PRACTICE TEST 4

A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (10 PTS)

I. PHONOLOGY
1. Choose the word that has the underlined (letters) pronounced differently from the others
1. A. distortion B. attorney C. torture D. portable
2. A. mouths B. wreaths C. paths D. months
3. A. azure B. razor C. amaze D. ozone
4. A. crooked B. wicked C. dogged D. cooked
5. A. suit B. bruise C. suite D. fruit

2. Choose the word whose main stress is placed differently from the others.
1. A. bronchitis B. acacia C. gorilla D. islander
2. A. memorial B. rhinoceros C. kindergarten D. photography
3. A. documentary B. mausoleum C. television D. managerial
4. A, acupuncture B. understand C, internet D. agriculture
5. A. promiscuous B. ambassador C. mischievous D, considerate

II. VOCABULARY AND STRUCTURE (20 pts)

Choose the best answer to complete the sentences.
1. “I’m going out now.”
“_________ you happen to pass a chemist’s, would you get me some aspirins?”
A. Had B. Did C. Would D. Should
2. Don’t tell anyone about this, _________?
A. do you B. won’t you C. will you D. should you
3. The patient’s heart-rate and breathing must be carefully _________ during the operation.
A. counted B. monitored C. observed D. supervised
4. I didn’t learn very much _________ my time at that college.
A. during B. throughout C. on D. all
5. Guy was _________ the conspiracy because of his friendship with the conspirators.
A. caught in B. taken in C. drawn into D. pulled by
6. This court deals only with _________ crime.
A. petty B. trivial C. small D. insignificant
7. It was decided that _________ the following Thursday.
A. we met B. we would meet
C. our meeting D. we still meet
8. _________ we understand his reasons, we cannot condone his behaviour.
A. Even if B. Only if C. What if D. As if
9. The two trains came _________ ten metres of collision.
A. just B. near C. within D. almost
10. When both parents went to prison, social workers took the children _________ care.
A. with B. for C. into D. to
11. George decided to _________ from his position as company chairman.
A. step down B. step aside C. step back D. step out
12. The police car drove into the car park and _________ sharply.
A. pulled in B. pulled up C. pulled aside D. pulled about
13. The general was relieved of his command after committing one of the worst _________ in the history of
warfare.
A. faults B. defeats C. disasters D. blunders
14. _________ attempts were made to reach those buried beneath the rubble of the collapsed building.
A. Strong B. Strenuous C. Energetic D. Exhausting
15. She got the job _________ of considerable competition.
A. in the face B. in the teeth C. regardless D. irrespective
16. You may not have liked her, but _________ be quite so rude?
A. should you B. did you dare to
C. did you need to D. would you have to
17. In the _________ climate, it is difficult to anticipate what the political reaction will be.
 A. current B. topical C. contemporary D. actual
18. John’s observation was a bit wide of the _________.
A. target B. mark C. point D. goal
19. Sally’s remark that she was feeling worn out _________ thoughts of a holiday.
A. stimulated B. provoked C. prompted D. engendered
20. Doctors are often _________ to accidents in rural areas.
A. called up B. driven out C. called out D. rung up
III. READING COMPREHENSION (20 pts)
1. Read the passage and choose the best answer
Life originated in the early seas less than a billion years after Earth was formed. Yet another three billion
years were to pass before the first plants and animals appeared on the continents. Life’s transition from the sea
to the land was perhaps as much of an evolutionary challenge as was the genesis of life.
What forms of life were able to make such a drastic change in lifestyle? The traditional view of the first
terrestrial organisms is based on megafossils - relatively large specimens of essentially whole plants and
animals. Vascular plants, related to modern seed plants and ferns, left the first comprehensive megafossil
record. Because of this, it has been commonly assumed that the sequence of terrestrialization reflected the
evolution of modem terrestrial ecosystems. In this view, primitive vascular plants first colonized the margins of
continental waters, followed by animals that fed on the plants, and lastly by animals that preyed on the plant-
eaters. Moreover, the megafossils suggest that terrestrial life appeared and diversified explosively near the
boundary between the Silurian and the Devonian periods, a little more than 400 million years ago.
Recently, however, paleontologists have been taking a closer look at the sediments below this Silurian-
Devonian geological boundary. It turns out that some fossils can be extracted from these sediments by pulling
the rocks in an acid bath. The technique has uncovered new evidence from sediments that were deposited near
the shores of the ancient oceans - plant microfossils and microscopic pieces of small animals. In many
instances the specimens are less than one-tenth of a millimeter in diameter. Although they were entombed in
the rocks for hundreds of millions of years, many of the fossils consist of the organic remains of the organism.
These newly discovered fossils have not only revealed the existence of previously unknown organisms, but
have also pushed back these dates for the invasion of land by multicellular organisms. Our views about the
nature of the early plant and animal communities are now being revised. And with those revisions come new
speculations about the first terrestrial life-forms.
1. The word “drastic” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. widespread B. radical C. progressive D. risky
2. According to the theory that the author calls “the traditional view,” what was the first form of life to appear
on land?
A. Bacteria B. Meat-eating animals
C. Plant-eating animals D. Vascular plants
3. According to the passage, what happened about 400 million years ago?
A. Many terrestrial life-forms died out.
B. New life-forms on land developed at a rapid rate.
C. The megafossils were destroyed by floods.
D. Life began to develop in the ancient seas.
4. The word “extracted” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. located B. preserved C. removed D. studied
5. What can be inferred from the passage about the fossils mentioned in the italicized lines in the third
paragraph?
A. They have not been helpful in understanding the evolution of terrestrial life.
B. They were found in approximately the same numbers as vascular plant fossils.
C. They are older than the megafossils.
D. They consist of modern life-forms.
6. The word “instances” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. methods B. processes C. cases D. reasons
7. The word “they” in the third paragraph refers to
A. rocks B. shores C. oceans D. specimens
8. The word “entombed” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. crushed B. trapped C. produced D. excavated
9. Which of the following resulted from the discovery of microscopic fossils?
 A. The time estimate for the first appearance of terrestrial life-forms was revised.
B. Old techniques for analyzing fossils were found to have new uses.
C. The origins of primitive sea life were explained.
D. Assumptions about the locations of ancient seas were changed.
10. With which of the following conclusions would the author probably agree?
A. The evolution of terrestrial life was as complicated as the origin of life itself.
B. The discovery of microfossils supports the traditional view of how terrestrial life evolved.
C. New species have appeared at the same rate over the course of the last 400 million years.
D. The technology used by paleontologists is too primitive to make accurate determinations about ages of
fossils.
2. Choose the most suitable heading, I -XIII, for each paragraph from the list of headings below:
A Global Warning
A. The Stern Review Report on The Economics of Climate Change, published in 2006, the same year as A1
Gores highly-acclaimed film and book, An inconvenient Tenets, made it clear that governments need to take
the issue of global warming very seriously indeed. The Stern Review examined the issue of climate change
from an economic perspective, looking at what it would cost the government to take appropriate action, and
what it would cost if appropriate action were not taken. The report also highlighted a number of
catastrophes that would occur if urgent measures were not taken to stop the carbon dioxide production that
is heating up the planet. The report indicates that in the last 200 years, average temperatures on the planet
have increased by less than one degree Celsius; however, if we do not control also rising carbon dioxide
levels over the next 100 yews, a rise of up to five degrees Celsius can be expected. This will have £.n
enormous impact on global economic growth and will cause many potentially disastrous changes, including
the following:
B. Melting glaciers - Beginning in the Andes, and then extending to the huge glaciers of the Himalayas, the ice
will begin to disappear, threatening the water supply of billions of people. Sea levels will also rise, flooding
huge areas of the world, including cities such as London and Tokyo.
C. Melting ice sheets - Not only will glaciers melt, but as the planet warms up, the huge Antarctic Ice Sheets
and the floating sea ice of the Arctic will begin to melt, again resulting in catastrophic rises in sea levels. It
is estimated that Arctic summers will be ice-free within 10 years, and the landscapes of the Antarctic will
change beyond recognition by 2050. The vast ace plains of Greenland are also under threat.
D. The acidity resulting from the huge amounts of CO2 that the oceans will absorb will lead to the extinction of
hundreds of species as marine ecosystems are destroyed; this will also threaten the fishing industry as
thousands of millions of fish die off. This in turn will destiny the livelihood of thousands of fishing
communities that depend on already overfished coastal areas.
E. Accompanying the floods will be an increasing occurrence of droughts, with a decrease of up to 30% in
water availability in Africa, and similar decreases in Australia. This will, of course, result in crop failure
and malnutrition the world over. It will also lead to an increase in disease, particularly in tropical regions.
Large cities in dry regions will find it increasingly difficult to provide enough water for their populations.
F. Hurricanes, cyclones and tidal waves - Both Al Gore’s book and the Stern Review indicate that if global
temperatures continue to rise, we can expect a greater number of extreme weather phenomena, of an
increased severity. Hurricane Katrina, which devastated the United States in 2005, is cited as just one
example of the kind of environmental and economic havoc that will result from unchecked global warming.
Typhoons, which often cause extensive flooding, are becoming more frequent and devastating in South East
Asia.
G. Up to 50% of animal and plant species on the planet, beginning with those living in fragile environments
such as coral reefs, tropical rainforest and alpine tundra, will become extinct. Climate change will
eventually affect every ecosystem on the planet as temperatures increase, rainforest is destroyed and sea
levels rise, leading to flooding and drought. The impact on ecosystems will be so dramatic that they will
never recover from the damage caused by rising temperatures.
H. Does all this sound too depressing even to contemplate? Well, don’t despair if you are optimistic by nature,
there are two approaches to tackling the problem of global warming you could take.
I. The first approach is to begin to act locally to do your bit to reduce CO 3 emissions and minimise pollution,
at the same time hoping that governments will listen to the recommendations of the Stern Review, which,
while recognising the seriousness of the threat, clearly indicates that if action is taken now, the right balance
between economic growth and environmental conservation may be achieved. The Report is significant, both
in its scope and its depth, and it does offer positive outcome that allows economic growth to continue - so
 perhaps this will convince governments to take the action necessary to save the planet from environmental
and economic disaster.
J. The second approach you could take, if you wish to remain optimistic, is to disregard the warnings of Al
Gore, the Stem Review team and other like-minded harbingers of doom, and instead opt for the much more
positive and less dramatic stance taken by very different group of scientists and economists. With its
nominal leader the Danish economist, Bjorn Lomborg, the Omgivelse group believes that many of the
predictions of the environmentalists are hugely exaggerated. Like Stern, Lomborg takes a pragmatic
economic approach to the environmental situation and argues for investment in environmental research and
development, rather than ‘quick-fix’ measures that would not, he claims, solve the problems. With
significantly less investment than that recommended in the Kyoto Accord or by the Stern Review Report.
Lomborg believes the planet can be saved.
List of headings Your answer
I. Long-term Solutions 1. Paragraph A ________________
II. A Balancing Act 2. Paragraph B ________________
III. Killing Wildlife 3. Paragraph C ________________
IV. Extreme Weather 4. Paragraph D ________________
V. Water Crisis 5. Paragraph E ________________
VI. Endangering Sea Life 6. Paragraph F ________________
VII. Sinking Cities 7. Paragraph G ________________
VIII. Intensive Farming 8. Paragraph H ________________
IX. Trouble at the Poles 9. Paragraph I ________________
X. Alarming Studies 10. Paragraph J ________________
XI. Two Outlooks
XII. Arctic Wildlife
XIII. Burning Coal

IV. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10 pts)

Choose the words that best complete the sentences in the text.
Sad as it is, a social misperception of the disabled is still ________ (1) in many communities. It is only in a
few highly civilised states where the problems and needs of people with physical or mental incapacities are
given the proper ________ (2). In the remaining countries, the discrimination against the disabled is still
practiced in many ________ (3) of social life. As in the past, they are ignored, denounced and forced to stay
away from the normal community which, unfortunately, isn’t capable of making any provisions for its less fit
members.
For decades, the ________ (4) and hearty part of every society has ________ (5) the disabled of their
fundamental rights as their job applications have been ________ (6) down, their active participation in business
life has on most occasions been disallowed and there has been little concern for their convenience in access to
public transport. Equally little effort has been made to help the disabled fully ________ (7) with the able-
bodied thus laying ________ (8) for greater community awareness of the drawbacks that the handicapped have
to wrestle with daily.
There’s an urgent need to offer the disabled more adequate assistance and support in their struggle for
putting their basic rights into ________ (9). The key principle is that the stereotyped approach towards the
impaired individuals ought to be exchanged for a more considerate one. Another pressing matter is that the
disabled shouldn’t be appraised on the basis of their handicap, but society should rather focus on providing
them with complete acceptance ________ (10) of any imperfections thus treating them as fully-fledged
citizens.
1. A. infinite B. universal C. abundant D. prevalent
2. A. relevance B. consideration C. approach D. esteem
3. A. ranges B. fractions C. realms D. areas
4. A. hale B. vivid C. lit D. right
5. A. shelled B. sneaked C. seized D. stripped
6. A. pulled B. turned C. passed D. brought
7. A. collaborate B. incorporate C. ally D. integrate
8. A. foundations B. bases C. grounds D. rudiments
9. A. handling B. operation C. activation D. performance
10. A. despite B. irrespective C. except D. nonetheless
B. WRITTEN TEST
I. Provide the correct verb forms (10pts)
1. I didn’t do the test well. I (prepare) ________ it very carefully at home.
2. The cup, which is very old, certainly (lose) ________ its original colour.
3. Were the painting genuine, it (be) ________ worth thousands of pounds.
4. The teller (make) (lie) ________ down on the floor.
5. I don’t mind her (appoint) ________ above me.
6. She feels as though she (sit) ________ on a fire
7. Look! The rain (spoil) ________ our furniture. You (close) ________ the windows last night.
8. He suggested that a petition (draw) ________ up.
9. Jimmy was pleased (admit) ________ to the college
[Link] price of gold (say) (go) ________ up now.
II. Fill in each blank with a suitable preposition (10pts).
1. I wonder what everybody finds (1) ________ him. What is there so remarkable (2) ________ him that
people will hang (3) ________ his every word.
2. He was last (4) ________ a long line, and (5) ________ the look (6) ________ it, he was unlikely to get a
good seat (7) ________ the show.
3. The poverty (8) ________ her childhood stands (9) ________ total contrast (10) ________ her life (11)
________ Hollywood.
4. It’s a book (12) ________ three men and their dog on a boating holiday.
5. He drove (13) ________ a red light and a policeman saw him.
6. The assistant manager has no authority (14) ________ matters that have to do (15) ________
accommodation. You’d better speak to the manager.
7. If they are really concerned (16) ________ his future and want him to be prepared (17) ________ the
hardship of life, they should not make things too smooth (18) ________ him.
8. His chances (19) ________ recovery after the operation were a hundred (20) ________ one, but he did get
well.
III. Provide the correct word form of the word in brackets (10pts).
1. She is quite an (eye) ________
2. When he doesn’t like anyone, he often speaks in (syllable) ________
3. I am (famine) ________! How about you? Have you had lunch yet?
4. When a person begins a new job, he may feel rather (orientation) ________ at the beginning.
5. The thief was caught in the very (act) ________
6. What is done can’t be (do) ________
7. It is (character) ________ of him to lose his temper like that. He’s usually very calm.
8. I was surprised by the (formal) ________ of the occasion. All the men wore dark suits and ties.
9. The unresponsive audience made the lecturer somewhat (heart) ________. What a shame!
10. Any opposition to the rule is (tolerate) ________.
IV. Read the following passage, identify the 10 errors and then correct them (10 points).
E.g: (0) language → languages
In countries where two or more language are spoken, language is frequently a political and highly emotive
issue. Although Canada is officially bilingual, the French-speaking province of Quebec introduced the law in
1976 which, in other measures, banned languages rather than French on commercial signs and restricted
admissions to English- speaking schools. In 1988, the supreme court of Canada ruled that some sections of this
law were illegal. No sooner had they done so than thousands of French speakers took to the streets in protest.
Under the regime of General Franco, a Basque language, spoken by about 600,000 people in Spain, was
forbidden. So strict was this ban that people using Basque in public could be imprisoned.
Lingual suppression still goes on, but on the whole, governments today are more tolerable of their minority
languages. Nowhere has this reverse of attitudes been more pronounced than in Wales. Until the twentieth
century, Welsh was all along illegal, and its usage was forbidden in schools and at many places of work. Only
after a long campaign of protests and vandalism by Welsh speakers in the 1960s did the British government
allow Welsh to become an official language.
1 _____________________________________
2 _____________________________________
3 _____________________________________
 4 _____________________________________
5 _____________________________________
6 _____________________________________
7 _____________________________________
8 _____________________________________
9 _____________________________________
10 _____________________________________
V. Fill in each blank with a suitable word (10pts).
About twenty percent of the world’s present energy already comes from the sun in one form or another.
Special devices have been (1) ________ available to place on the (2) ________ of houses or flats to catch the
sun’s rays and thus heat water. Thousands of these (3) ________ are now being used to provide (4) ________
in homes throughout the United States while more than a million solar water-heating units have already been
(5) ________ in homes in Japan. Other purposes for which energy is at present (6) ________ used include the
extraction of salt (7) ________ sea water, irrigation and sewage disposal.
(8) ________ most people in developing countries, the need is (9) ________ for air condition or central
heating but for cheap (10) ________ of cooking food, drying crops and lighting home.
VI. Rewrite the second sentence so that it is closest in meaning to the original one, using the word(s)
provided (20pts.
1. As there are no more questions, I think we can end the meeting.
- There____________________________________________________________________
2. I would like, moreover, to choose my own clothes.
- What’s___________________________________________________________________
3. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
- Urgent___________________________________________________________________
4. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.
- If it______________________________________________________________________
5. This is the procedure. (follows)
- _________________________________________________________________________
6. Make yourself at home. (ceremony)
- _________________________________________________________________________
7. The film didn’t come up to my expectations (short)
- _________________________________________________________________________
8. He is a generous person. (name)
- _________________________________________________________________________
9. I think his theory is logical and clear. (stands)
- _________________________________________________________________________
10. In the area, Thailand is much better than all other countries in football. (shoulders)
- _________________________________________________________________________
 PRACTICE TEST 5
PART A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
I. PHONOLOGY. (10pts)
A. Pronunciation: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
others (5pts)
1. A. afraid B. nation C. nature D. natural
2. A. bathe B. promenade C. heart D. reservoir
3. A. receipt B. concept C. cupboard D. pneumonia
4. A. book B. good C. food D. put
5. A. naked B. cooked C. wicked D. crooked

B. Stress: Choose the word who stress pattern is different from part of the others (5pts)
1. A. volunteer B. evacuee C. magazine D. newspaper
2. A. photography B. advantageous C. proverbial D. tranquility
3. A. inevitable B. impersonate C. influential D. competitive
4. A. deserts B. comrade C. decade D. hostage
5. A. compensate B. contribute C. gratitude D. memorize

II. READING COMPREHENSION. (20 pts)

READING 1: Read the following passages and choose the best answer.
It’s a sound you will probably never hear, a sickened tree sending out a distress signal. But a group of
scientists has heard the cries, and they think some insects also hear the trees and are drawn to them like
vultures to a dying animal. Researchers with the U.S. Department of Agriculture’s Forest Service fastened
sensors to the bark of drought-stricken trees and clearly heard distress calls. According to one of the scientists,
most parched trees transmit their plight in the 50- to 500-kilohertz range. (The unaided human ear can detect
no more than 20 kilohertz.) Red oak, maple, white pine, and birch all make slightly different sounds in the form
of vibrations at the surface of the wood. The scientists think that the vibrations are created when the water
columns inside tubes that run the length of the tree break, a result of too little water flowing through them.
These fractured columns send out distinctive vibration patterns. Because some insects communicate at
ultrasonic frequencies, they may pick up the trees’ vibrations and attack the weakened trees. Researchers are
now running tests with potted trees that have been deprived of water to see if the sound is what attracts the
insects. “Water-stressed trees also smell differently from other trees, and they experience thermal changes, so
insects could be responding to something other than sound,” one scientist said.
11. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. the vibrations produced by insects
B. the mission of the U.S. Forest Service
C. the effect of Insects on trees
D. the sounds made by trees
12. The word “them” in line 3 refers to
A. trees B. scientists C. insects D. vultures
13. The word “parched” in line 6 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. burned B. dehydrated C. recovered D. damaged
14. The word “plight” in line 6 is closest in meaning to
A. cry B. condition C. need D. agony
15. It can be inferred from the passage that the sounds produced by the trees
A. serve as a form of communication among trees
B. are the same no matter what type of tree produces them
C. cannot be heard by the unaided human car
D. fall into the 1-20-kilohertz range
16. The word “fractured” in line 11 is closest in meaning to
A. long B. blocked C. hollow D. broken
17. Which of the following could be considered a cause of the trees’ distress signals?
A. torn roots B. attacks by insects
C. experiments by scientists D. lack of water
18. In line 12, the phrase “pick up” could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. perceive B. lift C. transmit D. attack
19. All of the following are mentioned as possible factors in drawing insects to weakened trees EXCEPT
A. thermal changes B. smells
C. sounds D. changes in color
20. It can be inferred from the passage that research concerning the distress signals of trees
A. was conducted many years ago
B. has been unproductive up to now
C. is continuing
D. is no longer sponsored by the government
READING 2
The time when humans crossed the Arctic land bridge from Siberia to Alaska seems remote to us today, but
actually represents a late stage in the prehistory of humans, an era when polished stone implements and bows
and arrows were already being used and dogs had already been domesticated.
When these early migrants arrived in North America, they found the woods and plains dominated by three
types of American mammoths. These elephants were distinguished from today’s elephants mainly by their
thick, shaggy coats and their huge, upward-curving tusks. They had arrived on the continent hundreds of
thousands of years before their human followers. The wooly mammoth in the North, the Columbian mammoth
in middle North America, and the imperial mammoth of the South, together with their distant cousins the
mastodons, dominated the land. Here, as in the Old World, there is evidence that humans hunted these
elephants, as shown by the numerous spear points found with mammoth remains.
Then, at the end of the Ice Age, when the last glaciers had retreated, there was a relatively sudden and
widespread extinction of elephants, in the New World, both mammoths and mastodons disappeared, in the Old
World, only Indian and African elephants survived.
Why did the huge, seemingly successful mammoths disappear? Were humans connected with their
extinction? Perhaps, but at that time, although they were cunning hunters, humans were still widely scattered
and not very-’ numerous. It is difficult to see how they could have prevailed over the mammoth to such an
extent.
21. With which of the following is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Migration from Siberia to Alaska.
B. Techniques used to hunt mammoths.
C. The prehistory of humans.
D. The relationship between man and mammoth in the New World.
22. The word “implements” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. tools B. ornaments C. houses D. carvings
23. The phrase “these early migrants” in line 5 refers to
A. mammoths B. humans C. dogs D. mastodons
24. Where were the imperial mammoths the dominant type of mammoth?
A. Alaska
B. the central portion of North America
C. the southern part of North America
D. South America
25. It can he inferred that when humans crossed into the New World, they
A. had previously’ hunted mammoths in Siberia
B. had never seen mammoths before
C. brought mammoths with them from the Old World
D. soon learned to use dogs to hunt mammoths
26. Which of the following could best substitute for the word “remains” in line 12?
A. bones B. drawings C. footprints D. spear points
27. The word “seemingly” in line 16 is closest in meaning to
A. tremendously B. apparently C. formerly D. obviously
28. The passage supports which of the following conclusions about mammoths?
A. Humans hunted them to extinction.
B. The freezing temperatures of the Ice Age destroyed their food supply.
C. The cause of their extinction is not definitely known.
D. Competition with mastodons caused them to become extinct.
29. The word “cunning” inline 17 is closest in meaning to
A. clever B. determined C. efficient D. cautious
50. Which of the following is NOT true about prehistoric humans at the time of the mammoths’ extinction?
A. They were relatively few in number.
B. They knew how to use bows and arrows.
C. They were concentrated in a small area.
D. They were skilled hunters.
III. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10pts)
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by thermonuclear 31 ________ near its center that convert
hydrogen to helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about 4 billion, 600 million years and is
thousands of times larger than the Earth. By studying other stars, 32 ________ can predict what the rest of the
Sun’s life will be like. About 5 billion years from now, the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter. The
surface 33 ________ will fall. The higher temperature of the center will increase the rate of thermonuclear
reactions. The outer regions of the Sun will expand approximately 35 ________ million miles, about the
distance to Mercury, which is the closest 34 ________ to the Sun. The Sun will then be a red giant Star.
Temperatures on the Earth will become too hot for life to 35 ________ . Once the Sun has used up its
thermonuclear energy as a red giant, it will begin to 36 ________ After it shrinks to the size of the Earth, it will
become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw 37 ________ huge amounts of gases in violent eruptions called
nova explosions as it changes from a red giant 38 ________ a white dwarf.
After billions of years 39 ________ a white dwarf, the Sun will have used up all its fuel and will have lost
its heat. Such a star is called a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth will be dark and
cold. If any atmosphere remains there, it will have 40 ________ onto the Earth’s surface.
31. A. reactions B. reactor C. reactive D. reactivity
32. A. astronauts B. astronomers C. astrologers D. physicians
33. A. temperature B. clouds C. atmosphere D. magnetic field
34. A. satellite B. asteroid C. planet D. comet
35. A. start B. die C. end D. exist
36. A. shrink B. expand C. freeze D. break
37. A. away B. off C. aside D. back
38. A. up B. in C. to D. of
39. A. same B. similar C. like D. as
40. A. melt B. heat C. frozen D. vaporise

PART B: WRITTEN TEST

I. VERB TENSES/ FORMS (10pts).
• Human beings (create) ____1____ equal and (endow) ____2____ with certain inalienable rights (include)
____3____ life, liberty and the pursuit of happiness.
• The fire (fan) ____4____ by gusty winds (engulf) ____5____ the whole village yesterday.
• On March 11, 2011 Japan (hit) ____6____ by a (devastate) ____7____ earthquake, which triggered a
tsunami that measured as high as 10 meters in some places.
• A mechanic in Binh Duong is said (successfully make) ____8____ a helicopter.
• Whatever you do, don’t let yourself (cheat) ____9____.
• But for the seat belt, I (not be) ____10____ alive now.
• Alan didn’t go to the meeting yesterday. He (forget) ____11____.
• If he had taken my advice, he (not be) ____12____ in trouble now.
• Many people claimed (see) ____13____ (unidentify) ____14____ (fly) ____15____objects.
• The tragic (sink) ____16____of the Titanic always (remember) ____17____, for she went down on her first
voyage with heavy loss of life.
• The noblest and most imperative task of a Government is (defend) ____18____ the sovereignty,
independence and territorial integrity of the Nation.
• Henry deported for having an expired visa. He (have) ____19____his visa (renew) ____20____.
II. PREPOSITIONS / PHRASAL VERBS. (10pts)
____1____ returning ____2____ our motel, I decided to finish reading my novel. It is ____3____ far the
most exciting book that Victoria Holt has ever written. ____4____ the most part, her book deals ____5____ a
group ____6____ archeologists who went ____7____ Egypt ____8____ hopes____9____ discovering some
pharaoh’s tomb. ____10____ accident they uncovered a plot to smuggle the treasures ____11____
____12____Egypt. ____13____ course the archeologists got ____14____ touch ____15____the authorities,
who had heard some rumors ____16____ smuggling off and ____17____. All____18____a sudden, one day
the police showed____19____and caught them____20____the act and arrested them.
[Link] FORMS. (20pts)
A. Fill each blank with the correct form of the word given.
* (Tyrant) ____1____ reacts upon tyrant himself.
* Don’t use (liar) ____2____ as means of living.
* There is a strong (like) ____3____ of rain this evening.
* The (arm) ____4____ men opened fire on the (pass) ____5____ by, then ran away in a (steal)
____6____van.
* With a population of over 85 million, Vietnam is the 13th most (populate) ____7____ country in the world.
* My favorite sport is weigh (lift) ____8____.
* My father is the bread-(win) ____9____in the family.
* AIDS stands for acquired immune (deficient) ____10____syndrome.
B. Read the passage and fill each blank with the appropriate form of words chosen from the following
list:
protecting resources effects pollution wasteland
transforming environment population wildlife problem
The worlds oceans are so vast that they can cope with the present levels of ____1____. However, little is
known about the long term ____2____ of such slow poisoning. The most serious ____3____ of modern times
is that man is destroying the earth’s natural ____4____ and ____5____ huge areas into ____6____. As a result,
it is becoming extremely difficult to grow enough to feed the world’s rapidly increasing ____7____. A way of
____8____ ail the ____9____ on the earth must also be found as many species are in danger of disappearing
completely from the face of the earth. The dangers, however, are not confined solely to the land and the sea.
The smoke in the atmosphere, for example, is increasing so much that the amount of sunlight has been reduced
in many cities. Mans whole ____10____ is being changed in a serious way.
IV. ERROR IDENTIFICATION. (10pts)
Identify ten words that should not be in the text:
Abraham Lincoln became President of the United States of America in November 1860. John Kennedy
became President in November 1960. Lincoln was being killed in Ford’s Theatre Kennedy was shot in a car
which made by Ford Motors. The car was called a Lincoln!
Lincoln’s secretary was called Kennedy. Kennedy was asked Lincoln not to go to the theatre on the day he
was assassinated. Kennedy has had a secretary called Lincoln. Lincoln told Kennedy not to go to the Dallas on
the day he was killed. John Wilkes Booth, Lincoln’s murderer, was born in 1839. Lee Harvey Oswald, the man
who killed Kennedy, he was born in 1939. Booth killed Lincoln in a theatre and then after ran into a warehouse.
As Oswald shot Kennedy from a warehouse and then ran into a theatre.
The man who became President after that Lincoln was called Johnson and was born in 1808. The man who
only became President after Kennedy was also called Johnson and was born in 1908!
V. OPEN CLOZE TEST. (20pts)
Fill each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with one suitable word.
My wife and I have always enjoyed travelling ________ (1) sea, and last year we decided to go ________
(2) a Mediterranean cruise ________ (3) our holiday was rather expensive we thought that the high standard of
accommodation, the first-class food and the many interesting places we saw were well ________ (4) the price
we paid. We found that most of ________ (5) other passengers were friendly and interesting, but there was one
man, a Mr. James, who irritated and annoyed us, and not ________ (6) us but all the others who shared our
table at dinner. Whatever subject we talked about, it seemed that he was an expert ________ (7) it. He
________ (8), apparently, read more books, visited more countries and studied more languages, than anyone
________ (9). After a few days, we ate our meals in ________ (10), because nobody wanted to begin a
conversation that ________ (11) soon be taken ________ (12) by this man. Then my wife had an idea.
Fortunately, the ship had a library, and she suggested that we ________ (13) think of an unusual subject, look it
________ (14) in an encyclopaedia and then talk about it at dinner. If it were unusual ________ (15) Mr. James
could not ________ (16) know anything about it ________ (17) subject we chose was ‘English Agriculture in
the Eleventh Century’. At dinner that night we discussed this subject with ________ (18) enthusiasm. Mr.
James was silent. We realised we had at last ________ (19) to find something he knew ________ (20) about.
VI. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION. (20pts)
1. The film star wore dark glasses so that no-one would recognise him
The film star avoided_________________________________________________________
2. Whatever you are, try to lead a life of virtue - Truth, Charity, and Bravery.
 No________________________________________________________________________
3. We weren’t surprised by his success
It came____________________________________________________________________
4 ‘That’s a lovely new dress, Jean,’ said her mother.
Jean’s mother complimented___________________________________________________
5. We couldn’t relax until all the guests had gone home
Only______________________________________________________________________
6. The councillor answered every question frankly.
___________________________________________________________________(frank)
7. It is said that he has been to prison several times.
__________________________________________________________________(reputed)
8. Most stores will accept a credit card instead of cash.
_______________________________________________________________(alternative)
9. Our opinions on the subject are identical.
________________________________________________________________(difference)
10. Local residents said they were against the new traffic scheme.
______________________________________________________________(disapproval)
 PRACTICE TEST 6
A. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS PART
1. PHONOLOGY (10 marks)
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the others of each group.
1. A. ecosystem B. knowledge C. technology D. commodity
2. A. learned B. watched C. wretched D. sacred
3. A. education B, graduate C. soldier D. Indian
4. A. danger B. landscape C. hand D. nature
5. A. clerk B. serve C. verge D. nurse

Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of each group.
6. A. recommend B. hurricane C. photograph D. separate
7. A. multimedia B. environment C. documentary D. mathematics
8. A. vigorous B. scandalous C. victorious D. dangerous
9. A. nominee B. committee C. refugee D. employee
10. . A. necessary B. infamous C. automobile D. technique

PART 2. VOCBULARY AND STRUCTURE (20 marks)

1. Claims for compensation could ________ run into billions of pounds.
A. far B. much C. well D. most
2. We may win, we may lose - it’s just the ________ of the draw!
A. strike B. odds C. chance D. luck
3. In the last century, it was widely ________ that Indian fakirs were capable of superhuman feasts.
A. held B. grasped C. kept D. shaken
4. If you have a minor illness, it’s usually better just let the nature take its ________.
A. course B. time C. path D. way
5. I had lost my glasses in the water and could barely ________ the edge of the river
A. notice B. recognize C. remark D. distinguish
6. “Another cup of coffee?” - “No, but thanks ________”
A. not at all B. for all C. all the same D. you for all
7. It was very ________ of you to eat the last slice of cake without asking.
A. courteous B. sensitive C. self-confident D. naughty
8. He was arrested for trying to pass ________ notes at the bank.
A. counterfeit B. fake C. unreal D. artificial
9. You are late again - please try to be ________ in future
A. accurate B. punctual C. efficient D. reliable
10. The conductor ________ the boys off for misbehaving on the bus
A. told B. said C. shouted D. cried
11. An IQ test is supposed to measure the ________ of your intelligence
A. level B. extent C. degree D. size
12. ________ dolphins have no sense of smell
A. as known as far B. It is known as far
C. as far as is known D. Known as far it is
13. ________ drivers usually drive very slowly.
A. Learner B. Student C. Learning D. Practice
14. You ________ all those provisions. We’re only going for a weekend, not a month!
A. mustn’t buy B. needn’t buy
C. needn’t have bought D. mustn’t have bought
15. The VCTV try to ________ for all tasted with its 4 national programs
A. cater B. suit C. furnish D. regard
16. It was not until late 1960s ________ on the moon.
A. that Americans walked B. did Americans walk
C. when Americans walked D. when did Americans walk
17. When his alarm went off, he shut it off and slept for ________ 15 minutes.
A. other B. others C. another D. the others
18. All things ________, he is the best president we are likely to get
 A. thought B. taken C. added D. considered
19. - “Who won the election for mayor?”
- “A man ________ to represent every minority group in the city”
A. claiming B. claim C. is claimed D. claimed
20. We would rather Helen ________ us all the information we needed. We should have been well informed.
A. sent B. send C. had sent D. have sent
PART 3. READING COMPREHENSION (20 marks)
Passage 1
Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answers to the questions
The Fukushima 1 nuclear accidents arc a series of ongoing equipment failures and releases of radioactive
materials at the Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant, following the 9.0 magnitude Tohoku earthquake and
tsunami on 11 March 2011. The plant comprises six separate boiling water reactors maintained by the Tokyo
Electric Power Company (TEPCO). This accident is the largest of the 2011 Japanese nuclear accidents arising
from the Tohoku earthquake and tsunami, and experts consider it to be the second largest nuclear accident after
the Chernobyl disaster, but more complex as all reactors are involved.
At the time of the quake, reactor 4 had been de-fueled while 5 and 6 were in cold shutdown for planned
maintenance. The remaining reactors shut down automatically after the earthquake, with emergency generators
starting up to run the control electronics and water pumps needed to cool reactors. The plant was protected by a
seawall designed to withstand a 5.7 metres (19 ft) tsunami but not the 14-metre (46 ft) maximum wave which
arrived 41-60 minutes after the earthquake. The entire plant was flooded, including low-lying generators and
electrical switchgear in reactor basements and external pumps for supplying cooling seawater. The connection
to the electrical grid was broken. All power for cooling was lost and reactors started to overheat, due to natural
decay of the fission products created before shutdown. The flooding and earthquake damage hindered external
assistance.
Evidence soon arose of partial core meltdown in reactors 1, 2, and 3; hydrogen explosions destroyed the
upper cladding of the buildings housing reactors 1, 3, and 4; an explosion damaged the containment inside
reactor 2; multiple fires broke out at reactor 4. Despite being initially shutdown, reactors 5 and 6 began to
overheat. Fuel rods stored in pools in each reactor building began to overheat as water levels in the pools
dropped. Fears of radiation leaks led to a 20-kilometre (12 mi) radius evacuation around the plant while
workers suffered radiation exposure and were temporarily evacuated at various times. One generator at unit 6
was restarted on 17 March allowing some cooling at units 5 and 6 which were least damaged. Grid power was
restored to parts of the plant on 20 March, but machinery’ for reactors 1 through 4, damaged by floods, fires
and explosions, remained inoperable. Flooding with radioactive water through the basements of units 1-4
continues to prevent access to carry out repairs.
Measurements taken by the Japanese science ministry and education ministry in areas of northern Japan 30-
50 km from the plant showed radioactive cesium levels high enough to cause concern. Food grown in the area
was banned from sale. It was suggested that worldwide measurements of iodine-131 and caesium-137 indicate
that the releases from Fukushima are of the same order of magnitude as the releases of those isotopes from the
Chernobyl disaster in 1986; Tokyo officials temporarily recommended that tap water should not be used to
prepare food for infants. Plutonium contamination has been detected in the soil at two sites in the plant. Two
workers hospitalized as a precaution on 25 March had been exposed to between 2000 and 6000 mSv of
radiation at their ankles when standing in water in unit 3.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Japanese natural disaster - the nuclear power accident.
B. Fukushima 1 nuclear accident - the largest nuclear power of all time.
C. The nuclear power accident - Japanese catastrophe.
D. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant.
2. It can be inferred from the passage that:
A. The Fukushima I Nuclear Power Plant is the world’s largest nuclear accident.
B. The accident happened in the early part of the year 2011.
C. Chernobyl is the world’s largest and most complex nuclear accident.
D. Reactor doesn’t involve in the accident.
3. The word “ongoing’ in the passage is closest in meaning to:
A. old-fashioned B. onslaught C. continuous D. disastrous
4. The word “withstand” in the second paragraph is could be best replaced by:
A. stand B. stand together C. wrestle D. strike
5. All of the following are mentioned in the passage EXCEPT:
A. The cause of the accident is the Tohoku earthquake and tsunami.
B. The earthquake causes a great damage to Japan and the neighboring country.
C. The tsunami struck the country after the earthquake had occurred approximately an hour.
D. The reactor was barred from external assistance because of the flooding and earthquake damage.
6. According to the passage, which of the followings is NOT true?
A. The plant suffered a 14-metre seawall.
B. The highest wave was 46 ft in height,
C. The reactor 5 and 6 started overheating though they were in cold shutdown for maintenance.
D. The flood with water containing radioactivity made it impossible for the machinery to be repaired.
7. According to the passage, which of the following can be inferred?
A. The Chernobyl disaster happened in the late 19th century.
B. Food was banned from sale for fear that the country would run out of food.
C. The people in Tokyo were advised not to use tap water to cook for children.
D. Two workers were sent to hospital as they were exposed to radiation when standing in water in unit 3.
8. The word “inoperable” in the passage could be best replaced by:
A. incompatible B. impracticable C. irrepressible D. mysterious
9. When the earthquake occurred, how many plants were inactive?
A. 3 B. 4, 5, 6 C. 5, 6 D. 5
10. Why does the author mention “plutonium contamination” in the last paragraph?
A. to show that the Japanese discovered plutonium mine after the nuclear accident.
B. to show that plutonium was contaminated after the nuclear accident.
C. to show that the soil was polluted by plutonium.
D. to give an example of soil containing natural resource.
Passage 2
THE HISTORY OF THE GUITAR
The word ‘guitar’ was brought into English as an adaptation of the Spanish word ‘guitarra’, which was, in
turn, derived from the Greek ‘kithara’. Tracing the roots of the word further back into linguistic history, it
seems to have been a combination of the Indo-European stem ‘guit-’, meaning music, and the root ‘-tar’,
meaning chord or string. The root ‘-tar’ is actually common to a number of languages, and can also be found in
the word ‘sitar’, also a stringed musical instrument. Although the spelling and pronunciation differ between
languages, these key elements have been present in most words for ‘guitar’ throughout history.
While the guitar may have gained most of its popularity as a musical instrument during the modern era,
guitar-like instruments have been in existence in numerous cultures throughout the world for more than 5.000
years. The earliest instruments that the modem eye and ear would recognise as a ‘normal’ acoustic guitar date
from about 500 years ago. Prior to this time, stringed instruments were in use throughout the world, but these
early instruments are known primarily from visual depictions, not from the continued existence of music
written for them. The majority of these depictions show simple stringed instruments, often lacking some of the
parts that define a modern guitar. A number of these instruments have more in common with the lute than the
guitar.
There is some uncertainty about the exact date of the earliest six-string guitar. The oldest one still in
existence, which was made by Gaetano Vinaccia, is dated 1779. However, the authenticity of six-string guitars
alleged to have been made prior to 1790 is often suspect, as many fakes have been discovered dating to this era.
The early nineteenth century is generally accepted as the time period during which six- string guitars began
taking on their modem shape and dimensions. Thus for nearly two hundred years, luthiers, or guitar makers,
have been producing versions of the modem acoustic guitar.
The first electric guitar was not developed until the early twentieth century: George Beauchamp received
the first patent for an electric guitar in 1936, and Beauchamp went on to co-found Rickenbacker, originally
known as the Electro String Instrument Company. Although Rickenbacker began producing electric guitars in
the late 1930s, this brand received most of its fame in the 1960s, when John Lennon used a Rickenbacker guitar
for the Beatles’ debut performance on the Ed Sullivan show in 1964. George Harrison later bought a
Rickenbacker guitar of his own, and the company later gave him one of their earliest 12-string electric guitars.
Paul McCartney also used a Rickenbacker bass guitar for recording. The Beatles continued to use Rickenbacker
guitars throughout their career, and made the instruments highly popular among other musicians of the era.
The Fender Musical Instruments Company and the Gibson Guitar Corporation were two other early electric
guitar pioneers, both developing models in the early 1950s. Fender began with the Telecaster in 1950 and 1951,
and the Fender Stratocaster debuted in 1954. Gibson began selling the Gibson Les Paul, based partially on
assistance from jazz musician and guitar innovator
Les Paul, in 1952. The majority of present day solid-body electric guitars are still based largely on these
three early electric guitar designs.
Throughout the history of the guitar, an enormous number of individuals have made their mark on the way
in which the instrument was built, played and perceived. Though some of these individuals are particularly well
known, like the Beatles or Les Paul, the majority of these people are virtually invisible to most modern guitar
fans. By looking at the entire history of the guitar, rather than just recent developments, largely confined to
electric guitars, it is possible to see more of the contributions of earlier generations.
Complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answer in the numbered box.
1. Despite differences in ________, ‘guit-’ and ‘-tar’ appear in the word for ‘guitar’ in many languages.
2. Instruments that we would call acoustic guitars have been made and played for approximately ________.
3. The ________ of acoustic guitars have not changed much in 200 years.
4. Les Paul, the well-known ________ guitarist, was involved in the development of the electric guitar.
5. Most ________ of the guitar know little about its rich history.
Complete the summary. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answer in the numbered box.
Instruments similar to the guitar have been played by musicians for over (6) ________ years. What we
know about many of these instruments comes from (7) ________ rather than actual physical examples or music
played on them. In some ways, these early stringed instruments were closer to (8) ________ than the guitar as
we know it today. We do have examples of six-string guitars that are 200 years old. However, the (9) ________
of six-string guitars made by guitar makers who are also known as luthiers before the final decade of the
eighteenth century is often open to question.
Although the electric guitar was invented in the 1930s, it took several decades for electric guitars to
develop, with the company Rickenbacker playing a major part in this development. Most (10) ________
electric guitars in use today are similar in design to guitars produced by the Fender Musical Instruments
Company and the Gibson Guitar Corporation in the 1950s.
PART 4. GUIDED CLOZE TEST (10 marks)
Choose the words or phrases that best fit the blanks to make a complete passage
When faced to some new and possible bewildering technology change, most people react in one of two
ways. They either recoil (1) ________ anything new, claiming that it is unnecessary, or too complicated or that
it (2) ________ makes life less than human. Or they learn to adapt to the new invention and (3) ________
wonder how they could possibly have existed without it. Take computers as example. For many of us, they still
(4) ________ a threat to our freedom and give us a frightening (5) ________ of a future in which all decisions
will be (6) ________ by machines. This may be because they seem (7) ________, and difficult to understand.
Ask most people what you can use a home computer for, and you usually get vague answers about how ‘they
give you information’. In fact, even those of us who are (8) ________ with computer and use them in our daily
work, have little idea of how they work. But it does not take long to learn how to operate a business
programme, even if things occasionally go wrong for no apparent reason. Presumably, much the same
happened when telephone and television became widespread. What seems to alarm most people is the (9)
________ of technology change, rather than change itself. And the objections that are made to new technology
may (10) ________ have a point to them, since change is not always an improvement. As we discover during
power cuts, there is a lot to be said for the oil lamp, the coal fire, and forms of entertainment, such as books or
board games, which don’t have to be plugged into work.
1. A. of B. out of C. away from D. from
2. A. somewhere B. someplace C. someway D. somewhat
3. A. eventually B. possibly C. initially D. naturally
4. A. show B. meet C. face D. represent
5. A. possibility B. sense C. idea D. prospect
6. A. invented B. changed C. taken D. done
7. A. unsteady B. unsure C. mysterious D. obvious
8. A. accustomed B. familiar C. used D. commonplace
9. A. rate B. swiftness C. speed D. tempo
10. A. badly B. better C. worse D. well
B. WRITTEN TEST
PART 1. VERB TENSES/ VERB FORMS (10 marks)
Put the verbs in brackets in the correct tenses or forms
1. It is highly desirable that every effort (make) ________ to reduce expenditure.
2. This homework is not as good as usual. I think you (spend) ________ more time on it.
3. There (be) ________ any errors, let me know.
4. I apologized for the mistake (make) ________ by my team. There appears to (be) ________ a slight
misunderstanding.
5. The medicine made me feel dizzy. I felt as though the room (spin) ________ around and around.
6. I’d rather (not/invite) ________ to the party with my parents because there was nothing interesting there.
7. There was no sign (indicate) ________ that the cottage (break) ________ into.
8. All the best things (go) ________ if we don’t get to the sale soon.
PART 2. PREPOSITIONS AND PHRASAL VERBS (10 marks)
Fill each gap with a suitable preposition or adverbial particle
1. We made ________ that we had forgotten Jane’s birthday, though it was not true.
2. The workforce felt that they had been bullied ________ accepting the new contract by the management
3. After a week on the run, he gave himself ________ to the police
4. There are several theories about why dinosaurs died ________ so suddenly
5. They should be able to settle their differences without restoring ________ violence
6. He had married his daughter ________ to a man twice her age.
7. Are you going to sit ________ and let me do everything?
8. The students were slow to catch ________, but gradually they began to understand
9. According to a recent survey, most people are ________ good terms with their neighbors
10. She seemed totally absorbed her book
PART 3. WORD FORMS (10 marks)
Complete the sentences with the correct forms of the given words
1. As the sole (benefit) ________ of his uncle’s will, he inherited a huge fortune.
2. Good (sell) ________ is a partly about getting on well with the customers.
3. He is the bad manager in the factory and everyone is in attempt to (famous) ________ him.
4. I was surprised by his (prepare) ________ to break the law.
5. If you choose to take part in some (sport) ________ activity, you will probably undergo some form of
training or practice.
6. It was a voice I had not heard before and it (orient) ________ me
7. They re (mind) ________ people, so the bad language in that film is unlikely to offend them.
8. The mother of the child hurried (breath) ________ to her neighborhood drugstore.
9. Hundreds of unemployed (prison) ________ could be pushed back towards crime by the closure of job
training programs.
10. This article is about people who claim to have (normal) ________ abilities such as mind-reading.
PART 4. ERROR IDENTIFICATION (10 marks)
There are 10 mistakes in this passage. Underline and correct them
It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out often bands that release a first record fail to
produce the second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires and
intricate knowledge of how a record company is functioned. The process begins when a presenter of a
company’s Artist and Repertoire (A&R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting for young, talented
bands. After the representative identifies a promised band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that
band. The signature of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will spend a long time to
investigate the band itself as well as current trends for popular music. During this period, it is important that a
band reciprocates with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and
making personnel connections within the different departments that will handle their recordings
PART 5. OPEN CLOZE TEST (10 marks)
Fill in each blank with ONE word to make a complete passage.
New technologies, like all technologies, are morally neutral. (1) ________ their advent makes the world a
better place or not depends on the uses to which they are (2) ________ And that, (3) ________ turn, depends
upon the decisions of many people, especially of politicians, managers, trade (4) ________ leaders, engineers
and scientists. The new technologies, cheap, flexible, dependent on knowledge and information as their main
input, can (5) ________ human being from many of their current constraints for example constraints of
resources and geography. (6) ________ the new technologies could also (7) ________ those with power to
control their fellow citizens even more effectively than in the (8) ________ efficient dictatorships of the past.
The new technological society will (9) ________ colossal demands on our imagination and ingenuity and on
the capacity (10) ________ our institutions to respond to new challenges.
PART 6. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION (20 marks)
Rewrite each of the sentences with the given word or the given beginning so that the new sentence has the
same meaning as the previous one.
1. I heard her use those words many times.
Many’s____________________________________________________________________
2. Owen is a good player but Rooney is better.
Very good__________________________________________________________________
3. My salary is half what I would be in the job I was offered in January
If_________________________________________________________________________
4. Two men stole the old lady’s handbag.
The old lady was____________________________________________________________
5. You could be arrested for not giving a breath sample to the police.
Refusal____________________________________________________________________
6. Attendance at the additional evening lectures is not obligatory for students. UNDER
Students______________________________________the additional evening lectures.
7. As a result of the bad weather, there may be delay to some international flights. SUBJECT
Due to the bad weather__________________________________________possible delay.
8. They were very keen to hear the president’s speech. EARS
They_________________________________________________the president’s speech.
9. You can walk to the station easily from the hotel. DISTANCE
The station________________________________________________________the hotel
10. The terrorists attack on the Capital Trade Center was very much like the 11-9 attack on the WTO building.
CARBON
The terrorists attack on the Capital Trade Center___________________________________
the 11-9 attack on the WTO building.