there should be very few females showing the characteristic
if it is sex-linked. This is not shown in the pedigree so it is most likely
not sex-linked.
Question 6 B Mod 6 Genetic Technologies
The genes of the organism have been modified by humans using the BIO12–13 Bands 2–3
addition of outside genetic material. No breeding for a desired
characteristic over generations was carried out. It only adds/replaces
relatively short DNA sequences.
Question 7 D Mod 6 Mutation
Mutations can sometimes be beneficial. Germ-line mutations occur in BIO12–13 Band 3
sex cells (gametes), which transmit genetic material to offspring (and
future generations). Somatic cells are body cells, not sex cells.
2 TENBIO_SS_19.FM Copyright © 2019 Neap


performance bands
Question 8 A Mod 6 Mutation
Gene flow occurs when genes are exchanged between two separate BIO12–4, BIO12–13 Band 4
populations – for example, when animals migrate to a new area. Genetic
drift is a random change in allele frequency in a population. The
offspring of birds (animals) are produced by sexual reproduction.
Evolution is the cumulative inherited change in a population of
organisms through time, leading to the appearance of new forms.
Response A most closely matches the description.
Question 9 C Mod 6 Mutation
Meiosis is cell division involving sex cells (not body cells). It reduces BIO12–12 Band 4
the chromosome number by half and creates four daughter cells, each of
which is genetically distinct from the parent cell.
Question 10 B Mod 6 Mutation
Most organisms have ‘non-coding’ DNA segments present, much in BIO12–12 Bands 2–4
excess of ‘coding’ DNA segments. The structure is similar to ‘coding’
DNA segments. Non-coding DNA segments do have some uses (for
example, transfer RNA, regulatory RNA and ribosomal RNA, and they
can determine the expression of some genes).
Question 11 B Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
Only glands and muscles can be effectors. Muscles contract in response BIO12–14 Band 1
to stimuli. Only glands release hormones.
Question 12 A Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
Chemoreceptors detect changes in pH. All of the other receptors BIO12–14 Band 4
mentioned in the responses do not measure pH. When the
diaphragm contracts and air is inhaled, pH increases as the blood
becomes less acidic.
Question 13 C Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
Filtration occurs in the glomerulus. Absorption and secretion occur in BIO12–14 Band 3
other parts of the kidney. Urine can be made more dilute if there is an
excess of water in the body, but this does not occur in the glomerulus.
Question 14 A Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
Incidence is a measure of new cases of a disease. As the new cases have BIO12–14 Band 2
decreased, the information is about incidence. Prevalence refers to how
many individuals in the population have the disease and mortality refers
to how many individuals die from the disease. Frequency could apply to
any data.
Question 15 D Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
The data refers to education for pre-school parents so the strategy is BIO12–14 Band 2
education campaigns. There is no mention of any other strategies in
the data.
Question 16 A Mod 7 Infectious Disease
Innate immunity relates only to the non-specific barriers to entry of the BIO12–13 Band 3
pathogen. The barriers are not specific to macroorganisms and no
antibodies are produced. Individual factors that fight pathogens are
too general.
Vaccination reduces the number of hosts in a population to in turn BIO12–13 Band 5
reduce the viability of the pathogen. Failing to immunise offers no
protection. The term does not relate to cows literally and does not relate
to people who have had the disease.
Copyright © 2019 Neap TENBIO_SS_19.FM 3


performance bands
Question 18 D Mod 7 Infectious Disease
Koch was not looking for a cure to smallpox, nor was he directly BIO12–13 Band 4
investigating methods of vaccination. He was developing what would
become his postulates for linking a specific pathogen to a specific
disease. Pasteur was investigating the presence of microbes in air and,
while the other options relate to his experimental method, they are not
the purpose of the investigation.
A vector is the entity that transports the pathogen but does not become BIO12–13 Band 3
the pathogen. While some pathogens can exist outside a cell, this does
not relate to the function of a vector.
Question 20 B Mod 7 Infectious Disease
The implanted tissue is made up of foreign cells. While all responses BIO12–13 Band 4
except for D relate to the immune response, only B relates to the attack
on the transplanted tissue.

Section II
Syllabus content, outcomes, targeted

Sample answer
performance bands and marking guide
Question 21
Mod 5 Cell Replication
Hormonal control Hormonal BIO12–12 Bands 2–5
Fertilisation Implantation
of pregnancy control of birth • Draws a table with headings.
For example, AND
progesterone • Gives features of all FOUR of:
This is the
increases blood This involves • fertilisation
adherence
flow to the womb. oxytocin,
This is the (sticking) of • implantation
oestrogen,
union of two a fertilised • hormonal control of pregnancy
(It also stimulates progesterone and
gametes (sex egg to a • hormonal control of birth . . . . . . . . . 4
glands in the prostaglandin.
cells) – eggs surface in the
womb to produce For example,
(female) and reproductive
nutrients that oxytocin induces • Draws a table with headings.
sperm (male). tract, (usually
sustain the early uterine muscles AND
to the uterine
embryo and to contract.
wall). • Gives THREE sets of features . . . . . . . . . 3
helps to establish
the placenta.)
• Draws a table with headings.
AND
• Gives TWO sets of features . . . . . . . . . . . 2
• Gives some relevant information . . . . . . . 1

Question 22
(a) Mod 5 DNA and Polypeptide Synthesis
BIO12–5, BIO12–12 Band 2
Base guanine thymine cytosine adenine • Gives FOUR correct bases. . . . . . . . . . . . 2
Complementary
cytosine adenine guanine thymine • Gives at least TWO correct bases . . . . . . 1
base
(b) The overall structure of DNA is made up of two strands that are Mod 5 DNA and Polypeptide Synthesis
linked together like rungs on a ladder. These strands are twisted BIO12–12 Bands 2–6
into a double helix. Each strand is made up of nucleotides • Gives a detailed description.
(A, C, G and T), which match up with their complementary AND
bases. Adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with • Uses the Watson and Crick model . . . . . . 3
guanine. The two strands are held together by (weak) hydrogen
bonds. Watson and Crick proposed that in replication, DNA • Gives a sound description.
opens down the centre of the two strands – resembling a zipper AND
coming apart. Each exposed strand is used as a template on • Uses the Watson and Crick model . . . . . . 2
which a new DNA strand is built, following the complementary
base sequence. Again, the pairs of strands are held together by • Gives a sound description . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
hydrogen bonds.


Sample answer
Question 23
There are some similarities in the techniques used in DNA sequencing Mod 5 DNA and Polypeptide Synthesis
and DNA profiling (fingerprinting). DNA sequencing determines the BIO12–7, BIO12–12 Bands 2–6
order of nucleotides (AGTC) in DNA. It enables the mapping of the • Describes features of DNA sequencing.
genome (genetic makeup) of a species. DNA profiling, on the other AND
hand, identifies the unique genome of individuals. • Describes features of DNA profiling.
DNA sequencing tends to be used by scientists investigating the AND
sequence of a piece of DNA to understand more about its function. • Gives comparison of the
Sequencing uses electrophoresis to separate pieces of DNA that differ two technologies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5–6
in length by only one base. DNA profiling first makes many copies of
a short stretch of DNA and then also uses electrophoresis. DNA • Describes features of DNA sequencing.
profiling uses repetitive sequences of DNA that are extremely variable, OR
and unrelated individuals are unlikely to have the same sequences. • Describes features of DNA profiling.
AND
DNA sequencing is more expensive and slower than DNA profiling but • Gives comparison of the
gives more information. DNA sequencing can be used to decide if a two technologies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3–4
sample came from a particular person, or to identify the parents of a
child. Knowledge of the genome has the potential to help diagnose and • Describes features of DNA sequencing.
find therapies for inherited diseases. DNA profiling does not provide OR
information about an individual’s complete DNA sequence. It tends • Describes features of DNA profiling . . . . 2
to be used in forensic science to match samples with those of
suspects or victims of crimes. It can also be used to determine genetic • Gives some relevant information . . . . . . . 1
family relationships.
Question 24
The entire set of genes in an organism is known as its genotype. This Mod 6 Mutation
instructs how the organism grows and develops. The physical BIO12–7, BIO12–12 Bands 2–6
appearance and biochemical characteristics of an organism are the • Defines the term ‘genes’.
phenotype. These traits in humans include height, eye colour and blood AND
type. Phenotypic expression in an individual is a result of the • Defines the term ‘phenotype’.
interaction of its genotype and the environment. AND
Some traits (for example, eye colour) are completely determined by • Assesses the effect of genes.
genotype. Others are easily altered by the environment, such as height AND
and weight (which are affected by nutrition). • Assesses the effect
of environment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4–5
Genetically identical individuals can show variations in phenotype.
These include the different fingerprint patterns of identical twins, as • Any THREE of the above points . . . . . . . 3
well as different coat patterns exhibited by some animals. Cloned
animals can show different coat patterns and personalities. • Any TWO of the above points . . . . . . . . . 2
The sex of some fish and vertebrates can be determined as genotypic,
or it can be temperature-dependent; the ambient temperature during • Any ONE of the above points. . . . . . . . . . 1
sensitive periods of early development of these species determines
whether an individual becomes male or female.


Sample answer
Question 25
(a) Mod 6 Inheritance Patterns in a
Population/Mutation
12.0
BIO12–6, BIO12–13 Bands 2–5
10.0 • Uses an appropriate scale.
line of best fit AND
fold increase
8.0
• Plots points accurately.
6.0 AND
• Draws a line of best fit.
4.0
AND
2.0 • Labels the axes. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
0.0 • Any THREE of the above points . . . . . . . 2
≤24
25–29
30–34
35–39
40–44
45–49
50–54
• Any TWO of the above points . . . . . . . . . 1
age ranges (years)
(b) The (very small) chance of having a child with achondroplasia Mod 6 Mutation
increases with the age of the parents. BIO12–13 Band 2
• Gives an appropriate hypothesis . . . . . . . 1
(c) (i) mutagens Mod 6 Mutation
BIO12–13 Band 2
• Gives correct name . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
(ii) Any two of: Mod 6 Mutation
• some chemicals BIO12–13 Band 2
• Gives TWO factors . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
• electromagnetic radiation (for example, gamma rays,
X-rays and ultra-violet light)
• increased temperature
Question 26
(a) A range of sources were used. These included textbooks Mod 6 Genetic Techniques
specific to the course from major scholastic publishers. BIO12–5, BIO12–13 Bands 2–4
Websites selected were preferably from educational • Gives at least TWO ways used
organisations. Any websites used were checked to see if they to ensure validity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
agreed with other sites and were up-to-date.
• Gives ONE way used to
ensure validity . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1


Sample answer
(b) An ethical use is one that conforms to society’s rules or Mod 6 Genetic Techniques
standards. Biotechnology uses organisms and biological BIO12–7, BIO12–13 Bands 2–4
processes to make products intended to improve the quality • Defines the term ‘ethical’.
of human life. It can be as simple as the cross-breeding of AND
plants and animals, but in recent years has become much • Analyses ethical uses of biotechnology.
more sophisticated. AND
There are wide ranges of opinion as to what is ‘ethical’ and • Gives at least TWO examples . . . . . . . 4–5
what is not. Most areas of biotechnology have professional
• Defines the term ‘ethical’.
bodies to judge on ethical issues. However, these may not
AND
always match community expectations, which can differ in
• Analyses ethical uses of biotechnology.
various parts of the world.
AND
The following examples are areas of biotechnology that are • Gives ONE example . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
usually viewed as being ethical: development of pest-resistant
grains, getting organisms to produce new drugs, producing • Describes ethical uses of biotechnology.
vaccines using the eggs of hens and the development of new AND
biofuels for vehicles. • Gives ONE example . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
Using stem cells to regenerate damaged human tissues and
perhaps regrow entire organs is not always agreed by all to be • Gives some relevant information . . . . . . . 1
an ethical way to use human material. Human cloning and gene
editing of human embryos is illegal in many countries and there
seems to be a broad consensus amongst scientists that it is
unethical. However, it has been reported that these procedures
have been carried out (Sataline and Sample 2018, ‘Scientist in
China defends human embryo gene editing’, The Guardian,
https://www.theguardian.com/science/2018/nov/28/scientist-in-
china-defends-human-embryo-gene-editing). Another unethical
use of biotechnology is the production of ‘bioweapons’ – for
example, bacteria and viruses that can cause disease and death.
Biotechnology, like most technologies, has the potential to
help humanity and also cause harm. It is important that all
aspects should be considered to see that they conform to
ethical standards.
Question 27
(a) Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
pancreas increases the release of BIO12–15 Bands 2–4
insulin (and decreases glucagon) • Draws diagram showing all FOUR of:
• increase in blood sugar levels
blood sugar level rises • pancreas releasing insulin
• glucose being converted to glycogen,
glucose in the blood is lowering the blood sugar
converted to glycogen • a feedback loop presentation . . . . . . . 4
person consumes • Any THREE of the above features . . . . . . 3

sugar-rich food
• Any TWO of the above features. . . . . . . . 2
normal blood sugar
• Any ONE of the above features . . . . . . . . 1


Sample answer
(b) Blood sugar is increasing away from the normal state, so the Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
body responds by increasing insulin to reduce the blood sugar. BIO12–15 Band 4
This means the body is having a negative response to the • Demonstrates how the response is
change (increased blood sugar) to return to normal levels. The negative (by reversing the action
body responds in this way to achieve a constant internal taking place).
environment (homeostasis). AND
• Explains that this action returns the
body to a normal state – that is,
normal blood sugar.
AND
• Refers to this being a part of
maintaining homeostasis . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
• Demonstrates how the response is

negative (by reversing the action
taking place).
AND
• Explains that this action returns the
body to a normal state – that is,
normal blood sugar . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
• Demonstrates how the response is

negative (by reversing the action
taking place). . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
Question 28
First question: Do you play a lot of sports? Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
This is important as wearing glasses may be difficult if the child is very BIO12–15 Bands 3–4
active, and they may prefer to wear contact lenses or have surgery. • States TWO relevant questions with
TWO relevant explanations . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Second question: How do you feel about placing something on the
surface of your eye? For example, how do you feel when eye drops are • States TWO relevant questions with
put in your eyes? ONE relevant explanation . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
This is important as a child may have difficulty in handling the contact
lenses close to their eye. It may cause so much stress that contact lenses • States TWO relevant questions . . . . . . . . 2
become impractical.
• States ONE relevant question . . . . . . . . . 1
Question 29
(a) Asbestos is a the harmful substance that causes mesothelioma. Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
BIO12–15 Band 2
• Identifies a substance.
AND
• States the corresponding disease . . . . . . . 2
• Identifies a substance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
(b) The incidence of mesothelioma in Australia is between Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
700 and 800 new cases per year. The mortality rate is BIO12–15 Band 3
approximately 94%. • Provides data for the incidence
AND mortality . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
• Provides data for the incidence

OR mortality . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
(c) Wearing protective clothing and masks on worksites that have Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
asbestos would ensure that people would not breathe in the BIO12–15 Band 4
asbestos dust that damages lungs. • States a relevant strategy . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1


Sample answer
(d) Initially those responsible for producing the materials Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
containing asbestos denied any knowledge of the danger. This BIO12–15 Band 3
meant that it was harder to prove that it was the building • States an advantage. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
material that was causing the disease.
Epidemiology provided evidence of the link between the
exposure to asbestos and the incidence of mesothelioma. It
made a link between a specific type of work and the disease.
Question 30
(a) Obesity is caused by excessive kilojoule intake. It contributes to Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
many conditions – for example, high blood pressure. BIO12–15 Bands 2–3
(Genetic conditions causing obesity are very rare.) • Identifies a nutritional disease.
AND
• Outlines an impact of the disease . . . . . . . 2
• Identifies a nutritional disease . . . . . . . . . 1

(b) A person could reduce their kilojoule intake and increase their Mod 8 Non-infectious Disease
activity to burn kilojoules in order to reduce the impact of BIO12–15 Bands 2–3
the obesity. • Describes the treatment of the disease . . . 1
Question 31
(a) A prion is a non-cellular pathogen. Mod 7 Infectious Disease
BIO12–14 Bands 1–2
• Identifies an example of a
non-cellular pathogen . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
(b) Prions are altered proteins. They do not have any cellular Mod 7 Infectious Disease
structure and are not living. BIO12–14 Bands 1–2
• Explains the classification of
the pathogen . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
• Describes the classification of

the pathogen . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
(c) Pathogenic prions cause proteins they come in contact with to Mod 7 Infectious Disease
change shape. These prions are found in tissue of the nervous BIO12–14 Bands 3–4
system. They are consumed or can be transmitted via surgical • Describes transmission of
equipment. They may also be passed on via corneal transplants. the pathogen . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
• Identifies ONE detail of transmission

of the pathogen . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
(d) As prions are not living, they do not have specific adaptations Mod 7 Infectious Disease
in an evolutionary sense. They are just chemicals that enter cells BIO12–14 Band 4
through pores in cell membranes (protein channels). • Outlines an adaptation related to
entry into a host . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
• Identifies a feature related to entry

into a host . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1


Sample answer
Question 32
Myrtle rust is a disease that affects Australian plants such as bottlebrush Mod 7 Infectious Disease
and tea tree. The fungus that causes the disease, Austropuccinia psidii, BIO12–14 Band 3
is an introduced species. It results in deformed leaves, heavy defoliation • States a fungal disease of plants.
of branches and stunted growth. AND
• Describes evidence of an infection
in an Australian plant . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
• States a fungal disease of plants.

AND
• States ONE example of evidence of an
infection in an Australian plant . . . . . . . . 2
• States a fungal disease of plants . . . . . . . 1

Question 33
Florence Nightingale found that many soldiers died while hospitalised Mod 7 Infectious Disease
during the Crimean War, but not from their injuries – instead it was BIO12–14 Bands 4–5
from infection. She insisted on cleanliness in wards, with quick • Describes a strategy from history to
removal of human waste and fresh water supply. She also ensured that prevent disease.
windows were open to allow fresh air to flow through the wards. This AND
was before Pasteur had conducted his famous experiments proving that • Makes a statement to evaluate
microbes lived in the air. These methods were successful as they the strategy.
improved the survival rates of patients, removing the environment in AND
which pathogens could multiply. • Provides evidence that the strategy
was effective . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
• Identifies a strategy from history to

prevent disease.
AND
• Makes a statement to evaluate
the strategy.
AND
• Provides evidence that the strategy
was effective . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3

prevent disease.
AND
• Makes a statement to evaluate
the strategy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2

prevent disease. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1


Sample answer
Question 34
The B cells are exposed to cytokines produced by helper T cells, which Mod 7 Infectious Disease
stimulate differentiation of the B cells. The B cells then become plasma BIO12–14 Bands 4–5
cells and produce antibodies specific to the antigen. Some B cells • Describes the response in relation to
differentiate to become helper B cells. This has a great impact on the plasma cells AND helper B cells.
individual’s ability to fight diseases, as the helper B cells will rapidly AND
become plasma B cells on any subsequent exposure to the antigen. • Links the response to the reduced
impact of the pathogen . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
• Describes the response in relation to

plasma cells OR helper B cells.
AND
• Links the response to the reduced
• Identifies a response.
AND
• Links the response to the reduced
• Identifies a response . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1
Question 35
Antiviral medication works in various ways – for example, binding to a Mod 7 Infectious Disease
host cell’s receptor site to prevent the virus from entering the cell. The BIO12–14 Bands 4–5
medication does not attack the virus directly, but it disrupts its life • Describes how ONE pharmaceutical
cycle. Antiviral medication has been used to treat influenza A. As strategy works.
antiviral medication only prevents the infection from getting worse, it AND
is important to take the medication early. Some antiviral medication for • Assesses its effectiveness . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
influenza A has been found to reduce the mortality rate of the infection.
• Describes how ONE pharmaceutical
strategy works. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1


Sample answer
Question 36
Artificial insemination is used in animals (including humans) and Mod 6 Genetic Techniques
works by placing sperm (from a donor) into a female’s cervix, where an BIO12–7, BIO12–12 Bands 2–6
ovum (egg) is fertilised and achieves a pregnancy. The offspring has • Compares the processes of all
50% of their genes come from one parent and 50% from the other, and THREE technologies.
so has a different genotype from both. This technology is often used in AND
animal breeding and can be used to produce individuals with desired • Compares the outcomes of all
characteristics. It is also used as a fertility treatment for humans. THREE technologies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6–7
Artificial pollination is used in plants and involves humans placing
selected pollen (male sex cells) into contact with ovules (female sex • Compares the processes of
cells) to eventually form seeds. It can be used either to increase genetic TWO technologies.
diversity or to maintain a genetically uniform population, depending on AND
the source of the pollen. If the pollen comes from another plant then the • Compares the outcomes of
seed will have a genotype derived from both. If pollen from the same TWO technologies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4–5
plant is used then there is less genetic diversity.
• Outlines the processes of
To clone a whole organism, scientists remove the nucleus from a TWO technologies.
somatic (body) cell. This is then injected into an empty, unfertilised AND
ovum (egg). This egg contains all of the cellular mechanisms necessary • Outlines the outcomes of
to produce an embryo. The process of cell division is allowed to TWO technologies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
continue until it develops into an early-stage embryo. This is then
implanted into the egg donor (or a surrogate) and it grows into a foetus. • Outlines the processes of
The resulting offspring has the exact same genetic make-up as the TWO technologies.
original somatic cell. OR
These three methods all create new life, but in different ways. All • Outlines the outcomes of
have differences from the ‘natural’ ways of reproduction, both in TWO technologies . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
how they are carried out and the genotypes (and hence phenotypes) of
the offspring. • Gives some relevant information . . . . . . . 1

Student Name:……………………….
2019 Higher School Certificate

Trial Examination
Biology
General Instructions Reading time – 5 minutes

• Working time – 3 hours
Total marks:
100 This paper has two parts, Part A and Part B
Part A – 20 marks
• Attempt Questions 1-20
• Allow about 35 minutes for this part
Part B – 80 marks
• Attempt Questions 21-34
• Allow about 2 hour and 25 minutes for this part
Disclaimer
Every effort has been made to prepare this Examination in accordance with the NSW Education Standards Authority documents. No guarantee or
warranty is made or implied that the Examination paper mirrors in every respect the actual HSC Examination question paper in this course. This paper
does not constitute ‘advice’ nor can it be construed as an authoritative interpretation of NSW Education Standards Authority intentions. No liability for
any reliance, use or purpose related to this paper is taken. Advice on HSC examination issues is only to be obtained from the NSW Education
Standards Authority. The publisher does not accept any responsibility for accuracy of papers which have been modified.
BIOTR19 _EXAM
1
Part A – 20 marks
Allow about 35 minutes for this part
Use the multiple-choice answer sheet provided for Questions 1-20
1 The following nucleotide sequence forms part of the template strand of a gene coding
for a protein.
TACGAGTAT
In a double-stranded molecule formed from this DNA template strand (shown above),
what is the number of deoxyribose sugar units you would expect to find?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 18
(D) 36
2 In DNA replication, what role does the enzyme DNA polymerase have?
(A) It adds nucleotides to a DNA strand.

(B) It adds RNA primers to a DNA strand.
(C) It reconnects complimentary base pairs in the DNA double helix.
(D) It unwinds the DNA double helix.
BIOTR19_EXAM 2
3 The diagram below is of a biological process involved in
protein synthesis.
What is the correct identification of the process, structure K

and group H?
Process Structure K Group H
(A) Transcription chromosome anticodon
(B) Translation ribosome anticodon
(C) Transcription chromosome codon
(D) Translation ribosome codon
4 Yellow and brown spots appear on the leaves of a farmer’s vineyard which affects her
harvest of grapes for the season. The Department of Primary Industries investigates and
finds the pathogen that infected the plants has cells with a true nucleus, mitochondria
and a cell wall made of chitin and is therefore a:
(A) bacteria.
(B) fungi.
(C) protozoan.
(D) virus.
5 What are all the alleles in a population referred to as?
(A) A gene pool

(B) A genome
(C) A genotype
(D) A loci
BIOTR19_EXAM Page 3
6 Which of the following is true of populations?
(A) Allele frequencies remain constant if the number of individuals leaving the
population equals the number of individuals entering it.
(B) Genetic drift will have less effect in a large population compared to a small
population.
(C) The bottleneck effect enables a population to become better equipped for future
changes in the environment.
(D) Some organisms develop mutations in order to better suit them to their
environment compared to other members of the population.
7 One of the main aims of diabetes treatment is to keep blood glucose levels within a
specified target range. What is the correct response to the stimulus?
Stimulus Response Hormone involved

(A) Blood sugar levels rise Liver releases glucose Insulin
(B) Blood sugar levels rise Liver takes up glucose Insulin
and stores it as glycogen
(C) Blood sugar level falls Body cells take up more Glucagon
glucose
(D) Blood sugar level falls Liver releases glucose Glucagon
8 Which of the following cells are responsible for producing antibodies?
(A) Lymphocytes
(B) Macrophages
(C) Phagocytes
(D) Red blood cells
9 What is meant by the term homeostasis?
(A) The process in which blood glucose levels are kept constant.
(B) The process in which the body responds to external influences.
(C) The process in which internal conditions are kept within a tolerable range.
(D) The process in which the internal conditions are kept the same.
BIOTR19_EXAM Page 4
10 X-rays are a form of ionising radiation that:
(A) repairs genes and decreases the mutation rate.

(B) damages genes and decreases the mutation rate.
(C) repairs genes and increases the mutation rate.
(D) damages genes and increases the mutation rate.
11 A serious outbreak of a new strain of measles occurs in a high school. What is the best
method of preventing the measles from spreading to the rest of the states’ population?
(A) To keep all students at school until everyone has recovered.

(B) To send staff out to obtain antiviral medication.
(C) To disinfect all eateries, desks and recreational areas in the school.
(D) To bring in medical officers to vaccinate people in the school.
12 The Inflammatory response is a fundamental type of response by the body to infection

and injury, a response characterised by the classical signs of localised warmth, redness,
and swelling. This response:
(A) includes phagocyte migration to the site of the injury.

(B) involves the production of plasma cells and antibodies.
(C) involves the secretion of antimicrobial secretions by the skin.
(D) is specific for the type of foreign body which has invaded.
BIOTR19_EXAM Page 5
13
What will the cloned lambs most likely look like?
(A) The egg donor.

(B) The somatic cell donor.
(C) The foster mother.
(D) A cross between the egg donor and somatic cell donor.
14 In genetic engineering, plant viruses are sometimes used to introduce a foreign gene
into a plant cell. Why is this?
(A) Because viruses are able to infect the cell and combine their genetic material
with that of the cell.
(B) Because viruses are able to infect the cell and produce a large number of
viruses.
(C) Because viruses are easy to culture and modify in the laboratory.
(D) Because viruses are non-living and therefore there are no ethical issues with
using them.
BIOTR19_EXAM Page 6
15
The sketch represents a process which may occur during meiosis. The process is:
(A) sex-linkage and involves the segregation of non-homologous chromosomes to

different poles.
(B) crossing over and involves segregation of homologous chromosomes to
different poles.
(C) sex- linkage and involves the exchange of alleles between non-homologous
chromosomes.
(D) crossing over and involves the exchange of alleles between homologous
chromosomes.
16 Which of the following is a plant defence against pathogens?
(A) Pathogen specific antibodies are produced.

(B) Large spines prevent bacteria and fungi from gaining entry.
(C) The production of antimicrobial proteins and enzymes.
(D) Yellowing of leaves and stem and increased sap flow.
17 A Bilby, (Macrotis lagotis), is a small mammal. On a cold, windy day it may use which
of the following physiological actions to keep warm?
(A) Burrowing
(B) Hibernation
(C) Sweating
(D) Vasoconstriction
BIOTR19_EXAM Page 7
18 Below is a picture seen through healthy eyes and the same picture seen through eyes
affected by cataracts.
In which part of the eye do cataracts form?
(A) The cornea

(B) The iris
(C) The lens
(D) The retina
19 What adaptation in Australian desert plants, which allows water balance to be

maintained, include?
(A) Broad leaves to capture dew during the night.

(B) During the heat of the day, stomata stay open to allow photosynthesis and the
manufacture of water.
(C) Stomates are found in pits creating a humid environment above the guard cells.
(D) Stomates are located on the outside surface of curled leaves.
BIOTR19_EXAM Page 8
20 Which of the following correctly indicates a function of each hormone in the menstrual
cycle?
LH FSH Progesterone Oestrogen

(A) Stops FSH Maintains the Causes the mature Prepares the
being lining of the egg to be released uterus to receive a
produced uterus during the from the ovary fertillised ovum
middle of the
menstrual cycle
(B) Maintains the Stimulates the Causes an egg to Causes the mature
lining of the pituatary gland to mature in the egg to be released
uterus during release LH ovary from the ovary
the middle of
the menstrual
cycle
(C) Causes the Causes an egg to Prepares the Stimulates the
mature egg to mature in the uterus to receive a pituatary gland to
be released ovary fertillised ovum release LH
from the ovary
(D) Stimulates the Prepares the Stops FSH being Maintains the
ovaries to uterus to receive a produced lining of the
release fertillised ovum uterus during the
oestrogen middle of the
menstrual cycle
BIOTR19_EXAM Page 9
Part B – 80 marks
Allow about 2 hours and 25 minutes for this part
Answer the questions in the spaces provided. These spaces provide guidance for the expected
length of response.
Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.
The diagram shows a sequence of events in the asexual reproduction of hydra.
(a) Identify the type of asexual reproduction shown. 1
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Question 21 continues on the next page
BIOTR19_EXAM Page 10
(b) Compare external and internal fertilisation. 4
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End of Question 21
II
III
The pedigree above shows the inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis (CF). People with CF
produce mucus that is abnormally thick and sticky that can damage body organs,
especially the lungs, and leads to chronic infections and death may occur from
respiratory failure. Individual I2 has CF but her husband I1 does not.
(a) Is Cystic Fibrosis a dominant or recessive trait? Show working. 2
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(b) What is the genotype of individual II 4? 1
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(c) Outline a genetic technique which could be used to treat a genetic disorder like 3
Cystic Fibrosis?
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End of Question 22
Inheritance of some traits in humans may be determined by multiple alleles. Three or

more alternative forms of a gene can occupy the same locus. However, only two of
the alleles can be present in a single organism. For example, the ABO system of blood
groups is controlled by three alleles, only two of which are present in an individual.
(a) What is the probability that a couple who are both AB could have an O blood group 2
child?
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(b) Describe the use of Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) in forensics and DNA 4
fingerprinting to solve crimes for evidence in court cases.
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End of Question 23
In 30 years, the world’s population is estimated to grow ahead of what our food supply can
support.
Evaluate the benefits of using genetic technologies in agriculture. 4
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End of Question 24
Pathogens can be cellular (living) or acellular (non-living).
(a) Complete the table below of pathogens. 2
Pathogen Type Example Distinguishing Feature
Cellular
Acellular
For centuries little was known about the transmission of disease and limited
technology meant that even less was know of the pathogens that caused the
infections.
The experiment above is a simplistic version of one conducted in the 1870’s to

determine the causative pathogen of a disease.
(b) Identify the person that conducted these experiments. 1
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(c) Outline the steps taken by this person to identify the causative pathogen of a 4
disease.
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End of Question 25
A B
C
D
The diagrams above show the four levels of protein structure.
(a) Complete the table below of correct protein structure at the level represented. 2
Protein Diagram Protein Structure at the Level Represented

A
B
C
D
(b) Explain how the structure of a named protein is related to its function. 4
Protein ……………….………………………………………………………………..
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End of Question 26
Baloxavir marboxil (xuofluxa) and Aminomethyl spectinomycins are examples of

newly developed pharmaceuticals. The continued development of antiviral and
antibiotics is essential for good health.
(a) Describe the action of antiviral and antibiotic pharmaceuticals in the management 3
of infectious disease.
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(b) It has long been argued that the forests of the Amazon should be conserved as 3
there may still be undiscovered plants of medicinal value. In the same way it is
now argued that Indigenous cultural and intellectual property should be
conserved.
Discuss the importance of preserving Indigenous traditional knowledge of

medicines and biological materials.
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End of Question 27
Point mutations can be silent, nonsense or missense.
(a) Define point mutation. Use a diagram to illustrate your answer. 2
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(b) Compare somatic mutations and germ-line mutations and their effect on an 4
organism.
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(c) How does meiosis cause genetic variation in an embryo? 2
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End of Question 28
Below is a map constructed by Dr Snow (1854) to plot the deaths from a cholera outbreak in the
Soho area of London. It was attributed to a contaminated well in Broad Street and was
considered to be one of the first epidemiological studies ever conducted.
With reference to an example studied evaluate the benefits of engaging in an epidemiological

study of a non-infectious disease. 7
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End of Question 29
A recent spate of measles infections is on track to make 2019 Australia’s second-

highest year for measles’ reports since 1997. On current trends, measles’ infections
will top 300 cases.
Vaccination programs and Public Health Campaigns do help prevent the spread of
diseases like measles. Justify this statement.
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End of Question 30
(a) For an identified transgenic species outline why it was produced. 2
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(b) Discuss the social and ethical implications of developing transgenic species. 3
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End of Question 31
The structure below is one of many microscopic filtration and reabsorption units found
in a kidney. The kidney’s osmoregulation and the excretion of metabolic wastes.
(a) Identify the structure labelled W. 1
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(b) Evaluate the effectiveness of dialysis technology to assist with the excretion of 4
metabolic wastes.
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End of Question 32
As part of the Biology course you have researched a genetic disorder in

humans.
1
(a) State the name of the disease studied. 1
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(b) Identify symptoms of the disease? 1
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(c) Outline the cause of the disease. 2
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End of Question 33
The collection of data that shows the incidence, prevalence and mortality rates of non-infectious
diseases must come from a reliable source.
(a) Define prevalence. 1
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(b) How did you ensure your data was from reliable sources? 3
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End of Question 34
End of Paper
BLANK PAGE
BIOLOGY – MULTIPLE-CHOICE ANSWER SHEET
ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS
Question 1 A B C D
2 A B C D
3 A B C D
4 A B C D
5 A B C D
6 A B C D
7 A B C D
8 A B C D
9 A B C D
10 A B C D
11 A B C D
12 A B C D
13 A B C D
14 A B C D
15 A B C D
16 A B C D
17 A B C D
18 A B C D
19 A B C D
20 A B C D
2019 Higher School Certificate Trial Examination
Biology
Marking Guidelines
Part A
Multiple-choice Answer Key
Question Answer
1 C
2 A
3 B
4 B
5 A
6 B
7 D
8 A
9 C
10 D
11 D
12 A
13 B
14 A
15 D
16 C
17 D
18 C
19 C
20 C
Disclaimer
Every effort has been made to prepare this Examination in accordance with the NSW Education Standards Authority documents. No guarantee or warranty
is made or implied that the Examination paper mirrors in every respect the actual HSC Examination question paper in this course. This paper does not
constitute ‘advice’ nor can it be construed as an authoritative interpretation of NSW Education Standards Authority intentions. No liability for any
reliance, use or purpose related to this paper is taken. Advice on HSC examination issues is only to be obtained from the NSW Education Standards
Authority. The publisher does not accept any responsibility for accuracy of papers which have been modified.
BIOTR19_GUIDELINES 1
Part B
Question 21 (a)
Criteria Mark
● Correctly identifies the form of asexual reproduction 1
Sample answer
Budding.
Question 21 (b)
Criteria Marks
● Identifies differences between internal and external fertilisation 4
● Identifies a similarity between internal and external fertilisation
● Identifies a difference between internal and external fertilisation 3
● Identifies a similarity between internal and external fertilisation
● Identifies a feature of internal fertilisation 2
● Identifies a feature of external fertilisation
● Identifies a feature of internal fertilisation OR identifies a feature of external
fertilisation 1
Sample answer
Both internal and external fertilisation result in the union of male and female gametes.
Fertilisation occurs inside the female for internal fertilisation. External fertilisation requires
water to bring the gametes together and a large number of gametes are produced with little
energy expenditure. Survival rate is higher for embryos produced by internal fertilisation,
more energy is expended but more care is given for offspring and water is not required to
transport male gametes to female gametes.
Question 22 (a)
Criteria Marks
● Identifies the trait is recessive
2
● Shows correct working and use of a punnet square
● Shows some working or a partial punnet square
1
OR identifies the trait is recessive
Sample answer
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition. The cross between II3 and II4 is evidence
that this is the case. If the disease was dominant, then these two individuals who are both
recessive could not have a dominant child III10.
If c – normal and C is cystic fibrosis assuming that it is dominant. The cross between II3 and
II4 is:
c c
c cc cc
c cc cc
All the offspring of this cross are normal and individual III10 is not homozygous recessive.
Question 22 (b)
Criteria Mark
● Correctly identifies the genotype of individual II 4 1
Sample answer
Cc given that the gene for cystic fibrosis is recessive.
Question 22 (c)
Criteria Marks
● Sketches in general terms features of a named genetic technique 3
● Identifies a genetic technique
2
● States a feature of the genetic technique
● Identifies a genetic technique 1
Sample answer
Gene therapy is a process in which a new, correct version of the mucus gene would be placed
into the cells in a person's respiratory tract. Although the mutant copies of the mucus gene
would still be there, the presence of the correct copy would give cells the ability to make
normal proteins. The normal gene would be inserted into the DNA of a retrovirus. The virus
would be delivered by an inhaler. The virus would need to be re-administered periodically.
Question 23 (a)
Criteria Marks
● Shows correct working and use of a punnet square 2
● Identifies that there is no probability that an O child will be produced
● Shows some working or a partial punnet square OR identifies that there is no 1
probability that an O child will be produced
Sample answer
iA iB
A
i iA iA iA i B
iB iA iB iB i B
The phenotype ratios are 25% A, 50% AB and 25% B. No O child could result.
Question 23 (b)
Criteria Marks
● Provides characteristics and features of SNP’s and their usefulness in solving 4
crimes
● Sketches in general terms features of SNP’s and their usefulness 3
● Identifies features of SNP’s 2
● Identifies a feature of SNP’s 1
Sample answer
Single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) are single base pair variations in the genome. There
are millions in the human genome, and they have a low mutation rate. They are smaller
fragments of DNA and analysing them is easier than with short tandem repeats. This is
important in degraded DNA samples. Some SNPs cause a change of phenotype. Most of the
variations in humans are SNPs. If there are millions of SNPs and each person has many
different SNPs then it would be unlikely that two people in a population would have exactly
the same ones and this means these can be used as genetic markers and used in forensics and
profiling.
Question 24
Criteria Marks
● Identifies genetic technologies used in agriculture 4
● Sketches in general terms the use and benefits of genetic technology in
agriculture
● Justifies the use of genetic technology in agriculture
● Identifies genetic technologies used in agriculture 3
● States benefits of genetic technology used in agriculture
● Justifies the use of genetic technology in agriculture
● Identifies a genetic technology used in agriculture 2
● States a benefit of genetic technology in agriculture
● Identifies a genetic technology used in agriculture OR states a benefit of genetic 1
technology used in agriculture
Sample answer
Genetically modified plants where a gene from one organism is inserted into the genome of
another using restriction enzymes. Cloning produces genetically identical individuals or
copies of cells or DNA fragments. This means that the same product can be consistently
produced. These technologies should be used as they increase crop/animal yield. Some
developments offer resistance against disease and protection against insect attack which
reduces the reliance on insecticides which can have environmental consequences.
Question 25 (a)
Criteria Marks
● States a distinguishing feature of both an acellular and cellular pathogen 2
● Identifies a cellular and an acellular pathogen
● States a distinguishing feature of both an acellular and cellular pathogen OR
identifies a cellular and an acellular pathogen OR identifies a pathogen and a
distinguishing feature 1
Sample answer
Pathogen Type Example Distinguishing Feature(s)

Prokaryotic cells with the cell wall
Cellular Bacteria made of peptidoglycan and circular
DNA or plasmid.
Simple in structure, consisting mainly
Acellular Virus of a nucleic acid surrounded by a
protein envelope called a capsid.
Question 25 (b)
Criteria Mark
● Correctly names the person that conducted the experiment 1
Answer
Robert Koch.
Question 25 (c)
Criteria Marks
● Sketches in general terms all features of Koch’s experiment 4
● Sketches in general terms all features of Koch’s experiment 3
● Identifies features of Koch’s experiment 2
● Identifies a feature of Koch’s experiment 1
Sample answer
1. Koch would have observed the symptoms of affected individuals and noted that they
were identical and that the same symptoms must be present in all cases of the disease.
2. Koch then showed that the pathogen could be isolated from the diseased host
and grown in pure culture.
3. Koch showed that the pathogen from the pure culture causes the same symptoms and
disease when inoculated into a healthy, susceptible laboratory animal.
4. Koch then reisolated the pathogen from the new diseased host and identified it as the
same as the originally inoculated causative pathogen.
Question 26 (a)
Criteria Marks
● Identifies 3 or 4 protein structures 2
● Identifies 1 or 2 protein structures 1
Sample answer
Protein Diagram Protein Structure Represented

A Tertiary
B Secondary
C Primary
D Quaternary
Question 26 (b)
Criteria Marks
● Identifies a protein and states its function 4
● Makes evident the relationship between the structure and function of the
protein
● Sketches in general terms the relationship between the structure and
function
● Identifies a protein 1
Sample answer
Haemoglobin is an iron-containing protein in the blood which binds with and carries oxygen
from the lungs to the tissues. Haemoglobin is composed of four subunits each containing a
haem group that includes an iron atom centre. The main component that binds with oxygen is
the iron. Hence each molecule of haemoglobin is capable of carrying four oxygen molecules.
When the concentration of oxygen becomes low, haemoglobin shows a low affinity towards
oxygen. The lower concentrations and lower affinity means that when we work out, our
body’s oxygen supply becomes less. As haemoglobin shows less affinity towards oxygen,
they can drop off the oxygen releasing it for human tissues. This ensures a good supply of
oxygen when faced with an oxygen dependent situation. Haemoglobin displays a higher
affinity towards oxygen when the oxygen concentration is high and hence will not release
oxygen when not required.
Question 27 (a)
Criteria Marks
● States the target pathogen for antivirals and antibiotics 3
● Provide characteristics and features of an
● States the target pathogen for antivirals and antibiotics 2
● Identifies a feature of their effect on the pathogen
● States the target pathogen for antivirals or antibiotics 1
Sample answer
Antiviral pharmaceuticals act against viruses and antibiotics destroy bacteria. Antiviral
medications act to prevent entry of the virus by binding to receptors that block its entry or
inhibiting enzymes which promote virus reproduction. Antibiotics may disrupt the cell wall.
Others affect protein-building or DNA-copying machinery that is specific to bacteria.
Question 27 (b)
Criteria Marks
• Identifies issues and provide points for preserving Indigenous traditional 3
knowledge of medicine and biological material
• Identifies issues in not preserving Indigenous traditional knowledge of 2
medicine and biological material
• Identifies an issue in not preserving Indigenous traditional knowledge of 1
medicine and biological material
Sample answer
Indigenous Australian bush medicine practices have diverse potential therapeutic prospects.
This cultural knowledge has been passed on through the generations, creating a deep history
that has produced sophisticated fields of medicinal knowledge and could help improve all
aspects of health care. Examples include the Smokebush which was long known to have
healing powers and is now a possible treatment for the HIV virus. Tea tree oil was used to
treat wounds and Witchetty grubs were crushed into a paste and applied to burns. This
knowledge if commercialised could threaten Indigenous cultural heritage.
Question 28 (a)
Criteria Marks
● State the meaning and identify essential qualities of a point mutation 2
● Draws a diagram to indicate a point mutation
● States the meaning of a point mutation OR draws a diagram to indicate a 1
point mutation
Sample answer
A mutation affecting only one or very few nucleotides in a gene sequence.
Question 28 (b)
Criteria Marks
● Shows how somatic cell mutations and germ-line mutations are similar 4
● Shows how somatic cell mutations and germ-line mutations are different
● Shows how somatic cell mutations and germ-line mutations are similar OR 3
shows how somatic cell mutations and germ-line mutations are different
● States a feature of somatic cell mutations 2
● States a feature of germ-line mutations
● States a feature of somatic cell mutations OR states a feature of germ-line 1
mutations
Sample answer
Somatic cell mutations occur in body cells during mitosis and this only affects the individual
or a localised part of an individual. Only tissues derived from mutated cell are affected. These
mutations cannot be inherited by offspring. Germ-line mutations occur in germ cells which
become gametes, and this affects every cell in the entire organism and hence can be inherited
by offspring. Both mutations are a change in the genetic code and bring about a change in the
individual.
Question 28 (c)
Criteria Marks
● Sketches in general terms how meiosis can cause genetic variation in an 2
embryo
● Identifies how meiosis can cause genetic variation in an embryo 1
Sample answer
Genetic variation during meiosis may occur as a result of crossing over or random assortment
of chromosomes. Crossing over involves the exchange of segments of DNA between non-
sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during prophase I. In random assortment
different combinations of maternal or paternal chromosomes can be inherited when bivalents
separate in anaphase I.
Question 29
Criteria Marks
● Provides detailed characteristics and features of an epidemiological study 7
● Makes a judgement about engaging in an epidemiological study of a non-
infectious disease
● Provides characteristics and features of an epidemiological study
investigated
● Describes in general terms features of an epidemiological study
● Makes a judgement about engaging in an epidemiological study of a non- 5-6
infectious disease
● Refers to an epidemiological study
● Identifies features of an epidemiological study
● Makes a judgement about engaging in an epidemiological study of a non- 3-4
infectious disease
● Refers to an epidemiological study
● Defines epidemiology 2
● Identifies a feature of an epidemiological study
● Defines epidemiology 1
Sample answer
Epidemiology is the study of distribution and frequency of non-infectious diseases in a
population for the purpose of the prevention and control of a disease.
There are aspects of disease that must be considered: A description of the disease, its possible
causes, occurrence and transmission. The risk factors that might contribute to the occurrence
of the disease include age, sex, ethnic group and occupation. Control, for example, whether a
substance should be removed from a particular workplace or residence.
Features of a valid epidemiological study:

A statistically significant relationship must be demonstrated between the cause and the
disease. The proposed cause must precede incidence of the disease. The study must be done
on a very large population, with large range in terms of age, race, sex, occupation,
socioeconomic status and geography, for trends to be reliable. Cause/effect relationship must
be independent of other contributing factors, i.e. some subjects have other factors, and some
do not. Subjects should also have various levels of exposure to possible causes. Greater
exposure to the proposed cause should correspond to a greater incidence of the disease. All
these procedures would ensure a rapid response and a greater possibility of a positive outcome
for sufferers of non-infectious diseases.
Question 30
Criteria Marks
● Makes clear the relationship between Vaccination Programs and the 6-7
prevention of the spread of disease
● Makes clear the relationship between Public Health Programs and the
prevention of the spread of disease
● Supports the use of Public Health Campaigns and Vaccination Programs to
prevent the spread of disease
● Sketches in general terms features of Vaccination Programs that help 4-5
● Sketches in general terms features of Public Health Programs that help
● Identifies features of Vaccination Programs 3
● Identifies a feature of Public Health Programs
● Identifies features of Vaccination Programs
● Identifies a feature of Public Health Programs 2
● States the meaning of vaccination OR identifies a feature of Public Health 1
Programs
Sample answer
Public Health Campaigns advertise to the public messages of concern in respect to diseases.
This raises an awareness in the population and informs them of possible preventative
measures and precautions. Free screening programs are offered to enable early detection of
potential disease such as Breast Cancer, Bowel Cancer and even Measles. Immunisation
programs involve administering vaccines so that the individual gains an artificial acquired
immunity. Vaccines are antigens from living, dead, weakened or non-virulent strains of
micro-organisms which are injected or ingested into the body. Vaccinations stimulate the
body to develop resistance through the production of B lymphocytes (memory B cells). The
vaccine brings about a specific immune response. Vaccination is a cheap and safe method of
preventing diseases like Measles.
Most developed countries implement vaccination programs for their population and have thus
stopped the spread and occurrence of many common diseases. In Australia, the incidence of a
number of diseases; the bacterial diseases diphtheria (caused by Corynebacterium
diphtheriae), tetanus (Clostridium tetani) and pertussis (also called whooping cough and
caused by Bordetella pertussis) and the viral diseases measles, mumps and rubella (also called
German measles) – has significantly decreased through the use of vaccines and diseases like
smallpox and polio have been eradicated. The National Health and Medical Research Council
(NHMRC) is responsible for producing the Australian Standard Vaccination Schedule.
However, much of the world (namely the undeveloped and third world) is still unimmunised
and six to eight million child deaths a year are preventable by early immunisation.
Question 31 (a)
Criteria Marks
● Names a transgenic species 2
● Sketches in general terms why the transgenic species was produced
● Names a transgenic species 1
Sample answer
Golden Rice was developed to address the Vitamin A deficiency (VAD) in populations where
rice is the staple food and diversity of diet is limited, as white rice contains no micronutrients.
Question 31 (b)
Criteria Marks
● Sketches in general terms implications of developing transgenic species 3
● Sketches in general terms an implication of developing transgenic species 2
OR identifies implications of developing transgenic species
● Identifies an implication of developing transgenic species 1
Sample answer
Vegans and vegetarians have a right to eat food free of animal products so there needs to be
careful monitoring and labelling of GMO foods. There is concern about the danger these
animals may pose to human beings (usually to human health), rather than any implications for
the animals themselves.
Genetic engineering appears to violate animal rights, because it involves manipulating
animals for human ends as if the animals were nothing more than human property, rather than
treating the animals as being of value in themselves. The Oncomouse was engineered to
contain the human cancer gene and is used in research programs to search for a cure for
human cancer. The Oncomouse only lives for 8 weeks before it dies from cancer.
Recent action to allow animals to be patented reinforces the idea of animals as human
property, rather than beings in their own right. Transgenic Bt cotton is a living organism that
has been patented for the benefit of large multinational companies, not for the benefit of all.
Question 32 (a)
Criteria Mark
● Correctly identifies structure W 1
Answer
Bowman’s capsule.
Question 32 (b)
Criteria Marks
● Provides characteristics and features of dialysis technology and how it 4
assists the excretion of metabolic wastes
● Makes a judgement about the effectiveness of dialysis technology
● Sketches in general terms dialysis technology and how it assists the
excretion of metabolic wastes 3
● Makes a judgement about the effectiveness of dialysis technology
● Identifies features of dialysis technology in assisting with waste excretion 2
● Identifies a feature of dialysis technology in assisting with waste excretion 1
Sample Answer
A patient undergoing dialysis must be attached to a dialysis machine every 3 or 4 days for up
to 6 hours a session. Dialysis utilises membranes (but artificial) which are selectively
permeable. It is a slow process. Useful substances diffuse into the blood from dialysing fluid
and metabolic wastes diffuse out but there is no reabsorption in the dialysis process. There is
also a tendency for salt retention in this process. The constant use of veins for this process
may cause scaring and make it difficult to access blood vessels in the future. Dialysis may be
inconvenient and have side effects but if an organ transplant is not an option then dialysis is a
life-saving process.
Question 33 (a)
Criteria Mark
● Correctly identifies a genetic disorder in humans 1
Answer
Down Syndrome.
Question 33 (b)
Criteria Mark
● States features of the identified human genetic disorder 1
Sample answer
Symptoms may include: Mild to moderate cognitive impairment, problems with thinking and
learning. Wide, short hands with short fingers.
Question 33 (c)
Criteria Marks
● Sketches in general terms the cause of the identified human genetic disorder 2
● States a feature of the cause of the identified human genetic disorder 1
Sample answer
Non-disjunction is the failure of segregation of chromosomes during cell division so that one
daughter cell will have an extra chromosome and the other one less. Down syndrome is a
chromosomal condition that occurs when an error in cell division results in an extra
chromosome 21.
Question 34 (a)
Criteria Mark
● States the meaning of the term prevalence 1
Sample answer
Prevalence refers to the total number of individuals in a population who have a disease
or health condition at a specific period of time, usually expressed as a percentage of the
population.
Question 34 (b)
Criteria Marks
● Sketches in general terms how the reliability of sources 3
● Identifies aspects of the reliability of sources 2
● Identifies an aspect of the reliability of sources 1
Sample answer
The reliability of secondary sources is a measure of the credibility of the information you
come across. One should check if the source comes from a university, government or
scientific institution. The sources need to be supported by evidence and verified by other
literature on the same topic. If the material is current, free of errors, written by a scholar or
someone with expertise in the field then it is reliable.
2019 Higher School Certificate
Mapping Grid
Part A
Question Marks Content Syllabus Outcomes
1 1 5.2.1.2 BIO 12-6, BIO 12-12
2 1 5.2.1.2 BIO 12-12
3 1 5.3.2.1 BIO 12-5, BIO 12-12
4 1 7.1.3.1 BIO 12-14
5 1 6.1.6 BIO 12-7
6 1 6.1.6 BIO 12-7
7 1 8.1.1.2 BIO 12-5, BIO 12-14
8 1 7.3.2 BIO 12-14
9 1 8.1.1 BIO 12-15
10 1 6.1.1.1 BIO 12-13
11 1 7.4.2.3 BIO 12-14
12 1 7.3.1 BIO 12-14
13 1 6.3.3.1 BIO12-5, BIO12-13
14 1 6.3.4.1 BIO 12-13
15 1 5.4.1 BIO 12-12
16 1 7.2.1 BIO 12-14
17 1 8.1.2.1 BIO 12-15
18 1 8.5.1.2 BIO 12-5, BIO 12-15
19 1 8.1.2.3 BIO 12-15
20 1 5.1.2 BIO 12-6, BIO 12-12
Part B
Question Marks Content Syllabus Outcomes
21 (a) 1 5.1.1.3 BIO 12-5, BIO 12-12
21 (b) 4 5.1.1.1 BIO 12-12
22 (a) 2 5.4.2.1 BIO 12-12
22 (b) 1 5.4.2.2 BIO 12-5, BIO 12-6, BIO 12-12
22 (c) 3 6.2.1.1 BIO 12-13
23 (a) 2 5.4.2.2 BIO 12-7, BIO 12-12
23 (b) 4 5.4.3.2 BIO 12-13
24 4 6.3.5 BIO 12-13
25 (a) 2 7.1.1.1 BIO 12-6, BIO 12-7, BIO 12-14
25 (b) 1 7.1.2.1 BIO 12-5, BIO 12-6, BIO 12-14
25 (c) 4 7.1.2.1 BIO 12-5, BIO 12-13
26 (a) 2 5.3.3 BIO 12-6, BIO 12-14
26 (b) 4 5.3.3 BIO 12-13
27 (a) 3 7.4.3.1, 7.4.3.2 BIO 12-14
27 (b) 3 7.4.7.1 BIO 12-7, BIO 12-14
28 (a) 2 6.1.2.1 BIO 12-7, BIO 12-13
28 (b) 4 6.1.3 BIO 12-13
28 (c) 2 6.1.4, 5.4.2 BIO 12-12
29 7 8.3.4 BIO 12-15
30 7 7.4.2.3, 7.4.2.4 BIO 12-5, BIO 12-14
31 (a) 2 6.2.1.1, 6.3.4 BIO 12-13
31 (b) 3 6.2.1.1 BIO 12-13
32 (a) 1 8.5.1.3 BIO 12-5, BIO 12-15
32 (b) 4 8.5.2 BIO 12-15
33 (a) 1 8.2.1.1 BIO 12-15
33 (b) 1 8.2.1.1 BIO 12-15
33 (c) 2 8.2.1.1 BIO 12-15
34 (a) 1 8.2.2 BIO 12-2, BIO 12-15
34 (b) 3 8.2.2 BIO 12-15

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Student ID: __________________________________

Use the multiple-choice answer sheet for Questions 1–20.

1 Which organisms reproduce via binary fission?

2 What type of mutagen is ultraviolet radiation?

Which of the following would best describe the pattern of inheritance?

© Total Education Centre 2019 –2–

5 What is the best description of a mutation occurring in the reproductive tissues of an

What mode of transmission is this?

7 Identify the effector in the negative feedback loop below.

Hand touches hotplate

Arm muscle contracts

Hand moves off

© Total Education Centre 2019 –3–

How can this disease be classed?

9 Hydrangeas are blue in acidic soils and pink in alkaline soils.

What is this an example of?

A. Environment affecting phenotypic expression

10 Which of the following could be considered an ancient form of biotechnology?

11 What is a disadvantage of genetic technologies?

© Total Education Centre 2019 –4–

12 Which of the following is best practice by doctors when prescribing medicine to

A. Tell patient to only take half the course of antibiotics

© Total Education Centre 2019 –5–

What is this an example of?

15 Which shows an appropriate classification of pathogens?

Cellular (living) Non-cellular (non-living)

B. Prokaryotes, fungi, Virus, protozoans, prions

C. Prions, protozoans, fungi, Virus, prokaryotes

16 Which is a component of the adaptive immune system?

© Total Education Centre 2019 –6–

18 Observe the following diagram.

Identify where genetic variation can occur.

© Total Education Centre 2019 –7–

19 Use the graph for Question 19.

Membrane potential (mV)

At what point is the action potential on the graph?

20 An alpine species of rodent was discovered in the Himalayan Mountains.

Which of the following most likely describes its appearance?

A. Rounded body, thick hair and short limbs

© Total Education Centre 2019 –8–

(b) Outline the major steps involved in DNA replication. 4

© Total Education Centre 2019 – 10 –

Describe the response of an Australian plant to a named pathogen. 4

(a) What type of adaptation are these kangaroos exhibiting? 1

© Total Education Centre 2019 – 11 –

(a) Differentiate between mutation and mutagen. 2

(b) Describe how a named mutagen can cause genetic change. 3

© Total Education Centre 2019 – 12 –

Genotype Number of individuals

(a) Construct a punnet square to show a cross between heterozygotes. 2

© Total Education Centre 2019 – 13 –

(a) Mark on the graph when ovulation occurs. 1

© Total Education Centre 2019 – 14 –

Discuss the effect on biodiversity of using biotechnology in agriculture. 5

© Total Education Centre 2019 – 15 –

(a) Identify possible procedures that could be employed by countries surrounding 1

Question 28 continues on page 17

Can lead to a decrease in Can be costly and time consuming