SAMAR COLLEGES, INC.

Catbalogan City
JUNIOR HIGH SCHOOL DEPARTMENT

1st QUARTER EXAMINATION in GRADE 10 SCIENCE

Directions: Choose and write the letter of the correct answer on your answer sheet.

1. Which layer of the Earth makes up most of it?

a. core c. mantle
b. crust d. lithosphere
2. Which layer of the Earth is made up of mostly liquid?
a. crust c. mantle
b. inner core d. outer core
3. Which layer is the interface between the mantle and the outer core?
a. asthenosphere c. lithosphere
b. Gutenberg discontinuity d. moho
4. As you go deeper inside the Earth, __________.
a. it gets cooler, drier, and easier to travel.
b. it gets hotter, materials get denser and pressure increases.
c. the temperature increases, but the pressure decreases.
d. the temperature stays the same, but the pressure increases.
5. If you are a geologist, which of the following would help you know the internal
structure of the Earth?
a. Analyzing the behavior of seismic waves as it traveled through Earth.
b. Analyzing volcanic samples.
c. Digging deep into Earth.
d. Using ground-penetrating radar.
6. The term Pangaea comes from the Greek roots pan and gaea that means
__________.
a. all animals c. all plants
b. all lands d. all seas
7. The Continental Drift was proposed by __________.
a. Alfred Wegener c. Galileo Galilei
b. Isaac Newton d. Guttenberg
8. Scientists have been convinced of the continental drift theory by fossils of a plant
called __________.
a. carboniferous c. gondwana
b. glossopteris d. mesosaurus
9. In pushing the continental drift theory, Alfred Wegener referred to similarities between
which two continents?
a. Asia and Africa c. South America and Africa
b. Asia and Europe d. South America and North America
10. Which of the following reasons validate why continents move according to Harry
Hess?
a. pull of gravity c. seafloor movement
b. rotation of Earth d. wind
11. Most geologists rejected Alfred Wegener’s idea of continental drift because
a. They were afraid of a new idea.
b. Wegener could not identify a force that could move the continents.
c. Wegener used several different types of evidence to support his hypothesis.
d. Wegener was interested in what Earth was like millions of years ago.

12. Plates under landmasses are called __________.

a. continental plates c. oceanic plates
b. ocean floor d. ridge
13. Plates under the oceans are called __________.
a. continental plates c. oceanic plates
b. ocean floor d. ridge
14. The space between two tectonic plates is called___________.
a. boundary c. rift
b. fault d. trench
15. A type of plate boundary where two plates move toward each other is __________.
a. convergent c. subduction
b. divergent d. transform
16. The forces that either push tectonic plates toward each other or pull them
apart are called__________.
a. driving forces c. outside forces
b. Newtonian forces d. resisting forces
17. When two tectonic plates collide, the oceanic crust usually subducts beneath the
continental crust because it is
a. denser than continental crust c. thicker than continental crust
b. less dense than continental crust d. thinner than continental crust
18. If you will visit a place in the Pacific known to be along converging plates, which of
these should you not expect to see?
a. active volcanoes c. rift valleys
b. mountain ranges d. volcanic islands
19. You are an oceanographer and want to map the ocean floor on the east coast of
the Philippines. As you do your study, you noticed that there is a portion of the
ocean floor which is relatively much deeper than the rest. What most likely is that
deeper part?
a. linear sea c. rift valley
b. oceanic ridge d. trench
20. Magma is _____________.
a. melted rock c. the reason volcanoes form
b. solid rock d. the source of all igneous rocks
21. The opening of a volcano is referred as ____________.
a. cone c. dome
b. crater d. vent
22. The area which is characterized by an intense volcanic activity is known as
__________.
a. Equator c. Pacific Ocean
b. North Pole d. Pacific Ring of Fire
23. Volcanoes are formed through __________.
a. conduction c. radiation
b. convection d. subduction
24. The stratovolcano that lies on a subduction zone where Eurasian Plate descends
below the Philippine Plate at the Manila trench is the __________.
a. Mt. Apo c. Mt. Pinatubo
b. Mt. Mayon d. Mt. Taal
25. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning volcanoes?
a. Many active volcanoes occur due to plate tectonics.
b. Their name originated from stories of Vulcan, who was the blacksmith for the Roman gods
c. They are vents in the Earth’s crust through which lava, rock fragments, hot vapor and gases
are ejected.
d. They only occur on land, not underwater.

26. Which of the following is usually observed before a volcanic eruption?

a. Dry air is felt.
b. Floods and tsunamis occur.
c. Rains become frequent.
d. Seismic activity seems to increase in frequency.
27. Sarah was making a list of mountains she thought were composite volcanoes. Look
at her list and indicate which one Sarah will discover she was mistaken about once
she does her research.
 a. Mt. Everest c. Mt. St. Helens
b. Mt. Rainier d. Mt. Vesuvius
28. It is the sudden shaking of the ground.
a. earthquake c. storm surge
b. volcanic eruption d. typhoon
29. The point within the Earth where tectonic plate rocks start to break and where
seismic energy is released.
a. dip c. fault plane
b. epicenter d. focus
30. The point on the crust directly above the hypocenter.
a. epicenter c. focus
b. fault plane d. slip
31. The instrument used to record seismic waves.
a. barometer c. seismometer
b. seismograph d. thermometer
32. It is a combination of strike-slip and dip slip.
a. normal fault c. reverse fault
b. oblique strike-slip d. strike-slip
33. Which of the following is true about P- and S- waves?
a. Either of P- or S-waves are required to triangulate the location of the
epicenter.
b. Only P-waves are detected in seismographic stations.
c. P- waves travel faster than S- waves.
d. S-waves reach the surface of the Earth faster than P-waves do.
34. The San Andreas Fault is an example of a fault where nearly vertical fault
planes slide in parallel but opposite directions, which type of fault is illustrated?
a. normal fault c. strike-slip fault
b. reverse fault d. thrust fault
35. An earthquake occurs and you are inside a building, which is the appropriate
thing to do during this disaster?
a. Hold under a sturdy table.
b. Run to the highest floor of the building.
c. Stay besides concrete structures.
d. Stay near glass windows.
36. These are landforms that rise well above the ground and have steep slopes
and a peak higher than a hill.
a. mountains c. valley
b. plateau d. volcano
37. These are series of mountains formed from the convergence of two
continental plates.
a. hotspots c. volcanic arcs
b. mountain ranges d. volcanic islands
38. This type of mountain range is not formed from the Earth’s internal activity, but
through rock weathering.
a. dome mountain range c. fault-block mountain range
b. erosion-formed mountain range d. folded mountain range

39. These mountain ranges are structured from accumulated lava flows, pyroclastic,
and other igneous rocks piled up over time.
a. dome mountain ranges c. fault-block mountain ranges
b. erosion-formed mountain ranges d. volcanic mountain ranges
40. The Marinduque Mountains in the Philippines is an example of which type of
mountain range?
a. erosion-formed mountain range c. folded mountain range
b. fault-block mountain range d. volcanic mountain range
41. Which of the following convergence caused the Andes Mountain Range?
a. Eurasian Plate and South American Plate.
b. Indian Plate and Eurasian Plate.
c. Nazca Plate and South American Plate.
 d. South American Plate and North American Plate.
42. Why is it dangerous to live near high mountains?
a. It is prone to landslides.
b. Spring water is abundant in high mountains.
c. The air is cool and fresh.
d. We can plant many trees.
43. The percentage of water covering the Earth’s surface is about__________.
a. 50% c. 70%
b. 60% d. 80%
44. The largest ocean in the world is the __________.
a. Arctic Ocean c. Indian Ocean
b. Atlantic Ocean d. Pacific Ocean
45. An underground reservoir of water is called __________.
a. aquifer c. dam
b. artesian well d. water table
46. The factor that differentiates marine ecosystem from fresh water ecosystem is
__________.
a. acidity c. salinity
b. purity d. turbidity
47. The biggest use of water worldwide comes from __________.
a. agriculture c. industrial
b. domestic d. in-stream use
48. Which of the following is the correct order of processes in the hydrologic cycle?
a. condensation – percolation – evaporation – precipitation
b. evaporation – condensation – precipitation – percolation
c. percolation– precipitation – condensation – evaporation
d. precipitation – evaporation – percolation – condensation
49. Which of the following is the best source of extending today’s supply of freshwater?
a. groundwater c. surface water
b. recycling waste water d. the ocean
50. Water is a renewable resource that is continuously recycled. Which of the following
solutions of the government would help prevent or clean up water pollution?
a. Ban the dumping of chemicals into water systems by passing national
laws and legislation.
b. Increase ground water and surface water contamination by the input of
toxic chemicals.
c. Maximize the use of pesticides and fertilizers, especially near bodies of
water.
d. Treat sewage improperly before releasing them to bodies of water.

SAMAR COLLEGES, INC.

Catbalogan City
JUNIOR HIGH SCHOOL DEPARTMENT

1st QUARTER EXAMINATION in GRADE 9 SCIENCE

Directions: Choose and write the letter of the correct answer on your answer sheet.

1. The term respiration refers to __________.

a. breathing c. food digestion
b. blood transport d. waste removal
2. The major organ of the human respiratory system is the __________.
a. heart c. muscles
b. lungs d. small intestines
3. The structure that moves up and down to alter the volume of the chest cavity is the
 __________.
a. diaphragm c. nostrils
b. larynx d. trachea
4. An organ which is also known as the windpipe is the __________.
a. alveoli c. larynx
b. bronchi d. trachea
5. The little branching stems that appear like tiny tubes the size of twigs are the
__________.
a. alveoli c. bronchus
b. bronchioles d. pleura
6. Which is the pathway of oxygen to the lungs?
a. nose – bronchus – trachea – larynx – pharynx – alveolus
b. mouth – larynx – pharynx – alveolus – bronchus – bronchiole
c. mouth – pharynx – larynx – trachea – bronchus – bronchiole – alveolus
d. mouth – trachea – bronchiole – alveolus – pharynx – bronchus – larynx
7. What happens to the air pressure in your chest cavity when you inhale?
a. Air pressure fluctuates. c. Air pressure is increased.
b. Air pressure is reduced. d. Air pressure stays the same.
8. Which is the pathway of oxygen from the lungs to body tissues?
a. alveoli – bloodstream – red blood cells – tissues
b. alveoli – red blood cells – bloodstream – tissues
c. red blood cells – alveoli – bloodstream – tissues
d. red blood cells – bloodstream – alveoli - tissues
9. A long term smoking habit can destroy the cilia along the lining of the air passages.
How might this affect a smoker’s health?
a. The smoker will have very limited air.
b. The smoker will have difficulty in breathing.
c. The smoker will not be able to filter pollutants.
d. The smoker’s respiratory tract will be blocked.
10. Prevention is always better than cure. Which of the following ways does not show
the keeping of the respiratory system healthy?
a. Eating a healthy diet.
b. Excessive alcohol intake.
c. If under stress, talk about it with a trustworthy person.
d. Stopping cigarette smoking.
11. These are round air sacs that serve as the site of respiration in the lungs.
a. alveoli c. bronchus
b. bronchioles d. pleura

12. When you inhale, your lungs __________.

a. deflate c. inflate, then deflate
b. inflate d. removes gas
13. The pumping organ of the human body is the __________.
a. eyes c. heart
b. blood d. lungs
14. The chambers of the heart that carry deoxygenated blood are the __________.
a. left atrium and the left ventricle c. right and left side ventricles
b. right and left side atria d. right atrium and the right ventricle
15. A pale yellowish liquid that is about ninety-two percent water is __________.
a. blood plasma c. red blood cells
b. blood platelets d. white blood cells
16. Red blood cells is also known as __________.
a. erythrocytes c. megakaryocytes
b. leukocytes d. thrombocytes
17. The colorless component of the blood that does not contain hemoglobin are the
__________.
a. erythrocytes c. megakaryocytes
b. leukocytes d. thrombocytes
18. All of the following are true about the human circulatory system except __________.
a. Leukocytes fight microbes that may cause diseases.
b. Our heart rate changes in response to our physical activity.
c. Our veins have thinner walls than our arteries.
d. The atria pump blood out of the heart.
19. All of the following are correct about red blood cells except __________.
a. They are formed from the bone marrow.
b. They are known as thrombocytes.
c. They lack a nucleus.
d. They live for a period of 120 days.
20. All of the following pertains to blood clotting except __________.
a. erythrocytes c. fibrinogen
b. fibrin d. platelets
21. Mr. Santos was found out to have high blood pressure, the “silent killer” disease. If
you are the daughter or son of Mr. Santos, which of the following lifestyle would you
suggest that he will follow to minimize its risk of attacks?
a. Eating food high in fats and bad cholesterol.
b. Give him lots of fruits and vegetables in his diet.
c. Let him lay down the whole day.
d. Regular medications is not required.
22. A boy met an accident. He cut a large blood vessel in his hand. Every few seconds,
the blood would spurt out. What does this tell you about the kind of blood vessel
that was cut?
a. He cut the arteries in his hand.
b. He cut the capillaries in his hand.
c. He cut the lymph nodes in his hand.
D. He cut the veins in his hand.
23. The exchange of gases, nutrients, and hormones happen.
a. arteries c. valves
b. capillaries d. veins
24. Arteries have the thickest walls among the blood vessels because
a. there are more muscles around them
b. they are deeply imbedded in the muscles
c. they are the strongest blood vessels
d. they receive tremendous pressure while blood passes through them

25. It refers to the passing of characteristics from parents to offspring.

a. Biology c. Heredity
b. Genetics d. Variation
26. These are specific segments of DNA carrying the observable characteristics of
individuals.
a. autosomes c. histones
b. genes d. phenotype
27. These are alternative forms of a trait.
a. alleles c. histones
b. chromosomes d. phenotype
28. It is the gene that is responsible for the observed trait.
a. alleles c. phenotype
b. genotype d. Punnett square
29. It is the observable expressions of the trait.
a. alleles c. phenotype
b. genotype d. Punnett square
30. Which law or principle explains the separation of homologous chromosomes during
meiosis?
a. Law of Independent Assortment c. Principle of Dominance
b. Law of Segregation d. Principle of Recessiveness
31. Which law or principle states that the inheritance of one trait is not affected by the
inheritance of another trait?
a. Law of Independent Assortment c. Principle of Dominance
 b. Law of Segregation d. Principle of Recessiveness
32. Which law or principle states that one unit factor in a pair may mask the expression
of the other?
a. Law of Independent Assortment c. Multiple Alleles
b. Law of Segregation d.Principle of Dominance/Recessiveness
33. If a heterozygous tall plant (Tt) is crossed with a homozygous short plant (tt), how
many percent of the offspring are heterozygous tall?
a. 25 % c. 75 %
b. 50 % d. 100 %
34. A homozygous red-flowered plant was crossed with a homozygous white-flowered
plant and resulted in an offspring with a third phenotype, pink flowers. Which of the
following demonstrates this case?
a. codominance c. multiple alleles
b. incomplete dominance d. sex-linked trait
35. A type of a chromosome that determines the gender of an individual.
a. autosome c. sex chromosome
b. oogenesis d. spermatogenesis
36. It is the arm of a chromosome.
a. centromere c. diploid
b. chromatids d. haploid
37. A genotype with a symbol Aa is said to be __________.
a. dominant c. homozygous
b. heterozygous d. recessive
38. The variety of life forms that thrive on Earth is referred as __________.
a. biology c. diversity
b. biodiversity d. species
39. The set of individuals that have the same distinct characteristics are called
__________.
a. biomes c. ecosystem
b. diversitas d. species

40. The complete disappearance of the members of a species from Earth is called
__________.
a. conservation c. fragmentation
b. extinction d. preservation
41. An endangered species is __________.
a. a species growing on public land
b. a species in danger of extinction
c. a species that has disappeared entirely
d. an organism brought to a place where it has not lived before
42. The sum total of genetic information contained in the genes of organisms is referred
as __________.
a. ecosystem diversity c. genetic diversity
b. functional diversity d. species diversity
43. Which affects biodiversity loss the most?
a. habitat destruction c. pollution
b. introduced species d. population growth
44. Which level of biodiversity involves habitats and communities?
a. ecosystem diversity c. genetic diversity
b. functional diversity d. species diversity
45. Which group of organisms are more prone to extinction?
a. those with high reproductive rate
b. those with less commercial value
c. those with smaller size of offspring
d. those with specialized diet
46. Why is biodiversity important to ecosystem?
a. It allows animals to feed permanently from one type of plant.
b. It helps population adapt to ecological changes.
 c. It increases at each level of the food chain.
d. It reduces the number of insects in a given ecosystem.
47. As stewards of nature, which of the following things will you do to protect
biodiversity?
a. Buying exotic pets.
b. Cutting down trees including the young ones.
c. Lead in ceasing the cleanup drives in your communities.
d. Performing the 4R’s responsibly.
48. It refers to the different biological and chemical processes in an ecosystem.
a. ecosystem diversity c. genetic diversity
b. functional diversity d. species diversity
49. It refers to the measure of the number of different species in an area.
a. ecosystem diversity c. genetic diversity
b. functional diversity d. species diversity
50. How many species have been named and classified by scientists?
a. 5 000 – 400 000 c. 1 – 2 million
b. 500 000 – 1 million d. 10 – 50 million