General Studies (Paper-I) Full Length Test (FLT) - 6: Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Instructions

This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I) Test ID
1046
FULL LENGTH TEST (FLT) – 6
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.
4. All items carry equal marks.
5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.
6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.
7. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023
1. With reference to the Neolithic Age, 4. With reference to the rural economy in the
consider the following statements: age of Buddha, consider the following
1. Burzahom is famous for polished tools statements:
and weapons made of bones. 1. Taxes were collected by the
intermediate landlords, which existed
2. The Neolithic culture of Kashmir was
between the peasants and the state.
distinguished by complete absence of
2. Rich peasants were called the
microliths.
Gahapatis, who were of almost the
Which of the statements given above is/are same status as a section of the
correct? Vaishyas.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. With reference to the Harappan culture,
consider the following statements:
5. With reference to the Mauryan rule,
1. In Dholavira, dressed stone was used in
masonry with mud bricks.
1. The Sannidhata was the highest officer
2. Terracotta figurines were made of fire- in charge of assessment and collection,
baked earthen clay to represent only the and the Samaharta was the chief
humans. custodian of the state treasury and
3. Seals were made of steatite or faience storehouse.
and served as the symbols of authority. 2. The punch-marked silver coins formed
Which of the statements given above is/are the imperial currency of the Mauryas.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. With respect to the Later Vedic Period, 6. With reference to the medieval Indian
which of the following statements is/are history, consider the following statements:
correct? 1. In the Pala and the Pratihara empires,
1. The most distinctive pottery of the the smallest administrative unit above
period is known as the Painted Grey the village was called the Bhukti.
Ware. 2. In the Rashtrakutas kingdom, the rules
about succession were rigidly fixed.
2. Agriculture became the primary source
of livelihood, and life became settled 3. The ‘Nad Gavundas’ were the hereditary
revenue officials who rose to
and sedentary.
prominence in the Deccan.
Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above are
given below: incorrect?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1046 1
7. With reference to the Chola government, 10. Consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. Iltutmish was able to control the Hindu
1. Agraharams were the Brahman villages rulers of Orissa and Kamrup (Assam).
in which most of the land was rent-free. 2. Iltutmish’s expedition against the
2. The Mahasabha could raise loans for Chalukyas of Gujarat was
the village and levy taxes. unsuccessful.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. With reference to the medieval Indian 11. Consider the following statements:
history (800-1200 AD), consider the 1. The rise of the Khaljis to power ended
following statements: the Turkish monopoly of high offices.
1. The responsibility for giving education 2. Balban put forward the view that the
for a craft or profession was generally state should be based on the willing
left to the guilds. support of the governed.
2. The science of surgery and astronomy Which of the statements given above is/are
witnessed decline during this period. correct?
3. The Indian rulers made progress in (a) 1 only
horse breeding, thus reducing the need (b) 2 only
for import.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
12. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2 and 3 only
reference to the Quit India Resolution:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. The All India Congress Committee met
(d) 1, 2 and 3 on 8th July, 1942, to approve the
Resolution.
9. Which of the following pairs are 2. The Resolution was proposed by
incorrectly matched? Jawahar Lal Nehru and seconded by
S.N. Rajput Dynasty Region Sardar Patel.
1. Gahadavalas Jabalpur 3. Nehru was named the leader of the

movement.
2. Kalachuris Kannauj
4. It declared commitment of free India to
3. Senas Bengal defend itself against all types of
4. Paramaras Malwa imperialism.
incorrect?
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
RAUSIAS-1046 2
13. With reference to the ‘Rajagopalachari Select the correct answer using the code
Formula’, consider the following given below:
statements: (a) 3 only
1. It accepted the Muslim League’s (b) 2 and 3 only
demand that only the Muslims of North-
(c) 1 only
West to vote in the plebiscite.
(d) 1 and 3 only
2. It proposed 20% reserved seats for the
minorities in the Central Legislature.
16. Which of the following judicial reforms were
Which of the statements given above is/are
associated with Lord William Bentinck?
correct?
1. The Principle of Sovereignty of Law was
(a) 1 only established.
(b) 2 only 2. English was to be the official language
(c) Both 1 and 2 at the Supreme Court.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. A Law Commission was set up for the

codification of the Indian Laws.
4. Separation of revenue and justice
14. With reference to the Indian freedom administration.
struggle, consider the following events:
1. Decision to send the Cabinet Mission given below:
was taken. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Strike by the Royal Indian Navy ratings. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. Celebration of the INA week. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. ‘Direct Action’ call was given. (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the following is the correct

chronological sequence of the above 17. Consider the following statements about
events? the Indian Councils Act of 1861:
(a) 2-3-4-1 1. It restored the power of legislation to
the Governor-in-Councils of Madras
(b) 1-3-4-2
and Bombay.
(c) 3-1-2-4 2. It transformed the Viceroy’s Executive
(d) 3-2-1-4 Council into a Cabinet System run on
the portfolio system.
3. The Legislative Council at Calcutta was
15. With regard to the Cabinet Mission Plan, given extensive authority to pass laws
which of the following statements is/are for British India as a whole.
correct?
1. Separate State demand was rejected. correct?
2. Grouping of provinces was made (a) 1 and 2 only
optional. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Envisaged strong Centre with residuary (c) 1 and 3 only
powers.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1046 3
18. With reference to the ‘Royal Commission on Which of the pairs above given are correctly
Decentralization, 1908’, consider the matched?
following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. The Commission, for the first time,
(b) 1 and 4 only
introduced financial decentralization as
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
a legislative devolution.
2. It recommended that the Village (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Panchayats should be entrusted with
judicial jurisdictions. 21. With reference to the ‘First Cabinet after
3. It recommended that the non-officials Independence’, consider the following pairs:
should be in majority in the local
S.N. Person Position held
bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. C.H. Bhabha Minister of
incorrect? Scientific
(a) 2 and 3 only Research
(b) 2 only 2. Sardar Minister of Home
(c) 1 and 3 only Vallabhbhai Affairs and States
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Patel
3. John Mathai Minister of
19. With reference to the Colonial India, Finance
4. Amrit Kaur Minister of Health
1. The Indian Factory Act, 1881,
prohibited the employment of the How many pairs given above is/are
children under 7 years of age. incorrectly matched?
2. The Indian Factory Act, 1891, fixed (a) Only one pair
maximum working hours for all.
(b) Only two pairs
3. The Indian Factory Act, 1891, was
(c) Only three pairs
made applicable to the British-owned
tea plantations. (d) All four pairs

correct? 22. With regard to the ‘Butler Committee’,
(a) 1 and 2 only consider the following statements:
(b) 1 only 1. It was set up to determine the
(c) 2 only relationship between the Government
(d) 2 and 3 only and the Princely States.
2. According to the recommendations of
20. Consider the following pairs: the Committee, Narendra Mandal was
S.N. Newspaper Publisher/Editor set up as a consultative body.
1. Indian Mirror N. N. Sen Which of the statements given above

is/correct?
2. New India Mahatma Gandhi
(a) 1 only
3. Indian Annie Besant
(b) 2 only
Opinion
(c) Both 1 and 2
4. Voice of India Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1046 4
23. With reference to the integration of the were taken from the British
Princely States into the Indian Union, Constitution.
consider the following statements: 2. The Charter of Fundamental Rights and
1. A referendum was held in Junagadh. the Directive Principles of State Policy
2. A plebiscite was held in Sikkim. were borrowed from the Constitution of
3. Standstill Agreements were signed with the USA.
Goa and Pondicherry. 3. The idea of Quasi-Federal Form of
4. Instruments of Accession were signed Government was taken from the Irish
with Hyderabad and Jammu & Constitution.
Kashmir.
correct?
incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
24. Consider the following statements 27. Consider the following statements
regarding the Constituent Assembly: regarding the concept of equality provided
1. The members were chosen by direct under the Indian Constitution:
election by the members of the 1. It advocates for equality before law and
Provincial Legislative Assemblies. equal protection.
2. The members of the Scheduled Castes
2. There cannot be any discrimination on
were also given representation.
the grounds only of religion, race, caste,
3. It was composed on the lines of the plan
sex, or place of birth.
suggested under the Cabinet Mission.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. Consider the following statements 28. Consider the following pairs regarding the
regarding the Objectives Resolution: Writs in the Indian Constitution:
1. It provided for social, economic and
1. Certiorari: Issued by a Higher Court to
political justice.
a Lower Court.
2. The power and authority of independent
India was to be derived from the 2. Mandamus: Issued when the court
Constitution. finds that an office holder is not doing
Which of the statements given above is/are legal duty.
correct? 3. Prohibition: The court orders an
(a) 1 only authority to transfer a matter pending
(b) 2 only before it to the higher authority.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the pairs given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
26. Consider the following statements (b) 1 only
regarding the Indian Constitution: (c) 2 only
1. The ideas of the Rule of Law and the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Parliamentary System of Government
RAUSIAS-1046 5
29. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/are
regarding the Directive Principles of State incorrect?
Policy:
(a) 1 only
1. They are non-enforceable and non-
(b) 1 and 3 only
justiciable in nature.
(c) 2 only
2. They include the policies and the goals,
which the government and the society (d) 1, 2 and 3
should adopt.
Which of the statements given above is/are 32. Consider the following statements:
correct?
1. In India, the residuary powers are
(a) 1 only distributed between the Union and the
(b) 2 only States.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The Parliament can make laws on any

item included in the State List, while a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Proclamation of Emergency is in
operation.
30. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
regarding the Fundamental Duties:
(a) 1 only
1. The Forty-Second Constitutional
Amendment provided for them. (b) 2 only
2. They have changed the status of the (c) Both 1 and 2

Fundamental Rights. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
33. With reference to the 73rd Constitutional
(a) 1 only Amendment Act, 1992, consider the
(b) 2 only following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. It mandates that there shall be a three-

tier system of Panchayati Raj in all the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 states.
2. It provides for elections to be held
31. Consider the following statements within twelve months after the
regarding the Voting System in India: dissolution of the Panchayat.
3. It provides for the appointment of the
1. The voter votes for the party in both,
State Finance Commission to make
the ‘First Past the Post System’ and the
recommendations regarding the
‘Proportional Representation System’.
financial powers of the Panchayats.
2. Large geographical areas are divided
under Constituencies in both the
incorrect?
systems.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. The candidate who wins the election
secures 50% majority in both the (b) 2 and 3 only
systems. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1046 6
34. With reference to the ‘Financial Which of the statements given above is/are
Emergency’, consider the following correct?
statements: (a) 1 only
1. The President can reduce the salaries of
(b) 2 only
all government officials, except the
(c) Both 1 and 2
Supreme Court and the High Court
judges. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Proclamation of Financial
Emergency in India must be approved 37. With reference to the Centre-State
by the Parliament within three months relations, which of the following
of its promulgation. recommendations were given by the
Which of the statements given above is/are Sarkaria Commission?
correct?
1. The transfer of High Court judges
(a) 1 only
should not be against their will.
(b) 2 only
2. The Centre should have more control
(c) Both 1 and 2
over the matters in the Concurrent List.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Sharing of the corporate taxes between
the Centre and the States to be made
35. With reference to the Appellate
mandatory.
Jurisdiction, consider the following
statements: Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
1. The Supreme Court is authorized to
grant in its discretion special leave to (a) 1 and 2 only
appeal from any judgement in any (b) 2 and 3 only
matter passed by any court or tribunal (c) 1 and 3 only
in the country.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The High Court certificate is mandatory
for the Supreme Court to hear appeals
against the judgement in any kind of 38. With reference to the term ‘Union’, as
criminal proceeding. enshrined in the Constitution, consider the
Which of the statements given above is/are following statements:
correct? 1. It implies that the Indian Federation is
(a) 1 only the result of an agreement among the
(b) 2 only States.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. It implies that it is the sole prerogative
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of the Union to form the States by the
way of alteration of the existing internal
36. With reference to the Inter-State Council, boundaries of India.
consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The Parliament has been entrusted with correct?
the powers under the Constitution to (a) 1 only
define the nature of the duties of the
(b) 2 only
Council.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It may investigate and discuss subjects
of common interest between the Union (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and the States.
RAUSIAS-1046 7
39. With reference to the Indian Constitution, 3. In the out-crossing method, the
consider the following statements: superior males of one breed are mated
1. It shall be the duty of the Prime with the superior females of another
Minister to furnish such information breed.
relating to the administration of the Which of the statements given above is/are
affairs of the Union, as the President correct?
may call for. (a) 1 only
2. It shall be the duty of the Prime (b) 1 and 2 only
Minister to communicate to the (c) 2 and 3 only
President all decisions of the Council of (d) 1 and 3 only
Ministers relating to the administration
of the affairs of the Union. 42. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Allergy is due to the release of
correct? chemicals like histamine and serotonin
(a) 1 only from the mast cells.
(b) 2 only 2. The anti-bodies produced in response to
(c) Both 1 and 2 allergens are of Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
type.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
40. Consider the following statements
(a) 1 only
regarding the Election Commission:
(b) 2 only
1. The Chief Election Commissioner and
(c) Both 1 and 2
the two Election Commissioners have
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
equal powers.
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is
43. With respect to the “Hardy-Weinberg
removed through a special majority.
Principle”, consider the following
statements:
correct?
1. This Principle says that allele
(a) 1 only
frequencies in a population are not
(b) 2 only stable and vary from generation to
(c) Both 1 and 2 generation.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Gene migration or gene flow, genetic
drift, mutation, genetic recombination
41. Consider the following statements: and natural selection are the five factors
to affect the Hardy-Weinberg
1. In-breeding refers to the mating of
equilibrium.
more closely related individuals within
the same breed for 4-6 generations.
correct?
2. Cross-breeding is the practice of mating
(a) 1 only
of the animals within the same breed,
(b) 2 only
but having no common ancestors on
either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 (c) Both 1 and 2
generations. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1046 8
44. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly Which of the statements given above is/are
matched? incorrect?
(a) 1 only
S.N. Crop Variety
(b) 2 only
1. Chilli Pusa Shubhra
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Wheat Himgiri (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Cowpea Pusa Komal

47. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Each stamen is composed of a slender
given below: shaped stalk, known as a filament, and
(a) 1 only anther is present at the tip of the
filament.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. Microsporangium is generally
(c) 1 and 3 only surrounded by four wall layers, the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 epidermis, the endothecium, the middle
layers and the tapetum.
3. Pollen grains represent the female
45. With respect to the “Small Satellite Launch gametophytes.
Vehicle (SSLV)”, consider the following
statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. It caters to the launch of upto 1,500 kg
(a) 1 only
satellites to the Low Earth Orbits on
‘launch-on-demand’ basis. (b) 1 and 2 only
2. It is configured with three solid (c) 2 and 3 only

propulsion stages and a velocity (d) 1 and 3 only
terminal module.
correct?
1. Encystation is a phenomenon in which
(a) 1 only
under favourable condition the Amoeba
(b) 2 only secretes a three-layered hard covering
or cyst around itself.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Sporulation is a phenomenon in which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
under unfavourable conditions, the
encysted Amoeba divides by multiple
fission and produces many minute
46. With respect to ‘Bt Cotton’, consider the
Amoebae.
following statements:
1. Bt toxin protein exists as an active toxin
correct?
and causes the death of the insects
once they ingest it. (a) 1 only
2. The choice of Bt toxic genes depends (b) 2 only

upon the crop and the targeted pest. (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1046 9
49. Consider the following statements: 1. The RBI acts as the Debt Manager for
both as the Central Government and all
1. Methanogens are those bacteria which
State Governments.
grow aerobically on the cellulosic
material, produce large amount of 2. The Cash Management Bills floated by
methane, along with CO2 and H2. the RBI are for tenors of 91 days and
more.
2. In rumen of the cattle,
Methanobacterium helps in the 3. The SDLs are issued by the State
breakdown of cellulose and plays an Governments for meeting their short-
important role in the nutrition of the term and long-term borrowing needs.
cattle.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
52. Consider the following statements about

50. With reference to the Indian economy, ‘pharmaceutical pricing’ in India:
1. The National List of Essential
1. Capital Account Convertibility is the Medicines, 2022, is notified by the
ability or freedom to convert the Department of Pharmaceuticals, under
domestic currency into any foreign the Ministry of Chemicals and
currency for capital account Fertilizers.
transactions.
2. The Drugs (Prices Control) Order is
2. Both Current Account and Capital notified by the Department of
Account were made fully convertible in Pharmaceuticals, under the Essential
India after the liberalization, Commodities Act, 1955.
privatization and globalization reforms
3. The Government notifies the maximum
of 1991.
retail prices of the drugs included in the
Which of the statements given above is/are National List of Essential Medicines.
correct?
4. The maximum retail prices of the drugs
(a) 1 only included in the National List of
Essential Medicine are revised annually,
(b) 2 only
based on the Consumer Price Index.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) 2 only
51. Consider the following statements about (b) 2 and 3 only
the RBI as the Debt Manager of the
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Government:
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
RAUSIAS-1046 10
53. Which of the following statements correctly 2. District Export Promotion Committees
relates to the phenomenon of 'Flipping' in are to be established in each district,
the context of start-ups? which will be headed by the Member of
(a) A phenomenon where an Indian the Parliament representing the district.
company is acquired by a start-up of Which of the statements given above is/are
another country, where its technology is correct?
used by the acquiring company for a
(a) 1 only
global footprint.
(b) 2 only
(b) A phenomenon where an Indian
(c) Both 1 and 2
company starts its operations in foreign
geographies and closes its operations in (d) Neither 1 nor 2
India.
(c) A phenomenon where the entire 56. Consider the following statements about
ownership of the Indian company is the certification of the organic products:
bought by an another Indian start-up. 1. Organic certification for processed form
(d) A phenomenon which transforms an of organic cotton for export is done
Indian company into a 100% subsidiary under the National Programme for
of a foreign entity, with founders and Organic Production.
investors retaining ownership via the
2. The APEDA is the nodal agency for the
foreign entity.
implementation of organic certification
under the National Programme for
54. Which of the following are the benefits of Organic Production.
international trade settlements in Indian
Rupees (INR)?
correct?
1. Reduction of net demand of dollars for
(a) 1 only
the settlement of current accounts
related trade flows. (b) 2 only
2. Mitigation of currency risk of the Indian (c) Both 1 and 2
businesses. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Reduces the need for holding foreign
exchange reserves. 57. Consider the following statements about
4. Promotion of INR as an international the Central Counterparties:
currency. 1. The Central Counterparties act as the
5. Helps India to evade foreign seller to every buyer and the buyer to
transactions related sanctions. every seller.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The Central Counterparties in India are
given below: regulated by the SEBI.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only 3. Regulations for the Central
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only Counterparties mandate that the
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only ownership of the Central Counterparties
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 should be held by the persons who are
the users of it.
55. Consider the following statements about Which of the statements given above are
the ‘Districts as Export Hubs Initiative’: correct?
1. NITI Aayog is engaging with the (a) 1 and 2 only
State/UT Governments to take forward (b) 2 and 3 only
this Initiative in each district of the
(c) 1 and 3 only
country.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1046 11
58. Consider the following statements about 61. With reference to the National Urban
wheat crop: Digital Mission (NUDM), consider the
1. India is the largest producer of wheat in following statements:
the world.
1. It was launched to facilitate electronic
2. Karnal Bunt is a disease of wheat crop.
delivery of municipal services to the
Which of the statements given above is/are citizens across towns and cities of the
correct?
country.
(a) 1 only
2. The implementation of the NUDM is
(b) 2 only
being anchored by the Ministry of
(c) Both 1 and 2
Electronics and Information
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Technology.
59. With respect to the India Debt Resolution
Company Limited (IDRCL), which of the correct?
following statements are correct? (a) 1 only
1. It is a government organization (b) 2 only
controlled by the Public Sector Banks.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It will have no balance sheet.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It is a service company/operational
entity which will manage the assets,
and engage market professionals and 62. For the purposes of preventing unfair trade
turnaround experts. practices in e-commerce, the Central
Select the correct answer using the code Government had notified the Consumer
given below: Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020. With
(a) 1 and 2 only reference to these Rules, which of the
(b) 2 and 3 only following statements are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only 1. To ensure compliance of the Consumer
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Protection Act, 2019 and Rules,
appointment of a Chief Compliance
60. With reference to the ‘critical minerals’, Officer has been proposed.
2. All sellers on marketplace e-commerce
1. They refer to the mineral resources,
entities and all inventory e-commerce
both primary and processed, which are
essential inputs in the production entities to provide ‘best before’ or ‘use
process of an economy. before’ date to enable the consumers to
2. These minerals lack substitutability and make an informed purchase decision.
recycling processes. 3. Provisions of ‘fall-back liability’ for every
3. India produces large amount of silicon, marketplace e-commerce entity have
gallium and arsenic, which are used for been provided.
manufacturing the photovoltaic cells.
given below:
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1046 12
63. With reference to the Large Area 2. The Act does not consider the existing
Certification scheme, consider the following rental arrangements, thereby excluding
statements: the huge body of pending tenancy
1. The Department of Agriculture, disputes as well.
Cooperation and Farmers Welfare has Which of the statements given above is/are
launched this scheme to identify the
correct?
‘traditional organic areas’ to transform
(a) 1 only
them into certified organic production
hubs. (b) 2 only
2. Under this scheme, each village in the (c) Both 1 and 2
area is considered as one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
cluster/group.
3. Certification is renewed on an annual
66. With reference to the Foreigners Tribunals,
basis, through annual verification by a
which of the following statements is/are
process of peer appraisals, as per the
correct?
process of the Participatory Guarantee
System -India. 1. Only the Foreigners Tribunals have the
Which of the statements given above is/are right to declare a person as a foreigner.
correct? 2. The Tribunal shall have the powers of a
(a) 2 only civil court, while trying a suit under the
(b) 3 only Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
(c) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below:
(a) 1 only
64. With reference to the Gulf Cooperation (b) 2 only
Council (GCC), consider the following (c) Both 1 and 2
statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Its secretariat is located in the city of
Riyadh.
2. It has 12 members, including Iran. 67. Consider the following statements:
3. The Supreme Council of the GCC, 1. Recently, the US Department of

comprising the Heads of the States, Treasury has included India into its
meets once a year in an ordinary Currency Monitoring List.
session. 2. The US Department of Treasury places
Which of the statements given above is/are a country on the Currency Monitoring
correct? List if it devalues its currency for unfair
(a) 1 only competitive advantage, which is one of
(b) 2 only the criteria.
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 2 and 3 only correct?
(a) 1 only
65. With reference to the Model Tenancy Act, (b) 2 only
2021, consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The primary objective of the Act is to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
regulate the residential and commercial
properties in the rental housing market.
RAUSIAS-1046 13
68. Consider the following statements: 71. Consider the following statements with
1. Due to longitudinal variation, there is a reference to the Indian climate:
time lag of three hours between Gujarat 1. The ‘continentality factor’ exerts no
and Arunachal Pradesh. influence on the arid regions of the
2. The Bomdi la pass located in Assam, country.
connects India with China.
2. The difference in pressure over Darwin
3. The Nine-degree channel forms the in the Pacific-ocean impacts the
maritime border between India and
intensity of monsoons.
Maldives.
correct?
incorrect?

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
69. Consider the following statements: 72. Consider the following statements with
1. The altitudinal variations are greater in reference to the ‘Montane type of forests
the Western Himalayas than the found in India’:
Eastern part.
1. In India, Montane forests distribution is
2. The range lying to the south of the restricted to the Himalayan region.
Himadri is known as the Shiwaliks.
2. Temperate forests predominate the
3. The region lying between Teesta and
southern slopes of the Himalayas.
Dihang rivers is known as Assam
Himalayas. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 2 and 3 only
73. With reference to the Human geography of
70. Consider the following statements: India, consider the following statements:
1. The coasts of Odisha, Tamil Nadu and 1. The first complete census was held in
Andhra Pradesh are together known as
the year 1881.
Coromandel Coast.
2. West Bengal followed by Bihar are the
2. The coastline of submergence is the
most thickly populated states in the
characteristic feature of the
Maharashtra and Goa coasts. country.
correct? correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1046 14
74. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above are
respect to the ‘origin of universe’: correct?
1. In the Big-bang model the universe (a) 1 and 2 only
essentially emerged from a state of (b) 2 and 3 only
extremely (c) 1 and 3 only
high temperature and density. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The Nebular hypothesis asserted that
the universe is expanding but it does 77. With reference to the ‘Salinity of Oceans’,
not change its appearance over time. which of the following statements is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (a) Salinity at the surface decreases by the
(a) 1 only loss of water to ice.
(b) 2 only (b) At a distinct zone called the halocline,
(c) Both 1 and 2 salinity decreases sharply.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) High salinity seawater sinks below the
lower salinity water leading to
stratification.
75. With reference to the landforms formed by
(d) Arabian Sea shows lower salinity due to
the volcanic eruptions, consider the
low evaporation.
following statements:
1. Fissure vents are commonly found in
78. Consider the following rivers:
composite type of volcanoes.
1. Sabarmati
2. Lacoliths are large dome shaped body of
2. Betwa
magmatic material that cools in the
3. Tapi
deeper depth of the crust.
4. Chambal
3. Mount Fuji and Mount Stromboli are
Which among the following is the correct
examples of composite type of volcanic
sequence of these rivers when arranged
landforms.
from south to north?
(a) 1-3-4-2
correct?
(b) 3-1-2-4
(a) 1 only
(c) 3-2-1-4
(b) 3 only
(d) 1-2-3-4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
79. Chilika Lake spread across which of the
following regions of Odisha?
76. Consider the following with reference to the 1. Puri district
‘movement of Indian plate’: 2. Khurda district
1. The formation of ‘deccan traps’ was the 3. Ganjam district
result of movement of Indian plate
towards the Eurasian plate. given below:
2. Malda fault was due to the formation of (a) 1 and 2 only
Block Mountain.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. A marine depression was created due to
(c) 1 and 3 only
the collision of Indian and the Eurasian
(d) 1, 2 and 3
plates.
RAUSIAS-1046 15
80. Consider the following statements: 83. Consider the following pairs:
1. A moraine-dammed lake forms as a S.N. Protected Area Location
glacier retreats, and meltwater fills the
space between the proglacial moraine 1. Tansa Wildlife Jharkhand
and the retreating glacier. Sanctuary
2. Glacial Lake Outburst Flood can be 2. Nagarhole Tiger Karnataka
impounded by moraine complexes, Reserve
glacial ice and bedrock.
3. Kanger Ghati Telangana
correct? National Park
(a) 1 only How many pairs given above is/are
(b) 2 only correctly matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one pair
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
heavy metals: (d) None of the above
1. Mercury, lead and cadmium can travel
long distances in the atmosphere. 84. With reference to the Red-Headed Vulture,
2. Sources of heavy metals include consider the following statements:
mining, industrial production and
1. It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’
untreated sewage sludge.
under the IUCN Red List of Threatened
3. Birds and mammals that eat fish are
more exposed to mercury than other Species.
animals which live in aquatic 2. It is naturally found across the Indian
ecosystems. sub-continent.
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Blue hydrogen is produced from non- 85. The word ‘Turnersuchus Hingleyae’ is
renewable energy sources. sometimes mentioned in the news, in
2. Green hydrogen is produced by using reference to which of the following?
electricity to power an electrolyser that (a) A newly discovered ancient ‘marine
splits the hydrogen from water
crocodile’ fossil.
molecules.
(b) A natural herb used in the treatment of
correct? blood cancer.
(a) 1 only (c) A kind of bacteria naturally found in the
(b) 2 only human gut.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) A newly discovered fish species which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 lives in the Indian Ocean's “twilight
zone.”
RAUSIAS-1046 16
86. With reference to the Polar Bear, which of 89. Consider the following statements with
the following statements is/are correct? reference to Ecological Succession:
1. It is a hypercarnivorous bear, whose 1. Secondary succession takes place in a
native range lies largely within the previously colonized, but damaged
Arctic Circle, encompassing the Arctic habitat.
Ocean. 2. Usually, the different stages in a
particular habitat succession cannot be
2. It is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ by
accurately predicted.
the IUCN.
3. The Polar Bears are classified as marine
correct?
mammals.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 90. Consider the following pairs:
(d) 2 and 3 only
S.N. Plant Major geographical
species distribution
87. Which of the following lakes are parts of the 1. Coral Tree Inter-tidal areas of
African Great Lakes? the Central
1. Lake Victoria West Coast
2. Lake Malawi 2. Dipterocarps High rainfall areas
3. Lake Erie of the Western
4. Lake Tanganyika Ghats and North-
east India
5. Lake Tahoe
3. Quercus The Eastern Ghats
given below: How many pairs given above is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only correctly matched?
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only (a) Only one pair
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (b) Only two pairs
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
88. Which of the following processes are central

to the Carbon Cycle? 91. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Blackbuck:
1. Photosynthesis
1. Blackbuck is four-horned antelope
2. Respiration species native to the Indian sub-
3. Fossilisation continent.
4. Weathering 2. They are classified as Vulnerable in the
Select the correct answer using the code Red List of the International Union for
given below: Conservation of Nature.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1046 17
92. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code
1. Hembar is a stone embankment built given below:
on a hill slope to help create a level field (a) 1 and 2 only
for cultivation.
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only
2. Chak is a small temporary dam
constructed with stones, twigs and mud (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
over a seasonal stream. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. Naada or Bandha are check dams
across streams that are constructed to
capture runoff on a stretch of fertile 95. Which of the following are the applications
land submerged in water during the of Environmental DNA?
monsoon. 1. Detection of the invasive species.
2. Monitoring wildlife recovery.
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Identify species involved in wildlife
trafficking.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only 4. Monitoring of water quality.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
93. Consider the following statements with (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
reference to the Acid Rain:
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. Acid rain can dissolve naturally
occurring toxic substances and free (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
them to pollute water or poison the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
plants.
2. Acid rains have a comparatively greater
impact on farm crops than the forests. 96. Consider the following statements with
3. Acid, along with other chemicals in the reference to the Indian Star Tortoise:
air, produces urban smog, which 1. The Indian Star Tortoise is endemic to
causes respiratory problems. the mountain ranges of the Western
Which of the statements given above is/are Ghats in south-western India.
correct?
2. The Indian Star Tortoise is classified as
(a) 1 only
‘Endangered’ in the Red List of the
(b) 2 and 3 only International Union for Conservation of
(c) 1 and 3 only Nature.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Loss of genetic diversity is among the
major threats faced by the species.
94. Which of the following are Ozone-depleting
substances? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. Carbon tetrachloride
2. Methyl chloroform (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Carbon dioxide (b) 2 and 3 only
4. Ammonia (c) 3 only
5. Methyl bromide
(d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1046 18
97. ‘LiFE lessons from India - The benefits of 99. Consider the following statements about
advancing the Lifestyle for Environment Diisocyanates:
(LiFE) initiative through the G20.’ This 1. They are chemicals used in the
report is published by which of the manufacturing of polyurethanes.
following organizations? 2. They are often linked to cause Asthma.
(a) The United Nations Environment 3. They are used to make only rigid foams
Programme and not flexible foams.
(b) The Wold Bank Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) The International Energy Agency correct?
(d) The World Health Organization (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
98. Consider the following statements about (c) 1 and 3 only
Emission Reduction- Linked Bond: (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. These bonds have been issued by the
European Union.
2. In these bonds, investor return is linked Climate Smart Mining Initiative:
to the issuance of Verified Carbon
1. It is an initiative of the UN Environment
Units.
Program.
2. It will help in sustainable mining of
correct?
metals needed for low-carbon
(a) 1 only technologies in all mineral rich
(b) 2 only countries.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1046 19
Answers &
Explanations
of
TEST ID: 1046

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
Full Length Test (FLT)–6

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
Full Length Test (FLT)–6
GS Paper-I: (1046)
1. Answer: (c)  Black and red ware;

Explanation:  Black slipped ware;
In the north-west, Kashmiri Neolithic  Painted grey ware; and
culture was distinguished by its dwelling
 Red ware.
pits, wide range of ceramics, the variety of
stone and bone tools, and the complete The last type of pottery was the most
absence of microliths. Its most important popular and is found almost all over
site is Burzahom, which means ‘the place western Uttar Pradesh. However, the most
of birch’, situated 16 km north-west of distinctive pottery of the period is known as
Srinagar. The Neolithic people in Kashmir the Painted Grey Ware.
used not only polished tools of stone, but Jewellers are also mentioned in the Later
also numerous tools and weapons made of Vedic texts, and they possibly catered to
bones. the needs of the affluent sections of the
society.
2. Answer: (c) By and large, the Later Vedic phase
Explanation: registered a great advance in the material
The citadel of Dholavira, built of stones, is life of the people. The pastoral and semi-
a monumental work and the most nomadic forms of living were relegated to
impressive among the Harappan citadels the background and agriculture became
discovered so far. In Dholavira, dressed the primary source of livelihood, and life
stone was used in masonry with mud became settled and sedentary.
bricks, which is remarkable.
There are many figurines made of fire- 4. Answer: (b)
baked earthen clay, commonly called
Explanation:
terracotta. These were either used as
Taxes were collected directly by the
toys or objects of worship. They
represent birds, dogs, sheep, cattle and royal agents and generally, no
monkeys. Men and women also find a intermediate landlords existed between
place in the terracotta objects, and the the peasants, on the one hand, and the
second outnumber the first. state, on the other.
Seals were made of steatite or faience and Some villages were, however, granted to the
served as the symbols of authority. They Brahmanas and big merchants. Rich
were, hence, used for stamping. However, peasants were called the Gahapatis (A Pali
there are few stamped objects, called term), who were of almost the same status
sealings, in contrast to Egypt and as a section of the Vaishyas.
Mesopotamia. The seals were also used as
amulets. 5. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
3. Answer: (c)
In the Mauryan rule, the state appointed
Explanation: twenty-seven superintendents
The Later Vedic people were acquainted (Adhyakshas), principally to regulate its
with four types of pottery: economic activities. They controlled and
RAUSIAS-1046 1
regulated agriculture, trade and commerce, revenue officers, called the Nad
weights and measures, crafts, such as Gavundas or the Desa Gramakutas.
weaving and spinning, mining, and the like. They appear to have discharged the
The state also provided irrigation facilities same functions as the Deshmukhs and
and regulated water supply for the benefit the Deshpandes of the later times in
of the agriculturists. Maharashtra
The Samaharta was the highest officer in
charge of assessment and collection, and 7. Answer: (c)
the Sannidhata was the chief custodian of Explanation:
the state treasury and storehouse.
 The Mahasabha was a gathering of the
The punch-marked silver coins, which adult men in the Brahman villages,
carry the symbols of the peacock and which were called the Agraharams.
crescented hill, formed the imperial These were the villages with Brahman
currency of the Mauryas. settlements, in which most of the land
was rent-free.
6. Answer: (a)  These villages enjoyed a large measure
Explanation: of autonomy. The affairs of the village
 The directly administered territories were managed by an executive
in the Pala and the Pratihara empires committee, to which educated persons
were divided into the Bhuktis owning property were elected, either by
(Provinces), and the Mandalas or the drawing lots or by rotation. These
Visaya (Districts). The Governor of a members had to retire every three
province was called the Uparika, and years. There were other committees for
the head of a district, the Visayapati. In helping in the assessment and
the Rashtrakuta kingdom, the directly collection of land revenue, for
administered areas were divided into maintenance of law and order, justice,
the Rashtras (Provinces), Visayas and etc. One of the important committees
Bhuktis. The head of the Rashtra was was the ‘tank committee’, which looked
called the Rashtrapati, and he after the distribution of water to the
performed the same functions as the fields. The Mahasabha could distribute
Uparika did in the Pala and the new lands and exercise ownership
Pratihara empires. The Visaya was like rights over them. It could also raise
a modern district and the Bhukti was loans for the village and levy taxes.
a smaller unit to it. In the Pala and
the Pratihara empires, the unit below 8. Answer: (a)
the Visaya was called the Pattala. Explanation:
 In the Rashtrakutas kingdom, the  The responsibility for giving education
rules about succession were not for a craft or profession was generally
rigidly fixed. The eldest son often left to the guilds, or to the individual
succeeded, but there are many families. For instance, we have a
instances when the eldest son had to detailed description of the careful
fight his younger brothers, and manner in which a merchant trained
sometimes lost to them. Thus, the his son for his profession.
Rashtrakuta rulers, Dhruva and
 The growth of science in the country
Govinda IV, deposed their elder
slowed down during the period, so that
brothers.
in the course of time, it was no longer
 An important feature of the period was regarded as a leading country in the
the rise in the Deccan of the hereditary
RAUSIAS-1046 2
field of science. Thus, surgery declined territories of his neighbours, the Sena
because the dissection of the dead rulers of East Bengal, and the Hindu
bodies was regarded as fit only for the rulers of Orissa and Kamrup (Assam)
people of low castes. In fact, surgery continued their sway.
became the profession of the barbers.  Iltutmish took steps to recover Gwalior
Astronomy was gradually pushed into and Bayana. Ajmer and Nagor remained
the background by astrology. under his control. He sent expeditions
 Many books were written on plant against Ranthambhore and Jalor to re-
sciences and for the treatment of assert his suzerainty. He also attacked
Nagda, the capital of Mewar (about 22
animals (e.g., horses, elephants, etc.).
km from Udaipur), but had to beat a
But no way was found for breeding
retreat at the arrival of the Gujarat
fine quality horses, so that India
armies, which had come to aid the
remained dependent on the import of
Rana. As revenge, Iltutmish despatched
such horses from Central Asia,
an expedition against the Chalukyas of
including Arabia and Iran. With the
Gujarat, but it was repulsed with
conquest of these areas by the Muslim losses.
rulers, the Indian rulers had to face
many difficulties in securing the supply
11. Answer: (a)
of good horses.
Explanation:
 The Khalji rebellion was welcomed by
9. Answer: (c)
the non-Turkish sections in the nobility.
Explanation: The Khaljis were of a mixed Turkish—
 With the break-up of the Pratihara Afghan origin, did not exclude the Turks
Empire, a number of Rajput states from high offices, but the rise of the
came into existence in North India. The Khaljis to power ended the Turkish
most important of these were the monopoly of high offices.
Gahadavalas of Kannauj, the  Jalaluddin Khalji ruled only for a brief
Paramaras of Malwa and the Chauhans period of six years. He tried to mitigate
of Ajmer. There were other smaller some of the harsh aspects of Balban’s
dynasties in different parts of the rule. He (Jalaluddin Khalji) was the first
country, such as the Kalachuris in the ruler of the Delhi Sultanate to clearly
area around modern Jabalpur, the put forward the view that the state
Chandellas in Bundelkhand, the should be based on the willing support
Chalukyas of Gujarat, the Tomars of of the governed, and that since the large
Delhi, etc. Bengal remained under the majority of the people in India were
control of the Palas and, later, under Hindus, the state in India could not be
the Senas. The Gahadavalas of Kannauj a truly Islamic state. He also tried to
gain the goodwill of the nobility by a
gradually squeezed the Palas out of
policy of tolerance and avoiding harsh
Bihar.
punishments.
10. Answer: (c)

12. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Explanation:
 In Bengal and Bihar, a person called The ‘Quit India’ Resolution:
Iwaz, who had taken the title of Sultan
In July, 1942, the Congress Working
Ghiyasuddin, had assumed
Committee met at Wardha and resolved
independence. He was a generous and
that it would authorize Gandhi to take
able ruler, and built many public works.
While Iltutmish made raids on the
RAUSIAS-1046 3
charge of the non-violent mass  In case of acceptance of partition,
movement. agreement to be made jointly for
The Resolution, generally referred to as the safeguarding defence, commerce,
‘Quit India’ Resolution, was proposed by communications, etc.
Jawahar Lal Nehru and seconded by  The above terms to be operative only if
Sardar Patel. It was to be approved by the England transferred full powers to
All India Congress Committee meeting India.
in Bombay in August, 1942.
 Jinnah wanted the Congress to accept
The Quit India Resolution was ratified at
the ‘Two-Nation Theory’. He wanted only
the Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank,
the Muslims of the North-West and the
Bombay, on August 8, 1942.
North-East to vote in the plebiscite, and
The meeting resolved to: not the entire population. He also
 demand an immediate end to British opposed the idea of a common centre.
rule in India. Desai-Liaqat Pact: Bhulabhai Desai, the
 declare commitment of free India to leader of the Congress Party in the Central
defend itself against all types of fascism Legislative Assembly, met Liaqat Ali Khan,
and imperialism. the deputy leader of the Muslim League in
 form a Provisional Government of India that Assembly, and both of them came up
after British withdrawal. with the draft proposal for the formation of
 sanction a Civil Disobedience Movement an interim government at the centre,
against the British rule. consisting of
 Gandhi was named the leader of the  an equal number of persons nominated
struggle. by the Congress and the League in the
Central Legislature.
13. Answer: (d)  20% reserved seats for the
Explanation: minorities.
The Rajagopalachari Formula: C.

Rajagopalachari (CR), the veteran Congress 14. Answer: (c)
leader, prepared a Formula for Congress- Explanation:
League co-operation in 1944. It was a tacit The INA (The Indian National Army)
acceptance of the League’s demand for Agitations: The high pitch and intensity at
Pakistan. Gandhi supported the Formula. which the campaign for the release of the
The main points in the CR Formula INA prisoners was conducted was
were: unprecedented.
● The Muslim League to endorse the The agitation got wide publicity through
Congress demand for independence. extensive press coverage with daily
● The League to co-operate with the editorials, distribution of pamphlets, often
Congress in forming a Provisional containing threats of revenge, graffiti
Government at the Centre. conveying similar messages, holding of
● After the end of the War, the entire public meetings and celebrations of the
population of the Muslim majority INA Day (November, 1945) and the INA
areas in the North-West and the week (November 5-11).
North-East India to decide by a The nationalist sentiments, which reached
plebiscite, whether or not to form a a crescendo around the INA trials,
separate sovereign state. developed into violent confrontations with
the authorities in the winter of 1945-46.
RAUSIAS-1046 4
There were three major upsurges: Section-B: Punjab, North-West Frontier
1. November 21, 1945: In Calcutta over Province and Sindh (Muslim-majority
the INA trials. provinces)
2. February 11, 1946: In Calcutta against Section-C: Bengal and Assam (Muslim-
the seven year sentence to the INA majority provinces).
officer Rashid Ali. Three-tier executive and legislature at the
3. February 18, 1946: In Bombay, strike provincial, section and union levels.
by the Royal Indian Navy (RIN) A common centre would control defence,
ratings. communication and external affairs. A
Evaluation of Potential and Impact of federal structure was envisaged for India.
the Three Upsurges: The provinces were to have full
 Revolt in the armed forces had a great autonomy and residual powers.
liberating effect on the minds of the Different Interpretations of the Grouping
people. Clause: Each party, or group, looked at the
Plan from its own point of view.
 The RIN revolt was seen as an event
marking the end of the British rule. Congress: To the Congress, the Cabinet
Mission Plan was against the creation of
 These upsurges prompted the British to
Pakistan, since grouping was optional; one
extend some concessions: The decision
Constituent Assembly was envisaged; and
to send a Parliamentary delegation to
the League no longer had a veto.
India (November, 1946) was taken and
the decision to send the Cabinet Muslim League: The Muslim League
Mission was taken in January, 1946. believed Pakistan to be implied in
compulsory grouping. (The Mission later
Acceptance and Rejection of the Cabinet
clarified that the grouping was
Mission Plan: The Muslim League, on June
compulsory).
6, and the Congress, on June 24, 1946,
accepted the long-term plan put forward by
the Cabinet Mission. 16. Answer: (c)
July 29, 1946: The League withdrew its Explanation:
acceptance of the long-term plan and gave DEVELOPMENT OF JUDICIARY IN
a call for “direct action” from August 16 BRITISH INDIA
to achieve Pakistan. Reforms under Cornwallis (1786-1793) –
Separation of Powers: The District Diwani
15. Answer: (c) Adalat was now designated as the District,
Explanation: City or the Zila Court, and placed under a
The Cabinet Mission reached Delhi in District Judge. The Collector was now
March, 1946. The Mission put forward its responsible only for the revenue
plan for the solution of the Constitutional administration, with no magisterial
problem in May, 1946. functions.
The Cabinet Mission Plan: Main Points: The Cornwallis Code was laid out: There
was a separation of revenue and justice
Rejection of the demand for a full-fledged
administration. The European subjects
Pakistan.
were also brought under jurisdiction. The
Grouping of the existing Provincial
government officials were answerable to the
Assemblies into three sections:
civil courts for the actions done in their
Section-A: Madras, Bombay, Central official capacity. The ‘Principle of
Provinces, United Provinces, Bihar and Sovereignty of Law’ was established.
Orissa (Hindu-majority provinces).
RAUSIAS-1046 5
Reforms under William Bentinck (1828- received the assent of the Governor
1833): The four Circuit Courts were General.
abolished and their functions transferred to The Legislative Council at Calcutta was
the Collectors under the supervision of the given extensive authority to pass laws for
Commissioner of Revenue and Circuit. British India as a whole, while the
Sadar Diwani Adalat and a Sadar Nizamat Legislative Councils at Bombay and Madras
Adalat were set up at Allahabad. were given power to make laws for the
Persian was the official language in the peace and good government of their
courts. Now, the suitor had the option to respective Presidencies.
use Persian or a vernacular language,
while in the Supreme Court, English 18. Answer: (c)
language replaced Persian. Explanation:
1833: A Law Commission was set up The Royal Commission on
under Macaulay for the codification of Decentralization (1908): Pointing out the
the Indian laws. As a result, a Civil lack of financial resources as the great
Procedure Code (1859), an Indian Penal stumbling block in the effective functioning
Code (1860) and a Criminal Procedure of the local bodies, the Commission made
Code (1861) were prepared. the following recommendations:
(i) It emphasized that the Village
17. Answer: (d) Panchayats should be entrusted with
Explanation: more powers, like judicial jurisdiction in
The Indian Councils Act, 1861: The Act is petty cases, incurring expenditure on
known to have made notable changes in minor village works, village schools,
the composition of the Governor General’s small fuel and fodder reserves, etc. The
Council for executive and legislative Panchayats should be given adequate
purposes. The Council of the Governor sources of income.
General of India performed dual functions (ii) It emphasized the importance of Sub-
of executive and legislature. District Boards to be established in
The Executive Council of Governor General every Taluka or Tehsil, with separate
was expanded and a fifth member of law spheres of duties and separate sources
was added. of revenue for the Sub-District Boards
Five members: Home; Revenue; Military; and the District Boards.
Law; and Finance. (iii) It urged the withdrawal of existing
The Act empowered the Governor General restrictions on their powers of taxation,
to make rules for the more convenient and also, the stoppage of regular
transaction of business in the Council. This grants-in-aid from the Provincial
power was used by Lord Canning to Governments, except for undertaking
introduce the Portfolio System (Cabinet large projects.
type) in the Government of India. (iv) The Municipalities might undertake the
The Governments of Madras and Bombay responsibility for primary education and
were deprived of their power of legislation vernacular schools; otherwise the
by the Charter Act of 1833. The Indian government should relieve them of any
Councils Act of 1861 restored the power of charges in regard to secondary
legislation to the Governor-in-Councils of education, hospitals, relief, police,
Madras and Bombay in respective matters. veterinary works, etc.
However, no laws passed by the Provincial Ripon’s Resolution of 1882: For his
Councils were to be valid until those contributions, Lord Ripon is called the
‘Father of Local Self-Government in India’.
RAUSIAS-1046 6
The Resolution consisted of:  Fixed maximum working hours for
 Development of local bodies advocated the women at 11 hours per day, with
to improve the administration, and as a one-and-a-half-hour interval
an instrument of political and popular (working hours for the men were left
education. unregulated).
 Policy of administrating local affairs  Provided weekly holiday for all.
through urban and rural local bodies But these laws did not apply to the
charged with definite duties and British-owned tea and coffee
entrusted with suitable sources of plantations, where the labour was
revenues.
exploited ruthlessly and treated like slaves.
 Non-officials to be in majority in The government helped these planters by
these bodies, who could be elected if passing laws, such as those which made it
the officials thought that it was virtually impossible for a labourer to refuse
possible to introduce elections.
to work once a contract was entered into. A
 Non-officials to act as the Chairpersons breach of contract was a criminal offence,
to these bodies. with the planter having the right to get the
 Mayo’s Resolution of 1870: Financial defaulting labourer arrested.
decentralization was a legislative
devolution inaugurated by the Indian
20. Answer: (b)
Councils Act of 1861. Apart from the
annual grant from imperial Explanation:
Government, the provincial S.N. Newspaper Publisher/Editor
governments were authorized to resort
1. Indian Mirror N. N. Sen
to local taxation to balance their
budgets. 2. New India Annie Besant
3. Indian Mahatma Gandhi

19. Answer: (b) Opinion
Explanation:
4. Voice of India Dadabhai Naoroji
The Indian Factory Act, 1881, dealt
primarily with the problem of child labour
(between 7 and 12 years of age). 21. Answer: (b)
Its significant provisions were: Explanation:
 Employment of children under 7 years The First Cabinet after Independence:
of age prohibited. Jawaharlal Nehru took charge as the first
 Working hours restricted to 9 hours per Prime Minister of India on August 15,
day for the children. 1947, and was assisted by 15 other
 The children to get four holidays in a members.
month. Lord Mountbatten, and later C.
 Hazardous machinery to be properly Rajagopalachari, served as the Governor
fenced off. General till January 26, 1950, when India
The Indian Factory Act, 1891: became a Republic and elected Rajendra
Prasad as its first President.
 Increased the minimum age (from 7 to 9
years) and the maximum (from 12 to 14 The first Council of Ministers of
years) for the children. Independent India was as follows:
 Reduced maximum working hours for 1. Jawaharlal Nehru: Prime Minister;

the children to 7 hours a day. Minister of External Affairs and
Commonwealth Relations; Minister of
Scientific Research.
RAUSIAS-1046 7
2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Deputy Prime 23. Answer: (c)
Minister; Minister of Home Affairs and Explanation:
States; Minister of Information and Plebiscite: A vote by the people of an entire
Broadcasting. country or district to decide on some issue,
3. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad: Minister of such as the choice of a ruler or
Education. government, option for independence or
4. John Mathai: Minister of Railways annexation by another power, or a question
and Transport. of national policy. Unlike a ‘referendum’,
the decision reached in a ‘plebiscite’ does
5. Jagjivan Ram: Minister of Labour.
not have any legal force.
6. C.H. Bhabha: Minister of Commerce.
Referendum: It is the principle or practice
7. Amrit Kaur: Minister of Health. of submitting to the popular vote a
8. B.R. Ambedkar: Minister of Law measure passed on or proposed by a
(belonged to the Scheduled Castes legislative body or by popular initiative. It is
Federation; resigned in 1951). a vote on a measure so submitted.
9. R.K. Shanmukham Chetty: Minister of Junagarh: The Muslim Nawab wanted to
Finance. join Pakistan, but the Hindu majority
population wanted to join the Indian Union.
In the face of repressive attitude of the
22. Answer: (a)
Nawab, there was a plebiscite, which
Explanation:
decided in favour of India.
The Butler Committee (1927) was set up to
Sikkim: In 1973, anti-royalist riots took
examine the nature of relationship between
place in front of the Chogyal's Palace. In
the Princely States and the Government. 1975, after the Indian Army took over the
It gave the following recommendations: city of Gangtok, a referendum was held,
1. Paramountcy must remain supreme that led to the dissolution of the monarchy
and must fulfil its obligations, adopting and Sikkim joining India as its 22nd state.
and defining itself according to the Pondicherry: On 1st November, 1954,
shifting necessities of time and Pondicherry was transferred to India. A
progressive development of the states. Treaty of Cessation (together with
2. The states should not be handed over to Karaikal, Mahe and Yanam) was signed
an Indian Government in British India, on May 28, 1956. It became a Union
responsible to an Indian Legislature, Territory to be administered by the
President of India in 1962, under the 14th
without the consent of the states.
Amendment of the Indian Constitution.
Thus, “paramountcy” was left undefined
Goa: In 1961, India annexed Goa after a
and this hydra-headed creature was left to
36-hour battle and integrated it with the
feed on usage, Crown’s prerogative and the
Indian Territory. The area of Goa was
princes’ implied consent.
incorporated into Goa, Daman & Diu,
According to the recommendations of which included the Daman territory in the
the Montford Reforms (1921), a Chamber north of the Konkan region. In 1987,
of Princes (Narendra Mandal) was set up following the Konkani language
as a consultative and advisory body, agitation, Goa was granted statehood.
having no say in the internal affairs of Jammu and Kashmir: The state of Jammu
individual states and having no powers to and Kashmir had a Hindu prince and a
discuss the matters concerning the existing Muslim majority population. The prince
rights and freedoms. envisaged a sovereign status for the state
and was reluctant to accede to either of the
RAUSIAS-1046 8
dominions. As he procrastinated, the newly above. In addition, the Assembly had
established state of Pakistan sent its forces twenty- eight members from the Scheduled
behind a front of tribal militia and moved Castes.
menacingly towards Srinagar. It was now
that the prince was forced to sign an 25. Answer: (a)
Instrument of Accession (October, 1947)
Explanation:
with the Indian Union, endorsed by the
Main Points of the Objectives
popular leader Sheikh Abdullah. The
Resolution:
Indian troops were despatched to defend
the state against the raiders from Pakistan.  All powers and authority of sovereign
and independent India and its
Accession of Hyderabad to India: India
Constitution shall flow from the
invaded the state on September 13, 1948,
people.
following a crushing economic blockade,
fearful of the establishment of a  All people of India shall be guaranteed
Communist state in Hyderabad and the and secured social, economic and
rise of the violent Razakars. The Nizam political justice; equality of status and
then signed an Instrument of Accession, opportunities and equality before law;
thereby joining India. and fundamental freedoms - of speech,
expression, belief, faith, worship,
vocation, association and action -
24. Answer: (c)
subject to law and public morality.
Explanation:
 The territorial integrity of the Republic
The members of the Constituent
and its sovereign rights on land, sea
Assembly were chosen by indirect
and air shall be maintained according
election by the members of the
to the justice and law of the civilized
Provincial Legislative Assemblies that
nations.
had been established under the
Government of India Act, 1935.
26. Answer: (b)
The Constituent Assembly was composed
roughly along the lines suggested by the Explanation:
plan proposed by the Committee of the PROVISIONS ADAPTED FROM
British Cabinet, known as the Cabinet DIFFERENT CONSTITUTIONS
Mission, 1946. The Canadian Constitution:
Each Province and each Princely State, or  A Quasi-Federal Form of Government
group of States, were allotted seats (A federal system with a strong
proportional to their respective population, Central Government).
roughly in the ratio of 1:10,00,000.  The idea of Residual Powers.
The seats in each Province were distributed The French Constitution:
among the three main communities,  The Principles of Liberty, Equality and
Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion Fraternity.
to their respective populations.
The Irish Constitution:
The Constitution was committed to a new
 The Directive Principles of State
conception of citizenship, where not only
Policy.
would the minorities be secure, but
religious identity would have no bearing on The United States Constitution:
the citizenship rights.  The Charter of Fundamental Rights.
The members of all religions were given  The Power of Judicial Review.
representation under the scheme described  Independence of the Judiciary.
RAUSIAS-1046 9
The British Constitution: not doing legal duty and, thereby, is
 First Past the Post. infringing on the right of an individual.
 The Parliamentary Form of Government. Prohibition: This writ is issued by a
Higher Court (A High Court or the
 The idea of the Rule of Law.
Supreme Court) when a Lower Court has
 The Institution of the Speaker and
considered a case going beyond its
her/his role.
jurisdiction.
 Law-making Procedure.
Certiorari: Under this writ, the court
orders a Lower Court or another
27. Answer: (c) authority to transfer a matter pending
Explanation: before it to the higher authority or
Right to Equality: court.
 Equality before law and equal protection
of laws. 29. Answer: (c)
 Prohibition of discrimination on Explanation:
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or Some guidelines were incorporated in the
place of birth. Constitution, but they were not made
 Equal access to shops, hotels, wells, legally enforceable. This means that if the
tanks, bathing Ghats, roads etc. government did not implement a particular
 Equality of opportunity in public guideline, we cannot go to the court, asking
employment. the court to instruct the government to
implement that policy.
 Abolition of untouchability.
Thus, these guidelines are ‘non-justiciable’,
 Abolition of titles.
i.e., the parts of the Constitution that
It provides for equal access to public cannot be enforced by the judiciary.
places, like shops, hotels, places of
The Directive Principles of State Policy
entertainment, wells, bathing Ghats and
list mainly three things:
places of worship.
 The goals and objectives that we as a
There cannot be any discrimination in this
society should adopt;
access on the grounds only of religion, race,
caste, sex, or place of birth.  Certain rights that the individuals
should enjoy apart from the
Fundamental Rights; and
28. Answer: (c)
 Certain policies that the government
Explanation:
should adopt.
Dr. Ambedkar considered the Right to
Constitutional Remedies as the ‘Heart and
30. Answer: (a)
Soul of the Constitution’.
Explanation:
It is so because this right gives a citizen the
right to approach a High Court or the Fundamental Duties:
Supreme Court to get any of the  In 1976, the 42nd Amendment to the
Fundamental Rights restored in case of Constitution was passed. Among other
their violation. The Supreme Court and the things, this Amendment inserted a list
High Courts can issue orders and give of Fundamental Duties of the citizens.
directives to the government for the In all, ten Duties were enumerated.
enforcement of the rights. However, the Constitution does not say
Mandamus: This writ is issued when the anything about enforcing these Duties.
court finds that a particular office holder is
RAUSIAS-1046 10
 As citizens, we must abide by the in the constitution. In India, the
Constitution, defend our country, residuary powers are vested in the
promote harmony among all citizens, Union. Although the states in India
protect the environment. have the exclusive power of legislation
 However, it must be noted that our over every item in the State List, there
Constitution does not make the are certain exceptions to this general
enjoyment of the Fundamental Rights rule. In these exceptional cases, the
dependent or conditional upon the Centre has residuary powers to
fulfilment of the duties. In this sense, legislate.
the inclusion of the Fundamental  Article 250 empowers the Parliament to
Duties has not changed the status of
make laws on any item included in the
our Fundamental Rights.
State List for the whole or any part of
India, while a Proclamation of
31. Answer: (d) Emergency is in operation. The
Explanation: maximum period for which such a law
The First Past the Post (FPTP) System: can be enforced is the period for which
The country is divided into small Emergency lasts, and six months
geographical units, called Constituencies beyond that period.
or Districts.
Every Constituency elects one 33. Answer: (a)
representative.
Explanation:
The voter votes for a candidate.
The main features of the 73rd
A party may get more seats than the votes Constitutional (Amendment) Act (1992)
in the legislature.
are:
The candidate who wins the election
(a) A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj
may not get majority (50%+1) votes.
at the village, block (intermediate
Examples: The UK, India.
level) and district levels for all states
The Proportional Representation (PR) having a population of over 20 lakhs;
System:
(b) To conduct Panchayat elections
Large geographical areas are demarcated regularly in every five years and
as Constituencies. The entire country
elections to be held within six
may be a single constituency.
months after the dissolution of the
More than one representative may be Panchayat;
elected from one Constituency. The voter
(c) Reservation of seats for the Scheduled
votes for the party.
Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, OBCs,
Every party gets seats in the legislature in
women (33%) and general seats;
proportion to the percentage of votes that it
(d) To appoint the State Finance
gets. The candidate who wins the
election gets majority of votes. Commission to make recommendations
regarding the financial powers of the
Examples: Israel, the Netherlands.
Panchayats; and
(e) To constitute the District Planning
32. Answer: (b)
Committee to prepare a draft
Explanation:
development plan for the district as a
 Residuary powers are the powers to whole.
legislate on the issues which are not
mentioned in the three lists mentioned
RAUSIAS-1046 11
34. Answer: (d) (iii) certifies that the case is a fit one for
Explanation: appeal to the Supreme Court.
 Under the situation of Financial In the first two cases, an appeal lies to the
Emergency, the President can reduce Supreme Court as a matter of right (i.e.,
the salaries of all government without any certificate of the High Court).
officials, including the Supreme But if the High Court has reversed the
Court and the High Court judges. order of conviction and has ordered the
Even Money Bills and other Bills, under acquittal of the accused, there is no
Article 207, passed by the State right to appeal to the Supreme Court.
Legislatures need to be submitted to the
President for approval under such 36. Answer: (b)
circumstances.
Explanation:
 According to Article 360, Financial
 India is a Union of States, wherein the
Emergency can be imposed when there
Centre plays a prominent role, but, at
is financial instability in India or any
the same time, is dependent on the
part of it. In India, Financial Emergency
States for the execution of its policies.
has not been imposed. If a situation
The Constitution has provided for
arises for the Proclamation of Financial
devices to bring about inter-
Emergency in India, it must be
governmental co-operation, effective
approved by the Parliament within
consultations between the Centre and
two months of promulgation. In case
the States, so that all important
the Lower House is dissolved at the time
national policies are arrived at through
of Proclamation of Financial Emergency,
dialogue, discussion and consensus.
it will cease to exist on the expiry of
One such device is the setting up of the
thirty days from the date of its first
meeting after its reconstitution. Inter-State Council. The President is
given the powers, under Article 263
of the Constitution, to define the
35. Answer: (d)
nature of the duties of the Council.
Explanation:
 The Council is to inquire into and
 The Supreme Court is authorized to advise upon the disputes which may
grant in its discretion special leave have arisen between the States. In
to appeal from any judgement in any
addition, it may investigate and discuss
matter passed by any court or
subjects of common interest between
tribunal in the country (Except
the Union and the States, or between
military tribunal and court martial).
two or more States, in order to facilitate
 The Supreme Court hears appeals co-ordination of policy and action.
against the judgement in a criminal
proceeding of a High Court, if the High
37. Answer: (c)
Court:
Explanation:
(i) has on appeal reversed an order of
acquittal of an accused person and The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State
sentenced him to death; or relations was constituted in 1983 under
the Chairmanship of Justice R. S. Sarkaria,
(ii) has taken before itself any case from
any subordinate court and convicted a retired judge of the Supreme Court. It
the accused person and sentenced was to examine and suggest reforms for an
him to death; or equitable distribution of powers between
the Centre and the States.
RAUSIAS-1046 12
The major recommendations include: Federation. The Federation is a Union,
(i) The Governor of a State to be a non- because it is indestructible.
political person appointed with the  Article 1 of the Indian Constitution
concurrence of the Chief Minister. declares India as the Union of States,
(ii) Before issue of directions to a State thereby implying the indestructibleness
and application of Section under of the Union and the unity of India. By
Article 365, utmost caution should be implication, no unit possesses the right
exercised and all possibilities explored to secede. It is the sole prerogative of
for setting points of conflict by all other the Union to form the States by way of
available means. division, merger and alteration of the
(iii) The representative State to be existing internal boundaries of India.
consulted before deployment of the The Union also possesses the right to
Union’s armed and other forces in that admit any new territory in the Union of
State. India.
(iv) Sharing of the corporate taxes between
the Centre and the States to be made 39. Answer: (c)
mandatory. Explanation:
(v) The transfer of High Court judges Article 78 enumerates the duties of the
should not be against their will. Prime Minister. The Prime Minister is to:
(vi) The States should have more control (a) communicate to the President all
over the matters in the Concurrent decisions of the Council of Ministers
List and the Centre's hold over the relating to the administration of the
Union List should be loosened. affairs of the Union and proposals for
(vii) To foster co-operative federalism in legislation;
inter-governmental relations, the (b) furnish such information relating to the
Commission recommended the setting administration of the affairs of the
up of Inter-State Council under Article Union and proposals for legislation, as
263. the President may call for; and
(c) if the President so requires, to submit
38. Answer: (b) for the consideration of the Council of
Explanation: Ministers any matter on which a
decision has been taken by a Minister,
 Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat
but which has not been considered by
as a ‘Union of States’, rather than a
the Council.
‘Federation of States’. This provision
deals with two things: One, the name of
the country; and two, the type of polity. 40. Answer: (c)
The country is described as ‘Union’, Explanation:
although its Constitution is federal in The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)
structure. According to Dr. B.R. presides over the Election Commission, but
Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ does not have more powers than the other
has been preferred to ‘Federation of Election Commissioners.
States’ for two reasons: One, the Indian The CEC and the two Election
Federation is not the result of an Commissioners have equal powers to take
agreement among the States, like the all decisions relating to elections as a
American Federation; and two, the collective body. They are appointed by the
States have no right to secede from the President of India, on the advice of the
Council of Ministers.
RAUSIAS-1046 13
The CEC can be removed before the expiry 42. Answer: (c)
of the term, by the President, if both the Explanation:
Houses of the Parliament make such a The exaggerated response of the immune
recommendation with a special majority. system to certain antigens present in the
This is done to ensure that a ruling party environment is called allergy. The
cannot remove a CEC who refuses to favour substances to which such an immune
it in elections. The Election Commissioners response is produced are called allergens.
can be removed by the President of India. The anti-bodies produced to these are of
IgE (Immunoglobulin) type. Common
41. Answer: (a) examples of allergens are mites in dust,
Explanation: pollens, animal dander, etc. Allergy is due
to the release of chemicals like histamine
When breeding is between the animals of
and serotonin from the mast cells.
the same breed, it is called ‘in-breeding’,
while crosses between different breeds are
called ‘out-breeding’. 43. Answer: (b)
In-breeding: In-breeding refers to the Explanation:
mating of more closely related individuals The Hardy-Weinberg Principle: In a given
within the same breed for 4- 6 generations. population, one can find out the frequency
The breeding strategy is as follows: The of occurrence of alleles of a gene or a locus.
superior males and the superior females of This frequency is supposed to remain fixed
the same breed are identified and mated in and even remain the same through
pairs. generations. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle
Out-breeding: It is the breeding of the stated it using the algebraic equations.
unrelated animals, which may be between This Principle says that allele
individuals of the same breed, but having frequencies in a population are stable
no common ancestors for 4-6 generations and constant from generation to
(out-crossing) or between different breeds generation. The gene pool (total genes and
(cross-breeding) or different species (inter- their alleles in a population) remains a
specific hybridization). constant. This is called genetic equilibrium.
Out-crossing: This is the practice of Sum total of all the allelic frequencies is 1.
mating of the animals within the same Gene migration or gene flow, genetic drift,
breed, but having no common ancestors mutation, genetic recombination and
on either side of their pedigree upto 4-6 natural selection are the five factors to
generations. The offspring of such a affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
mating is known as an out-cross.
Cross-breeding: In this method, the 44. Answer: (b)
superior males of one breed are mated Explanation:
with the superior females of another
Crop Variety Resistance to
breed. Cross-breeding allows the desirable
diseases
qualities of two different breeds to be
combined. Wheat Himgiri Leaf and stripe
rust, hill bunt
Inter-specific hybridization: In this
method, male and female animals of two Brassica Pus a swarnim White rust
different related species are mated. In some (Karon rai)
cases, the progeny may combine desirable Cauliflower Pusa Shubhra, Black rot and
features of both the parents, and may be of Pusa Snowball Curl blight black
considerable economic value. K-l rot
RAUSIAS-1046 14
Cowpea Pusa Komal Bacterial blight upon the crop and the targeted pest, as
most Bt toxins are insect-group specific.
Chilli Pusa Chilly mosaic
Sadabahar virus. Tobacco
mosaic virus and 47. Answer: (b)
Leaf curl Explanation:
The two parts of a typical stamen – the long
and slender stalk called the filament, and
45. Answer: (b)
the terminal generally bilobed structure
Explanation:
called the anther.
The second developmental flight of the
Structure of microsporangium: In a
Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV),
transverse section, a typical
SSLV-D2, is intended to inject EOS-07,
microsporangium appears near circular in
Janus-1 and AzaadiSAT-2 satellites into
outline. It is generally surrounded by four
the 450 km circular orbit, in its 15
wall layers – the epidermis, the
minutes’ flight.
endothecium, the middle layers and the
The SSLV caters to the launch of upto
tapetum. The outer three wall layers
500 kg satellites to the Low Earth Orbits perform the function of protection and help
on ‘launch-on-demand’ basis. It provides in dehiscence of the anther to release the
low-cost access to space, offers low turn- pollen. The innermost wall layer is the
around time and flexibility in tapetum. It nourishes the developing pollen
accommodating multiple satellites, and grains.
demands minimal launch infrastructure. It
The pollen grains represent the male
is configured with three solid propulsion
gametophytes. The pollen grains are
stages and a velocity terminal module.
generally spherical, measuring about 25-50
micrometres in diameter. They have a
46. Answer: (a) prominent two-layered wall. The hard outer
Explanation: layer, called the exine, is made up of
Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis sporopollenin, which is one of the most
produce proteins that kill certain insects, resistant organic materials known. It can
such as lepidopterans (tobacco budworm, withstand high temperatures and strong
armyworm), coleopterans (beetles) and acids and alkali. No enzyme that degrades
dipterans (flies, mosquitoes). B. sporopollenin is so far known.
thuringiensis forms protein crystals during
a particular phase of its growth. These 48. Answer: (d)
crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein.
Explanation:
The Bt toxin protein exists as an
Many single-celled organisms reproduce by
inactive protoxin, but once an insect
binary fission, where a cell divides into two
ingests the inactive toxin, it is converted
halves and each rapidly grows into an adult
into an active form of toxin due to the
(e.g., Amoeba, Paramecium). In yeast, the
alkaline pH of the gut which solubilize the
division is unequal and small buds are
crystals. The activated toxin binds to the
produced that remain attached initially to
surface of the midgut epithelial cells and
the parent cell, which eventually gets
creates pores that cause cell swelling and
separated and mature into new yeast
lysis, and eventually cause death of the
organisms (cells). Under unfavourable
insect. Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated
condition, the Amoeba withdraws its
from Bacillus thuringiensis and
pseudopodia and secretes a three-
incorporated into several crop plants, such
layered hard covering or cyst around
as cotton. The choice of genes depends
RAUSIAS-1046 15
itself. This phenomenon is termed as Currently, India has a ‘Partially
encystation. Convertible Capital Account’ policy.
When favourable conditions return, the However, there is full Current Account
encysted Amoeba divides by multiple Convertibility in India since 1993.
fission and produces many minute
Amoebae or pseudopodiospores; the cyst 51. Answer: (d)
wall bursts out, and the spores are Explanation:
liberated in the surrounding medium to
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as the
grow up into many Amoebae. This
Debt Manager:
phenomenon is known as sporulation.
 The RBI Act (1934) mandates the RBI to
undertake receipts and payments of the
49. Answer: (b) Central Government, and carry out
Explanation: banking and management of Public
Biogas is a mixture of gases (containing Debt of the Union.
predominantly methane) produced by the  The State Government transactions are
microbial activity and which may be used carried out by the RBI in terms of an
as fuel. The type of the gas produced agreement entered by the RBI and the
depends upon the microbes and the State Governments under the RBI Act.
organic substrates they utilize. Bacteria, As of now, such agreements exist
which grow anaerobically on the between the RBI and all State
cellulosic material, produce large Governments, except Sikkim. Thus,
amount of methane, along with CO2 and the RBI is the banker and debt manager
H2. These bacteria are collectively called of the Government.
methanogens, and one such common
 The RBI issues both, the Treasury Bills
bacterium is Methanobacterium. These
and Bonds, or Dated Securities, while
bacteria are commonly found in the
the State Governments issue only
anaerobic sludge during sewage treatment.
Bonds or Dated Securities, which are
These bacteria are also present in the
called the State Development Loans
rumen (A part of stomach) of the cattle. A
(SDLs).
lot of cellulosic material present in the food
 Treasury bills: Money market
of the cattle is also present in the rumen.
instruments issued by GoI. Presently,
In rumen, these bacteria help in the
issued in three tenors of 91 days, 182
breakdown of cellulose and play an
days and 364 days.
important role in the nutrition of the cattle.
 Cash Management bills: Issued by GoI
to meet temporary mismatches in cash
50. Answer: (a)
flow of GoI. They are like T-bills but are
Explanation: issued for maturities less than 91 days.
Convertibility refers to the ability to convert
the domestic currency into foreign
52. Answer: (b)
currencies, and vice versa, to make
Explanation:
payments for the Balance of Payments
transactions. Current Account The National List of Essential Medicines,
Convertibility is the ability or freedom to 2022:
convert the domestic currency for Current  The National List of Essential
Account transactions, while Capital Medicines, 2022, has been notified by
Account Convertibility is the ability or the Ministry of Health and Family
freedom to convert the domestic currency Welfare.
for Capital Account transactions.
RAUSIAS-1046 16
 Medicines included in the National List businesses. Protection from currency
of Essential Medicines are included in volatility not only reduces the cost of doing
Schedule I of the Drugs (Prices Control) business, but also enables better business
Order, 2013. growth, improving the chances for the
Indian businesses to grow globally. It also
 The prices of the drugs, included in
reduces the need for holding foreign
Schedule I (i.e., the National List of
exchange reserves and dependence on
Essential Medicines), are fixed by the
foreign currency, making the Indian
Government, based on taking average of
economy less vulnerable to external
all brands who have market share of
shocks. Further, it could assist the Indian
more than 1%.
exporters in getting advance payments in
 The Government shall revise the INR from the overseas clients and, in the
ceiling prices of the scheduled longer term, promote INR as an
formulations as per the annual international currency, once the Rupee
Wholesale Price Index (WPI) for the settlement mechanism gains traction. One
preceding calendar year, on or before of the pre-requisites for the emergence of
1st April of every year and notify the an international currency is that the said
same on the 1st day of April every year. currency needs to be increasingly used for
trade invoicing.
53. Answer: (d)
55. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Explanation:
It has been observed that many Indian
companies have been getting Districts as Export Hubs Initiative: The
Department of Commerce, through the
headquartered overseas, especially in the
Director General of Foreign Trade, is
destinations with favourable legal
engaging with the State/UT Governments
environments and taxation policies. The
to take forward the ‘Districts as Export Hub
technical jargon for this may be identified
Initiative’ to convert each district into an
as ‘Flipping’, which is the process of
export hub.
transferring the entire ownership of an
Objectives of the Districts as Export
Indian company to an overseas entity,
Hubs Initiative:
accompanied by a transfer of all IP and
 Enables the MSMEs (The Micro, Small,
all data hitherto owned by the Indian
Medium Enterprises), farmers and small
company. It effectively transforms an
industries to get the benefits of export
Indian company into a 100% subsidiary of
opportunities in the overseas markets.
a foreign entity, with the founders and
 Shifts focus on district led export
investors retaining the same ownership via
growth for self-sufficiency and self-
the foreign entity, having swapped all
reliance.
shares.
 Attracts investment in the districts to
boost manufacturing and exports.
54. Answer: (d)
 Provides ecosystem for innovation/use
Explanation: of technology at the district level to
The Benefits of International Trade make them export competitive.
Settlements in Indian Rupees (INR): The  Reduces transaction cost for the
framework could largely reduce the net exporters at various stages of export
demand for foreign exchange, the US dollar cycle.
in particular, for the settlement of current
 Hand-holding and assistance to the
account related trade flows. Further, the
exporters by doorstep delivery of timely
use of INR in cross-border trade is expected
and relevant information.
to mitigate currency risk for the Indian
RAUSIAS-1046 17
 Generates employment in the districts. Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is
 Provides platforms for wide and global the Secretariat for the implementation
reach of products and services from the of the National Programme for Organic
districts through e-commerce and Production (NPOP). The NPOP provides
digital marketing, farmers, handicrafts, an institutional mechanism for
handlooms, tourism and other cottage accreditation of certification bodies and
industries. certification of organic process and
products.
Institutional Mechanism: An
institutional mechanism is being set up  Presently, raw organic cotton (seed
in each district in the form of ‘District cotton) is mandated under the
Export Promotion Committees (DEPCs)’, certification of the NPOP, as notified
with the Collector/DM/DC/District under the Foreign Trade (Development
Development Officer/CDO as the and Regulation) Act (1992) of the
Chairperson and the designated DGFT Directorate General of Foreign Trade
(The Directorate General of Foreign (DGFT). The processing, such as
Trade) representative as the Co- ginning, spinning, knitting, weaving
Chairperson. The General Manager of the etc., are not covered under the NPOP
District Industries Centre (DIC) is the as mandatory requirement for export
convener of the DEPCs, with representative from the country and the processed
from other important government form of organic cotton is exported
departments. under the private certification
Functions of the DEPC: system.
 Prepares and acts on the District  Currently, private organic textile
Specific Export Action Plan to develop standards, such as the Global Organic
as an export hub. Textile Standards (GOTS) and Textile
 Assessment of a district to identify the Exchange control the global market,
current export profile. reducing India to a mere raw material
 Identifying products and promoting supplier in the organic textile segment.
potential products for exports.
 Entry of all district level data into a 57. Answer: (c)
portal being developed by the DGFT.
Explanation:
 Acts as a grievance redressal forum for
“Central Counterparty” (CCP) means a
the exporters and follows up with the
system provider, who, by way of novation,
concerned Central/State agency.
interposes between the system participants
 Facilitates in organizing buyer-seller
in the transactions admitted for settlement,
meets, exhibitions, trade fairs etc., in
thereby becoming the buyer to every seller
the district to encourage the industries
and the seller to every buyer, for the
to showcase their products to the world.
purpose of effecting settlement of their
 Implementing the District Export Action
transactions.
Plan in a phased manner to ensure that
The Central Counterparties in India are
the district achieves the targeted export
growth. regulated under the Payment and
Settlement Systems Act, 2007, by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
56. Answer: (b)
The RBI mandates that the shares of an
Explanation:
authorized CCP shall be held by the
 The APEDA (The Agricultural and
persons who are the users of the
Processed Food Products Export
authorized CCP. If a person ceases to be a
Development Authority), under the
RAUSIAS-1046 18
user, the CCP shall ensure that the and tellurium—none of which India
person’s shares are divested. produces.
58. Answer: (b) 61. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Explanation:
China is the world’s largest producer of The National Urban Digital Mission (NUDM)
wheat, followed by India, Russia and the was launched in 2021, to facilitate
USA. electronic delivery of municipal services to
India has emerged as one of the important the citizens across towns and cities of the
exporters of wheat crop. country. The NUDM will make available
However, wheat crop in India suffers from a shared digital infrastructure to all States
disease, known as Karnal Bunt. and Union Territories (UTs), which would
include foundational digital building
blocks, ready-to-use platforms, standards,
59. Answer: (b)
specifications and frameworks for
Explanation:
electronic delivery of municipal services.
The India Debt Resolution Company
The implementation of the NUDM is being
Limited (IDRCL) is a service
anchored by the Centre for Digital
company/operational entity which will
Governance (CDG), under the National
manage the assets, and engage market
Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA).
professionals and turnaround experts. The
Stakeholders’ consultation is a part of the
Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and the
Public FIs (Financial Institutions) will approach towards the implementation of
hold a maximum of 49% stake and the the NUDM, and engagements have started
rest will be with the private sector with various State Governments. It is
lenders. Setting up a ‘Bad Bank’ was a key being implemented under the Ministry
reform measure of Budget 2021, and it was of Housing and Urban Affairs.
incorporated in 2021. The IDRCL, the
principal agent for the NARCL (The 62. Answer: (d)
National Asset Reconstruction Company Explanation:
Limited), will be in charge of the resolution.
To protect the interests of the consumers;
It will have no balance sheet.
to prevent their exploitation; and to
encourage free and fair competition in the
60. Answer: (a)
market, the Government of India is sharing
Explanation: a draft of the proposed amendments to the
Critical minerals refer to the mineral Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules,
resources, both primary and processed, 2020. The proposed amendments aim to
which are essential inputs in the bring transparency in the e-commerce
production process of an economy, and platforms and further strengthen the
whose supplies are likely to be disrupted on regulatory regime to curb the prevalent
account of non-availability or risks of
unfair trade practices.
unaffordable price spikes. These minerals
The proposed amendments are as
lack substitutability and recycling
processes. follows:
Solar power will play a major role in India’s  To ensure compliance of the Consumer
clean energy transition. Some of the key Protection Act, 2019 and Rules,
minerals for manufacturing the appointment of a Chief Compliance
photovoltaic cells include silicon, silver, Officer, a nodal contact person for 24×7
indium, arsenic, gallium, germanium co-ordination with the law enforcement
RAUSIAS-1046 19
agencies, officers to ensure compliance certification programme. Under LAC, each
to their orders and Resident Grievance village in the area is considered as one
Officer for redressing of the grievances cluster/group. Documentations are simple
of the consumers on the e-commerce and maintained village-wise. All farmers
platform, have been proposed. with their farmland and livestock need to
 To protect the interests of the adhere to the standard requirements and
consumers, mis-selling has been on being verified get certified en-mass,
prohibited, i.e., selling goods and without the need to go under the
services entities selling goods or conversion period. Certification is renewed
services by deliberate misrepresentation on an annual basis, through annual
of information by such entities about verification by a process of peer appraisals,
such goods or services. To ensure that as per the process of the PGS-India.
the consumers are aware about the
expiry date of the products they are 64. Answer: (c)
buying on the e-commerce platform, all Explanation:
sellers on marketplace e-commerce
The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a
entities and all inventory e-commerce
regional, inter-governmental, political and
entities to provide ‘best before’ or ‘use
economic union, established by an
before’ date to enable the consumers to
agreement concluded in 1981 in Riyadh
make an informed purchase decision.
(Saudi Arabia), among Bahrain, Kuwait,
 To ensure that the consumers are not Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and the UAE
adversely affected in the event where a (The United Arab Emirates), in view of
seller fails to deliver the goods or their special relations, geographic
services due to negligent conduct by proximity, similar political systems based
such seller in fulfilling the duties and on Islamic beliefs, joint destiny and
liabilities in the manner as prescribed common objectives.
by the marketplace e-commerce entity, The structure of the GCC consists of the
provisions of ‘fall-back liability’ for every Supreme Council, the Ministerial Council
marketplace e-commerce entity have and the Secretariat General. The
been provided. Secretariat is located in the city of Riyadh.
The Supreme Council (The highest
63. Answer: (d) authority of the GCC) comprises the Heads
Explanation: of States of the six member countries. The
The Department of Agriculture, Supreme Council meets once a year in an
Cooperation and Farmers Welfare ordinary session.
(DAC&FW) is working to identify the
‘traditional organic areas’ to transform 65. Answer: (c)
them into certified organic production Explanation:
hubs. The Government of India has The Union Cabinet approved the Model
certified 14,491 ha of such area under the Tenancy Act of 2021, which governs both,
Car Nicobar and Nancowry group of residential and commercial
islands, in the Union Territory (UT) of the properties/premises, except the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands (A&N properties/premises excluded from the
Islands). This area becomes the first large scope of the 2021 Act under Section 3. The
contiguous territory to be conferred with 2021 Act also governs lease agreements,
organic certification under the ‘Large Area provided they are executed as prescribed
Certification’ (LAC) scheme of the PGS- under the Act.
India (The Participatory Guarantee System)
RAUSIAS-1046 20
The 2021 Act does not consider the existing  The Tribunal can summon and ask for
rental arrangements, thereby excluding the the attendance of any person and
huge body of pending tenancy disputes as examine him/her on oath.
well. Pertinently, alternative dispute  The Tribunal can ask anyone to
mechanisms, such as arbitration, have no produce the required documents.
mention under the Act.
 The Tribunal can commission
Some of the primary objectives of the examining any witness, as and when
2021 Act are as under: required.
 To regulate the residential and
commercial properties in the rental 67. Answer: (b)
housing market.
Explanation:
 To balance the interests of and make
Recently, the US Department of
rent laws more equitable for the
Treasury withdrew India from its list of
landlords and the tenants.
significant trading partners that
 To smoothen the process of renting a warrants rigorous scrutiny of their
property, to outline the roles of various currency practices and macro-economic
stakeholders. policies, along with Italy, Mexico,
 To establish suitable rental housing for Thailand and Vietnam. If a country
all income brackets. devalues its currency for unfair competitive
 To encourage engagement and resultant advantage, it is placed on the Currency
investments by the private companies in Monitoring List by the US Department of
the rental housing sector to address the Treasury. This is due to the fact that the
prevailing enormous scarcity. country's export expenses will be lower as a
result of the currency's depreciation.
66. Answer: (c)
Explanation: 68. Answer: (d)
The Foreigners Tribunals are quasi-judicial Explanation:
bodies established as per the Foreigners India is a vast country, lying entirely in the
(Tribunals) Order, 1964, and the Foreigners Northern hemisphere. The main land
Act, 1946. It is for those who have been left extends between latitudes 8°4'N and 37°6'N
out in the final NRC (The National Register and longitudes 68°7'E and 97°25'E.
of Citizens) list, or have been marked as ‘D’, The latitudinal and longitudinal extent
meaning ‘doubtful’. The ones falling under of the mainland is about 30°. From
this category have the right to appeal to the Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there is a
Foreigners Tribunal. Under the provisions time lag of two hours. Time along the
of the Foreigners Act, 1946 and Foreigners Standard Meridian of India (82°30'E)
(Tribunal) Order, 1964, only the Foreigners passing through Mirzapur (in Uttar
Tribunals have the right to declare a person Pradesh) is taken as the standard time for
as a foreigner. the whole country.
In the Foreigners (Tribunal) Order, 1964, India occupies an important strategic
the powers of the Tribunal have been position in South Asia. India shares its
laid down: land boundaries with Pakistan and
 The Tribunal shall have the powers of a Afghanistan in the northwest, China
civil court, while trying a suit under the (Tibet), Nepal and Bhutan in the north and
Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Myanmar and Bangladesh in the east.
Bomdila is the headquarters of West
Kameng district in the state of
RAUSIAS-1046 21
Arunachal Pradesh in India, connecting These valleys are covered with thick gravel
India with China. and alluvium. The longitudinal valley lying
The Nine Degree Channel is a channel in between lesser Himalaya and the Shiwaliks
the Indian Ocean between the Laccadive are known as Duns. Besides the
Islands of Kalpeni and Suheli Par, and longitudinal divisions, the Himalayas have
Maliku Atoll (Minicoy Island). been divided on the basis of regions from
Eight Degree Channel-The maritime west to east. These divisions have been
boundary between the Maldives and demarcated by river valleys.
India runs through the Eight Degree The Kali and Teesta rivers demarcate the
Channel. It separates the islands of Nepal Himalayas and the part lying
Minicoy and Maldives. between Teesta and Dihang rivers is
known as Assam Himalayas.
69. Answer: (b)
Explanation: 70. Answer: (b)
The Himalayas, geologically young and Explanation:
structurally fold mountains stretch over the The Peninsular plateau is flanked by
northern borders of India. These mountain stretch of narrow coastal strips, running
ranges run in a west-east direction from along the Arabian Sea on the west and the
the Indus to the Brahmaputra. Bay of Bengal on the east.
Their width varies from 400 Km in Kashmir The coastline of Tamil Nadu is located on
to 150 Km in Arunachal Pradesh. The the southeast coast of Indian Peninsula,
altitudinal variations are greater in the and forms a part of Coromandel
eastern half than those in the western Coast of Bay of Bengal and Indian Ocean.
half. Odisha has a coastline of 485 kilometres
The Himalaya consists of three parallel along the Bay of Bengal in Indian Ocean.
ranges in its longitudinal extent. The The region is also known as Utkala and is
northern-most range is known as the mentioned by this name in India's national
Great or Inner Himalayas or the anthem, "Jana Gana Mana".
Himadri. The folds of the Great Himalayas West coast is coast of submergence
are asymmetrical in nature. The core of this (except Malabar Coast) while east
part of Himalayas is composed of granite. coast is an emergent coast. Coasts in
The range lying to the south of the Maharashtra and Goa comes under the
Himadri forms the most rugged western coast of Indian peninsula.
mountain system and is known as Submergent coastlines or drowned
Himachal or lesser Himalaya. While the coastlines are stretches along the coast
Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the that have been inundated by the sea by a
most important range, the Dhaula Dhar relative rise in sea levels from
and the Mahabharat ranges are also either isostacy or eustacy.
prominent ones. This range consists of the
famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and 71. Answer: (d)
Kullu Valley in Himachal Pradesh. This
Explanation:
region is well-known for its hill stations.
There are six major controls of the climate
The outer-most range of the Himalayas
of any place. They are: latitude, altitude,
is called the Shiwaliks. These ranges are
pressure and wind system, distance from
composed of unconsolidated sediments
the sea (continentality), ocean currents and
brought down by rivers from the main
relief features.
Himalayan ranges located farther north.
RAUSIAS-1046 22
The sea exerts a moderating influence corresponding change in natural
on climate: As the distance from the sea vegetation.
increases, its moderating influence Between 1500 and 3000 metres,
decreases and the people experience temperate forests containing coniferous
extreme weather conditions. This condition trees, like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce
is known as continentality (i.e. very hot and cedar, are found. These forests
during summers and very cold during cover mostly the southern slopes of the
winters). Ocean currents along with Himalayas, places having high altitude
onshore winds affect the climate of the in southern and north-east India.
coastal areas. At higher elevations, temperate grasslands
Mid-latitude desert Climate: are common. At high altitudes, generally,
 The temperate deserts are rainless more than 3,600 metres above the sea
because of either continentality or level, temperate forests and grasslands give
rain-shadow effect. way to the Alpine vegetation. Silver fir,
 Amongst the mid-latitude deserts, many junipers, pines and birches are the
are found on plateau and are at a common trees of these forests.
considerable distance from the sea. The common animals found in these forests
These are Ladakh, The Kyzyl Kum, are Kashmir stag, spotted dear, wild
Turkestan, Taklimakan and Gobi sheep, jack rabbit, Tibetan antelope, yak,
deserts of Central Asia. snow leopard, squirrels, Shaggy horn wild
The southwest monsoon derives its name ibex, bear and rare red panda, sheep and
from winds which blow from a south- goats with thick hair.
westerly direction in the Indian The South Western Ghats montane rain
subcontinent. These come from a forests are an ecoregion in South India,
powerhouse located more than 4,000 covering the southern portion of
kilometres from India. This powerhouse is the Western
known as the Mascarene High. This high- Ghats in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil
pressure region is located between 25°S- Nadu.
35°S and 40°E-90°E near the Mascarene Sholas are the local name for patches of
Islands in the southern Indian Ocean. stunted tropical montane forest found in
Normally, this high-pressure region starts valleys amid rolling grassland in the
forming by mid-April and its strength is an higher montane regions of South India
important factor which determines the The Kashmir stag also called hangul is a
intensity of monsoon in India. subspecies of Central Asian red deer
A stronger high pressure will produce endemic to Kashmir and surrounding
stronger winds or monsoon current. If areas. It is found in dense riverine forests
there is a delay in the formation of in the high valleys and mountains of
Mascarene High, there is also the Jammu and Kashmir and northern
possibility of a delay in the onset of Himachal Pradesh.
monsoon in India.
73. Answer: (a)
72. Answer: (b) Explanation:
Explanation: India’s Population Size and Distribution by
Montane Forests: In mountainous areas, Numbers India’s population in 2011 stood
the decrease in temperature with at 1,210.6 million, which account for 17.5
increasing altitude leads to the per cent of the world’s population.
RAUSIAS-1046 23
Almost half of India’s population lives in Its essential feature is the emergence of the
just five states. These are Uttar Pradesh, universe from a state of extremely
Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal and high temperature and density—the so-
Andhra Pradesh. called big bang that occurred 13.8 billion
Rajasthan, the biggest state in terms of years ago.
area, has only 5.5 per cent of the total An alternative to this was Hoyle’s concept
population of India. of steady state. It considered the
A census is an official enumeration of universe to be roughly the same at any
population done periodically. In India, the point of time.
first census was held in the year 1872. The However, with greater evidence becoming
first complete census, however, was available about the expanding universe,
taken in the year 1881. Since then, scientific community at present favours
censuses have been held regularly every argument of expanding universe.
tenth year.
India’s Population Distribution by Density 75. Answer: (b)
Population density provides a better picture Explanation:
of the uneven distribution. Population
A fissure vent, also known as a volcanic
density is calculated as the number of
fissure, eruption fissure or simply a
persons per unit area.
fissure, is a linear volcanic vent through
S.N. State Density (Census- which lava erupts, usually without
2011) any explosive activity. Fissure vents are
1. Uttar Pradesh 829 often part of the structure of shield
volcanoes.
2. Maharashtra 365
The Magma that cools inside the earth’s
3. Bihar 1,106 crust takes various forms called
4. West Bengal 1,028 Intrusive Volcanic Landforms. The
various Intrusive Landforms are as follows:
Batholiths, Laccoliths, Lopoliths,
74. Answer: (a)
Phacoliths, Sills, and Dykes.
Explanation:
Batholiths: A large body of magmatic
A large number of hypotheses were put
material that cools in the deeper depth
forth by different philosophers and
of the crust develops in the form of large
scientists regarding the origin of the earth.
domes. They appear on the surface only
One of the earlier and popular arguments after the denudational processes remove
was by German philosopher Immanuel the overlying materials.
Kant. Mathematician Laplace revised it in
Lacoliths: These are large dome-shaped
1796. It is known as Nebular Hypothesis.
intrusive bodies with a level base and
The hypothesis considered that the
connected by a pipe-like conduit from
planets were formed out of a cloud of
below. It resembles the surface volcanic
material associated with a youthful sun,
domes of composite volcano, only these
which was slowly rotating.
are located at deeper depths. The
The most popular argument regarding Karnataka plateau is spotted with domal
the origin of the universe is the Big Bang hills of granite rocks. Most of these, now
Theory. It is also called expanding exfoliated, are examples of lacoliths or
universe hypothesis. Edwin Hubble, in batholiths.
1920, provided evidence that the
Stratovolcanoes are sometimes called
universe is expanding. As time passes,
composite volcanoes because of their
galaxies move further and further apart.
composite stratified structure, built up
RAUSIAS-1046 24
from sequential outpourings of erupted filled with sediments from the rivers
materials. They are among the most which came from the mountains in the
common types of volcanoes, in contrast to north and from the peninsula in the
the less common shield volcanoes. The south. These extensive alluvial deposits led
highest and most common volcanoes have to the formation of the northern plains of
composite cones. India.
Example: Vesuvius, Mt. Fuji, Stromboli
(Lighthouse of the Mediterranean) etc. 77. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
76. Answer: (c) The average salinity of the Indian Ocean is
Explanation: 35 parts per thousand. The low salinity
India was a large island situated off the trend is observed in the Bay of Bengal
Australian coast, in a vast ocean. The due to influx of river water. On the
Tethys Sea separated it from the Asian contrary, the Arabian Sea shows higher
continent till about 225 million years ago. salinity due to high evaporation and low
India is supposed to have started her influx of fresh water.
northward journey about 200 million years Salinity at the surface increases by the
ago at the time when Pangaea broke. India loss of water to ice or evaporation, or
collided with Asia about 40-50 million decreased by the input of fresh waters,
years ago causing rapid uplift of the such as from the rivers.
Himalayas. Salinity, generally, increases with depth
During the movement of the Indian plate and there is a distinct zone called the
towards the Eurasian plate, a major halocline, where salinity increases
event that occurred was the outpouring sharply.
of lava and formation of the Deccan Other factors being constant, increasing
Traps. This started somewhere around 60 salinity of seawater causes its density to
million years ago and continued for a long increase. High salinity seawater,
period of time. generally, sinks below the lower salinity
Fault - It can be defined as a fracture in the water. This leads to stratification by
rock bed which leads to the movement and salinity.
displacement. The region around the fault
observes frequent earth quakes since it is 78. Answer: (b)
weak because of the fracture.
Explanation:
Malda Fault - It is the fracture in the rock
Correct sequence of these rivers when
which could be found at layers below
arranged from south to north: Tapi-
surface of the earth where there is
Sabarmati-Betwa-Chambal.
continuity in the depth of rock. Malda fault
was observed at a place called Malda in
West Bengal. This facture was due to the
formation of folded mountains
(Himalayas). This fault seperates Chota
Nagpur Plateau and North Eastern
Himalayan mountains.
Due to the uplift of the Himalayas
(during collision of Indian and Eurasian
Plate) in the Tethys Sea, the northern
part of the Indian Peninsula got subsided
and formed a large basin. That basin was
RAUSIAS-1046 25
In the Hindu Kush Himalaya, moraine-
dammed glacial lakes are common and
numerous GLOF events have been traced
back to the failure of moraine dams.
A moraine-dammed lake forms as a glacier
retreats, and meltwater fills the space
between the proglacial moraine (in front of
the glacier) and the retreating glacier.
As the volume of the glacial lake grows, so
does the pressure on the dam containing it.
Fragmentation of the source glacier,
landslides and other processes can trigger
displacement waves in the lake, potentially
compromising the stability of the dam and
resulting in a GLOF. Failure of the dam can
also occur due to internal processes, such
as water seeping through the structure.
Although GLOFs are not a recent
phenomenon in the HKH, they remain a
persistent threat to downstream
79. Answer: (d) communities and infrastructure and must
Explanation: therefore be part of any planning in the
Chilika Lake is a brackish water lake and a lower reaches. The frequency of GLOFs and
shallow lagoon with estuarine character risk from potential GLOFs are expected to
spread across the districts of Puri, Khurda increase as the climate continues to
and Ganjam in the state of Odisha. change. As temperatures rise, new lakes
form, existing ones expand and sometimes
The lake is a unique habitat that comprises
merge, increasing the potential flood
of Marine, brackish and freshwater
volumes in the high mountains.
ecosystem and supports any biodiversity
comprising of birds and aquatic animals.
The migratory birds of the lake are 81. Answer: (d)
protected under Wildlife (Protection) Act, Explanation:
1972 and the part of the lake comprising Heavy metals normally occur in nature and
important habitat has been notified as a are essential to life but can become toxic
Sanctuary for protection of the migratory through accumulation in organisms.
birds. Arsenic, cadmium, chromium, copper,
nickel, lead and mercury are the most
80. Answer: (c) common heavy metals which can pollute
the environment. Mercury, lead and
Explanation:
cadmium are of greatest concern because
GLOF can be impounded by moraine
of their ability to travel long distances in
complexes, glacial ice or even bedrock and,
the atmosphere.
as a result of breaching, slope failure,
Sources of heavy metals include mining,
overtopping or other failure mechanisms,
industrial production (foundries, smelters,
lead to catastrophic phenomena in the high
oil refineries, petrochemical plants,
mountains that threaten people’s lives,
pesticide production, chemical industry),
livelihoods and regional infrastructure.
untreated sewage sludge and diffuse
sources such as metal piping, traffic and
RAUSIAS-1046 26
combustion by-products from coal-burning react with methane to form hydrogen. The
power stations. downside of these two methods is that they
The effects on human health and the produce carbon as a by-product, so carbon
environment from exposure to the three capture and storage (CCS) is essential to
most common heavy metal pollutants trap and store this carbon.
(mercury, lead and cadmium) include: Green hydrogen is produced by using
 Mercury exposure can harm the brain, electricity to power an electrolyser that
heart, kidneys, lungs, and immune splits the hydrogen from water molecules.
system of people of all ages. In babies This process produces pure hydrogen, with
and young children, the nervous system no harmful by-products. An added benefit
can be affected making the child less is that, because this method uses
able to think and learn. electricity, it also offers the potential to
 Mercury accumulation in fish may divert any excess electricity – which is hard
harm the fish and other animals that to store (like surplus wind power) – to
consume them. Birds and mammals electrolysis, using it to create hydrogen gas
that eat fish are more exposed to that can be stored for future energy needs.
mercury than other animals which live
in aquatic ecosystems. Effects on 83. Answer: (a)
wildlife can include reduced fertility, Explanation:
damaged kidneys, slower growth and  The Tansa Wildlife Sanctuary is
development, abnormal behaviour and located in Shahapur and Bhiwandi
even death. taluka of Thane district and Wada
 Cadmium is toxic to humans and taluka of Palghar district
exposure can cause pulmonary (Maharashtra). This Sanctuary is
irritation, kidney disease, bone spread around the catchment area of
weakness and possibly lung, prostate, Tansa, Vaitarna and Modak Sagar
and kidney cancer. lakes, which are the major source of
 Cadmium is also toxic to plants, water to the cities of Mumbai, Thane
animals and micro-organisms. and Bhiwandi.
Cadmium accumulates mainly in the  Nagarahole is an important Tiger
kidney and liver of vertebrates and in Reserve in Karnataka and is a major
aquatic invertebrates and algae. hub of conservation under Project Tiger
and Project Elephant. The Protected
82. Answer: (c) Area supports large assemblages of
Explanation: carnivores and herbivores: tigers,
Blue hydrogen is produced from non- leopards, the Asiatic wild dogs and
renewable energy sources, by using one of Sloth bears, the Asiatic elephants,
two primary methods. Steam methane gaurs, sambars, chitals, muntjacs, the
four-horned antelopes, wild pigs, mouse
reformation is the most common method
for producing bulk hydrogen and accounts deer and the south-western langurs.
for most of the world’s production. This Nagarahole is contiguous with the
method uses a reformer, which reacts Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary (Kerala) to
its south and the Bandipur Tiger
steam at a high temperature and pressure
Reserve to its south-eastern parts.
with methane and a nickel catalyst to form
hydrogen and carbon monoxide.  The Kanger Ghati National Park was
Alternatively, autothermal reforming uses declared a National Park in 1982 by the
oxygen and carbon dioxide or steam to Government of India. Near Jagdalpur
in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh,
RAUSIAS-1046 27
it is one of India's densest National on the sea ice. Their scientific name means
Parks, and is known for its biodiversity, "maritime bear" and is derived from this
landscape, waterfalls and subterranean fact.
geomorphologic limestone caves, and The Polar Bears hunt their preferred food of
also the home of the Bastar Hill Myna, seals from the edge of the sea ice, often
the state bird of Chhattisgarh. living of fat reserves, when no sea ice is
present. Because of their dependence on
84. Answer: (c) the sea ice, the Polar Bears are classified as
Explanation: marine mammals. The Polar Bear is listed
as ‘Vulnerable’ under the IUCN Red List
The Red-Headed Vulture (Sarcogyps
of Threatened Species.
Calvus), also known as the Asian King
Vulture, the Indian Black Vulture, or the
Pondicherry Vulture, is an Old-World 87. Answer: (d)
Vulture, mainly found in the Indian sub- Explanation:
continent, with small disjunct populations The African Great Lakes are a series of
in some parts of South-east Asia. lakes constituting the part of the Rift Valley
The bird is “Critically Endangered” Lakes in and around the East African Rift.
according to the International Union for They include:
Conservation of Nature (IUCN). (i) Lake Victoria, the second-largest
freshwater lake in the world by area;
85. Answer: (a) (ii) Lake Tanganyika, the world's second-
Explanation: largest freshwater lake by volume and
Turnersuchus Hingleyae: The newly- depth; and
discovered ancient ‘marine crocodile’ (iii) Lake Malawi, the world's eighth-
fossil could be the oldest of its kind ever largest freshwater lake by area.
found. The scientists have uncovered a
new thalattosuchian – an ancient “cousin” 88. Answer: (d)
of the modern-day crocodiles – which could Explanation:
be the oldest of its kind ever discovered.
The Carbon Cycle is the biogeochemical
The newly discovered fossil could help fill a
cycle by which carbon is exchanged
gap in the fossil record of these animals.
between the Earth's atmosphere, oceans,
The fossils, uncovered on the Jurassic
land and living organisms.
Coast in the United Kingdom, include part
The processes central to the Carbon
of the head, backbone and limbs of
Cycle are:
Turnersuchus Hingleyae.
 Carbon fixation: Carbon dioxide is
converted into organic carbon by
86. Answer: (c)
photosynthesis in the plants and other
Explanation: photosynthetic organisms.
The Polar Bear (Ursus Maritimus) is a  Respiration: The living organisms
hypercarnivorous bear, whose native range release carbon dioxide into the
lies largely within the Arctic Circle, atmosphere as a by-product of
encompassing the Arctic Ocean, its respiration.
surrounding seas and the surrounding
 Decomposition: The dead organisms
land masses. This includes the most
and organic matter are broken down by
northern regions of North America and
the decomposers, releasing carbon
Eurasia. Although, most Polar Bears are
dioxide back into the atmosphere.
born on land, they spend most of their time
RAUSIAS-1046 28
 Combustion: When the organic matter take hundreds or even thousands of
is burned, it releases carbon dioxide years.
into the atmosphere. 2. Secondary succession is the series
 Fossilisation: The organic matter can of community changes which take
be buried and compressed over time, place in a previously colonized, but
forming fossil fuels, such as coal, oil disturbed or damaged habitat. It is
and natural gas. the recovery of an existing biological
 Weathering: Carbon dioxide in the community after a disturbance that
atmosphere can dissolve in rainwater sets back the community’s
and react with the minerals in the ecological structure to an earlier
rocks, forming bicarbonate ions, which stage, e.g., deforestation, land
are carried to the ocean. clearance or a fire. The first species
to colonize these areas are typically
 Ocean uptake: The oceans absorb
annual plants, which are quickly
carbon dioxide from the atmosphere,
followed by perennial herbs and
where it can be used by the marine
shrubs.
organisms for photosynthesis or stored
as dissolved carbon.  Succession is directional. Different
stages in a particular habitat
succession can usually be accurately
89. Answer: (a)
predicted. Developmental stages in the
Explanation: ecosystem, thus, consist of a pioneer
 Ecological succession is a process stage, a series of changes, known as
through which the ecosystems tend to serel stages, and finally a climax stage.
change over a period of time, as a result
of natural or human disturbances, such
90. Answer: (a)
as wildfires, landslides, or clear-cutting.
Explanation:
During succession, an ecological
community undergoes more or less  Coral Tree: A common deciduous tree
orderly and predictable changes that is native to the tropical and sub-
following a disturbance or the initial tropical regions of the Indian sub-
colonization of a new habitat. continent. They are found widely in
the Western Ghats, blooming from
 The two main types of ecological
January to March. Their bright scarlet
succession are ‘primary succession’ and
flowers are used for their nectar by
‘secondary succession’.
many birds, such as mynas, crows and
1. Primary succession occurs in the
sunbirds that act as their major
areas where there was previously no
pollinators.
life, such as on a bare rock, newly
 Dipterocarps: This group of trees grows
formed islands, or retreating
in the evergreen forests of the southern
glaciers. Over time, the pioneer
part of the Western Ghats and the
species, such as lichens and
North-east of India, in high rainfall
mosses, begin to break down the
areas. It grows to an enormous height
rock and create soil. This creates
with a wide girth. The seed has a pair of
conditions suitable for other plant
wing-like structures, which aid in wind
species to colonize, and the
dispersal.
community becomes more complex
as the new species arrive. The  Quercus (Oak): It is a large tree and is
process of primary succession can economically an important genus,
which includes many trees known for
their beautiful shape and their
RAUSIAS-1046 29
changing seasonal colours. There are  Naada/Bandha: These are stone check
30 to 40 Indian species of this genus dams across streams or gullies that are
found in the temperate areas constructed to capture runoff on a
throughout the Himalayas. Oaks stretch of fertile land that is submerged
provide the finest hardwoods of great in water during the monsoon. The land
strength and durability, and famous not only becomes more fertile after
wood for high-quality furniture. Some of trapping silt, but also retains
its species are excellent fodder plants. substantial quantities of water in the
soil. These dams are constructed in
91. Answer: (d) phases over several years. The height is
Explanation: slowly increased upto the right height of
the check dam which determines the
 Blackbuck: The blackbuck is the only
size of the Naada.
true antelope found in India. The
 Hembar: These are small temporary
species is native to India and Nepal. It
dams constructed with stones, twigs
lives in large herds. The males are
and mud over a seasonal stream,
black on top and cream below, and
when water flows in it is reduced to a
have beautiful spiral horns that form
a ‘V’ shape. It inhabits grassy plains point that it cannot be taken directly
to the fields for irrigation.
and lightly forested areas with perennial
water sources.  Chak: Chak is a big plot of land,
o Protection Status: In India, usually a Charnot or village pasture
hunting of blackbuck is prohibited land, enclosed by a stone boundary
under Schedule I of the Wildlife wall, called Kot. Tree plantations,
(Protection) Act of 1972. seeding of grass for fodder, contour
bunds with trenches and loose stone
o IUCN (The International Union for
check dams are developed in the Chak.
Conservation of Nature) status:
The Chak is used for fodder and fuel
Least Concerned.
wood. It reduces soil erosion and
 Chausingha: The rare Chausingha, or
enhances the recharge of groundwater.
four-horned antelope, is the only animal
 Saza Kuva: This is an open dug well
in the world that has four horns. The
which has several owners. This is an
small antelope is found in India and
important method for irrigation in the
Nepal. They inhabit open, dry
Aravalli hills. About 70,000 wells in the
deciduous forests with undergrowth
Udaipur district provide water for 80%
and forests with hilly terrain.
of the area under irrigation and provide
o Protection Status: Protected under
water for their owners. These are
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection)
considered common property resources.
Act of 1972.
o IUCN status: Vulnerable.
93. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
92. Answer: (c)
 Acid Rain: When fossil fuels, such as
Explanation:
coal, oil and natural gas are burned,
 Medhbandi: This is a stone chemicals like sulphur dioxide and
embankment built on a hill slope to nitrogen oxides are produced. These
help create a level field for cultivation. It chemicals react with water and other
controls erosion and conserves chemicals in the air to form sulphuric
moisture. acid, nitric acid and other harmful
pollutants, like sulphates and nitrates.
RAUSIAS-1046 30
These acid pollutants spread upwards radiation breaks the CFC molecules
into the atmosphere, and are carried by down to release chlorine atoms. The
air currents, to finally return to the chlorine atoms react with ozone
ground in the form of acid rain, fog or molecules which break down into
snow. oxygen molecules. This results in a
 Major Causes: Coal-burning power reduction in the amount of Ozone in the
plants, oil refining, metal smelting and stratosphere.
other industrial activities contribute to  Ozone-depleting substances are the
sulphur dioxide emissions. Motor chemicals that destroy the Earth’s
vehicle exhaust fumes are the main protective ozone layer. They include:
source of nitrogen oxides. o Chlorofluorocarbons
Effects: o Halon
 Acid rain dissolves and washes away o Carbon tetrachloride
nutrients in the soil which are needed o Methyl chloroform
by the plants. It can also dissolve o Hydrobromofluorocarbons
naturally occurring toxic substances,
o Hydrochlorofluorocarbons
like aluminium and mercury, freeing
o Methyl bromide
them to pollute water or poison the
plants. o Bromochloromethane
 Acid rain affects trees more directly by  Production and import of these
creating holes in the waxy coating of chemicals are controlled by the
leaves, causing brown dead spots, Montreal Protocol (1987) on Substances
which affect the plant’s photosynthesis. that deplete the Ozone Layer.
Farm crops are less affected by acid Destruction of the Ozone layer causes
rain than the forests. increased cases of skin cancer and
cataracts. It also causes damage to
 Acid rain that falls or flows as
certain crops and planktons, thus
groundwater reaches rivers, lakes and
affecting nature's food chains and food
wetlands, causes the water in them to
webs. This, in turn, causes an increase
become acidic. This affects plant and
in carbon dioxide due to the decrease in
animal life in the aquatic ecosystems.
vegetation.
 Acid rain and dry acid deposition
damage buildings, automobiles and
other structures made of stone or metal. 95. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 Acid, along with other chemicals in the
air, produces urban smog, which Environmental DNA or eDNA is the DNA
causes respiratory problems. collected from a variety of environmental
samples, such as soil, seawater, snow or
air, rather than directly sampled from an
94. Answer: (b)
individual organism. An eDNA sample
Explanation:
carries the genetic code of tens or hundreds
 The Ozone layer in the upper of animals and can provide us with all
atmosphere absorbs the Sun’s kinds of information about the species
ultraviolet radiation, preventing it from living in an ecosystem.
reaching the Earth’s surface. Ozone Some of its applications are:
layer depletion happens when certain
 Biodiversity assessment by detecting
chemicals, such as chlorofluorocarbons
and monitoring a wide range of species
(CFCs), are released into the
atmosphere. In the stratosphere, UV
RAUSIAS-1046 31
in an ecosystem, even those that are o Appendix I of CITES (The
hard to observe or sample directly. Convention on International Trade
 Detect the presence of invasive species in Endangered Species) list.
in an ecosystem to prevent their spread. o IUCN Status: Vulnerable
 Monitor the health of aquatic o Schedule IV of the Wildlife
ecosystems by detecting the presence of (Protection) Act, 1972.
harmful or indicator species, such as Travancore Tortoise:
pathogens or macro-invertebrates.  Travancore tortoise is a large forest
 Forensic investigations can identify the tortoise growing up to 330 millimetres
species involved in wildlife trafficking. in length. It makes a shallow nest in the
ground and lays 1 to 5 eggs. The
 Guide conservation efforts by identifying
tortoise is hunted and it is threatened
the areas with high biodiversity or rare
due to forest fires, habitat destruction
species, studying the impacts of climate and fragmentation.
change and monitoring the success of
 Distribution: Restricted to the Western
conservation interventions.
Ghats, in the Indian states of Kerala,
 Ecological restoration by monitoring the Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
recovery of target species and their  Protection status:
interactions with the ecosystem.
o IUCN status: Vulnerable
o Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act:
96. Answer: (c) Schedule IV
Explanation: o CITES: Appendix II
Indian Star Tortoise:
 The Indian Star Tortoise is a medium- 97. Answer: (c)
sized tortoise endemic to the Indian Explanation:
sub-continent.  The International Energy Agency
 Distribution: This species lives in (IEA) has released a report titled
three separate parts of the Indian “LiFE lessons from India - The
sub-continent: Western India and the benefits of advancing the Lifestyle
extreme South-east of Pakistan (For for Environment (LiFE) initiative
example, Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh and through the G20”.
Rajasthan in India, as well as the Major Highlights:
Thar Desert in Pakistan), in South  The report claims that if the measures
Eastern India (Kerala, Karnataka and specified under the LiFE Initiative are
Tamil Nadu), and in Sri Lanka. adopted globally, the consumers could
 Threats: Loss of genetic diversity due to save around USD 440 billion in 2030 or
subsequent hybridization between the equivalent of 5% of all fuel spending
different populations over the years, across the global economy in that year.
habitat fragmentation due to  According to the report, India, the third-
urbanization and agriculture, illegal largest national market for renewable
collection, pet trade and accidental energy, is 10% more energy efficient
killings. It is one of the most traded than the global and G20 averages, with
tortoise species not only across the sub- various policies already integrated into
continent, but across South and South- its energy transition strategy.
east Asia.  The Initiative’s implementation in India
could help reduce global carbon dioxide
 Protection status:
(CO2) emissions by over 2 billion metric
tonnes by 2030.
RAUSIAS-1046 32
LiFE Initiative: of polyurethane products. The most widely
 The LiFE Initiative was introduced by used aromatic diisocyanates are toluene
the Indian Prime Minister in 2021 at the diisocyanate (TDI), methylene diphenyl
26th Conference of the Parties to the diisocyanate (MDI) and aliphatic
UN Framework Convention on Climate diisocyanates, including hexamethylene
Change in Glasgow. diisocyanate (HDI), hydrogenated MDI
 The Initiative aims to promote (H12MDI) and isophorone diisocyanate
(IPDI).
sustainable lifestyles to address
environmental degradation and climate Toluene Diisocyanate (TDI): Mainly used
change. It is based on Sustainable to make flexible polyurethane foam that
Development Goal 12 of the United can be found in a wide range of everyday
Nations, which focuses on sustainable products, including furniture, bedding,
consumption and production. The carpet underplay and packaging. Also used
measures under the Initiative can be in manufacture of some coatings, sealants,
categorized into two groups: adhesives and elastomers. It helps produce
behavioural change and sustainable & lighter automobile seating and headliners,
efficient consumer choices. saving weight and making vehicles more
energy efficient.
98. Answer: (b) Methylene Diphenyl Diisocyanate (MDI):

Used primarily to make rigid polyurethane
Explanation:
foams such as insulation for homes or
Emission Reduction Linked Bond is a $ 50
refrigerators and other uses. Insulation
million protected bond issued by
made with MDI can help save heating and
International Bank for Reconstruction and
cooling costs and conserve energy. Vehicle
Development (IBRD or World Bank) with a
parts like dashboards, steering wheels and
unique feature, whereby investors return
bumpers are also made of MDI.
linked to Verified Carbon Units (VCUs) for a
HDI, H12MDI and IPDI: They are used to
water purification project in Vietnam.
form polyisocyanates or pre-polymers,
Verified Carbon Units (VCUs) means a unit
which act as building blocks to form
issued into the Verra Registry with each
colour-stable polyurethane coatings and
unit representing a reduction or removal of
elastomers, that can significantly enhance
one ton of carbon dioxide equivalent from
a product's appearance, lengthen its
the atmosphere.
lifespan and offer high abrasion resistance.
Verra is a not-for-profit organisation that
Aliphatic Diisocyanates (ADI): Chemical
administers the Verified Carbon Standard,
resistant coatings made with aliphatic
which enables the validation of greenhouse
diisocyanates help commercial airliners
gas projects and programs and the
maintain durability and resistance needed
verification of emission reductions and
to withstand harsh atmospheric conditions.
removals.
Coatings prepared with aliphatic
VCUs generated by the project will be diisocyanates can have excellent resistance
issued into the Verra Registry in to abrasion, superior weathering
accordance with VCS Rules and Registry characteristics, including gloss retention
Rules. and resistance to yellowing and chalking
and lengthening time between painting
99. Answer: (a) cycles.
Explanation: Exposure to Diisocyanates have been
Diisocyanates are a family of chemical linked to cause occupational risks such as
building blocks used to make a wide range asthma and other respiratory diseases.
RAUSIAS-1046 33
100. Answer: (d) CSM achieves this objective by focusing its
Explanation: activities on a framework developed in
Climate-Smart Mining (CSM) supports the consultation with key stakeholders in
sustainable extraction, processing and government, industry, and civil society,
recycling of minerals and metals needed to serving as guidance to help mineral-rich
secure supply for low-carbon countries integrate climate-smart
technologies and other critical sectors by approaches through four pillars:
creating shared value, delivering social, • Climate Mitigation
economic and environmental benefits • Climate Resilience
throughout their value chain in developing • Circular Economy
and emerging economies. • Creating Market Opportunities.
The World Bank’s Climate-Smart Mining
Initiative is a public-private partnership led
by the World Bank and International
Finance Corporation (IFC) with the aim of
achieving more sustainable mineral supply
chains by providing technical and policy
advice, direct investment financing,
leveraging private sector financing,
providing risk mitigation instruments, and
helping countries define and craft tangible
solutions for decarbonizing and improving
Environmental, social and governance
(ESG) standards for climate action
minerals.
RAUSIAS-1046 34

General Studies (Paper-I) Full Length Test (FLT) - 6: Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Instructions

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This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I) Test ID

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

4. All items carry equal marks.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

1. Gahadavalas Jabalpur 3. Nehru was named the leader of the

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. A Law Commission was set up for the

Which of the following is the correct

Which of the statements given above is/are

1. Indian Mirror N. N. Sen Which of the statements given above

(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The Parliament can make laws on any

2. They have changed the status of the (c) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 1. It mandates that there shall be a three-

generations. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Wheat Himgiri (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. Cowpea Pusa Komal

2. It is configured with three solid (c) 2 and 3 only

2. The choice of Bt toxic genes depends (b) 2 only

52. Consider the following statements about

3. The Supreme Council of the GCC, 1. Recently, the US Department of

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

88. Which of the following processes are central

TEST ID: 1046

Full Length Test (FLT)–6

1. Answer: (c)  Black and red ware;

10. Answer: (c)

The Rajagopalachari Formula: C.

3. Indian Mahatma Gandhi

 Reduced maximum working hours for 1. Jawaharlal Nehru: Prime Minister;

58. Answer: (b) 61. Answer: (a)

98. Answer: (b) Methylene Diphenyl Diisocyanate (MDI):

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