UESTION BOOKLET [Application No: | Name of the candidate: Post applied for: | Signature of the candidate Signature of the Invigilator PART-A Instruction to Candidates: 1. The test booklet contains two parts namely Part A consisting of 50 objective type questions carrying one mark each and Part B consisting of 06 descriptive type questions out of which 04 questions needs to be answered. Each descriptive question carries 5 marks. 2. Mark your answers in BLUE OR BLACK Ball point pen only. 3. You have to mark the answers in the OMR sheet only and no extra OMR sheet will be provided. 4. Return the Question booklet, OMR and answer sheets after the examination is over. ‘Assistant Registrar 2019 os “iT Rpar1, The reservation roster followed for direct recruitment basis on All India basis otherwise than open competition is 1 a 3. 4 100 120 200 None of the above 2. Which of the following statement is false: With regard to persons whose family owns or possesses any of the following assets shall be excluded from being identified as economically weaker section (EWS). 1 acres of agricultural land and above 2. Residential flat at of 2000 sq ft. and above 3. Residential plot of 100 sq. yards and above in notified municipalities 4. Residential, plot of 200 sq. yards and above in areas other than the notified municipalities 3. As per the new model calendar for conducting the departmental promotion committee (DPC), the DPC to be held between every year for the departmental posts of the ministry 1. April-June 2. May- October a 3. May— August 4, July October 4, The last date of submission of annual return of assets and liabilities by Govt. servant for each year under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act is 1 2. 3 4 5. Within 31" March 30" June 31" July 31" December period, the adverse remarks in APAR has to be communicated to individual officer from. the date they are recorded 1 a 3, 4, one month 15 days two months: three months 6. An employee cannot be suspended when he is involved in an act of 1 2 3. 4 7. The Inquiry authority should conclude the inquiry and submit his report withi Negligence and dereli Desertion of duty Disobedience of superior officer Refusal to carry out written orders of the superior officer n of duty resulting in considerable loss to government from the date of receipt of order of appointment. 1 2 a: 4. 3 months 6 months 9 months 12 months ~~ Assistant Registrar 2019 Ropar8. An inquiry in a complaint of sexual harassment should be completed within as far as practicable and no case more than 1. One month & 90 days 2. 60 days & 90 days 3. 3months & 6 months 4. None of the above 9. A transaction in movable property by a government servant should be reported to prescribed authority 1. Before entering into the transaction 2. Within 15 days of entering into transaction 3. Within one month of entering into transaction 4, Within 3 months of entering into transaction 10. As per FR, duty does not include the period of a 1. Probation 2. Joining time 3. Training 4, Leave 11. As on 31" Dec 2018, The Earned Leave balance of ‘A’, a central Government employee is 200 days. He was on Extraordinary leave (EOL ) on personal reasons for a period of 55 days from 01.03.2019 to 24.04.2019, The EL balance as on 01.07.2019 in his Leave account will be 1. 225 days 2. 210 days 3. 209 days 4. 220days 12. The Government servant is entitled for encashment of earned leave up to10 days at the time of availing > UTC provided he should have a balance of days of EL credit after deduction of leave availed for LTC and leave encashment. 1. 30 days 2. 60days 3. 10 days 4. NIL 13. The closed holiday observed by Central Govt. offices in a calendar year is. days. a7 212 3. 15 4, 18 14. Mark the incorrect one 1. LTCis admissible during child care leave 2. Joining time can be combined with causal leave 3. Leave cannot be claimed as a matter of right 4, Transport allowance is not admissible during suspension if the suspension covers entire calendar month ‘Assistant Registrar 2015 TT Ropar15. The minimum age for claiming reimbursement of Children Education allowance is. 1. O2years 2, O3years 3. 05 years 4, No minimum age 16. The Joining time admissible to a government servant on transfer to join new post where change of residence is not involved is. 1. 05 days 2. O1day 3. O2 days 4. No joining time 17. The Hostel subsidy is reimbursable to Government servant for keeping the child in hostel away from his station located beyond a distance of. KM from his residence 1. 30 2. 20 5 3. 50 4, 25 18. “A” an officer had tendered resignation and the same was accepted and he was relieved from the post. Now he wants to withdraw the resignation after two month and submit a letter to the competent authority. The competent authority can 4. accept if the resignation was tendered for some personal reasons which did not involve any reflection of his integrity and conduct. 2. accept if the resignation was. tendered with view to take up an appointment in pr company and the offer was withdrawn by the private company ate 3. cannot accept since after acceptance and relief from the post , he has no right to withdraw his resignation. 4, cannot accept the withdrawal of the resignation, since the letter is time barred since two month has elapsed from the date of relief. 19. The pension contribution payable by the government servant during their foreign service shall be basec on 1. Pay drawn during the foreign service 2. Pay drawn before proceeding foreign service 3. Pay drawn after completion of foreign service 4. None of the above 20. Which of the statement is wrong? 1. A government servant whose date of birth is 1% June 1959 will retire from service on the afternoon of 31° May 2019 2. A government servant goes on voluntary retirement on 23" July 2019 and pay & allowance for the month of July for him will be drawn up to 23rd of July 2019 3. A government dies in the morning of 16 Aug 2019 before attending office and_ his pay & allowance for him will be drawn up to 16 Aug 2019 4. A government servant tenders resignation w. e. f 12 September 2019 and his pay allowance will be drawn up to 11 September 2019 ‘asta Regitrar 2073 ir Ropar21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26. 27. 28. As per the rule, the request for change in date of birth if any, by the government employee should be submitted within, entry into service 1. 03 years 2. 05 years 3. 10 years 4, 15 years In case an employee exits from the NPS before attaining the age of 60 years, % of accumulated pension wealth shall be mandatorily used to purchase an annuity. 05 60 70 1. 80 ‘The half pay leave credit will be reduced at the rate of, for the period treated as dies on during the preceding half year. 1 iz 2. 1/18 3. 1/10 4, None of the above Aperiod cannot be treated as dies non ,when the employee 1, is absent from duty without permission 2. ison extraordinary leave 3. leaves office while on duty without permission 4, _absconding from duty Which of the following is false? 1. The holidays can be prefixed with joining time. 2. The holidays can be suffixed with Joining time. 3. Joining time cannot be combined with Casual Leave. 4. The unavailed portion of joining time cannot be credited to earned leave account. ‘As per the House Building advance rules, while repaying the House building advance _, the principal repayment should not exceed 1, 60 Months 2. 200 Months 3. 180 Months 4, 150 Months ‘An Employee has availed “Half pay leave (HPL) and reported for duty. Later, he submits an application to the office to convert the Half pay Leave to Earned Leave (EL). He can be 1. permitted to convert his leave on submission of appli joining duty 2. permitted to convert his leave on submission of application to the effect within O7days of joining duty 3. Once leave availed cannot be converted to other leave. 4, None of the above nto the effect within 30 days of The Leave not Due(LND) can be granted to a permanent employee on submission of medical certificate for a maximum period of 1. 360 days 2. Olyear 3. O2year 4, 180 days ‘Assistant Registrar 2015 c29. Which Section of RTI Act deals with ‘exemption from disclosure of information’? 1. Section 8 2. Section 9 3. Section 11 4. Section 12 30. As per RTI act 2005,the information seeker is not satisfied with the reply of first appellate authority, second appeal to information commission has to be made within of receipt of reply from first. appellate authority 1. 30days 2. 45 days 3. 60 days 4, 90 days 31. As per GFR 2017, while disposal of goods through advertised tender, the bid security should ordinarily collected at the rate of 1. 5% 2. 2% 3. 8% 4, 10% 32. As per GFR, the contract agreement has to signed for purchases exceeding 1, Rs.2.00 lakh and above 2, Rs.10.00 lakh and above 3. Rs.5.00 lakh and above 4, Rs.25.00 lakh and above 33. As per General Financial Rules 2017, with regard to outsourcing of non consultancy services, for estimated value of the work or service above rupees , the ministry or department should issue advertised tender enquiry. 1. Rs.25.00 Lakhs 2. Rs.5.00 Lakhs 3. Rs.10.00 Lakhs 4, Rs.2.00 Lakhs 34. AS per GFR, all money received by or on behalf of Government of India should be brought inte government account 1. Same day 2. By the next day 3. Without delay 4, Within 7 days. 35. As per General Financial rules 2017, Fixed Assets Register is to be kept in the format specified as per 1. GFR22 2. GFRAL 3. GFR35 4, None of these 36. As per General financial rules 2017, Utilization certificates for Grant in Aid received by the Autonomous Bodies from Government of India has to be submitted in Form 1. 128 2. 190 3. 158 4. 188 ‘Assistant Registrar 2019 TT Ropar37. The Government E- Market Place (GeM) has been specified in Rule. of GFR 2017 1 134 2. 138 3. 144 4, 149 38. As per General Financial Rules 2017, the monetary limits specified under Government E-Market place( GeM}for procurement through any of the available suppliers in GeM is 1. Rs.10,000 2. Rs.50,000 3. Rs.25,000 4, Rs.25,000 39, The standard deduction available to salaried employee for the FY 19-20 as per the Income tax act is, 1. Rs.25,000 2. Rs.40,000 3. Rs.30,000 4, Rs.50,000 40. The Tax deducted at Source TDS) is deducted at the rate of for payment to a Professional Architect for services rendered in design of a building is 1 2% 2. 20% 3. 10% 4. 30% 41. Section of C&AG DPC act empowers , the office of CAG to audit the autonomous bodies substantially financed by Government of India 1. 10 2. 11 3. 12 414 _~ 42. The AA & ES in the CPWD works manual signifies 1. Administrative Accord and Expenditure Sanction 2. Authorisation, Approval and Expenditure Sanction 3. Administrative Approval and Estimate Sanction 4, Administrative Approval and Expenditure Sanction 43. A new tender for construction of laboratory building at an estimated cost of Rs.15.00 crores is being advertised. The earnest money (EMD) to be payable by the bidders for the said work as per the CPWD. works manual is Rs. 1. 25.00 lakhs 2. 50.00 lakhs 3. 20.00 lakhs 4, 30.00 lakhs asistant Registrar 2019 TW Ropar44. Ministry of Finance has implemented the PFMS system for use in government department. The PFMS system uses the EAT module. The term “EAT” means 1. Expenditure, advance, transfer 2. Expenditure, accounting , tracking 3. Expenditure, analysis, tracing 4, None of the above 45, In the PFMS, the EATO3 report pertains to 1. Scheme wise summary statement 2. Component wise summary statement 3. Agency wise summary statement 4, Vendor wise summary statement 46. As per the IIT Ropar statutes, the quorum for the Board meeting shall be? 1. 05 2. 04 3. 06 4, None of the above 47. As per the IIT Ropar statute, the Senate shall meet at least time in a calendar year? 1. 02 2. 04 3, 03 4, 05 48. As per the statutes of IIT Ropar, the total number of members including the Chairman in the Finance Committee is 1. 07 2. 08 3. 06 4, 05 49. As per the statutes of IIT Ropar, up to. student representative can be nominated by Chairman, Senate as a special invitee to the senate of the institute 1. 02 2. 038 3. 05 4. 08 50. As per the statutes of IIT Ropar, a faculty avails vacation for a period of 30 days during an academic year, the Earned Leave credit afforded to him during the academic year will be 1. 30 205 3. 20 4. None of the above ‘Aasatant Registrar 2019 TT RoparUESTION BOOKLET & ANSWER SHEET _~| Application No: | Name of the candidate: Post applied for: Signature of the candidate Signature of the Invigilator PART B ‘Answer any FOUR Questions ( 4 X 5 marks = 20) _~Compulsory Question: 1, What is HEFA? Explain briefly the areas of financing by HEFA for Higher educational Institution? Optional - Answer any three question from below: 1._ Explain Minor Penalties as defined under CCS (CCA) rules? 2. Explain the Quality and Cost based selection (QCBS) in selection of consultancy services as per GER? 3. What is Bank Reconci ion Statement( BRS) and explain the method of reconciliation? Mr. “X" had filed an RTI query to PIO of your Institute seeking information regarding the admission of Ph. D. students in computer science department regarding their name, age, and address of the admitted students. The PIO has refused furnishing the information other than name of the students. Mr. “X” aggrieved by the RTI reply made a first appeal and you are the first appellate authority. Dispose the appeal. 5. Write briefly the Powers and duties of the Director, IIT Ropar as per the statutes of IIT Ropar? Tasistant Regisvar 2019 TF Ropar‘Resistant Registrar 2019 Ropar‘Aasistant Registrar 2019, Tit Ropar‘asatant Registrar 2019 Tit Ropar‘sistant Registrar 2019 Tit Ropar‘Assistant Registrar 2019 TT Ropar