General Studies (Paper-I) Full Length Test (FLT) - 3: Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Instructions

This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

41
FULL LENGTH TEST (FLT) – 3
30/-
Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.
4. All items carry equal marks.
5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.
6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.
7. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023
1. With reference to the literary sources, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following pairs: correct?
(a) 1 only
S.N. Source Author
(b) 2 only
1. Astadhyayi Panini (c) 3 only
2. Priyadarshika Kalidasa (d) 1 and 2 only
3. Abhijnanashakuntalam Sudraka
4. With reference to Ancient India, consider
4. Mrichchhakatika Harshvar- the following statements:
dhana
1. Bhojaka was the term used for rich
How many pairs given above is / are peasants belonging to the Vaishya
incorrectly matched? Varna.
(a) Only one pair 2. Gahapati was the headman of the
(b) Only two pairs villages inhabited by various castes and
communities.
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
2. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? (b) 2 only
1. The Vedic culture originated in the (c) Both 1 and 2
North-West Frontier Province and the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Punjab.
2. The Harrapan Civilization extended
from the Shiwaliks in the north to the 5. Consider the following statements:
Arabian Sea in the south. 1. The Vakatakas patronized Brahmanical
Select the correct answer using the code religion and performed many Vedic
given below: sacrifices.
(a) 1 only 2. Most of the caves at Ajanta were built
(b) 2 only during the Vakatakas.
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The Ikshvakus succeeded the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Vakatakas in the Krishna-Guntur
region.
4. The Western Gangas of Mysore were the
3. With reference to Early India, consider the
contemporary dynasty of the
following statements:
Satavahanas.
1. The earliest settlements in India were
generally found near river plains. Which of the statements given above are
correct?
2. Gautama Buddha used to suspend his
mission of teaching Buddhism annually (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
during the rainy season. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. Kannauj was a water fort, situated at (c) 1 and 2 only
the confluence of Ganga, Gandhak and
Son. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
RAUSIAS-1041 1
6. With reference to the Satavahanas, 3. India's ability to trade with other
consider the following statements: nations was hampered by the
1. The rulers of this dynasty used Dharmshastras' ban on sea travel.
matronyms. Select the correct answer using the code
2. Gautamiputra Satakarni set up his given below:
capital at Paithan on the banks of the (a) 1 and 2 only
Godavari. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. Gathasaptasai, a Prakrit text is (c) 2 and 3 only
attributed to the Satavahana king, (d) 1, 2 and 3
Vashishthiputra Pulumayi.
4. The Satavahanas started the practice of
9. Consider the following statements
granting tax-free villages to the
regarding the Battle of Tarain:
Brahmanas.
1. Muhammad of Ghor's Ghurid army
Which of the statements given above are
fought Prithviraj Chauhan's Rajput
correct?
confederacy at the First Battle of
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only Tarain.
(b) 1 and 4 only 2. Prithviraj was given the opportunity to
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only govern over Ajmer as a vassal of the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ghurids.
Which of the statements given above is/are
7. Which of the following statements are correct?
correct regarding the Pratihara kingdom? (a) 1 only
1. Nagabhatta I laid the foundation for the (b) 2 only
Pratihara dynasty. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. According to Al-Masudi, an Arab (d) Neither 1 nor 2
historian, the Pratihara Empire was
land-locked and so, unable to reach the
10. Which of the following pairs are correctly
sea.
matched?
3. Rajashekhar, a Sanskrit poet and
S.N. Rulers Their work
dramatist, resided in Mihir Bhoja's
court. 1. Qutub-ud- Completed the
Select the correct answer using the code din Aibak construction of
given below: Qutub Minar
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Iltutmish Introduced the silver
(b) 2 and 3 only Tanka (coin) in India
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. Balban Introduced Sajida
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and Paibos
4. Alauddin Introduced the
8. Which of the following statements are Khalji system of Dagh and
correct regarding trade and commerce Huliya
during the period of 800-1200 in India?
Select the correct answer using the code
1. ‘Tamralipti’ was an important harbour given below:
for the ships heading to South-East
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Asia.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. Rajendra I, the Chola ruler, mounted a
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
naval campaign against the Malaya
lords to interrupt their commerce with (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
China.
RAUSIAS-1041 2
11. Which of the following statements are 14. Consider the following statements with
correct regarding the Bahmani kingdom? reference to the steps taken by the
1. Hasan Gangu is accredited with reformers to emancipate the conditions of
establishing the Bahmani dynasty. the widows:
2. The kingdom was divided into eight
1. Ramkrishna Gopal Bhandarkar justified
provinces, and a Tarafdar was
widow remarriage by drawing reference
appointed to preside over each one of
them. from the Aitareya Brahmana.
3. The Sadr-i-Jahar was the highest 2. Dhondo Keshav Karve established the
ranking judge in the empire, after the Vidhava Vivaha Uttejaka Mandal to
Sultan. promote widow remarriage.
3. Vishnu Shastri Pandit set up the Hindu
given below:
Widows Home to support education for
(a) 1 and 2 only
the abandoned widows.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only

12. Consider the following statements:
(b) 1 only
1. The issue of the Pindaris became one of
the major causes that resulted in the (c) 3 only
Second Anglo-Maratha War.
(d) 1 and 2 only
2. Peshwaship became hereditary after the
Third Anglo-Maratha War.
Which of the statements given above is/are 15. With reference to the revolutionary
incorrect? activities (1907-1917), consider the
(a) 1 only following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. Rashbehari Bose and Sachin Sanyal
(c) Both 1 and 2
had organized a secret society, covering
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
areas outside Bengal.
13. With reference to the Peasants’ Movements 2. Aurobindo and Barindra Ghosh were
before 1857, consider the following tried in the Muzaffarpur Conspiracy
statements: Case, 1908.
1. The Peasants’ Movements during this 3. Prafulla Chaki and Khudiram Bose
period were mostly out of the communal staged a bomb attack on Viceroy
influences.
Hardinge in Delhi.
2. The Narkelberia Uprising saw the
participation of the Garo tribes, Which of the statements given above are
organized under Karam Shah. incorrect?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1041 3
16. With reference to the ‘August Declaration of Which of the statements given above are
1917’, consider the following statements: correct?
1. This statement was made by Lord (a) 1 and 2 only
Chelmsford, the then Viceroy of India. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. As per the statement, attainment of (c) 1 and 3 only
self-government for the Indians became
(d) 1, 2 and 3
a government policy.
correct? 19. With reference to the Nehru Report (1928),
consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. The Committee entrusted for drafting
(b) 2 only
this Report included Subhash Chandra
(c) Both 1 and 2
Bose, Mangal Singh and Tej Bahadur
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Sapru as its members.
2. All the recommendations of the Nehru
17. With reference to the Ahmedabad Mill
Committee were unanimous.
Strike (1918), consider the following
3. Its recommendations included the
statements:
formation of the Linguistic Provinces.
1. Dispute between the cotton mill owners
of Ahmedabad and the British officials Which of the statements given above are
was the main cause for this strike. correct?
2. Ambalal Sarabhai requested Gandhi to (a) 1 and 2 only

intervene in the matter and later (b) 2 and 3 only
became his chief lieutenant. (c) 1 and 3 only
3. Gandhiji undertook his first ‘fast unto (d) 1, 2 and 3
death’ in this agitation.
20. Which of the following constitute Gandhi’s
correct?
Eleven demands, in the run-up to the
(a) 1 only launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement
(b) 2 and 3 only (1930)?
(c) 3 only 1. Reduction of expenditure on the army
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and civil services by 50%.
2. Introduction of total prohibition.
18. With reference to the Hunter Committee of 3. Reservation of coastal shipping for the
Inquiry (1919), consider the following Indians.
statements:
4. Reduction of land revenue by 80%.
1. The Committee was formally termed as
the ‘Disorders Inquiry Committee’ and
given below:
included Indians as its members.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. The final report unanimously
condemned Dyer’s action in Jallianwala (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Bagh. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
3. The Committee did not impose any (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
penal or disciplinary action on Dyer.
RAUSIAS-1041 4
21. With reference to the Poona Pact (1932), Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. The Pact abandoned the idea of (a) 1 only
separate electorates for the depressed (b) 2 only
classes. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The then Government rejected the Pact (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and refused to consider it as an
amendment to the Communal Award.
24. With reference to Subhash Chandra Bose,
correct?
1. He gave the Slogan, ‘Jai Hind’ from the
(a) 1 only
Free India Centre located in Singapore.
(b) 2 only
2. He founded the Indian ‘Club of Tokyo’
(c) Both 1 and 2 and gave lectures on the evils of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 western imperialism.
3. With the help of Adolf Hitler, he formed
22. With reference to the Cripps Mission, ‘Mukti Sena’ in Germany.
consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above are
1. There was pressure on Britain from the incorrect?
Allies to seek Indian co-operation in (a) 1 and 2 only
their War efforts, which was the main (b) 2 and 3 only
driving force behind this Mission.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The Mission proposed complete
(d) 1, 2 and 3
independence as their long-term aim for
the Indians.
25. Consider the following statements with
3. It proposed convening of a Constituent
reference to the Non-Performing Assets
Assembly to frame new Constitution,
(NPAs):
after the end of the War.
1. A Non-Performing Asset is a loan or
advance for which the principal or
correct?
interest payment remains overdue for a
(a) 1 and 2 only
period of 90 days.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. The NPA is categorized as a ‘Doubtful’
(c) 1 and 3 only asset, if it has remained in the ‘Sub-
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Standard’ category for a period of 180
days to 12 months.
23. With reference to the spread of the Quit 3. The Gross Non-Performing Assets Ratio
India Movement, consider the following in India has been gradually increasing
statements: from 2019 to 2022.
1. Ram Manohar Lohia and Jaiprakash Which of the statements given above is/are
Narayan participated in the correct?
underground activities. (a) 1 only
2. Parallel government in Ballia was (b) 2 and 3 only
established under the leadership of (c) 1 and 3 only
Chittu Pandey.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1041 5
26. Consider the following statements: 3. A Medium Enterprise has an investment
1. The Reserve Bank of India oversees the in plant and machinery or equipment
foreign exchange market in India and upto ₹100 crores.
regulates it through the provisions of Which of the statements given above is/are
the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. correct?
2. India has been operating on a Managed (a) 1 and 2 only
Floating Exchange Rate Regime since its (b) 2 and 3 only
independence. (c) 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only reference to the Total Fertility Rate (TFR):
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. The TFR is the average number of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 children a woman would have at the
current pattern of fertility during her
27. Consider the following statements with lifetime.
reference to the Social Security Code, 2020: 2. The latest data from the Nation Family
1. Under the Code, social security Health Survey reflects that the TFR in
coverage will be provided to the gig India is above the Replacement-Level
workers, platform workers, unorganized Fertility Rate.
workers and fixed-term employees. 3. The TFR among women in the rural
2. The Employees' Provident Fund areas is more than that of the urban
provisions will apply to all the areas.
establishments in which 10 or more Which of the statements given above is/are
individuals are employed. correct?
3. An employee or an unorganized worker (a) 1 only
must provide his Aadhaar number to (b) 2 and 3 only
receive the social security benefits. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only
30. Which of the following countries are the
(b) 2 and 3 only members of the Regional Comprehensive
(c) 1 and 3 only Economic Partnership (RCEP)?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Myanmar
2. China
28. Consider the following statements with 3. Japan
reference to the new criteria for the Micro, 4. Indonesia
Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)
5. Russia
Units:
1. A Micro Enterprise is an enterprise
given below:
where net investment in plant and
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
machinery or equipment is upto ₹1
crore. (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. A Small Enterprise is an enterprise (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

where the turnover does not exceed ₹50 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
crores.
RAUSIAS-1041 6
31. Consider the following statements with 34. With reference to the Electronic Gold
reference to subsidies under the World Receipts (EGRs), recently launched by the
Trade Organization’s Agreement on BSE, consider the following statements:
Agriculture: 1. The EGRs will cater to commercial
1. The subsidies in the Amber Box do not participants only.
have any reduction commitments. 2. The EGRs are the depository gold
2. The Green Box subsidies are receipts and are held in the Demat
government funded, without any price accounts, just like shares.
support to the crops. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. The Blue Box supports are the correct?
subsidies that are tied to the
(a) 1 only
programmes that limit production.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only 35. With reference to the Direct Benefit
Transfer for food subsidy, consider the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT)
32. With reference to the Blue Bonds, consider
experiment aims to reduce the need for
the following statements:
huge physical movement of food grains.
1. These are the financial instrument
2. The scheme is optional for the
designed to support sustainable marine
States/UTs and operates in the
and fisheries projects.
"Identified Areas” in a State or a Union
2. The United States of America (USA) has
Territory (UT).
launched the world’s first Sovereign
Blue Bond. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. Which of the following best describes the
33. Consider the following statements: term ‘Current Account Deficit’?
1. In the digital currency related (a) A deficit which occurs when the
transactions, the bank does not route government's total expenditures exceed
payments or act as a middleman. the revenue that it generates, excluding
2. The electronic form of sovereign money from borrowing.
currency, i.e., e-rupee, is operated by (b) It is the fiscal deficit for the current year
the RBI and does not entail any minus interest payments on the
individual handlers. previous borrowings.
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Deficit that occurs when a country is
correct? importing more goods and services,
(a) 1 only than it exports.
(b) 2 only (d) It is the shortfall of the total revenue
(c) Both 1 and 2 receipts, compared with the total
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 revenue expenditures for a government.
RAUSIAS-1041 7
37. With reference to the Agriculture 2. Improving productivity by way of quality
Infrastructure Fund, consider the following germ-plasm.
statements: 3. Promotion to the Farmer Producer
1. All farmers and Farmer Producer Organizations across India.
Organizations can avail credit under the Select the correct answer using the code
scheme. given below:
2. The beneficiaries would be provided (a) 2 only
short-term loans for infrastructure (b) 3 only
development.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. Benefits would be provided through the
(d) 1 and 3 only
provision of interest subvention.
40. Consider the following statements:
correct?
1. The LaQshya programme focuses on the
(a) 1 and 3 only
quality of labour room and maternity
(b) 2 and 3 only
OT to reduce maternal mortality.
(c) 1 and 2 only
2. The MusQan scheme was launched to
(d) 1, 2 and 3 provide last-mile best educational
services in rural India.
38. With reference to the Producers Which of the statements given above is/are
Organization, consider the following correct?
statements: (a) 1 only
1. As per the guidelines of the National (b) 2 only
Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(c) Both 1 and 2
Development (NABARD), the non-
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
farmers cannot establish a Producers
Organization in rural India.
2. All Producer Organizations act as legal 41. With reference to the Directorate General of
entity in India. Foreign Trade, consider the following
statements:
3. The shareholders in a Producer
Organization are the producers 1. This office is responsible for formulating
themselves. and implementing the Foreign Trade
Policy.
correct? 2. It issues scrips/authorization to the
exporters and monitors their
(a) 1 and 3 only
corresponding obligations.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. The Directorate is headed by the
(c) 1 and 2 only
Minister of State for Commerce and
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Industry.
39. With reference to the agricultural economy correct?
of India, which of the following is/are the (a) 1 and 3 only
benefit(s) of the “Mission for Integrated
(b) 2 and 3 only
Development of Horticulture”?
(c) 1 and 2 only
1. Development of common climatic
(d) 1, 2 and 3
strategies across all states for crop
improvement.
RAUSIAS-1041 8
42. Which of the following statements is/are 3. It may modify or repeal any Act of the
correct regarding the constitutional Parliament and even amend the
remedies? Constitution.
1. The right to get the Fundamental Rights Select the correct answer using the code
protected is, in itself, a Fundamental given below:
Right. (a) 1 only
2. Only the Supreme Court and the High (b) 2 only
Courts are empowered to issue writs (c) 1 and 3 only
under these remedies.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The right to move to the courts cannot
be suspended under any
circumstances.
correct regarding the electoral college of the
Vice-President?
given below:
1. The Vice-President is elected by the
(a) 1 and 2 only
method of indirect election.
(b) 2 only
2. The elected members of the Parliament
(c) 1 only and the Legislative Assemblies take part
(d) 1, 2 and 3 in the election.
3. Incomplete Electoral College is one of
43. Consider the following statements the criteria of dispute over the election
regarding the sources of the Indian of the Vice-President.
Constitution? Select the correct answer using the code
1. Federal set-up and the Rule of Law were given below:
borrowed from the Constitution of the (a) 1 only
United States. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The Directive Principles of State Policy (c) 3 only
were borrowed from the Soviet
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Constitution.
3. Procedure established by law was
borrowed from the Japanese
correct regarding the Lok Sabha
Constitution.
Secretariat?
1. The Secretariat is headed by the
correct?
Secretary-General, who, in turn, is
(a) 1 and 2 only
appointed by the President.
(b) 2 only
2. The recruitment and service conditions
(c) 3 only of the staff are regulated by the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Parliament.
3. The staff of the two Houses is entirely
44. Which of the following statements is/are independent of each other.
correct regarding the Ordinance power of Select the correct answer using the code
the President? given below:
1. These Ordinances have the same force (a) 1 and 2 only
and effect as an Act of the Parliament (b) 2 only
and are permanent in nature.
(c) 3 only
2. The decision of the President to issue an
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ordinance can be questioned in a court.
RAUSIAS-1041 9
47. Which of the following statements is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct regarding the ‘office of profit’? correct?
1. The term has been defined under the (a) 1 only

Constitution of India. (b) 2 only
2. There is an upper-limit on how many (c) Both 1 and 2
offices can be exempted under the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
‘office of profit-list’.
3. The test for determining whether a

person holds an ‘office of profit’ is the 50. Consider the following statements
test of appointment. regarding the Deputy Speaker of the
Assembly:
given below: 1. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the
Assembly itself, from amongst its
(a) 1 and 2 only members.
(b) 3 only 2. He can be removed from the House by a
(c) 1 only majority of 50% of the total
membership.
(d) 1 and 3 only
correct?
48. Consider the following statements (a) 1 only
regarding the Solicitor General of India:
(b) 2 only
1. The Indian Constitution, under Article
(c) Both 1 and 2
76, provides for the office.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. He assists the Attorney General for
India in the fulfilment of his official
responsibilities. 51. Consider the following statements
Which of the statements given above is/are regarding Ashok Mehta Committee on
correct? Panchayati Raj Institution:
(a) 1 only 1. A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj

with Gram Sabha as the foundation of
(b) 2 only the system.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. It recommended reservation of one-third
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of total seats for the Scheduled Caste
and the Scheduled Tribes.
49. Consider the following statements correct?
regarding the privileges of the Governor:
(a) 1 only
1. He enjoys personal immunity from legal
(b) 2 only
liability for his official acts.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. The Constitution has extended the
privileges of the State Legislature to the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Governor.
RAUSIAS-1041 10
52. Consider the following statements: 54. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India is silent on 1. Article 136 of the Indian Constitution
the grounds of removal of the judges of empowers the Supreme Court to hear
the High Courts and the Supreme appeals not only from the courts, but
Court, but have been provided for in the
also from the tribunals in any cause or
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
matter.
2. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968,
provides for the procedure for the 2. Every High Court exercises
investigation and proof of misbehaviour superintendence over all courts
or incapacity of a judge of the Supreme throughout the territories in relation to
Court or of a High Court. which it exercises its jurisdiction, but
3. The removal proceedings against a not over the tribunals.
judge of the Supreme Court or the High Which of the statements given above is/are
Court can be initiated only in the Rajya
correct?
Sabha, according to the Judges
(Inquiry) Act, 1968. (a) 1 only
4. So far, the removal process has never (b) 2 only
been initiated against any judge of the (c) Both 1 and 2
Supreme Court or the High Courts, as (d) Neither 1 nor 2
prescribed under the Judges (Inquiry)
Act, 1968.
Which of the statements given above is/are 55. Which of the following can be said to be the
correct? salient features of the Consumer Protection
(a) 2 only Act, 2019?
(b) 3 only 1. The ambit of consumer has been
(c) 1 and 2 only widened to cover not only on-line
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only transactions, but also tele-marketing
and multi-level marketing, which will
53. With reference to the Parliamentary impose responsibility at all levels.
practice in India and Britain, consider the 2. It provides for mediation as an Alternate
following statements: Dispute Resolution Mechanism to
1. In Britain, the power of the Parliament resolve the consumer grievances,
to legislate is legally unrestricted and it thereby making the process of dispute
can even change a Constitutional
adjudication simpler and quicker.
Principle by the same ordinary process
as it enacts an ordinary law. 3. It has reduced pecuniary jurisdiction for
2. In India, the power of the Parliament to the District, State and National
legislate is based on the Principle of Consumer Commissions.
Checks and Balance, and the Basic 4. It provides flexibility to the consumer to
Structure Doctrine effectively limits the file complaints with the Consumer
amending powers of the Parliament. Commission, located at the place of
3. Britain has no Doctrine of residence or work of the consumer.
Unconstitutionality of Parliamentary
Legislation, but a law enacted by the
British Parliament can be questioned or given below:
challenged in any court. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1041 11
56. Articles 356 and 357 provide for meeting a 58. Which of the following conditions are
situation arising from the failure of the mandatory for any political party to be
Constitutional machinery in a state. If the recognized as a “State Party”?
President, on receipt of a report from the 1. Securing not less than 6% of the total
Governor of a state or otherwise, is satisfied valid votes polled in the state at the last
that a situation has arisen in which the general election to the Lok Sabha from
government of the state cannot be carried the state, plus win at least 10 seats in
on in accordance with the provisions of the the Lok Sabha election from the state.
Constitution, the President may, by 2. Political party winning at least 3% of
Proclamation: the total number of seats in the
1. Assume to herself all or any of the Legislative Assembly at the last general
functions of the State Government or election to the State Legislative
the powers of the Governor, or anybody Assembly, or at least 10 seats in the
or authority in the state, including the Legislative Assembly.
State Legislature. 3. Securing not less than 6% of the total
2. Declare that the powers of the State valid votes at the last general elections
Legislature are to be exercised by the to the State Legislative Assembly, plus
Parliament. win at least 2 seats in the State
3. Make such incidental provisions for Legislative Assembly.
suspending in whole or in part the 4. Political party securing at least 8% of
operation of any provisions of this the total valid votes polled in the state.
Constitution relating to anybody or Select the correct answer using the code
authority in the state. given below:
4. Assume to herself any of the powers (a) 1 and 4 only
vested in or exercisable by a High (b) 3 and 4 only
Court, or to suspend in whole or in part (c) 2 and 3 only
the operation of any provision of this (d) 1 and 2 only
Constitution relating to the High
Courts.
Select the correct answer using the code reference to the Fifth Schedule to the
given below: Constitution of India:
(a) 2 and 3 only 1. The Fifth Schedule has been designed
(b) 1 and 4 only in furtherance of Article 15(4) and
(c) 1 and 2 only Article 46, to protect the tribals from
(d) 3 and 4 only social injustice and exploitation.
2. To further the objectives of the Fifth
Schedule, Districts and Regional
57. Which of the following projects can be
Councils have been constituted in the
associated with NITI Aayog?
states having Scheduled Areas.
1. Sustainable Action for Transforming
3. The Governor of each state having
Human Capital in Education – SATH-E
Scheduled Areas needs to furnish an
2. National Data and Analytics Platform – annual report to the President or
NDAP whenever needed, regarding the
3. Aspirational Districts Programme – ADP administration of the Scheduled Areas
4. Atal Innovation Mission – AIM in such states.
Select the correct answer using the code Which of the statements given above is/are
given below: incorrect?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only
RAUSIAS-1041 12
60. The National Commission for Protection of 3. It is the only global Convention
Child Rights is mandated to monitor the specializing in the conservation of the
proper and effective implementation of migratory species, their habitats and
which of the following legislations? migration routes.
1. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of
Children) Act, 2015
correct?
2. Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 (a) 1 only
3. Right to Information Act, 2005 (b) 1 and 2 only

4. The Right of Children to Free and (c) 3 only
Compulsory Education Act, 2009 (d) 1 and 3 only
given below:
63. With respect to the “Volatile Organic
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
Compounds”, consider the following
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
statements:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. They have a high vapour pressure and
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
high water solubility.
61. With respect to the “Central Zoo 2. They are emitted by correction fluids
Authority (CZA)”, consider the following and carbonless copy paper, graphics
statements: and craft materials, including glues and
1. Its primary function is the grant of adhesives, and permanent markers.
recognition and release of financial Which of the statements given above is/are
assistance. correct?
2. It has been constituted under the (a) 1 only
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
(b) 2 only
3. It regulates the exchange of animals of
endangered category, listed under (c) Both 1 and 2
Schedule-I and Schedule-II of the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
64. With respect to the “Barrier Reefs”,
correct?
(a) 1 only
1. The barrier reefs are similar to the
(b) 1 and 2 only
fringing reefs, in that they grow directly
(c) 2 and 3 only
out from the shore.
(d) 1 and 3 only
2. The Belize Barrier Reef is the largest
coral reef system in the world.
62. With respect to the “Convention on the
Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Which of the statements given above is/are
Animals (CMS)”, consider the following correct?
statements: (a) 1 only
1. It is also known as the Basel
(b) 2 only
Convention.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It was signed under the auspices of
the United Nations Development (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Programme (UNDP).
RAUSIAS-1041 13
65. Consider the following statements: 68. With respect to the “Hope Spots', consider
1. The Nicobar Megapode, a medium-sized the following statements:
scrub fowl species, is found in the 1. It is a joint initiative of the International
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
2. The Houbara Bustard is listed as and the United Nations Development
‘vulnerable’ in the Red List of the Programme (UNDP).
International Union for Conservation of 2. The Andaman & Nicobar and the
Nature. Lakshadweep islands have been
designated as 'Hope Spots'.
3. The Asian Houbara is related to the
Great Indian Bustard, native to India.
correct?
(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
69. With respect to the “Destination Flyways
Project”, consider the following statements:
66. Consider the following pairs: 1. It is led by the World Tourism
S.N. Ramsar Site State Organization (UNWTO).
1. Chandertal Himachal 2. It will promote sustainable tourism for
Wetland Pradesh the local communities at eight
important migratory bird sites in Africa,
2. Rudrasagar Lake Uttarakhand Asia and Europe.
3. Renuka Wetland Jammu & Which of the statements given above is/are
Kashmir correct?
(a) 1 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are
(b) 2 only
correctly matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
70. With respect to “Mangroves”, consider the
(d) None of the above
1. Sundarbans is the world’s largest single
67. Which of the following comes/come under patch of mangrove forests.
‘In Situ’ conservation? 2. Rhizophora mucronata is one of the
1. Genetic Reserve On-Farm important species of the mangrove
2. Field Gene Bank ecosystems in India.
3. In Vitro Storage 3. As per the 2021 assessment, mangrove
Select the correct answer using the code cover in India is 3% of India’s total
given below: geographical area.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are

correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1041 14
71. Consider the following statements 3. Its members include banks, insurers,
regarding the Adaptation Gap Report, asset owners, asset managers, financial
2022: service providers and investment
1. It was published by the Climate Action consultants.
Network (CAN). Which of the statements given above are
2. As per the Report, adaptation costs correct?
include the costs of planning, (a) 1 and 2 only
preparing, facilitating and implementing (b) 2 and 3 only
the adaptation measures. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1, 2, and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only 74. With reference to the aims of Glasgow COP-
(b) 2 only 26 Declaration on Forest and Land Use,
which of the following is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. To halt and reverse forest loss and land
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
degradation by 2070.
2. To promote sustainable production and
72. With reference to the Paris Rule Book, consumption.
which of following statements is/are
3. To conserve and restore forests.
correct?
4. To ensure financial commitment for
1. It was adopted at COP-27, held at forests.
Sharm-El- Sheikh in Egypt.
2. It provides for different time-frames for given below:
emissions reductions targets for the (a) 1 and 2 only
developed and the developing countries.
(b) 4 only
3. It provides for mechanisms and
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
standards for the international carbon
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
markets.
75. With reference to the Prime Minister’s
given below:
Council on Climate Change (PMCCC),
(a) 1 only which of the following statements is/are
(b) 3 only correct:
(c) 1 and 2 only 1. The Council was created in the year
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2015.
2. In the first meeting, the Prime Minister
73. With reference to the Glasgow Financial gave the slogan of “carbon credit” to
Alliance for Net Zero, consider the following “green credit”, along with a clear-cut
definition of “green credit”.
statements:
1. It is the world’s largest coalition of
given below:
financial institutions committed to
transitioning the global economy to (a) 1 only
achieve the goal of net zero. (b) 2 only
2. Its aim is to expand the number of net (c) Both 1 and 2

zero-committed financial institutions. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1041 15
76. With reference to green crackers, which of 79. Consider the following statements
following statements are correct? regarding the Australia-India Centre for
1. They can be used in any city or town of Energy:
the country. 1. It aims to promote collaboration among
2. SWAS is one of the categories of green research institutes and industry in the
crackers, which can reduce the dust energy domain.
particles in the atmosphere. 2. It is to work on the UN Sustainable
3. Green crackers can be identified Development Goals (SDGs) also.
through the CSIR NEERI logo. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
80. The ‘Singapore Declaration’ was in the

77. With reference to the River Cities Alliance
news recently. It is related to which of the
(RCA), which of following statements is/are
following?
correct?
1. The RCA is envisaged as a facilitatory (a) An agreement to counter threats from
platform for initiating river-sensitive crypto-currency.
planning and development. (b) Principles on the protection of the
2. The Alliance is open to all cities of India. Intellectual Property Rights.
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Social dialogue to address the labour
given below: market challenges.
(a) 1 only (d) A campaign to raise awareness to stay
(b) 2 only safe with dual use of social media
(c) Both 1 and 2 platforms.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
78. Which of the following statements are regarding the Joint Comprehensive Plan of
correct regarding the Wassenaar Action (JCPOA):
Arrangement? 1. It was signed between Iran and the
1. It is a multilateral export control regime permanent members of the Security
on the transfers of conventional arms, Council.
and dual-use goods and technologies. 2. The compliance with the nuclear-related
2. It operates on a voluntary basis and the provisions of the agreement is verified
decisions are made by consensus. by the International Atomic Energy
3. India and China are the members of the Agency (IAEA).
Arrangement. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1041 16
82. Which of the following statements are 85. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding the Just Transition correct regarding the Business Council
Initiative? of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization?
1. It is a global treaty to end plastic 1. It is a non-government entity that
pollution. unites the business community of the
2. The treaty will be legally binding. member states.
3. It will guarantee social protection, 2. Its permanent secretariat is
training opportunities and job security headquartered in Beijing.
for the workers. 3. It is an independent institution, capable
Select the correct answer using the code of taking advisory decisions.
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only given below:
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
regarding the G20 Digital Innovation
Alliance: 86. Consider the following pairs:
1. The membership was restricted to the S.N. Region Country
members of G20 only. 1. Bornholm Denmark
2. Stay Safe Online Campaign was also
2. Ust-Luga Germany
launched with the aim to raise
awareness. 3. Greifswald Russia
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Rehden Germany
correct?
How many pairs given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correctly matched?
(b) 2 only
(a) Only one pair
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two pairs
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
correct regarding the sanctions of the
United Nations? 87. With respect to “Venus”, consider the
1. The Security Council can take action to following statements:
maintain or restore international peace 1. Venus is the fourth planet from the
and security. Sun.
2. This may involve the use of armed force. 2. Venus has a thick, toxic atmosphere
3. The Sanctions Committee is chaired by filled with carbon dioxide.
a permanent member. 3. On Venus, the Sun rises in the west
Select the correct answer using the code and sets in the east.
given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 2 only
(c) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
RAUSIAS-1041 17
88. With respect to “Small Magellanic Cloud”, 91. Consider the following statements:
consider the following statements: 1. All of the cells found in the blood come
1. It is a small galaxy that orbits Milky from bone marrow.
Way spiral galaxy. 2. In humans, the mature RBC lacks a
2. It is so bright that it is visible to the nucleus.
unaided eye from the Southern 3. Plasma is mainly water, but it also
Hemisphere and near the equator. contains many important substances
Which of the statements given above is/are such as proteins, sugars, and fat
correct? particles.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
89. With respect to “Generative AI”, consider
the following statements:
92. Consider the following rivers:
1. It refers to artificial intelligence that can
generate novel content, rather than 1. Ob River
simply analysing or acting on existing 2. Volga River
data. 3. Yenisey River
2. It can produce only text. 4. Elbe River
Which of the statements given above is/are 5. Lena River
correct? 6. Mackenzie River
(a) 1 only 7. Vistula River
(b) 2 only How many rivers given above flow into the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Arctic Ocean?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Three Rivers
(b) Four Rivers
90. With respect to “Advanced medical (c) Five Rivers
directives”, consider the following (d) Six Rivers
statements:
1. It is a legal document in which a person 93. Consider the following statements about
specifies what actions should be taken Doppler Weather Radar:
for their health if they are no longer 1. It can help track the amount of rainfall,
able to make decisions for themselves position and velocity of weather
because of illness or incapacity. systems.
2. It can be made by any person who is 2. It is especially effective in areas where
above 16 years of age. ground clutter adversely affects
Which of the statements given above is/are conventional radars signals.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1041 18
94. Consider the following statements about which makes ploughs to get stuck in the
Mica: wet soil. Which of the following types of soil
1. Highest deposits of Mica is found in found in India has the above attributes?
Odisha. (a) Black soil
2. Waste of Mica can be used as a (b) Peaty soil
potential source of potassium fertilisers. (c) Saline soil
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Laterite soil
correct?
(a) 1 only 98. Consider the following statements about
(b) 2 only the Ghaggar River:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. The waters of Ghaggar river ends up in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Satluj River.
2. It is a perennial river.
95. Consider the following locations in news: Which of the statements given above is/are
S.N. Plateau Location correct?
(a) 1 only
1. Yangtse Located between
Plateau Ladakh and China (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Doklam Located between
(d) Neither nor 2
Plateau Sikkim and China
3. Kaas Located between
99. Consider the following statements about
Plateau Arunachal Pradesh
Mycorrhizal fungi:
and China
1. They are a class of biofertilizers which
Which of the pairs given above is/are helps plants to absorb nitrogen.
incorrectly matched? 2. Mycorrhizal plants show higher
(a) 1 only tolerance to high soil temperatures and
(b) 2 and 3 only heavy metal toxicity.
(c) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(a) 1 only
96. Consider the following statements about (b) 2 only
Darling 58, a genetically modified species? (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It is the first genetically modified tree (d) Neither 1 nor 2
species to be launched for plantation in
forests. 100. Consider the following statements about
2. It is being planned to introduced in the dimethyl sulphur:
forests of Germany. 1. Phytoplanktons are significant
Which of the statements given above is/are producers of oxygen and dimethyl
correct? sulphur in the marine environment.
(a) 1 only 2. Dimethyl sulfide results in increased
(b) 2 only cloudiness over oceans.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(a) 1 only
97. This soil has a property of being 'self- (b) 2 only
ploughed' during the summer season. In (c) Both 1 and 2
the monsoon season it become sticky, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
RAUSIAS-1041 19
Answers &
Explanations
of
TEST ID: 1041

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)
Full Length Test (FLT)–3

ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
Full Length Test (FLT)–3
GS Paper-I: (1041)
1. Answer: (c) this mature Harappan culture lay in Sindh

Explanation: and Punjab, principally in the Indus Valley.
From there it spread southwards and
S.N. Source Author
eastwards. In this way, the Harappan
1. Astadhyayi Panini culture covered parts of Punjab, Haryana,
2. Priyadarshika Harshvardh- Sindh, Baluchistan, Gujarat, Rajasthan
ana and the fringes of western UP. It extended
3. Abhijnanashakunt- Kalidasa from the Siwaliks in the north to the
alam Arabian Sea in the south, and from the
Makran coast of Baluchistan in the west to
4. Mrichchhakatika Sudraka Meerut in the north-east.
2. Answer: (c) 3. Answer: (b)

Explanation: Explanation:
The Indus and the Western Gangetic Plains The earliest settlements in India were
principally produced wheat and barley, generally founded near lakes or rivers in
while the Middle and the Lower Gangetic hilly, plateau, or wooded areas, where
Plains largely produced rice, which also the people could make stone and bone
became the staple diet in Gujarat and tools to earn a livelihood.
south of the Vindhyas. The Harappan Rainfall certainly helped the human society
culture originated and flourished in the in pursuing agriculture and founding
Indus Valley. The Vedic culture originated settlements, but heavy rains during the
in the North-West Frontier Province and the tropical monsoon deterred people from
Punjab, and flourished in the Western regular work. Gautama Buddha used to
Gangetic Basin. The post-Vedic culture, suspend his mission of teaching Buddhism
mainly based on the use of iron, throve in annually for four months during the rainy
the Mid-Gangetic Basin. season and stay at such places as
Later Vedic texts were compiled in the Rajagriha, Vaishali and Shravasti for
Upper Gangetic Basin in c. 1000–500 B. Varsha-Vasa. He is said to have spent
With the combined evidence from the later twenty-six rainy seasons in Shravasti.
Vedic texts and PGW iron-phase The river junctions served as the sites for
archaeology, idea has been formed about the early settlements. The junctions
the life of the people in the first half of the effectively cleared forests and helped
first millennium BC in western Uttar human habitation. This can be said of
Pradesh (UP) and the adjoining areas of Pataliputra, the first great city of India.
Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan. The texts This place lay on the junction of the
show that the Aryans expanded from Ganges and the Son. Not far from the
Punjab over the whole of western UP town, the Gandak and the Ghagara too
covered by the Ganga–Yamuna doab. joined the Ganges on the north and the
The Indus or the Harappan culture Punpun joined it on the south. The
developed in the north-western part of the presence of the rivers on three sides
Indian sub-continent. The central zone of made Pataliputra virtually a water fort
RAUSIAS-1041 1
and helped it to become the first great The 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments
state capital. date back to the 2nd century BCE to 480
CE. The Ajanta Caves have five Chaityas,
4. Answer: (d) which are basically prayer halls. Other
caves are known as Viharas, which are
Explanation:
monasteries with residents. After studying
Sherds of northern-black-polished-ware
the artefacts, it was concluded by the
(NBPW) have been found at over 400 sites
historians and the archaeologists that
in the plains of Bihar and those of eastern
these caves had a connection with the
and central Uttar Pradesh (UP). The NBPW
Vakataka dynasty. 20 caves were built
also extended over Madhya Pradesh (MP)
during the Vakataka dynasty, during the
and Maharashtra.
reign of Harisena, and at the end of his
It seems that the nucleated rural reign, these caves were abandoned.
settlement, in which all the people settled
On the ruins of the Satavahana power in
at one place with their agricultural lands
the eastern part of the peninsula, there
mostly outside the settlement, were first
arose the Ikshvakus in the Krishna–
established in the mid-Gangetic plains
Guntur region. They have left behind many
during the age of Gautama Buddha. The
monuments at Nagarjunakonda and
Pali texts speak of three types of villages.
Dharanikota. They began the practise of
The first category included the typical
land grants in the Krishna–Guntur region,
village inhabited by various castes and
where several of their copper-plate
communities, and these villages seem to
inscriptions have been discovered.
have been the largest in number and each
The Gangas were another important
village headed by a village headman,
contemporary dynasty of the Pallavas.
called Bhojaka.
They established their kingdom in southern
The peasants had to pay one-sixth of their
Karnataka around the fourth century. The
produce as tax. Taxes were collected
kingdom was situated between that of the
directly by the royal agents, and generally
Pallavas in the east and of the Kadambas in
no intermediate landlords existed between
the west. They are called the Western
the peasants, on the one hand, and the
Gangas or the Gangas of Mysore, in order
state, on the other. There is also evidence
to differentiate them from the Eastern
of large plots of land worked with the help
Gangas, who ruled in Kalinga from the fifth
of slaves and agricultural labourers. Rich
century onwards. For most of their reign,
peasants were called Gahapatis (a Pali
the Western Gangas were the feudatories
term), who were of almost the same
of the Pallavas.
status as a section of the Vaishyas.
6. Answer: (b)
5. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Explanation:
The coins and inscriptions of
In northern Maharashtra and Vidarbha
Vashishthiputra Pulumayi have been
(Berar), the Satavahanas were succeeded
found in Andhra, and show that by the
by the Vakatakas, a local power. The
middle of the second century, this area
Vakatakas, who were Brahmanas
had become a part of the Satavahana
themselves, are known from a large
kingdom. He set up his capital at
number of copper-plate land grants issued
Paithan, or Pratishthan, on the Godavari
by them. They were great champions of the
in Aurangabad district.
Brahmanical religion and performed
The most interesting detail about the
numerous Vedic sacrifices.
Satavahanas relates to their family
RAUSIAS-1041 2
structure. The Satavahanas, however, show and the king's army was split into four
traces of a matrilineal social structure. It distinct branches.
was customary for their king to be named  The Pratiharas' conflicts with the rulers
after his mother. Such names, as of Multan and the Rashtrakutas in the
Gautamiputra and Vashishthiputra, north, and the Palas and their allies in
indicate that in their society the mother the south and east, were all
enjoyed a great deal of importance. documented.
Sometimes an inscription is issued both  This weakened the Pratihara Empire
under the authority of the king and his and Gujarat probably passed into the
mother.
hands of the Rashtrakutas, for Al-
The official language of the Satavahanas Masudi tells us that the Pratihara
was Prakrit. One Prakrit text, called Empire had no access to the sea.
Gathasattasai, or the Gathasaptasati, is
 Rajashekhar, the great Sanskrit poet
attributed to a Satavahana king, called
and playwright, spent his life in the
Hala. It consisted of 700 verses, all written
court of Mahipala, the grandson of
in Prakrit, but it seems to have been finally
Bhoja.
re-touched much later, possibly after the
 Numerous magnificent temples were
sixth century.
erected in Kanauj by the Pratiharas.
The Satavahanas started the practice of
 The Indian Government sent envoys
granting tax-free villages to the Brahmanas
and intellectuals to the Caliph in
and the Buddhist monks. The cultivated
Baghdad, where they exposed the Arabs
fields and villages granted to them were
to Indian mathematics and science.
declared free from intrusion by the royal
policemen, soldiers and other royal officers.
These areas, therefore, became small 8. Answer: (a)
independent islands within the Satavahana Explanation:
kingdom.  The chief Indian port for sailing to Java,
Sumatra, etc., was Tamralipti (Tamluk)
7. Answer: (a) in Bengal.
Explanation:  In most of the stories of the period, the
 As their name suggests, the Gurjara merchants started for Suvarnadvipa
Pratiharas were originally from the (modern Indonesia) or to Kataha (Kedah
Gurjaratra or the Gurjaradesa area of in Malaya) from Tamralipti.
south-western Rajasthan.  A fourteenth century writer in Java
 As lower-level government employees, speaks of the people from Jambudvipa
they first established a chain of district (India), Karnataka (South India) and
towns throughout central and eastern Gaud (Bengal) coming unceasingly in
Rajasthan. big numbers in large ships.
 Nagabhatta I established the Pratihara  The traders from Gujarat also took part
kingdom (730-760 CE). in this trade.
 In the years 915 and 916, Al-Masudi,  The Indian rulers, particularly the Pala
an Arab historian, travelled to Gujarat. and the Sena rulers of Bengal, and the
Pallava and the Chola rulers of south
 The Gurjara Pratihara Empire is
India, tried to encourage this trade by
referred to by him as Al-Juzr.
sending a series of emissaries to the
 According to his report, there were
Chinese emperors.
18,000 cities and towns in the kingdom,
RAUSIAS-1041 3
 The Chola ruler, Rajendra I, sent a 9. Answer: (c)
naval expedition against Malaya and Explanation:
the neighbouring countries to overcome  In 1191, an invading Ghurid army,
their interference in trade with China. commanded by Muhammad of Ghor,
 The emissary sent to China by Rajendra clashed with a Rajput confederacy, led
I travelled in an Indian ship. by Prithviraj Chauhan, in Tarain, in
 There is evidence to show that there what is known as the First Battle of
Tarain or the First Battle of Taroari
were many shipyards, which were
(modern Taraori in Haryana, India).
located on the west coast, including
Gujarat.  Despite the Rajputs' overwhelming
triumph, Muhammad of Ghor was able
 Thus, the growth of India’s foreign trade
to flee the battlefield and make his way
in the area was based on a strong
back to Ghazni.
maritime tradition, including ship
 The Ghurid army took Hansi, Saraswati
building, and the skill and enterprise of
and Samana after the Battles of Tarain.
its traders.
The next day, they launched an
 In some of the Dharamshastras, which offensive and successfully took Ajmer.
were written during this period, a ban
 According to a legend, Prithviraj was a
was put on travel beyond the areas
subordinate of the Ghurids and
where the Munja grass does not grow, permitted to control the city of Ajmer for
or where the Black Gazelle does not some time, before being put to death for
roam, that is, outside India proper. conspiracy.
 Travel across the salt seas was also
considered polluting. 10. Answer: (b)
 These bans were not taken seriously, for Explanation:
we have accounts of the Indian  In the Slave dynasty, Qutub-ud-din
merchants, philosophers, medical men Aibak was the first ruler.
and craftsmen visiting Baghdad and
 After the Battle of Tarain, he was a
other Muslim towns in West Asia during
crucial cog in Muhammad Ghori's
this period. conquest of the Turkish Sultanate in
 Perhaps, the ban was meant for the India.
Brahmans only, or was meant to  He was appointed the Governor of
discourage too many Indians going to Muhammad Ghori's Indian territories.
the areas dominated by Islam in the  During Ghori's reign, he built up a
West and Buddhism in the East, for the permanent army and solidified his
fear of their bringing back heretical control over northern India.
religious ideas, which may be
 In the honour of the well-known Sufi
embarrassing and unacceptable to the saint Khwaja Qutubuddin Bakhtiyar;
Brahmans and the ruling groups. he also began the first stage of
 The ban on sea travel did not building the Qutub Minar. In the end,
interfere with the growth of India’s it was Iltumish who finished it.
overseas trade with the countries of  When it came to governance, Iltutmish
South-East Asia and China. was outstanding.
 A brisk trade between South India and  Around 1229 C.E., he was granted
the countries of South-East Asia had formal sovereignty over India by a letter
started from the sixth century onwards.
RAUSIAS-1041 4
of acknowledgment from the Abbasid address these issues, he enacted four
Caliph, known as "Mansur." statutes:
 Furthermore, the 175-gram silver o Drugs and alcoholic beverages were
Tanka, which had hitherto only been completely off-limits to the public.
used in the Middle East, was adopted as o All of the nobles' covert doings were
the standard currency of Medieval exposed to the Sultan, as soon as
India, thanks to his introduction of the they were discovered, when the
Arabic monetary system. The intelligence apparatus was
contemporary rupee was still based on restructured.
the silver Tanka. o He took the nobility's wealth and
 Iltutmish organized the Turkan-i- seized it.
Chahalgani, an exclusive group of forty o Having a party or social gathering
prominent military chiefs, known as the without the Sultan's approval was
Forty. strictly forbidden. Such strict
 During his reign, a large number of Sufi regulations ensured that there were
saints visited India under his no uprisings during his reign.
patronage.  Alauddin Khalji kept a sizable army on
 His court was adorned with the works the rolls at all times and paid its
of Minhaj-us-Siraj (the author of members directly from the royal coffers.
Tahaqqat-i-Nasuri), Taj-ud-din,  Historian Ferishta claims that he
Muhammad Junaidi, Fakhrul-Mulk- amassed a cavalry force of 4,75,000
Isami and Malik Qutub-ud-din Hasan, soldiers.
among other academics of the time.
 Through his efforts, the Dagh (horse
 Balban saw the Sultan as God's earthly branding) system and Huliya were
reflection (Zil-e-Ilahi) and the benefactor implemented (descriptive list of the
of divine favour (Nibyabat-e-Khudai). soldiers).
 Balban strengthened the monarchy's  Every so often, the army would undergo
position. a thorough assessment to ensure that it
 He instituted strict court discipline and was operating at peak performance.
new rituals, such as prostration (Sajida)
and kissing the Sultan's feet (Paibos), to 11. Answer: (d)
show that he was superior to the
Explanation:
nobility.
 Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah was
 To show off to the nobility and the
the founder of the Bahmani dynasty.
people of Persia, he instituted the
 At Muhammad bin Tughluq's court; he
celebration of Nauroz.
held a position of great honour.
 Balban's policy of governing, which was
 He ascended to power, renaming the
considerably different from Jalaluddin's
city of Gulbarg (now known as
concept of tolerance, was adopted by
Hasanabad).
Alauddin Khalji.
 He was an Afghan explorer. He also
 To him, the fundamental causes of
went by the name ‘Hasan Gangu’.
uprisings were things like the
widespread wealth of the aristocracy,  He was a skilled administrator, who
marriages between the aristocratic split his empire into four regions:
families, an ineffective spy system and Gulbarg, Daulatabad, Berar and Bidar.
the use of alcoholic beverages. To  For as long as both the Vijayanagara
and the Bahmani kingdoms lasted, they
RAUSIAS-1041 5
were locked in a state of continual  The Sadr-i-Jahar was the highest
military conflict. ranking judge in the empire, after the
 Hasan Gangu's first campaign against Sultan.
Warangal took place in 1350 CE, and it  In addition to his judicial duties, he
resulted in the surrender of Kaulas oversaw the state's charitable
Citadel and the capture of King Kapaya organizations.
Nayaka.  Since the Bahmani kingdom often
 The kingdom spanned east to west, clashed with the Hindu states, it needed
from Bhongir to Daulatabad, towards a sizable permanent military force.
the completion of his reign, from the  Amir-ul-Umra was the title given to the
Wainganga River to the Krishna. military chief of staff in the wake of the
 Feudal principles were used as the Sultan.
basis for government in the Bahmani  The Khas-i-Khel were the Sultan's
kingdom. personal bodyguards.
 Eight tarafs, or provinces, each with its  The Bahmani kingdom's military was
own Tarafdar, made up the kingdom. well-rounded, with artillery in addition
 Each of the eight 'Tarafs' had a to the usual horse, infantry and war
designated region under the jurisdiction elephants.
of the Central Government, with the
Central Government appointees in- 12. Answer: (c)
charge of its administration.
Explanation:
 It was necessary to partition the
 Feud between Peshwa Bajirao II and
provinces into Sarkars and then the
Nana Phadnavis was the cause behind
Sarkars into Parganas for
the Second Anglo-Maratha War. The
administrative reasons.
Pindaris, made up of many castes and
 In order to restrict the Tarafdar's classes, were attached to the Maratha
military power, just one fort each armies as mercenaries. When the
province would fall under his direct Marathas became weak, the Pindaris
command. could not get regular employment. As a
 The remaining forts in the province consequence, they started plundering
were given to a Qiladar, or fort the neighbouring territories, including
commander. those of the Company. The English
 Yet, the Sultan's authority was limited charged the Marathas with giving
by the input, and the counsel of his shelter to the Pindaris. Lord Hastings’
ministers and nobles. They had help actions taken against the Pindaris were
from the Sultan's ministers in the seen as a transgression of the
government. sovereignty of the Marathas. They
 Among the cabinet members were the served to once again unite the Maratha
Prime Minister, Vakil-us-Sultanat; the confederacy. A repentant Bajirao II
Minister of Finance, Amir-i-Jumla; and made a last bid in 1817 by rallying
the Minister of Foreign Affairs, Vazir-i- together the Maratha chiefs against the
Asraf. English in course of the Third Anglo-
Maratha War.
 Two more ministers, the Vazir-i-kul and
the Peshwa, also existed, although their  The Peshwa was defeated at Khirki,
roles were vague. Bhonsle at Sitabuldi, and Holkar at
Mahidpur. In June, 1818, the Peshwa
 Ministerial positions were infrequently
finally surrendered and the Maratha
given to the provincial Tarafdars.
RAUSIAS-1041 6
confederacy was dissolved. The because of the economic-social
Peshwaship was abolished. Peshwa structure. The peasants mainly being
Bajirao became a British retainer at the Muslims and the Hindus belonging
Bithur, near Kanpur. Pratap Singh, a to the landed gentry.
lineal descendant of Shivaji, was made
the ruler of a small principality, Satara, 14. Answer: (b)
formed out of the Peshwa’s dominions.
Explanation:
Ramkrishna Gopal Bhandarkar: He was
13. Answer: (d) an Indologist, who wrote the Early History
Explanation: of Deccan. He was the first Vice-Chancellor
The Peasants’ Movements in Indian, till the of the Bombay University. A supporter of
outbreak of the Revolt of 1857, were women’s emancipation, especially widow
localized and had limited territorial extend. remarriage, he cited supportive evidence
They were revolts and rebellions of the from the Atharvaveda and the Aitareya
peasants themselves, led by the local Brahmana.
leaders. Dhondo Keshav Karve: He was a social
The revolts of this period lacked unity, and reformer from Maharashtra working for
frequently saw the emergence of religious / widow remarriage and female education. He
communal undertones. started the Vidhava Vivah Pratibandha
Examples: Nivarak Mandal to arrange for the widows
1. The Narkelberia Uprising (1782- to marry. Karve founded in 1896, an
1831): Mir Nathir Ali, or Titu Mir, led educational institution, the Hindu
the Muslim peasants in West Bengal to Widows Home, in Poona, to help the
rise against the landlords, mainly widows support themselves.
Hindus, who imposed a beard-tax on Vishnu Parushram Shastri Pandit: He
the Faraizis and the British indigo was at the forefront in advocating widow
planters. This revolt took on a religious marriage. He set up the Vidhava Vivaha
hue, and later was merged into the Uttejaka Mandal to encourage widow
Wahabi Movement. remarriage. He led by personal example by
2. The Pagal Panthis (1825-1835): These marrying a widow.
were a semi-religious group, mainly
constituting the Hajong and Garo 15. Answer: (b)
tribes of Mymensingh district, Explanation:
founded by Karam Shah. Tipu  Rashbehari (or Rash Behari) Bose and
organized them against the oppression Sachin Sanyal had organized a secret
of the Zamindars. society, covering the far-flung areas of
3. The Faraizi Revolt (1838-1857): Dudu Punjab, Delhi and the United Provinces,
Miyan led the movement aimed to expel while some others, like Hemachandra
the English intruders from Bengal and Kanungo, went abroad for military and
also against the oppression of the political training.
tenants by the Zamindars. Most of the  In 1908, Prafulla Chaki and
followers later joined the Wahabi ranks.
Khudiram Bose threw a bomb at a
4. The Moplah Uprising (1836-1854): It carriage, supposed to be carrying a
was against the hike of revenue demand particularly sadistic white judge,
and oppression by the officials and the Kingsford, in Muzaffarpur. Kingsford
Hindu Zamindars. The movement saw was not in the carriage. Unfortunately,
the Hindu-Muslims disturbances two British ladies, instead, got killed.
RAUSIAS-1041 7
Prafulla Chaki shot himself dead, while government in India as an integral part
Khudiram Bose was tried (The of the British Empire.”
Muzaffarpur Conspiracy Case, 1908)  From now onwards, the demand by the
and hanged. nationalists for self- government, or
 The whole Anushilan group was ‘Home Rule’, could not be termed as
arrested, including the Ghosh seditious, since attainment of self-
brothers, Aurobindo and Barindra, government for the Indians now became
who were tried in the Alipore a government policy, unlike Morley’s
Conspiracy Case, variously called the statement in 1909, that the reforms
Manicktolla Bomb Conspiracy or the were not intended to give self-
Muraripukur Conspiracy. (Barindra government to India.
Ghosh’s house was on Muraripukur  Also, in the use of the term ‘responsible
Road in the Manicktolla suburb of government’ was implied the condition
Calcutta.) The Ghosh brothers were that the rulers were to be answerable to
charged with ‘conspiracy’ or ‘waging war the elected representatives, and not
against the King’ – the equivalent of only to the imperial government in
high treason and punishable with death London.
by hanging.
 In 1909, the Public Prosecutor was shot 17. Answer: (c)
dead in Calcutta, and in 1910, a Deputy
Explanation:
Superintendent of police met the same
 In March, 1918, Gandhi intervened in
fate while leaving the Calcutta High
a dispute between the cotton mill
Court. In 1908, Barrah dacoity was
owners of Ahmedabad and the
organized by Dacca Anushilan under
workers over the issue of
Pulin Das to raise funds for the
discontinuation of the Plague Bonus.
revolutionary activities. Rashbehari
The mill owners wanted to withdraw the
Bose and Sachin Sanyal staged a
bonus. The workers were demanding a
spectacular bomb attack on Viceroy
rise of 50% in their wages, so that they
Hardinge, while he was making his
could manage in the times of wartime
official entry into the new capital of
inflation (which doubled the prices of
Delhi in a procession through Chandni
food grains, cloth and other necessities)
Chowk in December, 1912. (Hardinge
caused by Britain’s involvement in
was injured, but not killed.)
World War I. The mill owners were
ready to give only a 20% wage hike. The
16. Answer: (b) workers went on a strike.
Explanation:
 The workers of the mill turned to
 The Secretary of State for India, Anusuya Sarabhai for help in fighting
Edwin Samuel Montagu, made a for justice. Anusuya Sarabhai was a
statement on August 20, 1917, in the social worker, who was also the sister of
British House of Commons, in what Ambalal Sarabhai, one of the mill
has come to be known as the August owners and the President of the
Declaration of 1917. The statement Ahmedabad Mill Owners Association
said: “The government policy is of an (founded in 1891 to develop the textile
increasing participation of Indians in industry in Ahmedabad), for help in
every branch of administration and fighting for justice. Anusuya Behn
gradual development of self- governing went to Gandhi, who was respected
institutions with a view to the by the mill owners and the workers,
progressive realisation of responsible and asked him to intervene and help
RAUSIAS-1041 8
resolve the impasse between the Ahmad Khan, lawyer from Gwalior
workers and the employers. Though State. Though Dyer’s statement caused
Gandhi was a friend of Ambalal, he took racial tensions among the members of
up the workers’ cause. Anusuya too the Committee, the final report, released
supported the workers and was one of in March, 1920, unanimously
the chief lieutenants of Gandhi. (It condemned Dyer’s actions. The report
was Anusuya Behn who went on later to stated that the lack of notice to disperse
form the Ahmedabad Textile Labour from the Bagh in the beginning was an
Association in 1920.) error; the length of firing showed a
 Gandhi advised the workers to remain grave error; Dyer’s motive of producing
non-violent while on strike. When a sufficient moral effect was to be
negotiations with the mill owners did condemned; Dyer had overstepped the
not progress, he himself undertook a bounds of his authority; and there had
‘fast unto death’ (his first) to strengthen been no conspiracy to overthrow the
the workers’ resolve. But the fast also British rule in Punjab.
had the effect of putting pressure on the  The Hunter Committee did not impose
mill owners, who finally agreed to any penal or disciplinary action,
submit the issue to a tribunal. The because Dyer’s actions were condoned
strike was withdrawn. In the end, the by various superiors (later upheld by
tribunal awarded the workers a 35% the Army Council). Also, before the
wage hike. Hunter Committee began its
proceedings, the government had
18. Answer: (d) passed an Indemnity Act for the
protection of its officers. The “White
Explanation:
Washing Bill”, as the Indemnity Act was
 The massacre at Jallianwala Bagh
called, was severely criticized by Motilal
shocked the Indians and many British
Nehru and others.
as well. The Secretary of State for India,
Edwin Montagu, ordered that a
Committee of Inquiry be formed to 19. Answer: (c)
investigate the matter. So, in October, Explanation:
1919, the Government of India  As an answer to Lord Birkenhead’s
announced the formation of the challenge, an All Parties Conference met
Disorders Inquiry Committee, which in February, 1928, and appointed a
came to be more widely and variously Sub- Committee under the
known as the Hunter Chairmanship of Motilal Nehru to draft
Committee/Commission, after the name a Constitution. This was the first major
of its Chairman, Lord William Hunter, attempt by the Indians to draft a
former Solicitor General for Scotland constitutional framework for the
and Senator of the College of Justice in country. The Committee included Tej
Scotland. Bahadur Sapru, Subhash Chandra
 There were three Indians among the Bose, M.S. Aney, Mangal Singh, Ali
members, namely, Sir Chiman Lal Imam, Shuaib Qureshi and G.R.
Harilal Setalvad, Vice-Chancellor of Pradhan as its members.
Bombay University and advocate of the  The Report was finalized by August,
Bombay High Court; Pandit Jagat 1928. The recommendations of the
Narayan, lawyer and Member of the Nehru Committee were unanimous,
Legislative Council of the United except in one respect—while the
Provinces; and Sardar Sahibzada Sultan majority favoured the “Dominion
RAUSIAS-1041 9
Status” as the basis of the 6. Accept the Postal Reservation Bill.
Constitution, a section of it wanted Specific Bourgeois Demands:
“complete independence” as the 7. Reduce rupee-sterling exchange ratio to
basis, with the majority section 1s 4d
giving the latter section liberty of
8. Introduce textile protection.
action.
9. Reserve coastal shipping for the
 The Nehru Report confined itself to Indians.
British India, as it envisaged the future
Specific Peasant Demands:
link-up of British India with the
10. Reduce land revenue by 50%.
princely states on a federal basis. For
the dominion, it recommended: 11. Abolish salt tax and government’s salt
monopoly.
o Dominion status on lines of self-
governing dominions as the form of With no positive response forthcoming from
government desired by the Indians. the government on these demands, the
Congress Working Committee invested
o Rejection of separate electorates,
Gandhi with full powers to launch the Civil
which had been the basis of
Disobedience Movement at a time and place
constitutional reforms so far.
of his choice. By February-end, Gandhi had
o Linguistic provinces.
decided to make salt the central formula for
o Nineteen fundamental rights,
the movement.
including equal rights for women,
right to form unions and universal
21. Answer: (a)
adult suffrage.
Explanation:
o Responsible government at the
Centre and in the provinces.  Signed by B.R. Ambedkar on behalf of
o Full protection to cultural and the depressed classes in September,
religious interests of the Muslims. 1932, the Poona Pact abandoned the
idea of separate electorates for the
o Complete dissociation of the State
depressed classes. But the seats
from religion.
reserved for the depressed classes were
increased from 71 to 147 in the
20. Answer: (b) Provincial Legislatures and to 18% of
Explanation: the total in the Central Legislature.
To carry forward the mandate given by the  The Poona Pact was accepted by the
Lahore Congress, Gandhi presented 11 government as an amendment to the
demands to the government and gave an Communal Award.
ultimatum of January 31, 1930, to accept
or reject these demands. The demands were
22. Answer: (c)
as follows:
Explanation:
Issues of General Interest:
 In March, 1942, a Mission, headed by
1. Reduce expenditure on the army and
Stafford Cripps, was sent to India with
civil services by 50%.
constitutional proposals to seek Indian
2. Introduce total prohibition.
support for the War.
3. Carry out reforms in the Criminal Why was the Cripps Mission Sent?
Investigation Department (CID).
● Because of the reverses suffered by
4. Change the Arms Act, allowing popular Britain in South-East Asia, the
control of issue of fire-arms licenses.
Japanese threat to invade India seemed
5. Release political prisoners.
RAUSIAS-1041 10
real now and Indian support became unlawful associations under the
crucial. Criminal Law Amendment Act of 1908.
● There was pressure on Britain from the The removal of established leaders left
Allies (USA, USSR, China) to seek the younger and militant elements to
Indian co-operation. their own initiative. The general public
● The Indian nationalists had agreed to attacked the symbols of authority and
support the Allied cause if substantial hoisted national flags forcibly on the
power was transferred immediately and public buildings. The Satyagrahis
complete independence given after the offered themselves up to arrest, bridges
War. were blown up, railway tracks were
removed and telegraph lines were cut.
 The main proposals of the Mission
This kind of activity was most intense in
were as follows:
eastern United Provinces and Bihar.
1. An Indian Union with a Dominion
Students responded by going on strike
Status would be set up.
in the schools and colleges,
2. After the end of the War, a participating in processions, writing and
Constituent Assembly would be distributing illegal news sheets
convened to frame a new (Patrikas) and acting as couriers for the
Constitution. underground networks. The workers
3. The British Government would went on strike in Ahmedabad, Bombay,
accept the new Constitution, subject Jamshedpur, Ahmednagar and Poona.
to two conditions:  Many nationalists went underground
(i) Any province, not willing to join and took to subversive activities. The
the Union, could have a separate participants in these activities were the
Constitution and form a separate Socialists, Forward Bloc members,
Union; and (ii) The new Gandhi Ashramites, revolutionary
Constitution-making body and nationalists and local organizations in
the British Government would Bombay, Poona, Satara, Baroda, and
negotiate a treaty to effect the other parts of Gujarat, Karnataka,
transfer of power, and to Kerala, Andhra, the United Provinces,
safeguard racial and religious Bihar and Delhi. The main personalities
minorities. taking up underground activities were
4. In the meantime, the defence of Rammanohar Lohia, Jayaprakash
India would remain in British hands Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali, Usha Mehta,
and the Governor General’s powers Biju Patnaik, Chhotubhai Puranik,
would remain intact. Achyut Patwardhan, Sucheta Kripalani
and R.P. Goenka. Usha Mehta started
23. Answer: (c) an underground radio in Bombay. This
Explanation: phase of underground activity was
meant to keep up popular morale by
The Quit India Movement:
continuing to provide a line of command
 During the Movement, in the early and guidance to distribute arms and
hours of August 9, 1942, in a single ammunition.
sweep, all the top leaders of the
 Parallel Governments: Parallel
Congress were arrested and taken to
governments were established at
unknown destinations. The Congress
many places –
Working Committee, the All-India
Congress Committee and the Provincial
Congress Committees were declared
RAUSIAS-1041 11
o Ballia (in August, 1942, for a  Bose met Hitler under the pseudo
week)—under Chittu Pandey. He got name, Orlando Mazzotta. With the help
many Congress leaders released. of Hitler, the ‘Freedom Army’ (Mukti
o Tamluk (Midnapore, from December, Sena) was formed, which consisted of
1942 to September, 1944)—Jatiya all the prisoners of war of Indian origin
Sarkar undertook cyclone relief captured by Germany and Italy.
work, sanctioned grants to the Dresden, Germany, was made the office
schools, supplied paddy from the of the Freedom Army.
rich to the poor, organized Vidyut
Vahinis, etc.
o Satara (mid-1943 to 1945)—named 25. Answer: (a)
“Prati Sarkar”, was organized under Explanation:
leaders like Y.B. Chavan, Nana Patil, Non-Performing Assets (NPAs):
etc. Village libraries and Nyayadan  A Non-Performing Asset (NPA) is a loan
Mandals were organized, prohibition or advance for which the principal or
campaigns were carried on and interest payment remained overdue for
‘Gandhi marriages’ were organized.
a period of 90 days.
Active help was provided by the
 The banks are required to classify the
businessmen (through donations,
shelter and material help), students NPAs further into ‘Sub-Standard’,
(acting as couriers), simple villagers ‘Doubtful’ and ‘Loss’ assets.
(by refusing information to the 1. Sub-Standard Assets: Assets which
authorities), pilots and train drivers have remained NPA for a period less
(by delivering bombs and other than or equal to 12 months.
material), and the government 2. Doubtful Assets: An asset would be
officials, including police (who classified as ‘Doubtful’, if it has
passed on secret information to the remained in the ‘Sub-Standard’
activists). category for a period of more than
12 months.
24. Answer: (a) 3. Loss Assets: As per the Reserve
Explanation: Bank of India (RBI), a ‘Loss’ asset is
 Bose came to be called ‘Netaji’ by the considered uncollectible and of such
people of Germany. He gave the little value that its continuance as a
famous slogan, ‘Jai Hind’ from the bankable asset is not warranted,
Free India Centre, Germany. although there may be some salvage
 The role of Rashbehari Bose, another or recovery value.
great freedom fighter, should be  As per the latest Financial Stability
acknowledged. He had fled to Japan in Report, 2022:
1915, following the failed revolutionary
o The Gross Non-Performing Assets
activities. In Japan, Rashbehari Bose
(GNPA) Ratio has been gradually
eventually became a naturalized citizen.
trending downwards, from 9.3% in
He made a lot of effort in getting the
September, 2019, to a seven-year
Japanese interested in the Indian
low at 5.0% in September, 2022.
Independence Movement. He became
active in Pan-Asian circles, founded o The Net Non-Performing Assets have
the Indian Club of Tokyo, and gave dropped to a 10-year low of 1.3% of
lectures on the evils of Western the total assets.
imperialism.
RAUSIAS-1041 12
26. Answer: (d) 3. The Social Security Code, 2020
Explanation: 4. The Occupational Safety, Health and
 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the Working Conditions Code, 2020
custodian of the country’s foreign The Social Security Code, 2020:
exchange reserves and is vested with  It seeks to provide social security
the responsibility of managing their benefits, such as Provident Fund,
investment. The foreign exchange insurance etc., to the workers. It seeks
reserves include:
to replace nine laws related to social
o Gold security.
o Foreign Currency Assets
 Social security coverage will be provided
o Special Drawing Rights to the gig workers, platform workers,
o Reserve Tranche Position in the unorganized workers and fixed-term
International Monetary Fund employees.
 The RBI oversees the foreign o Gig workers refer to the workers
exchange market in India, and outside the traditional employer-
supervises and regulates it through employee relationship.
the provisions of the Foreign
o Platform workers are those who
Exchange Management Act, 1999.
access the organizations or
 India’s exchange rate policy has evolved
individuals through an online
in line with the global situation and
platform and provide services or
domestic developments. After
solve specific problems.
independence, India followed a Fixed
Exchange Rate Regime under the  The aggregators will need to contribute
Bretton Woods System. 1%-2% of their annual turnover to a Gig
and Platform Workers' Social Security
 Since March, 1993, India has been
Fund. The total contribution will be
operating on a Managed Floating
Exchange Rate Regime. A Managed capped at 5% of the amount payable by
Floating Exchange Rate is an exchange the aggregators to the gig/platform
rate regime in which the exchange rate workers.
is neither entirely free (or floating) nor  The Employees' Provident Fund (EPF)
fixed. Rather, the Central Bank (RBI) provisions will apply to all
intervenes to keep the value of the establishments in which 20 or more
currency in a range against another individuals are employed.
currency (or against a basket of  The Employees' State Insurance
currencies).
Corporation (ESIC) provisions will apply
to:
27. Answer: (c) o All establishments (other than the
Explanation: seasonal factories) in which 10 or
 Labour falls under the Concurrent List more individuals are employed.
of the Constitution. To simplify and o Establishments carrying out
modernize the labour regulations and hazardous or life-threatening
avoid multiplicity, the Central occupations.
Government has replaced 29 existing
 An employee or a worker (including an
labour laws with four Codes:
unorganized worker) must provide his
1. The Code of Wages, 2019
Aadhaar number to receive the social
2. The Industrial Relations Code, 2020
security benefits.
RAUSIAS-1041 13
28. Answer: (a)  India’s TFR has steadily fallen over
Explanation: the years, from nearly 6 births per
New criteria for the Micro, Small and woman in the early 1950s to 2.2 by
Medium Enterprises (MSME) Units: 2020. The latest data from the National
Family Health Survey (NFHS 2019-21)
 Effective from 1st July, 2020, a new
suggests that:
definition of the Micro, Small and
o The TFR in India has declined
Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) has been
from 2.2 in 2015-16 to 2.0 at all-
drawn based on their net turnover, and
India level. India’s TFR is falling
their net investments in plants, below the Replacement Rate.
machinery and other equipment
o The TFR is 1.6 in the urban areas
required for the proper functioning of
and 2.1 in the rural India.
their business.
o There are now only five states with a
 The definition applies to both the goods- TFR above 2.1: Bihar (2.98),
based and the service-based MSMEs. Meghalaya (2.91), Uttar Pradesh
 The new definition comprises: (2.35), Jharkhand (2.26) and
o A Micro Enterprise is an enterprise Manipur (2.17).
where net investment in plant and
machinery or equipment is upto ₹1 30. Answer: (b)
crore and the turnover does not Explanation:
exceed ₹5 crores. The Regional Comprehensive Economic
o A Small Enterprise is an enterprise Partnership (RCEP):
where the investment in plant and  The Regional Comprehensive Economic
machinery or equipment is upto ₹10 Partnership is a free trade agreement
crores and the turnover does not among the 15 Asia-Pacific nations,
exceed ₹50 crores. signed in November, 2020.
o A Medium Enterprise is an  They include 10 ASEAN member states
enterprise where the investment and their five trading partners, viz.,
in plant and machinery or Australia, Brunei, Cambodia, China,
equipment is upto ₹50 crores and Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Laos,
the turnover does not exceed Malaysia, Myanmar, New Zealand, the
₹250 crores. Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and
Vietnam. The member countries
account for about 30% of the world's
29. Answer: (c)
population and 30% of the global GDP.
Explanation: India is not a member of the RCEP.
 The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is the  The RCEP aims to create an integrated
average number of children a mother market with the member countries
would have at the current pattern of focused on trade in goods and services,
fertility during her lifetime. investment, intellectual property,
 A TFR of 2.1 children per woman is dispute settlement, e-commerce, small
called the Replacement-Level Fertility and medium enterprises, and economic
and if this rate is sustained over a co-operation.
sufficiently long period, each generation
will exactly replace itself, in the absence 31. Answer: (b)
of migration. A TFR lower than 2.1 Explanation:
children per woman indicates that the  The WTO (World Trade Organization)
generation is not producing enough Agreement on Agriculture (AoA)
children to replace itself.
RAUSIAS-1041 14
provides a framework for the long-term Hence, they are treated as reducible
reform of agricultural trade and subsidies.
domestic policies for fairer competition o These include measures to support
and a less distorted sector. The prices, or subsidies directly related
subsidies regime included in the to production quantities. These
Agreement on Agriculture has three supports are subject to limits:
forms of subsidies: Minimal supports are allowed
 Green Box: (generally 5% of agricultural
o It refers to the allowable domestic production for the developed
support (subsidies) that can be countries and 10% for the
given by a country to its farmers developing countries).
under the WTO’s Agreement on
Agriculture. Such domestic support 32. Answer: (a)
measures do not cause trade Explanation:
distortion or minimal distortion.
 Market regulator, SEBI (The Securities
Hence, they do not have any
and Exchange Board of India) has
reduction commitments.
proposed the concept of Blue Bonds as
o The Green Box subsidies are a mode of sustainable finance, saying
government funded, without any that such securities can be utilized for
price support to the crops. These various blue economy-related activities,
mainly involve income guarantee including oceanic resource mining and
and security programmes (natural sustainable fishing. It is a pioneering
disasters, state financial financial instrument, designed to
contributions to crop insurance, support sustainable marine and
etc.), programmes aimed at fisheries projects.
adjusting structures and
 The Republic of Seychelles launched
environmental protection
the world’s first Sovereign Blue Bond
programmes, and regional
in 2018. The Bond demonstrates the
development programmes.
potential for the countries to harness
 Blue Box: capital markets for financing the
o The Blue Box supports are the sustainable use of marine resources.
subsidies that are tied to the The World Bank assisted in developing
programmes that limit production. the Blue Bond and reaching out to the
Such support payments are not three investors: Calvert Impact Capital;
subjected to the Amber Box Nuveen; and US headquartered
reduction. Prudential Financial, Inc.
o The Blue Box subsidies aim to limit
production by imposing production 33. Answer: (c)
quotas or requiring the farmers to
Explanation:
set aside part of their land. It
 The bank acts as an intermediary in
covers payments directly linked to
every UPI (Unified Payments Interface)
acreage or animal numbers
transaction. As a result, in the UPI app,
(reduction).
the bank account is debited and the
 Amber Box:
money is sent to the bank of the
o It refers to the trade-distorting type recipient. You can withdraw the amount
of domestic subsidies under the from the bank in paper money, retain it
WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture.
RAUSIAS-1041 15
in your wallet and use it to make a (Targeted Public Distribution System),
purchase at a store. including schemes, such as cash
 In digital currency, you will draw the transfers for the provisioning of food
virtual money and retain it in your entitlements. In pursuance of enabling
mobile wallet. When you pay at a store provisions under the NFSA for cash
or to someone else, the money is transfer, the government notified the
transferred from your wallet to their ‘Cash Transfer of Food Subsidy Rules,
wallet. The bank does not route 2015’.
payments or act as a middleman.  The DBT (Direct Benefit Transfer)
 This electronic form of sovereign experiment aims to: (i) reduce the need
currency is operated by the RBI (The for huge physical movement of food
Reserve Bank of India) and does not grains; (ii) provide greater autonomy to
entail any individual handlers, as is the the beneficiaries to choose their
case of UPI transactions. Hence, the consumption basket; (iii) enhance
payments with e-rupee are direct and dietary diversity; (iv) reduce leakages; (v)
instant. facilitate better targeting; and (vi)
promote financial inclusion.
34. Answer: (b)  The Scheme is optional for the

States/UTs and operates in the
Explanation:
"Identified Areas” in a State or a Union
 The Electronic Gold Receipts (EGRs)
Territory (UT), or any specified area
will cater to all market participants,
within the State or the Union Territory
which means that the buyers and the
for which there is a written consent of
sellers on the exchange will include
the State Government for the
the individual investors, as well as
implementation of the Scheme. The
the commercial participants along
prevailing system of distribution of food
the value chain, like importers,
grains, through the Public Distribution
banks, refiners, bullion traders,
System, may continue in the remaining
jewellery manufacturers and
areas, not covered under the Scheme.
retailers.
 Leading stock exchange, BSE (The
36. Answer: (c)
Bombay Stock Exchange), has launched
Explanation:
the EGR on its platform, a move that
will help in efficient and transparent According to the International
price discovery of the yellow metal. The Monetary Fund (IMF) - The current
EGRs are similar to the Dematerialized account can be expressed as the difference
form of shares, where they are issued in between the value of exports of goods and
the exchange for physical gold (similar services and the value of imports of goods
to the physical form of equity shares). and services. A deficit, then, means that
The EGRs are the depository gold the country is importing more goods and
receipts traded on the stock exchanges. services, than it is exporting—although
They are held in the Demat accounts, the current account also includes net
just like shares. income (such as interest and dividends)
and transfers from abroad (such as foreign
35. Answer: (c) aid), which are usually a small fraction of
the total. The current account can also be
Explanation:
expressed as the difference between the
 The National Food Security Act (NFSA),
national (both public and private) savings
2013, provides for reforms in the TPDS
and investments. A current account deficit
RAUSIAS-1041 16
may, therefore, reflect a low level of 38. Answer: (b)
national savings relative to investment or a Explanation:
high rate of investment, or both. A Producer Organization (PO) is a legal
entity formed by the primary producers,
37. Answer: (a) viz., farmers, milk producers, fishermen,
Explanation: weavers, rural artisans and craftsmen. A
PO can be a producer company, a co-
The Union Cabinet, in 2020, approved a
operative society or any other legal form,
new pan-India Central Sector Scheme,
which provides for sharing of
called the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund
profits/benefits among the members. In
(National Agriculture Infra Financing
some forms, like the producer companies,
Facility). The scheme shall provide a
the institutions of primary producers can
medium - long term debt financing
also become member of the PO.
facility for investment in viable projects
No guidelines of NABARD (The National
for post-harvest management
Bank for Agriculture and Rural
infrastructure and community farming
Development) restrict the functioning of
assets through interest subvention and
the non-farmers in the PO.
financial support.
Essential features of a PO:
Scheme duration: The duration of the
scheme shall be from Financial Year (FY) (a) It is formed by a group of producers for
2020 to FY 2032. either farm or non-farm activities.
(b) It is a registered body and a legal entity.
Benefits under the scheme:
(c) The producers are the shareholders in
 All loans under this financing facility
the organization.
will have interest subvention of 3% per
annum, upto a limit of Rs. 2 crores. (d) It deals with business activities related
This subvention will be available for a to the primary produce/product.
maximum period of 7 years. (e) It works for the benefit of the member
producers.
 Further, credit guarantee coverage will
be available for the eligible borrowers (f) A part of the profit is shared amongst
from this financing facility under the the producers.
Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro (g) Rest of the surplus is added to its
and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) owned funds for business expansion.
scheme for a loan upto Rs. 2 crores. The
fee for this coverage will be paid by the 39. Answer: (c)
government. Explanation:
 In case of the Farmer Producer The Mission for Integrated Development of
Organizations (FPOs) the credit Horticulture (MIDH) is a Centrally
guarantee may be availed from the Sponsored Scheme, being implemented
facility created under the FPO w.e.f. 2014-15 for holistic growth of the
Promotion Scheme of the Department of horticulture sector, covering fruits,
Agriculture, Cooperation and Farmers vegetables, root and tuber crops,
Welfare (DACFW). mushrooms, spices, flowers, aromatic
 Moratorium for repayment under this plants, coconut, cashew and cocoa.
financing facility may vary, subject to a The MIDH subsumed the ongoing
minimum of 6 months and a maximum missions/schemes of the Ministry of
of 2 years. Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, viz., the
National Horticulture Mission (NHM); the
Horticulture Mission for North-East and
RAUSIAS-1041 17
Himalayan States (HMNEH); the National immediate post-partum periods. The
Horticulture Board (NHB); the Coconut initiative specifically focuses on the care
Development Board (CDB); and the Central around birth provided in the labour room
Institute of Horticulture (CIH), Nagaland. and maternity OT (operation theatre). It has
All states, including the North-Eastern been initiated in all government medical
States and the UTs are covered under the college hospitals, district hospitals and
MIDH. equivalent health facilities.
The main objectives of the Mission are to The ‘MusQan’ scheme was launched in
promote holistic growth of horticulture 2021, to provide high-quality and safe
sector, including coconut, through area- child-friendly services in the Public
based regionally differentiated strategies, Health Facilities and contribute to
which include research, technology preventable new-born child mortality
promotion, extension, post-harvest and morbidity. It makes the child-friendly
management, processing and marketing, in services accessible and available to the
consonance with the comparative patients and their parents, as well as
advantage of each state/region and its provide a child-friendly environment,
diverse agri-climatic features, encourage promote, protect and support breast-
aggregation of the farmers into farmers feeding, and provide respectful and
groups to bring economy of scale and dignified care to the mother/parent–
scope, enhance horticulture production, attendant.
augment farmers’ income, strengthen
nutritional security, improve productivity 41. Answer: (c)
by way of quality germ-plasm, planting
Explanation:
material and water use efficiency through
The Directorate General of Foreign
micro irrigation, support skill development
Trade (DGFT) organization is an attached
and create employment generation
office of the Ministry of Commerce and
opportunities for the rural youth in
Industry, and is headed by the Director
horticulture and post-harvest management,
General of Foreign Trade. Right from its
especially in the cold chain sector.
inception till 1991, when liberalization in
Capacity building of the farmers and the
the economic policies of the government
technicians is also supported for adopting
took place, this organization has been
improved technologies through existing
essentially involved in the regulation and
institutions, like the State Agriculture
promotion of foreign trade through
Universities; the Krishi Vigyan Kendras;
regulations. Keeping in line with
and the Institutes with the Department of
liberalization and globalization, and the
Horticulture in the states.
overall objective of increasing of exports,
the DGFT has since been assigned the role
40. Answer: (a) of a "facilitator". The shift was from
Explanation: prohibition and control of imports/exports
‘LaQshya’ (Labour Room Quality to promotion and facilitation of
Improvement Initiative) is a quality exports/imports, keeping in view the
improvement initiative, launched in 2017, interests of the country.
by the Ministry of Health and Family This Directorate, with its headquarters at
Welfare (MoHFW), which aims to accelerate New Delhi, is responsible for formulating
the efforts toward the reduction of and implementing the Foreign Trade Policy,
preventable maternal mortality and with the main objective of promoting India's
morbidity by aiming to improve the quality exports. The DGFT also issues
of care during the delivery and the scrips/authorization to the exporters and
RAUSIAS-1041 18
monitors their corresponding obligations Japanese Constitution: Procedure
through a network of 24 regional offices. established by law.
Irish Constitution: The Directive
42. Answer: (c) Principles of State Policy; Nomination of
Explanation: the members to the Rajya Sabha; and the
method of election of the President.
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for
the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights
of an aggrieved citizen. In other words, the 44. Answer: (b)
right to get the Fundamental Rights Explanation:
protected is, in itself, a Fundamental Right. Article 123 of the Constitution empowers
The Supreme Court has ruled that Article the President to promulgate Ordinances
32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. during the recess of the Parliament. These
Hence, it cannot be abridged or taken Ordinances have the same force and
away, even by way of an amendment to the effect as an Act of the Parliament, but
Constitution are in the nature of temporary laws.
The Parliament can empower any other In the Cooper case, (1970), the Supreme
court to issue directions, orders and Court held that the President’s satisfaction
writs of all kinds. However, this can be can be questioned in a court on the ground
done without prejudice to the above powers of malafide. This means that the decision of
conferred on the Supreme Court. the President to issue an Ordinance can be
The right to move the Supreme Court questioned in a court on the ground that
shall not be suspended, except as the President has prorogued one House or
otherwise provided for by the both the Houses of the Parliament
Constitution. Thus, the Constitution deliberately with a view to promulgate an
provides that the President can suspend Ordinance on a controversial subject, so as
the right to move any court for the to bypass the Parliamentary decision and,
enforcement of the Fundamental Rights thereby, circumventing the authority of the
during a National Emergency (Article Parliament.
359). An Ordinance, like any other legislation,
can be retrospective, that is, it may come
43. Answer: (c) into force from a back date. It may modify
or repeal any Act of Parliament or another
Explanation:
Ordinance. It can alter or amend a tax law
The Government of India Act of 1935:
also. However, it cannot be issued to
Federal scheme; The Office of the
amend the Constitution.
Governor; Judiciary; Public Service
Commissions; Emergency provisions; and
Administrative details. 45. Answer: (a)
British Constitution: Parliamentary Explanation:
government; The Rule of Law; Legislative The Vice-President, like the President, is
procedure; Single citizenship; Cabinet elected not directly by the people, but by
system; Prerogative writs; Parliamentary the method of indirect election.
Privileges; and Bicameralism. He is elected by the members of an
Soviet Constitution: Fundamental duties electoral college, consisting of the members
and the ideal of (USSR, now Russia) justice of both the Houses of the Parliament.
(social, economic and political) in the This Electoral College is different from
Preamble. the electoral college for the election of
RAUSIAS-1041 19
the President in the following two interpretations made in various court
respects: judgments.
1. It consists of both elected and An ‘office of profit’ has been interpreted to
nominated members of the be a position that brings to the office-holder
Parliament (in the case of the some financial gain, or advantage, or
President, only elected members). benefit. The amount of such profit is
2. It does not include the members of immaterial.
the State Legislative Assemblies (in In 1964, the Supreme Court ruled that the
the case of the President, the elected test for determining whether a person holds
members of the State Legislative an ‘office of profit’ is the test of
Assemblies are included). appointment. Several factors are considered
All doubts and disputes in connection with in this determination, including the factors,
the election of the Vice- President are such as:
inquired into and decided by the Supreme o Whether the government is the
Court, whose decision is final. The appointing authority;
election of a person as the Vice- o Whether the government has the power
President cannot be challenged on the to terminate the appointment;
ground that the Electoral College was o Whether the government determines the
incomplete (i.e., existence of any remuneration;
vacancy among the members of the
o What is the source of remuneration;
Electoral College). If the election of a
and
person as the Vice-President is declared
o The power that comes with the position.
void by the Supreme Court, acts done by
him before the date of such declaration of What does the Constitution say about
the Supreme Court are not invalidated (i.e., holding an ‘office of profit’? Can
they continue to remain in force). exemptions be granted under the law?
Under the provisions of Article 102 (1) and
Article 191 (1) of the Constitution, an MP or
46. Answer: (b)
an MLA (or an MLC) is barred from holding
Explanation:
any ‘office of profit’ under the Central or
Each House of the Parliament has State Government. The Articles clarify
separate secretarial staff of its own, that “a person shall not be deemed to hold
though there can be some posts common an office of profit under the government of
to both the Houses. India or the government of any state by
Their recruitment and service conditions reason only that he is a minister”.
are regulated by the Parliament. Is there a bar on how many offices can
The Secretariat of each House is headed be exempted from the purview of the
by a Secretary-General. He is a law?
permanent officer and is appointed by There is no bar on how many offices can
the Presiding Officer of the House. be exempted from the purview of the
law.
47. Answer: (b)
Explanation: 48. Answer: (b)
According to the definition, what Explanation:
constitutes an ‘office of profit’? In addition to the Attorney General, there
The law does not clearly define what are other law officers of the Government of
constitutes an ‘office of profit’, but the India.
definition has evolved over the years, with
RAUSIAS-1041 20
They are the Solicitor General of India and resolution can be moved only after
the Additional Solicitor General of India. giving a 14 days’ advance notice.
They assist the Attorney General in the All the then members are the effective
fulfilment of his official responsibilities. majority.
It should be noted here that only the Effective Majority: Basically it translates
office of the Attorney General is created to a majority (50%) of the effective strength.
by the Constitution. In other words, For example, presently there are 245 seats
Article 76 does not mention about the in the Rajya Sabha, out of which 5 are
Solicitor General and the Additional vacant. This means that the effective
Solicitor General. strength of the Rajya Sabha will be 240
(245-5).
49. Answer: (a)
Explanation: 51. Answer: (d)
The Governor is entitled to a number of Explanation:
privileges and immunities. He enjoys In December, 1977, the Janata
personal immunity from legal liability for Government appointed a Committee on the
his official acts. During his term of office, Panchayati Raj Institutions, under the
he is immune from any criminal chairmanship of Ashok Mehta.
proceedings, even in respect of his personal It recommended:
acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned.
1. The three-tier system of Panchayati
However, after giving a two months’ notice,
Raj should be replaced by the two-
civil proceedings can be instituted against
tier system, that is, Zila Parishad at
him during his term of office in respect of
the district level, and below it, the
his personal acts.
Mandal Panchayat consisting of a
The Constitution has also extended the group of villages with a total
privileges of the State Legislature to those population of 15,000 to 20,000.
persons who are entitled to speak and take
2. A district should be the first point for
part in the proceedings of a House of the
decentralization under popular
State Legislature or any of its Committees.
supervision below the state level.
These include the Advocate General of the
3. Seats for the SCs and the STs should
State and the State Ministers.
be reserved on the basis of their
It must be clarified here that the
population.
privileges of the State Legislature do not
4. A constitutional recognition should be
extend to the Governor, who is also an
accorded to the Panchayati Raj
integral part of the State Legislature.
Institutions. This would give them the
requisite status (sanctity and stature)
50. Answer: (a) and an assurance of continuous
Explanation: functioning.
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are
elected by the Assembly itself, from 52. Answer: (a)
amongst its members. The Deputy Speaker
Explanation:
is elected after the election of the Speaker
Article 124(4) states that the judges of the
has taken place.
Supreme Court can be removed from their
The Deputy Speaker is removed by a
office, except by an order of the President,
resolution passed by a majority of all the
passed after an address by each House of
then members of the Assembly. Such a
the Parliament, supported by a majority of
the total membership of that House and by
RAUSIAS-1041 21
a majority of not less than two-thirds of the  Former Chief Justice of India,
members of that House present and voting, Deepak Mishra:
has been presented to the President in the o A group of members of the
same session for such removal on the Parliament, from the opposition,
ground of proved misbehaviour or submitted a notice to initiate the
incapacity. Thus, the grounds of removal removal process of the Hon’ble Chief
have been specified in the Constitution. Justice of India, Justice Deepak
The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 provides for Mishra, to the then Chairman of the
the procedure for the investigation and Rajya Sabha, Sh. M. Venkaiah
proof of misbehaviour or incapacity of a Naidu. The petition, which was
signed by 64 lawmakers, listed five
judge of the Supreme Court or of a High
grounds of alleged misbehaviour by
Court.
the Chief Justice of India.
The removal proceedings against a judge
o However, the Chairman rejected the
of the Supreme Court or the High Court
motion, citing that there was mere
can be initiated in either House of the
suspicion, a conjecture or an
Parliament.
assumption, which did not
A Committee shall be formed to investigate constitute proof beyond reasonable
into misbehaviour or incapacity of the doubt, as was required to make out
judge of the Supreme Court or of a High a case of “proved misbehaviour”
Court, and it includes the Chief Justice of under Article 124(4).
India and the Chief Justice of the High  Justice Ramaswamy:
Court. o The procedure to remove the
Such a Committee shall be formed, if notice Supreme Court judge was exercised,
is given of a motion for presenting an for the first time in 1991, when 108
address to the President praying for the members of the Ninth Lok Sabha
removal of a judge signed: submitted a notice to the Speaker of
 in the case of a notice given in the the Lok Sabha for the removal of
House of the People, by not less than Justice Ramaswamy of the Supreme
100 members of that House; Court.
o Justice Ramaswamy was charged of
 in the case of a notice given in the
financial irregularities, while he
Council of States, by not less than 50
was the Chief Justice of Punjab and
members of that Council, then the
Haryana High Court.
Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the
o An Enquiry Committee was formed
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha may, after
under The Judges (Inquiry) Act,
considering such materials, either
1968. Before the Committee could
admit the motion or refuse to admit the
present its report, the Lok Sabha
same.
was dissolved.
No judge of the Supreme Court or that of a
o In the case of Sub-Committee of
High Court has ever been removed through Judicial Accountability v/s the
impeachment, as provided under Article Union of India, the question arose
124(4) and 217(1)(b), along with The whether dissolution of the Lok
Judges Inquiry Act. However, the removal Sabha puts an end to the motion for
process has been initiated against the the removal of the concerned judge.
judges of the Supreme Court and the High o The Supreme Court held that the
Courts. motion for the removal of a judge
Supreme Court judges against whom under Article 124 (4) does not lapse
removal process has been initiated: with the dissolution of the Lok
Sabha.
RAUSIAS-1041 22
o The report of the Committee was Britain. In India, the power of the
tabled in the Parliament in Parliament to legislate is based on the
December, 1992, and was debated Principle of Checks and Balance, through
in the Lok Sabha. A lawyer was also the Basic Structure Doctrine, which
allowed to defend the case of Justice effectively limits the amending powers of
Ramaswamy. the Parliament. Whereas in Britain, the
o However, the motion to remove Principle of Parliamentary Sovereignty
Justice Ramaswamy could not be makes the Parliament the supreme legal
passed by the requisite majority, authority in the UK, which can create or
due to the absence of certain end any law.
members of the Parliament during Generally, the courts cannot overrule its
the time of vote. legislation and no Parliament can pass laws
High Court judges against whom removal that future Parliaments cannot change. The
process has been initiated – Parliamentary Sovereignty is the most
 Justice Soumitra Sen (Calcutta High important part of the UK Constitution. The
Court): In 2011, Justice Sen avoided British Constitution may not exist in a
the ignominy of becoming the first judge single text, like in the USA, India or
to be impeached by the Parliament, by Germany, but large parts of it are written
tendering his resignation, as he down, much of it in the laws passed in the
resigned after the Rajya Sabha had Parliament - known as the Statute Law.
passed the motion under Article 124(4). Therefore, the UK Constitution is often
described as 'partly written and wholly
 Justice P.D. Dinakaran (Sikkim High
uncodified’, and is not the fundamental law
Court): The Chief Justice of the Sikkim
of the country. Therefore, the power of the
High Court, against whom the Rajya
Parliament to legislate is legally
Sabha Chairman had set-up a judicial
unrestricted and it can change even a
panel to look into the allegations of
Constitutional Principle by the same
corruption, resigned in 2011, before
ordinary process as it enacts an ordinary
impeachment proceedings could be
law.
initiated against him.
Britain has no Doctrine of
 Justice J.B. Pardiwala (Gujarat High
Unconstitutionality of Parliamentary
Court):
Legislation and a law enacted by the
o In 2015, a group of 58 Rajya Sabha Parliament cannot be questioned or
MPs moved an impeachment notice challenged on any ground in any court.
against Justice J.B. Pardiwala of the The function of the court is mainly to
Gujarat High Court for his interpret the law enacted by the British
“objectionable remarks on the issue Parliament and apply it to the factual
of reservation.” situations coming before it for adjudication.
o Hours after the impeachment notice So, the courts in Britain do not enjoy the
was sent to Hamid Ansari, the judge power to declare an Act of the Parliament to
removed the wordings from his be invalid, however, they certainly have the
judgment. power to interpret the same.
53. Answer: (a) 54. Answer: (a)

Parliamentary Sovereignty is a principle of Article 136 - Special Leave to Appeal by
the UK Constitution and is not followed in the Supreme Court — (1) Notwithstanding
the same way in India, as it is followed in anything in this Chapter, the Supreme
RAUSIAS-1041 23
Court may, in its discretion, grant special  Flexibility for the place of filing the
leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, complaint, as the consumer can file
determination, sentence or order in any complaints with the Consumer
cause or matter passed or made by any Commission located at the place of
court or tribunal in the territory of India. residence or work of the consumer.
Article 227 - Power of Superintendence  Enable e-filing of complaints.
over all Courts by the High Court —  Establishment of Regulator – The
Every High Court shall have Central Consumer Protection Authority
superintendence over all courts and – to protect the consumers.
tribunals throughout the territories in
 Provides broad definition of ‘unfair trade
relation to which it exercises
practices’.
jurisdiction.
 Introduction of mediation to resolve
consumer grievances, as an ‘Alternate
55. Answer: (d)
Dispute Resolution Mechanism’, making
Explanation: the process of dispute adjudication
Salient Features of the Consumer simpler and quicker
Protection Act, 2019:  Introduces Product Liability - These
 Wider ambit to address the new provisions, based on strict liability
emerging challenges, like e-commerce, principles, will enable the complainant
tele-marketing, misleading to claim compensation for the harm
advertisements, etc., and ensure caused due to defective product or
efficiency in grievance redressal. services.
 Inclusion of e-commerce transactions.
 Provides broader definition of 56. Answer: (a)
consumer, and includes both off-line Explanation:
and on-line transactions Articles 356 and 357 provide for meeting a
 The ambit of consumer has been situation arising from the failure of the
widened to cover not only on-line Constitutional machinery in a state. If the
transactions, but also tele-marketing President, on receipt of a report from the
and multi-level marketing, which will Governor of a state or otherwise, is satisfied
impose responsibility at all levels. that a situation has arisen in which the
 Includes both off-line and on-line government of the state cannot be carried
transactions. on in accordance with the provisions of the
 Enhanced Pecuniary Jurisdiction – Constitution, the President may by
District, State and National Proclamation:
Consumer Commissions: Assume to herself all or any of the
functions of the State Government or the
Pecuniary Jurisdiction under the
powers of the Governor, or anybody or
Consumer Protection Act, 2019
authority in the state, other than the
District Upto Rupees One Legislature of the State.
Commission Crore.
Declare that the powers of the State
State More than Rupees Legislature are to be exercised by the
Commission One Crore upto Parliament.
Rupees 10 Crores. Make such incidental and consequential
National Above Rupees 10 provisions as appear to the President to be
Commission Crores. necessary or desirable for giving effect to
the objects of the Proclamation, including
RAUSIAS-1041 24
provisions for suspending in whole or in the districts through monthly delta
part the operation of any provisions of this ranking, all driven by a mass movement.
Constitution relating to anybody or AIM - Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), NITI
authority in the state. Aayog, in 2022, announced the launch of
Provided that nothing in this Clause applications for Community Innovator
shall authorize the President to assume Fellowship (CIF), an initiative of the Atal
to herself any of the powers vested in or Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog, in
exercisable by a High Court, or to collaboration with the UNDP (The United
suspend in whole or in part the Nations Development Programme) India, to
operation of any provision of this facilitate knowledge building and provide
Constitution relating to the High Courts. infrastructure support to the aspiring
community innovators essential for their
57. Answer: (d) entrepreneurship journey. Currently, there
are 22 community innovator fellows being
Explanation:
incubated at the Atal Community
All the above-mentioned projects have
Innovation Centre (ACIC) programme of
been implemented by NITI Aayog.
AIM.
SATH-E - The roadmaps for the
Sustainable Action for Transforming
58. Answer: (b)
Human Capital in Education (SATH-E)
Project of NITI Aayog, being undertaken Explanation:
in partnership with three participating The Election Symbols (Reservation and
states. Project SATH-E was launched in Allotment) Order, 1968, has empowered the
2017 to identify and build three ‘role model’ Election Commission (EC) to allot symbols
states for the school education sector. After at the elections in the Parliamentary and
an elaborate selection process, Jharkhand, the Assembly Constituencies, recognition of
Odisha and Madhya Pradesh were chosen. political parties and suspend or withdraw
NDAP - NITI Aayog launched the National recognition of recognized or unrecognized
Data and Analytics Platform (NDAP) for political party for its failure to observe the
open public use. The platform aims to Model Code of Conduct or follow lawful
democratize access to public government instructions of the EC.
data by making data accessible, Types of Political Parties - According to
interoperable, interactive and available on a the Election Symbols Order, the political
user-friendly platform. It hosts parties are either recognized political
foundational data-sets from various parties or unrecognized political parties. A
government agencies, presents them recognized political party shall either be a
coherently and provides tools for analytics National Party or a State Party.
and visualization. Conditions for Recognition as a State
Aspirational Districts Programme - Party:
Launched by the Prime Minister in 2018,  At the last general election to the State
the Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) Legislative Assembly – securing not less
aims to quickly and effectively transform than 6% of the total valid votes + win at
112 most under-developed districts across least 2 seats in the State Legislative
the country. The broad contours of the Assembly.
programme are Convergence (of Central  At the last general election to the
and State Schemes), Collaboration (of Lok Sabha from the state – securing
Central, State level Nodal Officers and not less than 6% of the total valid
District Collectors), and Competition among votes polled in the State + win at
RAUSIAS-1041 25
least 1 seat in the Lok Sabha election culture and economic empowerment, to
from the state. ensure social, economic and political
 At the last general election to the justice, and preservation of peace and
State Legislative Assembly – party good governance.
winning at least 3% of the total  Fifth Schedule has also been called “A
number of seats in the Legislative Constitution within a Constitution”.
Assembly, (any fraction exceeding  The Fifth Schedule has been designed,
half being counted as one), or at least in furtherance of Article 15(4) and
3 seats in the Legislative Assembly, Article 46, to protect the tribals from
which-ever is more. social injustice and exploitation. Thus,
 At the last general election to the Lok it is the state’s constitutional duty to
Sabha from the state – win at least 1 for take positive and stern measures for the
every 25 seats from a state in the Lok survival and preservation of the
Sabha election. integrity and dignity of the tribals.
 Political party securing at least 8% of Article 15. Prohibition of discrimination
the total valid votes polled in the state. on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex
Conditions for Recognition as a National or place of birth (4) Nothing in this
Party: Article or in Clause (2) of Article 29
shall prevent the State from making any
 Securing at least 6% of the valid vote in
an Assembly or Lok Sabha general special provision for the advancement of
any socially and educationally
election in any 4 or more states and
backward classes of citizens or for the
won at least 4 seats in a Lok Sabha
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
general election from any state or
states. Tribes.
Article 46 - Promotion of educational
 Win at least 2% of the total Lok Sabha
and economic interests of Scheduled
seats and these seats must be won from
Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other
3 different states.
weaker sections — The State shall
 The party is recognized as a State Party
promote with special care the
in at least 4 states.
educational and economic interests of
 Latest addition to the list of National the weaker sections of the people, and,
Party includes the All India Trinamool in particular, of the Scheduled Castes
Congress. and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall
protect them from social injustice and
59. Answer: (c) all forms of exploitation.
Explanation:  To further the objectives of the Fifth
Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule, Tribes Advisory Council (TAC)
Schedule: have been constituted in 10 (Ten) states
 Article 244 (1) states that the provisions having Scheduled Areas therein, namely
of the Fifth Schedule shall apply to the Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
administration and control of the Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal
Scheduled Area and Scheduled Tribes Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh,
in any State other than the States of Maharashtra, Odisha and Rajasthan.
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Even states like West Bengal, Tamil
Mizoram. Nadu and Uttarakhand, which do not
have any notified Scheduled Areas
 The purpose of the Scheduled Areas is
also, have constituted Tribes
to preserve the tribal autonomy, their
Advisory Council.
RAUSIAS-1041 26
 The Tribes Advisory Council shall lend money to the members of the
consist of not more than 20 members of Scheduled Tribes in such area.
whom, as nearly as may be, three- o To carry out the above regulations for
fourths shall be representatives of the peace and good government of
Scheduled Tribes in the State Scheduled Area:
Legislative Assembly, provided that if o The Governor may repeal or amend
the number of representatives of the any central or State law or any
STs in the State Assembly is less than existing law applicable to the
the number of seats in the TAC to be Scheduled Area.
filled by such representatives, the o The Governor requires prior
remaining seats shall be filled by other
consultation with the TAC, and the
members of those tribes.
assent of the President is necessary
ROLE OF THE GOVERNOR – FIFTH for the regulations to be brought
SCHEDULE: into force.
 The Governor of each state, having
Scheduled Area, furnish a report to the 60. Answer: (b)
President annually, or whenever needed
Explanation:
regarding administration of the
 The National Commission for Protection
Scheduled Areas. The executive power
of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory
of the Union shall extend to the giving
body, constituted under the
of directions to the state as to the
Commissions for Protection of Child
administration of such areas.
Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005, to protect the
 The Governor has rule-making powers
child rights and other related matters in
with regard to the number of members,
the country.
mode of appointment and functioning of
 The NCPCR is a statutory body,
the Tribes Advisory Council (TAC).
constituted under the Commissions for
 The TAC renders advice to the Governor
Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act,
regarding welfare and advancement of
2005, to protect the rights of children
the Scheduled Tribes in the state when
and functions under the aegis of the
asked.
Ministry of Women and Child
 The Governor can restrict the application Development.
of any central or State legislation to the
 The Commission is further mandated
Scheduled Area, either completely or
to monitor proper and effective
partially, subject to such exceptions
implementation of:
and modifications as notified.
o Protection of Children from Sexual
 The Governor may make regulations for
Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012;
the peace and good government of the
o Juvenile Justice (Care and
Scheduled Area which includes
Protection of Children) Act, 2015;
regulations to
and
o Prohibit or restrict the transfer of
o Right to Free and Compulsory
land by or among the members of
Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
the Scheduled Tribes in such area.
 In one of the functions laid down under
o Regulate the allotment of land to the
Section 13 of the CPCR Act, 2005, the
members of the Scheduled Tribes in
Commission has been assigned with the
such area.
function to examine and review the
o Regulate the carrying on of business
safeguards provided by or under any
as money-lender by persons who
law for the time being in force for the
RAUSIAS-1041 27
protection of child rights and organizations, NGOs and partners in the
recommend measures for their effective media, as well as in the corporates.
implementation.
 The Commission also has the powers of 63. Answer: (b)
a Civil Court trying a suit under the Explanation:
CPCR Act, 2005, and the Code of Civil
The Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
Procedure, 1908.
are the compounds that have a high
vapour pressure and low water solubility.
61. Answer: (d) Many VOCs are human-made chemicals
Explanation: that are used and produced in the
The Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is a body manufacture of paints, pharmaceuticals
of the Government of India, responsible for and refrigerants. The VOCs typically are
the oversight of the zoos. industrial solvents, such as
It has been constituted under the trichloroethylene; fuel oxygenates, such as
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The methyl tert-butyl ether (MTBE); or by-
Authority consists of a Chairman, ten products produced by chlorination in water
members and a member secretary. treatment, such as chloroform.
Apart from the primary function of the The VOCs are emitted by a wide array of
grant of recognition and release of financial products numbering in the thousands. The
assistance, the Central Zoo Authority also examples include: paints and lacquers,
regulates the exchange of animals of paint strippers, cleaning supplies,
endangered category, Listed under pesticides, building materials and
Schedule-I and Schedule-II of the Wildlife furnishings, office equipment, such as
(Protection) Act among the zoos. The copiers and printers, correction fluids and
exchange of animals between the Indian carbonless copy paper, graphics and craft
and foreign zoos is also approved by the materials, including glues and adhesives,
Authority. permanent markers and photographic
solutions.
62. Answer: (c)

64. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Explanation:
The Convention on the Conservation of
Migratory Species of Wild Animals, also The barrier reefs are extensive linear reef
known as the Convention on Migratory complexes that parallel a shore, and are
Species (CMS), or the Bonn Convention, separated from it by lagoon. At their
is an international agreement that aims to shallowest point, they can reach the water’s
conserve the migratory species throughout surface forming a “barrier” to navigation.
their ranges. The agreement was signed The barrier reefs are similar to the
under the auspices of the United Nations fringing reefs, in that they also border a
Environment Programme and is shoreline. However, instead of growing
concerned with the conservation of wildlife directly out from the shore, they are
and habitats on a global scale. As the only separated from land by an expanse of
global Convention specializing in the water. This creates a lagoon of open,
conservation of the migratory species, their often deep water between the reef and
habitats and migration routes, the CMS the shore.
complements and co-operates with a The Belize Barrier Reef, the 2nd largest in
number of other international the world, behind Australia’s Great Barrier
Reef, has made Belize (a country located on
RAUSIAS-1041 28
the north-east coast of Central America) a build “mounds”, which can be up to four-
premiere diving and conservation hotspot. feet high, to hold their eggs, until they are
ready to hatch.
65. Answer: (b) The Houbara Bustard is a large terrestrial
Explanation: bird, found in parts of Asia, the Middle
East and Africa. The North African Houbara
The Nicobar Megapode, a medium-sized
and the Asian Houbara are separate
scrub fowl species, is found only in a few
species. The Asian Houbara is related to
Nicobar Islands. Their largest population
the ‘critically endangered’ Great Indian
is in the Great Nicobar Island. The
Bustard, native to India. It is characterized
Nicobar Megapode is unlike any other bird
as a ‘vulnerable’ species by the IUCN (The
in having a fascinating reproductive
International Union for Conservation of
biology. Known as the “temperature birds”
Nature).
locally, they collect soil, sand, leaf litter and
other debris from the coastal forests to
66. Answer: (a)

Explanation:
RAMSAR WETLANDS SITES IN INDIA
SR.NO. NAME OF THE WETLANDS DATE STATE/UT AREA (IN HA)
RAMSAR SITES IN INDIAN HIMALAYAN REGION
1. ASAN CONSERVATION RESERVE 21-07-2020 UTTARAKMAND 444

2. CHANDERTAL WETLAND 08-11-2005 HIMACHAL PRADESH 49
3. PONG OAM LAKE 19-08-2002 HIMACHAL PRADESH 15662
4. RENUKA WETLAND 08-11-2005 HIMACHAL PRADESH 20
5. SURINSAR-MANSAR LAKES 08-11-2005 JAMMU & KASHMIR 350
6. WULAR LAKE 23-03-1990 JAMMU & KASHMIR 18900
7. HOKERA WETLAND 08-11-2005 JAMMU & KASHMIR 1375
8. TSO MORIRI 19-08-2002 LADAKH 12000
9. TSO KAR WETLAND COMPLEX 17-11-2020 LADAKH 9577
10. LOKTAK LAKE 23-03-1990 MANIPUR 26600
11. RUDRASAGAR LAKE 08-11-2005 TRIPURA 240
67. Answer: (a) There is an obvious fundamental difference

Explanation: between these two strategies: Ex situ
In situ conservation means the conservation involves the sampling,
conservation of the ecosystems and natural transfer and storage of the target taxa from
habitats, and the maintenance and the target area, whereas in situ
recovery of viable populations of species in conservation involves the designation,
their natural surroundings and, in the case management and monitoring of the target
of domesticates or cultivated species, in the taxa where they are encountered.
surroundings where they have developed Ex Situ:
their distinctive properties. 1. Seed/Embryo Storage
2. In Vitro Storage
RAUSIAS-1041 29
3. Semen/Ovule/Pollen/DNA Storage mangrove forest in the world, which has
4. Field Gene Bank/Livestock Parks been brought under scientific management,
5. Botanic/Zoological Gardens as early as in 1882. Appreciating the
importance of the mangroves, the
In Situ:
Government of India set up a National
1. Genetic Reserve On-Farm
Mangroves Committee in 1976 to advise the
Government on issues related to the
68. Answer: (b) conservation and development of the
Explanation: mangroves in the country. As per the 2021
The Andaman & Nicobar and the assessment, mangrove cover in India is
Lakshadweep islands have been 0.15% of India’s total geographical area.
designated as 'Hope Spots' by the Important species of Mangrove ecosystems
International Union for Conservation of in India include Avicennia officinalis,
Nature (IUCN) and Mission Blue, an Rhizophora mucronata, Sonneratia alba,
organization involved in the study of Avicennia alba, Bruguiera cylindrica,
oceans. Heritiera littoralis, Phoenix paludosa,
As per the IUCN definition, a Hope Spot is a morinda citrifolia & Ceriops tagal.
part of the ocean that needs protection
because of its wildlife and significant 71. Answer: (b)
underwater habitats. Explanation:
According to the United Nations
69. Answer: (c) Environment Programme’s (UNEP)’s
Explanation: Adaptation Gap Report, 2022:
The Destination Flyways Project is International adaptation finance flows are
channelling the vast potential to harness five - ten times lower than required and
bird-related tourism to help conserve the this gap continues to grow. Finance for
migratory birds, while at the same time adaptation increased to $29 billion in 2020
supporting local communities. It is led by — only four per cent increase over 2019.
the World Tourism Organization (UNWTO), Adaptation Cost: It includes the costs
together with partners with sound of planning, preparing for, facilitating and
experience in the field of conservation and implementing the adaptation measures.
tourism. The ever-increasing adaptation cost has
The Destination Flyways Projects will also outpaced the growth in adaptation
promote sustainable tourism for the local finance, and that is the reason for a
communities at eight important migratory maintained Adaptation Finance Gap.
bird sites in Africa, Asia and Europe, that Additional Relevant Information –
migratory birds need to survive. The Adaptation Finance: It refers to the flow of
preliminary phase of the Project is ongoing funds to the developing countries to help
with support from Federal Ministry for the them tide over the damages caused by
Environment, Nature Conservation, weather events from climate change.
Nuclear Safety and Consumer Protection.
Adaptation Finance Gap: It is the
difference between the ‘Adaptation
70. Answer: (a) Cost’ and the ‘Adaptation Finance’.
Explanation: The adaptation costs, in actual terms,
The Sundarbans, located in the northern are higher in the developed countries, but
Bay of Bengal, is the world’s largest single the burden of adaptation is greater for the
patch of mangrove forests. It is the first
RAUSIAS-1041 30
developing countries, in relation to their 73. Answer: (d)
Gross Domestic Product. Explanation:
“The adaptation gap must be addressed in The Glasgow Financial Alliance for Net Zero
four critical ways,” said Antonio Guterres, (GFANZ) is the world’s largest coalition of
the UN Secretary-General, at a press financial institutions committed to
conference. transitioning the global economy to net zero
The first is to increase financing for green-house gas emissions.
adaptation. The GFANZ was launched in 2021, by the
“Second, the world urgently needs a new UN Special Envoy on Climate Action and
business model for turning adaptation Finance, Mark Carney, and the COP-26
priorities into investable projects,” said presidency, in partnership with the
Guterres. “There is a mismatch between UNFCCC Race to Zero campaign, to co-
what governments propose and what ordinate efforts across all sectors of the
financiers consider investable”, he added. financial system to accelerate the transition
“The investment pipeline is blocked; we to a net zero global economy.
must unblock it now,” Guterres said. The GFANZ was founded for equally
The third was the availability of climate risk important purposes:
data and information — an issue for  To expand the number of net zero-
adaptation planning in many developing committed financial institutions;
countries.
 To establish a forum for addressing
The fourth priority was the implementation sector-wide challenges associated with
and operationalization of early warning the net zero transition, helping; and
systems against extreme weather events
 To ensure high levels of ambition are
and slow onset changes, such as the sea
met with credible action.
level rise.
The GFANZ brings together independent,
sector-specific alliances to tackle net zero
72. Answer: (b) transition challenges and connects the
Explanation: financial community to the Race to Zero
The Paris Rule Book was adopted during campaign, climate scientists and experts,
COP-26, held at Glasgow. and the civil society.
The Paris Rule Book gives the guidelines on The Alliance members include banks,
how the Paris Agreement is delivered. A insurers, asset owners, asset managers,
focus of COP-26 was to secure agreement financial service providers and investment
between all the Paris signatories, on how consultants.
they would set out their Nationally All members have independently committed
Determined Contributions (NDCs) to reduce to the goal of net zero by 2050, in addition
emissions. to setting interim targets for 2030 or
The finalized Rule Book includes earlier, and reporting transparently on the
agreements on: progress along the way.
 An enhanced transparency framework
for reporting emissions. 74. Answer: (c)
 Common time-frames for emissions Explanation:
reductions targets. From the Glasgow COP-26 Declaration
 Mechanisms and standards for the on Forest and Land Use, the leaders
international carbon markets. from 141 countries committed to halt
reverse forest loss and land degradation
by 2030, by strengthening their efforts to
RAUSIAS-1041 31
conserve and restore forests and other permitted only in those cities and towns
terrestrial ecosystems, and accelerate their where air quality is moderate or poor.
restoration. One should look for green crackers
The Declaration identifies specific actions falling only in these three categories:
in terms of policies that promote SWAS, SAFAL and STAR: The crackers
sustainable production and consumption developed by the Council of Scientific and
on one hand, while ensuring the resilience Industrial Research (CSIR).
of the communities by supporting their “SWAS, that is “safe water releaser”, should
livelihoods and respecting their have a small water-pocket/droplets, which
fundamental rights is a priority. get released when burst, in the form of
Importantly, the Declaration on Forest and vapour,” which suppresses the dust
Land Use reaffirmed an accelerated and particles in the atmosphere.
increased financial commitment for the The identification of green crackers can be
forests, which was seen in the several done through the CSIR NEERI (The CSIR-
financial announcements made during National Environmental Engineering
COP-26, that amount to $19 billion in Research Institute) logo. The scanner may
public and private funds. be downloaded using the CSIR NEERI
green QR code app from Google Play-store.
75. Answer: (d) Additional Relevant Information:
Explanation: Similarly, STAR is a safe thermite cracker,
The Prime Minister’s Council on Climate which does not comprise potassium nitrate
Change (PMCCC) had been formed by the and sulphur, emits reduced particulate
Union Government, under the leadership matter disposal and reduced sound
of Manmohan Singh in mid-2007. intensity.
The Council was re-constituted after SAFAL is safe minimal aluminium, which
Narendra Modi became the Prime Minister has minimum usage of aluminium, and
in 2014. used magnesium instead. It ensures
reduction in sound, in comparison to the
The first meeting of the Council was held in
traditional crackers.
2015. The Council has not met ever since,
according to the information publicly
available. 77. Answer: (a)
In the first meeting (2015), the Prime Explanation:
minister gave the slogan of “carbon The River Cities Alliance (RCA) has been
credit” to “green credit”, while he did launched with the objective to provide the
not define the meaning of “green member cities with a platform to discuss
credit”. and exchange information on the aspects
that are vital for sustainable management
76. Answer: (b) of the urban rivers, sharing best practices
and supporting innovation.
Explanation:
The Alliance has been launched initially
Both green crackers and traditional
with 30 cities, namely Dehradun,
crackers cause pollution and the people
Rishikesh, Haridwar, Srinagar, Varanasi,
should refrain from using either. However,
Kanpur, Prayagraj, Farrukhabad, Mirzapur,
the only difference is that green crackers
Mathura, Bijnor, Ayodhya, Patna,
cause 30% less air pollution, as compared
Bhagalpur, Begusarai, Munger, Sahibganj,
to the traditional ones.
Rajmahal, Howrah, Jangipur, Hugli-
According to the National Green
Chinsurah, Behrampore, Maheshtala,
Tribunal (NGT), green crackers are
RAUSIAS-1041 32
Aurangabad, Chennai, Bhubaneshwar, members, that fall under 8 broad weapon
Hyderabad, Pune, Udaipur and Vijaywada. categories : battle tanks, armoured combat
The Alliance is open to all river cities of vehicles (ACVs), large-calibre artillery,
India. Any river city can join the military aircrafts/unmanned aerial
Alliance at any time. vehicles, military and attack helicopters,
The State Governments are implementing warships, missiles or missile systems, and
the action plans for the restoration of water small arms and light weapons.
quality of the identified polluted river The WA maintains the lists of technologies
stretches. The implementation is being which are of interest.
monitored regularly at the state level by the Tier 1 denotes a list of basic items, while
Chief Secretary of the respective State/UT Tier 2 denotes ‘sensitive or very sensitive
and at the central level by the Central technologies’.
Monitoring Committee, under the Prominent non-members include China
Chairmanship of the Secretary, the and Israel.
Ministry of Jal Shakti. India joined the Wassenaar Arrangement
In addition, under the Namami Gange (WA) in 2017 and became its 42nd
Programme, the progress and activities are member.
reviewed regularly by the National Mission
for Clean Ganga (NMCG), the state
79. Answer: (c)
governments and the District Ganga
Explanation:
Committees.
The Australia-India Centre for Energy
(AICE) is to work on the UN Sustainable
78. Answer: (a)
Development Goals (SDGs).
Explanation:
The AICE aims to promote collaboration
The Wassenaar Arrangement on Export among universities, research institutes and
Controls for Conventional Arms and industry from both countries in the energy
Dual-Use Goods and Technologies: domain.
India will assume the Chairmanship of IIT Madras and Deakin University in
the Wassenaar Arrangement (WA), a Australia are taking the lead in co-
multilateral technology control ordinating and driving the engagement
agreement. amongst the partners and with external
“The Wassenaar Arrangement is a stakeholders, to grow collaborations
multilateral export control regime, which, between the government departments,
through regular information exchange funding agencies and individual
among the members on the transfers of researchers in both countries.
conventional arms, and dual-use goods and
technologies, seeks to promote
80. Answer: (c)
transparency and greater responsibility in
Explanation:
such transfers and prevent destabilizing
accumulations." The “Singapore Declaration”, which was
adopted in Singapore by the delegates
The Wassenaar Arrangement came into
representing the governments,
being in 1996 and has 42 members. The
employers and workers’ governments,
WA operates on a voluntary basis and the
employers and workers in the regions,
decisions are made by consensus.
agreed that a social dialogue is essential
Every six months, the members exchange
to address the labour market challenges
information on the deliveries of
and finding solutions in crisis situations,
conventional arms to the non-Wassenaar
RAUSIAS-1041 33
such as the COVID-19 pandemic, natural A plan for a just transition will guarantee
disasters and economic uncertainty. better and decent work, social protection,
The Declaration said that social dialogue is training opportunities and greater job
the key to building trust, and resilient security for the workers at all stages of the
labour market institutions are essential to plastic value chain.
sustained recovery and inclusive and
sustainable growth, and need to be 83. Answer: (b)
strengthened in the regions. Explanation:
The G20 Digital Innovation Alliance aims to
81. Answer: (b) recognize and support the innovators that
Explanation: have digital solutions for various world
The Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action economies.
(JCPOA) is a detailed, 159-page The Presidency under India will also
agreement, with five annexes, reached allow the invited member countries, not
by Iran and China, France, Germany, a part of G20, to provide the problem
Russia, the United Kingdom and the statements and digital innovations
United States (a group known as the solving them.
P5+1) in 2015. Stay Safe Online Campaign was also
This nuclear deal was endorsed by the UN launched along with it, with the aim to
Security Council Resolution 2231, adopted raise awareness among the citizens to stay
in 2015. safe in the online world due to the use of
Iran’s compliance with the nuclear-related social media platforms and rapid adoption
provisions of the JCPOA is verified by the of digital payments.
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA),
according to certain requirements set forth 84. Answer: (c)
in the agreement. Explanation:
The Security Council can take action to
82. Answer: (d) maintain or restore international peace and
Explanation: security under Chapter VII of the United
Kenya and South Africa have announced Nations Charter. The sanctions measures,
an initiative to end plastic pollution in a under Article 41, encompass a broad
way that is as fair and inclusive as possible range of enforcement options that do
to everyone concerned. not involve the use of armed force.
The Just Transition Initiative, launched in The Security Council sanctions have taken
the aftermath of negotiations on a global a number of different forms, in pursuit of a
treaty to end plastic pollution, aims to variety of goals. The measures have ranged
create decent work opportunities for the from comprehensive economic and trade
waste pickers and other workers in the sanctions to more targeted measures, such
plastic value chain. as arms embargoes, travel bans and
The Just Transition Initiative “seeks to financial or commodity restrictions. The
foster the element of a just transition Security Council has applied sanctions to
within the letter and spirit of the proposed support peaceful transitions, deter non-
legally binding instrument.” constitutional changes, constrain
terrorism, protect human rights and
The IAW (The Intl. Alliance of Waste
promote non-proliferation.
Pickers) is a networking process that
connects and supports thousands of waste Today, there are 14 ongoing sanctions
pickers organizations in over 28 countries. regimes which focus on supporting political
RAUSIAS-1041 34
settlement of conflicts, nuclear non- of Government in 2005 to provide funding
proliferation and counter-terrorism. Each and bank services for investment projects
regime is administered by a Sanctions sponsored by the governments of the SCO
Committee, chaired by a non-permanent member states.
member of the Security Council. The members of the SCO IBC are: The
As part of its commitment to ensure that Development Bank of Kazakhstan; the
fair and clear procedures exist for placing State Development Bank of China; the
individuals and entities on the sanctions Settlement and Savings Company of the
lists and for removing them, as well as for Kyrgyz Republic "RSK Bank"; the Bank
granting humanitarian exemptions, the for Development and Foreign Economic
Security Council, in 2006, adopted Affairs of the Russian Federation
resolution 1730 (2006), by which the "Vnesheconombank"; the State Savings
Council requested the Secretary-General to Bank of the Republic of Tajikistan
establish within the Secretariat (Security "Amonatbonk"; and the National Bank
Council Subsidiary Organs Branch), a focal for Foreign Economic Activity of the
point to receive de-listing requests and Republic of Uzbekistan.
perform the tasks described in the annex to
that resolution. 86. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
85. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Business Council of the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization was founded in
2006 in Shanghai. It is a non-government
entity that unites the highly authoritative
business community representatives of the
SCO (The Shanghai Cooperation
Organization) member states, with an eye
towards expanding economic cooperation,
establishing direct relations and a dialogue
between the business and financial
communities, and facilitating the practical
promotion of multilateral projects.
The Business Council of the Shanghai
Cooperation Organization is an
independent institution, capable of taking
advisory decisions and giving expert
assessments regarding the involvement
of the members of the business
communities of the SCO member states
in trade, economic and investment
interaction within the framework of the
Organization.
The Business Council of the Shanghai 87. Answer: (b)
Cooperation Organization’s permanent Explanation:
secretariat is headquartered in Moscow. Venus is the second planet from the Sun
The SCO Interbank Consortium (SCO IBC) and is Earth’s closest planetary neighbour.
was established by the Council of Heads It’s one of the four inner, terrestrial (or
RAUSIAS-1041 35
rocky) planets, and it’s often called Earth’s sequences, or the next image based on
twin because it’s similar in size and words describing previous images.
density. These are not identical twins, In the shorter term, Generative AI is used
however – there are radical differences to create marketing content, generate code,
between the two worlds. and in conversational applications such as
Venus has a thick, toxic atmosphere filled chatbots.
with carbon dioxide and it’s perpetually
shrouded in thick, yellowish clouds of 90. Answer: (a)
sulfuric acid that trap heat, causing a
Explanation:
runaway greenhouse effect. It’s the hottest
Euthanasia is a deliberate intervention
planet in our solar system, even though
undertaken with the express intention of
Mercury is closer to the Sun.
ending a life, to relieve extreme suffering.
Venus has crushing air pressure at its
In a landmark judgment, a five-judge
surface – more than 90 times that of Earth
constitution bench led by then Chief
– similar to the pressure you'd encounter a
Justice of India Dipak Misra recognized the
mile below the ocean on Earth.
right to die with dignity as a fundamental
Another big difference from Earth – Venus
right. It was enshrined as an intrinsic facet
rotates on its axis backward, compared to
of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. The
most of the other planets in the solar
judgment also recognized the right of
system. This means that, on Venus, the
persons to draft and execute a Living Will
Sun rises in the west and sets in the east,
(advanced directives) to turn down life-
opposite to what we experience on Earth.
saving and sustaining medical
(It’s not the only planet in our solar system
interventions and treatments in case they
with such an oddball rotation – Uranus
were unable to communicate their decision
spins on its side.)
at an advanced stage of their disease.
An advance healthcare directive, also
88. Answer: (c) known as living will, personal directive,
Explanation: advance directive, medical directive or
The Small Magellanic Cloud, or SMC, is a advance decision, is a legal document in
small galaxy about 200,000 light-years way which a person specifies what actions
that orbits our own Milky Way spiral should be taken for their health if they are
galaxy. The SMC is one of the Milky Way's no longer able to make decisions for
closest galactic neighbours. Even though, it themselves because of illness or incapacity.
is a small or so-called dwarf galaxy, the It can be made by any person who is above
SMC is so bright that it is visible to the 18 years of age.
unaided eye from the Southern Hemisphere The concerned person should not be
and near the equator. suffering from any mental illness at the
time of making the directive (even if he/she
89. Answer: (a) was suffering from a mental illness earlier).
Explanation: It is imperative that the stated directive
should be attested by two witnesses to
Generative AI refers to artificial intelligence
establish that the executor of the Will is of
that can generate novel content, rather
sound mental capacity and has a genuine
than simply analysing or acting on existing
intent to execute the will. The stated
data.
directive also needs to be duly notarized.
Generative AI models produce text and
The Will should further contain a clause
images: blog posts, program code, poetry,
allowing its executant to revoke it at any
and artwork. The software uses complex
point after its making.
machine learning models to predict the
next word based on previous word
RAUSIAS-1041 36
91. Answer: (d) 93. Answer: (c)
All of the cells found in the blood come About Doppler Principle: When the source
from bone marrow. They begin their life as for signals and observer are in relative
stem cells, and they mature into three main motion, there is change in frequency
types of cells – RBCs, WBCs, and platelets. (wavelength) observed by the observer. In
In turn, there are three types of WBC – case the source and observer are moving
lymphocytes, monocytes, and granulocytes closer, frequency increases and vice versa.
– and three main types of granulocytes
About Doppler Weather Radars: Doppler
(neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils).
radars compare the frequency of
In humans, as in all mammals, the mature
transmitted and received signals and
RBC lacks a nucleus. This allows the cell
compute the difference in frequency. The
more room to store haemoglobin, the
(positive or negative) change in frequency is
oxygen-binding protein, enabling the RBC
directly proportional to the velocity of the
to transport more oxygen.
target towards or away from the radar.
Plasma is mainly water, but it also contains
Thus, target velocity is calculated from the
many important substances such as
change in frequency observed by Doppler
proteins (albumin, clotting factors,
radars.
antibodies, enzymes, and hormones),
sugars (glucose), and fat particles. Advantages of Doppler Weather Radars
(DWR):
92. Answer: (b) They measure three base products –
Explanation:  Reflectivity: Measure of possible rainfall
Volga is the longest river in Europe. It flows amount.
through Central Russia to Southern Russia  Velocity and Spectrum width can be
into the Caspian Sea. measured from both convention and
Elbe River flows into the North Sea. It rises Doppler Weather Radars.
in Central Asia and flows through River to  However, since DWRs measures radial
end up in North Sea. velocity of the echoes in addition to
Vistula River is the longest river in Poland reflectivity it is easy to eliminate ground
and flows into Baltic Sea. clutter (Resulting from unwanted
structures like buildings, hills etc.) and
anomalous propagation echoes (arises
from birds, insects and other special
atmospheric condition). Thus, it is
especially effective in regions where
ground clutter is a serious problem.
94. Answer: (b)

Explanation:
Mica:
 Mica mineral is comprised of not one
mineral but a group of 34 phyllosilicate
minerals that exhibits layered or platy
structure. Out of different mica,
muscovite (potash or white mica) and
phlogopite (amber mica) are
RAUSIAS-1041 37
commercially important from an with a plateau and a valley which lies on
industrial point of view. the Bhutan-China border, near India. This
 Muscovite mineral is imbibed with was a site of stand-off between India and
elasticity, toughness, flexibility, and Bhutan.
transparency with high heat resistance Yangtse Plateau: Recently, India and
and dielectric strength.
Chinese troops clashed in the Yangtse
 Due to its unique properties, mica
Plateau, near Tawang in Arunachal
minerals find applicability in electrical
Pradesh.
industries as an insulator, capacitor,
etc. Besides, mica is used in paint,
rubber, and plastic as filler and 96. Answer: (a)
reinforcer. Mica in small quantities is Explanation:
also employed for cosmetic applications. Darling 58: It is a genetically modified
 India has enormous deposits of low- variety of American Chestnut Tree. This
grade potassium bearing minerals like tree offers protection against chestnut
mica, glauconite etc. White mica is a
blight.
muscovite mineral contains 8-10% of
potassium. American Chestnut is a large, fast-growing
deciduous tree, native to North America. It
 Distribution in India: Andhra Pradesh
leads with a 41% share of the country’s was once the most important forest tree to
total resources, followed by Rajasthan be found in its range.
(28%), Odisha (17%), Maharashtra During the mid-20th century, American
(13%), Bihar (2%), and a small quantity Chestnut trees were destroyed by chestnut
of resources is found in Jharkhand and blight, a fungal disease that came to
Telangana. America from Chinese chestnut trees that
 Mica waste generated after cleaning and were introduced in North America from
processing mica ore contains about 8– East Asia.
10% potassium (K). Its potential as an
alternative to costly potassic fertilizers
is currently being exploited, especially 97. Answer: (a)
in India, where the entire demand for K Explanation:
fertilizers is met through imports. Black Soil: Black soil is highly retentive of
moisture. It swells greatly and becomes
95. Answer: (d) sticky when wet during the rainy season.
Explanation: Under such conditions, it is almost
Kaas Plateau in the Sahyadri range in the impossible to work on such soil because
Western Ghats. It has been designated as the plough gets stuck in the mud.
UNESCO World Heritage Site since 2012. However, in the dry season, the moisture
The Plateau is a biodiversity hotspot and evaporates, the soil shrinks and is seamed
has many rare, endangered and
with broad and deep cracks. This permit
threatened, unique plant species. The
oxygenation of the soil to sufficient depths
valley has big bloom of flowers during the
and the soil has extraordinary fertility.
monsoon. It is known as a 'Valley of
Flowers'. Remarkably, 'self-ploughed' by loosed
Doklam Plateau: Doklam is a disputed particles fallen from the ground into the
area between China and Bhutan just like cracks, the soil swallows itself and retains
Jakarlung and Pasamlung. It is an area moisture.
RAUSIAS-1041 38
98. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Ghaggar River: Ghaggar is the most
important example of Inland drainage. It is
a seasonal stream which rises on the lower
slopes of the Himalayas and forms
boundary between Haryana and Punjab.
It gets lost in the dry sands of Rajasthan
near Hanumangarh. Earlier, this river was
an affluent on the Indus, the dry bed of the
old channel in still traceable. It main
tributaries are Tangri, Markanda,
Saraswati and Chaitanya. It contains a lot
more water in the rainy season when its
bed becomes 10 km wide at places. 100. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
99. Answer: (b) Phytoplankton produce dimethyl sulfide
Explanation: through their growth cycles.
Mycorrhizae are a group of fungi. These As dimethyl sulfide increases in ocean
fungi grow on the roots of plants. Seedlings waters, it is transferred to the atmosphere
that have mycorrhizal fungi growing on where it oxidizes to form sulfur dioxide
their roots survive better after (SO2) and sulfate aerosols.
transplantation and grow faster. The fungal The sulfate aerosols then may act as
symbiont gets shelter and food from plant condensation nuclei by encouraging the
which acquires an array of benefits such as condensation of water vapour around them,
better uptake of phosphorus, salinity and which in turn stimulates the number and
drought tolerance, maintenance of water thickness of clouds.
balance and overall increase in plant The increased cloudiness then reflects more
growth and development. insolation from the cloud topics, which may
Mycorrhizal fungi can increase the yield by regulate the original cause of higher ocean
30-40%. It can absorb phosphorus from temperatures – increased energy at the
soil and pass it on the plant. Mycorrhizal surface.
plants show higher tolerance to high soil
temperatures, various soil and root borne
pathogens and heavy metal toxicity.
RAUSIAS-1041 39
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This test is a part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

4. All items carry equal marks.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

(a) 1 and 3 only

2. Ambalal Sarabhai requested Gandhi to (a) 1 and 2 only

2. A Small Enterprise is an enterprise (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

1. The term has been defined under the (a) 1 only

3. The test for determining whether a

(a) 1 only 1. A three-tier system of Panchayati Raj

3. Right to Information Act, 2005 (b) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above are

2. Its aim is to expand the number of net (c) Both 1 and 2

80. The ‘Singapore Declaration’ was in the

(b) 2 only (a) 1 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only

TEST ID: 1041

Full Length Test (FLT)–3

1. Answer: (c) this mature Harappan culture lay in Sindh

2. Answer: (c) 3. Answer: (b)

34. Answer: (b)  The Scheme is optional for the

53. Answer: (a) 54. Answer: (a)

62. Answer: (c)

66. Answer: (a)

SR.NO. NAME OF THE WETLANDS DATE STATE/UT AREA (IN HA)

RAMSAR SITES IN INDIAN HIMALAYAN REGION

1. ASAN CONSERVATION RESERVE 21-07-2020 UTTARAKMAND 444

67. Answer: (a) There is an obvious fundamental difference

94. Answer: (b)

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