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GRADE 12
Booklet 1
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SCIENCE - 60 Items
Philosophy - 48 items
Humanities - 48 items
Media Information Literacy - 48 items

Total
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SCIENCE (60 ITEMS)

1. Which of these areas do most sedimentary rocks usually form?

a. Volcanoes c. Plain lands
b. Mountains d. Bodies of water

2. Which of the following statements correctly describes inner core

and outer core?
a. The inner core is extremely dense which made up of
solid iron and is intensely hot, while the outer core is the
thickest layer, made mostly of magnesium and silicon.
b. The inner core is the thickest layer, made mostly of
magnesium and silicon, while the outer core is made
from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely by
radioactive decay.
c. The inner core is extremely dense which made up of
solid iron and is intensely hot, while the outer core is
made from iron and nickel in liquid form, heated largely
by radioactive decay.
d. The inner core is made from iron and nickel in liquid form,
heated largely by radioactive decay, while the outer core
is extremely dense which made up of solid iron and is
intensely hot.

3. You watched a video of a lava flow when suddenly you got

curious about how crystal formation happens. You also
observed that small and large crystals can be formed from a lava
flow. Based on this observation, where would you expect to find
the largest crystals in a lava flow?
a. At the center of the flow.
b. Near the bottom of the flow.
c. Near the top surface of the flow.
d. The crystals would have the same grain size throughout
the flow.
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4. You were given a granite sample and tasked to describe just by

looking and touching it. Which of the following statements below
will best describe a granite based on its physical appearance?
a. Light- colored, fine- grained igneous rock rich in silica
b. Light- colored, fine- grained igneous rock poor in silica
c. Light- colored, coarse- grained igneous rock rich in silica
d. Light- colored, coarse- grained igneous rock poor in
silica
5. You are walking along a flat rock surface. You discover that as
you walk further, the age of the rocks decreases until you reach
the middle of the surface, then for some reason, they get older
again. What structure have you just passed over?
a. syncline fold c. monocline fold
b. anticline fold d. overturned fold
6. Which of the following descriptions about the organization of an
ecosystem is correct?
a. Communities make up species, which make up
populations.
b. Populations make up species, which make up
communities.
c. Species make up communities, which make up
populations.
d. Species make up populations, which make up
communities.
7. Which of the following is NOT correct about recombinant DNA
technology?
a. Plasmids and bacteriophages are examples of
commonly used vectors.
b. Recombinant DNA (rDNA) technology helps produce
better breeds of plants and animals.
c. The rDNA technology could also help in identifying
criminals by studying a sample from a specific person.
d. The rDNA technology can be considered successful
even if the foreign DNA inserted into the vector DNA is
not expressing the desired trait in the host cells.
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8. Pedro who met an accident dislocated his two long bones in his
hand. What do you think is the cause of such dislocation?
a. Tendon break
b. Ligament break
c. Areolar tissue break
d. Break of skeletal muscle

9. For certain organisms to survive, they need to learn the process

of adaptation by which a species becomes fitted to its
environment. Which of the following situations exhibits
adaptation?
a. Birds with light bones of their wings for easy flying.
b. Giraffes having long necks for feeding in the top of trees
c. Animals staying in one place all the time to protect its
home
d. Succulents which store water in their short, thick stems
and leaves in preparation for dry season.

10. Someone gives you two black beetles: Carbonized Darkling

Beetle (Eleodes carbonaria) and Armored Stink Beetle (Eleodes
armata). What group they both belong in the biological
classification of organisms?
a. Family c. Order
b. Genus d. Species

11. You observed an Earth-sized like planet in a distant galaxy.

Based on the data, the planet is at the same distance from its
star, like Earth to its star-the sun. It is also covered with a thick
atmosphere which is composed of carbon dioxide and shows no
volcanic activity. What can you infer from these data?
a. The Earth-like planet is hot and nutrient cycling occurs.
b. The Earth-like planet is cold and nutrient cycling occurs.
c. The Earth-like planet is hot and no nutrient cycling
occurs.
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d. The Earth-like planet is cold and no nutrient cycling

occurs.

12. During the 1800’s, miners can identify real gold from pyrite
through biting the surface of the mineral. If a bite mark is
exhibited, then the said mineral is considered real gold. What
property is tested in this scenario?
a. Cleavage c. Hardness
b. Luster d. Streak color

13. What is the massive driver of pollution?

a. Population c. Development
b. Urbanization d. Climate change

14. Which of the following ways can protect and prevent depletion
of the soil?
a. Fertilization c. Monitor Growth
b. Afforestation d. Control Storm Water

15. Why do geologists call on convection, rather than conduction,

in order for heat to transfer from the core to the crust?
a. Conduction of heat is far too fast and efficient relative to
convection, so the Earth would have cooled completely
by now.
b. Conduction of heat is far too slow, but efficient relative to
convection, so the Earth would have cooled almost
completely by now.
c. Conduction of heat is far too slow and inefficient relative
to convection, so the Earth would not have produced
much cooling thus far.
d. Conduction of heat is far too fast and inefficient relative
to convection, so the Earth would heat up to a higher
temperature than it is now.
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16. What sequence of rock types will shale pass through with
successively higher grades of metamorphism?
a. Shale, phyllite, gneiss, slate, schist, partial melting.
b. Shale, phyllite, slate, schist, gneiss, partial melting.
c. Shale, slate, phyllite, gneiss, schist, partial melting.
d. Shale, slate, phyllite, schist, gneiss, partial melting.

17. What happened to the rocks under shear stress?

a. The rocks are squeezed.
b. The rocks fold or fracture.
c. The rocks are pulled apart.
d. The rock walls slip to each other on opposite direction.

18. Which of the following resulted to the formation of new crust

from magma that rises to the earth’s surface between two plate
boundaries?
a. Strike fault
b. Divergent boundary
c. Transform boundary
d. Convergent boundary

19. Radiometric dating, often called radioactive dating, is a

technique used to determine the age of materials such as rocks.
What is being measured in radiometric dating?
a. the amount of the parent isotope only
b. when the dated mineral became part of a sedimentary
rock
c. the time of crystallization of a mineral containing an
isotope
d. the time when the radioactive isotope formed, prior to
being incorporated into a mineral.
20. Which era were dinosaurs, small mammals, flowering plants,
and birds found?
a. Cenozoic c. Paleozoic
b. Mesozoic d. Quaternary
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21. Studying fossils provides evidence for evolution because

fossils
a. take a long time to form
b. can show patterns of biological change overtime
c. always contain complete DNA sequences
d. found in the same area are usually closely related to
each other

22. Which statement best describes the interactions between the

structures found within a single celled organism?
a. They allow the organism to maintain homeostasis.
b. They prevent homeostasis from damaging the cell.
c. They must act independently of each other and prevent
homeostasis.
d. They carry out the same life process in order to maintain
homeostasis.

23. A response of a normally functioning immune system that can

be harmful is
a. being infected by the flu virus
b. rejecting an organ transplant
c. recognizing chemical signals
d. fighting off a bacterial infection

24. Which molecules are normally found in single-celled

organisms?
a. organic molecules, only
b. inorganic molecules, only
c. both organic and inorganic molecules
d. neither organic nor inorganic molecules
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25. A student used a microscope to examine some cells. He

observed strands located in the nuclei of these cells.
These strands are responsible for coding different proteins and are
known as
a. chromosomes c. ribosomes
b. mitochondria d. chloroplasts

26. Farmers have been planting crops that express an insecticide

gene, so that when pests consume these crops, the pests are
poisoned. Unfortunately, since these plants were introduced in
1996, growing numbers of insect pests have developed
resistance to the insecticide. The process that led to the insect
resistance can best be explained by
a. ecological succession
b. selective breeding
c. asexual reproduction
d. natural selection

27. By measuring the colors of light reflected by different tree

species in a forest, scientists can determine the amount of
biodiversity present in different areas. Maintaining biodiversity is
important because it
a. reduces the carrying capacity of a forest ecosystem
b. guarantees that all species within a forest ecosystem will
survive
c. increases the number of predators that control the
population size of prey
d. ensures the availability of a variety of genetic material
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28. Large numbers of white-tailed deer on Long Island are

infested with ticks that transmit Lyme disease to other mammals.
One attempt to control reproduction in these ticks has been the
release of large numbers of sterilized male ticks. When
compared to using pesticides, this method to control ticks would
a. cause more environmental pollution
b. lead to a decrease in the deer population
c. be less likely to harm the environment
d. result in an increase in the tick population

29. Which sequence best represents the correct order of events

in the formation of a sexually reproduced individual?
a. embryo → zygote → gamete → fetus
b. zygote → embryo → fetus → gamete
c. gametes → embryo → fetus → zygote
d. gametes → zygote → embryo → fetus

30. Which statement best describes the process of competition?

a. It may be for abiotic or biotic resources.
b. It is not affected by changes in the environment.
c. It always occurs between members of different species.
d. It allows nutrients in an ecosystem to move from
herbivores to autotrophs
31. Which of the following activities in coastal areas can trigger
hazard to the natural balance of coastal system?
a. allowed number of tourists
b. construction of breakwater
c. enhancing vegetation
d. prohibition of mining
32. Which of the following is/are natural result/s of a geologically
active zone on earth coastal system?
a. breakwater
b. sand erosion
c. sandbags and stone barriers
d. seawalls and island barriers
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33. What refers to a climate change phenomenon through which

ocean water volume increases, ice sheets and glaciers melt,
and thermal expansion occurs?
a. erosion c. sea-level change
b. salt intrusion d. water nourishment

34. Which of the following is the BEST reason for human

population to choose coastal zones as settling grounds?
a. abundant marine resources
b. peaceful and safe residential area
c. small possibility for trade and transport
d. unfertile agricultural land

35. What refers to the action taken to eliminate or reduce the

long-term risks and hazards in the coastal area?
a. alteration c. renovation
b. mitigation d. restoration

36. Salt intrusion is the movement of saline water to fresh water

aquifers which can lead to the following EXCEPT
a. loss of vegetation
b. erosion to low land area
c. contamination of ground water
d. shortage in drinking water supply

37. What are the two processes interacting in a highly dynamic

natural systems of coastlines?
a. chemical and physical
b. endogenic and exogenic
c. oceanic and continental
d. atmospheric and biosphere
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38. The following activities promote erosion EXCEPT

a. break water construction
b. land development
c. mining activities
d. waste disposal

39. Which of the following is NOT an impact of mining activities

to coastal processes?
a. enhanced erosional activities
b. improved biodiversity
c. loss of vegetation
d. surface run-off

40. Which of the following structures are built to counteract

waves that hit the shores?
a. barrier
b. groins
c. jetties
d. seawalls

41. Which of the steps of converting units below are NOT

correct?

42. Which of the is defined as the velocity of an object in the rest

frame of another object?
a. Relative motion
b. Relative velocity
c. Instantaneous velocity
d. Instantaneous acceleration
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43. What would you infer from a free-body diagram (FBD) that
shows only normal force directed upward and a weight
directed downward?
a. Something with mass is at rest on top of a surface.
b. Something with mass is accelerating to the right
direction.
c. Something with mass is connected to a thread and is
hanged from the ceiling.
d. Something with mass is connected to a thread and is
accelerating to the left direction.

44. What do you call to the force that is acted on an object due
to gravity?
a. Inertia c. Tension
b. Mass d. Weight

45. What is the gravitational potential energy of a 0.15Kg ball

elevated for about 8 m?
a. 0.114 J c. 11.4 J
b. 1.14 J d. 114 J

46. A seesaw with mass x is perfectly balanced with a fulcrum in

the center. If mass x changes uniformly, do the net torque
change?
a. Yes, any increase in weight will increase torque.
b. Yes, because the gravitational force increases with
more mass, and torque is related to the force.
c. No, because the net torque is still zero despite increase
in one of the individual components.
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47. A resultant force of 4.5 N is directed 30 degrees north of

east, is acting on a particle. What force is needed to bring the
particle into a state of equilibrium?
a. 4.5 N, 30 degrees north of east
b. 4.5 N, 30 degrees north of west
c. 4.5 N, 30 degrees South of east
d. 4.5 N, 30 degrees south of west

48. Which of the following is the formula for density?

a. density = mass x volume
b. density = mass / volume
c. density = mass + volume
d. density = mass – volume

49. Which of the following laws accounts for temperature,

volume, pressure and moles of gas within an individual
system?
a. Boyle’s Law
b. Charles’ Law
c. Ideal Gas Law
d. Gay-Lussac’s Law

50. The temperature of an ideal gas increases from 20 degrees

Celsius to 40 degrees Celsius while the pressure stays the
same. What will happen to the volume of the gas?
a. It doubles
b. It quadruples
c. It slightly increases
d. It slightly decreases
51. Which of the following equations describes the work done by
F in terms of potential energy if the force is conservative?
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52. Which of the following shows the relationship between

resistivity and conductivity?
a. Resistivity of a material is proportional to the
conductivity of a material.
b. Resistivity of a material is low, the conductivity of the
material is also low.
c. Resistivity and Conductivity depend on the movement
of electrons through a material.
d. Resistivity measures how much a material resist the
electricity flow while conductivity measures how easily
electricity flows through a material.

53. A 20-Ω resistor is connected in parallel to another resistor R.

The equivalent resistance of the pair is 12-Ω. What is the
resistance of R?
a. 12 Ω c. 30 Ω
b. 20 Ω d. 40 Ω

54. The force shown in the figure below is exerted on an

electron as it moves through the magnetic field. In what
direction does the electron move?
a. Upwards
b. Downward
c. Left to Right
d. Right to Left
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55. What is common between electrostatic and non-electrostatic

field?
a. Both are produced by charges.
b. Both are produced by direct current.
c. Both are created from an induced current.
d. Both are created from time varying magnetic field
through a given region of space.

56. Which of the following conditions will total internal reflection

occur?
I. The angle of incidence is larger than or equal to critical
angle.
II. The angle of incidence is smaller than or equal to critical
angle.
III. The ray in material a is incident on a second material b
whose index of refraction is larger than that of material a.
IV. The ray in material a is incident on a second material b
whose index of refraction is smaller than that of material a.

a. I only
b. IV only
c. I and III
d. II and IV
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57. If you are standing in front of a plane mirror, hat must be

minimum length of the mirror to see your full image?
a. Half as your height
b. Same as your height
c. Four-fifths as your height
d. Three-fourths as your height

58. According to the special theory of relativity, all laws of nature

are the same in reference frames that is _____.
a. Accelerates
b. Decelerate
c. Move at constant speed
d. Move at varying speed

59. How do we locate the image formed by a plane mirror by

using a ray diagram?
a. Drawing one ray emitted by the object and applying the
law of reflection.
b. Drawing one ray emitted by the object and applying the
law of refraction.
c. Drawing two ray emitted by the object and applying the
law of reflection.
d. Drawing two ray emitted by the object and applying the
law of refraction.

60. Which refers to the rate at which charge flows past a point in
a circuit?
a. Capacitor
b. Current
c. Resistance
d. Voltage
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PHILOSOPHY (48)

1. It is an activity that requires a person to examine his or her

thoughts, feelings and actions and learn from experience.
a. Wondering c. Questioning
b. Reasoning d. Reflection

2. What is the science and art of correct thinking?

a. Logic c. Ethics
b. Metaphysics d. Aesthetics

3. The type of philosophical reflection which trains the mind to

think logically. It is also the ability of the mind to construct and
evaluate arguments.
a. Primary reflection c. Secondary reflection
b. Tertiary reflection d. All the above

4. One of the triumvirate Greek philosophers who pioneered a

method of argument called dialectic.
a. Pythagoras c. Plato
b. Socrates d. Aristotle

5. This is the process of thinking about something in a logical

way to form a conclusion or judgement.
a. Reflection c. Reasoning
b. Proposition d. Intuition

6. It is a term used to describe a method of philosophical

argument that involves some sort of contradictory process
between opposing sides.
a. Inductive c. Reflective
b. Deductive d. Dialectic
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7. It is the idea that various systems (e.g. physical, biological,

social) should be viewed as wholes, not merely as a collection
of parts.
a. Holism c. Rationalism
b. Idealism d. Existentialism

8. According to Gabriel Marcel this type of reflection enables us

to look deeper into our experiences and see the bigger picture
of reality.
a. Primary reflection c. Secondary reflection
b. Tertiary reflection d. All the above

9. The western philosophical tradition originated in .

a. China c. India
b. Egypt d. Greece

10. What is the branch of Philosophy that studies the nature

and means of human knowledge?
a. Politics c. Ethics
b. Metaphysics d. Epistemology

11. He/she is the father of modern philosophy.

a. Plato c. Aristotle
b. Descartes d. Socrates

12. What is originally meant “love of wisdom”?

a. Ethics c. Aesthetics
b. Philosophy d. Epistemology

13. Based on this model, humans are essential and central to

the universe.
a. Cosmo-centric model c. Eco-centric model
b. Anthropocentric model d. God-centric model
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14. What is only an extension of a fundamental and necessary

drive in every human being to know what is real?
a. Epistemology c. Aesthetics
b. Ethics d. Metaphysics

15. The Filipino attitudes as part of life which literally means to

leave everything to God which is Bathala?
a. Bayanihan c. Pakikisama
b. Bahala na d. Kalooban

16. He founded phenomenology.

a. Edmund Husserl c. Higgins
b. Kierkegard d. Socrates

17. He/she is the most famous student of Socrates.

a. Descartes c. Plato
b. Aristotle d. Husserl

18. According to him, “to be happy, one must live a virtuous life”.
a. Aristotle c. Plato
b. Socrates d. Descartes

19. He believes in the principle that “Existence precedes

essence”.
a. Aristotle c. Galileo
b. Thomas Aquinas d. Jean Paul Sartre

20. He/she founded Stoicism.

a. Descartes
b. Plato
c. Zeno of Citium
d. Socrates
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21. Which branch of philosophy deals with arguments?

a. Epistemology c. Ethics
b. Logic d. Aesthetics

22. What Filipino values puts one in touch with one's fellow
beings and is essentially interpersonal?
a. Pakikisama c. Hospitality
b. Loob d. Loyalty

23. For Aristotle, a human being is .

a. Dependent c. Rational
b. Independent d. Irrational

24. Etymologically, what does "philo" mean?

a. To love
b. To survive
c. Wisdom
d. To learn

25. It is one of the positive Filipino values which is helping in

times of need.
a. One for all c. Bayanihan
b. Kalooban d. All for one

26. It is the study or discipline that uses human reason to

investigate the ultimate causes, reasons, and principles which
govern all things.
a. Anthropology c. Epistemology
b. Philosophy d. Political Science
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27. What is the branch of philosophy that explores the nature of

moral virtue and evaluates human action?
a. Aesthetics c. Epistemology
b. Ethics d. Logic

28. Which branch of philosophy deals with nature, sources,

limitations, and validity of knowledge?
a. Aesthetics c. Epistemology
b. Ethics d. Logic

29. What is the science of the beauty and its various

manifestations?
a. Aesthetics c. Epistemology
b. Ethics d. Logic

30. What is the branch of philosophy which deals with correct

reasoning?
a. Aesthetics c. Epistemology
b. Ethics d. Logic

31. He is a mathematician and scientist and was credited with

formulating the Pythagorean theorem.
a. Democritus c. Heraclitus
b. Pythagoras d. Plato

32. He was considered the foremost philosopher of ancient

times.
a. Aristotle c. Epicurus
b. Plato d. Socrates

33. The Greek philosopher Plato believes that philosophy is

brought about by man’s sense of
.
a. Doubt c. Experience
b. Wisdom d. Wonder
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34. He believes that people engage in philosophy to make

sense of difficult life experiences.
a. Karl Jaspers
b. Diogenes of Sinope
c. Rene Descartes
d. Plato

35. It refers to a way of thinking about the world and is made up

of a person’s views and beliefs.
a. Doubt c. Experience
b. Framework d. Wonder

36. Rene Descartes considers this as a reason why people

philosophize.
a. Doubt c. Experience
b. Framework d. Wonder

37. What do you call these questions that examine personal

ideas regarding correctness and values?
a. External Questions c. Holistic Thinking
b. Internal Questions d. Partial Thinking

38. It refers to a perspective that considers large scale patterns

in systems and often described as looking at the “bigger picture”
when describing and analyzing situation or problem.
a. External Questions c. Holistic Thinking
b. Internal Questions d. Partial Thinking

39. It is a type of thinking that focuses on specific aspects of a

situation.
a. External Questions c. Holistic Thinking
b. Internal Questions d. Partial Thinking
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40. These are questions that seek to question the very

frameworks upon which people base their own beliefs and views.
a. External Questions c. Holistic Thinking
b. Internal Questions d. Partial Thinking

41. These require a person to be willing to examine one’s

thoughts, feelings and actions and to learn more about one’s life
and experiences.
a. Meditation c. Reflection
b. Self-Examination d. Thinking

42. It refers to the clear awareness and understanding of

something.
a. Claims c. Facts
b. Knowledge d. Opinion

43. These are statements which are observed to be real or

truthful.
a. Claims c. Facts
b. Knowledge d. Opinion

44. These are statements which need to be examined to

determine whether they are true or false.
a. Claims c. Facts
b. Knowledge d. Opinion

45. These are comprised of statements that provide views on a

certain matter.
a. Claims c. Facts
b. Knowledge d. Opinion

46. This is a judgement based on certain facts.

a. Arguments c. Beliefs
b. Conclusions d. Explanations
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47. These are statements that expresses convictions that are

not easily explained by facts.
a. Arguments c. Beliefs
b. Conclusions d. Explanations
48. These are statements that assume a claim is true and
provide reasons to support them
a. Arguments
b. Conclusions
c. Beliefs
d. Explanation
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HUMANITIES (48 ITEMS)

1. What is the best definition of literature?

e. Literature covers both oral and written forms of works for
expressive and imaginative purposes.
f. Literature is limited to written materials that gain artistic merit
for human expression.
g. Literature is written solely to inform and persuade.
h. Literature is anything written and published.
2. Which form of literature does NOT exist during the pre-colonial
period?
a. Drama b. Myth d. Riddle d. Song

3. This can be considered as the oldest form of Philippine literature

that mirrors the culture which expresses hopes, aspirations,
lifestyles, and emotions of early Filipinos. Some examples are
kundiman, kumintang, oyayi or hele and others.
a. Legend c. Myth
b. Epic d. Folk Song

4. The short story "Dead Stars" written by Paz Marquez Benitez is

considered as the first Filipino modern short story in English. In
which period was it written?
a. American Period c. Spanish Period
b. Contemporary Period d. 21st Century

5. Which type of literature flourished during the Japanese period?

a. Essay c. Poem
b. Novel d. Short story

6. What is most likely the theme of literary text during the Early
Spanish Period?
a. Equality c. Nature
b. Nationalism d. Religion and morality
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7. Which is true about literature during the Japanese Period?

a. Filipinos were encouraged to write using the Tagalog
language.
b. Filipinos were forbidden to write at all during this period.
c. Filipino writers began writing literary text in Nihongo.
d. Filipinos continued to write in English and Spanish.

8. Which best characterizes 21st century literature as compared

to the other periods?
a. The use of technology is embedded in the creation of this
type of literature.
b. This is a literature written by contemporary authors within
the last decade.
c. This literature often breaks traditional writing.
d. All of the above

9. How does flash fiction differ from short story?

a. Flash fiction tells a complete story with a beginning, middle
and end.
b. Flash fiction is super short fiction of 1,000 words or less.
c. Flash fiction has the elements of plot, characters. setting,
conflict, theme and POV.
d. Writing a flash fiction requires writing that is clear, tight and
concise.

10. If you were to write a creative non-fiction, you combine or

blend
a. techniques from fantasy and poetry
b. text features with factual content
c. narrative techniques with factual content
d. poetry with factual content
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11. Which is true about "setting" as an element in Creative

Nonfiction?
a. The setting in CNF is always at the narrator's home.
b. The setting in CNF is usually imaginary.
c. The setting in CNF is based on the real world.
d. The setting is not applicable in CNF.

12. How does hypertext poetry differ from traditional poetry?

a. Hyperpoetry is produced using the computer screen as
the medium. It uses hyperlinks, visual effects, sound
effects, and other digital visual arts.
b. Hyperpoetry uses powerful words, imagery and literary
devices.
c. Hyperpoetry acts as a powerful medium through which the
poets express strong emotions and feelings.
d. Hyperpoetry may or may not have meter, rhyme and
rhythm.
13. In this reading approach, the main idea of a text is quickly
identified. The goal is to read shorter texts to extract accurate
detailed information. It is done at a speed three to four times
faster than regular reading. People often do this when they have
lots of material to read in a limited amount of time.
a. aextensive reading c. scanning
b. skimming d. in-depth reading

14. It is quickly reading a text to get the summary of it. This

reading technique involves searching for keywords or ideas and
moving eyes quickly down the page seeking specific words and
phrases.
a. extensive reading c. scanning
b. skimming d. in-depth reading
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15. You want to get a general idea of what an article is about

because if it doesn’t interest you, then there would be no point
reading it at all. Which of these things might you do?
a. skim read the phone book c. scan the phone book
b. read the phone book in detail d. both a and c

16. You want to get a general idea of what an article is about

because if it doesn’t interest you, then there would be no point
reading it at all. Which of these things might you do?
a. skim read the phone book c. scan the phone book
b. read the phone book in detail d. both a and c

17. Which is NOT a feature of a graphic novel?

a. It is equivalent in form and dimension to the prose novel.
b. The pictures are arranged in sequenced in image panels.
c. The dialogues are written in speech bubbles.
d. It presents a surprising ending.

18. Why do some students with learning disabilities like dyslexia

have an easier time reading graphic novels than traditional
books?
a. Graphic novels are only a pages long.
b. The sparse text and graphic nature helps them understand
the story better.
c. They can skip the words entirely and still comprehend the
book.
d. Both a and b

19. Which of the following is NOT a multimedia format that a

learner can use to interpret literary texts?
a. blog c. text tula
b. slogan d. tag cloud
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20. Which of the following statements is TRUE about fables and

parables?
a. Both fables and parables are non-fiction.
b. The main characters of fables tend to be humans.
c. Both types of folk literature are defined by a relatively simple
story and a moral lesson.
d. Parables feature animals, plants and inanimate objects.

21. What is the other term for plot structure?

a. plot arc c. narrative plot
b. narrative arc d. narrative structure
22. What type of plot has a story that is realistic with a central
character and action and the story happens in one place during
a short span of time?
a. casual c. unified
b. periodic d. episodic

23. What type of story has a plot that happens in a much extended
period of time?
a. methodic c. unified
b. periodic d. episodic
24. When the story has dialogue, action, details, descriptions and
scenes that amplify the tension, it is a plot movement in
__________.
a. time c. casualty
b. space d. dramatic tension
25. Art comes from what Latin word which means skill?
a. Ar c. Artizein
b. Ars d. Arkiskein
26. Which of these does not describe what art is?
a. conscious use of skill
b. unconscious use of creative imagination
c. production of aesthetic objects that are either beautiful
d. produces aesthetic objects that express important ideas or
feelings
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27. Who claimed that art is linked to human instinct, and that
humans have instincts for imitation and harmony?
a. Plato c. Aristotle
b. Leo Benesa d. Amorsolo

28. Contemporary arts developed in what century?

a. 18th c. 19th
b. 20th d. 21st

29. What art form is the technological translation of theatre?

a. films c. photographs
b. prints d. cinema

30. What is a three- dimensional artwork that may be created

using a stone, marble, wood and concrete?
a. sculpture c. architecture
b. shelters d. carving

31. Paintings belong to what art form/s?

a. Architecture c. pictures
b. photographs d. literature

32. These art forms that are perceived by the eyes.

a. Photographs c. Drawing
b. Visual Arts d. a, b and c

33. What element or principle of art is shown when an artist

revives interest to existing forms of art through combining the
past with the present?
a. Appropriation c. Hybridity
b. Performance d. Space
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34. Group of dancers performing a flash mob and forming a

heart as part of a marriage proposal of one of their members.
What element or principle of art is shown?
a. Performance c. Space
b. Hybridity d. Technology

35. The use of video and Internet for live streaming, video
posting, sharing and even recording performance.
a. Performance c. Space
b. Hybridity d. Technology

36. What element or principle of art is shown by the picture?

a. Appropriation c. Space
b. Hybridity d. Technology

37. Which among the images shows hybridity?

a. b. c. d.

38. Which among the images shows performance?

a. b. c. d.
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39. What are arts made and produced by artists living today?
a. modern arts b. contemporary arts
c. ethnic arts d. Philippine arts

40. In what era when commercial and advertising arts were

integrated into the fine arts curriculum?
a. Japanese Era b. Spanish Era
c. American Era d. Modern Era

41. What is the meaning of PETA which was founded by Cecile

Guidote- Alvarez, which advocates the use of Filipino theatre in
inspiring change and development in society?

a. Philippine Entertainment Theater Association

b. Philippine Educational Theater Association
c. Philippine Educational Theater Agency
d. Philippine Entertainment Theater Agency

42. What is the Philippine’s overall policy making body,

coordinating and thanksgiving agency for the preservation,
development, and promotion of Philippine arts and culture?
a. NCCA b. PETA c. CCP d. Tanghalang Pilipino

43. What is this most valuable painting of Juan Luna which

shows the fallen gladiators being dragged by Roman Soldiers?
a. La Gioconda
b. Spolarium
c. The Blood Compact
d. None of the above

44. What art and cultural government agency is responsible for

bringing together the different arts from various regions to the
entire country and the whole world?
a. CCP b. NHCP c. NLP d. KWF
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45. Which among these agencies has the main task which is to
solicit, document, preserve, exhibit, and promote the natural
and artificial wonders of the Philippines?
a. National Library of the Philippines
b. National Museum of the Philippines
c. National Historical Commission of the Philippines
d. The National Archives of the Philippines
46. It is a Grand Collar adorned by circular links representing the
arts. The main medallion commemorates the sun and the
colors of the Philippine flag.
a. National Artist Medallion c. National Artist Insignia
b. National Artist Medal d. National Artist Collar

47. He was proclaimed as a National Artist for Literature after

two years of his death. Some of his works are The Winds of
April (1941), A Season of Grace (1956), and The Bamboo
Dancers (1988).
a. N. V. M. Gonzales b. Nick Joaquin
c. F. Sionil Jose d. Jose Garcia Villa

48. He was given the title the king of Philippine movies and one
of the most admired Filipino film actors of all time.
a. Lino Broca b. Fernando Poe, Jr.
c. Eddie Romero d. Ricardo Dalisay
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MEDIA INFORMATION LITERACY (48 ITEMS)

1. What refers to the combination of physical objects used to

communicate through physical objects, such as radio,
television, computers, telephone, mobile phone, film, etc.
a. Communication c. Literacy
b. Information Literacy d. Media
2. Which of the following information literacy skill demonstrates
evaluation?
a. The student is able to______.
b. locate sources.
c. judge the result
d. define the problem
e. able to organize information from multiple sources.

3. Paul Lives in a rural area where electricity is not available.

He is very fond of hearing news when he was still living in
the city. He has financial difficulty since he just lost his job.
a. What can you suggest to Paul so he can listen the daily
news?
b. Buy a generator.
c. Buy television.
d. Install satellite television.
e. Use battery operated radio.

4. How would you ensure the right security and privacy in your
social media account?
a. Do not divulge any information.
b. Keep friends that are known to you and do not accept
unfamiliar people.
c. Set your social media account into invisible so that you
are completely safe.
d. Set your social media account into private. Allowing
information shared to be safe and secured
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5. What Republic Act protects indigenous people and their

rights?
a. R.A. 9172
b. R.A. 8512
c. R.A. 8371
d. R.A. 1521
6. Which of the following is NOT true about plagiarism?
a. It includes other people’s ideas in the paper.
b. It uses someone’s ideas in the paper without citing the
source.
c. It directly quotes a source instead of using one’s own
words.
d. It is a form of harassment using electronic forms of
contact

7. If you want to introduce a product or services to the market,

what form of media channel would you use?
a. Advertising
b. E-mail
c. Radio
d. Television
8. Noli de Castro is one of the leading broadcast journalists in
the country. He is always truthful, reliable, credible, and fair
in manner. What do you think does Noli de Castro practice?
a. Patience
b. Media Ethics
c. Responsible Citizen
d. Trustworthy
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9. What visual media gives the appearance of a movement

which can be a collection of graphics, footage and shading?
a. audio c. text
b. motion d. visual
10. The video footage presented as evidence of the crime
shows some clips were missed. What technical method
needs to be checked?
a. Lighting coverage
b. Smoothness of the video
c. Scale and size consistency
d. Color and sound appropriateness

11. As a competitive and honest Filipino learner, how can

you help massive piracy in new media?
a. Share free download site to your friends.

b. Create a campaign advertisement against piracy.

c. Ignore download sites that offers free movies and
music.
d. Avoid downloading movies and music from free
download sites.

12. What is an original word of a piece of writing or a

speech?
a. Denotation
b. Information
c. Text
d. Text information

13. Which artwork functions as a source in addition to being

displayed because of their significant values?
a. Moving Images d. Photograph
b. Original Art
c. Print
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14. The design for visual message basically focuses on the

considerations of using visual elements in accordance to the
needs of the target audience. Which of the following
consideration is NOT included?
a. Culture
b. Visual literacy
c. Educational ability
d. Language of the audience
15. Ronie started to feel that his audience is not interested
in listening to his presentation during his Science class.
What should he do to catch the attention of his audience?
a. Use visual information
b. Use text-based presentation
c. Apply state of the art presentation
d. Organize compiler during presentation
16. Mr. Rudy Go, gave a visual presentation project to his
students. He wanted the project to have a gloomy color
appearance. What should his students apply to pass the
project?
a. both warm and light colors
b. flamboyant colors to attract audience
c. light colors in the creative visual material
d. murky colors in the creative visual material

17. How would you ensure that your visual presentation is

interesting and enticing?
a. Use convincing materials.
b. Make the presentation as concise as possible.
c. Set the presentation as convincing as possible.
d. Apply the selection criteria as stated in making the
visual presentation.
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18. Which of the following is a form of internet audio

broadcasting?
a. Blogging
b. Podcast
c. Radio
d. Television

19. The following are principles of listening, EXCEPT:

a. Prepare yourself to listen
b. Listen for ideas not just words.
c. Feel confident and knows it all.
d. Listen to the tone of the speaker

20. Which of the following media dimensions is very useful

to the development of listening skills?
a. audio
b. motion
c. text
d. visual
21. Adonis is using an audio file that is stored in a disk
because he wants to listen it later. What do you think Adonis
is used by Adonis?
a. Audio clip
b. Earcon
c. Footage
d. Recording

22. Which of the following is an act or process of changing

the position or orientation of a certain body?
a. Acting
b. Dreaming
c. Motion
d. Understanding
23. What is the system of examining media materials to
avoid causing offense, harm, or violence towards the public?
 lOMoARcPSD|21442087

a. Censorship
b. Production
c. Mise-en-scene
d. Motion Information

24. Which of the following is NOT a video editing software?

a. Avid
b. Publisher
c. Adobe Premier
d. Final Cut Pro

25. Which of the following is a cinematography?

a. Diegetic
b. Story based
c. Video magazine
d. Camera angles

26. A group of students were not able to hit the desired

motion media presentation criteria that their teacher wants,
what can you suggest to creatively catch the interest of their
teacher?
a. The motion media must be comprehensive so that there
should be a clear explanation on how videos should be
presented.
b. Motion media should be catchy so that it has the
advantage of getting immediate attention from its viewers.
c. It should be convincing as persuasive as possible.

d. Use the selection criteria of both visual and motion

media since they are closely associated with one another.
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27. If a person watches documentary about poverty, he or

she might feel bad, not just because of pity. This statement
narrates to what kind of motion information?
a. Theoretical Connections
b. Assessment of Ones Values
c. Showcasing of Complex Ideas
d. Learners and Culturally Relevant Events

28. In a post conference of a motion media subject, one

student got a comment from one of his professors: “Your
video is disorganized and lack of sensible scenes. What
does the statement imply? The video_____.
a. is irrelevant
b. needs cinematography
c. needs a mise-en-scene and arranged it accordingly
d. needs a storyboard so that it can be understood and
organized accordingly

29. Why is mise-en-scene relevant in production?

a. To put interesting ideas into the film.
b. To highlight important things in the film.
c. To produce humorous scene that makes the audience
alive.
d. To avoid putting irrelevant things which do not
contribute anything to the scene.
30. How does censorship affect the audience?
a. It created delusion.
b. It makes the audience feel uneasy.
c. It makes the receiver misinformed.
d. It allows audience to be informed and be warned on the
sensitive materials in the video.
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31. How would you best promote the tourism of the

country?
a. Make a documentary film that exudes Philippine
scenery.
b. Produce a text information that highlights best scenery.
c. Produce a film that talks about Philippine
achievements.
d. Create a visual information providing all the best scenic
spots in our country.

32. How is the principle of completeness being portrayed

in making news reports?

a. It answers the 5W and 1H questions.

b. The news report has 4W and 1H questions
c. The news report has 3W and 1H questions
d. It does not require to answer any questions as long as it
is full of details.

33. How many years for civilization to stay in the period of

survival?
a. Centuries
b. Decades
c. Millions
d. Thousands

34. What platform is used to make an online survey?

a. Chat room
b. Google forms
c. Facebook groups
d. Group conference
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35. Which of the following can be used to make a

multimedia presentation?
a. Paint
b. Publisher
c. Photoshop
d. Power point

36. Which of the following is a disadvantage of multimedia?

a. It utilizes a lot of senses.
b. It takes up a lot of storage space.
c. It uses modern electronic equipment.
d. It is for those who can afford the equipment.

37. Kyle wants to reach a vast number of people through

his campaign advocacy. What do you think should he use to
reach the global community?
a. Internet
b. Newspaper
c. Radio
d. Television
38. Diego wants to advertise his newly developed
detergent. What should he used for his advertisement to be
heard throughout the country?

I. Internet
II. Radio
III. Television
IV. Mobile Phone

a. I
b. I and II
c. II and III
d. I, II, III, IV
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39. What do you think is the best multimedia presentation

for someone who is on the go?
a. Prezi
b. Publisher
c. Adobe Premiere
d. Power point presentation

40. How is a museum serves as a multimedia outlet?

a. It uses state of the art equipment for viewing.
b. It offers past, present and future events
c. There are different sources that information can be
available.
d. It offers a variety of information like text, visual and
even motion media.

41. Why are multimedia personalities careful about the

words that come out of their mouth?
a. They can speak whatever they like
b. Every single word will be used against them.
c. They should speak politely since they’re role model.
d. They are influencer so whatever they speak will be
emulated by many.

42. In a Media, which of the following are created to appeal

to the emotion of the audience or to make the product
appealing to the target audience?
a. Media films
b. Media conventions
c. Media endorsement
d. Media manipulations
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43. Which of the following is an act of causing people to do

or believe something?
a. Abomination c. Persuasion
b. Conclusion d. Solution

44. Which of the following is a manipulative information?

a. Advertisement c. Opera
b. Film Showing d. Play

45. Truthfulness of reports should be based on the

following principles EXCEPT
a. Accuracy
b. Completeness
c. Objectivity and Balance
d. Punctuality

46. What principle of design is being applied in the figure

below?
a. Balance c. Harmony
b. Contrast d. Perspective

47. If you want to make an illusion of a fast movement,

what element of motion media will you use?
a. Blurring c. Speed
b. Direction d. Transition

48. Which of the following refers to how fitting or suitable

the text is used for a specific audience, purpose, or event?

a. Appropriateness
b. Emphasis
c. Harmony
d. Organization