NỘI DUNG TRỌNG TÂM

ÔN THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8, 9

PART 1: LISTENING (5pts)
Section 1: Multiple choice question (different talks).
Section 2: Gap fill.
Section 3: Multiple choice question (interview /monologue).

PART 2: VOCABULARY (2pts)

I. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each question.
(word choice, collocation, spoken expression, conjunction, idiom, phrasal verb …)
For example:
His _____ of the safety regulations really has resulted in a number of minor accidents.
A. disregard B. unfamiliarity C. carelessness D. inattention
II. Give the correct form(s) of words.
For example:
We are extremely 1_____ (impress) by her 2______ (beautify).

PART 3: READING (5pts)

I. Multiple choice question (1.0 pt)
Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Put a circle
on the letter indicating the correct answer. There is an example at the beginning (0).
It is well-known that (0) ______ expectancy is longer in Japan than in most other countries. A
(1) ______ report also shows that Japan has the longest health expectancy in the world. A healthy
long life is the result of the (2) ______ in social environment. Scientists are trying to work (3)
______ exactly what keeps elderly Japanese people so healthy, and whether there is a lesson to be
learnt from their lifestyles for the rest of us. Should we (4) ______ any changes to our eating
habits, for instance, or go jogging each day before breakfast? Is there some secret ingredient in
the Japanese diet that is particularly (5) ______ to the human body?
0. A. living B. alive ©. life D. live
1. A. late B. recent C. contemporary D. new
2. A. increase B. progress C. growth D. improvement
3. A. for B. out C. in D. off
4. A. do B. make C. set D. give
5. A. helpful B. supportive C. advantageous D. beneficial
II. Read a passage answer the question. (2 pts)
III. IELTS Reading: (T/F/NG; Headlines matching; filling the missing information … (2pts)
PART 3: WRITING (5pts)
I. Email/Letter writing (2.0pts)
II. Paragraph writing (3.0pts)
For grade 8: 100-120 words
For grade 9: 150 words
PART 5: Speaking (3pts)
Section 1: Picture describing (1pt)
Section 2: Topic related to the picture given
Topic speaking for grade 8:
1. Free time activities
2. Country life vs. city life
3. Customs and traditions
4. Natural disasters
5. Environment protection
6. Life on the other planets
Topic speaking for grade 9:
1. City life
2. Viet Nam now and in the past
3. Healthy lifestyle
4. Natural wonders
5. Tourism
6. Future jobs
7. English in the world

REFERENCE MATERIALS
- Cambridge FCE English test 1, 2, 3 (Part 1, 2, 4)
- IELTS Cambridge Practice Test 1-10
- Collocation in use
- Check Vocabulary for TOEFL, FCE, IELTS
- Destination B1, B2
 SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 9
ĐỀ MINH HỌA NĂM HỌC: 2021-2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian làm bài:150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi này gồm 04 phần, 0 trang.

SECTION A: LISTENING (5.0 points)

Hướng dẫn thí sinh: 
- Phần thi nghe gồm 3 bài. Thí sinh được nghe mỗi bài 2 lần liên tiếp. 
- Thí sinh đọc kĩ yêu cầu của từng bài trước khi nghe.
- Hướng dẫn chi tiết bằng Tiếng Anh đã có trong đĩa nghe. Bắt đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín
hiệu nhạc.

Part I: You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For question 1 – 8, choose
the best answer A, B or C.
1. You hear a film review on the radio. What criticism does the reviewer make?
A. the acting is poor. B. the music is unsuitable. C. the story is difficult to follow.
2. You hear two students talking about a holiday abroad. What do they agree about?
A. Foreign travel is harmful to the environment.
B. It is becoming more expensive to travel abroad.
C. Holidays are more enjoyable if you go abroad.
3. You hear a woman talking on the radio about a place called Dolphin Bay. Where did she first
hear about Dolphin Bay?
A. on the Internet B. on the radio C. on television
4. You overhear a woman talking outside the post office. Why had she gone to the post office?
A. to collect a parcel B. to buy stamps C. to send a parcel
5. You hear part of a discussion on local radio. What is the programme about?
A. building new housing B. protecting wildlife C. improving road safety
6. You hear a man talking about motorcycling. What does he regret?
A. riding his motorcycle too fast
B. doing a particular journey by motorcycle
C. buying a motorcycle
7. You over hear a student talking about her new college. How does she feel about the college?
A. She is finding some of the lessons difficult.
B. Some of her new classmates are unfriendly.
C. It is too far away from her home.
8. You overhear a driving instructor talking to a learner after the lesson has ended. What mistake
did the learner make?
A. He ignored a road sign. B. He was driving too fast. C. He failed to look in the mirror.

Part II: Complete the notes below. Write one word and/ or a number for each blank.
Transport Survey
Name: Luisa 1………………………..
Address: 2……………………….. White Stone Rd
Area: Bradfield
Postcode: 3 ………………………..
 Occupation: 4 ………………………..
Reason for visit to town: to go to the 5 ………………………..
Suggestions for improvement:
 better  6……………………….. 
 have more footpaths
 more frequent 7 ……………………….. 
Things that would encourage cycling to work:
 having 8 ………………………..  parking places for bicycles.
 being able to use a 9………………………..at work.
 the opportunity to have cycling 10……………………….. on busy roads.

Part III:
You hear a conversation with Andrea Thompson who is Britain's strongest woman. Listen
and choose the best answer A, B or C.
1. When asked how strong she is, Andrea explains __________
A. that she could lift a big animal.
B. that she could lift a vehicle.
C. that she could pull a hippo.
2. How does Andrea describe her feeling towards sport as a kid?
A. She had no interest in sport at that time.
B. She enjoyed some events, but was not really convinced.
C. She was always passionate about sport.
3. Andrea says her initial reason for getting involved in weight lifting was _______
A. to motivate her younger sister.
B. to compete with her older sister.
C. to support her sister’s attempt to lose weight.
4. How did Andrea feel when some men refused to train with her?
A. She didn’t care because she was enjoying herself.
B. She felt humiliated.
C. She felt she had something to prove.
5. Andrea explains that when she entered the strong woman competition in 2015,
A. she was well informed because she had done her research.
B. she had a lot of experience.
C. she knew nothing about the details.
6. How did the coach she approached react to her request for help?
A. With disbelief. B. With admiration. C. With irritation.
7. What drives her to push herself as much as she does?
A. The pressure from her family.
B. The pleasure of being the best.
C. The pride that her kids can see her win.

SECTION B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY. (2.0 POINTS)

Part I. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer questions. Write your
answers in the box provided. (1.0 point).
1. John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
Laura: “______.”
A. Yes, it's an absurd idea B. There's no doubt about it
C. Well, that's very surprising D. Of course not. You bet
2. Why don’t you buy oranges when they are much______than apples?
A. as expensive B. not expensive C. less expensive D. lesser expensive
3. With a wide range of ______ bags to suit all seasons, we can ensure to give you the best
possible chance for a good night’s sleep.
A. blue polyester sleeping B. polyester sleeping blue
C. sleeping blue polyester D. blue sleeping polyester
4. ______I’d like to help you out, I’m afraid I just haven’t got any spare money now.
A. Much as B. Try as C. However D. Despite
5. Very little was said about his failure, _______?
A. was it B. wasn't it C. was there D. wasn't he
6. Columbus was one of ________ first people to cross _______ Atlantic.
A. the- Ф B. the- the C. Ф - Ф D. Ф – the
7. I can’t find my purse anywhere. I must______it at the cinema.
A. leave B. have left C. be leaving D. have been leaving
8. We don’t sell newspapers because there is no_______for them.
A. demand B. requirement C. claim D. request
9. A policeman suddenly appeared, so the thief quickly ______on a motorbike.
A. took in B. made off C. handed in D. took over
10. She insisted that the reporter ______her as his source of information.
A. didn’t mention B. doesn’t mention C. hadn’t mentioned D. not mention
Part II. Use the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answers in the box
provided. (1.0 point)
FREUD AND DREAMS
Sigmund Freud is regarded as the (0. FOUND) founder of psychoanalysis. His work has been (1.
INFLUENCE)_____ in many areas but he is perhaps best known for having drawn for our (2.
ATTEND)_____ to dreams, which he believed were clues to inner conflicts. The fact that a
dream is (3. ESSENTIAL) _____disguised expression of what is happening in the unconscious
mind means that it is difficult for the dreamer to understand its (4. SIGNIFY) _____. The Freud
believed that the sleeping mind resorted to a whole range of unconcious wishes in forms which
would prevent the dreamer from having any (5. AWARE) _____of their true nature. In Freud’s
view, interpreting the meaning of the dream required a psychoanalyst with an expert (6. KNOW)
_____of how dream desires.The psychoanalyst’s lack of personal (7. INVOLVE) _____ in the
dream would enable to see the dream objectively. According to Freud, dreams use a
(8. MYSTERY) _____ symbolic language quite different from that of waking life, but the fact is
there is no hard (9. EVIDENT) for believing that dreams really do reflect our
unconscious wishes. Nevertheless, Freud (10. DOUBT) _____ made a major contribution to
twentieth-century. Thoughts and many useful insights into psychological processes have been
gained through his work.
SECTION C: READING (5.0 points)
Part I. Read the text below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each space. Put
a circle on the letter indicating the correct answer. There is an example at the beginning (0).
Write your answers in the boxes provided. (1,0 point).
THE WOLFMAN
Most people would be paralyzed with fear if they saw a wolf. But not Shaun Ellis. Shaun, also
known as the Wolfman, has been studying wolves for over 20 years. In order to gain .... (0) ....
into the behavior of these animals, Shaun spent seven years in the USA studying wolves, and
even living among them. Then in 2005, he spent 18 months living with three young wolves at a
wildlife park in the UK. Having been born in ... (1) ...., none of the wolves had ever had a chance
to ... (2) .... with other wolves. But Shaun knew a lot about wolves so he ... (3) .... up with an
unusual idea: he would move in with the animals and teach them how to behave like wolves in
their ......(4) ...habitat. Not .... (5) ..., no one expected him to carry ... (6) … this experiment
successfully. However, after living with the wolves for 18 months, Shaun.... (7) ..... his goal. The
animals even accepted him as their leader. Shaun's time with the wolves and the knowledge he
acquired about them has paid ... (8) ... in another way. Shaun has been able to give ... (9) ... to
farmers on how to protect their animals from wolves that live in the ... (10) ... of their farms.
B
0. A. instinct B. insight C. experience D. view
.
1. A. welfare B. refuge C. care D. captivity
2. A. raise B. interact C. benefit D. react
3. A. thought B. brought C. came D. found
4. A. natural B. typical C. wild D. endangered
5. A. particularly B. indifferently C. exceptionally D. surprisingly
6. A. out B. off C. for D. though
7. A. dedicated B. developed C. achieved D. succeeded
8. A. off B. up C. in D. out
9. A. solution B. assistance C. service D. charity
10. A. visibility B. location C. district D. vicinity
Part II. Read the passage and answer the questions. Write your answers in the boxes
provided. (2,0 points)
Sleep is a natural process, and although a lot have been written about the subject, it is still
surrounded by mystery. It is used by some as an escape from the world, and regarded by others as
an irritating waste of time: some people get by on very little, others claim they cannot exist
without at least ten hours, but nobody can do without sleep completely.
Our night’s sleep does not just consist of a steady phase of gradually deepening sleep. It
alternates between two stages: Non-dreaming or ordinary sleep, and REM (rapid eye movement)
or dreaming sleep. As soon as we fall asleep, we go straight into non-dreaming sleep for an hour
or so, then into REM sleep for about 15 minutes, then back into non dreaming sleep. It alternates
in this way for the rest of the night, with non-dreaming sleep tending to last longer at the
beginning of the night. Non-dreaming sleep occupies three quarters of our night’s sleep, about a
quarter of it deep and the rest fairly light.
It is widely believed that sleep repairs the body and makes good the damage caused by
being awake. However, its main function is to refresh the brain. Experts believe that probably
only about two thirds of our sleep is necessary for repairing and refreshing the brain, with the
most valuable sleep coming in the first few hours of the non-dreaming period, the last few hours
of sleep are not so essential. The brain can manage quite well with reduced sleep as long as it is
uninterrupted sleep.
The quality of sleep is important. A study conducted in the USA looked at short sleepers,
who slept for 5.5 hours on average, and long sleepers, who had 8.5 hours or more. It is discovered
after a variety of tests that the long sleepers were poor sleepers, had twice as much REM sleep as
the short sleepers, appeared to sleep longer to make up for poor sleep, and did not wake up in the
morning refreshed. Similarly, people who sleep deeply are not necessarily getting a better quality
of sleep than shallow sleepers. Deep sleepers can feel tired the following day, so six hours of
good sleep is worth more than eight hours of troubled sleep.
1. This passage is the most likely taken from ________ .
A. A doctor’s description B. A health magazine
C. An advertisement D. A fashion magazine
2. It can be concluded from the first paragraph that________.
A. people need equal time of sleep
B. sleep remains a puzzle
C. sleep is among the processes of the nature
D. everything about sleep has been brought to light
3. The word “irritating” in paragraph 1 most likely means________.
A. calming B. soothing C. annoying D. comforting
4. All the following statements are true, EXCEPT for________.
A. our night’s sleep occurs in a straight line of only two phases.
B. all sleeps are similar in the alternatives of the two stages during the night.
C. we spend only 25 percent of our night’s sleeping time dreaming.
D. we often have no dreams right after we fall asleep.
5. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to________ .
A. our night’s sleep B. the ordinary sleep C. the REM D. the night
6. The word “occupies” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.
A. accounts for B. takes care of C. works out D. goes up
7. Unlike the common belief, sleep helps ________.
A. not to be awake B. us to repair our body
C. us to fix the damage happening by day D. our brain to rest and recover
8. The study in the USA suggested that_______.
A. the fewer hours we sleep, the more we dream
B. Deep sleep means better sleep
C. the type of sleep is more important than its length
D. Six hours of sleep is better than eight hours.
9. Which of the following is NOT discussed in the passage?
A. The role of the sleep B. The problem with sleepless people
C. Types of sleep D. The circle of a sleep
10. It can be inferred from the experts’ ideas that________.
A. if we can sleep uninterruptedly, it is not necessary to sleep the whole night
B. REM makes good our brain
C. Nearly 70 % of our sleep is invaluable
D. Dream enables our body to refresh.
Part III. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. (2,0 points)
Light Pollution is a threat to Wildlife, Safety and the Starry Sky
A. After hours of driving south in the pitch-black darkness of the Nevada desert, a dome of hazy
gold suddenly appears on the horizon. Soon, a road sign confirms the obvious: Las Vegas 30
miles. Looking skyward, you notice that the Big Dipper is harder to find than it was an hour ago.
B. Light pollution—the artificial light that illuminates more than its intended target area—has
become a problem of increasing concern across the country over the past 15 years. In the suburbs,
where over-lit shopping mall parking lots are the norm, only 200 of the Milky Way’s 2,500 stars
are visible on a clear night. Even fewer can be seen from large cities. In almost every town, big
and small, street lights beam just as much light up and out as they do down, illuminating much
more than just the street. Almost 50 percent of the light emanating from street lamps misses its
intended target, and billboards, shopping centres, private homes and skyscrapers are similarly
over-illuminated.
C. America has become so bright that in a satellite image of the United States at night, the outline
of the country is visible from its lights alone. The major cities are all there, in bright clusters:
New York, Boston, Miami, Houston, Los Angeles, Seattle, Chicago, and, of course, Las Vegas.
Mark Adams, superintendent of the McDonald Observatory in west Texas, says that the very fact
that city lights are visible from on high is proof of their wastefulness. “When you’re up in an
airplane, all that light you see on the ground from the city is wasted. It’s going up into the night
sky. That’s why you can see it.”
D. But don’t we need all those lights to ensure our safety? The answer from light engineers, light
pollution control advocates and astronomers is an emphatic “no.” Elizabeth Alvarez of the
International Dark Sky Association (IDA), a non-profit organization in Tucson, Arizona, says
that overly bright security lights can actually force neighbours to close the shutters, which means
that if any criminal activity does occur on the street, no one will see it. And the old assumption
that bright lights deter crime appears to have been a false one: A new Department of Justice
report concludes that there is no documented correlation between the level of lighting and the
level of crime in an area. And contrary to popular belief, more crimes occur in broad daylight
than at night.
E. For drivers, light can actually create a safety hazard. Glaring lights can temporarily blind
drivers, increasing the likelihood of an accident. To help prevent such accidents, some cities and
states prohibit the use of lights that impair night-time vision. For instance, New Hampshire law
forbids the use of “any light along a highway so positioned as to blind or dazzle the vision of
travellers on the adjacent highway.”
F. Badly designed lighting can pose a threat to wildlife as well as people. Newly hatched turtles
in Florida move toward beach lights instead of the more muted silver shimmer of the ocean.
Migrating birds, confused by lights on skyscrapers, broadcast towers and lighthouses, are injured,
sometimes fatally, after colliding with high, lighted structures. And light pollution harms air
quality as well: Because most of the country’s power plants are still powered by fossil fuels, more
light means more air pollution.
G. So what can be done? Tucson, Arizona is taking back the night. The city has one of the best
lighting ordinances in the country, and, not coincidentally, the highest concentration of
observatories in the world. Kitt Peak National Optical Astronomy Observatory has 24 telescopes
aimed skyward around the city’s perimeter, and its cadre of astronomers needs a dark sky to work
with.
H. For a while, that darkness was threatened. “We were totally losing the night sky,” Jim
Singleton of Tucson’s Lighting Committee told Tulsa, Oklahoma’s KOTV last March. Now, after
retrofitting inefficient mercury lighting with low-sodium lights that block light from “trespassing”
into unwanted areas like bedroom windows, and by doing away with some unnecessary lights
altogether, the city is softly glowing rather than brightly beaming. The same thing is happening in
a handful of other states, including Texas, which just passed a light pollution bill last summer.
“Astronomers can get what they need at the same time that citizens get what they need: safety,
security and good visibility at night,” says McDonald Observatory’s Mark Adams, who provided
testimony at the hearings for the bill.
I. And in the long run, everyone benefits from reduced energy costs. Wasted energy from
inefficient lighting costs us between $1 and $2 billion a year, according to IDA. The city of San
Diego, which installed new, high-efficiency street lights after passing a light pollution law in
1985, now saves about $3 million a year in energy costs.
J. Legislation isn’t the only answer to light pollution problems. Brian Greer, Central Ohio
representative for the Ohio Light Pollution Advisory Council, says that education is just as
important, if not more so. “There are some special situations where regulation is the only fix,” he
says. “But the vast majority of bad lighting is simply the result of not knowing any better.”
Simple actions like replacing old bulbs and fixtures with more efficient and better-designed ones
can make a big difference in preserving the night sky.
*The Big Dipper: a group of seven bright stars visible in the Northern Hemisphere.
Questions 1-5: The first six paragraphs of reading passage are lettered A-F. Choose the most
suitable headings for paragraphs A-F from the list of headings below.
NB: There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use them all.

Example) Paragraph A: ix Lists of Headings

Paragraph
1. Paragraph B i   Why lights are needed
2. Paragraph C ii  Lighting discourages law breakers
3. Paragraph D iii  The environmental dangers
4. Paragraph E iv  People at risk from bright lights
5. Paragraph F v  Illuminating space
vi  A problem lights do not solve
vii  Seen from above
viii  More light than is necessary
ix  Approaching the city

Questions 6-10: Complete each of the following statements with words taken from the
passage. Write ONE or TWO WORDS for each answer.
6. According to a recent study, well-lit streets do not ...... or make neighborhoods safer to live in.

7. Inefficient lighting increases ........... because most electricity is produced from coal, gas or oil.

8. Efficient lights ................... from going into areas where it is not needed.

9. In the future, people will .................... reduced energy cost.
10. In dealing with light pollution .................... is at least as important as passing new laws.
 SECTION D: WRITING (5pts)
Part 1: Email writing (2.0pts)
Read this email from your English speaking friend Julia and the notes you have made.
Write your email to Julia using all the notes.
From:  Julia
Subject:  Jane’s leaving party
Hi!
I’m writing because, as you know, Jane is leaving our school and moving to Australia. I was
thinking of having a party to say goodbye. Do you think it’s a good idea? (Great Idea!)
If so, can you think of a good place to have the party? (Suggest ...)
Would it be best to have it on a weekday or at the weekend? (Answer and explain)
Also, I’m thinking of hiring a band for the party. Do you know what sort of music Jane likes
best? (Answer the question)
See you soon!
Julia
Your email:
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………….

Part II. Paragraph writing (3.0 pts):

Write about 150-180 words to give your opinion on the following topic:
Should smart phones be banned in schools?

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………….
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SECTION E: SPEAKING

1. Describe the picture? (1pts)

2. In your opinion, what are the causes of traffic congestion in big cities? (2pts)

THE END
 SỞ GD&ĐT NINH BÌNH HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO
CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH LỚP 9
NĂM HỌC 2021-2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh.
SECTION A: LISTENING (5.0 points, 0.2p for each correct answer)
Part I:
1.C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. C
Part II:
1. Hardie 2. 19 3. GT82LC 4. hairdresser 5. dentist/dentist’s
6. lighting 7. trains 8. Safe 9. shower 10. Training
Part III:
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. B

SECTION B: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY. (2.0 points, 0.1p for each correct answer)
Part I. Choose the best answer.
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. A 6. B 7. B 8. A 9. B 10.D

Part II.
1. influential 2. Attention 3. essentially 4. significance
5. awareness 6. knowledge 7. involvement 8. Mysterious
9. evidence 10. undoubtedly/doubtlessly

SECTION C: READING (5 points)

Part I. (1,0 point, 0.1p for each correct answer).
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. D

Part II. (2,0 points, 0.2 p for each correct answer)

1. B 2. B 3.C 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. D 8.C 9. B 10. A
Part III. Read the following text and do the tasks that follow. (2,0 points, 0.2 p for each
correct answer)
1. viii 2. Vii 3. Vi 4. Iv 5. iii
6. deter crime 7. (air) pollution 8. block light 9. benefit from 10. education

SECTION D: WRITING (5.0pts )

Part 1: Email writing (2.0pts)
1. Organization: Having enough 3 parts: 0.5 point.
- Introduction: Showing reason/purpose of the email.
- Body: main points: details, reasons, examples, …
- Conclusion: Wrapping the email up politely in an appropriate style or tone.
2. Content: 1.5 points
- Having 2 to 3 appropriate measures with good vocabulary, conjunctions, structures.
3. Minus point:
- 3 spelling or grammar mistakes equal to -0.1 point.
Part 2. Paragraph writing (3.0pts)
1. Organization (1.0 point): Having enough 3 parts:
- Introduction: Showing a good topic sentence.
- Body: main points: supporting details, reasons, examples, …
- Conclusion: Showing a good concluding sentence.
- Length: 150 to 180 words.
2. Content (2.0 points)
- Having 2 to 3 appropriate measures with good vocabulary, conjunctions, structures.
3. Minus point:
- 3 spelling or grammar mistakes equal to -0.1 point.
SECTION E: SPEAKING (3.0 pts)
1. Picture discription (1 point)
* Fluency (0.25 points)
- Natural & easy to follow.
- Hesitations are not stressful to the listener.
* Pronunciation (0.25 points)
- Being able to use English pronunciation features like stress and intonation naturally.
- Not causing the examiner any problem in understanding what the student is saying.
* Content (0.25 points)
- Entire talk relevant to the picture.
- Ideas fully developed basing on the overview and striking features of the picture.
- Ideas are well-organized with at least 4 parts: overview, details, more details, speculation.
* Vocabulary and grammar (0.25 points)
- Range of appropriate grammar tenses.
- Use of some complex sentence structures.
- Range of appropriate vocabulary.
- Mistakes do not obscure message meaning.
- Correct use of cohesive words to link ideas.

2. Topic presentation (2.0 points)

* Task Completion (1.0 points)
- Entire talk relevant to the topic.
- Ideas fully developed and interesting.
- Well-organised talk to maintain the audience’s attention.
- Natural & easy to follow.
- Hesitations are not stressful to the listener.
* Accuracy (0.5 points)
- Range of appropriate grammar tenses .
- Use of some complex sentence structures.
- Range of appropriate vocabulary.
- Mistakes do not obscure message meaning.
- Correct use of cohesive words to link ideas.
* Pronunciation and fluency (0.5 points)
- Being able to use English pronunciation features like stress and intonation naturally.
- Not causing the examiner any problem in understanding what the student is saying.

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