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ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS
GENERAL STUDIES (P) TEST – 3809 (2023)
Q 1.C
x Underneath the calm turquoise waters off eastern Thailand, a rapidly spreading disease is killing corals over
vast stretches of the sea floor, and scientists fear it may be getting worse because of climate change.
x Yellow-band disease—named for the color it turns corals before destroying them—was first spotted
decades ago and has caused widespread damage to reefs in the Caribbean. There is no known cure.
x But it was detected for the first time off Thailand's eastern coast just last year, near the popular tourist city
of Pattaya, and has already spread over roughly 600 acres (240 hectares) of the sea.
x Scientists believe overfishing, pollution and rising water temperatures because of climate change may be
making the reefs more vulnerable to yellow-band disease. The disease's impact cannot be reversed, unlike
the effects of coral bleaching.
x Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 2.A
x The Constitution provides details of various categories of persons who are entitled to citizenship and under
Article 11 it empowers Parliament to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of
citizenship and all matters relating to it. In pursuance of that Citizenship Act of 1955 was passed which
provides for the manner of acquisition as well as the termination of citizenship. The Citizenship Act of 1955
prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship, viz, birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and
incorporation of territory.
x The Act has made it clear that corporations are not considered citizens. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x Domicile is an important criterion for acquiring citizenship in any country. While it is not defined in the
Constitution, it connotes a person's residence where he intends to live permanently. Hence statement 2 is
not correct.
Q 3.A
x The T+1 settlement cycle means that trade-related settlements must be done within a day, or 24 hours,
of the completion of a transaction. For example, under T+1, if a customer bought shares on Wednesday,
they would be credited to the customer’s demat account on Thursday. As many as 256 large-cap and top
mid-cap stocks, including Nifty and Sensex stocks, will come under the T+1 settlement from Friday.
x After China, India will become the second country in the world to start the ‘trade-plus-one’ (T+1)
settlement cycle in top-listed securities.
x Benefits of T+1 settlement cycle:
o The most important benefit of this shortening of the settlement cycle is that it reduces the risk of
non-payment or non-delivery of shares by the broker by one day. A shortened settlement cycle also
reduces the number of outstanding unsettled trades at any point in time, and thus decreases the unsettled
exposure to Clearing Corporation by 50 percent. The narrower the settlement cycle, the narrower the
time window for a counterparty insolvency/ bankruptcy to impact the settlement of a trade. Hence
option 2 is correct.
o This will provide liquidity to the investors as they get their funds for the shares sold/ credited to
their account a day earlier. The investors will have the benefit of profitably deploying their cash for
a day more, either to buy shares or otherwise. The real advantage of such an early settlement can be
experienced in a volatile market, as it can help in the efficient use of capital and resultant benefits to
the investors. Hence option 1 is correct.
o With the additional liquidity provided by the improved system, there is every possibility of
investors undertaking more transactions in the stock market, which will benefit the brokers as
well, as they too will earn more through higher turnover.
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o With increased turnover possible through quicker settlements, all the participants in the market—
stock exchanges, depositories, depository participants, and even the government—will stand to
benefit from increased fees and taxes, etc.
x Foreign investors were against SEBI’s T+1 proposal and had written to the regulator and the Finance
Ministry about the operational issues faced by them, as they operate from different geographies. Among the
issues raised by them were time zone differences, information flow processes, and foreign exchange
problems. Foreign investors said they would also find it difficult to hedge their net India exposure in dollar
terms at the end of the day under the T+1 system. Hence option 3 is not correct.
Q 4.C
x Recent context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) crossed an important milestone
with the successful launch of its heaviest rocket, LVM3-M2/OneWeb India-1, on October 23, 2022.
x The Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM 3) rocket carried almost 6 tonnes of payload into lower-earth
orbit, the most that any ISRO mission has delivered into space till date. Very few countries have the
capability to launch satellites weighing more than 2 tonnes. The LVM3 rocket is meant to end that
dependence and also become the vehicle for the more ambitious parts of India’s space programmes
— manned missions, Moon landings and deep space explorations — in the near future. Hence pair 1
is correctly matched.
x The Long March (LM) rockets are a family of launch vehicles operated by the China National Space
Administration (CNSA). Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.
o Recently, China launched its Long March-11 rocket from an offshore launchpad, carrying two
satellites into the Lower Earth Orbit (LEO).
o By launching its first rocket from the sea, China has flexed its space power capabilities.
o For the first time, a Long March-11 launch vehicle was modified to launch from a nearshore platform,
which was located about three kilometers away.
x On November 1, 2022, Elon Musk-owned SpaceX, based in California, launched the Falcon Heavy
rocket into a geosynchronous Earth orbit from the Launch Complex at the Kennedy Space Center in
Florida, U.S. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
o Falcon Heavy is one of the most powerful operational rockets in the world, capable of lifting
nearly 64 metric tonnes into orbit.
o It is composed of three reusable Falcon 9 nine-engine cores whose 27 Merlin engines together generate
more than 5 million pounds of thrust at liftoff.
x Europe's Ariane rocket, first launched in 1979 from Europe’s Spaceport in French Guiana, has been
leading Europe to the forefront of space transportation for over 40 years. Hence pair 4 is not correctly
matched.
o Ariane is a highly reliable heavy-lift rocket able to place single or multiple payloads in any orbit.
x Until recently, ISRO also relied on Ariane rockets from Europe to launch its heavy satellites.
Q 5.B
x Statement 1 is correct: All executive action of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be
taken in the name of the Governor. Orders and other instruments made and executed in the name of the
Governor shall be authenticated in such manner as may be specified in rules to be made by the Governor.
Further, the validity of an order or instrument which is so authenticated shall not be called in question on
the ground that it is not an order or instrument made or executed by the Governor.
x Statement 2 is not correct: The Governor shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the
business of the government of the state and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business in
so far as it is not business with respect to which the Governor is required to act in his discretion. Orders and
other instruments made and executed in the name of the Governor shall be authenticated in such manner as
may be specified in rules to be made by the Governor. Further, the validity of an order or instrument which
is so authenticated shall not be called in question on the ground that it is not an order or instrument made or
executed by the Governor.
Q 6.D
x Palakkad gap is also known as Palghat Gap, a major break in the Western Ghats mountain range, in
southwestern India. Located between the Nilgiri Hills to the north and the Anaimalai Hills to the south, it
is about 32 km wide and straddles the Kerala–Tamil Nadu border, serving as a major communication route
between those two states. Highways and rail lines through the gap connect Palghat in Kerala with
Coimbatore and Pollachi in Tamil Nadu. Hence, it is called as the gateway to Kerala.

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x Older than the Himalayas, many geological theories reinforce the formation of the gap. One of the
theories postulates that it is here that Madagascar separated from the Indian plate forming a wide
gap. The Angavo entrapment in Madagascar and Palakkad gap fit into each other perfectly.
x Palghat Gap also influences southern India’s climate; the wet southwest monsoons as well as storms
from the Bay of Bengal cross the mountains through the opening.
x Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 7.B
x The Ashtapradhan or the Council of State Ministers was neither the creation of Shivaji nor was at
first organized at, the time of his coronation. Many of these officers like Peshwa, Majumdar, Waqai
navis, Dabir and Surnavis had existed under the Deccani rulers also. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
x The peshwa, mazumdar, wakins, dabir, surnis existed under the Deccani rulers also.
x All, except pandit rao and nyayadhish were asked to lead military campaigns.
x Under Shivaji these offices were neither hereditary nor permanent and they held office till the king's
pleasure and they were frequently transferred. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
x They were directly paid by the exchequer and no jagir was granted to any civil or military officer.
x Later, under the peshwas, they assumed hereditary and permanent character.
x The council could advise the king but it was not binding on him to accept its advice. Hence, statement 3
is not correct.
Q 8.D
x The Hindu Kush Himalaya is an 800-kilometer-long (500 mi) mountain range. To the north, near its
northeastern end, the Hindu Kush buttresses the Pamir Mountains near the point where the borders of China,
Pakistan, and Afghanistan meet. The eastern end of the Hindu Kush in the north merges with the Karakoram
Range. Towards its southern end, it connects with the Spin Ghar Range near the Kabul River.
x The Hindu Kush Himalaya region spans Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, India, Kyrgyzstan,
Mongolia, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
x The range has numerous high snow-capped peaks, with the highest point being Tirich Mir or Terichmir at
7,708 meters in Pakistan. The average peak height of these mountains is about 4,500 meters making it the
Third Pole (after the North and South Poles) of Earth. Since it contains vast cryospheric zones, it has
significant implications for climate. A recent report by the IPCC has highlighted the threat to the HKH
region from global warming. It also forms the boundary between the Indus watershed in South Asia and the
Amu Darya watershed in Central Asia.
x The Rocky Mountains or the Rockies is the mountain range dominating the western North American
continent. It extends through a distance of about 4,800 km from Alberta and British Columbia to New
Mexico (a part of the USA). It thus covers only 2 countries- the USA and Canada. Hence, statement 2
is not correct.

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x The Andes group of mountains is the longest mountain range on land. It is situated on the South
American continent. It is home to numerous glaciers, volcanoes, grassland, desert, lakes, and forest. From
Venezuela in the north, the range passes through seven countries including Colombia, Ecuador, Peru,
Bolivia, Argentina, and Chile. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 9.A
x Hemis National Park is a high-elevation national park in Ladakh. The park lies within the Karakoram-
West Tibetan Plateau alpine steppe ecoregion, and contains pine forests, alpine shrublands and meadows,
and alpine tundra vegetation. The park is home to a viable breeding population of about 200 snow leopards,
especially in the Rumbak catchment area. The prey base for the apex predator in the Central Asian
Highlands is primarily supported in Hemis by Argali (Great Tibetan Sheep), Bharal (Blue Sheep), Shapu
(Ladakhi Urial), and livestock. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
x Pin Valley National Park is a protected area located in the Lahaul and Spiti district of the Himachal
Pradesh. It is known for its unique and diverse flora and fauna, including the snow leopard, Himalayan
tahr, bharal, and other high-altitude wildlife. The park is situated in the cold desert region of the Indian
Himalayas and is characterized by its barren landscapes, glaciers, and peaks. It is known for its rich cultural
heritage, including the ancient Buddhist civilization that once thrived in the region. Hence pair 2 is
correctly matched.
x Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area located in the Ladakh region. It covers an area of
approximately 1600 square kilometers and is known for its unique and diverse flora and fauna, including

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the snow leopard, wild ass, Tibetan antelope, and other high-altitude wildlife. The sanctuary is
situated in the cold desert region of the Changthang plateau and is characterized by its barren
landscapes, glaciers, and peaks. It boasts of the highest lake on earth, Tso Moriri. Hence pair 3 is not
correctly matched.
x Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary Lying at a height of 4,205 m above the sea level in the state of Himachal
Pradesh, the mountainous village of Kibber is known for its natural beauty and monasteries. This sanctuary
is the only one in India that is located in a cold desert and one can find blue sheep and ibex here. Kibber
is also one of the most fossiliferous (containing fossils or organic remains) regions in the country. Hence
pair 4 is not correctly matched.
Q 10.A
x One might observe the apparent random wavering or flickering of objects seen through a turbulent stream
of hot air rising above a fire or a radiator.
x The air just above the fire becomes hotter than the air further up. The hotter air is lighter (less dense) than
the cooler air above it and has a refractive index slightly less than that of the cooler air.
x This wavering is thus an effect of atmospheric refraction (refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere) on
a small scale in our local environment.
x The twinkling of stars is a similar phenomenon on a much larger scale. The twinkling of a star is due
to the atmospheric refraction of starlight. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x The starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the
earth. The atmospheric refraction occurs in a medium of gradually changing refractive index.
x Since the atmosphere bends starlight towards the normal, the apparent position of the star is slightly different
from its actual position.
x The star appears slightly higher (above) than its actual position when viewed near the horizon. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.
x Further, this apparent position of the star is not stationary, but keeps on changing slightly, since the physical
conditions of the earth’s atmosphere are not stationary.
Q 11.A
x A food chain is a linear sequence of organisms that shows the transfer of energy and nutrients from one
species to another in an ecosystem. Each species in the food chain is either eating another organism or is
being eaten by another organism. The food chain begins with the primary producers, which are typically
plants that convert sunlight into food through photosynthesis.
x Sequence of a grassland food chain is grasses (primary producers) -> Grasshoppers (herbivores) ->
Frogs (carnivores) In this food chain, the grasses convert the sun's energy into food through
photosynthesis. Grasshoppers feed on the grasses and provide food for the frogs, which are predators that
consume the grasshoppers. Hence option 1 is correct.
x A terrestrial grazing food chain sequence is: Caterpillar (primary consumer) -> Lizard (secondary
consumer) -> Snake (tertiary consumer). Hence option 2 is correct.
x Aquatic food chain involving zooplankton, crustaceans, and squid:
o Zooplankton (tiny floating animals) consume phytoplankton (microscopic floating plants)
o Smaller crustaceans (e.g. copepods) eat zooplankton
o Larger crustaceans (e.g. krill) eat smaller crustaceans and zooplankton
o Squid and small fish consume crustaceans
o Larger fish consume squid and smaller fish, Finally, top predators such as whales and seals feed on the
largest fish.
x Hence option 3 is not correct.
Q 12.D
x A desert is an area of land that receives no more than 25 centimeters (10 inches) of precipitation a year. The
amount of evaporation in a desert often greatly exceeds the annual rainfall.
x Hot Desert:
o There are mainly two types – hot like the hot deserts of the Saharan type and temperate as are the mid-
latitude deserts like the Gobi.
o The aridity of the hot deserts is mainly due to the effects of off-shore Trade Winds, hence they are
also called Trade Wind Deserts. Hence option (b) is not correct.
o The major hot deserts of the world are located on the western coasts of continents between latitudes 15°
and 30°N and S.

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o They include the biggest Sahara Desert (3.5 million square miles), Great Australian Desert, Arabian
Desert, Iranian Desert, Thar Desert, Kalahari and Namib Deserts.
o In North America, the desert extends from Mexico into U.S.A. and is called by different names at
different places, e.g. the Mohave, Sonoran, Californian and Mexican Deserts.
o In South America, the Atacama or Peruvian Desert (rain shadow effect and off-shore trade winds) is
the driest of all deserts with less than 2 cm of rainfall annually.
x Mid-Latitude Desert:
o The temperate deserts are rainless because of either continentality or the rain-shadow effect. Gobi
desert is formed due to continentality and Patagonian desert due to rain-shadow effect.
o Amongst the mid-latitude deserts, many are found on plateau and are at a considerable distance from
the sea. These are Ladakh, The Kyzyl Kum, Turkestan, Taklimakan and Gobi deserts of Central Asia,
drier portions of the Great Basin Desert of the western United States and the Patagonian Deserts of
Argentina, etc.
o The Patagonian Desert is more due to its rain-shadow position on the leeward side of the lofty Andes
than to continentality.
x Climate in Desert:
o Deserts, whether hot or mid-latitude have an annual precipitation of less than 25 cm.
o Atacama (driest place on earth) has practically no rain at all.
o Rain normally occurs as violent thunderstorms of the convectional type. It ‘bursts’ suddenly and
pours continuously for a few hours over small areas. The thunderstorm is so violent, and comes so
suddenly that it has disastrous consequences on desert landforms (flash floods). Hence option (d) is
the correct answer.
o There is no cold season in the hot deserts and the average summer temperature is high around 30°C.
The diurnal range of temperature in the deserts is very great. Intense insolation by day in a region of
dry air and no clouds causes the temperature to rise with the sun. But as soon as the sun sets, the land
loses heat very quickly by radiation and the mercury levels drop.
High diurnal temperature range is a typical feature of hot deserts. Average diurnal range varies
from 14 to 25° Celsius. Frosts may occur at night in winter.
The annual range of temperature in mid-latitude deserts is much greater than that of the hot
deserts. Contitentiality accounts for these extremes in temperature. Hence option (a) is not
correct.
x An oasis is an area made fertile by a source of freshwater in an otherwise dry and arid region. Oases
(more than one oasis) are irrigated by natural springs or other underground water sources. Underground
water sources called aquifers supply most oases. In some cases, a natural spring brings the underground
water to the surface.
x Desert soil is mostly sandy soil (90–95%) found in low-rainfall regions. It has a low content of nitrogen
and organic matter with very high calcium carbonate and phosphate, thus making it infertile. The amount
of calcium is 10 times higher in the lower layer than in the topsoil. Hence option (c) is not correct.
Q 13.D
x As per Article 98 of the Indian Constitution, each House of Parliament shall have a separate
secretariat staff.
x In the discharge of his constitutional and statutory responsibilities, the Chairman, of Rajya Sabha is assisted
by the Secretary-General, who holds the rank of the Cabinet Secretary to the Government of India. The
Secretary-General, in turn, is assisted by senior functionaries at the level of Secretary, Additional Secretary,
Joint Secretary, and other officers and staff of the Secretariat.
x Functions of the Secretary-General of Rajya Sabha:
o He assists the Presiding Officers in conducting the proceedings of the House by giving them advice and
expert opinion.
o He does not participate in the debate except for reporting messages from the Lok Sabha about Bills or
any other matter.
o All notices under the rules are addressed to him.
o He is the custodian of the records of the House. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o He prepares a full report of the proceedings of the House and also issues the List of Business for the
day. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o He is the administrative head of the Rajya Sabha Secretariat. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

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Q 14.B
x India’s current account balance recorded a deficit of $36.4 billion (or a nine-year high of 4.4% of GDP) in
the quarter ended September, rising from $18.2 billion (2.2% of GDP) in the previous quarter. While in
absolute terms, the current account deficit was at its highest in more than a decade, as a percentage of GDP,
it was at the highest since the June quarter of 2013.
x Underlying the current account deficit in Q2 was the widening of the merchandise trade deficit to
$83.5 billion from $63.0 billion in the April-June quarter and an increase in net outgo under investment
income. During the first half-year ended September, India recorded a current account deficit of 3.3% of
GDP, again on the back of a sharp increase in the merchandise trade deficit, compared with 0.2% a year
earlier.
x Services exports reported a growth of 30.2 per cent on a year-on-year (y-o-y) basis on the back of rising
exports of software, business and travel services.
x Private transfer receipts in the September quarter, mainly representing remittances by Indians
employed overseas, stood at $27.4 billion, an increase of 29.7% from the same period last year.
x In the financial account, net foreign direct investment decreased to US$ 6.4 billion from US$ 8.7 billion a
year ago. Net foreign portfolio investment recorded inflows of US$ 6.5 billion, up from US$ 3.9 billion
during Q2:2021-22.
x Net external commercial borrowings to India recorded an outflow of US$ 0.4 billion in Q2:2022-23
as against an inflow of US$ 4.3 billion a year ago.
x There was a depletion of foreign exchange reserves, on a balance of payments basis, to the tune of $30.4
billion in Q2, compared to an accretion of $31.2 billion a year ago.
x Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 15.B
x The Global Environment Facility (GEF) is a financial mechanism established to assist developing
countries in addressing the global environmental issues of biodiversity, climate change, international waters,
land degradation, the ozone layer, and persistent organic pollutants.
x It was established in 1991 and is administered by the World Bank in 1992, at the Rio Earth
Summit, the GEF was restructured and moved out of the World Bank system to become a permanent,
separate institution. Since 1994, however, the World Bank has served as the Trustee of the GEF Trust Fund
and provided administrative services. The GEF provides grants and low-interest loans to developing
countries for projects and programs that address these global environmental issues. Hence statement 1 is
not correct and statement 2 is correct.
x The GEF also serves as a funding mechanism for the implementation of several international
environmental conventions and agreements. These are:
o Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)
o United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Hence statement 3 is
correct.
o United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
o Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
o Minamata Convention on Mercury
o The GEF also supports implementation of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone
Layer (MP)
Q 16.C
x The factors of production are considered to be basic inputs that are absolutely necessary for the production
of any good or service that is useful to final consumers. Land, labour, and capital are widely considered to
be the three main factors of production.
x More recently, entrepreneurship is also considered by many to be the fourth factor of production. It is
believed to be the most crucial factor of production that brings together the other three factors. In fact, many
believe that other factors of production would be rendered useless without entrepreneurship.
x In the modern economy, some economists, however, consider land, labour, and time to be the three
primary factors of production. They believe capital and entrepreneurship to be secondary factors of
production in the sense that these factors are derived by first combining land, labour, and time. Hence
statement 1 is correct.
x In the modern economy, physical capital such as machines, for instance, are produced by first mixing land
and labour over a certain period of time. Only after this happens do we see capital being brought to life and
used to produce other intermediate or final goods and services. Similarly, these economists argue,

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entrepreneurship which involves an element of uncertainty can also be seen as the product of mixing the
three primary factors of production, namely land, labour, and time. The role of the entrepreneur involves
dealing with uncertainties that mire the production process. This element of uncertainty is brought into the
picture by time, which is necessarily involved in the production of any good or service.
x The ownership of the factors of production has been a matter of intense debate over many centuries. Marxist
economists, for instance, have long argued that the factors of production need to be collectively owned by
the state. Marxists believe that private ownership of the factors of production leads to the exploitation of
labour supplied by the working class and the mismanagement of scarce resources.
x Economists from various free-market schools of thought, however, strongly believe in the private
ownership of all factors of production in an economy. They argue that private ownership offers resource
owners the incentive to use the factors of production most efficiently, both in terms of avoiding unnecessary
wastage and extracting the most value out of limited resources. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 17.C
x Public Accounts Committee This committee was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government
of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members
are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principle of
proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Thus, all parties get due
representation in it.
x The term of office of the members is one year.
x A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Hence statement 3 is correct.
x The chairman of the committee is appointed from amongst its members by the Speaker. Until 1966 - ‘67,
the chairman of the committee belonged to the ruling party. However, since 1967 a convention has
developed (there is no such provision in the Indian Constitution) whereby the chairman of the committee
is selected invariably from the Opposition. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
x The committee examines public expenditure not only from the legal and formal points of view to discover
technical irregularities but also from the point of view of the economy, prudence, wisdom, and propriety to
bring out the cases of waste, loss, corruption, extravagance, inefficiency, and nugatory expenses.
x The effectiveness of the role of the committee is limited by the following:
o It is not concerned with the questions of policy in a broader sense.
o It conducts a post-mortem examination of accounts (showing the expenditure already incurred).
o It cannot intervene in matters of day-to-day administration.
o Its recommendations are advisory and not binding on the ministries.
o It is not vested with the power of disallowance of expenditures by the departments.
o It is not an executive body and hence, cannot issue an order. Only the Parliament can take a final
decision on its findings.
Q 18.C
x Office of Profit:
o The origin of this term can be found in the English Act of Settlement, 1701.
o This was instituted so that there would not be any undue influence from the royal household in
administrative affairs.
o It is a position in the government that cannot be held by an MLA or an MP.
o The post can yield salaries, perquisites, and other benefits.
o According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of the Constitution, an MP or MLA is barred from
holding an office of profit as it can put them in a position to gain a financial benefit. Under the RPA
1951 too, holding an office of profit is grounds for disqualification. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o The expression “office of profit” has not been defined in the Constitution or in the Representation
of the People Act, 1951. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
o It is for the courts to explain the significance and meaning of this concept. In 1964, the Supreme Court
ruled that the test for determining
whether a person holds an office of profit is the test of appointment.
whether the government is the appointing authority
whether the government has the power to terminate the appointment
whether the government determines the remuneration
what is the source of remuneration
o The essence of disqualification under the office of profit law is if legislators hold an ‘office of profit’
under the government, they might be susceptible to government influence, and may not discharge their
constitutional mandate fairly.

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Q 19.A
x To promote Inland Water Transport (IWT) in the country, 111 waterways (including 5 existing and 106
new) have been declared as National Waterways (NWs) under the National Waterways Act, 2016 which
came into effect on 12th April 2016. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) was constituted under IWAI Act, 1985 for the
development and regulation of inland waterways for shipping and navigation. The Authority
undertakes various infrastructure development works on national waterways. It also carries out feasibility
studies and prepares proposals for the declaration of other waterways as National Waterways. It also assists
States in the development of the IWT sector and provides subsidies to IWT operators for acquiring the IWT
fleet for the transportation of cargo and passengers. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
x Seven waterways had been declared as national waterways in Goa. Specific stretches of six rivers of
Goa viz. Chapora (NW-25), Cumberjua Canal (NW-27), Mandovi (NW-68), Mapusa (NW-71), Sal
(NW-88) and Zuari (NW-111) have been included in the declared NWs among others. Hence,
Q 20.A
x The national green hydrogen mission is to provide a clean, renewable, and sustainable source of energy that
can be used in a variety of applications, including transportation, industrial processes, and power generation.
Green hydrogen is hydrogen produced through the electrolysis of water using renewable energy sources
such as solar or wind power, rather than through fossil fuels.
x As a part of green hydrogen mission, Green Hydrogen Hubs will be identified and developed in regions
capable of supporting large-scale hydrogen production and/or utilisation. Under the Strategic
Interventions for Green Hydrogen Transition Programme (SIGHT), the Mission will provide two
distinct financial incentive mechanisms aimed at domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and green
hydrogen production. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
x Monitoring System for Tigers’- Intensive Protection and Ecological Status (MSTrIPES) is a software
monitoring system launched by the Indian Government in 2010 in some tiger reserves to reduce
vulnerability of Tigers. The system would enable field managers to assist intensity and spatial coverage of
patrols in a geographic information system (GIS) domain.
x The Department of Heavy Industry is administering the scheme “Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of
Electric and Hybrid Vehicles in India”, popularly known as FAME India scheme. FAME India is a part
of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan. Main thrust of FAME is to encourage electric vehicles by
providing subsidies.
x To compensate the loss of forest area and to maintain the sustainability, the Government of India came up
with a well-defined Act, known as CAMPA (Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning
Authority) and not the SIGHT initiative.
Q 21.C
x Income and the Exchange Rate:
o When income increases, consumer spending increases. Spending on imported goods is also likely to
increase. When imports increase, the demand curve for foreign exchange shifts to the right. There is a
depreciation of the domestic currency.
o If there is an increase in income abroad as well, domestic exports will rise and the supply curve of
foreign exchange shifts outward. On balance, the domestic currency may or may not depreciate. What
happens will depend on whether exports are growing faster than imports. In general, other things
remaining equal, a country whose aggregate demand grows faster than the rest of the world’s
normally finds its currency depreciating because its imports grow faster than its exports. Its
demand curve for foreign currency shifts faster than its supply curve. Therefore the demand for
foreign currency would be higher than the supply of foreign currency leading to the depreciation
of the domestic currency. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 22.B
x The Panjdeh Incident or Panjdeh Scare was a battle that occurred in 1885 when Russian forces seized
Afghan territory south of the Amu Darya river around an oasis at Panjdeh (present-day Turkmenistan).
The incident created a diplomatic crisis between Russia and Great Britain. The competing interests of Russia
and Britain, the main protagonists in the Great Game, in Central and South Asia had for years been on the
increase, and the Panjdeh Incident came close to triggering full-scale armed conflict.
x Outright war was averted with diplomacy, and Lord Dufferin, Governor-General of India managed to
secure a settlement in which Russia kept the Merv Oasis and Panjdeh to the south of it, but relinquished an

.
important pass further west and promised to respect Afghan territorial integrity in the future. Hence option
(b) is the correct answer.
x Following the incident, the Anglo-Russian Boundary Commission was established to delineate the
northern frontier of Afghanistan. The commission did not have any Afghan involvement and effectively led
to Afghanistan becoming a buffer state between British India and the Russian Empire. The incident
brought the southward expansion of Imperial Russia to a halt.
Q 23.C
x Amarjeet Sinha Committee
o The committee will be headed by former Rural Development secretary Amarjeet Sinha and will submit
its suggestions in February 2023. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
o The Sinha committee has now been tasked to study the various factors behind the demand for
MGNREGA work, expenditure trends and inter-State variations, and the composition of work.
o It will suggest what changes in focus and governance structures are required to make MGNREGA more
effective.
o Higher costs – The present committee will also look at the argument that the cost of providing work has
also shot up since the scheme first started.
o The committee has to review the reasons and recommend ways to bring in a greater focus on poorer
areas.
o Asset creation – The committee will study if the composition of work taken up presently under the
scheme should be changed.
o It will review whether it should focus more on community-based assets or individual works.
Q 24.C
x Paumachariya is the earliest Jain work dealing with the story of Rama written by Acharya
Vimalasuri in Prakrit language in Arya meter. The life of Padma, Jain name of Rama is narrated in
118 cantos. Paumachariya is said to be the Jain version of the great epic ‘Ramayana’.
o Vimalasuri was a champion of rationalism. According to him, most of the stories in Ramayana are
certainly not true. There are many absurdities regarding the life of Rama, Ravana, Kumbhakarna and
others which are not worthy of belief.
o Hence, the aim was to eliminate all such absurdities, inconsistencies and incredible elements
found in the popular stories of Rama and to compose ‘Paumachariya’ to present faithfully the
story of Rama as was proclaimed by Lord Mahavira himself. However, the main intention was
the propaganda of Jainism.
o Vimalasuri is also credited with writing the first-ever Jain Mahabharata, titled
'Harivamsacharya.
o Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
x Hemachandra (1088-1172) also called Somachandra, original name Chandradeva was a teacher of the
Shvetambara (“White-Robed”) sect of Jainism who gained privileges for his religion from Siddharaja
Jayasimha, one of the greatest kings of Gujarat.
o Eloquent and erudite, Hemachandra also succeeded in converting the next king, Kumarapala, thus
firmly entrenching Jainism in Gujarat.
o He was a prodigious writer, he produced Sanskrit and Prakrit grammars, textbooks on science and
practically every branch of Indian philosophy, and several poems, including the
Trishashtishalakapurusha-charita (“Deeds of the 63 Illustrious Men”), a Sanskrit epic of the history of
the world as understood by Jain teachers.
x Haribhadra, also called Haribhadra Suri was a non-canonical author of treatises on Jainism, known for his
authoritative works in Sanskrit and Prakrit on Jain doctrine and ethics.
o Haribhadra is best known for his Shaddarshanasamuccaya, which deals with six philosophical systems
of India.
x Nāgārjuna [c. 150 – c. 250 CE (disputed)] was an Indian Mahāyāna Buddhist thinker, scholar-saint and
philosopher.
o Nāgārjuna is widely considered to be the founder of the Madhyamaka (centrism, middle-way) school
of Buddhist philosophy and a defender of the Mahāyāna movement.
o His Mūlamadhyamakakārikā (Root Verses on Madhyamaka, or MMK) is the most important
text on the madhyamaka philosophy of emptiness. The MMK inspired a large number of
commentaries in Sanskrit, Chinese, Tibetan, Korean and Japanese and continues to be studied today.

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Q 25.B
x Recently Global Carbon Project Report 2022 was released by Global Carbon Project. Global Carbon Project
was established in 2001. It is a shared partnership between International Geosphere-Biosphere
Programme, International Human Dimensions Programme on Global Environmental Change and
World Climate Research Programme and Diversitas. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o This partnership constituted the Earth Systems Science Partnership (ESSP) which subsequently evolved
into Future Earth.
x The Global Carbon Project is a Global Research Project of Future Earth and a research partner of the World
Climate Research Programme.
o It was formed to work with the international science community to establish a common and mutually
agreed knowledge base to support policy debate and action to slow down and ultimately stop the
increase of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
x The overwhelming realization that anthropogenic climate change is a reality has focused the attention of
the scientific community, policymakers and the general public on the rising atmospheric concentrations of
the main greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), and nitrous oxide (N2O).
o The GCP has approached this challenge by focusing comprehensively on the global
biogeochemical cycles which govern these three greenhouse gases, including their natural and
human drivers, and opportunities for low carbon pathways. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x IGBP was launched in 1987 to coordinate international research on global-scale and regional-scale
interactions between Earth's biological, chemical and physical processes and their interactions with human
systems. IGBP views the Earth system as the Earth's natural physical, chemical and biological cycles and
processes and the social and economic dimensions.
x The International Nitrogen Initiative (INI) is an international program, set up in 2003 under
sponsorship of the Scientific Committee on Problems of the Environment (SCOPE) and from the
International Geosphere-Biosphere Program (IGBP).
x Climate Watch is an online platform designed to empower policymakers, researchers, media and other
stakeholders with the open climate data, visualizations and resources they need to gather insights on national
and global progress on climate change. Climate Watch is implemented by World Resources Institute.
Q 26.A
x The Natal Indian Congress (NIC), founded by Mahatma Gandhi, was an organization formed with
the aim of fighting discrimination against Indians in South Africa. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x Mahatma Gandhi was the founder & Honorary Secretary of Natal Indian Congress. Hence, statement
2 is not correct.
x Abdoola Hajee Afam Jhaveri (Dada Abdulla) was elected as the prescient of the organization.
x Membership of the Congress was restricted to the trading class since a minimum of £3 annual
subscription was a condition of membership.
x According to Mahatma Gandhi, in less than a month, about three hundred Hindus, Muslims, Parsees, and
Christians became members.
x During its formative years, the NIC introduced many early petitions for changes to proposed discriminatory
legislation.
x The NIC met at least once a month to discuss current events, finances, and other issues. Congress also
included self-improvement as a component of its programmes.
x In line with this, Congress meetings discussed and debated issues ranging from sanitation to the need for
richer Indians to live in greater opulence and to differentiate between business and residential uses.
x The Gandhi campaigns of 1908 and 1913 were two of the most important campaigns organised by the NIC
in its early years.
x During these campaigns, a sizable segment of the Indian community demonstrated its willingness to engage
in militant struggles.
x The Natal Indian Congress (NIC) was the first of the Indian Congresses, followed by the Transvaal
Indian Congress (TIC) and the Cape Indian Congress, which later merged to form the South African
Indian Congress (SAIC) in 1919.
x In the 1930s and 1940s, the NIC, like the TIC, was influenced by more radical leaders such as G.M. Naicker,
who believed that the South African Indian Congress could only advance in their struggle if they
collaborated with national organisations representing African and Coloured people.
x In the 1960s, the organisation became inactive due to the growing state repression and the banning
of its leaders. It later allied itself with the African National Congress.

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Q 27.D
x Article 356 of the Constitution of India gives the President of India power to suspend state government and
impose President’s rule of any state in the country “if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the
government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution”. 1. The
Constitution of India has not explicitly mentioned the term 'President's Rule' under Article 356. Hence
x A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two
months from the date of its issue. The approval takes place through a simple majority in either House, that
is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
x The condition that if a state has failed to comply with or to give effect to any directions given in the exercise
of the executive power of the Union, a proclamation can be issued under Article 356, is given under Article
365. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 28.C
x Recent context: Russia uses hypersonic missiles in a strike on Ukraine's arms depot.
x Hypersonic weapons can fly at speeds of at least Mach 5, five times the speed of sound. The speed of
sound is Mach 1, speeds above Mach I are supersonic and speeds above Mach 5 are hypersonic. Hence
x Hypersonic weapons are different from Ballistic missiles which even though travel much faster, follow a
fixed trajectory and travel outside the atmosphere to re-enter only near impact.
x On the other hand, hypersonic weapons travel within the atmosphere and can manoeuvre midway
which combined with their high speeds make their detection and interception extremely difficult.
x This means that radars and air defences cannot detect them till they are very close and have only a little
time to react. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x The United States, Russia, and China possess the most advanced hypersonic weapons programmes.
x In August, China tested a nuclear-capable hypersonic missile that circled the globe, demonstrating
an advanced space capability.
x Russia was able to launch a Tsirkon hypersonic cruise missile from a submarine.
x While the U.S. also has active hypersonic weapon development programmes, it is lagging behind China and
Russia. However, Russia's use of a hypersonic Kinzhal system against a Ukrainian arms depot in the
country's west on March 18, 2022, marked its first combat use.
Q 29.D
x SYNGAS: Gasification is a technological process that can convert any carbonaceous (carbon-based) raw
material such as coal into fuel gas, also known as synthesis gas (syngas for short).
x PROCESS:
o Gasification occurs in a gasifier, generally a high temperature/pressure vessel where oxygen (or air)
and steam are directly contacted with the coal or other feed material causing a series of chemical
reactions to occur that convert the feed to syngas and ash/slag (mineral residues).
o Coal gasification is a process in which coal is partially oxidised with air, oxygen, steam or carbon
dioxide to form a fuel gas.This gas is then used instead of piped natural gas, methane and others
for deriving energy.
o In-situ gasification of coal – or Underground Coal Gasification (UCG) – is the technique of converting
coal into gas while it is still in the seam and then extracting it through wells.
x COMPOSITION:
o Syngas is a mixture consisting primarily of methane (CH4), carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen
(H2), carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapour (H2O). Hence statement 1 is correct.
x SIGNIFICANCE:
o Steel companies typically use coking coal in their manufacturing process which is imported and is
expensive. To cut costs, plants can use syngas, which comes from coal gasification plants in the place
of coking coal. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o It is primarily used for electricity generation, for the production of chemical feedstocks.
o It can be used to produce a wide range of fertilizers, fuels, solvent and synthetic materials. Hence
o The hydrogen obtained from coal gasification can be used for various purposes such as making
ammonia, powering a hydrogen economy.

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Q 30.A
x The Pradhan Mantri Innovative Learning Programme - DHRUV has been started by the Ministry of
Education, Government of India to identify and encourage talented children to enrich their skills and
knowledge.
x In centres of excellence across the country, gifted children will be mentored and nurtured by renowned
experts in different areas to reach their full potential.
x SALIENT FEATURES OF DHRUV
o The program is named after a pole star called DHRUV TARA.
o The program's main objective is to allow students to realize their complete potential and contribute to
society.
o The program aims to cover two areas namely Science and Arts. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
o The program is to be launched by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Hence, statement
2 is correct.
o Around 60 students are selected broadly from Class 9 to Class 12 all over the country.
Q 31.A
x Jainism recognized the existence of the gods but placed them lower than the Jina, and did not
condemn the varna system as Buddhism did. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
x According to Mahavira, a person is born in a high or in lower varna as a consequence of his sins committed
or virtues acquired by him in his previous birth.
x Mahavira looks for human values even in a chandala. In his opinion, by leading pure and meritorious life,
members of the lower castes can achieve liberation.
x Jainism principally aims at the attainment of freedom from worldly bonds. No ritual is necessary for
such liberation. It can be obtained through the right knowledge, right faith, and right action. These three
are considered to be the three jewels or triratna of Jainism. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x Jainism prohibited the practice of war and even agriculture for its followers because both involve the
killing of living beings. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x Eventually, the Jainas principally confined themselves to trade and mercantile activities.
Q 32.B
x Third Carnatic War (1760): With the Seven Years War (1756-63), Britain and France were once
again on opposite sides.
o In 1758, the French army under Count de Lally captured the English forts of St. David and
Vizianagaram in 1758.
o The English became offensive and inflicted heavy losses on the French fleet under Admiral D’Ache at
Masulipatnam.
o The decisive battle of the Third Carnatic War was won by the English on January 22, 1760 at
Wandiwash (or Vandavasi) in Tamil Nadu.
o General Eyre Coote of the English totally routed the French army under Count Thomas Arthur de Lally
and took Bussy as prisoner.
x Third Battle of Panipat (1761): Ahmad Shah Abdali (or Ahmad Shah Durrani), who was elected the
successor of Nadir Shah after the latter’s death in 1747, invaded India several times between 1748 and
1767.
x In 1761, Abdali defeated the Marathas in the Third Battle of Panipat.
o The defeat at Panipat and later the death of the young Peshwa, Madhavrao I, in 1772, weakened the
control of the Peshwas over the confederacy putting an end to the Maratha ambition of ruling
over India.
x The Nawab-Company tussle over transit duty led to the outbreak of wars between the English and
Mir Kasim in 1763.
x The English gained successive victories at Katwah, Murshidabad, Giria, Sooty and Munger.
x Mir Kasim fled to Awadh (or Oudh) and formed a confederacy with the Nawab of Awadh, Shuja-ud-daulah,
and the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II, with a view to recover Bengal from the English.
x The combined armies of Mir Kasim, the Nawab of Awadh and Shah Alam II were defeated by the
English forces under Major Hector Munro at Buxar on October 22, 1764 in a closely contested battle.
x The English campaign against Mir Kasim was short but decisive.

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Q 33.C
x Context: The river is in the news again as the Government is building a bridge over this river in Dharchula,
Uttarakhand. This will be the second motor bridge on the India-Nepal border in Uttarakhand. The other one,
the Banbasa bridge, is situated in the Champawat district.
x The Mahakali River is also known as the Sharda river or Kali Ganga in Uttarakhand. It originates at
Kalapani in the Himalayas in the Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand.
x The river flows along Nepal’s western border with India and joins the Ghaghra River (a tributary of the
Ganges). The Projects associated with it include Tanakpur hydroelectric project, Chameliya
hydroelectric project, Sharda Barrage, etc.
x As per the Mahakali Treaty of 1996 between the Government of Nepal and the Government of India
regarding the integrated development of the Mahakali River, the Mahakali River has been considered as a
boundary river between the two countries.
x In fact, the dispute is mainly because of the varying interpretation of the origin of the river and its various
tributaries that slice through the mountains. While Nepal's claim of the territory east of Kali is based on
the Limpiyadhura origin, India says the river actually takes the name Kali near Kalapani.
Q 34.B
x The Karachi Congress Session in 1931, was held following the Gandhi–Irwin Pact and in the
immediate aftermath of Bhagat Singh’s execution.
x As a result, throughout Gandhi’s route to Karachi, he was greeted with black flag demonstrations by the
Punjab Naujawan Bharat Sabha, in protest against his failure to secure commutation of the death
sentence for Bhagat and his comrades.
x The session is significant, as the Karachi resolution of 1931 was to remain in essence the basic political and
economic programme of the Indian National Congress in later years.
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x Two resolutions were adopted, one on Fundamental Rights and the other on National Economic
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Programme, which made the session particularly memorable.
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o exemption from rent for uneconomic holdings. Hence option 1 is not correct.
o relief from agricultural indebtedness;
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workers in the industrial sector. Hence option 3 is correct.

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o right to workers and peasants to form unions;

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o state ownership and control of key industries, mines and means of transport. Hence option 2 is
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Q 35.A
x Recently, 2023 has been declared as the International Year of Millets (IYM 2023) by United Nations
General Assembly.
x Millet is a collective term referring to a number of small-seeded annual grasses that are cultivated as grain
crops, primarily on marginal lands in dry areas in temperate, subtropical, and tropical regions. Some of the
common millets available in India are Ragi (Finger millet), Jowar (Sorghum), Sama (Little millet), Bajra
(Pearl millet), and Variga (Proso millet).
x Millets score over wheat in terms of minerals, vitamins, and dietary fiber content, as well as amino acid
profile. Up to 80% of wheat’s average 13% protein content comprises glutens, known to trigger

.
gastrointestinal and autoimmune disorders in many people, whereas, millets are gluten-free and have
more fiber. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x Rolling rotis is easier with wheat than millet flour because the gluten proteins present in wheat, for all
their drawbacks, make the wheat dough more cohesive and elastic. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
x Millets have a shorter harvest duration of 70-100 days as against 115-150 days for wheat. Hence,
Q 36.B
x The Centre introduced the Electricity (Amendment) Rules, 2022, to amend the Electricity Rules, 2005. Rule
14 of the Electricity (Amendment) Rules, 2022, empower power distribution companies to
automatically recover their additional power purchase expenses on a monthly basis from the
consumers. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
x It states that Fuel and power purchase adjustment surcharges shall be calculated and billed to consumers,
automatically, without the approval of the regulatory authority.
x The Rules require the State electricity regulatory commission to specify a price adjustment formula for
automatically passing on the costs through the consumer tariff on a monthly basis.
x The amendment spawns a pricing situation in the power sector, akin to that of petrol and diesel
prices. Many State governments have argued that giving Discoms the freedom to automatically pass on the
costs through the electricity bill will harm consumer interests. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 37.C
x Mangroves are defined as assemblages of salt tolerant trees and shrubs that grow in the intertidal regions of
the tropical and subtropical coastlines. They grow luxuriantly in the places where freshwater mixes with
seawater and where sediment is composed of accumulated deposits of mud. Mangrove wetlands are
normally classified into six types on the basis of the geophysical, geomorphological and biological factors.
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dominated, (e) drowned bedrock valley mangroves and (f) mangroves in carbonate settings.
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o The first five types of mangrove wetlands can be seen on coasts dominated by terrigenous sediments
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(shallow marine sediment consisting of material derived from the land surface) whereas the last one can
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x Mangrove Cover in India is 4975 sq km (0.15 percent of the total geographical area.) West Bengal has the
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Q 38.B
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x Article 261 of the Indian Constitution mentions that full faith and credit shall be given throughout the
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territory of India to public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State. Hence
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x This means that duly authenticated copies of statutes, judgments, and orders of one state shall be given
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recognition in another state in the same manner as the statutes of the latter state itself.
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x Parliament has the power to prescribe the manner in which and the conditions under which the acts, records,
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x Final judgments or orders delivered or passed by civil courts in any part of the territory of India shall be
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capable of execution anywhere within that territory according to law. Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Q 39.C
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x United Nations General Assembly is one of the six principal organs of the United Nations (UN) and the
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only body in which every member of the organization is represented and allowed to vote. The first session
of the assembly convened on Jan. 10, 1946, in London, with 51 countries represented. Hence statement
1 is not correct.
x The General Assembly exercises deliberative, supervisory, financial, and elective functions relating to any
matter within the scope of the UN Charter.
x Each year, in September, the full UN membership meets in the General Assembly Hall in New York for the
annual General Assembly session, and general debate, which many heads of state attend and address.
o Decisions on important questions, such as those on peace and security, admission of new members
and budgetary matters, require a two-thirds majority of the General Assembly. Decisions on other
questions are by simple majority. Hence statement 3 is correct.

.
o At the beginning of each regular session, the General Assembly also holds a general debate, in which
all members participate and may raise any issue of international concern.
o Most work, however, is delegated to six main committees, known as (1) Disarmament and International
Security, (2) Economic and Financial, (3) Social, Humanitarian, and Cultural, (4) Special Political and
Decolonization, (5) Administrative and Budgetary, and (6) Legal.
x The General Assembly elects a new president to serve a one-year term of office from among five
regional groups of states every year. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 40.A
x Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), the country’s premier multidisciplinary research and
development centre under the Department of Atomic Energy, besides identifying newer nuclear power
generation techniques, is devising new, user-friendly and cost-effective technologies in the fields of nuclear
science, radioisotopes, industry, health and agriculture.
x These technologies are being taught to the younger generation and the unemployed youth to make them
entrepreneurs through AKRUTI.
x Under the framework of Department of Atomic Energy Societal initiative, based on the development
of Non-Power Applications and Spin-offs in medical, food preservation, waste management, other
industrial and rural applications at BARC, a structured programmme has been evolved for Advanced
Knowledge and RUralTechnology Implementation (AKRUTI).
x Under AKRUTI programme, entrepreneurs have deployed NPAs and Spin-offs and developed
technopreneurship in rural areas.
x Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 41.D
x The following monuments were constructed during Aurangzeb's rule (1658 to 1707):
o The Moti Masjid at Lal Qila in Delhi, the Badshahi Masjid in Lahore, and the mausoleum built
for his wife Rabia ud Dauran at Aurangabad (Bibi ka Maqbara) are the main examples of Mughal
architecture under Aurangzeb. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
The Moti Mosque, in the Red Fort at Shahjahanabad, Delhi was initiated by the sixth Mughal
emperor Aurangzeb (r. 1658-1707) during the first few years of his reign, and completed in 1663.
He spent the first twenty-three years of his reign as emperor in Delhi, during which time the Moti
Mosque served as his private mosque.
Badshahi mosque is one of the few significant architectural monuments built during Emperor
Aurangzeb's long rule from 1658 to 1707. Although it was built late in the Mughal era in a period
of relative decline, its beauty, elegance, and scale epitomize Mughal cultural achievement like no
other monument in Lahore. Construction of the mosque began in 1671 under the direction of
Muzaffar Hussain (Fida'i Khan Koka), Aurangzeb's brother-in-law and the governor of Lahore.
The Bibi Ka Maqbara ("Tomb of the Lady") is a tomb located in Aurangabad, Maharashtra, India.
It was commissioned in 1660 by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in the memory of his first and
chief wife Dilras Banu Begum (posthumously known as Rabia-ud-Daurani) and is considered to be
a symbol of Aurangzeb's 'conjugal fidelity'.
Q 42.A
x IPG is an autonomous body. It was formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the
Constituent Assembly (Legislative). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x The membership of IPG is open to all members of Parliament. The former members of Parliament can
also become associate members of the Group. But, the associate members are entitled to limited rights only.
They are not entitled to representation at meetings and conferences of the IPU and the CPA. They are also
not entitled to the travel concessions provided to members by certain branches of the CPA. Hence,
x The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio president of the Group. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok
Sabha and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the ex officio vice-presidents of the Group. The
Secretary General of the Lok Sabha acts as the ex-officio Secretary-General of the Group. Hence,
Q 43.B
x National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system maintained by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Started in November 2005, the setup was established and maintained by
Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology. NEFT enables bank customers in India to

.
transfer funds between any two NEFT-enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis. It is done via electronic
messages.
x For transferring funds real time and 24X7X365 interbank was a major challenge faced in banking industry.
Only NEFT & RTGS were available to user for fund transfer during banking hours. Immediate Payment
Service (IMPS) public launch happened on 22nd November 2010 by Smt. Shyamala Gopinath, DG RBI
at Mumbai and this service is now available to the Indian public. IMPS provides robust & real time fund
transfer which offers an instant, 24X7, interbank electronic fund transfer service that could be accessed on
multiple channels like Mobile, Internet, ATM, SMS. IMPS is an emphatic service which allow transferring
of funds instantly within banks across India which is not only safe but also economical. Currently on IMPS,
674 members are live which includes banks & PPIs.
x In 2009, NPCI was assigned the task of building such an indigenous card payment system. The solution
was designed to be cost efficient, with payment data localisation, domestic switching and infrastructure, to
ensure greater flexibility and security. The idea was to create a simple, secure, and affordable payment
infrastructure within the country. To enable this, NPCI developed a separate business unit – “RuPay”.
o Understanding the scale of card growth and its potential in India, the National Payments Corporation
of India (NPCI) introduced the RuPay card in March 2012. Domestically developed, the name
‘RuPay’ is derived from a blend of the words ‘Rupee and ‘Payment’. RuPay is the first-of-its-kind
domestic Card payment network of India, with wide acceptance at ATMs, POS devices and e-commerce
websites across India.
o It is a highly secure network that protects against anti-phishing. The name, derived from the words
‘Rupee and ‘Payment’, emphasizes that it is India’s very own initiative for Card payments. It is our
answer to international payment networks, expressing pride over our nationality. RuPay fulfils RBI’s
vision of initiating a ‘less cash’ economy. This could be achieved only by encouraging every Indian
bank and financial institution to become tech-savvy and engage in offering electronic payments.
x Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a system that powers multiple bank accounts into a single mobile
application (of any participating bank), merging several banking features, seamless fund routing & merchant
payments into one hood. It also caters to the “Peer to Peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid
as per requirement and convenience. With the above context in mind, NPCI conducted a pilot launch with
21 member banks. The pilot launch was on 11th April 2016 by Dr. Raghuram G Rajan, Governor, RBI
at Mumbai. Banks have started to upload their UPI enabled Apps on Google Play store from 25th August,
2016 onwards.
Q 44.B
x In 2022, India's imports from China touched a record high while exports to China fell to a five-year low.
This imbalance has further widened the trade deficit. Electrical machinery and mechanical appliances
were the most imported goods by India from China. India's dependency on China for such goods has
remained high for quite some time now. However, India is not alone as dependency on imports from China
has also grown among Indian neighbouring countries and other BRICS nations.
x Rising imports: The first chart shows the trade value of goods imported from China on the left axis. China's
share in India's total imports is plotted on the right axis. In value terms, imports trom china soared to a
record $94.7 billion in 2022. When considered as a share of India's total imports, it formed 14% in 2022,
though the share peaked in 2016. From the figure below, China's share in India's imports increase over the
lease two decades. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

.
x The second chart shows the trade value of goods exported to China on the lett axis. China's share in India's
total exports is on the right axis. In value terms, India's exports to china are at a five-vear low (till November
2022). It's share in total exports has decreased from about 7% in 2020 to 3.4% in 2022. From the figure
above, China's share in India's exports declined sharply over last two years. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x The most imported items from China were related to electronic machinery and equipment,
mechanical appliances, organic chemicals and tertilizers. Laptops, electronic integrated telephone
sets were the most imported items. The most exported items were related to categories such as ores,
mineral fuels and oils and iron and steel. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 45.A
x Bhavai is the traditional theatre form of Gujarat. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
o The centers of this form are Kutch and Kathiawar.
o The instruments used in Bhavai are bhungal, tabla, flute, pakhawaj, rabaab, sarangi, manjeera, etc.
o In Bhavai, there is a rare synthesis of devotional and romantic sentiments.
x Therukoothu is the most popular form of folk drama of Tamil Nadu. Hence pair 2 is not correctly
matched.
o It literally means "street play". It is mostly performed at the time of the annual temple festivals of
Mariamman (Rain goddess) to achieve a rich harvest.
o At the core of the extensive repertoire of Therukoothu, there is a cycle of eight plays based on the life
of Draupadi. Kattiakaran, the Sutradhara of the Therukoothu performance, gives the gist of the play to
the audience and Komali entertains the audience with his buffoonery.
o The costume for a therukoothu performance includes a high towering dress, sparkling shoulder plates,
wide colourful skirts, and heavy make-up.
x Nautanki is usually associated with Uttar Pradesh. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
o The most popular centres of this traditional theatre form are Kanpur, Lucknow and Haathras.
o There was a time when only men acted in Nautanki but nowadays, women have also started taking part
in the performances.
o Among those remembered with reverence is Gulab Bai of Kanpur. She gave a new dimension to this
old theatre form.
Q 46.A
x Havana Syndrome is a set of unexplained medical symptoms first experienced by U.S. State
Department personnel stationed in Cuba beginning in late 2016.
x Since the initial cases, diplomats and intelligence officers stationed around the world have experienced
similar symptoms.
x Those affected report a range of conditions including dizziness, hearing loss, headaches, vertigo,
nausea, memory loss and possible brain injuries.
x Initially, investigators believed the syndrome was the result of an attack by a sonic or acoustic weapon.
x A later review by the CIA, however, identified pulsed radio-frequency energy as the most likely culprit,
ruling out the role of any foreign power behind the bulk of the attacks.
x The majority of the cases were thought to be caused by medical conditions —including undiagnosed
bacterial infections and brain tumours.

.
x A subsequent report, however, struck a different note, finding that some incidents of Havana Syndrome are
most likely caused by directed energy or acoustic devices, suggesting that in some cases, someone is
deliberately harming U.S. personnel overseas.
x Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 47.B
x Recent context: A Japanese space startup launched a spacecraft to the moon on December 11, 2022,
a first for the nation and for a private company.
x Tokyo-based ispace Inc.'s Hakuto-R mission took off from Cape Canaveral, Florida, on a SpaceX
Falcon 9 rocket with its own private lander.
x The M1 lander will deploy two robotic rovers, a two-wheeled, baseball-sized device from Japan's
JAXA space agency and the four-wheeled Rashid rover, a first for the United Arab Emirates.
x The Rashid rover is part of the United Arab Emirates' ambitious space program.
x It will also be carrying an experimental solid-state battery made by NGK Spark Plug Co.
x The company is designed its craft to use minimal fuel to save money and leave more room for
cargo. So it’s taking a slow, low-energy path to the moon, flying 1 million miles (1.6 million kilometers)
from Earth before looping back and intersecting with the moon by the end of April 2023.
Q 48.C
x In 1602, the States- General of the Netherlands amalgamated many trading companies into the East India
Company of the Netherlands. This company was also empowered to carry on war, to conclude treaties, to
take possession of territory, and to erect fortresses.
x After their arrival in India, the Dutch founded their first factory in Masulipatnam (in Andhra) in
1605. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
x The Dutch established factories on the Coromandel coast, in Gujarat, Uttar Pradesh, Bengal, and Bihar. In
1609, they opened a factory in Pulicat, north of Madras. Their other principal factories in India were at Surat
(1616), Bimlipatam (1641), Karaikal (1645), Chinsura (1653), Baranagar, Kasimbazar (near Murshidabad),
Balasore, Patna, Nagapatam (1658), and Cochin (1663).
x Participating in the redistributive or carrying trade, they took to the islands of the Far East various articles
and merchandise from India. They carried indigo manufactured in the Yamuna valley and Central
India, textiles and silk from Bengal, Gujarat and the Coromandel, saltpetre from Bihar, and opium and
rice from the Ganga valley. Despite their commercial rivalry, Dutch carried out trade in Bengal. Hence
x The English were also at this time rising to prominence in the Eastern trade, and this posed a serious
challenge to the commercial interests of the Dutch. Commercial rivalry soon turned into bloody warfare.
o The Dutch got drawn into the trade of the Malay Archipelago. Further, in the third Anglo-Dutch War
(1672–74), communications between Surat and the new English settlement of Bombay got cut due to
which three homebound English ships were captured in the Bay of Bengal by the Dutch forces.
o The retaliation by the English resulted in the defeat of the Dutch, in the Battle of Hooghly
(November 1759), which dealt a crushing blow to Dutch ambitions in India. Hence statement 3 is
correct.
Q 49.B
x Recently Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2022 came into force.
x It amends Energy Conservation Act, 2001 which provides a framework for regulating energy consumption
and promoting energy efficiency and energy conservation.
o While 2001 act deals with saving energy, 2022 amendment deals with saving the environment and
tackling climate change, thus broadening scope and objective of principal Act.
x Key Features
o Carbon credit trading: It empowers central government to specify a carbon credit trading
scheme. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Carbon credit implies a tradable permit to produce a specified amount of carbon dioxide or other
greenhouse emissions.
o Obligation to use non-fossil sources of energy: The 2001 Act empowered the central government to
specify energy consumption standards.

.
The amendment adds that government may require designated consumers to meet a
minimum share of energy consumption from non-fossil sources like green hydrogen, green
ammonia, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Failure to meet obligation will be punishable with a penalty of up to Rs 10 lakh.
o Energy Conservation code for buildings: The 2001 Act empowered central government to specify
Energy Conservation Code for buildings. The amendment amends this to provide an ‘Energy
Conservation and Sustainable Building Code’.
This new code will provide norms for energy efficiency and conservation, use of renewable energy,
and other requirements for green buildings.
Under 2022 amendment, new Code will also apply to the office and residential buildings meeting
above criteria. It also empowers state governments to lower the load thresholds.
o Standards for vehicles and vessels: Under 2001 Act, energy consumption standards may be specified
for equipment and appliances which consume, generate, transmit, or supply energy.
The amendment expands the scope to include vehicles (as defined under the Motor Vehicles Act,
1988), and vessels (includes ships and boats)
o Regulatory powers of SERCs: The 2001 Act empowers State Electricity Regulatory Commissions
(SERCs) to adjudge penalties under the Act.
The 2022 amendment adds that SERCs may also make regulations for discharging their functions.
o State Energy Conservation Fund: The amendment requires State Governments to constitute
energy conservation funds for promotion of energy efficiency and conservation measures. This
fund shall receive contributions by both Union and State govt. Hence statement 3 is correct.
o Composition of governing council of BEE: The 2022 amendment increases and diversifies number of
members and secretaries in governing council of BEE.
Q 50.B
x Indian snow leopard experts Charudutt Mishra and Koustubh Sharma, along with Chyngyz Kochorov of
Kyrgyzstan, received the Madrid-based BBVA Foundation’s Worldwide Biodiversity Conservation Award
on behalf of a 12-nation intergovernmental alliance Global Snow Leopard Ecosystem Protection Program
(GSLEP) that they helped create and manage.
x The Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP) seeks to address high-mountain
development issues using the conservation of the charismatic and endangered snow leopard as a flagship.
x The 12 snow leopard range countries established the Global Snow Leopard and Ecosystem Protection
Program (GSLEP) to help achieve the goals of the Bishkek Declaration. The program also brings
together multilateral agencies, NGOs, funding agencies and conservationists as partners on a single
platform. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia,
Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.
o Since the inception of the GSLEP program, several projects have been developed and are being
implemented within and across snow leopard range countries to support activities that were highlighted
as priorities in the Bishkek Declaration.
x GEF has a long history of supporting conservation of the snow leopard (Panthera uncia) and its
habitat, having approved 24 total projects and invested nearly USD $100 million toward UNDP-
implemented projects in all 12 range countries since 1991.
o A series of projects emerging since the Global Forum in 2013 were funded by GEF, representing
an investment of about $45 million to support snow leopard range countries in meeting their
national targets toward achieving GSLEP objectives. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x The Snow Leopard Trust is the largest and oldest organization working solely to protect the endangered
snow leopard (Panthera uncia) and its habitat in 12 countries of Central Asia. The trust is a non-profit
organization with its headquarters in Seattle, Washington.
o In 1981 Helen Freeman founded the Snow Leopard Trust. Though it works closely with GSLEP
it is not an initiative of GSLEP.
o Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q 51.B
x The Pagal Panthi was a religious order and mainly constituting the Hajong and Garo tribes of
Mymensingh district (earlier in Bengal). Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
o It was founded by Karam Shah.
o The philosophy was that of religious harmony and non-violence incorporating tenets of Sufism,
Hinduism and animism.
.
o But there was a heavy burden of taxes and restrictions put in place by East India Company.
o The tribal peasants organised themselves under Karam Shah’s son, Tipu, to fight the oppression of the
zamindars.
o Pagal Panthis were against the oppressive tax regime of the British.
o From 1825 to 1835, the Pagal Panthis refused to pay rent above a certain limit and attacked the houses
of zamindars.
o Under the leadership of Tipu Shah, the movement soon evolved into a popular, armed struggle
against British Raj and the zamindar (landlord) system.
o It was crushed with the help of the British army in 1833.
x Fairazi Movement: It was a religious reform movement started by Haji Shariatullah.
o The word “Faraizi” derives from the Arabic word “farz,” which refers to obligations imposed by Allah.
Therefore, the Faraizi are those who seek to enforce compulsory religious duties.
o The Faraizi movement called for social justice and expressed worry over the British influence on
Muslims.
o It aimed to purify Islam by eradicating all non-Islamic customs and beliefs and designating the
Koran as their only source of spiritual guidance.
o According to Haji Shariat Ullah, the Muslims’ ability to practice their religion was harmed by British
control in Bengal.
He declared that numerous transgressions were polluting Islam and offered remedial suggestions.
He criticized the corruptions and superstitions in Islam and strongly condemns the Muslim caste
system.
o The significance of this movement resided in its social foundations, as the rural Muslims of east
Bengal banded together under this religious group and rose up in revolt against landowners,
indigo planters, and the Britishers.
o After the death of Shariat Ullah in 1837, Dudu Miyan turned this movement from a socio-religious
to a socio-economic-political movement.
Dudu Miyan organized the rural population around an egalitarian ideology.
x Moplah Rebellion took place in areas of the Malabar region.
o Moplahs (Mappillas) was the Muslim tenants and most of the landlords were Hindus.
o The grievances of tenants were centered around oppressive exactions of landlords such as high rents,
no security of tenure, renewal fees, etc.
o Initially, it was merged with the Khilafat movement but it took ugly turns after the arrest of national
leaders. The arrest of priest Ali Musaliar sparked large-scale riots. initially, the symbols of government
were targeted but later it took communal overtones as many Hindus were seen as helping the authority.
o By December 1921 movement came to an end.
x Narkelberia Uprising (1782-1831) was led by Titu Mir/ Mir Nithar Ali in West Bengal.
o This uprising was against landlords, mainly Hindu, who imposed a beard-tax on the Faraizis, and British
indigo planters.
o It merged into the Wahabi movement
Q 52.A
x On May 9, 2020, nearly 150 Indian and Chinese military personnel engaged in a face-off near Naku La Pass
in the Sikkim sector. At least 10 soldiers from both sides had sustained injuries. The troops had, however,
disengaged after dialogue at the local level. Sikkim's Naku La, along with Pangong Tso, Galwan Valley,
Gogra, Hot Springs in eastern Ladakh, was one of the standoff point between India and China.
x Kanyakumari is the southernmost tip of peninsular India and it lies north of the Equator. It is a coastal
town in the state of Tamil Nadu. It was known as Cape Comorin during British rule and is popular for
watching sunrise and sunset over the ocean. It's also a noted pilgrimage site wherein one can visit the
Bagavathi Amman Temple, dedicated to a consort of Shiva, and Our Lady of Ransom Church, a center of
Indian Catholicism.
x Thus, if one has to travel from Naku La to Kanyakumari, one travels through 5 states- Sikkim, West
Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

.
Q 53.A
x LiDAR, which stands for Light Detection and Ranging, is a remote sensing technology that uses light
in the form of a pulsed laser to scan the environment. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x In many respects, LiDAR combines the best features of both radar and camera.
x Like a radar, it generates its own transmit signal (and thus does not depend on daylight), and can
accurately determine distances by measuring the time difference between the transmitted and
reflected signals.
x The narrow laser beam that is used for sensing ensures that it has a spatial resolution that is similar to a
camera. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x However, LiDAR does have its disadvantages —LiDAR signals cannot penetrate fog, discern colour or
read traffic signs. The technology is also significantly costlier than radar or camera. Hence statement
3 is not correct.
Q 54.D
x The term Lollapalooza Effect was coined by Charlie Munger, vice chairman of Berkshire Hathaway. The
term ‘Lollapalooza Effect’ means a confluence of factors acting together that can be especially
powerful drivers of human behaviour and this can lead to either large positive or negative results.
x The key is that when forces combine, they don’t just add up; each force builds off and strengthens the other,
creating an explosive effect with huge results.
x Meta is a tech company which has a proven business model in digital advertising. The crash in stock price
of Meta (75 percent fall in last 15 months) is due to lollapalooza effect.
x Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
.
Q 55.C
x The Table of Precedence is related to the rank and order of the officials of the Union and State Governments.
The present notification on this subject was issued on 26 July, 1979. This notification superseded all the
previous notifications and was also amended many times. The updated version of the Table, containing all
the amendments made therein so far (2016), is given below:
o President
o Vice-President
o Prime Minister
o Governors of states within their respective states
o Former presidents
Deputy Prime Minister
o Chief Justice of India and Speaker of Lok Sabha
o Cabinet Ministers of the Union, Chief Ministers of States within their respective States, Vice-
Chairperson, NITI Aayog; Former Prime Ministers; Leaders of Opposition in Rajya Sabha and Lok
Sabha
Holders of Bharat Ratna decoration
o Ambassadors Extraordinary and Plenipotentiary and High Commissioners of Commonwealth countries
accredited to India; Chief Ministers of States outside their respective States' Governors of States outside
their respective States
o Judges of the Supreme Court
Chairperson, Union Public Service Commission, Chief Election Commissioner, Comptroller &
Auditor General of India
o Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha Deputy, Chief Ministers of States, Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha,
Members of the NITI Aayog, Ministers of State of the Union (and any other Minister in the Ministry of
Defence for defense matters)
o Attorney General of India
Q 56.C
x Government of India has published National Policy on Bio Fuels of 2018 with effect from 16th May 2018.
The Policy aims to increase the usage of biofuels in the energy and transportation sectors of the country
during the coming decade.
x Waste/Bio-mass sources like agricultural residue, cattle dung, sugarcane press mud, municipal solid waste,
sewage treatment plant waste, etc. produce Bio-Gas through the process of anaerobic decomposition.
x Irrespective of technology, producing CBG from biomass involves a two-pronged approach. First, biogas
is produced through anaerobic decomposition of biomass. Since biogas contains 55 to 60 per cent
methane, 40 to 45 per cent carbon dioxide (CO2) and trace amounts of hydrogen sulphide, the second
process involves purifying the gas to remove carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulphide gases to prepare
CBG.
x CBG has calorific value and other properties similar to CNG and hence can be utilized as green
renewable automotive fuel. Thus it can replace CNG in automotive, industrial and commercial areas, given
the abundance of biomass availability within the country. While CNG is a by-product of petroleum, CBG
can be produced from any biomass, be it crop residue, cattle dung, sugarcane press mud, municipal wet
waste or effluents from a sewage treatment plant. Hence statement 1 is not correct and statement 3 is
correct.
x Compressed Biogas (CBG) plant in Sangrur district of Punjab, largest in Asia, has now started
commercial production. The plant has a total capacity of 33.23 tonne CBG per day. The plant will supply
Compressed Biogas to the Indian Oil Corporation Ltd (IOCL) outlet. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 57.B
x Small island nations are under threat of severe environmental destruction due to their geographic
vulnerability. A number of Small Island Developing States (SIDS) have agreed to form a ‘Coalition for
Nature’ for the implementation and adoption of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF) at the 15th
Conference of Parties (COP15) to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
x Small Island Developing States (SIDS) are a distinct group of 38 UN Member States and 20 Non-UN
Members/Associate Members of United Nations regional commissions that face unique social, economic
and environmental vulnerabilities. The three geographical regions in which SIDS are located are the
Caribbean, the Pacific, and the Atlantic, Indian Ocean and the South China Sea (AIS).

.
x Comoros is an independent state comprising three of the Comoro Islands in the Indian Ocean, off the
coast of East Africa.
x Kiribati, officially the Republic of Kiribati, island country in the central Pacific Ocean. The 33 islands
of Kiribati, of which only 20 are inhabited, are scattered over a vast area of ocean.
x The Republic of Vanuatu is an island nation in the South Pacific Ocean, northeast of New Caledonia,
east of Australia and west of Fiji. The Y-shaped chain of fourteen main islands between the South Pacific
Ocean and the Coral Sea is of volcanic origin and home to several active volcanoes.
x Solomon Islands is an archipelagic state situated in the southwest Pacific Ocean, approximately 2,000
kms to the northeast of Australia. Its land mass of 28,400 km² extends over nearly 1000 islands comprising
nine main island groups.
x Saint Lucia is an island state in the Caribbean Sea. It is the second largest of the Windward group in the
Lesser Antilles and is located about 39 km south of Martinique and some 34 km northeast of Saint Vincent.
x Cabo Verde, also called Cape Verde, country comprising a group of islands that lie 620 km off the
west coast of Africa. Praia, on Santiago, is the capital. Cabo Verde is named for the westernmost cape of
Africa, Cape Verde, which is located in nearby Senegal and is the nearest point on the continent. Hence,
option (b) is the correct answer.
Q 58.C
x The Reserve Bank’s guidelines on digital lending that seek to protect customers from exorbitant interest
rates by certain entities and also check unethical loan recovery practices came into effect on December 1st
2022. The RBI came out with the guidelines on digital lending in September and gave time until November
30 for players to comply.
x These guidelines are applicable to digital lending extended by:
o All Commercial Banks; Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Primary (Urban) Co-operativeBanks
o StateCo-operativeBanks,
o District Central Co-operative Banks; and
o Non-Banking Financial Companies (including Housing Finance Companies)
x Under the new norms, all loan disbursals and repayments are required to be executed only between the bank
accounts of borrower and the regulated entities (like banks and NBFCs) without any pass-through/ pool
account of the Lending Service Providers (LSPs)/ Digital Lendig Apps (DLAs).
x Also, any fees, charges, etc, payable to LSPs in the credit intermediation process shall be paid directly by
RE and not by the borrower.
x Under the new norms, an automatic increase in credit limit without explicit consent of borrower is
prohibited. REs shall provide a Key Fact Statement (KFS) to the borrower before the execution of the
contract of all digital products. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
x Collection of data by the Digital Lendig Apps (DLAs) must be need-based and with prior and explicit
consent of the borrower having audit trail. REs shall ensure that
o LSPs/DLAs engaged by them do not store personal information of borrowers except some
basic minimal data (viz., name, address, contact details of the customer, etc.).
o No biometric data is stored/ collected in the systems associated with the DLAs.
o All data is stored only in servers located within India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
x REs are required to ensure that any lending done through DLAs has to be reported to Credit Information
Companies (CICs), irrespective of its nature or tenor.
Q 59.C
x Recently, the Supreme Court upheld the Enforcement Directorate's powers granted to it under the
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. The provisions upheld by the top court included its powers
to search and seize and take possession of attached properties, among others. Hence option 1 is not correct.
x The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act and the 99th Constitutional Amendment
which sought to give politicians and civil society a final say in the appointment of judges to the highest
courts were held unconstitutional in 2015, as it held to be violative of the basic structure that includes
separation of power. It was struck down by the Supreme Court as it was considered unconstitutional. Hence
option 2 is correct.
x In May 2022, the Supreme Court ordered a stay on all the pending cases and proceedings with respect to
charges under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code dealing with sedition. The top court also said that
those facing sedition charges can approach courts for bail and advised courts to dispose of them in a speedy
manner. The Supreme Court has left section 124A to be considered by the Union Government, but it has
not struck down it yet. This is the status as of January 2023. Hence option 3 is not correct.

.
Q 60.A
x In the medieval period, the pattern of agricultural practices was more or less the same as that in early and
early ancient India. Some important changes, however, were brought about by the foreigners such as the
introduction of new crops, trees and horticultural plants.
o The principal crops were wheat, rice, barley, millets, pulses, oilseeds, cotton, sugarcane and indigo. The
Western Ghats continued to yield black pepper of good quality and Kashmir maintained its tradition for
saffron and fruits.
o Ginger and cinnamon from Tamilnadu, cardamom, sandalwood and coconuts from Kerala were
becoming increasingly popular.
o Tobacco, chillies, potato, guava, custard apple, cashew and pineapple were the important new plants
which made India their home in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.
o The region of Malwa and Bihar were also well known for the production of opium from the poppy
plants. Improved horticultural methods were adopted with great success.
o The systematic mango grafting was introduced by the Jesuits of Goa in the middle of the sixteenth
century.
x In the field of irrigation, wells, tanks, canals, rahats, charas (bucket made of leather) and dhenkli,
were used to lift water with the help of yoked oxen, which continued to be the means of irrigation.
o Dhenkli is a wooden hand-operated device used for lifting water from a well, a river, a cistern or
a canal. In its most common form, it consists of a long, tapering, nearly horizontal wooden pole,
which is mounted like a seesaw.
o It has a bag and a rope attached on one end of the pole, with a counter balance on the other.
o The operator pulls down a rope, attached to the long end, fills the container and allows the
counterweight to raise the filled container.
x The persian wheel was used in and around the Agra region. In the medieval period, agriculture was placed
on a solid foundation by the state which brought about a system of land measurement and land classification,
beneficial both to the rulers and to the tillers.
Q 61.D
x Tappa- Punjab. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Tappa is a form of semi classical vocal music inspired by the folk songs of camel riders in the Punjab
area. Tappa, in Punjabi and Pashto language, is set in ragas generally used for the semi classical forms.
It is characterised by jumpy and flashy tonal movements with rhythmic and rapid notes.
x Sana Lamok- Manipur. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

o Sana Lamok is sung at the time of coronation ceremony by the Maaiba (priest). It may also be sung
to welcome the king. It is sung to evoke the spirit of Pakhangba, the presiding deity. There is a belief
that this song is potent with magical powers.
x Villu Pattu/Bow Song- It is an ancient art form performed across the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
o Villu Pattu is a popular folk music of Tamil Nadu. The lead singer also plays the role of the main
performer. He also handles the dominating instrument which is bow shaped. The songs revolve
around theological themes and the conquest of good over evil is emphasised.
Q 62.A
x Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 is known to be the first non-cooperation movement led by Mahatma
Gandhi.
x This satyagraha was centred on the peasant-Patidar community of Kheda, Gujarat who refused to
agree to a 23 percent tax hike imposed on them despite a disastrous crop failure and outbreak of
plague and cholera. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
x With the help of stalwarts such as Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, Gandhiji's team members such as Indulal
Yagnik, Shankarlal Banker, and Mahadev Desai, among others, travelled across the countryside
raising awareness about farmers' rights.
x They toured the countryside, organised the villagers and gave them political leadership and direction.
x Many aroused Gujaratis from the cities of Ahmedabad and Vadodara joined the organizers of the revolt, but
Gandhi and Patel resisted the involvement of Indians from other provinces, seeking to keep it a purely
Gujarati struggle.
x Mahatma Gandhi advised the peasants to withhold payment of revenue until their demand for its
remission was met as part of the experiment.
.
x People from all castes and ethnicities of the district lend their support to the movement.
x The protest was peaceful and people showed remarkable courage even in the face of adversities like
confiscation of personal property and arrest.
x Finally, the authorities gave in and gave some concessions to the farmers.
x When it was discovered that the government had issued instructions that revenue be recovered only from
those peasants who could afford to pay, the struggle was called off.
x During the Kheda movement, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel became a follower of Gandhiji.
x It was the third Satyagraha movement, which was launched 4 days after the Ahmedabad mill strike.
x The Champaran episode happened before the Kheda Satyagraha. After the successful Satyagraha
conducted at Champaran in Bihar, Gandhi organized the movement to support peasants who were
unable to pay the revenue because of famine and plague epidemic. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
x Mahatma Gandhi, Brajkishore Prasad, Rajendra Prasad, Anugrah Narayan Sinha Ramnavmi
Prasad, Mazhar-ul-Haq and others including J. B. Kripalani & Babu Gaya Prasad Singh were
associated with Champaran satyagraha. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Q 63.C
x As global spillovers from geopolitical tensions and aggressive monetary policy tightening across the world
intensified alongside a surge in crude oil prices, the U.S. dollar strengthened by 7.8% in 2022-23. The rupee
depreciated 6.9% in the same period.
x The central bank has taken various measures to attract foreign inflows against the backdrop of the rupee
depreciating against the US dollar amid the ongoing geopolitical tensions and aggressive monetary policy
tightening across the world. Some of these include:
o Selling of Dollars in Forex Market: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) net sold $33.42 billion in the
foreign exchange market in the first six months of the last fiscal to defend the rupee from excessive
volatility. This led to an increase in the supply of dollars in the forex market.
o Exemption from Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) on Incremental
FCNR(B) and NRE Term Deposits: Banks are required to include all Foreign Currency Non-Resident
(Bank) [FCNR(B)] and Non-Resident (External) Rupee (NRE) deposit liabilities to calculate the Net
Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) for maintenance of statutory requirements such as CRR and SLR.
Exempting banks from maintaining CRR and SLR for incremental FCNR (B) and NRE deposits will
attract an inflow of foreign funds into these accounts. This can reduce the volatility in forex.
o External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs): RBI has decided to increase the limit under the automatic
route from $750 million or its equivalent per financial year to $1.5 billion.
o Interest Rates on FCNR(B) and NRE Deposits: RBI has temporarily allowed banks to raise fresh
Foreign Currency Non-Resident Bank [FCNR(B)] and NRE deposits without reference to the extant
regulations on interest rates.
o Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 64.A
x The 'Energy Technology Perspectives 2023' report was published in January 2023 by the
International Energy Agency. The world is moving into “a new age of clean technology manufacturing”
that could be worth hundreds of billions of dollars per year by the end of the decade, generating millions of
jobs in the process, according to a new report from the International Energy Agency. Hence, option
(a) is the correct answer.
x In a statement accompanying its report, the IEA said its analysis showed that “the global market for key
mass-manufactured clean energy technologies” would be worth roughly $650 billion per year by 2030, a
more than three-fold increase from today’s levels.
Q 65.D
x Recent context: The 2022 Nobel Prize for Physics is an award for experiments establishing the
foundational concepts of quantum mechanics.
x Classical physics is the study of the dynamics of a system that uses Newton’s laws of motion at their most
basic level.
x However, many of the concepts that were useful in visualizing the movement of particles in the classical
realm break down when applied to particles obeying quantum mechanics, such as light quanta.
x Quantum physics describes reality at the subatomic scale, where the objects are particles like
electrons. In this realm, one cannot pinpoint the location of an electron. One can only know that it will be
present in a given volume of space, with a probability attached to each point in the volume. Hence
.
x At the heart of quantum physics is the concept of quantum entanglement.
o Quantum entanglement is a phenomenon by which a pair of particles, say photons, is allowed to
exist in a shared state where they have complementary properties, such that by measuring the
properties of one particle, you automatically know the properties of the other particle.
x This is true however far apart the two particles are, provided the entanglement is not broken. Hence
x Electronic devices use transistors that apply quantum mechanical ideas. Lasers have been built that
apply the quantum properties of light.
x Quantum technologies of the future include quantum cryptography, quantum computation and
precise timekeeping as is done in atomic clocks. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 66.A
x Recent context: CERVAVAC, India’s first indigenously developed vaccine to prevent cervical cancer,
has been developed by the Pune-based Serum Institute of India (SII).
x Cervical cancer, the second most common cancer in females after breast cancer, is a major threat
faced by women in India.
x Reports suggest that over 15 percent of the total cervical cancer deaths in the world occur in India, with one
woman succumbing to cervical cancer every eight minutes.
x Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that starts in the cells of the cervix. The cervix is the lower, narrow end
of the uterus (womb). Cervical cancer usually develops slowly over time.
x Cervical cancer is associated with human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, as the HPV virus is found
in more than 90 percent of cervical cancers.
x The HPV virus is considered to be the most important risk factor for cervical cancer.
x Certain types of the HPV virus can transform normal cervical cells into abnormal ones, and over a long
period, some of these abnormal cells may then develop into cervical cancer. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x The indigenous HPV vaccine, called CERVAVAC, developed by SII is a quadrivalent human
papillomavirus (qHPV) vaccine for the prevention of cervical cancer.
x The vaccine protects against the risk of infection from four types of HPV (6, 11, 16 and 18) and lowers the
risk of genital warts and a few other types of cancer as well.
x CERVAVAC is likely to be rolled out by mid-2023.
x The vaccine has received the approval of the Drugs Controller General of India and was cleared by the
government advisory panel, the National Technical Advisory Group for Immunisation (NTAGI), for use in
the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP).
x A one-time catch-up vaccine will be given to 9-14-year-old adolescent girls before it is introduced at nine
years.
x Besides widespread vaccination, the World Health Organization (WHO) has set up 90-70-90 targets for
cervical cancer elimination by 2030, which include getting 90% of girls fully vaccinated with the HPV
vaccine by age 15 and screening 70% of women with a high-performance test by age 35 and again by age
45. It has also set a cervical cancer treatment target of 90% of women identified with the disease. Hence
Q 67.A
x Grasslands are areas of vegetation dominated by grasses. They occupy about 20% of the land on the earth's
surface. Their occurrence can be observed in both- tropical and temperate regions. The pre-condition for
grasslands to develop is the availability of limited rainfall so that there is not enough water to support the
growth of trees.
x Temperate grasslands are characterized as having grasses as the dominant vegetation. Temperatures vary
more from summer to winter, and the amount of rainfall is less in temperate grasslands than in savannas
x In Eurasia, they are called the Steppes, and stretch eastwards from the shores of the Black Sea to the foothills
of the Altai Mountains. Hence pair 1 is not correctly matched.
o They are known as Pustaz in Hungary and surrounding regions
x In Australia, temperate grasslands are known as Downs and are located in the Murray-Darling basin.
Hence pair 4 is correctly matched.
x Velds are the temperate grasslands in southern Africa especially South Africa located on the plateau
which is on the leeward side of Drakensberg mountains and not in Europe. Hence pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
x Pampas is the temperate grassland of South America located in parts of Argentina and Uruguay. Hence
pair 2 is not correctly matched.
.
x Prairies is the temperate grassland of North America located in a portion of USA and Canada situtated
between the Great Lakes and the Rockies.
Q 68.D
x The metaverse is a deeply immersive virtual space combining Virtual Reality (VR), Augmented Reality
(AR), and Artificial Intelligence powered by real-time computer graphics running on powerful servers.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
x Essentially, it is a world of endless, interconnected virtual communities where people can work, meet, play,
and socialise, using virtual reality headsets, augmented reality glasses, smartphone apps, or other devices.
x The metaverse also allows people to shop, exercise, do business, buy land, or even make art in a virtual
environment.
o Digital assets can be owned through non-fungible tokens (NFTs), which are nothing but
cryptographic tokens in which the ownership details of the virtual assets are coded.
o They are unique and cannot be replaced by another token, which makes them ideal for representing
items in the metaverse.
o In the virtual world, NFTs grant you ownership of anything from avatar wearables to digital property.
x The metaverse eliminates all types of barriers, physical or otherwise.
x It's an endless space where there are no limits to how many people can use it at the same time, the number
of hours it can be visited, what types of activities can take place, what industries can enter it, etc.
Q 69.C
x The Ganga basin outspreads in India, Tibet (China), Nepal and Bangladesh over an area of 10,86,000
Sq.km. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x In India, it covers states of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, West Bengal, Uttarakhand,
Jharkhand, Haryana, Chhattisgarh, Himachal Pradesh and Union Territory of Delhi draining an area of
8,61,452 Sq.km which is nearly 26% of the total geographical area of the country. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
x The basin is bounded by the Himalayas on the north, by the Aravalli on the west, by the Vindhyas and
Chhotanagpur plateau on the south and by the Brahmaputra Ridge on the east.
x The Ganga rises in the Gangotri glacier in the Himalayas at an elevation of about 7,010 m in the Uttarkashi
district of Uttarakhand. At its source, the river is called as the Bhagirathi. It descends down the valley upto
Devprayag where after joining another hill stream Alaknanda, it is called Ganga. The total length of river
Ganga (measured along the Bhagirathi and the Hooghly) up to its outfall into Bay of Bengal is 2,525 km.
o The principal tributaries joining the river from right are the Yamuna and the Son.
o The Ramganga, the Ghaghra, the Gandak, the Kosi and the Mahananda join the river from left.
.
o The Chambal and the Betwa are the two other important sub- tributaries.
o The major part of basin in Indian territory is covered with agricultural land accounting to 65.57% of
the total area and 3.47% of the basin is covered by water bodies. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Q 70.B
x Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. He is elected after the
election of the Speaker has taken place. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha, the date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker performs
the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent
from the sitting of the House. In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker. He also presides over
the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
x It should be noted here that the Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly
responsible to the House. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
x The Deputy Speaker is entitled to a regular salary and allowance fixed by Parliament and charged upon the
Consolidated Fund of India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, while assuming their offices, do not make and subscribe to any
separate oath or affirmation.
Q 71.A
x Department-related Standing Committees (DRSCs):
o DRSCs were set up in 1993 to scrutinize the functioning of the various Ministries/ Departments of the
Union Government assigned to them in order to further strengthen the accountability of the Government
to Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
o How many DRSCs have been Constituted?
Twenty-four DRSCs have been constituted consisting of not more than thirty-one members (each),
out of which twenty-one members are nominated by the Speaker, Lok Sabha, and ten members are
nominated by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is not
correct.
o What are the main functions of the DRSCs?
to consider the Demands for Grants of the related Ministries/ Departments and report thereon;
to examine Bills, pertaining to the related Ministries/Departments, referred to the Committee and
report thereon;
to consider the annual reports of the Ministries/ Departments and report thereon, and
to consider national basic long-term policy documents and report thereon.
o How many DRSCs are there under the jurisdiction of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?
Eight DRSCs function under the control and direction of the Chairman, Rajya Sabha, while
sixteen such Committees function under the control and direction of the Speaker, Lok Sabha.
Q 72.B
x Inflation in the US has been on a steady rise, touching 8.2% in September. To counter this, the US Federal
Reserve has been raising interest rates aggressively. Thus, the quantitative restrictions approach adopted by
the Fed to counter multi-decade high inflation has resulted in the surging of bond yield on US 10-year
bonds.
x Bond Yields in essence show the financial return, the owner of the bond is going to get from the bond at
any given time. The simplest version of yield is calculated as Yield = [coupon amount x 100]/price. When
Bond prices increase, Bond yields decrease and vice versa. Therefore, it can be said that Bond Prices have
an inverse relationship with Bond Yields.
x Impact of rising US Bond Yields on the Indian economy:
o Decreased flow of investment: The prospects of comparative improvements in the US capital markets
lead to foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) withdrawing from the Indian capital markets. FPIs have been
net sellers in India, with net withdrawals of $21.86 billion in 2022 so far. Higher bond yields reduce the
attractiveness of Indian equity markets as against fixed-income securities.
o Depreciation of the Rupee: The net outflow of dollars has led to the rupee depreciating to ₹81.962
against the dollar on 4 November from ₹74.37 on 3 January. Weakening export markets, which have
widened the trade deficit and reduced dollar inflow, has worsened the situation for the rupee.
o Increase in inflation: Rupee depreciation has also led to landed costs of crucial imports rising and
leading to cost-push inflation in the country.
o Driving up domestic borrowing costs: If bond yields in the US push up yields in India, this can affect
the returns of companies by increasing their borrowing costs.
.
Q 73.B
x The Mongols under Genghis Khan invaded Transoxiana in north-east Iran in 1219 and the Delhi
Sultanate faced their onslaught soon after.
x Mongol attacks on the Delhi Sultanate increased during the reign of Alauddin Khilji. Delhi was
attacked twice, in 1299/ 1300 and 1302-1303. As a defensive measure, Alauddin Khalji raised a large
standing army in Delhi which posed a huge administrative challenge. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x Alauddin constructed a new garrison town named Siri
to defend the city from the onslaught of the Mongols.
x Alauddin even camped in Siri during the 1303 Mongol
invasion. The Mongols engaged his forces in some minor
conflicts, but neither army achieved a decisive victory.
The invaders ransacked Delhi and its neighbourhoods, but
ultimately decided to retreat after being unable to breach
Siri. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x Alauddin chose to pay his soldiers in cash rather
than iqtas. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
x The soldiers would buy their supplies from merchants in
Delhi and it was thus feared that merchants would raise
prices.
x To stop this, Alauddin controlled the prices of goods in
Delhi. Prices were carefully surveyed by officers, and
merchants who did not sell at the prescribed rate were
punished.
x He successfully withstood the threat of Mongol
invasions.
Q 74.C
x The Commonwealth of Nations is a group of 56 countries comprised mostly of former British colonies.
While members of the Commonwealth are predominantly located in Africa, the Americas, Asia, and the
Pacific, with many of them emerging economies, the three European members of the group are Cyprus,
Malta, and the U.K. The developed nations of the Commonwealth are Australia, Canada, and New Zealand.
x The latest two countries to join the Commonwealth were Gabon and Togo in 2022. At the
Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting in Kigali, Rwanda, on 25 June 2022, Gabon and Togo
became the 55th and 56th members. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
x The Commonwealth consists of both republics and realms. The British monarch is the Head of State for the
realms, whereas the republics are ruled by elected governments, except in the case of five countries —
Brunei Darussalam, Eswatini, Lesotho, Malaysia, and Tonga — each a selfgoverned monarchy. For
republics, the British monarch is not the head of the state for the republics. India is a member of the
commonwealth but it has an elected head of state and the British monarch is neither de facto nor the
de-jure head of the state of India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
x The five permanent UNSC member states are China, France, Russian Federation, the United
Kingdom, and the United States. No other permanent UNSC member except the UK is part of the
Commonwealth. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q 75.A
x Deccan painting or Deccani painting is the form of Indian miniature painting produced in the Deccan region
of Central India, in the various Muslim capitals of the Deccan sultanates that emerged from the break-up of
the Bahmani Sultanate by 1520.
o These were Bijapur, Golkonda, Ahmadnagar, Bidar, and Berar. The main period was between the late
16th century and the mid-17th, with something of a revival in the mid-18th century, by then centred on
Hyderabad.
The high quality of early miniatures suggests that there was already a local tradition, probably at least
partly of murals, in which artists had trained. Compared to the early Mughal painting evolving at
the same time to the north, Deccan painting exceeds in "the brilliance of their colour, the
sophistication and artistry of their composition, and a general air of decadent luxury".
o Deccani painting was less interested in realism than the Mughals, instead pursuing "a more
inward journey, with mystic and fantastic overtones".

.
o Lady with the Myna Bird, Golconda or Bijapur; Ragamala painting, Hindola Raga, c. 1585;
Ibrahim Adil Shah II riding his favourite elephant Atash Khan, Bijapur, c. 1600; etc are famous
illustrations in deccani paintings.
o Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 76.D
x The MusQan scheme was launched in 2021 to provide high-quality and safe Child-Friendly
Services in Public Health Facilities and contribute to preventable new-born child mortality and morbidity.
It makes child-friendly services accessible and available to patients and their parents, as well as provides a
child-friendly environment, promotes, protects, and supports breastfeeding, and provides respectful and
dignified care to the mother/parent–attendant. Hence, option 3 is correct.
x ‘LaQshya’ is a quality improvement initiative, launched in 2017 by the Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare (MoHFW) which aims to accelerate the efforts toward the reduction of preventable maternal
mortality and morbidity by aiming to improve in Quality of Care during the delivery and immediate post-
partum period. The initiative specifically focuses on the care around birth provided in the Labour room and
Maternity OT. It has been initiated in all government medical college hospitals, district hospitals &
equivalent health facilities, all designated FRUs, and high case load CHCs. Hence, option 4 is correct.
x Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN) provides assured, dignified, respectful and quality healthcare
at no cost and zero tolerance for denial of services for every woman and newborn visiting public health
facilities to end all preventable maternal and newborn deaths. Hence, option 1 is correct.
x Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) provides pregnant women a fixed day, free of
cost assured, and quality antenatal check-up by a Specialist/Medical Officer on the 9th day of every
month. Hence, option 2 is correct.
Q 77.C
x Elephants are the largest existing land animals. Three living species are currently recognised: the African
bush elephant, the African forest elephant, and the Asian elephant.
o While the two types of African elephants are different in size and favoured habitats, they both have
more features in common with one another than with the Asian elephant.
x Asian and African elephants have distinctly different head shapes, making them easy to tell apart from a
distance. African elephants have fuller, more rounded heads, and the top of their head is a single dome
shape. Asian elephants have a twin-domed head with an indent running up the center of their head.
x An obvious way to distinguish an African vs Asian elephant from a distance is to look at their ears. African
elephants have much larger ears, shaped a little like the continent of Africa. Asian elephant’s ears are
smaller, and more semi-circular.
x The African elephants are larger than Asian elephants with bulls growing up to 4 meters tall. By
contrast, the biggest Asian males reach no more than 3.5 meters. Because of the differences in their size,
adult African elephants weigh between 4,000 and 8,000kg, whilst Asian elephants are lighter, weighing in
at between 3000 and 6,000kg. Hence statement 3 is correct.
x Both male and female African elephants can have tusks, but only male Asian elephants have tusks. As
a rule African elephant tusks are bigger than Asian elephant tusks. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
x An African elephant’s trunk has more visible rings on it, and is not as hard to the touch as the Asian elephant
trunk. The end of their trunks are also very different – the African elephant trunk has two distinct ‘fingers’
which they use to pick up and manipulate objects. The Asian elephant has only one ‘finger’ at the end of its
trunk
x The African elephants’ skin is more wrinkled than the Asian elephants’ smoother skin. There is no overlap
in the ranges of African and Asian elephants, so they’re never found together in the wild. African
elephants can live up to 70 years, whereas Asian elephants can live up to 48 years. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
Q 78.C
x The UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration aims to prevent, halt and reverse the degradation of ecosystems
on every continent and in every ocean. It can help to end poverty, combat climate change and prevent a
mass extinction. It is coordinated by the U.N. Environment Programme (UNEP) and the U.N. Food
and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). Hence statement 1 is correct.
o Recently, the UN announced the first 10 World Restoration Flagships projects under this initiative.
x Together, the 10 flagships aim to restore more than 68 million hectares — an area bigger than Myanmar,
France or Somalia — and create nearly 15 million jobs.

.
o The initiatives were declared World Restoration Flagships and are eligible to receive U.N.-backed
promotion, advice or funding.
x The government-led Namami Gange initiative was selected as one of the 10 flagship projects of the
UN Decade on Ecosystem Restoration. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x The other inaugural World Restoration Flagships include the
o Trinational Atlantic Forest Pact, which aims to protect and restore the forest in Brazil, Paraguay and
Argentina
o Abu Dhabi Marine Restoration project which is safeguarding the world’s second-largest dugong
population in Abu Dhabi.
o The Great Green Wall for Restoration and Peace initiative to restore savannas, grasslands and farmlands
across Africa
o Multi-Country Mountain Initiative based in Serbia, Kyrgyzstan, Uganda and Rwanda
o Small Island Developing States Restoration Drive focused on three small island developing states –
Vanuatu, St Lucia and Comoros were also recognised.
o The Altyn Dala Conservation Initiative in Kazakhstan to restore the steppe, semi-desert and desert
ecosystems
o Central American Dry Corridor
o Shan-Shui Initiative in China were the other projects on the list.
Q 79.C
x According to Charvaka, there is no other world. Hence, death is the end of humans, and pleasure is
the ultimate object in life. Charvaka recognizes no existence other than this material world. Charvakas
do not recognize God, soul, or heaven because they cannot be perceived. The Charvakas do not
recognize ether as one of the five elements (earth, water, fire, air, and ether) because it is not
perceived. According to them, the entire cosmos is made up of four elements. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
x Some scholars believe that the Charvaka School of philosophy is said to have been founded by Brihaspati.
x The Vedas and the Brihadaranyka Upanishad both mention it. As a result, it is thought to be the first
in the development of philosophical knowledge. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x It claims that knowledge is the result of a four-element combination that leaves no trace after death. The
materialistic philosophy is the subject of Charvaka philosophy.
x It's also known as Lokayata Philosophy, which means "people's philosophy".
Q 80.D
x The agreement on agriculture (AoA) is an international treaty of the World Trade Organisation. It
was negotiated during the Uruguay round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade and entered
into Force with the establishment of the WTO In 1995. The aim of the agreement is to establish a fair trading
system that will increase market access and improve the livelihoods of farmers around the world. Hence
x The agreement establishes a number of general rules and commitments mainly in three areas sometimes
called three pillars. These are market access, domestic support, and export subsidies. Hence statement
2 is correct.
x It covers agricultural products with the exception of forestry and fishing products, as well as rubber, sisal,
jute, and abaca. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 81.D
x Wetlands are areas of land that are saturated with water, either permanently or seasonally, and support
unique plant and animal communities. Examples include swamps, marshes, bogs, and fens.Generally
wetlands are categorised into coastal or tidal wetlands and inland or non-tidal wetlands. These sites
provide habitat for a diverse array of flora and fauna, and play critical roles in maintaining the ecological,
cultural, and socioeconomic values of their regions.
x Ramsar sites are wetlands designated as Wetlands of International Importance under the Ramsar
Convention, an international treaty signed in 1971 to promote the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
India is one of the Contracting Parties to Ramsar Convention, Recently India adds 11 more wetlands to
the list of Ramsar sites to make total 75 Ramsar sites covering an area of 13,26,677 ha in the country
in the 75th year of Independence.
x The above description matches to Keoladeo Ghana National Park which is a Ramsar site. Keoladeo
Ghana National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in Bharatpur, Rajasthan. A complex of

.
ten artificial, seasonal lagoons, varying in size, situated in a densely populated region. Vegetation is
a mosaic of scrub and open grassland that provides habitat for breeding, wintering and staging migratory
birds. the invasive growth of the grass Paspalum distichum has changed the ecological character of large
areas of the site, reducing its suitability for certain water bird species, notably the Siberian crane.
x The park is home to over 370 species of birds and animals such as the basking python, painted storks, deer,
nilgai and more. Noted Indian ornithologist and naturalist Salim Ali used his influence to garner government
support to create Keoladeo National Park. It was also known as the breeding ground for the rare and
elusive to spot Siberian crane.
x Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 82.D
x Recent context: Researchers from Lawrence Berkeley National Laboratory and Oak Ridge National
Laboratory published a new study revealing the highest toughness ever recorded of any material
while investigating a metallic alloy made of chromium, cobalt, and nickel, called CrCoNi. Hence
x CrCoNi is a subset of a class of metals called high entropy alloys (HEAs), which are made of an equal mix
of each constituent element.
x Not only is the metal extremely ductile, but its strength and ductility improve as it gets colder. This
runs counter to most other materials in existence.
x The toughness of this material near liquid helium temperatures is as high as 500 megapascals square root
meters.
x In the same units, the toughness of a piece of silicon is one, the aluminum airframe in passenger airplanes
is about 35, and the toughness of some of the best steels is around 100. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x CrCoNi and other HEAs show good fracture properties at very low temperatures and have important
applications in fields such as space exploration, the development of LNG cryogenic carriers, and low-
temperature superconductors. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q 83.B
x The Coffee plant thrives well in the warm climate. It requires an optimum temperature range of 21-26°C.
The winter temperature should not go below 10°C.
x It requires a high rainfall within the range of 125-150 cm. In the hot rainy season, the plants grow rapidly
and the dry winter seasons favor ripening and harvesting.
x It is a shade-loving plant and requires well-drained fertile soil rich in plant nutrient as iron and potash.
x It can grow on hill slopes and highlands at an altitude of about 1800-2500 feet.
x In India, its plantations can be found on the eastern sheltered slopes of the Western Ghats near the 15°N
latitude in Kerala, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
x On an international level, Brazil, Vietnam, Colombia, Indonesia, Ethiopia, etc. are some of the major
producers of the crop.
Q 84.A
x Article 51, under Part IV of the Indian Constitution, provides for the Promotion of international peace and
security The State shall endeavor to
o promote international peace and security;
o maintain just and honorable relations between nations;
o foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one
another; and
o encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration
Q 85.C
x Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) is a statutory body established under the provisions of Section
15K of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 to hear and dispose of appeals against
orders passed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India or by an adjudicating officer under the Act;
and to exercise jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on the Tribunal by or under this Act or any
other law for the time being in force. Hence statement 1 is correct.
x Consequent to Government Notification in 2014, SAT hears and disposes of appeals against orders
passed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) under the PFRDA
.
Act, 2013. Further, in terms of Government Notification No.DL-(N)/04/0007/2003-15 dated 23rd March,
2015, SAT hears and disposes of appeals against orders passed by the Insurance Regulatory Development
Authority of India (IRDAI) under the Insurance Act, 1938, the General Insurance Business (Nationalization)
Act, 1972 and the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 and the Rules and
Regulations framed thereunder. Hence statement 2 is correct.
x Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) would consist of one presiding Officer and other members. The Central
Government will appoint the presiding Officer of Securities Appellate Tribunal in discussion with the chief
justice of India or nominee. The tenure of the presiding officer is 5 years.
x The Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) will have the same powers as vested in a civil court under the code
of civil procedure while trying a suit, with respect of the following matters namely:
o Enforce and summon the attendance of any person
o Require the discovery and production of documents
o Receive evidence on affidavits
o Issue commissions for the examination of the documents or witnesses
o Dismiss an application for default or deciding it ex-parte
o Set aside any order or dismissal of any application for default or any other order passed by it ex-parte
Q 86.A
x Archimedes' principle: For totally immersed objects the volume of the fluid displaced by the object is equal
to its own volume. If the density of the immersed object is more than that of the fluid, the object will sink
as the weight of the body is more than the upward thrust.
x Archimedes’ principle has many applications. It is used in designing ships & submarines.
x Lactometers, which are used to determine the purity of a sample of milk & hydrometers used for
determining density of liquids, are based on this principle.
x A lactometer is an application of hydrometer and is used to check purity of cow's milk. The instrument is
graduated into a hundred parts. Milk is poured in and allowed to stand until the cream has formed, then the
depth of the cream deposit in degrees determines the quality of the milk. If the milk sample is pure, then
the lactometer floats on it and if it is adulterated or impure, then the lactometer sinks.
x Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q 87.C
x The 90th General Assembly of the International Criminal Police Organization or 'Interpol', the world’s
largest police body with 195 members, was held in New Delhi in October 2022. The General Assembly is
the international policing organization’s top governing body and meets once a year to take key decisions.
The General Assembly took place in India after 25 years – it was last held in 1997 before.
x Interpol connects member countries via a communications system called I-24/7. Countries use this
secure network to contact each other, and the General Secretariat. It also allows them to access our
databases and services in real-time, from both central and remote locations. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
x Interpol works in vast areas including crime, counterfeit currency, terrorism, cybercrime, human
trafficking, war crimes, and corruption among others. It supports the countries in the investigation of
these crimes.
x Interpol is not a police force. It has no powers to arrest anyone, investigate or prosecute crimes, but
it occasionally deploys ‘Incident Response Teams’ to assist national police forces during joint cross-border
operations or large-scale public events. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
x Each of our member countries hosts an INTERPOL National Central Bureau (NCB). This connects their
national law enforcement with other countries and with the General Secretariat via our secure global police
communications network called I-24/7. For India, the Central Bureau of Investigation is the NCB for
Interpol. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q 88.B
x The Group of Twenty (G20) was founded in 1999 after the Asian financial crisis as a forum for the Finance
Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss global economic and financial issues. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
x It was upgraded to the level of Heads of State/Government in the wake of the global economic and financial
crisis of 2007, and, in 2009, was designated the “premier forum for international economic cooperation”.
x The G20 Summit is held annually, under the leadership of a rotating Presidency. For the first time, India
holds the Presidency of the G20 from December 1, 2022, to November 30, 2023. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
.
x The G20 comprises 19 countries (Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India,
Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Türkiye, United
Kingdom, and the United States) and the European Union. Thus, South Afirca is the only African country
in G20. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
x The G20 members represent around 85% of the global GDP, over 75% of the global trade, and about two-
thirds of the world population. This makes it a strategically important grouping.
Q 89.C
x The defects of the Regulating Act of 1773 and the exigencies of British politics necessitated the passing of
Pitt's India Act, 1784.
x The features of this Act were as follows:
o It gave the British government supreme control over the company's affairs and its administration
in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.
o It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body of six
commissioners called the Board of Control to manage the political affairs of India. Thus, it established
a system of double government.
o It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military
government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
o The Act placed the government of India in the hands of the Governor-General and a council of three.
x The Act clearly subordinated the Bombay and Madras presidencies to Bengal in the areas of revenue,
war and diplomacy. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q 90.D Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Deputy Governor said that there is a need to develop robust benchmarks for
x the development of financial markets while delivering a speech at a seminar organised by Financial
Benchmarks India Private Limited (FBIL) in Mumbai.
Financial benchmarks are indices, values or reference rates used for the purpose of pricing, settlement and
x valuation of financial contracts. Globally huge volumes of financial transactions are referenced to or valued
using various such benchmarks. Financial benchmarks play a very critical role in promoting efficient and
transparent financial markets and ensuring financial stability.
x Financial benchmarks, used as references for pricing, valuation and settlement of financial instruments, are
a key driver of the price integrity of financial markets
x Reserve Bank of India set up a Committee on Financial Benchmarks in June 2013 to review the existing
systems governing major financial benchmarks in India. The Committee headed by Shri Vijaya Bhaskar,
the then Executive Director, Reserve Bank of India made wide-ranging recommendations to reform the
benchmark administration in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
o These were accepted by the Reserve Bank of India in early 2014, who identified FIMMDA and FEDAI
as the benchmark administrators for the Indian rupee interest rates and Forex benchmarks respectively.
x It was suggested that these associations may jointly or independently form a separate entity to administer
the benchmarks. This is the first major step for formation of Financial Benchmark India Pvt. Ltd
(FBIL) as an independent benchmark administrator for interest rates and foreign exchange. Hence
x An independent company named ‘Financial Benchmarks India Pvt. Ltd. (FBIL), jointly floated by the Fixed
Income Money Market and Derivative Association of India (FIMMDA), the Foreign Exchange Dealers’
Association of India (FEDAI) and the IBA has since been incorporated.
x The FBIL will act as an independent benchmark administrator and gradually take over the benchmarks
currently being disseminated by other agencies.
x The FBIL, jointly owned by FIMMDA, FEDAI and IBA, was formed in December 2014 as a private limited
company under the Companies Act 2013.
x Its aim is to develop and administer benchmarks relating to money market, government securities
and foreign exchange in India. It is responsible for all the aspects relating to the benchmarks to be issued
by it, namely, collection and submission of market data and information including polled data , formulation,
adoption and periodic review of benchmark calculation methodologies, calculation, publication and
administration of benchmarks confirming to the highest standards of integrity, transparency and precision.

.
Q 91.C
x Article 43 of the Indian Constitution provides that the State shall endeavor to secure, by suitable
legislation or economic organization a living wage for all workers, agricultural, industrial, or otherwise. It
is a part of the Directive Principle of State Policy and thus it is not a Fundamental Right. The living wage
has not been defined by the Constitution but is considered to mean a wage that provides not only basic
essentials like food, clothing, and shelter but also a measure of frugal comfort including education for
children, protection against ill health, requirements of essential social needs, etc. Hence option (c) is the
correct answer.
x The concept is contradistinguished with minimum wage, which means a wage sufficient to cover bare
physical needs. Fixing the minimum wage has been characterized as the first step in the direction of fulfilling
the mandate of Article 43.
x Article 44: It comes under the Directive Principles of State Policy. It expects that the state shall endeavor
to secure for citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
x Article 23: It is a fundamental right. It prohibits the trafficking of human beings and forced labor.
x Article 24: It is a fundamental right. It provides for the prohibition of the employment of children in
factories, etc. No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed in work in any factory or mine or
engaged in any other hazardous employment.
Q 92.C
x Avvaiyar: Avvai' is a Tamil word that means "wise old woman", Throughout Tamil history, there have
been at least three Avvaiyars. The first Avvaiyar is thought to have lived during the Sangam period,
and her poems may be found in the Purananuru. The second Avvaiyar was a contemporary of Kambar
and flourished in the 12th century. During this time, several poetry were written, as well as the 'Avvai
Kural', which contains 310 kurals in 31 chapters. The third Avvaiyar is well known for her 'Vinayagar
Agaval,' 'Aathi Soodi,' 'Kondrai Vendhan,' 'Nalvazhi,' and 'Moodhurai,' among other works.
x Andal: Andal was the only female Alvar among the twelve. She was discovered as a baby by
Vishnuchittan, also known as Periyalvar (the Elder Alvar). She was also known as Kodhai, which means
"garland" or "gift from the Lord." Andal - grew up in the temple town of Srivilliputhur. Her two works
are Thiruppavai (The Path to Krishna) and Nachiyar Thirumozhi (The Sacred Songs of the Lady).
x Karaikkal Ammaiyar: Karaikkal Ammaiyar is one of the three female saints among the 63
Nayanmars and is regarded as one of Tamil literature's most important figures. She was born at Karaikkal,
which was a marine centre during the Chola dynasty. Ammaiyar was a renowned devotee of Lord Siva who
lived in the sixth century,. Punithavathi, as she was known, she had a strong trust in Lord Siva and
worshipped him on a regular basis since she was a young. She stunned everybody when she created a
Siva Lingam out of sand as a child. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
x Kannagi: Kannagi is the lead character in the Tamil Epic ‘Silapathikaram’, written by Ilango Adigal,
she is regarded as the epitome of womanhood in ancient Tamil literature and is even worshipped as a
goddess in some parts of Tamilnadu and Kerala.
Q 93.B
x The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) releases the ‘Blue Transformation - Roadmap 2022–
2030’ document. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
o The document outlines a roadmap for the transformation of aquatic food systems, providing a compass
for the FAO’s work on aquatic food systems for the period 2022–2030. It aligns with the 2021
Declaration for Sustainable Fisheries and Aquaculture of the Committee on Fisheries (COFI) of the
FAO and FAO’s Strategic Framework 2022–2031.
o Blue Transformation is a targeted effort by which agencies, countries and dependent communities,
use existing and emerging knowledge, tools and practices to secure and sustainably maximize the
contribution of aquatic (both marine and inland) food systems (AFS) to food security, nutrition and
affordable healthy diets for all.
o The roadmap recognizes the importance of aquatic food systems as drivers of employment,
economic growth, social development and environmental recovery, which all underpin the SDGs.
o It also recognizes the need to support the 2030 Agenda through the transformation to more efficient,
inclusive, resilient and sustainable aquatic food systems for better production, better nutrition, a better
environment, and a better life, leaving no one behind
x Outcomes envisioned in Blue Transformation Roadmap:
o Reduce global fish loss and waste by half by 2030.

.
o 100% of fisheries under effective management.
o All illegal, unreported and unregulated activities to be phased out.
o At least 35% growth in global sustainable fish production by 2030.
o Achieve full and productive employment and decent work in the aquaculture sector for all women and
men by 2030.
o Significantly increase global per capita fish consumption, especially across global South. Hence
o Current and potential exporters in developing countries to comply fully with import market
requirements.
o All forms of discrimination and abuse against women throughout the value chain to be phased out.
Q 94.B
x Subhash Chandra Bose was twice elected President of the Indian National Congress, (1938-Haripur and
1939-Tripuri).
x Owing to political differences, he resigned from the Congress Presidentship in 1939 and organized the
All India Forward Bloc.
x It was a faction within the Congress in Bengal. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
x The purpose was to consolidate the political left and major support base in his home state Bengal.
x The Forward Bloc aimed for a socialist state and to abolish the zamindari system. Hence statement 3
is correct.
x While the announcement of the formation of the Forward Bloc was made official at a rally in Calcutta, its
constitution and program were adopted on June 22, 1939, in an All-India Session in Mumbai.
x The initial committee of the Forward Bloc had Subhash Chandra Bose as president, SS Cavesheer
from Punjab as its vice president, Lal Shankarlal as its general secretary, and Pandit B Tripathi and
Khurshed Nariman as secretaries.
x The All India Forward Bloc (abbr. AIFB) is a left-wing nationalist political party in India. It emerged as a
faction within the Indian National Congress in 1939, led by Subhas Chandra Bose.
x The party was re-established as an independent political party after the independence of India. It has its
main stronghold in West Bengal. The party's current Secretary-General is Debabrata Biswas.
x Veteran Indian politicians Sarat Chandra Bose (brother of Subhas Chandra Bose) and Chitta Basu
had been the stalwarts of the party in independent India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
x Despite all opposition, Congress came to terms with the British Govt. to implement transfer of power at
the cost of Partition of India on 15 August 1947. Forward Bloc was then the only Party that opposed
partition and observed Independence Day as the Day of National Mourning.
x Forward Bloc members and workers had to undergo a lot of sufferings for it at the hands of Congress
opposition, but they stuck to their point which was later appreciated by millions of Hindus, Muslims, and
Sikhs who were sufferers because of partition.
Q 95.A
x First Loan Default Guarantee (FLDG) is a lending model serviced between digital-lending fintech
companies, and their partner banks and NBFCs (REs). Under these agreements, the fintech originates a loan
and promises to compensate the partners up to a pre-decided percentage in case customers fail to repay.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
x The bank/NBC partners lend through the fintech but from their own books. FLDG helps expand the
customer base of traditional lenders but relies on the fintech's underwriting capabilities. A report by an RBI-
constituted working group on digital lending has laid down risks of FLDG agreements with unregulated
entities. The other concern is that FLDG costs are often passed on to customers.
x With the implementation of RBI’s first set of digital lending guidelines, the FLDG model is not expected
to survive long in India as lending is now expected to occur directly between borrowers’ and REs’ account
and not on, or through any third-party loan service providers’ book. Bankers are now entering co-lending,
co-branded card partnerships with NBFCs and using fintechs’ technical capabilities to upgrade their services
Q 96.D
x India will launch its first-ever surety bond insurance product in December 2022. Surety bonds are a contract
or a three-way agreement that tie the principal, the oblige (a government entity or a private organization)
and the surety. The surety (insurance companies/banks) provides the financial guarantee to the obligee
(government) that the principal (contractor) will fulfil their obligations as per the agreed terms.
x Surety Bond Insurance will act as a security arrangement for infrastructure projects and will insulate
the contractor. The product will cater to the requirements of a diversified group of contractors, many of
whom are operating in today’s increasingly volatile environment.
.
x The Surety Bond Insurance is a risk transfer tool for the Principal and shields the Principal from the
losses that may arise in case the contractor fails to perform their contractual obligation.
x The product gives the principal a contract of guarantee that contractual terms and other business deals will
be concluded in accordance with the mutually agreed terms. In case the contractor doesn’t fulfil the
contractual terms, the Principal can raise a claim on the surety bond and recover the losses they have
incurred.
x Surety bonds will aid in developing an alternative to bank guarantees for the construction of infrastructure
projects. Unlike a bank guarantee, the Surety Bond Insurance does not require large collateral from
the contractor thus freeing up significant funds for the contractor, which they can utilize for the growth of
the business.
x Surety bonds will ensure the efficient use of working capital and reduce the requirement of collateral, which
construction companies need to provide. With these surety bonds, the initial project cost might slightly
reduce and the overall project viability will improve. The product will also help in reducing the
contractors’ debts to a large extent thus addressing their financial worries. The product will facilitate the
growth of upcoming infrastructure projects in the country. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.
Q 97.C
x Ministry of Mines is responsible for the survey and exploration of all minerals, other than natural
gas, petroleum and atomic minerals; for mining and metallurgy of non-ferrous metals like aluminum,
copper, zinc, lead, gold, nickel, etc., and for the administration of the Mines and Minerals (Regulation and
Development) Act, 1957, and rules made under it in respect of all mines and minerals other than coal,
natural gas and petroleum as well as Offshore Areas Mineral (Development and Regulation) Act, 2002 and
rules made under it. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
x The classification of reserves/resources of various minerals based on the United Nations Framework
Classification (UNFC) was done in April 2010, following which National Mineral Inventory was
prepared. The UNFC consists of a three-dimensional system with three axes- economic viability; feasibility
assessment; and geological assessment. India produces more than 90 minerals, prominent among them are
given here. The figures included are the latest available. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
x As per the UNFC system, the total resources of chromite in the country as of 2015 are estimated at
344 million tonnes, comprising 102 million tonnes of reserves (30 percent) and 242 million tonnes of
remaining resources (70 percent). About 96 percent of resources of chromite are located in Odisha, mostly
in the Sukinda valley in Jajpur and Keonjhar districts. Minor deposits are scattered over Manipur,
Nagaland, Karnataka, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
x The total resources of copper ore in the country as of 2015 are estimated at 1511.50 million tonnes
with about 12.16 million tonnes of copper metal. Rajasthan is credited with 813.33 million tonne ore (54
percent) containing 4.48 million tonnes of copper metal; Madhya Pradesh 283.43 million tonne ore (19
percent), containing 3.42 million tonne copper; Jharkhand, 295.39 million tonne ore (20 percent), containing
3.28 million tonnes of copper metal; and the rest 7 percent are accounted for by other states namely
Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Odisha,
Sikkim, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Uttarakhand and West Bengal. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
x Total resources of bauxite as per UNFC in the country are placed at 3,896 million tonnes. Odisha alone
accounts for 51 percent of the country’s resources of bauxite followed by Andhra Pradesh (16 percent),
Gujarat (9 percent), Jharkhand (6 percent), Maharashtra (5 percent) and Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh
(4 percent each). Major bauxite resources are concentrated on the east coast of Odisha and Andhra
Pradesh. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q 98.B
x Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and
convicted of any offense in all cases where the
o Punishment or sentence is for an offense against a Union Law;
o Punishment or sentence is by a court martial (military court);
o The sentence is a sentence of death.
x The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary; it is executive power. But, the
President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal.
x The pardoning power of the President includes the following:
o The pardon removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from
all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.
o Commutation denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a
death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment, which in turn may be commuted to simple
imprisonment. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

.
o Remission implies reducing the period of a sentence without changing its character. For example, a
sentence of rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to rigorous imprisonment for one
year. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.
o Respite denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact,
such as the physical disability of a convict or the pregnancy of a woman offender.
o Reprieve implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period.
Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon or commutation from the President.
Hence pair 3 is not correctly matched.
Q 99.A
x At COP27, the ‘123 Pledge’ kicked off to accelerate action to reduce food loss and waste worldwide.
The new Pledge challenges governments, businesses, chefs and other important actors in the food
system to commit to concrete steps that will make reducing food loss and waste a part of their action
agendas on greenhouse gas emissions.
x The way food is produced and consumed today results in high rates of food loss and waste. An estimated
14% of food is lost in the food supply chain from post-harvest up to wholesale included.
o Meanwhile, 17% of food is wasted at the retail and consumer levels. This food loss and waste cost the
global economy over USD $1 trillion annually. It’s also responsible for more than four times the
greenhouse gas emissions of all annual aviation combined.
x The ‘123 Pledge’ is coordinated by Champions 12.3, UN Environment Programme (UNEP), and UN
Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). It is also supported by WRAP, WWF, and Rabobank.
o Champions 12.3 is a coalition of executives from governments, businesses, international organizations,
research institutions, farmer groups, and civil society dedicated to inspiring ambition, mobilizing action,
and accelerating progress toward achieving Sustainable Development Goal Target 12.3 by 2030.
x Groups taking the ‘123 Pledge’ must meet a number of requirements designed to ensure impact, progress
and transparency toward a worldwide goal of halving food loss and waste by 2030, in line with the UN
Sustainable Development Goal 12.3.
o Commitments must include a climate angle, be timebound, and be measurable. Those taking the Pledge
must commit to providing annual progress reports to the Food Is Never Waste Coalition or to
Champions 12.3. Annual progress reports will contribute to the Global Stocktake (GST), which will
conclude at COP28 in 2023.
x Commitments must also tie to at least one of five priority areas:
o Integrating food loss and waste reduction into country and company climate strategies
o Reducing food loss and waste along supply chains
o Stimulating action at the national and subnational (city) level
o Measuring, reporting, and creating policy and regulatory frameworks for food loss and waste reduction
o Supporting behaviour change at the consumer level through awareness, education, and enabling
conditions.
Q 100.D
x Participatory notes are often referred to as PNs or P-Notes. These are financial instruments used by
investors and hedge funds to invest in the Indian securities, and no registration is required with the
SEBI, the market regulator in India. Investments flowing in through PNs are considered as offshore
derivative investments (ODIs). Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
x Foreign institutional investors (FIIs) offer financial instruments in other countries for the local investors to
invest in the Indian securities market. FIIs are those investors or funds that are based out of a foreign country
and invest in the Indian securities market. This has enabled the foreign investors that are unregistered to
trade in the Indian securities market without having to register with any of the Indian securities market
regulators.
x The investor in PN does not own the underlying Indian security, which is held by the FII who issues the
PN. Thus the investors in PNs derive the economic benefits of investing in the security without actually
holding it. They benefit from fluctuations in the price of the underlying security since the value of the PN
is linked with the value of the underlying Indian security. The PN holder also does not enjoy any voting
rights in relation to security/shares referenced by the PN.
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workers in the industrial sector. Hence option 3 is correct.

o right to workers and peasants to form unions;

x The Resolution on Fundamental Rights guaranteed:

o free speech and free press

o right to form associations

o universal adult franchise

o equal legal rights irrespective of caste, creed and sex

o the neutrality of the state in religious matters

o free and compulsory primary education

o protection to culture, language, and script of minorities and linguistic groups

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highest cover of mangroves in the country.

x Mangrove sites of India

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x Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

statement 1 is not correct.

and proceedings shall be proved.

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x Sana Lamok- Manipur. Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

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Copyright © by Vision IAS

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