LISTENING COMPREHENSION

GENERAL DIRECTIONS

1. This is a test to measure your ability to understand spoken English. The test consists of
three parts,
Part One: Understanding Short Conversations
Part Two: Understanding Longer Conversations
Part Three: Understanding Short Talks
Before you begin each part, please carefully read and listen to the directions given.
2. Put all of your answers on the answer sheet.
3. Carefully and completely choose your answer for each question. If you change your
mind about an answer after you have marked it on your answer sheet, completely erase
your old answer and then mark your new answer.
4. Try to answer every problem, even if you are not sure of the answer. Your score on the
test will depend on the number of correct answers that you give.

DO NOT TURN OVER THIS PAGE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO.

NOW TURN THE PAGE.

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Practice Test 2
 SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION

PART ONE: UNDERSTANDING SHORT CONVERSATIONS

Directions: In this part, you will hear short conversations between two speakers. At the end
of each conversation, a third person will ask a question about what has been
said. Read the four possible answers in your test booklet and select the option
that best answers the question.

For example:

You will hear:

Woman: James, will you take your sister to the doctor for me? There‘s an emergency
at the office.
Man: I have an exam this morning, Mom. Can I take her this afternoon?

Question: What does the man mean?

You will read: (A) He misunderstood the woman.

(B) He is unable to help this morning.
(C) He will have someone else take his sister.
(D) He is afraid of doctors.

The best answer to the question is (B). Therefore, you should blacken the letter on your
answer sheet.

Look at the example.

Now, let’s begin with Part One.

1. (A) The magazine has not been bought.

(B) The woman should buy the coffee table.
(C) This is the first time he has seen the magazine.
(D) She might find her magazines on the coffee table.

2. (A) He was doubtful to pick up some calls.

(B) He got the woman to pick him up.
(C) He was too angry to talk to anyone.
(D) He called the woman about it.

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3. (A) She‘s used to have the same device before.
(B) She is trying to buy a new device.
(C) She knows where to buy the device.
(D) She thinks the device is actually simple.

4. (A) The gate is on the opposite side.

(B) The tower is closed on the south gate.
(C) There is only one gate on the perimeter.
(D) No one is attending the gate on the north.

5. (A) He doesn‘t know where the party is.

(B) He thinks Andrea is attending the party.
(C) He didn‘t tell the woman about the party.
(D) He wants to ask Andrea to attend the party.

6. (A) She approved the project.

(B) She has to recalculate the project.
(C) The man has finished the project.
(D) The man‘s proposal was accepted.

7. (A) She painted the scooter for her brother.

(B) She is riding her brother‘s scooter.
(C) Her brother painted the scooter.
(D) Her scooter had a dull color.

8. (A) Two hours

(B) One and a half hour
(C) An hour
(D) Thirty minutes

9. (A) He doesn‘t drive his car anymore.

(B) He doesn‘t need to attend the recital.
(C) He doesn‘t know how to repair his car.
(D) He doesn‘t want to take the woman to the recital.

10. (A) He asks the woman to go biking with him.

(B) Riding bicycle is more fun than walking.
(C) He‘s very keen on riding a bicycle.
(D) Walking is as beneficial as biking.

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11. (A) It will rain hard soon.
(B) It is not drizzling anymore.
(C) He will need to get home soon.
(D) He needs to call the grocery store.

12. (A) Ted didn‘t talk to her about the paper.

(B) Ted didn‘t help her do the group work.
(C) She and Ted haven‘t finished the paper on time.
(D) She didn‘t have time to discuss the paper with Ted.

13. (A) She agrees to see the professor soon.

(B) She has to find another counselor.
(C) She will finish her thesis this year.
(D) She will be graduating next year.

14. (A) Make new flower arrangements for the man.

(B) Send some bouquets of flowers to the man.
(C) Show several flower arrangements.
(D) Contact Meadow Nursing Home.

15. (A) Buy a new watch.

(B) Fix the watch himself.
(C) Check the time regularly.
(D) Ask someone to repair his watch.

16. (A) How long he is staying in the Caribbean

(B) What means of transportation he‘ll take
(C) How he plans his accommodation in the Caribbean
(D) What other information does the man needs for his travel

17. (A) He thinks the woman should take leave.

(B) He wants to fill in for the woman.
(C) He plans to take some days off.
(D) He has the same problem.

18. (A) She enjoys doing outdoor sports.

(B) She may not find horse riding extremely fun.
(C) She probably doesn‘t know how to ride horses.
(D) She always tells the man to ride horses with her.

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19. (A) His shirt has been cut off.
(B) He can‘t swap his shirt without the tag.
(C) His shirt isn‘t available in a smaller size.
(D) He can exchange for the same priced shirt.

20. (A) She has tried a new menu at a different bistro.

(B) She never tries the same menu twice.
(C) She has stopped eating there.
(D) She loves eating at Sally Bistro.

21. (A) Dance with the woman.

(B) Record her dance movements.
(C) Accompany her to her dance class.
(D) Write a review for her dance movements.

22. (A) He should rearrange his furniture.

(B) He should wait for his new furniture.
(C) He needs to ask someone to help him.
(D) He needs larger space for the furniture.

23. (A) The band performed as well as a famous band.

(B) He was thinking of performing with his band.
(C) He didn‘t think the band was wonderful.
(D) It isn‘t that difficult to manage a band.

24. (A) Some cleaning equipment

(B) Decoration supplies
(C) Candies and sweets
(D) Some boxes

25. (A) He didn‘t tell his sister about the grapes.

(B) Her sister had eaten the grapes.
(C) The grapes aren‘t in the fridge.
(D) His sister bought the grapes.

26. (A) Prof. Collins frequently assigns complicated tasks.

(B) Some students avoid taking Prof. Collins class.
(C) Only some seniors submit their assignments.
(D) The assignments should be made less hard.

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27. (A) He always eats at good restaurants.
(B) He always has great ideas about food.
(C) He can easily find restaurant directory.
(D) He is good at finding great eating places.

28. (A) Refrain himself from consuming shrimps.

(B) Get some medicine for his allergy.
(C) Stop having picnics at the beach.
(D) Keep away from the beach.

29. (A) He only needs one package today.

(B) No packages had been delivered.
(C) He will send the package himself.
(D) Only one package left.

30. (A) He is a punctual person.

(B) He is a flexible person.
(C) He likes going places.
(D) He rarely gets angry.

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 PART TWO: UNDERSTANDING LONGER CONVERSATIONS
Directions: In this part, you will hear longer conversations between two speakers. At the
end of each conversation, a third person will ask several questions about what
has been said. Read the four possible choices in your test booklet and choose
the correct answer.
For example:
You will hear:
Man: You know, measured by body count, the avian flu that scared Hong Kong in
1997 did not come close to the Spanish flu of 1918 that took twenty million
lives.
Woman: Really? With this Hong Kong flu, only six people succumbed to the strength
of it, thanks to the 1.4 million chickens that were killed to make the world
safe.
Man: I also heard that after a series of false starts, Hong Kong authorities launched
a fowl-cull on December 28, 1997.
Woman: Yes, and officials vowed to get the job done in three days.
Man: They almost failed because on January 4, chickens were still running around,
breaking free from garbage bags and becoming wild dog food.
Woman: Still, the drastic measures stopped the outbreak, and in December, the WHO
credited Hong Kong for saving the planet from an influenza pandemic.
Man: Imagine how many people could have died if the authorities had not acted
quickly.

Question 1: What are the speakers talking about?

You will read: (A) Spanish flu

(B) Hong Kong flu
(C) WHO
(D) Hong Kong authorities
Since the correct answer is (B), blacken the letter on your answer sheet.
Look at the example:
Question 2: How many people died from the avian flu?
You will read: (A) Twenty million
(B) Sixty
(C) Twenty
(D) Six
Since the correct answer is (D), blacken the letter on your answer sheet.

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Look at the example:

Now let’s begin part Two.

31. (A) She was not familiar with the name.

(B) She has never been to that place.
(C) She was not listening to the man.
(D) She forgot to bring the map.

32. (A) A gym

(B) A roundabout
(C) A fountain
(D) A big sculpture

33. (A) He is one of the participants.

(B) He is one of the speakers of the seminar.
(C) He needs to write a paper about the topic.
(D) He wants to consult his thesis with the speaker.

34. (A) Aloof

(B) Friendly
(C) Ignorant
(D) Cooperative

35. (A) The types of tectonic plates

(B) The movements of continents
(C) The cause of continents‘ movement
(D) Wegener‘s theory on the continent drift

36. (A) The lithospheric plates

(B) The mantle of the Earth
(C) The sinking tectonic plates
(D) The divergent boundaries

37. (A) As strongly inadvisable

(B) As impossible at any time
(C) As likely in the near future
(D) As probable in the next century

38. (A) Cartographers could create better and exact maps.

(B) Geologists could pinpoint any earthquake locations.
(C) Volcanologists could identify any volcanic activities easily.
(D) Scientists could predict the continent‘s split more accurately.

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 PART THREE: UNDERSTANDING SHORT TALKS

Directions: In this part, you will hear several short talks that will be read only once. After
each short talk, you will hear some questions. After you hear a question, read
the four possible choices in your test booklet and choose the correct answer.

For example:
You will hear:
Man: Class, last week we discussed Alzheimer. Today we are going to see how the
brain functions.
Brains are different from computers, but the parallels can be helpful. Your brain
is equipped with two basic types of memory: working memory for juggling
information in the present moment, and long-term memory for storing information
for extended periods. Most of what we perceive hovers briefly in working memory, a
mental play space similar to a computer‘s RAM (random-access memory), then
simply disappears. Like RAM, it lets you analyze and invent things without creating a
lasting record.
Long-term memory, on the other hand, acts more like a hard drive, physically
recording the experiences in the brain region known as the cerebral cortex. The
cortex, or outer layer of the brain, houses a thicket of 10 billion vine like nerve cells,
which communicate by relaying chemical and electrical impulses. Every time we
perceive something—a sight, a sound, an idea—a unique subset of thesis neurons
are activated. Once that happens, anything that activates the network will produce
the original perception as a memory. What we think of as memories are ultimately
patterns of connection among nerve cells.
Now I‘d like to show you a ―brain‖ made of clay. Please come forward and have a
closer look at it. Afterwards, I‘ll collect your homework.
Question 1: What is the talk about?
You will read: (A) Complexities of the brain
(B) Brain function
(C) Random Access Memory
(D) The cerebral cortex

Since the correct answer is (B), blacken the letter on your answer sheet.

Look at the example:

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Question 2: Who is the speaker most likely addressing?
You will read: (A) Medical students
(B) Computer science students
(C) Psychology students
(D) Chemistry students
Since the correct answer is (A), blacken the letter on your answer sheet.

Look at the example:

Now, let’s begin Part Three.

39. (A) Students

(B) Reporters
(C) Engineers
(D) Broadcasters

40. (A) A television studio

(B) The Production-Control
(C) The Studio Floor
(D) The Master Control

41. (A) Recording actions

(B) Keeping the equipment
(C) Storing graphics and images
(D) Composing the upcoming programs

42. (A) The university‘s career center

(B) The academic program
(C) Curricula
(D) Costs

43. (A) Language

(B) Engineering
(C) Archaeology
(D) Communication

44. (A) The Career Center

(B) The Student Union
(C) The Scholarship
(D) The J Term

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45. (A) It enables students to gain work experience.
(B) It is available from December to January.
(C) It can add to students‘ credit.
(D) It is managed by lecturers.

46. (A) Students from the professor's class

(B) Instructors in the program
(C) Administrator of J term
(D) Alumni of the program

47. (A) The rules and courts

(B) The players and equipment
(C) The adoption of the tie-break
(D) The use of clay and grass

48. (A) They did not make the game difficult.

(B) They accommodated female players.
(C) They focused on scoring system.
(D) They did not change much.

49. (A) All games had to be held at clay courts.

(B) They enacted indoor tennis matches.
(C) Tie-break system was applied.
(D) They required certain rubber.

50. (A) It is long lasting.

(B) It weakens the bouncing ball.
(C) It reduces player‘s power to smash.
(D) It makes players easy to control the ball.

THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING COMPREHENSION SECTION.

GO ON TO THE NEXT SECTION OF THE TEST.

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 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
Time: 25 minutes
(Including the reading of the general directions)

GENERAL DIRECTIONS

1. This section of the test is designed to measure your ability to recognize language
that is appropriate in standard written English. There are two parts to this section
with special directions for each.
Part One: Structure
Part Two: Written Expression
Before you begin each part, carefully read the directions.
2. Put all of your answers on the answer sheet.

3. Carefully and completely choose your answer for each question. If you change your
mind about an answer after you have marked it on your answer sheet, completely
erase your old answer and then mark your new answer.
4. Try to answer every problem even if you are not sure of the answer. Your score
on the test will depend on the number of correct answers you have given.

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 PART ONE: STRUCTURE

DIRECTIONS: All the problems below are in the form of incomplete sentences. Beneath
each sentence you will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and
(D). Choose the word or phrase that best completes the sentence.

Example:
Like Robert Oppenheimer in the United States and Andre Sakharov in the Soviet Union,
Abdel Qadeer Khan heads a large team of patriotic scientists _______ feverishly to develop a
nuclear weapon.
(A) worked
(B) working
(C) work
(D) to work

The sentence should read, ―Like Robert Oppenheimer in the United States and Andre
Sakharov in the Soviet Union, Abdel Qadeer Khan heads a large team of patriotic scientists
working feverishly to develop the nuclear weapon.‖ Therefore, you should blacken
the letter on your answer sheet.

Look at the example:

NOW BEGIN WORK ON THE TEST PROBLEMS.

1. After diamond, corundum is the ________ formed in either crystals or grainy forms.
(A) substance is hardest
(B) substance that hardest
(C) hardest substance that
(D) hardest substance

2. Known for contributing to the theory of black holes, Stephen Hawking tried ________ a
quantum theory of gravity, suggesting the removal of the singularity at time.
(A) in developing
(B) to develop
(C) by development
(D) develop

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3. ________ water from rain and melting snow accumulates along the upper surface of shale,
landslide transpires due to the weak shale‘s support.
(A) Being
(B) Whenever
(C) When should
(D) Is

4. In 1666 physicist Sir Isaac Newton developed _________ by observing a falling apple.
(A) for the law of gravitation
(B) gravitation is the law
(C) the law of gravitation
(D) law gravity

5. Before the Industrial Revolution, farming, backed by trade in goods and services, ________
the main source of wealth in Britain.
(A) was
(B) which was
(C) was being
(D) to be

6. Though the attempts to develop useful ceramic tools have spent billions of dollars,
_________ they have failed because of ceramic brittleness.
(A) in most cases
(B) most cases in
(C) most in cases
(D) cases in most

7. The Monroe Doctrine, which was made by President James Monroe, was a formal speech
of the U.S. policy on ________ against European power.
(A) which he was taking stand
(B) where he had to take stand
(C) that he taking stand
(D) which he took stand

8. The small intestine, ________ of the upper, the middle and the terminal part, has the
vastest part for the digestion to occur.
(A) consists
(B) which it consists
(C) which consists
(D) of which consists

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9. How Mesopotamian thrones looked is in reliefs from 3500 to 800 B.C., ________ almost no
models have survived.
(A) and when
(B) since then
(C) despite of
(D) though

10. ________ smog when humidity is high and the air is calm causing smoke and fumes
accumulate near their source.
(A) Forming solid and liquid fog with smoke particles
(B) Solid and liquid fog with smoke particles that form
(C) Solid and liquid fog with smoke particles form
(D) A formation of solid and liquid fog with smoke particles

11. Swamps, characterized by the presence of trees, are wetlands where ________ than it does
in marshlands.
(A) flow more continually
(B) water flows more continually
(C) more continually flow of water
(D) the flow of water more continually

12. During a full life cycle of insects, _______ moths and butterflies go through four distinct
stages.
(A) the both
(B) both
(C) both of
(D) and both

13. Not only ________ communicate by vocalizations from the trunk, but they also use the
trunk to touch, smell, and pose.
(A) do elephants
(B) elephants
(C) some elephants
(D) they are elephants

14. Coconuts are the most useful palm, and ________ nutrient-rich sap.
(A) from their blossoms exudes
(B) their blossoms are exuded
(C) to exude their blossoms
(D) exuded their blossoms

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15. ________ 250 species of turtles, and although most are adapted to freshwater life, a small
group adjusts to sea life.
(A) Nearly
(B) About the
(C) Where nearly
(D) There are nearly

PART TWO: WRITTEN EXPRESSION

DIRECTIONS: In each problem below there are four underlined parts of the sentence
marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the one that is incorrect. Then, choose
the correct answer.

Example: The seal‘s dark grey fur was covered with a large, light brown spot, and
A B
it‘s nose was rubbery, with a bristle of stiff whiskers.
C D

The sentence should read, ―The seal‘s dark gray fur was covered with a large, light brown
spot, and its nose was rubbery, with bristle of stiff whiskers.‖ Therefore, you should blacken
the letter on your answer sheet.

Look at the example:

NOW BEGIN WORK ON THE TEST PROBLEMS.

16. Some weeds have thickly and leafless stems that show an adoption to hot and dry
A B C D
habitat.

17. Of the much elements that contributed to the growth of international tourism in Europe,
A B C
one of the most significant was the emergent number of people in employment.
D

18. In the state of Alabama, natural gas it is believed to be one of the

A B C
most valuable mineral products.
D

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19. Jane Austen‘s novels are satirical and pleasingly written, show deep understanding on
A B C D
human motivations.

20. Alaska possesses more geothermal resources than any another state in the country.
A B C D

21. Gianlorenzo Bernini‘s uncanny art works inspired other artists in the early seventeenth
. A B C
century to the eighteenth century.
D

22. Virgina S. Woolf, one of the greatest modern novelists in the UK, gained formal
A B
education from hers father, a British biographer and philosopher, Sir Leslie Stephen.
C D

23. Protecting mangroves is not an easy task to do because mangroves are quite sensitive to
A B
changes: even tidal pattern changes can damage it.
C D

24. Mahatma Gandhi, who is known for preach passive resistance against the British,
A B C
egged on Indians to fight against the British Empire.
D

25. Anticyclones, which may brings warm, sunny weather in summer, have characteristics
A B C
of low wind speed and high barometric pressure.
D

26. Archaeopteris, a tree growing up to 10 meters, was determining by the scientists

A B C
discovering Wattieza, a prehistoric tree from 185 years ago.
D

27. Beside the feelings of terror, nearly all active people with panic disorder undergo intense
A B C D
symptoms like tremors.

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28. From the middle northern latitudes, people can best look at the Milky Way on clear,
A B
moonless, summer night, when it appears as a luminous, irregular band circling the sky.
C D

29. Swamps are defined as wetlands with some flooding of large areas of land by shallow
A B
bodies of water, cover by aquatic vegetation.
C D

30. Observational humors are form of comedy which developed in the early days of jesters
A B C
and traveling minstrels.
D

31. To hear musicians play, people living before the emergence of recorded music would
A B C
general go to concerts.
D

32. During the Mesozoic era when the dinosaurs lived, non-flowering plants,
A
first and foremost Conifers, were presence and dominated the landscape.
B C D

33. Some oak wood, which has great strength and hardness, is used of furniture making and
A B C D
veneer production.

34. Before the twenty-first century, cruise ships were important to some countries to do
A B
emergency tasks included carrying troops and refugees.
C D

35. The moon may be part of the Earth separated long ago or from debris the impact
A B C D
between the Earth and a planetary body.

36. The first native Australians to occupy what is now the Commonwealth of Australia were
A B C
the aborigines, which lived there more than 40,000 years ago.
D

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37. Some storage silos, towers used for storing grain, are very tall that people need air slides
A B C
to unload them into cars or conveyers.
D
38. Wind, air of motion, causes particles to move upward causing two effects, one is
A
deflation and the other is abrasion.
B C D

39. Farms of maize, cotton, and cacao, the Maya, native American peoples that inhabited
A B
present-day Mexico, also wove highly perfected cotton and produced fine pottery.
C D

40. Scientists have use a method to do anatomical investigation called tissue culture, which
A B
involves cultivating cells and tissues of complex outside organisms.
C D

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 SECTION 3

READING COMPREHENSION

Time: 55 minutes
(Including the reading of the general directions)

GENERAL DIRECTIONS

1. This is a practice test of your ability to comprehend English reading passages.

Before you begin with each part, carefully read the directions given.

2. Put all your answers on the answer sheet you have been given.

3. Carefully and completely choose your answer for each question. If you change
your mind about an answer after you have blackened the letter of your choice,
erase your first answer completely, then blacken your new choice.

4. Try to answer every problem, even if you are not sure of the answer. Your score
on the test will depend on the number of correct answers.

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 Directions: In this section you will read several passages followed by several questions.
Choose the best answer (A), (B), (C), or (D) to each question. Then, on your answer
sheet, find the number of the question and blacken the circle that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Example:
Read the following passage:
Scientists are beginning to turn their attention to how help can sometimes turn
into hindrance in the body. A small study in Johannesburg, South Africa, suggests
that TNF-alpha, a protein released into the blood to aid injured tissue, may weaken
the heart. According to the latest issue of The Lancet, doctors found that patients‘
5 symptoms of heart failure were alleviated when they received pentoxifylline, a drug
which suppresses production of TNF-alpha.
Before starting the trial, 28 heart patients were given similar treatment for at
least four months. They were then randomly assigned to take the drug or a placebo
for six months. Patients taking the medicine had a higher proportion of blood
10 pumped from the heart than those taking the placebo, giving them a healthier
organ.
Question 1:

The word―alleviated‖ as used in Line 5 in the passage can best be replaced with
(A) reconciled
(B) confirmed
(C) eased
(D) equalized

Since the correct answer is (C), you should blacken the letter on your answer sheet.
Look at the example:

Question 2:
Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
(A) Pentoxifylline and TNF-alpha have contradictory effects.
(B) Pentoxifylline is meant to cure injured tissues.
(C) TNF-alpha regulates heart functioning.
(D) TNF-alpha needs pentoxifylline to cure heart ailments.
Since the correct answer is (A), you should therefore blacken the letter on your answer
sheet.

Look at the example:

NOW BEGIN WORK ON THE TEST PROBLEMS.

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 Questions 1-9 are based on the following passage.
Line Occupying the northern half of the North American continent, Canada is the
second largest country in the world. In terms of governmental administration,
Canada is divided into ten provinces: British Columbia, Alberta, Saskatchewan,
Manitoba, Ontario, Quebec, New Brunswick, Nova Scotia, Prince Edward Island,
5 and Newfoundland, and three territories: Yukon Territories, North West Territories
and Nunavut. Topographically, the country is divided into the West Coast, the
Prairies, Central Canada, the Atlantic and the North. Each of the regions features a
very different landscape with varied climate.
The West Coast where British Columbia is located, is the most mountainous
10 region with a chain of islands running from north to south. The next region, the
Prairies, covers Alberta, Saskatchewan, and Manitoba. These lands are part of the
so-called Canadian Shield that extends into Ontario, Quebec, and some parts of
Newfoundland. There are flat plains that stretch across the southern part of the
region. In the northwest regions, there are hills, valleys, and rivers. Next to the
15 Prairies is Central Canada, consisting of Canada‘s two largest and most populous
provinces: Ontario and Quebec. Much of the north of the provinces is forested
and covered by the dense rocky surface of the Canadian Shield. East to Central
Canada is the Atlantic region that includes New Brunswick, Nova Scotia, Prince
Edward Island, and Newfoundland. This region is the most rugged area, with low,
20 rugged hills and plateaus. The last region, the North, includes Yukon, West
territories, and Nunavut. North of Nunavut is a vast boreal forest. Above the tree-
line lies the Arctic mostly consists of permafrost−underlying soil that remains
permanently frozen−that thaws in warmer temperatures, making construction
difficult and hazardous.
25 As Canada is so large with diverse geographical traits, the climate varies. The
British Columbia coast in the Pacific region has the most moderate climate. It
rarely snows in the low-lying areas. The valleys between the mountain ranges have
hot summers. The next region, the Prairies, has cold winters and humid, hot
summers. Spring showers and temperate autumn weather makes the Prairies one
30 of the top grain-growing areas of the world. The climate in the next region,
Central Canada, is relatively stable year round. Summers are likely to be humid,
sunny and mild. In the Atlantic Canada, winter temperatures fluctuate as Arctic air
is replaced by maritime air from passing storms. Snowfall is restively heavy, and
fog is often present in spring and at the onset of summer. The North region is a
35 vast boreal forest. Summer lasts approximately two months. Temperatures rise
above freezing only a few weeks a year, and the ground remains permanently
frozen, especially in the Arctic. It has always been hard to develop a
comprehensive picture of the climate because data coverage over the areas is
insufficient.

Student Book 4 Reading Comprehension Section 271

Practice Test 2
 1. How many regions is Canada divided geographically?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
2 The word ―features‖ in line 7 is closest in meaning to _______.
(A) exists
(B) employs
(C) suggests
(D) shows
3. The word ―varied‖ in line 8 is closest in meaning to ________ .
(A) mild
(B) favorable
(C) different
(D) hostile

4. Which of the following terms is used to describe soil in the Arctic?

(A) Permafrost
(B) Fog
(C) Plateau
(D) Hill

5. The word ―traits‖ in line 25 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) characteristics
(B) controls
(C) powers
(D) effects

6. The word ―comprehensive‖ in line 38 is closest in meaning to ________ .

(A) complete
(B) favorable
(C) vast
(D) exact

7. All of the following are mentioned as a characteristic of the climate in Canada

EXCEPT_______.
(A) moderate
(B) dessert-like
(C) tropical
(D) humid

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8. Permafrost in the second paragraph is most comparable to which of the following?
(A) Wax
(B) Cement
(C) Rock
(D) Sand

9. Where in the passage does the author mention the difficulty in describing the climate in the
Arctic?
(A) Lines 25-27
(B) Lines 27-29
(C) Lines 29-30
(D) Lines 35-37

Questions 10-19 are based on the following passage.

Line Social parasitism takes advantage of interaction between members of social

parasites where one organism, the parasite, benefits at the expense of the other
organism, the host. The cuckoos and cowbirds practicing brood parasitism lay
eggs in other birds‘ nests to be raised by the foster parents. Another example of a
5 social parasite is the cuckoo bumblebees that belong to the subgenus Psithyrus.
With their specific characteristics, cuckoo bumblebees, obligate brood parasites of
nest building bumble of the genus Bombus, carry out social parasitism by
occupying other bumblebees‘ nests to survive.
Female cuckoo bumblebees have certain characteristics that require them to
10 do social parasitism. They cannot collect pollen because they have no pollen
baskets on their hind legs. In addition, they also cannot establish their own nests
since they do not have the ability to excrete wax from their abdomens for making
egg cells in which they lay their eggs, nor can they make honey pots from which
newly emerged brood may feed. Therefore, these bumblebees are completely
15 dependent upon their hosts throughout their lives for the nutrition of their larvae
and for rearing their young.
Female cuckoo bumblebees emerge from hibernation in late spring or early
summer and search for an established nest of another bumblebee species. They
detect the nest by following odor trails laid by the host queen and workers that
20 make the trails as they fly in and out their nest. As soon as the female bumblebees
enter the nest, they lay their eggs that will hatch after four to six days. In most
cases, once a host colony is occupied, the female bumblebees will kill the queen of
the colony and forcibly enslave the workers to work for them until their eggs hatch
as reproductive males and females.
25 Out of 250 species of bumblebees, there are approximately 30 species that are

Student Book 4 Reading Comprehension Section 273

Practice Test 2
 obligate social parasites–the subgenus Psithyrus. Obligate parasitism is evident
because the female Psithyrus lack a worker case and the structure of hind legs that
make the Psithyrus dependent on their hosts.

10. Which of the following statements best represents the main idea of the passage?
(A) Bumblebees belonging to the genus Bombus have large body structure.
(B) The subgenus Psithyrus is quite similar to the genus Bombus.
(C) Bumblebees of the subgenus Psithyrus have to rely on other species to survive.
(D) Cuckoo bumblebees frequently leave their nests to build new colonies.

11. The author mentions cuckoos and cowbirds in line 3 because they _______.
(A) share their nests with each other
(B) are closely related species
(C) raise the young of other birds
(D) are examples of social parasites

12. The word ―they‖ in line 10 refers to _______.

(A) workers
(B) reproductive males
(C) reproductive females
(D) cuckoo bumblebees

13. The word ―excrete‖ in line 12 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) produce
(B) maintain
(C) process
(D) increase

14. The word ―emerge‖ in line 17 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) retain
(B) regain
(C) stop
(D) rise

15. The word ―detect‖ in line 19 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) build
(B) discover
(C) investigate
(D) capture

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16. Which of the following is a task that a female Psithyrus bumblebees might do?
(A) Collecting pollen
(B) Establishing a nest
(C) Laying eggs
(D) Making honey pots

17. What happens after female cuckoo bumblebees enter a nest?

(A) The workers of the host have to enlarge the existing nest.
(B) They kill all the workers and the queen of the host colony.
(C) The workers of the host have to kill their queen.
(D) They force the workers of the host to do some jobs for them.

18. According to the information in the passage, all of the following terms refer to cuckoo
bumblebees belonging to the subgenus Psithyrus EXCEPT that _______.
(A) they build their own colony in early summer
(B) they have no pollen baskets
(C) they cannot produce wax
(D) they need other species to survive

19. What can be inferred about bumblebees?

(A) Most bumblebees are not social parasites.
(B) 220 species of bumblebees are social parasites.
(C) Bumblebees build their nests close to each other.
(D) Bumblebees do not share their food with other species.

Student Book 4 Reading Comprehension Section 275

Practice Test 2
 Questions 20 -29 are based on the following passage.

Line Built in 1804 as one of four connected townhouses, the Nichols House
Museum is a collection and a house. Jonathan Mason constructed the
buildings to house and to bestow on his four daughters and their family.
Then, the house was purchased by Dr. Arthur Nichols and his wife Elizabeth in
5 1885 and remained as family residence until 1960, when Rose Standish
Nichols, the couple‘s daughter residing the inherited house, died. Based on
her will, in 1961, the Nichols House Museum was open to the public as a
historic house museum as well as a memorial for her parents. This house
museum reflects the domestic life of a typical family of Beacon Hill at the turn
10 of the last century. The building, designed by an early American architect
named Charles Bulfinch, is a fine example of a four-story Federal Period brick
townhouse, of which the service wing and wood shed survive as rare examples
of a mid-nineteenth century service area.
Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history museum, five exhibit
15 rooms on view contain furnishings typical of the households of "Proper
Bostonians" of that era. All furnishings are original to the Nichols family or
specifically to Rose Standish Nichols, the youngest of the Nichols. Oriental
rugs; Asian art; works by America's foremost sculptor of the 19th century,
Augustus Saint-Gaudens; and antiques, acquired on the Nichols family's
20 frequent trips to Europe, fill the rooms. In addition, there are Sheridan style
tables, Flemish tapestries, Italian paintings of the 1700‘s, and table settings
from Luneville, France, all of which attest to the eclectic, yet considered and
refined, aesthetic of the family. Outstanding Boston furniture from the early
decades of the 1800‘s is represented with original wooden furnishings by
25 Thomas Seymour, John Ritto Penniman, Isaac Vose, and Elnathen Taber.

20. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) The reason that Nichols House became a museum
(B) Distinctive features of the Nichols House Museum
(C) How Nichols House compares to Federal buildings
(D) Historical furniture obtained by the Nichols family

21. The phrase ―bestow on‖ in line 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) purchase by
(B) inherit to
(C) bless with
(D) root about

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Practice Test 2
22. What happened at the Nichols house museum between 1885 and 1960?
(A) Jonathan Mason moved in.
(B) The Nichols resided there.
(C) New tapestries were hung.
(D) The house was remodeled.

23. What does the author mean by stating ―This house museum reflects the domestic life of a
typical family of Beacon Hill at the turn of the last century.‖ (lines 8-10)?
(A) The museum shows samples of domesticated life.
(B) Few families lived in Beacon Hill before 1900.
(C) The Nichols house looks like a 19th century household.
(D) Most of the furniture was antiquated and exquisite.

24. The phrase ―that era‖ in line 16 refers to the era of _______.
(A) the end of the 1900‘s
(B) a mid-nineteenth century
(C) nineteenth century
(D) the 1800‘s

25. The word ―acquired‖ in line 19 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) summoned
(B) appreciated
(C) got hold of
(D) formally adapted

26. The word ―Outstanding‖ in line 23 is closest in meaning to _________.

(A) unpaid
(B) stereotypical
(C) upright
(D) exceptional

27. According to the passage, the furnishings in the museum are all of the following EXCEPT
_______.
(A) American carpet
(B) Oriental art works
(C) European antiques
(D) German tables

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Practice Test 2
 28. What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage?
(A) The second paragraph explains detailed collection in the rooms mentioned on the first
paragraph.
(B) Each paragraph describes how the objects in the museum are displayed.
(C) The second paragraph explains the philosophy of collection described on the first
paragraph.
(D) Each paragraph describes a different timeline.

29. Where in the passage does the author explain why the Nichols House became a museum?
(A) Lines 1-2
(B) Lines 4-6
(C) Lines 6-8
(D) Lines 10-13

Questions 30-39 are based on the following passage.

Line The modern magazine originated from printed pamphlets, broadsides,

chapbooks, and almanacs, a few of which gradually began appearing at regular
intervals and was addressed to readers of intellectual interests. One of the earliest
ones was a German publication, Erbauliche Monaths-Unterredungen (―Edifying
5 Monthly Discussions‖), which was issued periodically from 1663 to 1668. In the
early 18th century, Joseph Addison and Richard Steele brought out The Tatler
(1709–11; published three times weekly) and The Spectator (1711–12, 1714;
published daily). These influential magazines contained essays on political and
topical matters that continued to be some of the finest English prose written. In
10 the mid 1700‘s, other critical reviews treating literary and political issues also
started up throughout Western Europe, and at the end of the century specialized
magazines began appearing, devoted to particular fields of intellectual interest.
Starting the early 19th century magazines started to focus on a less learned
audience; they were new types of magazines for entertainment and family
15 enjoyment, among which were the popular weekly, the women's weekly, the
religious and missionary review, the illustrated magazine, and the children's
weekly. These types of magazines grew significantly, stimulated by the general
public's broader interest in social and political affairs and by the middle and lower
classes' growing demand for reading matter. Two examples of the magazines of
20 this period were Youth’s Companion (1827-1941) in the USA and Boy’s Own Paper,
which commenced publishing in Great Britain in 1879.
The early 20th century in the United States saw the introduction of several
magazines that represented more sophisticated literary tastes and that protested
against the remnants of Victorian morality. Among these were Smart Set (1900-
25 1930); Vanity Fair (1913-1936; revived in 1983); and the American Mercury (1924-
278 Reading Comprehension Section Student Book 4
Practice Test 2
 1951), edited by the iconoclastic critics H. L. Mencken and George Jean Nathan.
Another development in specialized magazines, the publishing of magazines
comprising a variety of reading material digested from other sources, was
exemplified by the pocket-sized Reader's Digest (1922). Larger audiences were
30 reached with the establishment of more general, although serious, literary and
opinion magazines.

30. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(A) Various types of printed media
(B) Topics discussed in modern magazines
(C) Development of magazines
(D) History of magazines in the United States

31. Why does the author mention Joseph Addison and Richard Steele in line 6?
(A) They set up the first specific magazines for certain readers.
(B) They spread the most recent political issues in their magazines.
(C) They refused the publishing of entertainment magazines.
(D) They published their magazines using a German publication.

32. According to the passage, The Tatler and The Spectator were the earlier magazines with all
of the following characteristics EXCEPT_______.
(A) They focused on archeology
(B) They discussed political issues
(C) They were published at regular intervals
(D) They contained some excellent English compositions

33. The passage suggests that magazines experienced growing demand for which of the
following reasons?
(A) They can accommodate readers‘ dissatisfaction.
(B) They can cater needs for various readers.
(C) They help readers understand the social issues around them.
(D) They satisfy public‘s demand for reading materials.

34. To say that ―19th century magazines started to focus on a less learned audience‖ (Lines 13-
14) means that _______.
(A) the magazines reviewed the best literary work
(B) the magazines provided lighter contents
(C) the magazines grew because of their cheap prices
(D) the magazines understood the readers better

Student Book 4 Reading Comprehension Section 279

Practice Test 2
 35. The word ―they‖ in line 14 refers to _______.
(A) specialized magazines
(B) particular fields
(C) 19th century magazines
(D) audience

36. The word ―commenced‖ in line 21 is closest in meaning to _______

(A) assured
(B) launched
(C) started
(D) generated

37. The word ―remnants‖ in line 24 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) designs
(B) lifestyles
(C) objectives
(D) fragments

38. The word ―digested‖ in line 28 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) taken
(B) copied
(C) duplicated
(D) hidden

39. In what order does the author discuss various magazines in the passage?
(A) Spatial order
(B) Chronological order
(C) Cause and effect order
(D) Comparison and contrast order

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Practice Test 2
Questions 40-50 are based on the following passage.

Line Over the last few years, natural hazards have caused catastrophic consequences
across the globe. Geomagnetic storms—a type of space weather resulted from large,
violent eruptions of plasma and magnetic fields of the Sun‘s corona―are much less
frequent, but have the potential to cause damage across the globe with a single event.
5 In the past, geomagnetic storms disrupted space-based assets as well as terrestrial
assets such as electric power transmission networks. As a natural event, geomagnetic
storms pose a systemic risk that requires attention.
Geomagnetic storms are caused by a solar wind shock wave and cloud of magnetic
field which interacts with the Earth‘s magnetic field, extending from Earth‘s inner core
10 outward into the Earth‘s upper atmosphere and having the poles in a reverse order as
the geographic poles. The storms occur when the pressure of the solar wind (particles
ejected by the Sun) increases and compresses the magnetosphere, region of Earth‘s
magnetic influence. This will cause the solar wind magnetic field to interact with the
Earth magnetic field, adding more energy into the magnetosphere. The interaction
15 increases movement of plasma (ionized gas) through the magnetosphere and electric
currents in the magnetosphere and ionosphere, ionized layer in upper atmosphere. This
happening causes disturbance to the interplanetary medium—thinly scattered matter
that exists between the planets and other bodies of the solar system. Such a
disturbance is called a geomagnetic storm. There are several space phenomena which
20 are caused by geomagnetic storms. These include geomagnetically induced currents
(GIC) which disrupts electric power distribution, ionospheric disturbances which cause
radio and radar scintillation, disruption of navigation by magnetic compass and auroral
displays at much lower latitudes than normal.

40. What is the main point of the first paragraph?

(A) The Sun‘s corona possesses strong magnetic fields.
(B) Natural hazards are caused by many factors.
(C) Electric power may be influenced by geomagnetic storms.
(D) Geomagnetic storms are potential hazards to space-based assets.

41. The word ―disrupted‖ in line 5 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) formed
(B) destroyed
(C) disturbed
(D) reduced

Student Book 4 Reading Comprehension Section 281

Practice Test 2
 42. The phrase ―in a reverse order‖ in line 10 is closest in meaning to _______.
(A) moving backward
(B) in an opposing manner
(C) changing in directions
(D) in a different series

43. It can be inferred from the passage that _______.

(A) the solar wind continuously interacts with the earth‘s magnetic field
(B) the interaction requires bigger energy from the solar wind
(C) other planetary objects in the solar system may experience geomagnetic storms
(D) electric black-outs occurs because of geomagnetic storms

44. The interaction between solar wind and earth‘s magnetic fields happens when _______.
(A) cloud of magnetic field extends on the Earth‘s upper atmosphere
(B) the magnetosphere experiences compression from the solar wind
(C) the magnetosphere releases excessive energy into the space
(D) the other bodies in the solar system are exposed to the solar wind

45. Which of the following pictures best represent the Earth‘s imaginary internal magnet or the
Earth‘s magnetic pole?

N S

(A) (B)

N S

(C) (D)

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Practice Test 2
46. The word ―compresses‖ in line 12 is closest in meaning to _______.
(A) fills
(B) compacts
(C) magnifies
(D) expands

47. The word ―currents‖ in line 16 is closest in meaning to _______.

(A) force
(B) magnetism
(C) waves
(D) flows

48. What is the cause of radio and radar emission?

(A) Magnetic compass disruption
(B) Displaced of lower auroras
(C) Problems in ionosphere
(D) Magnetic poles changing

49. According to the passage, all of the following statements about geomagnetic storms are
true EXCEPT _______.
(A) geomagnetic storms are the result of the solar wind shock wave
(B) geomagnetic storms causes problems to the interplanetary medium
(C) the increasing of the solar wind is caused by the geographic poles
(D) geomagnetic storms create some space phenomena

50. Where in the passage does the author mention the impact of geomagnetic storms to
navigation?
(A) Lines 14-16
(B) Lines 16-18
(C) Lines 18-19
(D) Lines 20-23

THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST.

Student Book 4 Reading Comprehension Section 283

Practice Test 2