All Mcqs 2020 Chem

Exam tests on Chemistry.
Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.
1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) + General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.
2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:

a) Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
b) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
c) + Open, Closed, Isolated
d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
3. What is the Open System?

a) + Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
4. What is the Closed System?

a) Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
b) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
c) + Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
5. What is the Isolated System?

c) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) + Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

a) + Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) + Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) + Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
9. Thermodynamic processes may be:

c) Open, Closed, Isolated
d) + Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
10. What is the Isothermal process?

a) + A process during which the temperature T = const
b) A process during which the pressure P = const
c) A process during which the specific volume v = const
d) A process during which the heat Q = 0
11. What is the Isobaric process?

a) A process during which the temperature T = const
b) + A process during which the pressure P = const
12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?

c) + A process during which the specific volume v = const
13. What is the adiabaticprocess?

d) + A process during which the heat Q = 0
14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?
a) + Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess
15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?

a) Isothermal process
b) + Isobaric process
d) Adiabaticprocess
16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?

b) Isobaric process
c) + Isochoric (or isometric) process
d) Adiabaticprocess
17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?

b) Isobaric process
d) + Adiabatic process
18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?

a) + Julius Robert von Mayer
b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs
19. The basic formula for Entropy;

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
c) ∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
d) + S = KlnW
20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:
a) + Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
d) S = KlnW
21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.

a) Q=∆U+A
b) + H=U+pV
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)
22. Internal energy is called?

a) + Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
c) Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

a) + Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
d) Exothermic process
24. Enthalpy is called?

a) Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
b) + Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

a) Internal energy
b) + Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
26. The heat transfer are divided into

a) + Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
27. What is the thermal conductivity?

a) + The material to conduct heat.
b) Heat is transferred from one place to another.
c) The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?
a) The material to conduct heat.
b) + Heat is transferred from one place to another.
d) None of them.
29. What is the radiation?

c) + The radiation transmitted even void (sun).
d) None of them.
30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?

a) Julius Robert von Mayer
b) + Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs
31. What is the endothermic process?

d) + Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called
32. What is the exothermic process?

c) + Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
d) Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called
33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?

a) Heterogeneous, homogeneous
b) Open, Closed, Isolated
c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
d) + Endothermic reactions
34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

d) + Exothermic reactions
35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.
a) + ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)

c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W
36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law
a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6

c) Q= ΔU+ W
d) + ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:
a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
b) + ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)

c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W
38. System consisting of three phases is called

a) + heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open
39. System consisting of one phase is called

a) heterogeneous
b) + homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open
40. What is the heterogeneous system?

a) + System consisting of three phases is called
c) Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
d) System consisting of one phase is called
41. What is the homogeneous system?

a) System consisting of three phases is called
d) + System consisting of one phase is called
42. What are the units of energy?

a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d) + joule
43. Spontaneous process occurs only
a) + without external energy

b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help
44. Internal energy is ……

a) + energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness
45. Enthalpy is expressed by following

a) + H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H
46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state

a) A
b) G
c) + Qp
d) H
47. Find state parametre

a) Q
b) G
c) + T
d) H
48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state

a) Q
b) G
c) + Qp
d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q
b) G
c) + v
d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0
Chemical kinetics
51. Chemical kinetics studies –
a) energy changes during chemical transformations.

b) + the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.
52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?
a) + Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?
a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) + Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:
a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) + Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?
a) + Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.
56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?

a) Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
b) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?
c) + Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.
58. Enzymes is a substance that …
a) increase the rate of reaction

b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) + biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate
59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-

a) + Catalyst
c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor
d) Reducing agents.
60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-
a) Catalyst
b) + Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?

a) + a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) a change that cannot go back,
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel
62. Irreversible reactions are called?

a) a change that can go forwards or backwards
b) + a change that cannot go back
c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution
63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?

a) + Reversible reactions
b) Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble
64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?

a) Reversible reactions
b) + Irreversible reactions
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble
65. A material that dissolves is called?

c) + Soluble
d) Insoluble
66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?

c) Soluble
d) + Insoluble
67. Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
a) + N2O4 → 2NO2
b) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2
a) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

b) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) + I2 → I • + I •

b) + Cl2 → 2Cl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2
a) 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl

b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) + NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl
72. Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
a) + CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr

b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
d) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
a) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH

b) + 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) + Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
d) + H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

a) + 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
77. Which of these reactions are trimolecular?

a) + O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

b) + 2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) + 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
d) H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O

a) Cl2 → 2Cl
b) + 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
d) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) + HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O

a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) + 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl
83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
c) + Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
b) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2
84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?
2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
c) + Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]
85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?

2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a) + Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].
86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is

a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) + K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]
87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is

a) + K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]
88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) + backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants
89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on

a) + Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction
90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c) + Time
d)Temperature
91. A catalyst is a substance which

a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) + Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their
a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) + Active mass
93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are
a) + Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite
94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are
a) Unequal
b)Constant
c) + Equal
d) Increased
95. The law of mass action was enunciated by
a) + Guldberg and Waage

b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham
96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction

will
N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal
a) + Increase the yield of NO

b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed
97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?
a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;
b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;
c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;
d) + the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.
98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?
a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
c) + the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.
99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases,
the rate of the reaction:
a) + increases;
b) decreases;
c) remains the same;
d) approaches zero
100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?
a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;
b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;
c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
d) + The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.
101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:
a) decrease;
b) increase;
c) + remain the same;
d) approach zero
102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:
a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;
b) add a catalyst;
c) cool the reaction down;
d) + use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.
103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?
I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
a) II only;
b) III only;
c) I and II only;
d) + II and III only
Solutions.
104. Molarity is expressed as
a)grams/litre
b) litres/mole
c) + moles/litre
d) moles/1000 gm
105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in
a) + 1000 gm of the solvent
c)onelitre of the solution

b) one litre of the solvent
d) 22.4 litres of the solution
106. Normality is expressed as
a)moles/litre
b) + gm equivalents/litre
c)moles/1000 gm
d)gram/litre
107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is
a) 1 N
b) 10 N
c) + 2.7 N
d) + 1.7 N
108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is
a) + 13N
b) 0x1N
c) +1N
d) None
109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is
a) 0x1
b) + 2.0
c) + 1.0
d) 0.4
110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is
a) + 5.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) + 2.04 N
d) 0.35 N
111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?
a) 0.5 N
b) + 3.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) + 3.6 N
112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is
a) +4N
b) + 47 N
c) N/2
d) N/4
113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is
a) + 4.6 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) + 3.6 N
114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is
a) 4g
b) + 16 g
c) +1g
d) 10 g
115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be
a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) + 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M
116. The molarity of pure water is
a) + 5.6
b) + 55.6
c) 100
d) 18
117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is
a) 1
b) + 10
c) 18
d) 100
118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is
a) 1
b) +3
c) +9
d) 1.5
119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is
a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) + 1.0 M
120. What is the solution?

a) + a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) component of a solution present in the lesser amount
c) component of a solution present in the greater amount
d) amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
121. What is the solute?

a) a mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
b) + component of a solution present in the lesser amount
122. What is the solvent?

c) + component of a solution present in the greater amount
123. What is the concentration?

d) + amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?

a) + Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?

a) Solution
b) + Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?

a) Solution
b) Solute
c) + Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) + Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?
a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

b) + the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
c) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
129. Mass fraction is expressed in:
a) mol / kg.
b) + percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.
130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction

neq msolute
a) CE = c) +=
V msolution
CM CEME
T= = msubstance1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M  m solution
131.The molar concentration iscalled?
a) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:

b) + the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
132. Molar concentration is expressed in:

a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.
133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration

neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
Vsolution MVsolution B=
b) + d) M  m solution
134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

a) + the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:
a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) + mol / l.
d) g / ml.
136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent
a) msolute c) + neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
b) d) M  m solution
137. The molal concentration is:

b) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) + the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
138. Molal concentration is expressed in:
a) + mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.
139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration
a) + msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
140. Find volume concentration

a) mass percent
b) + normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction
141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature

a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) + Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov
142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid

a) 98
b) 2
c) 32
d) + 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98
b) 2
c) + 32.6
d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
a) 98
b) + 37
c) 32
d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by
a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) + theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation
146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as
a) + diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution
147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in
a) + high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature
148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an
a) base
b) + acid
c) salt
d) suspension
149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) + molarity
150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a

a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) + solution.
d) compound.
151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the

a) solute. c)solution.
b) + solvent. d) mixture.
152. Which of the following is not a solution?

a) + zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel
153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?

a) + alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene
154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?

a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d) + dental amalgam
155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?

a) + It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.
156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is

a) + concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.
157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b) + increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure
158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?

a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction
b) + Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction
159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) + 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution
160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?

a.) + hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride
161. Most salt become soluble in water as the

a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b) + temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.
162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.

a) + Percent by mass c)Molarity
b)Molality d)Mole fraction
163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
a)Percent by mass c)Molarity
b) + Molality d)Mole fraction
164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity
c) + Dilution
b)Normality
d)Molality
165. In dilution of solution,

a) a solute is added to the solution.
b) + solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.
166. A 40% alcohol contains

a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b) + 40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.
Colligative properties of solutions.
167. Solutions are:

а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c) + homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.
168. Solubility of solids depends upon:

a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) + all answers are right.
169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:

a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) + gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) + solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).
171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number

of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) + vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.
172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) + The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.
173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:

a) Hemolysis;
b) + Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.
174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:

a) + 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.
175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:

а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
d) + boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile
solutes.
176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) + concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.
177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:

а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) + 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.
178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:

a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
solvents;
b) + Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:
a) + The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.
180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:

a) + to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.
181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:

a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d) + A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.
182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:

a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) + Osmotic pressure.
183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:

a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
b) + 1.0×10-1osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.
184. Osmolarity is:
a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) + the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.
185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:

a) +  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.
186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:

a) + 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.
187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:

a) + the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.
188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise

a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect
189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution
a) increases
b) remains same
c) + Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) + increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases
191. For spontaneous processes

a) ∆H ≥ 0
b) ∆S ≤ 0
c) ∆G ≥ 0
d) + ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of nonelectrolyte doesn’t depend on
a) concentration
b) + nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) + molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + Hypertonic
195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) + hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) + isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) + isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) + osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) + cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) + ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b) + Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure
202. Which involves the colligative properties?

a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c) + Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.
203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) + Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis
204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration through a semipermeable membrane is known as :
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis
d) + Osmosis
205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) + Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Osmosis
d)Phagocytosis
206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on
a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) + Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only
207. Which one is a colligative property?
a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point
208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) + Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.
209. Which is not a colligative property?
a) + Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point
210. Which of the following is a colligative property?
a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) + Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point
211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of
a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules

b) + Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute
212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by
a) + Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis
213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to
a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) + Mole fraction of solute
214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms
a) + An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion
215. When common salt is dissolved in water
a) M. p. of the solution increases

b) + B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases
216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to
a) + Molecular wt. of solute

b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these
217. When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then

phenomenon taking place is called
a) + Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis
218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:
a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) + П / C = ST
219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.
a)less than c) + greater than
b)the same as d) greater than or equal to
220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) + Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.
221. What happens during osmosis?

a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
b) + Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?
a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.

b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.
c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) + The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increase
223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) + boiling point d) freezing point
224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)
a) + electrolyte c) polar substance

b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance
225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as
a) + volatile
b)electrolyte
c) nonvolatile
d) nonelectrolyte
Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.
Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.
226. Acetic acid is weak because
a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) + It is slightly ionized
d) None of these
227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be
a) + 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5
228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is
a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) + 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9
229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).
a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively

b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively
230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is
a) 10-12
b) + 10-2
c)10-4
d)10-13
231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is

a) 10-13
b) 1013
c) + 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010
232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately
a) 10
b) +7
c) 1
d) 14
233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is
a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) + Between 6 and 7
234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is
a) 8
b) + 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1
235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is
a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric
236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to
a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) + Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation
237. FeCl3 solution is
a) + Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric
238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is
a) Neutral
b) c)Strongly acidic
c) Weakly acidic
d) + Alkaline
239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show
a) + An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction
240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is
a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) + Almost neutral
241. Which one of the following is acid salt?
a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) + NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4
242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?
a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) + Na2HPO4
243. Which one is not an acid salt?
a) Na2H2PO4
b) + NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above
244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?
a) NaCl
b) + NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4
245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?
a) + Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate
246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?
a) + CH3COOK
b) KCl
c) NaNO3
d) d)K2SO4
247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is
a) Weakly acidic
b) + Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic
248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution
a) (NH4)2SO4
b) + Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4
249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from
a) A strong acid and strong base

b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) + A weak acid and strong base
250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?
a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) + FeCl3
d) NaCN
251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?
a) + NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN
252. A buffer solution changes its pH
a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) + No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity
253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?
a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base

b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) + It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above
254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?
a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base

b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) + Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base
255. Which is a buffer solution?
a) + CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl
256. Which of the following is a buffer?
a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) + NH4OH + NH4Cl
257. Which is not a buffer solution?
a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) + CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid
258. pH of blood is
a) Less than 6
b) + Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9
d) Greater than 10
259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is
a) + Acetic acid + Sodium acetate

b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All
260. Give name to positively charged particles:
а) radicals;
b) molecules;
c) anions;
d) + cations.
261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?

a) NaNO2;
b) + NaHCO3;
c) Na2CO3;
d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) + Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) + Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M;
b) 0.001M;
c) + 0.1 M;
d) 1.0M.
265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:

a) + Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.
266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:

а) Electrons donors;
b) Electrons acceptors;
c) + Protons donors;
d) Protons acceptors.
267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl;
b) KHSO4/H2SO4;
c) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
d) + NH3 /NH4Cl.
268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:

a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) + All answers are right.
269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:

а) + Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.
270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:

а) Electrons donor;
c) Protons donors;
d) + Protons acceptors.
271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:

a) + pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.
272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into

a) + oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis
273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) + hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
c) ammoniumcation(NH+4)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)
274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) + hydrogen(H +)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)
275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a) + pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7
276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) + pH = 7
277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7
b) + pH> 7
c) pH ~7
d) pH = 7
278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7
b) pH>7
c) + pH ~7
d) pH = 7
279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride

a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of theam
280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride

a) acidic
b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of theam
281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride

a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of theam
282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride

A + ) acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of theam
283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride

a) acidic b) basic
c) + neutral
d) none of theam
e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of theam
285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride

a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of theam
286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate

a) + acidic
) basic
c) neutral
d) none of theam
287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate

a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of theam
288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate

a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of theam
289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate

a) + acidic
b) basic
c) neutral
d) none of theam
290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate

a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of them
291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate

a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of them
292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate

a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
ld) none of theam
293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate

a) acidic
b) + basic
c) neutral
d) none of theam
294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite

a) acidic
b) + basic
c)
d) c)neutral
e) d) none of theam
295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide
a) 2
b) 11
c) + 13
d) 7
296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide
a) 2
b) 10
c) 1
d) +13
297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide
a) 2
b) + 13
c) 1
d) 7
298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of
a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) + both A and B
299. PH can be kept constant with help of

a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) + buffer solution
d) super saturated solution
300. Buffers present in blood contain

a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) + all of them
301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in

a) + aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis
302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase
b) c)carbolic hydrase
c) + carbonic anhydrase
d) d)carbonic hydrase
303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride
a) hydrochloric acid only

b) + acetic acid only
c) sodium chloride or potassium acetate
d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid
304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is

a) oxide
b) ether
c) + salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) + all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) + KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) + neutralization
b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation
308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is

a) AH
b) + HA
c) Ha
d) aH
309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is

a) high
b) + low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid
b) concentration of water molecules
c ) pH of solution
d) + both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) + both A and B
312. Ka is called
a) + acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant
313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?

a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) + HNO2
314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) + LiClO4
d) CsBr
315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?

a) H2O
b) + KF
c) HF
d)HNO2
316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) + HCN
317. A stronger base:
a) is also a stronger acid;
b) tastes sour;
c) + is also a stronger electrolyte;
d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution
318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:
a) water and a salt;
b) an acid and a base;
c) + a salt and hydrogen gas;
d) a nonmetal oxid
319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?
a) HCl;
b) H2CO3;
c) + KOH;
d) CH3CH2OH;
320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:
a) 1×10-11 M;
b) + 1×10-5 M;
c) 1×10-7 M;
d) 1×10-6M;
321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H + ions. This
substance is:
a) KOH;
b)CH4
c) + H2SO4;
d) NH3
322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?
a) [H+] equals zero;
b) [H+] is less than [OH-];
c) [OH-] equals [H+];
d) + [H+] is greater than [OH-]
323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:
a) donate a proton;
b)donate an electron pair;

c) yield H+ ions;
d) + acceptor of protons.
324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 4
0.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?
a) 100.0 mL;
b) 80.0 mL;
c) 40.0 mL;
d) + 20.0 mL
325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:
a) + increase;
b) remain the same;
c) decrease;
d) approach zero
326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?
a) 1;
b) 7;
c) 10;
d) + 14.
327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:
a) a single replacement;
b) the process of hydrolysis;
c) + a neutralization reaction;
d) a synthesis reaction;
328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?
a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;
b) + A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;
c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;
d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;
329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?
a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid;
c) + perchloricacid;
d) hypochlorous acid
330. Which of the following statements is true?
a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.
331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates?
a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;
b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;
332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?
a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;
b) + 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;
333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?
a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;
b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;

c) HI is hydroiodic acid;
d) + HClO2 is chloric acid
334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?
a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) + Na2CO3
335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:
a) + unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute
336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl 2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium
carbonate and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:
a)Cl-; b) + 2Na+; c) CaCO3d) all of the substances above
337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?
a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;
b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) + 2.0 m CaCl2
338. Which equation is correctly balanced?
a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;
b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
c) + 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;
Unit 2.
Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.

339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in
a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d) + H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c) + H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b) + KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d) + x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b) + Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b) + H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2
345. An electrolyte is one

a)Which conducts electric current c) + Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above
346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to

a)Dilution b) + number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution
347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) + -3
348. Which of the following is an insulator?

a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) + Diamond d)Silicon
349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O

a)X=4 y=6 b) + x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8
350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

a) + 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a) + F2
b)Cl2
c)Br2
d)I2
352. Oxidation involves

A) + Loss of electrons
b)Increase in the valency of negative part
c)Gain of electrons
d)Decrease in the valency of positive part
353. in electrolysis, oxidation takes place at

a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B
d)The surface of the electrolyte solution
354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

a)-2
b) + -1
c) 0
d) -4
355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a) + SO2
b)CaO
c)Al2O3
d)CrO3
356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) intramolecular
c) + disproportion
d) none of them
357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?

a) CH3COONa
b) + C2H5OH
c)NaCl
d)KOH
358 Element accepting electrons is called

a) product
b) + oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant
359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F
b) + Cl
c)He
d)Na
360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:

a) + -3 to +5
b)-1 to +1
c)-3 to -5
d) -5 to +1
361.Strong electrolytes are those which

a)Dissolve readily in water
b)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
c)Conduct electricity
d) + Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions
362.Which of the following conducts electricity?

a) crystal NaCl
b)diamond
c) + molten KBr
d)sulphur

a) + Anode
b)Cathode
c)Both A & B
d)The surface of the electrolyte solution
364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode

a) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
b) φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
c) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt
365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell

a) φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
c) + φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
d) V = Ae-E/Rt
366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:

a) + -1
b) -2
c)+4
d) 0
367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:

a) +1
b) + -2
c)- 4
d) 0
368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode
d) V = Ae-E/Rt
e) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn
369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell

d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn
370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) + intermolecular
b) double exchange
c) counter disproportion
d) intramolecular
de) disproportion
371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed

a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
d) + disproportion
372. Element loosing electrons is called

a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) + reductant
373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:

a) + the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in
terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.
374. In what case there is an oxidation process:

a) KMnO4→MnO2;
b) HNO2→NO2;
c) Cl2O→HCl;
d) + P→H3PO4.
375. Point out the correct statements:

a) + A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.
376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1;
b) + 6;
c) 14;
d)3.
377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?
a) Mn(OH)2;
b) MnO42-;
c) + MnO2;
d) Mn2+.
378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?
a) Fe2O3 + HCl;
b) + FeCl3+H2S;
c) Fe+ HCl;
d) SO3+NaOH.
379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O
а) 2; b) + 5; c) 10; d) 3.
380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:

а) + accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.
381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
electrodes dipped into their salt solutions:
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) + Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.
382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:
a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) + 1-; e) 2-.
383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?a)
HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) + KClO4; e) CaCl2.
384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:
a) Al; b) Fe; c) + Fe3+Al3+; d) Al3+ Fe3+; e) none of the above.
4. In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?
a) Cr; b) Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni; e) none of the above.
385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:
; a) + loses 1 electron b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton

a) loses 1 electron; b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron;
d) gains 1 proton; e) gains 1 neutron.
3386. Which half reaction demonstrates conservation of mass and conservation of charge?
a) Cl2 + e- → Cl1-; c) Cl2 → 2Cl1- + e-;
b) Cl2 + 2e- → Cl1-; d) Cl2 + e- → 2Cl1-; e) Cl2 + 2e- → 2Cl1-.. In the chemical cell
reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?
a) Cr; b) + Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni
387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:
a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) + 10; e) 15.
388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?
a) it allows ion migration; c) + it allows electron migration;
b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;
e) it prevents neutron migration.
389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?
a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) + F2; d) I2
390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:
a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) + electrolysis; d) hydrolysis
Biogenic elements.
391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:
a) in molecule of cytochrome b
b) + in molecule of vitamin B12
c) in molecule of catalase
d) in molecule of vitamin B6
392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:
a) enzyme catalase
b) + enzyme superoxide dismutase
c) cytochrome P450
d) glutathione peroxidase
393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:
a) hypervitaminosis
b) + hypovitaminosis
c) avitaminosis
d) acidosis
394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:
a) + xeroftalmia
b) increased blood coagulation
c) growth acceleration
d) anemia
395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:
a) vitamin D
b) + vitamin B1
c) vitamin K
d) thiamine
396. ZnO is used as

a) protective
c) + both (a) & (b)
b) astringent
d) antidote
397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be
a) oxidation
b) protein precipitate
c) halogenation
d) + all of the above
398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as
a) + antiseptic
b) acidifying agent
c) protective
d) antioxidant
399. KMnO4 solutions are used for
a) antibacterial
b) antifungal
c) + both of the above
d) antioxidant
400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these
elements:
a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;
b) + H, P, S, C, O, N;
c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;
d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;
401. Choose biogenic macroelement

a)Cu
b) + P
c)Br
d)As
402. Choose biogenic microelement

a) + Cu
b)S
c)Ca
d)Mg
403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of

a) greater than 10 -3 cm
b) + 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm
404. Six major biogenic elements :

a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
on which life depends.
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
c) + Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.
405.Five minor biogenic elements:

a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) + Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
406. Trace elements:

a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
c) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
d) + Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12%
b) + 10-3– 10-5 %
c)10-9%
d) 10-2%
408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a) + 10-2%
b) 10-9%
c) 10-3– 10-5 %
d) 10-7% - 10-12

a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + Zn

a) O
b) + Fe
c) N
d) C

a) O
b) S
c) N
d) + I

a) + P
b) Cl
c)Cu
d) I
Choose biogenic macroelement

a) Pb
b) +Ca
c) I
d) Ne

a) Pb
b) l
c) + O
d) Mn

a) Pb
b) + C
c)Cu
d) I
Complex compounds.
415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:

a)+1
b) + +3
c)-1
d)-3
416. A coordination compound consists of

a) a metal ion and counterions
b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions
d) + a metal ion bound to one or more ligands
417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:

a)0
b)+4
c) + +3
d)+6
418. Name the following coordination compound:

K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II)
b) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
c ) potassium cyanoferrate(II)
d) + potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
419. The coordination number is:

a) + The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex
420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin

a) + 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2

a) + cationic
b) anionic
c) monodentate
d) neutral
422. Ethylenediamine would be called

a) dentate
b) + bidentate
c) tridentate
d)tetradentate

[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) + triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?

(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5
b)1, 5, 6
c) + 1, 6
d) 2, 3, 4, 5
Ca 3  Fe(CN) 6  2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0
b) 1+
c) 2+
d) + 3+
426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) + 4
427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound

a) + central ion
b) ligands
c) outer sphere ions
d) all constituents
428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements

a) does’tchang
b) increases
c) + decreasis
d) none
429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps

a) 0
b) 1
c) + 2 and more
d) always without steps
430. Dentantness of porfyrin

a) 2
b) + 4
c) 6
d) 5
431.Particles playing role of ligands are

a) positive ions
b) chelates
c) + negative ions
d) complex ions
432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
b) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
c) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
d) + [CrCl2(H2O)4]
433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?

a) +1
b) + +3
c) -2
d) 0
434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?

a) carbonyl; b) nitro;
b)
c) acetate;
d) + oxalate.
435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?

a) + [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
b) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
c) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]
436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?

a) + Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine
437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?
a) + Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper
438. Ligand «en» is an example of:

a) + bidentate ligand;
b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand;
d) hexadentate ligand.
439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is

a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) + Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)
440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex

a) cationic
b) + anionic
c) trigonal
d) neutral
441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound

a)central ion
b)outer sphere ions
c) + ligands
d) none
442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements

a) doesn’t change
b) + increases
c) decreases
d) none of them
443.Coordination number of iron in hem

a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) + 6
444. Dentatness of EDTA

a) 2
b) 3
c) + 4
d) 6
445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability

a) increases b) doesn’t change c) + decreases d) none of them
446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of

a) rate of reaction
b) + donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) electrostatic model
447. Particles playing role of central ion are

a) + positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions
448. Find ligand of weak field

a) + OH-
b) Au
c) CN-
d) Fe2+
449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?

a) + Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)
450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

a) + K3[Fe(CN)6]
b) (CN)6[Fe K2]
c) Fe [K2(CN)6]
d) [FeK2(CN)6
451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?

a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) + tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride
452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

a) [(en)3Co]SO4
b) [SO4(en)3]Co
c) [Co(en)3SO4]
d) + [Co(en)3]SO4
453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?
a) linear;
b) octahedral;
c) + tetrahedral;
d) trigonal
454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of

a) rate of reaction
b) donor-acceptor interaction
c) protons number
d) + electrostatic model
455. Find ligand of strong field

a) OH-
b) Au
c) Cl-
d) + NH3
456. Dentatness of ligand is

a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) + number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number
Unit 3.
Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:
a) + dispersion medium, dispersed phase

b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel
458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:
a) dispersion medium, dispersed phase

b) + coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel
459. What is a disperse system?
a) It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
d) It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.
460. Coarse systems include:

a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
b) molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.
461. What is the Emulsion?
b) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
462. What is the suspension?
b) It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
c) + It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium – liquid.
463. What is the aerosol?

immiscible liquid.
d) + It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.
464. Sols are:

a) gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) + blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.
465. Gels are:
a) + gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.
466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) + pumice
d) fog
467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

a) Soil
b) + Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog
468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

a) natural gas
b) + gas from oil droplets
c) smog
d) colored glass
469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:

a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) + dust storms
d) pearl
470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) + body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog
471. Colloidal solutions include:

a) + emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water
472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:

a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) + some alloys
d) fog
473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:
a) Dust in the air

b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) + Does not exist
474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:

a) + Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog
475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:
a) cream, milk
b) + foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate
476. Colloid particles have sizes of

b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) + 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) less than 10 -7 m
477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) + positive
c) without charge
d) zero
478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) + Ba2+
b) H+
c) SO4 2-
d) H+
479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing

a) condensation
b) change of solvent
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization
480. Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate

a) NaCl
b) + Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3
481. Optical property typical to colloid systems

a) reflection
b) absorption
c) + scattering
d) diffusion
482. Find optical property

a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) + absorption
483. Emulsion is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) g/l
484. Powder is
a) l/s
b) l/l
c) s/l
d) + s/g
485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties

a) μ
b) η
c) + φ
d) ξ
486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of

a) + greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of

a) greater than 10 -5 m
b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
d) + less than 10 -7 m
488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

a) + positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero
489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none
b) Cl-
c) SO4 2-
d) + Ba2+
490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing

a) coagulation
c) red-ox reaction
d) + peptization

a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) none

a) + NaNO3
b) Ag Cl
c) Ca(NO3 )2
d) Ba(NO3) 2
a) + NaNO3
b) Fe(NO3)3
c) PbS
d) Ba(NO3) 2
494. Optical property typical to coarse systems

a) reflection
b) scattering
c) + absorption
d) diffusion
495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one

a) absorption
c) Brownian movement
c) + osmosis
d) diffusion
496. Aerosol is
a) l/s
b) + l/l
c) s/l
d) s/g
497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties

a) μ
b) η
c) m
d) +
498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) + Suspensions;
b) b) Electrolytes;
c) c) Molecular solutions;
d) d) Alloys.
499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:

a) + Colloids;
b) b)Gas mixtures;
c) c) Saturated solutions
d) ; d) Alloys.
500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:

a) Coagulation;
b) + Tyndall effect;
b) c) Peptization;
c) d) Dialysis.
501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:

a) Osmosis;
b) Diffusion;
c) + Brownian motion;
d) Coagulation .
502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:

a) + Aerosol;
b) b) Emulsion;
c) c) Sol;
d) d) Foam.
503. Fog and smoke are:

a) + Aerosols;
b) b) Emulsions;
c)
d) c) Gels;
e) d) Foams.
504. Sol consists of:

a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) + Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.
505. Stability of a disperse system is:

a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) + Constancy in time of its state and main properties.
506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:

a) + Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.
507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:

a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) + {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.
508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) + Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.
509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:

a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) + Filtration; ultra filtration.
510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:
a) N2;
b) H2O;
c) + CO2;
d) O2.
511. Aerosol is:

a) Powder;
b) Dust cloud;
c) Hairspray;
d)+ All answers are right.
512. Emulsion is:

a) + Milk;
b) b) Foam;
c) c) Jelly;
d) d) Fog.
513. Biological gel is:

a) + Cartilage;
b) air;
c) clouds;
d) river water.
514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) + All answers are right.
515. Coarse disperse system is:

a) Solution;
b)Sol;
c 0+ Suspension;
d)Gel.
516. Chromatography is:

a) + The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.
517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) + Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.
518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:

a) + Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.
519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) + Size of particles;
d) Odor.
520. Emulsion is:

a) + Butter;
b) b) River ooze;
c) c) Stained glass;
d) d) Textile fabrics.
521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

a) + Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right
522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) + On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.
523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:
a) + Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.
524. Coagulation is:
a) Chaotic movement of particles;
b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
c) Destruction of the native protein structure;
d) + The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.
525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:
a) Viscosity, flowability;
b) + Opalescence, light absorption;

c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;
d) dissolution, swelling.
526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:
a) Opalescence;
b) Electrodialysis;
c) Light absorption;
d) + Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.
527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:
a) Negatively charged;
b) Electro neutral;
c) Positively charged;
d) + Negatively and positively charged.
528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of
a) Diameter
b)Particle size
c)radius
d) + solubility
529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order
a) +suspension> colloidal > true solution
b)true solution > suspension > colloidal
c) suspension> colloidal = true solution
d) none of the above

530. Colloids can be purified by
a) peptization
b) coagulation
c) + dialysis
d) bredic arc method
531. which is a natural colloid?
a) sodium chloride
b)urea
c)cane sugar
d) + blood
532. Which one of the following is not a colloid
a) milk
b) blood
c)ice cream
d) + urea solution
533. Milk is a colloid in which
a) + a liquid is dispersed in liquid
b) a gas is dispersed in liquid
c) a solid is dispersed in liquid
d)some sugar is dispersed in water
534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of
a) aliquid dispersed in a solid
b) a gas dispersed in air
c) + a liquid dispersed in a gas
d)none of the above
535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system

a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d) +a solution of sugar in water
536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?
a) + soap
b)water
c)oil
d)NaCl
537. Lyophobic colloids are
a) reversible colloids
b) + irreversible colloids
c)protective colloids
d)gum proteins
538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?
a)condensation
c)diffusion through animal membrane
b)dialysis
d) + addition of an electrolyte
539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by
a) dialysis
b) electrodialysis
c) ultrafiltration
d) + electrophoresis
540. Suspensions are
a) + visible to naked eye
c) invisible under electron microscope
b) not visible by any means
d) invisible through microscope

541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?
a) + gelatin
b) sulphur
c) gold
d) carbon
542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of
a) lyophilic sol
b) + associated colloid
c) hydrophobic sol
d) emulsion
543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to
a) + charge on their particles
b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles
c) the smaller size of their particles
d)the large size of their particles
544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because
a)the colloidal particles have positive charge
b)the colloidal particles have negative charge
c) + the colloidal particles are solvated
d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.
545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?
a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained
b) + coagulation is reversible
c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water
d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero
546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see

a)light scattered by colloidal particles
b)shape of the particle
c) + size of the particle
d)relative size
547. Light scattering takes place in
a)solution of electrolyte
b) electrodialysis
c) + colloidal solutions
d)electroplating
548.Maximum coagulation power is in
a)Na+
b)Ba2+
c)Al3+
d) + Sn4+
549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order
a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+
b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43-
c) + Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+
d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-
550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by
a)NaCl solution
b) + starch solution
c)urea solution
d)FeCl3 solution
551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are
a)linear
b)curved
c) + zigzag
d)uncertain
552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as
a)Photolysis
b) + dialysis
c)pyrolysis
d)peptisation
553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as
a)electrolysis
b) + electrophoresis
c)electrodyalysis
d)none of the above
554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?
a)dialysis
b) + electrophoresis
c)sedimentation
d)ultrafiltration
555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to
a)prevent making of a colloid
b)stabilize the mixture
c) + stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
d)enrich the aroma
556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?
a)absorption
b)tyndall effect
c)flocculation
d) + paramagnetism
557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance
a) + accumulates in the surface of the other substance
b) goes into the body of the other substance
c) remains close to the other substance
d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.
558. Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?

a) + colloidal S
b)Colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold
d)colloidal platinum
559. As2S3 sol is

a)positive colloid
b) + negative colloid
c)neutral colloid
d)none of the above
560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of
a) + liquid dispersed in gas
b)solid dispersed in gas
c)gas dispersed in gas
d)solid dispersed in liquid
561. Which of the following is a colloid?
a)sugar solution
b)urea solution
c) + silicic acid
d)NaCl solution
562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?
a) smoke
b) ink
c) blood
d) + air
563. Milk is
a) fat dispersed in milk
b) + fat dispersed in water
c) water dispersed in fat
d) water dispersed in oil
564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which
a)solid is dispersed in liquid
b)liquid is dispersed in a solid
c) + gas is dispersed in a solid
d)solid is dispersed in a solid
565. Butter is a colloid formed when
a) fat is dispersed in water
b) fat globules are dispersed in water
c) + water is dispersed in fat
566.Which of the following is not a colloid?
a) + chlorophyll
b) smoke
c) ruby glass
d) milk
567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?
a)muddy water
b)bread
c)concrete
d) + a solution of sugar in water
568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as
a)gel
b)homogeneous solution
c) + sol
d)aerosol
569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as
a) a sol
b) + a gel
c)an emulsion
d)a foam
570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as
a) + foam
b)sol
c)aerosol
d)emulsion
571. Emulsifiers are generally
a)soap
b)synthetic detergents
c) + lyophilic sols
d)all of the above
572. Butter is
a) emulsion
b) aerosol
c) suspension
d) + none
573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as
a)aerosol
b) + gel
c)emulsion
d)foam
574. Which one of an example of gel?
a)soap
b)fog
c) + cheese
d)milk
575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called
a) aerosol
b) + cannot be prepared
c) gas aerosol
d) gasosol
576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) + Surface
d) Size
577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called
a)smoke
b) + clouds
c)jellies
d)emulsions
578. Milk is an example of
a) pure solution
b) + emulsion
c)gel
d)suspension
579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as
a)electro-osmosis
b)Brownian movement
c) + cataphoresis
d)dialysis
580. Tyndall effect will be observed in
a) + solution
b)precipitate
c)sol
d)vapour
581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to
a) + scattering of light
b)reflection of light
c)absorption of light
d)presence of electrically charged particles
582. The Brownian motion is due to
a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles
c) + impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles

d)convective currents
583. The sky looks blue due to
a)dispersion effect
b) reflection
c)transmission
d) + scattering
584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to
a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water
b) + reflection of blue sky by sea water
c)scattering of blue light by water molecules
d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules
a) + colloidal S
b)colloidal antimony
c)colloidal gold
d)colloidal silver
586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as
a)dialysis
b) + Brownian movement
c)electro-osmosis
d)Tyndall effect
587. is an example of colloidal system of
a)solid dispersed in liquid
b)solid dispersed in gas
c)liquid dispersed in gas
d) + gas dispersed in gas

588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?
a)suspension
b)emulsion
c) + sugar solution
d)gold sol
589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?
a)milk
b) + gum
c)fog
d)blood
590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is
a)suspension
b) + emulsion
c)gel
d)rtue solution
591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is
a)dialysis
b) + addition of electrolytes
c)diffusion through animal membrane
d)condensation
592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) + Micelles
d) Dirt particle
593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) + Electrophoresis
594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?

a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) + Proteins
d) Starch
595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________
a) Molecular colloid
b) + Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid
596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?
a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration

b) + Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of odium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar
597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected
a) By addition of oppositely charged sol

b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) + By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling
598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by
a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) + Peptisation
599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+
a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) + NaCl
(extent of adsorption is directly proportional to the ease of liquification is directly proportional to
Tc)
600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
medium is classified as ________________
a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) + Sol
601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________
a) Exhibit enormous surface area

b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) + Are comparatively less in number
Unit 4
Organic compounds.
602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?
a) + carbon
b)nitrogen
c)oxygen
d)phosphorous
603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?
a) + low melting point
b)high melting point
c)soluble in polar solvents
d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents
604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is
a)slower because organic particles are ions
b) + slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds
c)faster because organic particles are ions
d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds
605.Which compounds are isomers?
a ) + 1-propanol and 2-propanol
b)methanol and methanal
c)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid
d)ethane and ethanol
606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?
a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.
b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.
c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.
d) + Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.
607.Which polymers occur naturally?
a)starch and nylon
b) + starch and cellulose
c)protein and nylon
d)protein and plastic
608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?
a)butane
b)butene
c) + benzene
d)butyne
609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular
a)pyramid
b) + tetrahedron
c)square
d)rectangle
610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?
a)C2H2 and C2H6
b)C2H2 and C3H6
c) + C4H8 and C2H4
d)C6H6 andC7H8
611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?
a) acetone
b) methanale
c) + methanol
d) dimethyl ether
612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and
a)water
b)oxygen
c) + carbon dioxide
d)sulfur dioxide
613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) + ethane
b)ethene
c)ethyne
d)ethanol
614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?
a)an addition reaction
b)a saponification reaction
b) + a substitution reaction
d)an esterification reaction
615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?
a)1
b)2
c)3
d) + 4
616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?
a)acids
b) + alcohols
c)esters
d)ethers
617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?
a)2-methylpropane
b)2-methylbutane
c) + propane
d)butane
618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

a)ketone
b) + protein
c)ester
d)acid
619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their
a) + boiling points
b)melting points
c)triple points
d)saturation points
620. Which compound is an organic acid?
a)CH3OH
b)CH3OCH3
c) + CH3COOH
d)CH3COOCH3
621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different
a)percentage compositions;
b)molecular masses;
c)molecular formulas;
d) + structural formulas.
a)CH3 CH2 OH;
b)CH3 OCH3 ;
c) + CH3 COOH;
d)CH3COOCH3 .
623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and
a) one hydrogen atom;
b) + two hydrogen atoms;
c)three hydrogen atoms;
d) four hydrogen atoms.
624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) C2H2 ;
b) C2 H4 ;
c) C3 H6 ;
d) + C3 H8 .
625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same
a) + empirical formula;
b) general formula;
c) structural formula;
d) molecular formula.
626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
a) + methanol;
b) methane;
c) methyl methanoate;
d) methanoic acid.
627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is
a) toluene;
b) + benzene;
c) butene;
d) pentene.
628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.
a) + ddition;
b) substitution;
c) saponification;
d) esterification.
629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of
a) C3H7COCH3;
b)CH3COOC2H5;
c) + H5OC2H5;
d) CH3COOH.
630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?
a) 1;
b) + 2;
c) 3;
d) 4.
631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?
a) + C2H6;
b) C3H6;
c) C4H6;
d) C6H6.
632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and
a) carbon dioxide;
b) + water;
c) glycerol;
d) ethanol.
633.The general formula for the alkyne series is
a) CnHn;
b) CnH2n;
c) CnH2n+2;
d) + CnH2n-2.
634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?
a) acetylene;
b) ethylene;
c) + toluene;
d) propene.
635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?
a) + HCOOCH3;
b)CH3CH2COOH;
c) CH3CH2OH;
d) CH3COOCH3
636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?
a) benzene;
b) toluene;
c) + acetylene;
d) ethane
637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are
a) + single covalent;
b) double covalent;
c) triple covalent;
d) coordinate covalent
638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?
a) C2H4;
b) C3H6;
c) C4H8;
d) + C5H10.
639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?
a) an esterification reaction;
b) a neutralization reaction;
c) a saponification reaction;
d) + a fermentation reaction.
640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.
a) + substitution;
b) addition;
c) polymerization;
d) fermentation.
641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is
a) 11;
b) 11;
c) 3;
d) + 10
642.Which compound is an ester?
a) CH3COOH;
b) CH3CHO;
c) + CH3COOCH3;
d) CH3COCH3.
643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and
a) a polymer;
b) a soap;
c) an ester;
d) + an alcohol.
644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures
are called
a) + isomers;
b) isotopes;
c) allotropes;
d) homologs.
645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) C2H2
C2H4;
c) C5H8;
d) + C5H12.
646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this
characteristic?
a) acetylene;
b) benzene;
c) + propane;
d) toluene.
647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same
a) structural formula;
b) molecular formula
c) number of carbon atoms;
d) + number of hydrogen atoms.
648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?
a) CH3COOH;
b) CH3CH2OH;
c) + CH3CH2COOH;
d) CH3CH2CH2OH.
649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as
a) an acid;
b) an alcohol;
c) + an ester;
d) a hydrocarbon.
650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?
a) +4; b) 8; c) 3; d) 4.
651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?
a) C4H8;
b) C4H10;
c) + C5H10;
d) C5H12.
652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?
a) propanol;
b) butanol;
c) pentanol
d) + glycerol.
653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in
a) + organic acids;
b) esters;
c) alkynes;
d) alkanes.
654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

a) + C2H2;
b) C2H4;
c) C3H6;
d) C3H8.
655.Which formula represents an acid?
a) CH3COOCH3;
b) CH3OH;
c) + CH3COOH;
d) CH3CH2CH3.
656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called
a) fermentation;
b) + sterification;
c) saponification;
d) polymerization.
657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?
a) + C3H6;
b) C2H6;
c) C2H2;
d) C6H6.
658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?
a) tetrahedral;
b) planar triangular;
c) + linear;
d) bent.
659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have
a) greater solubility in water;

b a tendency to form ions more readily;
b) more rapid reaction rates;
d) + lower melting points.
660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?
a) + -COOH;
b) -OR;
c) -CHO;
d) -NH2.
661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.
a) substitution;
b) + addition;
c) polymerization;
d) esterification.
662. The isomers of propanol differ in
a) the number of carbon atoms;
b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms;
c) + molecular mass;
d) the position of functional group.
663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?
a) Ba(OH)2;
b) HCHO;
c) CH3COOH;
d) +C5H11OH.
664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as
a) a carbohydrate;
b) an ester;
c) an organic acid;
d) + an alcohol.
665. Which compound can have isomers?
a) C2H4;
b) C2H2;
c) C2H6;
d) + C4H8.
666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?
a)polymerization;
b) + substitution;
c) addition;
d) esterification.
667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?
a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2;
c) + C2H5OH;
d) C2H5OC2H5.
668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?
a) C3H8;
b) C3H7OH;
c) CH3COOH;
d) + CH3COOCH3.
669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?
a) CCl4;
b) + C3H5(OH)3;
c) C6H6;
d) C6H12O6.
670.The structure of an alkene contains
a) only single bonds;
b) + a double bond;
c) two double bonds;
d) a triple bond.
671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules
a) decreases;
b) + increases;
d) decreases then increases.
672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?
a) CH4;
b) C2H6;
c) C3H8;
d) + C4H10.
673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?
a) 6;
b) 3;
c) 8;
d) + 2.
674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?
a) + CH3COOH;
b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) CH3CH2OH;
d) CH3OH.
675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used
commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is
called
a) polymerization;
b) hydrogenation;
c) esterification;
d) + cracking.
676. Organic compounds must contain
a) oxygen;
b) nitrogen;
c) hydrogen;
d) + carbon.
677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an
organic compound is a(an)
a) dihedral angle;
b) right angle;
c) + tetrahedral angle;
d) acute angle.
678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an
organic molecule is known as a(an)
a) carboxyl group;
b) + functional group;
c) group;
d) alkyl group.
679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of
compounds that are
a) + molecular;
b) ionic;
c) polar;
d) atomic.
680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?
a) 5;
b) + 8;
c) 6;
d) 13.
681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two
adjacent carbon atoms is known as the
a) alkanes;
b) alkenes;
c) + alkynes;
d) benzenes.
682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated
hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons
a) + contain multiple bonds;
b) have a greater molecular mass;
c) have tetrahedral bonds;
d) contain more atoms.
683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is
a) ethanol;
b) glycerol;
c) + ethylene glycol;
d) ethane.
684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)
a) fat;
b) + polymer;
c) isomer;
d) monomer.
685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
a) + C2H4;
b) C2H6;
c) C3H8;
d) C4H10.
686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?
a) 1;
b) + 2;
c) 3;
d) 4.
687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?
a) butane;
b) propane;
c) 1-chlorobutane;
d) + 1-chloropropane.
688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both
can produce
a) an ester;
b) + an alcohol;
c) an acid;
d) a soap.
689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) + C3H8;
b) C6H6;
c) C2H5OH;
d) C2H4O2.
690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?
a) benzene;
b) + propene;
c) propane;
d) propyne.
691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as
a) a carbohydrate;
b) an ester;
c) + an alcohol;
d) an organic acid.
692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?
a) + benzene;
b) propyne;
c) methane;
d) ethanol.
693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling
points
a) decreases;
b) + increases;
694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the
ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms
a) decreases;
b) increases;
c) + remains the same;
d) decreases then increases
695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?
a) CH4;
b) + C3H6;
c) C4H10;
d) C5H12.
696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?
a) propanol;
b) + glycerol;
c) butanol;
d) pentanol.
697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as
a) + benzene;
b) propene;
c) pentene;
d) butene.
698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an
a)alkene;
b) alkane;
c) + alkyne;
d) alkadiene.
699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as
a) aldehydes;
b) esters;
c) + polymers;
\d) ketones.
700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a
a) + secondary alcohol;
c) tertiary alcohol;
d) dihydroxy alcohol.
701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?
a) 10;
b) + 8;
c) 6;
d) 4.
702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?
a)butane;
b) + ethane;
c) pentane;
d) propane.
703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?
a) C5H8;
) + C5H10;
c) C5H12;
d) C5H14.
704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally
a) ionic;
b) coordinate covalent;
c) + covalent;
d) hydrogen.
705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule
a) decreases;
b) increases;
c) + remains the same;
706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and
a) + water;
b) carbon dioxide;
c) an acid;
d) a base.
707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?
a) C2H5OH;
b) + C2H4(OH)2;
c) C3H5(OH)3;
d) C3H6(OH)2.
708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound
formed is
a) an ester;
b) ) a ketone;
c) an acid;
d) +an ether.
709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) ethene;
b) + ethane;
c) ethylene;
d) ethyne.
710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula
a)CnHn;
b) CnH2n;
c) + CnH2n-2;
d) CnH2n+2.
711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?
a) Al(OH)3;
b) C3H5(OH)3;
c) Ca(OH)2;
d) + C2H4(OH)2.
712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is
a) + glycerol;
b) ethylene glycol;
c) propene;
d) propanoic acid.
713. Which organic compound is a ketone?
a) CH3OH;
) + H3COCH3;
c) CH3COOH;
d) CH3COOCH3.
714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?
a) butane;
b) ethane;
c) + methane;
d) propane.
715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?
a) oxidation;
b) + cracking;
c) Haber;
d) contact.
716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular
forces have
a) + low melting points;
b) low vapor pressure;
c) high conductivity in solution;
d) high boiling points.
717. What is the formula for pentanol?
a) C5H12;
b) + C5H11OH;
c) C4H10;
d) C4H9OH.
718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?
a) benzene;
b) + propene;
c) toluene;
d) butadiene.
719. Which compound contains a triple bond?
a) CH4;
b) + C2H2;
c) C3H6;
d) C4H10.
720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?
a)substitution;
b) oxidation;
c) addition polymerization;
d) + condensation, polymerization.
721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling
points by
a) the contact process;
b) the Haber process;
c) + fractional distillation;
d) cracking.
722.Organic acids are composed of a
a)C = O group at the end of the chain
b) COO– group
c) + C = O and COH group on the same carbon
d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons
723. Which of the following is a true statement?
a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent
b ) + aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol
d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone
724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting
CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3
a) an alcohol with an ether
b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone
c) + a carboxylic acid with an alcohol
d) a ketone with an aldehyde
725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is
a) + ethylpropanoate
b) propylethanoate
c) propethanoate
726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?
a)CH3CHOHCH3
b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3
c)CH3CH2CO
d) + CH3OCH3
727. Polymers are
a)molecules made of monomers
b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule
c)macromolecules
d) + all of the above
728. Classify this reaction:
CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH
a) Chlorination
b) Oxidation
c) + Hydration
d) Elimination
729. The first member of the ketone family is:
a)Methanone
b) + Ethanone
c)Propanone
d) Butanone
730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?
a) + Concentrated sulfuric acid
b) Dilute sulfuric acid
c) Water
d)None
731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?
a) + The rotate at different rates
b) They have different colours
c) They have different melting/boiling points
d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions
732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?
a) PCl3 and an alcohol
b)HCl and an alcohol
c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux
d) + Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl
733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?
a) A carboxylic acid
b) + A carboxylate salt
c) Water
d) Does not react
734. Name this molecule:
a) + 1,2-dimethylbutane
b) 3,4-dimethylbutane
c) hexane
d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?
a)wine
b)vinegar
c) + plastics
d)methylated spirits
736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?
a) hydration
b) hydrolysis
c) + esterification
d)polymerisation
737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?
a) + CnH2n+1OH
b)CnH2nOH
c)CnH2n+2OH
d)CnH2n+1COOH
738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.
a) + ethanoic acid
b)ethanol
c)butanoic acid
d)ethyl ethanoate
739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?
a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol
b)it dissociates completely in water
c) + it dimerises in water
d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water
740. esters are ________.
a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids
b)used to make perfumes and flavorings
c) + poisonous
d)foul-smelling compounds
741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?
a)carbon monoxide and water
b)carbon and water
c) + carbon dioxide and water
d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen
742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid
a) + ethyl methanoate and water
b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
c)methyl ethanoate and water
d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
743. What is true about carboxylic acids?
a)carboxylic acids are strong acids
b) + carboxylic acids can react with metals
c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids

d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds
744. esterification is a __________.
a)condensation reaction
b)irreversible reaction
c)addition reaction
d) + neutralization reaction
745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?
a) + ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane
b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group
c)ethanol is used as a fuel
d)ethanol is a solvent
746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?
a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
b) + concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm
d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form
a)2 bond
b)3 bond
c) + 4 bond
d)5 bond
748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:
a) + one σ bond, one π bond
b)two π bond, one π bond
c)one σ bond, two π bond

d)two σ bond, two π bond
749. Acetylene has a total of:
a) + one σ bond, two π bond
b)two σ bond, four π bond
c)three σ bond, two π bond
d)one σ bond, four π bond
750. In propene there are
a) + eight σ bond, one π bond
b)seven σ bond, two π bond
c)six σ bond, three π bond
d)nine σ bond
751. In propyne there are
a) + six σ bond, two π bond
b)seven σ bond, one π bond
c)six σ bond, one π bond
d)eight σ bond
752. 1-Buten -3-yne has
a)six σ bond, four π bond
b)seven σ bond, three π bondd)nine σ bond, one π bond
c) + eight σ bond, two π bond
d) 4 σ bond, 5 π bond
753. Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is
a) + CH3CH2CH3
b)CH3C≡CH
c)CH2CH=CH2
d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2
a) + CH4
b)H2N-CH2-NH2
c)H3C-OH
d)(CH3)3COH
755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to
a) + 2 other atoms
b)4 other atoms
c)3 other atoms
d)5 other atoms
a) + C6H6 b)
c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2
d) CH3CH=C=CH2
757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?
a)formaldehyde
b)acetone
c) + formic acid
d)acetic acid
758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?
a)180o
b)120o
c) + 109.5o
d)115.5o
759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is
a)60o
b) + 109.28o
c)120o
d)118.28o
760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is
a)60o
b) + 120o
c)90o
d)180o
761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?
a)1.20 Ǻ
) + 1.35 Ǻ
c)1.54 Ǻ
d)1.68 Ǻ
762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:
a) + triple, duble, single
b)single, duble, triple
c)single, triple, duble
d) duble, triple, single.
763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?
a)C-C < C=C < C≡C
b)C-C > C≡C > C=C
c)C≡C > C-C > C=C
d) + C≡C < C=C< C-C
764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?
a)CH2 = CH2
b)CH3CH3
c)HC ≡ CH
d)
765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in
a)CH2 = CH2
b) + CH3CH3
c)HC ≡ CH
d) CH2=CH-CH3
766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?
a)ethyl alcohol
b)formaldehyde
c)diethyl ether
d) + 1,3-butadien
767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?
a) + cis-1,2-dichloroetylene
b)o- dichlorobenzene
c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene
d)p- dichlorobenzene
768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?
a)CI2
b)CO2
c) + CCI4
d)CHCI3
769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?

a) + carbon tetrachloride
b)chloromethane
c)dichloromethane
d)chloroform
770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?
a) + CH3CI
b)CH3Br
c)CH3F
d)CH3I
771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?
a)
b) +
c) d
d)
772. Which is the correct name for ?
a) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol
c)+ 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
d) 2-chloro-3-methylpropan-3-ol
773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?
a)
b)
b) +
d)
a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol
b 2-chlorobutan-3-ol
c) + 3-chlorobutan-2-ol
d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol
a) + propan-2-ol
b) butan-2-ol
c)propanol
d) butanol
776. Which of the following is 2-methylpentan-3-ol?
a)
b) +
c)
d)
777.Which is the correct name for ?
a) ethoxyethane
b) + methoxyethane
c) ethoxybuthane
d) methoxymethane
a) +
b)
c)
d)
779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?
a)
c) +
d)
780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?
a)+
b)
c)
d)
781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?
a)
b)
c)+
d)
a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol
b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane
c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane
d) + 2-methoxy-2-methylpropane
a)
e)
c)
d) +
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol
c) + 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
a)butanol
b)propanol
c) + propan-1-ol
d)butan-1-ol
a)
b)
c) +
d)propanol
a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol
c) + 4-chlorobutan-2-ol
d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol
788.Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?
a) +
b)
c)
d)
a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol
b)1-chloropropan-3-ol
c) + 3-chloropropan-1-ol
d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
a)
b) +
c)
d)
791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?
a) ClCH2CHClCOOH
b) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH
c) + CH3CHClCHClCOOH
d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH
792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?
a)ketone
)aldehyde
c) + amine
d)ester
793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?
a)ester
b)amide
c)ketone
d) + carboxylic acid
794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?
a)amide
b)ketone
c)carboxylic acid
d) + ester
795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones
a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other
carbonyl compounds.
b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.
c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.
d) + the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.
796. The carbonyl group is
a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.
b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.

c) + a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.
d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.
797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except
a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.
b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.
c) + Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.
d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.
798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?
a)+
b)
c)
d)
799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?
a)
c)
d)+
778. Which molecule is propanal?
a)
b)
c)+
d)
800. Which molecule is acetone?
a)
b)
c)
d) +
801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?
a)ethyl methyl acetone
b)methyl propyl ketone
c) + 3-hexanone
d)propyl methyl ketone
802. Which molecule is a ketone?
a) +
b)
b)
d)
803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?
a)
b)
c)
d) +
804.The IUPAC name for acetone is
a) + 2-propanone.
b)dimethyl ketone.
c)1-propanone.
d)3-propanal.
805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is
a)3-propanal.
b) + 2-propanone.
c)acetone.
d)1-propanone.
806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is
a)3- methyl 1 butanone.
b)2-methylbutanal.
c) + 3-methylbutanal.
d)isopentanal.
807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is
a)isobutyl acetone.
b)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.
c)2- methyl – 4- butanone.
d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.

808. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?
a)4-heptanone
b) + 2- methyl -3- hexanone
c)3-heptanone
d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone
a)isopentanal
b)2- methyl – 4- butanone
c)2- methyl- 1- butanone
d) + 3-methylbutanal
810. Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?
a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone e)all are correct
b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone
a) 3-ethylpentanal
b) 4-methylpentanal
c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal
d) 2-methylpentanal
812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?
a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded
to oxygen.
b) Most have distinctive odors.
c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.
d) They are polar.
813. All of the following are properties of acetone except
a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.
814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?
a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent
815. Which compound has the lowest boiling point?
a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?
a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by
a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.
819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except
a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.
b)Its systematic name is ethanal.
c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.
d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.
820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except
a)Its systematic name is propanone.
b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.
c)Its common name is acetone.

d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3
821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .
a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;
b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;
822. Tollens' reagent is used to
a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.
b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.
823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a
a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.
824. Oxidation of a ketone produces
a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction
825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except
a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.
826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except
a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.
b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.
c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .
d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
827. Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?
a)pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid

828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?
a)A silver wire dissolves.
b)A brick-red precipitate forms.
c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.
d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.
829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?
a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.
b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.
c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.
d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.
830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?
a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid
831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?
a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction
a) c)
b) d)
833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?
a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.
834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?
a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver
835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a
a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.
836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)
a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.
837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?
a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol
838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?
a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid
839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?
a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol
b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene
840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?
a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose
841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?
a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5
842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?
a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose
b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose
843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?
a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose
844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-

a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose
845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-
a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose
846. Choose the keto triose-
a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose
847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-
a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose
848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-
a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers
849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-
a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone
850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-
a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16
851. Galactose and Glucose are-
a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers
852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-
a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers
853. What does the following equation represent?
α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose
a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization
854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-
a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose
855.Dulcitol is a -
a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugars d)Sugar alcohol
856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-

a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose
857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-
a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose
858. Invert sugar is-
a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose
859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-
a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine
860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?
a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen
861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-
a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose
862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-
a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine
863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?
a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone
864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?
a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2
865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?
a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde
866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?
a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose
b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose
867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid
868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:
a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.
b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
d)The compound is in its furanose form
869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:
a)A purine nucleotide.b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP
870.Functional Group of Alkane:

a)None b)C – X c)C=C d)C – OH
871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None
872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:

873. Functional Group of Alkene:

a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C
874. Functional Group of Alkyne:

a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C
875. Functional Group of Alcohol:

a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N
876. Functional Group of Ether:

a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X
877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:

a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH
878. Functional Group of Ketone:

a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH
879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:

a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N
880. Functional Group of Amine:

a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH
881. Functional Group of Amide:

a)O = C – OH b)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’
882.Functional Group of Nitrile:

a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’
883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:

a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N
884. Amino acides are building blocks of:

a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers
885. Proteins are composed of:

a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers
886. Determine type of α-amine acid - serine

a)neutral b)acidic c)basic d) Slightly Polar
887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane

a)essential b)non-essential c) semi- essential d) none of them
888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine

a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex
889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4
890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in

a)acidic medium c)basic medium
b)neutral medium d)any medium
891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in

892. How manyα-amine acidrests are in polypeptide

a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100
893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic
894. Choose peptide bond

a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-
895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide
896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination
897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of
a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose
898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of

a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mildreductant d)strong oxidant
899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside
900.Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
a)C5 and N1 b)C1 and N9 c)C3 and N9 d)C1 and N1
901. Components of nucleotide

a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine
902.Monomeric link of protein

a)sugar rest b)isoprene c)amine acid rest d)ethylene
903.Unsaponified lipids are

a) mono-component b) di- component c) three-component d) poly-component
904.DNA contains
a)cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
b)cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
c)cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
d)thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine
905. Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis
a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols
906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine

a)aliphatic b)aromatic c)heterocyclic d) complex
909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of

a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d)decarboxylation
910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in

a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium
911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein

a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100
912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides

a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100
913.Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins

a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic
914.Choose disulphide bond

a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-
915.How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide
917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by

a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination
918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called

a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation
919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of

a)mild oxidant c)mildreductant
b)strongreductant d)strong oxidant
920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides

a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts
922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest
923.Monomeric link of terpene

924. Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3

a)monoterpene b)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4

a)monoterpeneb)diterpene c)triterpene d)sesquiterpene

928. Saponified lipids are

a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component
929. RNA contains

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols
931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine

932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine

937. Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine

938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine



941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine

948. Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine

949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?
a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper
953. Complex lipids form under hydrolysis
a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.

b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols
954. Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4
955. Fatty acids are
a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids
b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids
956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called
a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps
957. soap is
a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol
c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers
958. a wax is
a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol
b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these
959.Fats and oils are
a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol
b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol
960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:
a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone
b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids
961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing
a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons
962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by
a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds
963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives
a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these

964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:
a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification
965.Saponification of a fat
a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents
b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid
966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?
a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils
967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its
a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point
968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution
b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution
c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid
d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge
969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties
a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these
970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:
a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals
971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?
a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds
972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:
a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length
973. The isoelectric point of a protein is
a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface
b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges
c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions

d)none of these
974. Glycine is
a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH
b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH
975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it
a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond
b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid
976. Proteins are
a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene
977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:
a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I
978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?
a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage
979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:
a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure
980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:
a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular
b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain
c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space
d)the presence or absence of an α-helix
981. The α-helix is a common form of
a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these
982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of
a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization
983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by
a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds

984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give
a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols
985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces
a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid
c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid
986. Nynhydring test is given by
a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes
987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?
a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test
988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called
a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test
989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is
a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine
990. Monosaccharides are classified according to
a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule
b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group
c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes
d)all of the above
991. Which is a monosaccharide?
a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose
992. Which is a disaccharide?
a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose
993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose
994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide
a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light

b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate
c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group
d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate
995. The principal sugar in blood is
a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose
996. Glucose cannot be classified as
a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide
997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?
a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol
998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?
a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active
b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation
999. Common table sugar is
a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose
1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?
a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above
1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?
a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution
b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent
1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is
a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose
1003. Starch
a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin
b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin

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Question
23. 23 (1/24)
24. 24
Which of the following solutions of H2SO4 is more concentrated?
Options
1 Molar solution
1 molal solution
1 normal solution
All have same concentration
Which of the following unit of concertration is independent of temperature?
Options
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction
All
Which of the following is an example of liquid in gas solution.
Options
Opals
PrevDust particles in smoke
SkipPaints
NextFog
The molal boiling point constant is the ration of the elevation of boiling point to
Options
Molarity
Molality
More fraction of solvent
Mole fraction of solute
Which has the minimum freezing point?
Options
One MolalNaCI
One molal KCI solution
One molal CaCI2
One molal urea solution
Which of the following is not a colligative property?
Options
Lowering of vapour pressure
Freezing point
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of polling point
When common salt is dissolved in water?
Options
Boiling point of water decrease
Boiling point of water increase
Boiling point of water remains same
None of the above
Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two compounds is called
Options
Solution
Compound
Radical
Ion
The component of solution which is in smaller amount is called
Options
Solvent
Solute
Phase
Ion
Solution with maximum concentration of solute at given temperature is called
Options
Super saturated solution
Unsaturated solution
Saturated solution
Dilute solution
Number of moles in 1 kg of solvent is called
Options
Normality
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction
58.5g of ofNaCl per 1 dm3 of solution of NaCl in water the concentration of solution will be
Options
0.1 M
1m
1M
0.1 N
If the volume of solution is equal to sum of volumes of its all components then the solution
Options
Will be an ideal solution
Will be non-ideal solution
Will show deviations from Raoults law
Both b & c
The relative lowering of vapour pressure is
Options
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Equal to the mole fraction of solvent
Directly proportional to the mole fraction of solute
Both b & c
Concentration of solute molecule when they are in equilibrium with solid substance at particular
temperature is called
Options
Saturated solution
Solubility
The determination of correct molecular weight from Raoults law is applicable to
Options
A volatile solute in dilute solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solution
A non-electrolyte &non volatile solute in concentrated solute
Non volatile solute in a dilute solution
The compounds in which water molecules are added are called
Options
Hydrated ions
Double salts
Hydrates
Complexes
Hydration is a process in which
Options
Molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Ions are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by solvent molecules
Both ions and molecules are surrounded by water molecules
Solution of Na2SO4 will be
Options
Basic
Acidic
Neutral
Cannot be predicted without data
1 molar solution of glucose in water contains weight of glucose
Options
180g/dm3
170g/dm3
190g/dm3
195g/dm3
Water of crystallization can be removed by
Options
Drying
Heating
Evaporation
All of the above
The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to molality if the solution is
Options
Concentrated
Dilute
Saturated solution
All of the above
Which one of the following salt does not hydrolyzed
Options
Na2SO4
AlCl3
CuSO4
NH4Cl
The molar concentration is called?
Options
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution
The mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
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Question
23. 23 (1/101)
24. 24
Which
25. 25change is oxidation?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Gain
28 of electrons
29.Gain
29 of hydrogen
30.Loss
30 of oxygen
31.Loss
31 of electrons
32. 32
33. 33change is reduction?
Which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.A 36
decrease in oxidation state
37. 37
Gain of oxygen
38. 38
39.Loss
39 of electrons
40.Loss
40 of hydrogen
41. 41
What
42. 42is the oxidation state of chromium in the CrO3-2
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.+345
46.-346
Prev
47. 47
Skip+6
48. 48
Next-6
49. 49
50. 50
Magnesium displace lead ions from solution lead(II) sulfate. Which statement about this reaction
51. 51
is true?
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Lead
54 (II) ions are oxidized.
55. 55
56.Magnesium
atoms are oxidised.
56
57.Lead
57 (II) ions lose electrons.
58.Magnesium
58 atoms gain electrons .
59. 59
Which
60. 60one of the following substance is reducing agent?
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Argon
63
64.Oxygen
64
65. 65
66.Carbon
66 dioxide
67.Carbon
67 monoxide
68. 68
Which
69. 69compound, when added to aqueous iron(II) sulphate, takes part in a redox reaction?
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.Ammonia
72
73.Barium
73 chloride
74.Acidified
74 potassium manganate (VII)
75.Sodium
75 hydroxide
76. 76
77. 77 potassium dichromate (VI) can be used to detect the presence of ethanol vapour in the
Acidified
78. 78of a person who consumed alcohol. A color change from orange to green is absolved if
breach
79. 79 is present. This shows that ethanol is
ethanol
80. 80
81. 81
Options
82.An82alkali
83. 83
An indicator
84. 84
85.An85oxidizing agent
86.A 86
reducing agent
87. 87
Which
88. 88of the following bases has the highest pKa value
89. 89
Options
90. 90
91.NaOH
91
92.NaNO3
92
93.KNO3
93
94.KCl
94
95. 95
96. 96
What is the oxidation state of sulphur in SO3-2
97. 97
98. 98
Options
99.-499
100. 100
+2
101. 101
+4
+6
In which reaction is the first substance acting as a reducing agent?
Options
Chlorine + iron(II) chloride ---> iron(III) chloride
Copper(II) oxide + hydrogen ---> copper + water
Hydrochloric acid + magnesium oxide ---> magnesium chloride + water
Carbon monoxide + zinc oxide ---> zinc + carbon dioxide
Hydrogen peroxide, H2O2 reacts with silver oxide according to the following equation/ Ag2O(s) +
H2O2(l) = 2Ag(s) + H2O(l) + O2(g) in this reaction hydrogen peroxide behaves as
Options
A catalyst
A dehydrating agent
An oxidising agent
A reducing agent
What is the oxidation number of an iron atom in Fe2O3?
Options
+6
+3
-3
-2
What is the oxidation of xenon in XeF6?
Options
-6
-1
+6
-7
What is the oxidation number of an As atom in AsO4-3(aq)?
Options
+5
+9
+1
-7
Which represents an oxidation reaction?
Options
NaNO3 + KCl -> NaCl + KNO3
AgNO3 + KBr -> AgBr + KNO3
Cl2 + 2e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-
Which represents a reduction reaction?
Options
Cl2 + 2 e--> 2 Cl-
K -> K+ + e-
In the electrolysis of water, which reaction occurs at the cathode?
Options
2 H2(g) + O2(g) 2 H2O(g)
2 02-(aq) O2(g) + 4 e-
2 H2O(l) 4 H+(aq) + 2 02-(aq)
2 H+(aq) + 2 e- H2(g)
Which process / equation pair occurs at the cathode when iron hinges are plated with copper?
Options
Reduction, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Reduction, Cu2+ + 2 e- Cu(s)
Oxidation, Cu(s) Cu2+(aq) + 2 e-
Oxidation, Cu2+ (aq) + 2 e- Cu(s)
Balance the following oxidation-reduction equation: Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
Options
Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + 3Ce4+(aq) 2Sn4+(aq) + 3Ce3+(aq)
2Sn2+(aq) + Ce4+(aq) 2Sn4+(aq) + Ce3+(aq)
Sn2+(aq) + 2Ce4+(aq) Sn4+(aq) + 2Ce3+(aq)
The oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds is __.
Options
+1
-1
+2
-2
Which of the following statements about corrosion are NOT true?
Options
A car rusts because steel reacts with water and oxygen in the air.
When iron rusts electrons are lost from the metal.
Plating metal speeds up the oxidation process.
Adding zinc metal strips to iron metals prevents corrosion.
In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, __________ is oxidized. (acidic solution)
Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn
In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the oxidizing agent. (acidic
solution)
Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn
In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, _________ is the reducing agent. (acidic
solution)
Options
Sn
Sn+2
MnO41
Mn
In the balanced reaction Sn+2 + MnO41 Sn+4 + Mn+2, the coefficient of water is ________. (acidic
solution)
Options
0
2
4
8
In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is oxidized. (basic solution)
Options
F
CO2
F2
C
In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, __________ is reduced. (basic solution)
Options
F
CO2
F2
C
In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, _________ is the reducing agent. (basic solution)
Options
F
CO2
F2
C
In the balanced reaction CO2 + F2 FO31 + C2O42, the coefficient of water is ________. (basic
solution)
Options
1
4
3
6
In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.
Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO
In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.
Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO
In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.
Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO
In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.
Options
H5IO6
N
I
NO
In the balanced reaction NO + H5IO6 NO31 + IO31(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.
Options
5
4
3
2
In the balanced reaction Cr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2 (basic solution) __________ is oxidized.
Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr
In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), __________ is reduced.
Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr
In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+22 (basic solution), _________ is the oxidizing
agent.
Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr
In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.
Options
N
NO21
Cr+6
Cr
In the balanced reactionCr+6 + NO21 NO31 + Cr+2(basic solution), the coefficient of water is
________.
Options
1
2
3
0
In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3 (acidic solution), __________ is oxidized.
Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4
In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), __________ is reduced.
Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4
In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the oxidizing agent.
Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4
In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), _________ is the reducing agent.
Options
O
Ce
H2O2
Ce+4
In the balanced reaction H2O2 + Ce+4 O2 + Ce+3(acidic solution), the coefficient of water is
Options
0
1
2
3
Which one of these reactions is heterogeneous?
Options
CaO(s) + CO2(g) = CaCO3
KOH(sol) + HNO3(sol) = KNO3(sol) + H2O(l)
H2 + N2 = NH3
NH3 + O2 = N2 + H2O(g)
Which one of these reactions is homogeneous?
Options
K(s) + H2O(l) = KOH(sol) + H2(g)
N2(g) + H2(g) = NH3(g)
BaCl2(sol) + H2SO4(sol) =BaSO4(s) + 2HC1 (sol);
Fe + H2SO4 = FeSO4 + H2;
Find an endothermic reaction:
Options
N2 + Н2 = NH3- ΔH
SO2 + O2+ ΔH= SO3
С + О2 = СО2- ΔH
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH
Which one of these reactions is redox reaction?
Options
Аl + Сl2= АlСl3
ВаСО3 = ВаО + СО2
Ba(NO3)2 + K2SO4= BaSO4 + KNO3
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2
Find irreversible reaction:
Options
H2 + N2 = NH3
NaOH + HCl = NaCl + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3
N2O4 = NO2
Number of reaction products always greater than number of reactants if it is:
Options
Reaction of decomposition
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Reaction of substitution
Reaction of direct combination
Number of reaction products always less than number of reactants if it is:
Options
Reaction of exchange (metathesis)
Redox reactions in inorganic chemistry are always:
Options
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of exchange (metathesis)
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of direct combination
Redox reactions are cannot be:
Options
Reactions of substitution
Reactions of exchange
Reactions of decomposition
Reactions of direct combination
Reaction, that goes without changes in oxidation numbers of atoms in compound, is:
Options
Reaction of exchange
The exchange reaction goes between:
Options
Simple and complex substances
Two simple substances
Two complex substances;
It can be both pair of simple and pair of complex substances
The products of decomposition reaction are:
Options
Only simple substances
Only complex substances
Both: and simple substances, and complex substances
Simple substance and complex substance.
Find redox reaction of substitution:
Options
СаСO3 = СаO + СО2
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
Cu + O2 = CuO
NaHCO3 = Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
Find redox reaction of direct combination:
Options
SO2 + O2 = SO3
NO2 + Н2O= HNO3 + NO
Н2O2= Н2O + O2
SO2 + NaOH = NaHSO3
At the same time reaction CANNOT be:
Options
Reaction of exchange and redox reaction
Redox reaction and decomposition
Substitution and redox
Direct combination and redox
Reactions, that can be homogeneous, are:

Options
Only exchange reactions
Only direct combination reactions
Only decomposition reactions
Every single one of them and substitution reactions.
Choose most common requirement for reaction to be homogeneous:
Options
Products are in one phase
Reactants are in one phase
Reactants and product are both in same phase
Reactants and product are both in gaseous state
Find heterogeneous reactions:
Options
CaO(s) + CO2(s) = CaCO3(s)
CO(g) + O2(g) = CO2(g)
NO2(g) + H2O(l) + O2(g) = HNO3(l
SO3(l) + H2O(l) = H2SO4(l)
Find redox decomposition reaction:
Options
Cu(NO3)2(s) = CuO(s) + NO2(g) + O2(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)
NH4NO3(g) = N2O(g) + H2O
Cu + O2 = CuO
Choose the heterogeneous redox reaction:
Options
Na(s) + H2O(l) = NaOH(sol) + H2(g)
NO2(g) + CO(g) = N2(g) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + N2O(g) = N2(g) + H2O(g)
SO3(g) = SO2(g) + O2(g)
There are reactions for SO2 obtaining:
Options
FeS2(s) + O2(g) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g)
NaHSO3(sol) + HCl(sol) = NaCl(sol) + H2O(l) + SO3(g)
S(s) + O2(g) = SO2(g)
Fe2(SO4)3(s) = Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + O2(g)
Among them redox reactions are:
Options
1, 2, 3
1, 2, 4
2, 3, 4
1, 3, 4
Choose half-reaction for reduction process:
Options
С0 – 4e = С+4
N+5 + 2e = N+3
H2 – 2e = 2H+1
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4
Choose half-reaction for reduction process:
Options
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
O20 + 4e = 2O-2
N-3 -5e = N+2
2O-1 – 2e = O20
Find half-reaction, where atoms of nitrogen are acting as reduction agents:
Options
H02 + 2e = 2H-1
H02 – 2e = 2H+1
N+5 + 2e = N+3
N-3 -5e = N+2
Find half-reaction, where atoms of sulfur are acting as oxidation agents:
Options
S0 – 4e = S+4
S+6 + 8e = S-2
2S-1 – 10e = 2S+4
S+4 + 4e = S0
Choose reaction, where oxidation number of sulfur changes from -1 to +4:
Options
H2SO4 + Cu = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
FeS2 + O2 = Fe2O3 + SO2
H2S + O2 = SO2 + H2O
KHS + HCl = KCl + H2S
Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from -3 to 0:
Options
NH3 + O2 = NO + H2O
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3
NH4NO2 = N2 +H2O
NH4NO3 = N2O + H2O
Choose reaction where oxidation number of carbon atom is increasing:
Options
CO2 + Ca(OH)2 = CaCO3 + H2O
CaO + CO2 = CaCO3
CO + Fe2O3 = Fe + CO2
CO2 + Mg = Mg + C
Choose reaction where oxidation number of chlorine atom is increasing:
Options
Cl2 + Fe = FeCl3
KClO3 = KCl + O2
Cl2 + KI = KCl + I2
KCl + F2 = KF + Cl2
Which one is oxidation process?
Options
Cl2 → 2 ClO-
NO2- → NO
Cr2O72- → 2CrO42-
SO32-→ H2S
Which one is oxidation process?
Options
HPO42- → H2PO4-
SO32-→ H2S
MnO4- → MnO42-
Cr2O72- → 2Cr3+
Sulfur is reduction agent in reaction with:
Options
Cu
Cl
P
H2
Phosphorus is oxidation agent when reacts with:
Options
Ca
S
O2
Cl
Oxidation properties of halogens increasing from left to right in line:
Options
I2, F2, Cl2
I2, Cl2, F2
Br2, F2, Cl2
F2, Cl2, I2
Which substance in redox reaction maintains only reduction properties?
Options
Nitrogen
Sulfur
Sodium
Phosphorus
Strongest oxidation agent, among simple substances is:
Options
Oxygen
Fluorine
Nitrogen
Aurum
Oxidation properties of substances increasing from left to right in line:
Options
C, S, O2
O2, S, C
Si, F2, I2
P, O2,S
Coefficient “2” before SO2 should be placed in redox reaction:
Options
Ag + HNO3 = Ag2SO4 + SO2 + H2O
Cu + H2SO4 = CuSO4 + SO2 + H2O
SO2 + H2S = S + H2O
SO2 + O2 = SO3
In redox reactions, Ag + HNO3 = AgNO3 + NO + H2O Cu + HNO3 = Cu(NO3)2 + NO2 + H2O NO2 + O2
+ H2O = HNO3 Mg + HNO3 = Mg(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + H2O coefficient “4” before HNO3 should be
placed
Options
2,3,4
1,2,3
1,2,4
1,3,4
In process S+6→S-2, sulfur atoms are:
Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, reduce
In process N-3→N+2, sulfur atoms are:
Options
Lose their electrons, oxidize
Lose their electrons, reduce
Receive electrons, oxidize
Receive electrons, reduce
For process S-2→S+4 corresponds reaction:
Options
2NaOH + SO2 = Na2SO3 + H2O
2H2S + O2 = 2H2O + 2S
2H2S + 3O2 = 2H2O + 2SO2
Cu + 2H2SO4 = CuSO4 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
Process PbS→PbSO4 corresponds to:
Options
S+4 – 2e = S+6
S-2 – 8e = S+6
S0 + 2e = S-2
S0 + 4e = S-4
Which process reflects by 2O-1 – 2e = O20?
Options
H2O = H2 + O2
CuS + O2 = CuO + SO2
H2O2 + PbS = H2O + PbSO4
H2O2 + KMnO4 + H2SO4 = O2 + MnSO4 + K2SO4 + H2O
Which pair of half-reactions correct for Cl2 + KOH = KCl + KClO3 + H2O?
Options
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 3e = Cl+3
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 7e = Cl+7
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 – 5e = Cl+5
Cl0 + e = Cl-1; Cl0 + 5e = Cl+5
Under oxidation, oxidation number of atom is
Options
Will decrease
Will increase
Stay same
Can increase and decrease
Process of reduction occurs when:
Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion increases
Negative charge of simple ion increases
Find reaction where oxidation agent receives 5 electrons.
Options
MnO2 + 4H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
MnO4 + 8H+ = Mn2+ + 4H2O
N2 + 4OH- = 2NO + 2H2O
N2 + 4 H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-
Under reduction, oxidation number of atom is
Options
Willincrease
Will decrease
Stay same
Can increase and decrease
Process of oxidation occurs when:
Options
Neutral atoms transforms into cations
Neutral atoms transforms into anions
Positive charge of simple ion decreases
Negative charge of simple ion
Find reaction where water is oxidation agent:
Options
Cl2 + H2O = HCl + HClO3
Ca + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + H2
CaC2 + H2O = Ca(OH)2 + C2H2
NO2 + H2O + O2 = HNO3
Choose reaction, where oxidation number of nitrogen changes from 0 to -2:

Options
N2 + 4H2O = N2H4 + 4OH-
N2 + 4H2O = 2NH2OH + 2OH-
N2 + 6H+ = 2NH3
N2 + 8H+ = 2NH4+
Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chlorine changes from 0 to +7:
Options
HCl + 2H2O = ClO2 + 5H+
Cl2 + 6H2O = 2ClO3- + 12H+
Cl2 + 8H2O = 2ClO4- + 16H+
2HCl + H2O = Cl2O + 4H+
Choose reaction, where oxidation number of chromium changes from +6 to 0:
Options
CrO42- + 4H+ = CrO2- + 2H2O
CrO42- + 4H2O = Cr(OH)3 + 5OH-
Cr2O72- + 14H+ = 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
Cr2O42- + 8H+ = Cr + 4H2O
Find reaction where hydrogen peroxide is reduction agent:
Options
H2O2 + 2H+ = 2H2O
H2O2 = O2 + 2H+
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Na2SO3 + H2O2 = Na2SO4 + H2O
Choose reaction, where oxidation number of phosphorus changes from +3 to 0:
Options
H3PO3 + 2H+ = H3PO2 + H2O
H3PO4 + 4H+ = H3PO2 + 2H2O
5НСlО3 + 6Р = 6Н3РО4 + 5НСl
PO43- + 2H2O = HPO32- + 2OH-
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22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/58)
24. 24
In25.
which
25 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.H3PO4
28 and H2SO4
29.HCl
29 and HNO3
30.H2CO3
30 and HBr
31.HC2H3O2
31
and HI
32. 32
In33. 33 of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair weak acids?
which
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.H2SO4
36 and HC2H3O2
37. 37
HNO3 and H2C4H4O6
38. 38
39.HC2H3O2
39 and H3C6H5O7
40.H3PO4
40 and H2SiO3
41. 41
Which
42. 42of the following is produced in the first step of the dissociation of the acid H3PO4?
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.H3PO3
45
46. 46
PrevH2PO4–
47. 47
SkipHPO42–
48. 48
NextPO43–
49. 49
50. ionization
Acid 50 constants give information about
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.The
53 strengths of acids.
54. 54
55.The
55 number of nonacidic hydrogens present in acids.
56.Whether
56 acids are polyprotic.
57.Whether
57 acids can neutralize bases
58. 58
In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?
Options
H2SO4 and BaSO4
NaCl and NaOH
NH4Cl and KCl
HNO3 and KOH
In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of
Options
One to one
One to three.
Three to one
Three to three.
A solution with a pH of 12.0 is
Options
Strongly acidic.
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly basic
The pH of a solution for which [OH–] = 1.0 x 10–6 is
Options
1.00
8.00
6.00
–6.00
Which of the following does not describe an acidic solution?
Options
The pH is less than 7.0
The [OH–] is greater than 1.0 x 10–7
The [H3O+] is greater than the [OH–]
The [OH–] is 6.0 x 10–10
In which of the following pairs of salts will both members of the pair hydrolyze in water to give
solutions that are basic?
Options
NaCl and NaCN
NH4Cl and NH4NO3
KC2H3O2 and KCN
NaNO3 and Na2SO4
If the pH of a solution of a salt is 5.0, the salt must be one which could be formed from the
neutralization of
Options
A strong acid and a strong base.
A weak acid and a strong base.
A strong acid and a weak base.
HCl and NaOH.
If a solution is buffered at a pH of 8.0, then the addition of a small amount of acid will cause the
solution to have a pH of approximately
Options
6.0.
7.0.
8.0.
9.0.
A buffer solution could be prepared from
Options
NaCl and HCl
NaOH and HCl
KC2H3O2 and HC2H3O2.
NaCN and KCN
In which of the following pairings of compounds are both members of the pair strong
electrolytes?
Options
NaOH and NaCl
NH3 and HCl
KOH and H2CO3
NaCN and HCN
In which of the following pairs of acids are both members of the pair strong acids?
Options
HNO3 and HNO2
H2SO4 and H2SO3
HCl and HClO4
No correct response
Which of the following statements about weak acids is correct?
Options
Weak acids always contain C atoms
The percentage dissociation for weak acids is usually in the range of 40-60%.
Weak acid molecules readily lose their acidic hydrogen atoms.
No correct response
In the neutralization reaction between 0.1 M Al(OH)3 and 0.1 M HNO3, the acid and base will react
in a molar ratio of
Options
One to one
One to one
Three to one
Three to three
Which of the following equations represents an acid-base neutralization reaction?
Options
H2SO4 + Zn ZnSO4 + H2
HNO3 + KOH KNO3 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 BaSO4 + 2NaOH
No correct response
In which of the following pairs of substances are both members of the pair salts?
Options
NaCl and NaOH
KNO3 and K2SO4
H3PO4 and (NH4)3PO4
More than one correct response
Which of the following pairings of pH and hydronium ion concentration is correct?
Options
PH = 2.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 102
PH = 7.0; [H3O+] = 1 x 10–7
PH = 9.0; [H3O+] = 9 x 10–9
No correct response
Which of the following is a correct statement for a solution with a pH of 8.00?
Options
The hydroxide ion concentration is greater than the hydronium ion concentration
The hydronium ion concentration is 8.0 M
The hydroxide ion concentration is 1.0 x 10–8 M
No correct response
In which of the following salts would both the positive ion and the negative ion hydrolyze when
the salt is dissolved in water?
Options
NaCl
NaCN
NH4Cl
No correct response
The pH of a buffered solution
Options
Always equals 7.0.
May be acidic or basic depending on the buffer present.
Changes drastically when a small amount of acid is added
No correct response
Which of the following statements concerning electrolytes is correct?
Options
All strong acids are strong electrolytes
Some salts are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes.
Some molecular substances are strong electrolytes and others are weak electrolytes
More than one correct response
Conjugate base of H3PO4
Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–
Conjugate acid of HPO42–
Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–
Will form a buffer with PO43–
Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–
Reacts with H3O+ to form HPO42–
Options
H3PO4
H2PO4–
HPO42–
PO43–
Diprotic weak acid
Options
HCl
HClO4
H2SiO3
H2SO4
Monoprotic strong acid
Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4
Acid which completely dissociates in solution to produce negative ions with a charge of one
Options
HCl
HC2H3O2
H2C3H2O2
H2SO4
Salt whose dissociation produces equal amounts of two ions
Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4
Substance which reacts with H2SO4 to produce K2SO4
Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4
Substance produced when HNO3 neutralizes NaOH
Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4
Substance which reacts with NaOH to produce Na3PO4
Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4
Salt whose dissociation produces more positive ions than negative ions
Options
KOH
NaNO3
H3PO4
K3PO4
PH = 2.30
Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution
PH = 7.00
Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution
[H3O+] = 2.0 x 10–8 M
Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution
[OH–] = 3.0 x 10–-6 M
Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution
Aqueous NaCl solution
Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution
Aqueous NaCN solution
Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution
Aqueous NaOH solution
Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution
Aqueous NH4Cl solution
Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution
Aqueous HCl solution
Options
An acidic solution
A basic solution
A neutral solution
A buffer solution
Inorganic compounds divided in to:
Options
Simple, complex substances
Metals, nonmetals
Acid, base, salt, oxide
Metal, acid, simple substance
What is the oxides?
Options
They are complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them
oxygen
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues.
They are complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid
residues.
What is the bases?
Options
oxygen
group (OH)
They are complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues
residues.
What is the salts?
Options
oxygen
group (OH)
residues
What is the acids?
Options
oxygen.
group (OH)
residues.
Complex substances that the composition consist of two elements and one of them oxygen are
called?
Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids
Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic element and hydroxyl group (OH) are
called?
Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids
Complex substances that the composition consist of hydrogen and acid residues are called?
Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids
Complex substances that the composition consist of metallic elements and acid residues are
called?
Options
Oxide
Bases
Salts
Acids
Basic formula oxides?
Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy
Basic formula bases?
Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy
Basic formula salts?
Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy
Basic formula acids?
Options
ExOy
Mex(OH)y
HxEy, HxEOy
MexAy
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Question (1/16)
Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given….
Options
Protein
Lipids
Carbohydrate
Vitamins
In carbohydrates a special functional groups are present in the given following:
Options
Alcohol & Carboxyl groups
Aldehyde & Ketone groups
Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
Carboxyl groups & Others
Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of …
Options
L-type
PrevD-type
SkipDL-types
NextNone of the above
Simplest carbohydrate is ….
Options
Dihydroxy acetone
Glycerldehyde
Glucose
Gulose
Examples of Epimers….
Options
Glucose &Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c
Fermentation is the degradation of complex organic substances into simpler ones by the activity
of living cells through the agency of ….
Options
Acid
Alkali
Oxidizing substances
Enzymes (Zymase)
The end product of hydrolysis of “Starch” by amylase is …
Options
Soluble starch
Glucose
Dextrins
Maltose
Structure or shape of something is known as its
Options
Structure
Morphology
Conformation
Shape
Glucose is a monosaccharide and is a
Options
Hexose
Pentose
Furanose
Sucrose
What is the relationship between glucose, mannose and galactose?
Options
They are isomers
They are epimers
They are ketoses
No relationship exists
What best describes amylose?
Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages
What best describes amylopectin?

Options
Unbranched linear polymer with alpha 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Unbranched linear polymer with beta 1-4 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain alpha 1-6 glycosidic linkages
Highly branched, branched sites contain beta 1-6 glycosidic linkages
What is the storage form of carbohydrate in animals?
Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch
Where is glycogen stored?
Options
In the kidney and liver
In the stomach and kidney
In the muscle and liver
In the muscle and stomach
What is the major constituent of plant cell wall?
Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch
What forms the exoskeleton of anthropods?
Options
Agarose
Cellulose
Chitin
Starch
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Question (1/313)
30. 30
31. 31
Thermodynamics studies
32. 32
Options
33. 33
34.General
34 laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
35.Energy
35 changes during chemical transformations.
36.The
36 rate of chemical reactions.
37.Chemical
37 processes that cause electrons to move.
38. 38
By39. 39
interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:
40. 40
Options
41. 41
42.Thermal
42 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
43.Heterogeneous,
43 homogeneous
44.Open,
44 Closed, Isolated
45.Isochoric,
45 Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
46. 46
What
47. 47is the Open System?
48. 48
Options
49. 49
50.Matter
50 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
51.Energy
51 but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
52.Neither
52 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
53.Homogeneous
53 in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
54. 54
What
55. 55is the Closed System?
56. 56
Options
57. 57
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
58. 58
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
59. 59
PrevEnergy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
60. 60
Skip
61.Neither
61 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
Next
62. 62
What is the Isolated System?
63. 63
64. 64
Options
65.Matter
65 and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
66. 66
Homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
67. 67
Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
68. 68
Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
69. 69
70. 70
Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
71. 71
72. 72
Options
73.Open
73 System
74.Closed
74 System
75.Isolated
75 System
76.Adiabatic
76 System
77. 77
Energy
78. 78but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
79. 79
Options
80. 80
81.Open
81 System
82.Closed
82 System
83.Isolated
83 System
84.Adiabatic
84 System
85. 85
Neither
86. 86 matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
Open System
89. 89
90.Closed
90 System
91.Isolated
91 System
92.Adiabatic
92 System
93. 93
Thermodynamic processes may be:
94. 94
95. 95
Options
96. 96
Thermal conductivity, Convection, Radiation
97. 97
Heterogeneous, homogeneous
98. 98
Open, Closed, Isolated
99. 99
Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic
100. 100
101. 101
What is the Isothermal process?
102. 102
103. 103
Options
104.A 104
process during which the temperature T = const
105.A 105
process during which the pressure P = const
106.A 106
process during which the specific volume v = const
107. 107
A process during which the heat Q = 0
108. 108
109. 109
What is the Isobaric process?
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.A 112
113.A 113
114.A 114
115.A 115
process during which the heat Q = 0
116. 116
What
117. 117
is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?
118. 118
Options
119. 119
120.A 120
121.A 121
122.A 122
123.A 123
124. 124
What
125. 125
is the adiabaticprocess?
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.A 128
129.A 129
130.A 130
131.A 131
132. 132
A133.
process
133 during which the temperature T = const is called?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
Isothermal process
136. 136
137.Isobaric
137 process
138.Isochoric
138 (or isometric) process
139.Adiabaticprocess
139
140. 140
A process during which the pressure P = const is called?
141. 141
142. 142
Options
143. 143
Isothermal process
144. 144
Isobaric process
145. 145
146.Isochoric
146 (or isometric) process
147.Adiabaticprocess
147
148. 148
A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?
149. 149
150. 150
Options
151.Isothermal
151 process
152. 152
Isobaric process
153. 153
Isochoric (or isometric) process
154. 154
Adiabaticprocess
155. 155
156.basic
The 156 formula for Entropy;
157. 157
Options
158. 158
159.Q=∆U+A
159
160.H=U+pV
160
161.∆U161
= U(final) – U(initial)
162.S 162
= KlnW
163. 163
164. 164movement of colloidal particles is:
Chaotic
165. 165
Options
166. 166
167.Osmosis;
167
168.Diffusion;
168
169.Brownian
169 motion;
170.Coagulation
170 .
171. 171
Find
172. the
172 formula of Internal energy.
173. 173
Options
174. 174
175.Q=∆U+A
175
176.H=U+pV
176
177.∆U177
= U(final) – U(initial)
178. 178
∆S = S(initial) - S(final)
179. 179
180. 180energy is called?
Internal
181. 181
Options
182. 182
183.Sum
183of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
184.Heat
184 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
185.Reactions
185 accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
186.The
186rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
187. 187
Colloidal
188. 188 dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:
189. 189
Options
190. 190
191.Aerosol;
191
192.Emulsion;
192
193.Sol;
193
194.Foam
194
195. 195
Sum
196. of
196all potential and kinetic energies of all components
197. 197
Options
198. 198
Internal energy
199. 199
Enthalpy
200. 200
201.Entropy;
201
Exothermic
202. 202 process
203. 203
Fog and smoke are:
204. 204
205. 205
Options
206. 206
Aerosols;
207. 207
Emulsions;
208. 208
Gels;
209. 209
Foams
210. 210
211. 211 is called?
Enthalpy
212. 212
213. 213
Options
214.Sum
214of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
215.Heat
215 flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
216. 216
Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called
217. 217
The rate of which chemical reaction increases with increasing temperatures
218. 218
219.consists
Sol 219 of:
220. 220
Options
221. 221
222.Liquid
222 droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
223.Solid
223 particles dispersed throughout a gas;
224.Solid
224 particles dispersed in a liquid;
225.Liquid
225 droplets dispersed throughout another liquid
226. 226
Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Internal energy
230. 230
231.Enthalpy
231
Entropy
232. 232
233.Exothermic
233 process
234. 234
Stability of a disperse system is:
235. 235
236. 236
Options
237. 237
Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
238. 238
viscosity;
239. 239
Process of particles integration;
240. 240
Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
241. 241
242.Constancy
242 in time of its state and main properties.
243. 243
The heat transfer are divided into
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246.Thermal
246 conductivity, Convection, Radiation
247. 247
248. 248
249. 249
250. 250
251. 251 stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:
Aggregate
252. 252
Options
253. 253
254.Coalescing
254 of particles;
255.Sedimentation
255 of particles;
256.Destruction
256 of particles;
257. 257
Subdivision of particles.
258. 258
259. 259
What is the thermal conductivity?
260. 260
Options
261. 261
262.The
262material to conduct heat.
263.Heat
263 is transferred from one place to another.
264.The
264radiation transmitted even void (sun).
265.None
265 of them.
266. 266
What is the convection?
267. 267
268. 268
Options
269. 269
270.The
270material to conduct heat.
271.Heat
272.The
273.None
273 of them.
274. 274
The
275.structure
275 of ironic hydroxide sol:
276. 276
Options
277. 277
278.{m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
278
279.{m[BaSO4]
279 n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
280.{m[BaSO4]
280 n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
281.{m[Au]
281 n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.
282. 282
What is the radiation?
283. 283
284. 284
Options
285. 285
The material to conduct heat.
286. 286
287.Heat
288.The
289.None
289 of them.
290. 290
According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
291. 291
292. 292
Options
293. 293
Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
294. 294
Precipitate and water;
295. 295
Mixture of gases;
296. 296
297.Atoms
297 and ions.
298. 298
Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?
299. 299
300. 300
Options
301.Julius
301 Robert von Mayer
302.Rudolf
302 Clausius
303. 303
Mendeleev
304. 304
Gibbs
305. 305
306. 306 phase of sparkling drinks is:
Disperse
307. 307
Options
308. 308
309.N2;
309
310.H2O;
310
311.CO2;
311
312. 312
O2.
313. 313
Aerosol is:
Options
Powder;
Dust cloud;
Hairspray;
All answers are right.
Biological gel is:
Options
Cartilage;
Air;
Clouds;
River water
The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:
Options
These are heterogeneous systems;
Particles are visible with the naked eye;
They are easily besieged;
Coarse disperse system is:
Options
Solution;
Suspension;
Sol;
Gel.
Chromatography is:
Options
The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
A type of disperse systems;
A continuous phase;
The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.
Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
Options
Surface tension;
Surface energy;
Internal energy;
Heat of dissolution.
Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:
Options
Fog;
Dust;
Smoke;
Steam.
Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
Options
Color;
Transparence;
Size of particles;
Odor.
Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:
Options
Liquid;
Solid;
Gas;
All answers are right
What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
Options
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of theirparticles throughout a
liquid;
On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.
Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:
Options
Coarse dispersed;
Colloidal;
Molecular;
True solution.
Coagulation is:
Options
Chaotic movement of particles;
Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
Destruction of the native protein structure;
The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby
separate from the continuous phase.
Optical properties of dispersed systems are:
Options
Viscosity, flowability;
Opalescence, light absorption;
Diffusion, Brownian motion;
Dissolution, swelling.
Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:
Options
Opalescence;
Light absorption;
Electrodialysis;
Electrophoresis and electroosmosis
A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:
Options
Negatively charged;
Positively charged;
Electro neutral;
Negatively and positively charged.
Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of
Options
Diameter
Particle size
Radius
Solubility
The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order
Options
Suspension> colloidal > true solution
True solution > suspension > colloidal
Suspension> colloidal = true solution
None of the above
Colloids can be purified by
Options
Peptization
Coagulation
Dialysis
Bredic arc method
Which is a natural colloid?
Options
Sodium chloride
Urea
Cane sugar
Blood
Which one of the following is not a colloid
Options
Milk
Blood
Ice cream
Urea solution
Milk is a colloid in which
Options
A liquid is dispersed in liquid
A solid is dispersed in liquid
A gas is dispersed in liquid
Some sugar is dispersed in water
An aerosol is a colloidal system of
Options
A liquid dispersed in a solid
A liquid dispersed in a gas
A gas dispersed in air
None of the above
Which of the following is a homogeneous system
Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water
Which of the following is an emulsifier?
Options
Soap
Water
Oil
NaCl
Lyophobic colloids are
Options
Reversible colloids
Irreversible colloids
Protective colloids
Gum proteins
Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?
Options
Condensation
Dialysis
Diffusion through animal membrane
Addition of an electrolyte
Colloidal solutions are not purified by
Options
Dialysis
Electrodialysis
Ultrafiltration
Electrophoresis
Suspensions are
Options
Visible to naked eye
Not visible by any means
Invisible under electron microscope
Invisible through microscope
Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?
Options
Gelatin
Sulphur
Gold
Carbon
Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of
Options
Lyophilic sol
Associated colloid
Hydrophobic sol
Emulsion
The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to
Options
Charge on their particles
A layer of medium of dispersion on their particles
The smaller size of their particles
The large size of their particles
Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because
Options
The colloidal particles have positive charge
The colloidal particles have negative charge
The colloidal particles are solvated
There are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.
Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?
Options
High concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained
Coagulation is reversible
Viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water
The charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive,
negative, or even zero
When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see
Options
Light scattered by colloidal particles
Size of the particle
Shape of the particle
Relative size
Light scattering takes place in
Options
Solution of electrolyte
Colloidal solutions
Electrodialysis
Electroplating
Maximum coagulation power is in
Options
Na+
Ba2+
Al3+
Sn4+
The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order
Options
Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+
Cl- , SO42- , PO43-
Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+
PO43-, SO42-,Cl-
Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by
Options
NaCl solution
Starch solution
Urea solution
FeCl3 solution
Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are
Options
Linear
Curved
Zigzag
Uncertain
The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as
Options
Photolysis
Dialysis
Pyrolysis
Peptisation
Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known as
Options
Electrolysis
Electrophoresis
Electrodyalysis
None of the above
Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the particles?
Options
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
Sedimentation
Ultrafiltration
Which one of the following is not represented by sols?
Options
Absorption
Tyndall effect
Flocculation
Paramagnetism
Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance
Options
Accumulates in the surface of the other substance
Goes into the body of the other substance
Remains close to the other substance
Forms chemical bonds with other substences.
Which colloid is used in treating eye disease?
Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal platinum
As2S3 sol is
Options
Positive colloid
Negative colloid
Neutral colloid
None of the above
Which of the following is a colloid?
Options
Sugar solution
Urea solution
Silicic acid
NaCl solution
Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?
Options
Smoke
Ink
Blood
Air
Milk is
Options
Fat dispersed in milk
Fat dispersed in water
Water dispersed in fat
Water dispersed in oil
Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which
Options
Solid is dispersed in liquid
Liquid is dispersed in a solid
Gas is dispersed in a solid
Solid is dispersed in a solid
What is the endothermic process?
Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called
What is the exothermic process?
Options
Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called
Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?

Options
Endothermic reactions
Options
Exothermic reactions
Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.
Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)
ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W
Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law
Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
Q= ΔU+ W
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:
Options
∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
Q= ΔU+ W
System consisting of three phases is called
Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open
System consisting of one phase is called
Options
Heterogeneous
Homogeneous
Isolated
Open
What is the heterogeneous system?
Options
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
What is the homogeneous system?
Options
Heat is transferred from one place to another.
What are the units of energy?
Options
Volta
Pascal
Liter
Joule
Spontaneous process occurs only
Options
Without external energy
At constant temperature
In forward direction
With external energy help
Internal energy is ……
Options
Energy of system at constant pressure
Gibbs energy
Energy of system at constant volume
Measure of systems randomness
Enthalpy is expressed by following
Options
H = U + pV
∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
H = G + TS
Qp = ∆H
Indicate which function isn’t function of state
Options
A
G
Qp
H
Find state parametre
Options
Q
G
T
H
Indicate which function isn’t function of state
Options
Q
G
Qp
S
Find state parameter
Options
Q
G
V
H
For spontaneous processes
Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0
Chemical kinetics studies –
Options
Energy changes during chemical transformations.
The rate of chemical reactions.
General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
Of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.
Butter is a colloid formed when
Options
Fat is dispersed in water
Fat globules are dispersed in water
Water is dispersed in fat
None of the above
Which of the following is not a colloid?
Options
Chlorophyll
Smoke
Ruby glass
Milk
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?
Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Trimolecular
Radical reaction
Which of the following is a homogeneous system?
Options
Muddy water
Bread
Concrete
A solution of sugar in water
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?
Options
Monomolecular
Radical reaction
Dimolecular
Trimolecular
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:
Options
Monomolecular
Dimolecular
Radical reaction
Trimolecular
What is the Monomolecular reaction?
Options
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles.
Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.
What is theDimolecular Reaction?
Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Conjugate reactions.
What is theTrimolecular reaction?
Options
Reaction in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.
Reactions proceeding simultaneously.
A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as
Options
Gel
Homogeneous solution
Sol
Aerosol
Enzymes isais a substance that …
Options
Increase the rate of reaction
Decrease the rate of reaction
Biological catalyst of reaction
No effect on the reaction rate
If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as
Options
A sol
A gel
An emulsion
A foam
A substance that increases the reaction rate-
Options
Catalyst
Indicator
Inhibitor
Reducing agents.
A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as

Options
Foam
Sol
Aerosol
Emulsion
A substance that decrease the reactionrate-
Options
Catalyst
Inhibitor
Enzymes
Indicator
Reversible reactions are called?
Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Process of substance dissolution
Reactions proceeding in parallel
Irreversible reactions are called?
Options
A change that can go forwards or backwards
A change that cannot go back,
Reactions proceeding in parallel
Process of substance dissolution
The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?
Options
Reversible reactions
Irreversible reactions
Soluble
Insoluble
The reactions that cannot go back is called?
Options
Soluble
Insoluble
A material that dissolves is called?
Options
Soluble
Insoluble
A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?
Options
Soluble
Insoluble
Which of these reactions are monomolecular
Options
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S
2NO + Cl2 → 2 NOCl
2HI → H2 + I2
I2 → I • + I •
Which of these reactions are monomolecula
Options
Cl2 → 2Cl
2HI → H2 + I2
Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
Options
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
C2H5OH → C2H4 + HOH
Which of these reactions are dimolecular
Options
2HI → H2 + I2
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
Which of these reactions are dimolecular.
Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
Which of these reactions are dimolecula
Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O
Which of these reactions are trimolecular?
Options
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
N2O4 → 2NO2
Emulsifiers are generally
Options
Soap
Synthetic detergents
Lyophilic sols
All of the above
The equilibrium constant for the reaction? 2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
Options
Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2];
Kc = [CO2] / [CO];
Kc = 1 / [CO2];
Kc = [CO] / [CO2]
What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?2NO + O2→2NO2
Options
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2]
Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] 2
Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]
Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction? N2 +3H2 =
2NH3
Options
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2]
Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2
Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is
Options
K= [O2]
K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
K= [NaNO3 ]
Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is
Options
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CO2 ]
K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]
In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
Options
Backward
Forward
Won’t shifted
Towards reactants
The rate constant of a reactions depends on
Options
Temperature
Initial concentration of the reactants
Time of reaction
Extent of reaction
The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the
Options
Concentration of the reactant
Concentration of the product
Time
Temperature
A catalyst is a substance which
Options
Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
Supplies energy to the reaction
The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their
Options
Stability
Molecular weight
Equivalent weight
Active mass
In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are
Options
Same
Different
One side more
Not definite
Butter is
Options
Emulsion
Aerosol
Suspension
None
A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are
Options
Unequal
Constant
Equal
Increased
The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium is
termed as
Options
Aerosol
Gel
Emulsion
Foam
The law of mass action was enunciated by
Options
Guldberg and Waage
Bodenstein
Berthlot
Graham
Which one of an example of gel?
Options
Soap
Fog
Cheese
Milk
According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction will
N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal
Options
Increase the yield of NO
Decrease by yield of NO
Not effect on the yield of NO
Not help the reaction to proceed
Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called
Options
Aerosol
Cannot be prepared
Gas aerosol
Gasosol
Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g) Why is the reaction slower when a single
piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the same mass is used?
Options
The powdered zinc is more concentrated;
The single piece of zinc is more reactive;
The powdered zinc requires less activation energy;
The powdered zinc has a greater surface area.
As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases, the
rate of the reaction:
Options
Increases
Decreases;
Remains the same;
Approaches zero
Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?
Options
The number of moles of the reactants and products;
The potential energies of the reactants and products;
The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.
When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is called
Options
Smoke
Clouds
Jellies
Emulsions
Milk is an example of
Options
Pure solution
Emulsion
Gel
Suspension
The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as
Options
Electro-osmosis
Brownian movement
Cataphoresis
Dialysis
Tyndall effect will be observed in
Options
Solution
Precipitate
Sol
Vapour
Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to
Options
Scattering of light
Reflection of light
Absorption of light
Presence of electrically charged particles
The Brownian motion is due to
Options
Temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
Attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles
Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
Convective currents
The sky looks blue due to
Options
Dispersion effect
Reflection
Transmission
Scattering
The blue color of water in the sea is due to
Options
Refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water
Reflection of blue sky by sea water
Scattering of blue light by water molecules
Absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules
Which colloid is used in treating eye disease
Options
Colloidal S
Colloidal antimony
Colloidal gold
Colloidal silver
Random motion of colloidal particles is known as
Options
Dialysis
Brownian movement
Electro-osmosis
Tyndall effect
In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?
Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Sugar solution
Gold sol
Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?
Options
Milk
Gum
Fog
Blood
Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is
Options
Suspension
Emulsion
Gel
Rtue solution
The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is
Options
Dialysis
Addition of electrolytes
Diffusion through animal membrane
Condensation
As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration(C.M.C.) soap particles abruptly
collected into spherical structures called _________
Options
Ball
Sphere of ions
Micelles
Dirt particle
_________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary
liquid induced by an external field.
Options
Colloidal suspension
Emulsion
Sedimentation potential
Electrophoresis
Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?
Options
Minerals
Vitamins
Proteins
Starch
At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________
Options
Molecular colloid
Associated colloid
Macromolecular colloid
Lyophillic colloid
Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?
Options
Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
Aqueous solution of odium chloride
Aqueous solution of sugar
Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected
Options
By addition of oppositely charged sol
By addition of an electrolyte
By addition of lyophilic sol
By boiling
Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by
Options
Coagulation
Electrolysis
Diffusion
Peptisation
Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag+
Options
Na2S
Na3PO4
Na2SO4
NaCl
A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
Options
Solid sol
Gel
Emulsion
Sol
The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison to those
shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles ____________
Options
Exhibit enormous surface area
Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
Form lyophilic colloids
Are comparatively less in number
Which element is present in all organic compounds?
Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Phosphorous
Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?
Options
Low melting point
High melting point
Soluble in polar solvents
Insoluble in nonpolar solvents
Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is
Options
Slower because organic particles are ions
Slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds
Faster because organic particles are ions
Faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds
Which compounds are isomers?
Options
1-propanol and 2-propanol
Methanoic acid and ethanoic acid
Methanol and methanal
Ethane and ethanol
Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?
Options
Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.
Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.
Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms
Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms
Which polymers occur naturally?
Options
Starch and nylon
Starch and cellulose
Protein and nylon
Protein and plastic
What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?
Options
Butane
Butene
Benzene
Butyne
In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a regular
Options
Pyramid
Tetrahedron
Square
Rectangle
In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per molecule?
Options
C2H2 and C2H6
C2H2 and C3H6
C4H8 and C2H4
C6H6 andC7H8
A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:
Options
Decrease;
Increase
Remain the same;
Approach zero
Which compound contain an alcohol group?
Options
Acetone
Methanale
Methanol
Dimethyl ether
In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:
Options
Make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;
Add a catalyst;
Cool the reaction down;
Use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.
The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and
Options
Water
Oxygen
Carbon dioxide
Sulfur dioxide
Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) +
Cl-(aq)
Options
II only;
III only;
I and II only;
II and III only
Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?
Options
Ethane
Ethene
Ethyne
Ethanol
Molarity is expressed as
Options
Grams/litre
Litres/mole
Moles/litre
Moles/1000 gm
Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in
Options
1000 gm of the solvent
Onelitre of the solution
One litre of the solvent
22.4 litres of the solution
What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?
Options
An addition reaction
A substitution reaction
A saponification reaction
An esterification reaction
Normality is expressed as
Options
Moles/litre
Gm equivalents/litre
Moles/1000 gm
Gram/litre
What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?
Options
1
2
3
4
The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is
Options
1N
10 N
1.7 N
0.83 N
Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?
Options
Acids
Alcohols
Esters
Ethers
Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is
Options
1N
0x1N
4N
None
Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?
Options
2-methylpropane
2-methylbutane
Propane
Butane
The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is
Options
0x1
1
4
0.4
Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is
Options
2.04 N
0.49 N
0.98 N
0.35 N
What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?
Options
Ketone
Protein
Ester
Acid
What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?
Options
0.5 N
1.0 N
2.0 N
3.0 N
During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their
Options
Boiling points
Melting points
Triple points
Saturation points
Which compound is an organic acid?
Options
CH3OH
CH3OCH3
CH3COOH
CH3COOCH3
Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different
Options
Percentage compositions;
Molecular masses;
Molecular formulas;
Structural formulas.
Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is
Options
2N
4N
N/2
N/4
Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one additional carbon
atom and
Options
One hydrogen atom;
Two hydrogen atoms;
Three hydrogen atoms;
Four hydrogen atoms.
The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is ?
Options
0.46 N
0.23 N
2.3 N
4.6 N
The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has the same
Options
Empirical formula;
General formula;
Structural formula;
Molecular formula.
The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is
Options
4g
1g
2g
10 g
What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
Options
Methanol;
Methane;
Methyl methanoate;
Methanoic acid.
Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be
Options
0.05 M
0.2 M
0.1 M
0.4 M
A compound with the formula C6 H6 is
Options
Toluene;
Benzene;
Butene;
Pentene.
The molarity of pure water is
Options
55.6
50
100
18
C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.
Options
Addition;
Substitution;
Saponification;
Esterification.
The number of moles in 180 g of water is
Options
1
10
18
100
The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of
Options
C3H7COCH3;
CH3COOC2H5;
C2H5OC2H5;
CH3COOH.
The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is
Options
1
2
3
1.5
What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?
Options
1
2
3
4
Which compound is a member of the alkane series?
Options
C2H6;
C3H6;
C4H6;
C6H6.
A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and
Options
Carbon dioxide;
Water;
Glycerol;
Ethanol.
The general formula for the alkyne series is
Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n+2;
CnH2n-2.
Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is
Options
0.1 M
0.5 M
0.01 M
1.0 M
Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?
Options
Acetylene;
Ethylene;
Toluene;
Propene
What is the solution?
Options
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount
Component of a solution present in the greater amount
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent
Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?
Options
HCOOCH3;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3COOCH3
What is the solute?
Options
Which compound is a member of the alkene series?

Options
Benzene;
Toluene;
Acetylene;
Ethane
What is the solvent?
Options
All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are
Options
Single covalent;
Double covalent;
Triple covalent;
Coordinate covalent
What is the concentration?
Options
Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?
Options
C2H4;
C3H6;
C4H8;
C5H10
A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?
Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration
Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?
Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration
Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?
Options
An esterification reaction;
A neutralization reaction;
A saponification reaction;
A fermentation reaction.
Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is an
example of _______ reaction.
Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Fermentation.
In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is
Options
11
10
3
8
Which compound is an ester?
Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CHO;
CH3COOCH3;
CH3COCH3.
The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and
Options
A polymer;
A soap;
An ester;
An alcohol.
Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures are called
Options
Isomers;
Isotopes;
Allotropes;
Homologs.
Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?
Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration
Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
Options
Solution
Solute
Solvent
Concentration
A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same
Options
Structural formula;
Molecular formula
Number of carbon atoms;
Number of hydrogen atoms.
Mass fraction is called?
Options
The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
The ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
The equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
The mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?
Options
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2OH;
CH3CH2COOH;
CH3CH2CH2OH
Mass fraction is expressed in:
Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.
The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as
Options
An acid;
An alcohol;
An ester;
A hydrocarbon
Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order, has 1
more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?
Options
1
2
3
4
Molar concentration is expressed in:
Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.
The molar concentration of equivalent is called?
Options
The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:
Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.
The molal concentration is:
Options
Molal concentration is expressed in:
Options
Mol / kg.
Percentage
Mol / l.
G / ml.
Find volume concentration
Options
Mass percent
Normality
Molality
Mass fraction
Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature
Options
Vant Hoff
Mendeleev
Arrhenius
Lomonosov
Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid
Options
98
2
32
49
Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
Options
98
2
32.6
49
Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide
Options
98
37
32
49
“Activation energy” term is introduced by
Options
Coordination theory
Theory of valent bonds
Theory of active collisions
Theory of electrolytic dissociation
When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as
Options
Diluted solution
Saturated solution
Concentrated solution
Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in
Options
High concentration
Low concentration
High temeprature
Low temeprature
One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by a/an
Options
Base
Acid
Salt
Suspension
Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is
Options
Molality
Percentage
Concentration
Molarity
A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a
Options
Colloid.
Suspension
Solution.
Compound.
Which molecular formula represents pentene?
Options
C4H8;
C4H10;
C5H10;
C5H12.
The dissolving medium in the solution is the
Options
Solute
Solution.
Solvent.
Mixture.
A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?
Options
Propanol;
Butanol;
Pentanol;
Glycerol
Which of the following is not a solution?
Options
Zinc
Sterling silver
Brass
Stainless steel
Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in
Options
Organic acids;
Esters;
Alkynes;
Alkanes.
What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?
Options
Alcohol
Water
Sugar
Kerosene
Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?
Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C3H6;
C3H8.
Which of these solutions is in solid phase?
Options
Tincture of iodine
Aerosol
Air-iodine solution
Dental amalgam
Which of the following is not a property of solution?
Options
It has a definite composition.
It has a homogeneous composition.
It is consist of a single phase.
It can be physically separated into its components.
A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is
Options
Concentrated.
Dilute.
Unsaturated.
Saturated.
Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
Options
Increasing the temperature
Increasing the pressure
Increasing the volume
Decreasing the pressure
What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?
Options
Vaporization and condensation
Dissolution and crystallization
Oxidation and reduction
Dissociation and reduction
Which formula represents an acid?
Options
CH3COOCH3;
CH3OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3CH2CH3.
Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
Options
342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution
Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and formic
acid. This type of reaction is called
Options
Fermentation;
Esterification;
Saponification;
Polymerization.
Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?
Options
Hexane
Sodium carbonate
Ethanol
Potassium chloride
Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?
Options
C3H6;
C2H6;
C2H2;
C6H6.
Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?
Options
Tetrahedral;
Planar triangular;
Linear;
Bent.
Most salt become soluble in water as the
Options
Pressure is increased.
Temperature is increased.
Temperature is decreased.
Pressure is decreased.
It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.
Options
Percent by mass
Molarity
Molality
Mole fraction
Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have
Options
Greater solubility in water;
More rapid reaction rates;
A tendency to form ions more readily;
Lower melting points.
The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
Options
Percent by mass
Molality
Molarity
Mole fraction
Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?
Options
-COOH;
-OR;
-CHO;
#NAME?
It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
Options
Molarity
Normality
Dilution
Molality
In dilution of solution,
Options
A solute is added to the solution.
)solvent is added to the solution
The amount of moles increases.
Volume of solution decreases.
C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.
Options
Substitution;
Addition;
Polymerization;
Esterification.
A 40% alcohol contains
Options
40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.
The isomers of propanol differ in
Options
The number of carbon atoms;
The arrangement of the carbon atoms;
Molecular mass;
The position of functional group.
Solutions are:
Options
Isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;
Homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
Homogeneous systems which contain at least two components
Heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.
Which is the formula of an alcohol?
Options
Ba(OH)2;
HCHO;
CH3COOH;
C5H11OH.
Solubility of solids depends upon:
Options
Temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents;
Pressure;
Heat of solution;
C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as
Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An organic acid;
An alcohol.
In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:
Options
Liquid, transparent, colored;
Solid, liquid, turbid;
Gaseous, liquid, solid;
Liquid, turbid, colored.
Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number of solute particles and not
their nature. They are:
Options
Vapor pressure lowering;
Density;
Viscosity;
Diffusion.
Which compound can have isomers?
Options
C2H4;
C2H2;
C2H6;
C4H8.
The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the
solution is defined as:
Options
The Henry’s law;
The Sechenov equation;
The Ostvald’s dilution law;
The Paul’s principle.
C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?
Options
Polymerization;
Substitution;
Addition;
Esterification.
An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:
Options
Hemolysis;
Plasmolysis;
Swelling;
Precipitation.
Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:
Options
0.01M sucrose;
0.01 M sodium phosphate;
0.01 М potassium chloride;
0.01 M sodium carbonate.
Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?

Options
CCl2F2;
C2H2;
C2H5OH;
C2H5OC2H5.
The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:
Options
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure
solvents;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
Boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile
solutes.
Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?
Options
C3H8;
C3H7OH;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.
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Question (1/12)
What is the concentration of OH– in a solution with a H+ concentration of 1.3×10-4 M?
Options
7.7×10-10 M
7.7×10-9 M
7.7×10-11 M
7.7×10-12 M
Identify the triprotic acid from the following
Options
Carbonic acid
Bicarbonate
Glycine
Phosphoric acid
Which of the following acids has the lowest pKa value?
Options
Acetic acid
PrevSulphuric acid
SkipDil.HCl
NextOxalic acid
The degree of ionization does not depend on?
Options
Temperature
Current
Nature of solvent
Concentration
Aqueous solution of the detergents are
Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Amphoteric
What makes water a liquid at room temperature?
Options
Hydrogen bonds between water molecules
Covalent bonding
Noncovalent interactions
Van der Waals forces of attraction
ΔG is negative for which of the following processes?
Options
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of nitrogen
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine
ΔH is positive for which of the following processes?
Options
Oxidation of nitrogen
Melting of ice and evaporation of water
Oxidation of gold
Burning of chlorine
What is the factor that is responsible for salts like NaCl to dissolve in water easily?
Options
Decrease in entropy
Increase in entropy
Increase in enthalpy
Decrease in enthalpy
Which of the following is a hypertonic solution?
Options
Oceans
Freshwater habitats
0.45% sodium chloride
Red blood cells placed in fresh water
Which of the following is a hypotonic solution?
Options
10% dextrose in water
5% dextrose in 0.9% sodium chloride
Oceans
Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
Options
Oceans
10% dextrose in water
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Question
23. 23 (1/50)
24. 24
Why
25. pure
25 water is very weak electrolyte?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.It28
ionizes to a large extent
29.It29
ionizes to very small extent
30.It30
does not ionizes at all
31.It31
ionizes completely
32. 32
33. 33molecule is a highly polar solvent due to:
Water
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Presence
36 of two lone pair of electrons
37. 37
Presence of three lone pair of electrons
38. 38
39.Absence
39 of lone pair of electrons
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
When
42. 42acid is added to pure water at 298 K then:
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Both
45 (H+) and (OH) ions decreases.
46.Both
Prev 46 (H+) and (OH) ions increases
47. 47
Skip(H+) increases and (OH-) decreases
48. 48
Next(H+) decreases and (OH-) increases.
49. 49
50. 50of a single salt is prepared by dissolving?
Buffer
Options
Weak acid + weak base in water
Strong acid + strong base in water.
Weak acid + strong base in water.
Strong acid + weak base in water.
Which among the following is not a property of buffer solution?
Options
It has a definite PH.
PH remains constant on addition of small amount of acid or base.
PH remains constant on keeping for a long time
It does not has a definite PH
Which is not an example of sparingly soluble salt?
Options
AgCl
BaSO4
CH3COOAg
None of these
The concentration of a sparingly soluble salt in its saturated solution at a given temperature is
known as:
Options
Solubility product
Solubility
Hydrolysis
Degree of hydrolysis
If ionic product < solubility product then the solution is:
Options
Unsaturated
Just saturated.
Super saturated
None of these
Arrange the following in increasing order of acidic strength?
Options
HCl < HBr < HI < HF
HF < HBr < HCl < HI
HI < HCl < HBr < HF
HF < HCl < HI < HBr.
Lewis acid is one that:
Options
Accepts an electron pair
Donates a proton
Accepts a proton
Donates an electron pair
HCO3- acts as:
Options
Acid
Base
Both acid and base
None of these
Which of the following act as Bronsted acid?
Options
HSO3-
HCO3-
Both a and b
None
An acid is one that donates a proton. This theory was given by:
Options
Lewis
Lowery – Bronsted
Arrhenius
Ostwald
If the degree of dissociation is less than 1 then it is a:
Options
Weak electrolyte
Strong electrolyte
Strong base
None of these.
NH4Cl and aq.NH3 will precipitate.
Options
Cu2+
Fe3+
Na+
K+
10-4 M HCl solution at 298 K is diluted 1000 times. The pH of the solution will:
Options
Lie between 8 and 9
Remain unchanged
Lie between 6 and 7
Equal to 7
The conjugate base of methyl alcohol is:
Options
Hydroxyl ion
Methyl radical
Hydronium ion
Methoxide ion
Which among the following contains same (H+) ions?
Options
Equimolar solutions
Equinormal solution
Both a and b
None of these
The ionisation of a weak electrolyte increases when the concentration of the solution is decreased.
This relation is given by:
Options
Ostwald’s law
Arrhenius equation
Nernst’s equation.
Law of mass action.
Acetic acid is a weaker acid than sulphuric acid because:
Options
Sulphuric acid is strongly ionised
It has low molecular weight
Sulphuric acid is weakly ionised.
It does not dissociates completely
Aqueous solution of potassium chlorate is:
Options
Amphoteric
Neutral
Alkaline
Acidic
Precipitation of salt occurs if:
Options
Ionic product = solubility product
Ionic product > solubility product
Ionic product < solubility product
None of these
Addition of HCl will suppress the ionisation of:
Options
Benzoic acid
Carbonic acid
Nitric acid
Both a and b
Basicity of an acid is defined as number of replicable:
Options
OH groups in its molecule
H atom in its molecule
Non-metal cations in its molecule
Non-metal anions in its molecule
NH3 and H20 can act as:
Options
Lewis acid and Bronsted base
Lewis base and Bronsted acid
Lewis and Bronsted base
Lewis and Bronsted acid.
What will be the pH of a buffer solution formed by dissolving equal number of moles of HOCl (ka
= 4.3 x 10-8) and NaOH?
Options
7.0
3.2
7.3
4.5
A buffer solution is one that contains:
Options
A weak acid and its conjugate base
Strong base and its conjugate acid
Strong acid and its conjugate base
None of these
In order to lower the pH of water, salt of should be added to it.
Options
Weak acid and strong base
Weak acid and weak base
Strong acid and strong base
Strong acid and weak base
Aqueous solution of Na2CO3 is alkaline because:
Options
It is basic in nature
It is acidic in nature
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of strong acid and strong base
Of its anionic hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and strong base.
Addition of a salt of weak acid and strong base to water would cause:
Options
Increase in pH.
PH remains same.
Decrease in pH
None of these.
Among the following which is a strong electrolyte and thus the best conductor of electricity?
Options
Sulphuric acid
Acetic acid
Boric acid
Phosphoric acids
Molarity of a solution is expressed as:
Options
The number of moles of a solute present in one litre of the solution
The number of moles of a solute present in 1000 gm of the solvent
The number of gram equivalent of solute present in one litre of solution
The ratio of the number of moles of solute to the total number of moles of solute
Which one of the following is not a colligative property?
Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of boiling point
Freezing point
Depression in freezing point.
Which of the following is not a volatile substance?
Options
Camphor
Petrol
Acetone
Acetanilide
Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution:
Options
Obeys Raoult’s law.
Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero
There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent.
Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions
The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:
Options
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute in it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte solute in
it
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in it.
Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.
The value of Ebullioscopic constant or boiling point elevation constant depends on:
Options
Amount of solute
Nature of solute.
Amount of solvent
Nature of solvent
The unit of Cryoscopic constant is:
Options
Kelvin kg mol-1
Kelvin kg-1 mol-1
Kelvin kg mol+1
Kelvin kg+1 mol+1
Vant Hoff’s eqution for solution is:
Options
PV = n / RT
P = Vn / RT
PV = nRT
P = VnR / T
When osmotic pressure and temperature are the same then:
Options
Equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute.
Equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute.
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain equal number of moles of the solute
Non-equal volume of solutions would contain non-equal number of moles of the solute
Which among the following is true? i. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling
point decreases. ii. When vapour pressure of the liquid increases its boiling point increases. iii.
When vapour pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point decreases. iv. When vapour
pressure of the liquid decreases its boiling point increases.
Options
I & iii
I & iv.
Ii & iii
Ii & iv
Vapour pressure decreases with:

Options
Increase in concentration of the solution.
Decrease in solute particles in the solution
Decrease in boiling point.
Increase in freezing point.
Positive deviation from Raoult’s law is observed when:
Options
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is greater than that between
individual liquids
Inter molecular forces of attraction between the two liquids is smaller than that between
individual liquids.
Force of attraction between two liquids is greater than that between individual liquids
Force of attraction between two liquids is smaller than that between individual liquid.
If a solute is in associated state then Vant Hoff factor is:
Options
I=1
I>1
I=0
I<1
Which of the following statements are correct: i. colligative property depends upon number of
solute of particles present in the solution. ii. Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution is
equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile non-electrolyte solute.
Options
I
Ii
Both i & ii
None of the above
Addition of common salt in water causes
Options
Increase in M.P of solution
Increase in B.P of solution
Decrease in B.P of solution
Decrease in both M.P & B.P
The value of Vant Hoff factor (i) = 2 is for:
Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Calcium chloride
Sodium chloride
Addition of non-volatile solute in water results in:
Options
An increase in melting point of the liquid
A decrease in the boiling point of the liquid.
A decrease in the vapour pressure of the liquid
No change in the boiling point of the liquid.
Which of the following pair of liquids are immiscible?
Options
Acetone + water
Benzene + water.
Ethanol + water
Acetic acid + water
If the solvent boils at a temperature T1 and the solution at a temperature T2 , then the elevation of
boiling point is given by:
Options
T1 + T2
T1 – T2
T2 – T1.
None of the above
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Question
23. 23 (1/119)
24. 24
The
25.unit
25 of temperature in S.I. units is
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Centigrade
28
29.Celsius
29
30.Farhenheit
30
31.Kelvin
31
32. 32
33.unit
The 33 of mass in S.I. units is
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Kilogram
36
37. 37
Gram
38. 38
39.Tonne
39
40.Quintal
40
41. 41
The
42.unit
42 of time in S.I. units is
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Second
45
46. 46
PrevMinute
47. 47
SkipHour
48. 48
NextDay
49. 49
50.unit
The 50 of length in S.I. units is
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Meter
53
54. 54
55.Centimeter
55
Kilometer
56. 56
57.Millimeter
57
58. 58
The
59.unit
59 of energy in S.I. units is
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Watt
62
63.Joule
63
64.Joule/s
64
65. 65
66.Joule/m
66
67. 67
General gas equation is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
PV=nRT
71. 71
72.PV=mRT
72
73.PV=C
73
74.PV=KiRT
74
75. 75
An76.
open76 system is one in which
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Mass
79 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
80.Neither
80 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
81. 81
Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
82. 82
83.Mass
83 crosses the boundary but not the energy
84. 84
An isolated system is one in which
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
88.Mas
88 does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
89.Neither
89 mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
90.Both
90 energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
91.Mass
91 crosses the boundary but not the energy
92. 92
93. 93of the following quantities is not the property of the system
Which
94. 94
Options
95. 95
96.Pressure
96
97.Temperature
97
98. 98
Specific volume
99. 99
100.Heat
100
101. 101
Mixture
102. 102of ice and water from a
103. 103
Options
104. 104
105.Closed
105 system
106.Open
106 system
107.Isolated
107 system
108.Heterogeneous
108 system
109. 109
If110.
∆H 110
value is less than zero than reaction will be
111. 111
Options
112. 112
113.Exothermic
113
114.Endothermic
114
115. 115
116.May
116or may not be Exothormic or Endothermic
117.None
117 of these
118. 118
119. 119
Which is true for a spontaneous endothermic process?
Options
∆H<0
∆G<0
∆S<0
∆G>0
A reaction has values of ∆H and ∆S which are both positive. The reaction
Options
Is spontaneous
Spontaneity is temperature dependent
Has an increasing free energy
Is non-spontaneous
Whenever a system undergoes either a change in state or an energy or mass transfer at a steady
state, it is said to undergo
Options
A change of state
A steady state transfer
A process
A thermodynamic change
A law which is applicable only to ideal vapours and liquids, that equates the equilibrium partial
pressures of a solution component in the coexisting phases, is known as
Options
Henry's law
Joule's law
Fick's law
Roult's law
An open system
Options
Is a specified region where transfers of energy and/or mass take place
Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
Has a mass transfer across its boundaries, and the mass within the system is not necessarily
A system consisting of more than one phase is known as
Options
Open system
Isolated system
Closed system
Heterogeneous system
Second law of theromodynamics defines
Options
Heat
Enthalpy
Internal energy
Entropy
The internal energy of a substance depends on
Options
Temperature
Volume
Pressure
Entropy
At critical point the enthalpy of vaporisation is
Options
Only dependent on temperature
Zero
Maximum
Minimum
For a reversible adiabatic process the change in entropy is
Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite
For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is
Options
Zero
Minimum
Maximum
Infinite
For any irreversible process the net entropy change is
Options
Positive
Negative
Infinite
Zero
In an isothermal process
Options
Temperature increases gradually
Volume remains constant
Change in internal energy is zero
Pressure remains constant
Which of the following is incorrect?
Options
The pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the pressure of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The entropy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the entropies of the individual
components taken each at the temperature and volume of the mixture
The internal energy of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum f the internal energies of the
indicudual components taken each at the temperature and the volume of the mixture
None of the above
If the ∆H° for the reaction, 2 Mg (s) + 2 Cl2 (g) → 2 MgCl2 (s), is -1283.6 kJ, what is the standard
enthalpy of formation of magnesium chloride?
Options
0 kJ/mol
-320.9 kJ/mol
-641.8 kJ/mol
1283.6 kJ/mol
Which of the following compounds will not undergo an acid-base (neutralization) reaction with
HClO4?
Options
NaOH
Sr(OH)2
NH3
H2SO4
The reaction below reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel. C6H12O6(s) = 2 C2H5OH(l) + 2
CO2(g), ∆Ho = −72 kJ Which of the following actions causes an increase in the value of Kc? (i)
adding some CO2(g) (ii) transferring the reaction mixture to a vessel of larger volume (iii)
increasing the temperature
Options
(i) only
(ii) only
(iii) only
None of the above
What is the coefficient of O2 when the following equation is balanced? C10H8(s) + x O2(g) → y
CO2(g) + z H2O(l)
Options
1
6
7
12
Natural oils, such as vegetable oil, are converted into solid, edible fats by a process called
Options
Fusion
Hydrogenation
Crystallization
Saponification
Which of the following is the strongest acid in water?
Options
HBr
HOBrO2
HF
HI
The heat of combustion of C(s) is −394 kJ/mol and that of CO(g) is −111 kJ/mol. What is the enthalpy
change for the reaction below? CO(g) → C(s) + ½ O2(g)
Options
505 kJ
283 kJ
111 kJ
−283 kJ
How are the boiling and freezing points of water affected by the addition of a soluble salt?
Options
The freezing and boiling points are both lowered.
The freezing and boiling points are both raised.
The freezing is lowered and the boiling point is raised.
The freezing is raised and the boiling point is lowered.
In which ionic compound does the cation have the same number of electrons as the anion?
Options
LiF
NaCl
CaO
MgF2
Which of the following compounds displays only covalent bonding?
Options
NH4OH
Li2O
HOCN
NaNO3
When temperature is increased, the rate of a reaction also increases. This observation is best
explained by
Options
An increase in the frequency of molecular collisions
A decrease in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the activation energy, Ea, for the reaction
An increase in the fraction of molecules that have enough energy to react
For a given substance, which of the following phase transitions is the most exothermic?
Options
Solid → liquid
Gas → solid
Liquid → gas
Solid → gas
The following reaction reaches equilibrium in a closed reaction vessel at 200o C. CO(g) + 3 H2(g) →
CH4(g) + H2O(g), ΔHo = −206 kJ Which of the following actions causes the reaction to proceed from
left to right in order to restore equilibrium?
Options
Increasing the volume of the container, holding temperature constant
Adding some CH4 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Adding some H2 gas to the system, with volume and temperature held constant
Increasing the temperature, holding the pressure constant
In which of the following compounds does oxygen have the highest oxidation state?
Options
CsO2
H2O
O2
OF2
What is the formula of the stable compound formed by magnesium and nitrogen?
Options
MgN
Mg2N
Mg3N2
Mg2N3
Which of the following bonds is most polar?
Options
B−O
B-F
C-O
C=O
When the following equation is balanced using the smallest whole number coefficients, what is
the coefficient of O2? NH3 + O2 → NO + H2O
Options
2
3
4
5
Which of the statements concerning the structure of benzene is false?
Options
The double bonds oscillate rapidly back and forth between adjacent pairs of carbon atoms.
The H-C-C angles are 120o
The carbon atoms form a flat hexagonal ring.
The oxidation state of carbon is −1.
Of the following compounds, which one contains nitrogen in an oxidation state of +5?
Options
NO2F
N2O3
NH4Cl
Mg3N2
To which process does the term sublimation refer?
Options
Solid to liquid
Liquid to solid
Solid to gas
Gas to solid
Each of two identical containers holds one mole of CH4gas and one mole SO2 gas, all at the same
temperature. Which of following statements is true?
Options
The SO2 gas has a higher pressure.
The CH4 gas has a greater density.
The SO2 molecules move, on average, faster than the CH4 molecules.
Deviations from ideal gas behaviour are smaller for the CH4 gas.
Which of the following has the same number of electrons as a water molecule?
Options
H2S
BH3
OH−
BeH2
What is the formula of magnesium sulfate?
Options
MgS
MgS2
Mg3S2
MgSO4
Which of the following has the lowest boiling point?
Options
HF
HCl
HBr
HI
Which of the following is a product of the reaction between H2SO4(aq) and NaOH(aq)?
Options
H2(g)
H+(aq)
H2O(l)
O2(g)
Which of the following species is not linear?
Options
O3
HCN
C2H2
NNO
Which of the following compounds has the greatest ionic character?
Options
IBr
CsF
HI
HF
What is the oxidation state of Cr in Li2CrO4?

Options
−6
−2
0
+6
Which of the following statements about H2SO3, a diprotic acid, is true?
Options
There is just one lone pair on the sulfur atom
It is a strong acid.
The hydrogen atoms are bonded directly to the sulfur atom
The oxidation state of sulfur is +6.
Which statement is not correct for the reaction below? 2 NO(g) ↔ N2(g) + O2(g)
Options
At equilibrium, the forward and reverse reactions occur at equal rates
Reaction to the left or to the right occurs spontaneously until the equilibrium state is reached.
Reducing the volume of the system has no effect on the equilibrium amounts of NO, N2 and O2
The equilibrium value of [N2 ] [O2 ] / [NO]2 is the same at all temperatures
Which of the following is an ionic compound?
Options
HOCN
NH4NO2
CH3NH2
SiO2
Select the correct ending to make the following a true statement. A catalyst ...
Options
Lowers the energy of the products
Induces an alternate reaction pathway with a higher activation energy
Increases the frequency of collisions between molecules
Is not consumed by the overall reaction although it may be temporarily changed
How many electrons are needed to fill the 4f subshell of an atom?
Options
Two
Six
Ten
Fourteen
Which of the following bonds is the most polar?
Options
H−O
C−N
H−C
O−N
Which of the following have three unpaired electrons in their ground electronic states?
Options
The third period atoms (Na to Ar)
The group 3 atoms (B to Tl)
The group 15 atoms (N to Bi)
N3− and P3−
Which of the following statements concerning the nitrate ion, NO3−, is incorrect?
Options
The ONO bond angles are all 120o.
One of the nitrogen-oxygen bonds is shorter than the other two nitrogen-oxygen bonds.
The nitrogen atom has a formal charge of +1.
It is nonpolar.
Electronegativity is a measure of
Options
The magnitude of the charge of an electron
The energy released when an electron is added to an atom
The energy required to remove an electron from an atom
The ability of an atom to draw electron density towards itself
Which of the following is the weakest acid in water?
Options
H2S
H2Se
H2Te
HBr
Which of the following is always true of a spontaneous process?
Options
The process is exothermic
The process does not involve any work
The entropy of the system increases
The internal energy of the system decreasis
The equation ΔH= ΔU+PΔ V is applicable
Options
Always
Only for constant pressure processes
Only for constant temperature processes
Only for constant volume processes
What occurs as two atoms of fluorine combine to become a molecule of fluorine?
Options
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed.
A bond is formed as energy is released
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released
To break a chemical bond, energy must be
Options
Absorbed
Destroyed
Produced
Released
As two chlorine atoms combine to form a molecule, energy is
Options
Absorbed
Released
Created
Destroyed
As energy is released during the formation of a bond, the stability of the chemical system
generally will
Options
Decrease
Increase
Remain the same
Absorbed
Which element has an atom with the greatest tendency to attract electrons in a chemical bond?
Options
Carbon
Chlorine
Silicon
Sulfur
Which term indicates how strongly an atom attracts the electrons in a chemical bond?
Options
Alkalinity
Atomic mass
Electronegativity
Activation energy
Which formula represents a substance with the greatest degree of ionic bonding?
Options
PBr3
MgBr2
NH3
CO
An ionic compound is formed when there is a reaction between the elements
Options
Strontium and chlorine
Hydrogen and chlorine
Nitrogen and oxygen
Sulfur and oxygen
Which type of bond is formed when electrons are transferred from one atom to another?
Options
Covalent
Ionic
Hydrogen
Metallic
Which compound contains both ionic and covalent bonds?
Options
CaCO3
PCl3
MgF2
CH2O
Which of the following solids has the highest melting point?
Options
H2O(s)
Na2O(s)
SO2(s)
CO2(s)
What is the total number of electron pairs shared between the two atoms in an O2 molecule?
Options
1
2
6
4
A molecular compound is formed when a chemical reaction occurs between atoms of
Options
Chlorine and sodium
Chlorine and yttrium
Oxygen and hydrogen
Oxygen and magnesium
Which characteristic is a property of molecular substances?
Options
Good heat conductivity
Good electrical conductivity
Low melting point
High melting point
Magnesium nitrate contains chemical bonds that are
Options
Covalent, only
Ionic, only
Both covalent and ionic
Neither covalent nor ionic
A solid substance is an excellent conductor of electricity. The chemical bonds in this substance are
most likely
Options
Ionic, because the valence electrons are shared between atoms
Ionic, because the valence electrons are mobile
Metallic, because the valence electrons are stationary
Metallic, because the valence electrons are mobile
Which substance contains metallic bonds?
Options
Hg(l )
H2O( l)
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)
Silicon dioxide (SiO2) and diamonds are best described as
Options
Molecular substances with coordinate covalent bonding
Molecular substances with ionic bonding
Network solids with covalent bonding
Network solids with ionic bonding
Which compound has hydrogen bonding between its molecules?

Options
CH4
CaH2
KH
NH3
Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule?
Options
CH4
HCl
H2O
NH3
Which statement explains why a molecule of CH4 is nonpolar?
Options
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are polar
The bonds between the atoms in a CH4 molecule are ionic
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges symmetrically.
The geometric shape of a CH4 molecule distributes the charges asymmetrically
Hydrogen bonding is a type of
Options
Strong covalent bond
Weak ionic bond
Strong intermolecular force
Weak intermolecular force
Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: Cl2 → Cl + Cl What occurs during this
reaction?
Options
A bond is broken as energy is absorbed
A bond is broken as energy is released
A bond is formed as energy is absorbed
A bond is formed as energy is released
Which statement describes what occurs as two atoms of bromine combine to become a molecule
of bromine?
Options
Energy is absorbed as a bond is formed
Energy is absorbed as a bond is broken
Energy is released as a bond is formed
Energy is released as a bond is broken
Which of these elements has an atom with the most stable outer electron configuration?
Options
Ne
Cl
Ca
Na
When a sodium atom reacts with a chlorine atom to form a compound, the electron configurations
of the ions forming the compound are the same as those in which noble gas atoms?
Options
Krypton and neon
Krypton and argon
Neon and helium
Neon and argon
Which element has an atom with the greatest attraction for electrons in a chemical bond?
Options
As
Bi
N
P
Based on electronegativity values, which type of elements tends to have the greatest attraction for
electrons in a bond?
Options
Metals
Metalloids
Nonmetals
Noble gases
Which bond is least polar?
Options
As–Cl
Bi–Cl
P–Cl
N–Cl
Which formula represents an ionic compound?
Options
H2
CH4
CH3OH
NH4 Cl
Which type of bond results when one or more valence electrons are transferred from one atom to
another?
Options
A hydrogen bond
An ionic bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A polar covalent bond
Based on bond type, which compound has the highest melting point?
Options
CH3OH
C6H14
CaCl2
CCl4
The environment in which a system is studied is
Options
State function
Phase
Surrounding
State
Unit of heat in SI system is
Options
J
KCaL
Cal
Kg
Total energy of a system is
Options
P.E + K.E
P.E + heat energy
K.E + heat energy
P.E + mechanical energ
CuSO4 + Zn ZnSO4+Cu is
Options
Spontaneous reaction
Non-spontaneous reaction
Endothermic
Exothermic
State function the macroscopic property of system depends upon
Options
Path of reaction
Initial state
Initial and final state
Final state
When enthalpy formation of reactants is higher than product then reaction will be
Options
Endothermic
Spontaneous
Non-spontaneous
Exothermic
Enthalpy of a reaction can be measured by
Options
Calorimeter
Manometer
Barometer
Manometer
Enthalpy of combustion for food fuel and other compounds can be measured accurately by
Options
Calorimeter
Bomb calorimeter
Thermometer
Manometerv
Most of thermodynamic parameters are
Options
System
Surrounding
Phase
State functions
Change in enthalpy (H) of a system can be calculated by following relationship
Options
∆H=∆E+P∆V
∆H=∆E-PV
∆H=∆E-q
∆H=∆E+q
Two fundamental ways to transfer energy are
Options
Pressure and temperature
Pressure and volume
Heat and work
Heat and volume
Which of the following processes has always ∆H = -ve
Options
Formation of compoun
Combustion
Dissolution of ionic compound
Dilution of a solution
A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?
Options
Isothermal process
Isobaric process
Isochoric (or isometric) process
Adiabatic process
Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?
Options
Julius Robert von Mayer
Rudolf Clausius
Vant Hoff
Gibbs
Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:
Options
Q=∆U+W
H=U+pV
∆U = U(final) – U(initial)
S = KlnW
Choose thermochemical reactions:
Options
2H2(g) + O2(g) = H2O(g)
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g) -180,8kJ
PbS + H2O2 = PbSO4 + H2O
Ba(OH)2 + Na2SO4 = BaSO4 + 2NaOH
Enthalpy of reaction depends on: 1.Physical state of substances 2.Chemical quantity of substances
3.Temperature 4.Nature of substances
Options
1,2,3
2,3,4
1,2,3,4
1,3,4
From reaction: CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g) – 157 kJ, find enthalpy of reaction, if m(CaCO3) = 1 kg.
Options
+1570
-1570
+785
-785
If ΔG>0, then process:
Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic
If ΔG<0, then process:
Options
Spontaneous
Nonspontaneous
Exothermic
Endothermic
If ∆H>0, then process…
Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Exergonic
Endergonic
If ∆H<0, then process…
Options
Endothermic
Exergonic
Exothermic
Endergonic
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Question
23. 23 (1/127)
24. 24
As25.
compared
25 to its parent alkane, an alkyl radical contains
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.One
28 less carbon
29.One
29 less hydrogen
30.One
30 more carbon
31.One
31 more hydrogen
32. 32
33. of
Rate 33reaction of organic compounds is slow due to
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Ionic
36 bonding in them
37. 37
Amphoteric nature
38. 38
39.Covalent
39 bonding
40.Coordinate
40 covalent bonding
41. 41
In42.
naming
42 alkane stem tells about the
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Number
45 of hydrogen atoms
46.Number
Prev 46 of oxygen atoms
47. 47
SkipNumber of carbon atoms
48. 48
NextNumber of bonds
49. 49
50. 50
Self-linking ability of carbon is called
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Catenation
53
54. 54
55.Sublimation
55
Hydrogenation
56. 56
57.Carbonation
57
58. 58
Almost
59. 5995% of compounds are of carbon because it can form
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Single
62 bonds
63.Double
63 bonds
64.Triple
64 bonds
65. 65
66.Multiple
66 bonds
67. 67
Only one benzene ring is present in compounds of
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
Aryl
71. 71
72.Acryl
72
73.Carboxylic
73
74.Ketone
74
75. 75
Substances
76. 76 which are basis of human life on earth are
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Atom
79
80.Molecules
80
81. 81
Matter
82. 82
83.Organic
83 compounds
84. 84
For complex molecules, a chemist usually represents a molecule by
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
88.Molecular
formula
88
89.Skeletal
89 formula
90.Structural
90 formula
91.B 91
and c
92. 92
93. optical
Two 93 isomers are formed from carbon atoms to create bond
94. 94
Options
95. 95
96.4 96
atoms
97.2 97
atoms
98. 98
1 atom
99. 99
100.3 100
atoms
101. 101
Element
102. 102that is backbone of organic molecules is
103. 103
Options
104. 104
105.Carbon
105
106.Hydrogen
106
107.Oxygen
107
108.All
108
of them
109. 109
110. 110chemistry is the study of
Organic
111. 111
Options
112. 112
113.Any
113compound from any living thing.
114.Carbon-containing
114 compounds that were formed by living things.
115. 115
116.Any
116compound with carbon as the principal element.
117.Noneoftheabove.
117
118. 118
119. 119can form many different compounds because it can
Carbon
120. 120
121. 121
Options
122.Make
122 a molecule in the shape of a cube, tetrahedron, or cylinder.
123. 123
Combine with other carbon atoms in addition to other elements
124. 124
125.Combine
125 with more metals than other elements.
126.Combine
126 with more nonmetals than other elements.
127. 127
A hydrocarbon is an organic compound consisting of
Options
Water and carbon.
Any number of elements as long as they include carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon and hydrogen.
Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
A hydrocarbon with two double covalent bonds between carbon atoms is a (an)
Options
Alkane.
Alkene.
Alkyne.
Aromatic hydrocarbon.
Organic compounds called isomers have
Options
The same molecular formulas but different physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same physical structures.
Different molecular formulas with the same chemical properties.
Noneoftheabove.
The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of octane is
Options
1
2
4
8
Organic compounds called aromatic hydrocarbons are compounds that
Options
Have a wonderful odor.
Are based on the benzene rings structure.
Occur in nature with all carbons bonds saturated
Occur in nature with all carbon bonds unsaturated.
A gasoline mixture of hydrocarbons that burns very rapidly has
Options
A low octane number.
A high octane number.
Many branched chains.
Smaller hydrocarbon molecules.
An organic molecule with a general formula of ROH is a (an)
Options
Ether.
Alcohol.
Organic acid.
Ester.
An organic molecule with a general formula of RCOOH is a (an)
Options
Ester.
Organic acid.
Ketone.
Aldehyde.
The characteristic odor and taste of fruit such as bananas, oranges, and pineapples comes from
certain
Options
Ketones.
Ethers.
Aldehydes.
Esters.
The human body breaks down starches to
Options
Monosaccharides.
Simple sugars.
Glucose.
Any of the above.
The direct reserve source of energy in the muscles of a human is
Options
Glycol.
Glycerol.
Glycogen.
Dextrose.
All proteins are made up of a side chain and
Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Amine.
A nitrogen atom.
Peptide.
Fats and oils are esters formed from three fatty acids and glycerol into a (an)
Options
Alpha-amino acid.
Polysaccharide.
Triglyceride.
Disaccharide.
Which of the following is a polymer?
Options
Cellulose
Polyethylene
Wool
All are polymers
Which of the following is not true about benzene?
Options
It is a dark brown liquid in its natural state.
It does not mix with water.
It has a strong odor.
It can be used as a solvent.
An alkane with 3 carbon atoms would have how many hydrogen atoms in the molecule?
Options
4
6
8
10
The R in R-COOH or R-C=O stands for
Options
A reactive atom.
A separate functional group.
Any hydrocarbon group.
The right side of the molecule.
When wine "goes bad," the ethanol is converted into

Options
CH3COOH.
CH3 OCH3.
CH3CH2OH.
CH3OH.
Which of the following compounds cannot exist?
Options
C2H3
C2H4
C3H8
C4H10
Assuming straight-chain compounds, which of the following will have the highest boiling point?
Options
C3H8
C7H16
C11H24
They all have the same boiling point
Fractional distillation
Options
Is a basic process used in petroleum refining.
Involves heating crude oil and condensing the vapors at different temperatures.
When applied to crude oil can produce such products as gasoline, kerosene, and lubricating oil
stock.
All of the above are true.
Which of the following molecules has the highest carbon to hydrogen ratio?
Options
Ethane
Ethane
Methane
Acetylene
Supporting the idea that the origin of life was the result of natural processes is the fact that
Options
Amino acids and other complex organic molecules have been found in meteorites and comets.
In the laboratory amino acids, fatty acids, nitrogen bases, and other compounds can be formed
under simulated early Earth conditions.
The early Earth had oceans full of chemicals that may have been interacting to form organic
compounds.
All of the above are true.
Which of the following underlined atoms is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond acceptor?
Options
Amide nitrogen (RNHCOR')
Aniline nitrogen (ArNH2)
Amine nitrogen (RNH2)
Carboxylate oxygen (RCO 2-)
Which of the following underlined protons is likely to be the strongest hydrogen bond donor?
Options
Alcohol (ROH)
Amine (RNH2)
Phenol (ArOH)
Ammonium ion (RNH3+)
Which of the following functional groups is most likely to participate in a dipole-dipole

interaction?
Options
Aromatic ring
Ketone
Alcohol
Alkene
Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane
Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
Options
Octane
Heptane
Pentane
Hexane
Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane
Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
Options
Hexane
Heptane
Pentane
Octane
Name the following compounds: CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3
Options
Butane
Heptane
Pentane
Decane
Name the following compounds:
Options
2,3-dimethilhexane
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
2-bromo-2-methylbutane
Options
3-chloro-2,2-dimethylpenthane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane
2,3-dimethylbutane
Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
Options
1-bromo-3-methylpentane
2,3-dimethylbutane
Options
2,3-dimethylbutane
3-methylpentane
Options
3-methylpentane
2-chloro-3-methylhexane

Options
Cis-1-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
3,6-dimethyl-4-octane
Options
Cis-2-butene
2,2-dichloro-3-methylpenten
Trans- 4-ethyl-6-methyl-3-heptahe
Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methilpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methil-3-heptahe
3,3-dimethil-2-octane
Options
Cis-2-butene
2,3-dichloro-4-methylpenthen
Trans- 4-chloro-6-methyl-3-heptahe

Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
3-methyle-4-heptene
Options
4-methil-3-heptyne
1- pentyne
3-methil-2-hexyne
4-chloro-1-butyne
Options
5-methil-3-heptyne
4- pentyne
4-methil-2-hexyne
2-ethyl-3-pentyne
Name the following alcohols.
Options
4-methil-4-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol
Name the following alcohols
Options
4-methil-2-pentanol
2-butanol
1-propanol
2-methil-2-propanol
Name the following aldehydes.
Options
Ethanol
Methanal
2-methylpropanal
Butanal
Name the following aldehydes.
Options
Butanal
2-methylpropanal
Methanol
Ethanol
Special name the following ketones.
Options
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Proryl ketone
Options
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Ethyl methyl ketone
Propyl ketone
Choose the following KETONES.
Options
2-butanon
3-pentanon
3-butanon
2-pentanon
Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
3-butanon
2-butanon
Options
3-pentanon
2-pentanon
4-pentanon
4-pentanon
Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?
Options
C2H2 ;
C2 H4 ;
C3 H6 ;
C3 H8 .
Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?
Options
C2H2;
C2H4;
C5H8;
C5H12.
CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with
thischaracteristic?
Options
Acetylene;
Benzene;
Propane;
Toluene.
A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same
Options
Structural formula;
Number of carbon atoms;
Molecular formula
Number of hydrogen atoms.
The compound C2H2belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula
Options
CnHn;
CnH2n;
CnH2n-2;
CnH2n+2.
The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.
Options
Less than
Greater than
The same as
Greater than or equal to
Two molecules that are isomers:
Options
Must contain the same functional groups
Often differ in the number of unsaturated bonds they possess
Have the same molecular formulas
Often have different masses
In which of the following kinds of organic compounds does a carbon atom bond ONLY to
hydrogen and other carbon atoms?
Options
Carbohydrates
Hydrocarbons
Fatty acids
Lipids
Glycogen is best defined as a:
Options
Storage form of lipids
Polymer of glucose
Storage form of glycerol
Polymer of lactose
Most biologically important atoms attempt to possess _____ electrons in their outermost energy
level
Options
N2
2
8
10
Which molecule does NOT have a polar covalent bond?
Options
H2O
H-Br
H-H
H-F
What chemical family does H2C=C=CH2 belong to?
Options
Alkane
Ether
Alkene
Alkyne
In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, a _______ must bind to the enzyme's______ for the
enzyme to perform its function.
Options
Catalyst; activation energy
Product; catalytic site
Product; active site
Substrate; active site
Which one of the following applies to a basic solution?
Options
High OH-
Low OH-
High H+
H+ = OH-
Which one of the four classes of biologically important molecules does CELLULOSE belong to?
Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Nucleic acids
Lipids
Amino acids are joined during a(n) __________ reaction and a(n) __________bond/linkage is formed.
Options
Hydrolysis; peptide
Condensation; amide
Neutralization; ether
Oxidation; ester
With respect to proteins, the primary structure refers to the:
Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
With respect to proteins, the quaternary structure refers to the:
Options
Helix or pleated sheet pattern of a polypeptide
Complex 3-dimensional folding pattern of a polypeptide
Interaction of more than one polypeptide chain
Ordered sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide
Complete the equation: glucose + fructose
Options
Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose
Cellulose
Which molecule would provide the most glucose upon hydrolysis?
Options
Galactose
Lactose
Starch
Amino acid
An athlete is tested at an Olympic event and STEROIDS are found in the bloodstream. Which class
of biologically important molecules are steroids related to?
Options
Carbohydrates
Nucleic acids
Proteins
Lipids
Glucose + galactose produces:
Options
Lactose
Cellulose
Maltose
Sucrose
If the H from the OH group in CH3-OH is removed and replaced with a METHYL group, what
family will the molecule then belong to?
Options
Ether
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Which of the following is CORRECT for an exergonic reaction?
Options
More activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Less activation energy is needed than for an endergonic reaction
Products have more energy than reactants
Products have less energy than reactants
Hydrolysis is best described as the:
Options
Heating of a compound in order to drive off excess water and concentrate its volume
Breaking of a long-chain compound into subunits by adding water
Linking of two or more molecules by the removal of one or more water molecules
Constant removal of hydrogen atoms from the surface of a carbohydrate
Unlike triglycerides, phospholipid molecules:
Options
Have 1 lipid tail
Have 4 lipid tails
Have 2 lipid tails
Have 3 lipid tails
Which one of the following would convert a liquid fat to a solid fat:
Options
Add heat
Add hydrogen (hydrogenation)
Add carbon
Unsaturate it
Enzymes:
Options
Increase the rate of a chemical reaction
Are always stored in active form
Are always stored in active form
Raise activation energy
The exoskeleton of many insects is made of chitin which is a modified form of:
Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Protein
Nucleic acid
Electrons are shared unequally in a(n) _________ bond.
Options
Non polar covalent
Hydrogen
Ionic
Polar covalent
Myoglobin is an oxygen-carrying molecule in muscle. It consists of just one polypeptide chain.

Myoglobin lacks:
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Quaternary structure
During the formation of the peptide bond which of the following takes place?
Options
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
from its amino group of another amino acid
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
Hydroxyl group is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydroxyl group is lost
Hydrogen atom is lost from its carboxyl group of one amino acid and a hydrogen atom is lost
Peptide bond is a
Options
Covalent bond
Ionic bond
Metallic bond
Hydrogen bond
A tripeptide has
Options
3 amino acids and 1 peptide bond
3 amino acids and 2 peptide bonds
The factor which does not affect pKa value of an amino acid is
Options
The loss of charge in the α-carboxyl and α-amino groups
The interactions with other peptide R groups
Other environmental factors
Molecular weight
The average molecular weight of an amino acid residue in a protein is about
Options
128
118
110
120
Which of the following is not the classified form of conjugated proteins?
Options
Lipoproteins
Glycoproteins
Metalloproteins
Complete proteins
Which part of the amino acid gives it uniqueness?
Options
Amino group
Carboxyl group
Side chain
None
Which of the following information is responsible to specify the three-dimensional shape of a

protein?
Options
The protein’s peptide bond
The protein’s amino acid sequence
The protein’s interaction with other polypeptides
The protein’s interaction with molecular chaperons
Unfolding of a protein can be termed as
Options
Renaturation
Denaturation
Oxidation
Reduction
What are the following is not a factor responsible for denaturation of proteins?
Options
PH change
Organic solvents
Heat
Charge
Which of the following structures is a 20:2 (Δ4,9) fatty acid?
Options
CH3(CH2)9CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)2COOH
CH3(CH2)2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)9COOH
CH3(CH2)10CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CHCH2COOH
CH3CH2CH = CH(CH2)3CH = CH(CH2)10COOH
Which of the following is a characteristic of both triacylglycerols and glycerophospholipids?
Options
Both contain carboxyl groups and are amphipathic
Both contain fatty acids and are saponifiable
Both contain glycerol and ether bonds.
Both can be negatively charged at cellular pH.
Which is a characteristic of all the fatty acid components in this lipid?
Options
They all contain an unbranched carbon chain.
They all contain unconjugated cis double bonds.
They all are joined to glycerol through an ester bond.
They all are hydrophilic because they contain oxygen.
Based on its structural similarity to other lipids, this lipid most likely functions as
Options
A membrane component.
An energy storage molecule.
A sex hormone.
A vitamin required for vision. The structure of an animal cell membrane is analyzed.
Which would be a property of all the major types of lipids in this membrane?
Options
They would be saponifiable in base and hydrolyzed in acid.
They would have polar heads and non-polar tails.
They would be composed of five-carbon units.
They would be joined to each other through covalent bonds.
A molecule that has a partial positive charge on one side and a partial negative charge on the
other side is called a(n)
Options
Nonpolar molecule.
Charged molecule.
Polar molecule.
Ion.
Which of the following is not a large biomolecule?
Options
Carbohydrate
Lipid
Ice
Nucleic acid
All of the following are examples of lipids except
Options
Oil.
Steroids.
Starch.
Candle wax.
Which molecules are most closely related to lipids?
Options
Amino acids
Fatty acids
Nucleotides
Sugars
The building blocks of most biomolecules contain the element
Options
Carbon.
Calcium.
Nitrogen.
Sodium.
Which of the following molecules are classified as carbohydrates?
Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars
Polysaccharides are
Options
Carbohydrates.
Proteins.
Lipids
Nucleic acids.
Which of the following is a carbohydrate?
Options
ATP
Steroid
Wax
Sucrose
Which of the following molecules are most closely related to proteins?
Options
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
Sugars
Long chains of amino acids are found in
Options
Carbohydrates.
Lipids.
Proteins.
Sugars.
The two types of nucleic acids are
Options
RNA and ATP.
DNA and RNA. .
DNA and ATP.
Nucleotides and ATP
Which of the following molecules are most closely related to nucleic acids?
Options
Amino acids
Nucleotides
Fats
Sugars
Which of the following is not part of a nucleotide in a DNA molecule?
Options
Three phosphate groups
A base
A sugar
A phosphate group
The molecule on which an enzyme acts is called a(n)
Options
Active site.
Polar molecule.
Inactive site.
Substrate.
Ionic bonds form between particles that have
Options
Opposite charges.
No charges.
The same charge.
Neutral charges.
Attractions between water molecules are called
Options
Covalent bonds.
Polar bonds.
Ionic bonds.
Hydrogen bonds.
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Question (1/5)
Number of dative bonds to central metal ion is its

Options
Oxidation number
Compound number
Co-ordination number
Dative number
Ions which are produced from ligands are
Options
Cation
Anion
Complex ion
Allofthem
Different ions will split up by different compounds to given of
Options
Same colored complexes
PrevDifferent colored complexes
SkipSame density complexes
NextSame temperature complexes
Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to transition metal ion
are known as
Options
Ligands ions
Dentate ligands
Monodentate ligands
Bidentate ligands
Due to ligands' action of splitting color of transition metal compound, this change occurs at
Options
S-orbital
D-orbital
P-orbital
F-orbital
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Question
23. 23 (1/102)
24. 24
Mathematical
25. 25 expression of the Mass fraction
26. 26
Options
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Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration
44. 44
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Options
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Prev
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Skip
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Next
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Mathematical
62. 62 expression of the molar concentration equivalent
Options
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Mathematical
80. 80 expression of the Molal concentration
81. 81
Options
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97. 97
98. 98of the following species is formed in the second step of the ionization of the triprotic acid
Which
99. 99
H3PO4?
100. 100
101. 101
Options
102. 102
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3, 3-dimethylpentane
Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 3-ethyl-2-methylhexane
Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 1, 2-dichloro-3-methylheptane

Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 2,3-dimethylpentane
Options
Write the condensed structure for the following compounds: 4-methyl-4-ethyldecane
Options
Draw the structures for the following compounds: 2-chloro-3-methyl-2-butene
Options
Draw the structures for the following compounds: trans-3,4-dimethyl-2-penten
Options
Draw the structures for the following compounds: cis-3,4,6-trimethyl-3-heptene
Options
Draw the following alkynes.4-chloro-2-pentyne
Options
Draw the following alkynes. 3-propyl-1-hexyne
Options
Draw the following alkynes.1,4-dibromo-2-pentyne
Options
Draw the following alcohols. 4-methil-2-pentanol
Options
Draw the following alcohols. 2-methil-2-propanol
Options
Find the following aldehydes. 2-methylpropanal
Options
Options
Ethyl methyl ketone
Diethyl ketone
Acetone
Propyl ketone
Which of the following is propan-1-ol?
Options
Which is the correct name for
Options
2-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol

Options
3-chlorobutan-3-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol
3-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-2-ol
Options
Propan-2-ol
Butan-2-ol
Propanol
Butanol
Options
Ethoxyethane
Methoxyethane
Ethoxybuthane
Methoxymethane
Which of the following is 3-methylpentan-2-ol?
Options
Which of the following is ethoxyethane?
Options
Choose correct units for rate of chemical reaction:
Options
Mol/1*sec
Sec/mol*l
L/mol*sec
Mol/j*l
For 5 seconds molar concentration of substance A changed from 3,15mol/l to 3,00 mol/l. Find
average rate of reaction for A.
Options
0,01mol/l*sec
0,02mol/l*sec
0,03mol/l*sec
0,04mol/l*sec
For certain reaction, reaction rate is 0,0012 mol/l*sec. In mol/l*min rate of this reaction will be:
Options
2*10⁻⁵
4*10⁻⁵
0,072
0,036
Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes under constant pressure, is
0,03 mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 2,0mol/l. Find time of reaction, if final concentration of
A is 0,8mol/l
Options
10
20
30
40
Average reaction rate of homogeneous reaction A + B = AB, that goes in constant volume, is
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,6mol/l. Find time of reaction, if A completely expends.
Options
40
30
20
10
0,04mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of AB is 1,8mol/l. Find time of reaction, when AB concentration
will be 2,2mol/l.
Options
40
30
20
10
Choose the following aldehydes. ethanal
Options
Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?
Options
Options
Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?
Options
Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?
Options
Options
2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol
2-methoxy-1-methylpropane
Options
Options
Options
Butanol
Propanol
Propan-1-ol
Butan-1-ol
Options
Options
1-chlorobutan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-2-ol
4-chlorobutan-2-ol
2-chlorobutan-3-ol
Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?
Options
Options
3-chlorobutan-1-ol
3-chloropropan-1-ol
1-chloropropan-3-ol
1-chlorobutan-3-ol
Which of the following is 2-methylpropan-2-ol?
Options
Which molecule is formaldehyde?
Options
Which molecule is 2- butanone?
Options
Which molecule is propanal?
Options
Which molecule is acetone?
Options
Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?
Options
Ethyl methyl acetone
Methyl propyl ketone
3-hexanone
Propyl methyl ketone
Which molecule is a ketone?
Options
Which molecule is an aldehyde?
Options
What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown?
Options
4-heptanone
2- methyl -3- hexanone
3-heptanone
Isopropyl n-propyl ketone
An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is
Options
Weakly acidic
Weakly basic
Strongly acidic
Neither acidic nor basic
Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?
Options
Functional Group of Aromatic compounds:
Options
Nail polish remover contains ?
Options
Benzene
Acetic acid
Acetone
Petroleum ether
The isotope atoms differ in ?
Options
Number of protons
Atomic number
Number of electrons
Atomic weight
Which is also called Stranger Gas ?
Options
Xenon
Neon
Argon
Nitrous oxide
The chemical used as a fixer in photography is ?
Options
Sodium thio sulphate
Sodium sulphate
Borax
Ammonium sulphate
Water drops are spherical because of ?
Options
Viscosity
Density
Polarity
Surface tension
Xide of Nitrogen used in medicine as anaesthetic is ?
Options
Nitrogen pentoxide
Nitrous oxide
Nitric oxide
Nitrogen dioxide
Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen?
Options
Cadmium
Lithium
Potassium
Sodium
The most electronegative element among the following is
Options
Sodium
Bromine
Fluorine
Oxygen
The metal used to recover copper from a solution of copper sulphate is ?
Options
Na
Ag
Hg
Fe
The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called ?
Options
Roasting
Calcinations
Smelting
Froth floatation
Which of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog ?
Options
Nitrogen oxides
Hydrocarbons
Methane
Ozone
The gas used for artificial ripening of green fruit is ?
Options
Ethane
Ethylene
Carbon dioxide
Acetylene
The main chemical constituent of clay is ?
Options
Aluminium silicate
Zeolites
Aluminium borosilicate
Silicon oxide
Sugars are converted in the liver into
Options
Glycogen
Vitamin
Monosaccharide
None of above
Which of the following gases is the most toxic?
Options
Carbon dioxide
Sulphur dioxide
Carbon monoxide
Acetic acid
Which of the following elements behave chemically both as a metal and a non metal?
Options
Boron
Carbon
Argon
Mercury
How many different oxides are formed by nitrogen ?
Options
Two
Three
Four
Five
The major component used in preparation of different types of glasses is :

Options
Sodium borate
Sodium silicate
Silica
Calcium silicate
What is metallurgy ?
Options
Process of extracting metal in pure form from its ore.
Process of creating alloys of metals.
Process of making metals live long.
None of above.
0,02mol/l*sec. Initial concentration of A is 1,2mol/l. Find concentration of A after 10 seconds.
Options
0.4 mol/l
0.6 mol/l
0.8 mol/l
1.0 mol/l
Which have maximum number of isotopes ?
Options
Bromine
Aluminium
Polonium
Carbon
Which prefix is often used with scientific terms to indicate that something is the same, equal or
constant
Options
Iso
Mega
Meta
Quasi
Select the one which is not a mixture
Options
Air
Gasoline
LPG
Distilled water
Which one of the following best defines the word “allotropes”?

Options
Different structural forms of an element
A pair of substances that differ by H+
Elements that possess properties intermediate between those of metals and non-metals
Atoms of a given atomic number that have a specific number of neutrons
What is the formula of the compound formed between magnesium and oxygen?
Options
MgO
Mg2O2
Mg2O3
MgO2
Which one of the following statements concerning elements in the Periodic Table is correct?
Options
Elements of the same group all have the same number of electrons in the outermost occupied
electron shell.
Elements of Group 16 occur as cations in ionic compounds.
Oxides of elements in Groups 16 and 17 are basic.
The halogens (Group 17) are all gases at room temperature.
Which one of the following substances will form strong hydrogen bonds?
Options
HCOOH
CH3CN
CCl4
SiH4
Which one of the following statements regarding a catalyst is not correct?
Options
An enzyme is a catalyst that only binds certain substrates.
An enzyme is a protein that is a highly efficient catalyst for one or more chemical reactions in
a living system.
Catalysts increase the rate of a reaction by altering the mechanism, thereby increasing the
activation energy.
An enzyme is a catalyst
What happens when a catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium?
Options
The reaction follows an alternative pathway of lower activation energy.
The heat of reaction decreases.
The potential energy of the reactants decreases.
The potential energy of the products decreases.
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Question
23. 23 (1/27)
24. 24
Number
25. 25 of hydrogen bonds between adenine and thymine?
26. 26
Options
27. 27
1
2
3
4
Number of hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine?
Options
1
2
3
4
Which of the following statements is not true about RNA?
Options
Does not have a double stranded structure
PrevThymine is present
SkipDoes not obey Chargaff’s rule
NextThe sugar contained in RNA is a ribose
Which of the following is the general formula for an alcohol?
Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’
Which of the following is the general formula for a phenol (alcohol on a benzene ring)?
Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’
Which of the following is a general formula for ether?
Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’
Which of the following is a general formula for an amine?
Options
Ar—OH
R—NH2
R—OH
R—O—R’
What class of compound has the following general formula: Ar—C(=O)—H?
Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone
What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—R’?
Options
Aldehyde
Alkene
Carboxylic acid
Ketone
What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—OH?
Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone
What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—O—R’?
Options
Aldehyde
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Ketone
What class of compound has the following general formula: R—C(=O)—NH2?
Options
Aldehyde
Amide
Amine
Carboxylic acid
What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–OH?
Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether
What class of compound is the following: C6H5–OH?
Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether
What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH3?
Options
Organic halide
Alcohol
Phenol
Ether
What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–NH2?
Options
Organic halide
Amine
Phenol
Ether
What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–H?
Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is the following: CH3–CH2–C(=O)–CH2–CH3?
Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–OH?
Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is the following: H–C(=O)–NH2?
Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is methanol?
Options
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
Alcohol
What class of compound is butanal?
Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is methyl propanoate?
Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is butanone?
Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
What class of compound is ethanamide?
Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Amide
Ester
What class of compound is dopamine?
Options
Aldehyde
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Amine
How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the allene molecule, H2CCCH2?
Options
Six σ bonds and two π bonds
Two σ bonds and six π bonds
Four σ bonds and four π bonds
Eight σ bonds and no π bonds
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Question
23. 23 (1/128)
24. 24
Lipids
25. 25provide insulation against cold and hot weather to exoskeleton of insects in form of
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Cutin
28
29.Waxes
29
30.Cholesterol
30
31.Oil
31
32. 32
33. 33 number of carbon atoms in chain results in higher
Greater
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.Melting
36 point
37. 37
Boiling point
38. 38
39.Freezing
39 oint
40.Stability
40
41. 41
Derivatives
42. 42 of phosphatidic acid, which are composed of glycerol, fatty acids and phosphoric acids
are known
43. 43 as
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.Phospholipids
Prev 46
47. 47
SkipAcylghycerols
48. 48
NextTriglycerides
49. 49
Esters
50. 50
In51. 51 diet, all cholesterol comes from
human
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Animal
54 products
55. 55
56.Vegetable
products
56
57.Both
57 A and B
58.None
58 of these
59. 59
Condensed
60. 60 structural formula of Palmitic acid is
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
63
64.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
64
65. 65
66.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
66
67.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
67
68. 68
Condensed
69. 69 structural formula of Caproic acid is
70. 70
Options
71. 71
72.CH3-CH2-CH2-COOH
72
73.CH3-(CH2)4-COOH
73
74.CH3-(CH2)14-COOH
74
75.CH3-(CH2)16-COOH
75
76. 76
77. 77 state of fat at room temperature is
Physical
78. 78
79. 79
Options
80.Solid
80
81. 81
Liquid
82. 82
83.Gas
83
Plasma
84. 84
85. 85
Which
86. 86of following protects our heart and kidneys from injury?
87. 87
Options
88. 88
89.Skin
89
90.Muscles
90
91.Lubricants
91
92.Fat
92
93. 93
94. 94of the following is required for crystallization and storage of the hormone insulin?
Which
95. 95
96. 96
Options
97.Mn++
97
98. 98
Mg++
99. 99
100.Ca++
100
101.Zn++
101
102. 102
Oxidation
103. 103 of which substance in the body yields the most calories
104. 104
Options
105. 105
106.Glucose
106
107.Glycogen
107
108.Protein
108
109. 109
Lipids
110. 110
111. is
Milk 111deficient in which vitamins?
112. 112
113. 113
Options
114.Vitamin
114 C
115. 115
116.Vitamin
116 A
117.Vitamin
117 B2
118. 118
119.Vitamin
119 K
120. 120
Milk is deficient of which mineral?
121. 121
122. 122
Options
123. 123
Phosphorus
124. 124
125.Sodium
125
126.Iron
126
127.Potassium
127
128. 128
Which one is the heaviest particulate component of the cell?
Options
Nucleus
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Golgi apparatus
Which one is the largest particulate of the cytoplasm?
Options
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Golgi apparatus
Entoplasmic reticulum
The average pH of Urine is
Options
7.0
6.0
8.0
0.0
The phenomenon of osmosis is opposite to that of
Options
Diffusion
Effusion
Affusion
Coagulation
The key enzyme in the regulation of fatty acid synthesis is
Options
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
AMP activated proteinkinase
Proteinphosphatase
None of these
Arachidonate has 20 carbon atoms with
Options
3 doublebonds
2 doublebonds
4 doublebonds
8 doublebonds
Fatty acid synthesis takes place in
Options
Mitochondria
Cellmembrane
Cytosol
Endoplasmicreticulum
Atherosclerosis can cause blood
Options
Thinning
Clotting
Thickening
Noneofthese
Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with
Options
2 double bonds
3 double bonds
One double bond
None of these
How many ATPs are formed during complete oxidation of palmitate?
Options
35
96
129
131
Humans are unable to digest
Options
Starch
Complex carbohydrates
Denatured proteins
Cellulose
Saliva contains all of the following except
Options
Hormones
Amylase
Bacteria-killingenzymes
Antibodies
Storage polysaccharide made by animals is
Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen
The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is
Options
Ribose
Galactose
Mannose
Maltose
Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to
Options
Phosphoenolpyruvate
AcetylCoA
Lactate
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
Which of the following is not a disaccharide?
Options
Amylose
Cellobiose
Lactose
Noneofthese
Which substance is an electrolyte?
Options
CH3OH
C6H12O6
H2O
KOH
Which compound has both ionic and covalent bonding?
Options
CaCO3
CH2C12
CH3OH
C6H12O6
Which element is composed of molecules that each contain a multiple covalent bond?
Options
Chlorine
Fluorine
Hydrogen
Nitrogen
As a bond between a hydrogen atom and a sulfur atom is formed, electrons are
Options
Shared to form an ionic bond
Shared to form a covalent bond
Transferred to form an ionic bond
Transferred to form a covalent bond
What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that a carbon atom can form?
Options
1
3
2
4
Which type of bond is found between atoms of solid cobalt?
Options
Nonpolar covalent
Polar covalent
Metallic
Ionic
Which formula represents a nonpolar molecule containing polar covalent bonds?
Options
H2O
CCl4
NH3
H2
Which formula represents a polar molecule?

Options
H2
H2O
CO2
CCL4
Two hydrogen atoms form a hydrogen molecule when
Options
One atom loses a valence electron to the other atom
One atom shares four electrons with the other atom
The two atoms collide and both atoms gain energy
The two atoms collide with sufficient energy to form a bond
Which statement describes a chemical change?
Options
Alcohol evaporates.
Water vapor forms snowflakes.
Table salt (NaCl) is crushed into powder.
Glucose (C6H12O6) and oxygen produce CO2 and H2O.
Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H2(g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl(g) + energy Which
statement describes the energy changes in this reaction?
Options
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, only.
Energy is released as bonds are broken, only.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are broken, and energy is released as bonds are formed.
Energy is absorbed as bonds are formed, and energy is released as bonds are broken.
What occurs in order to break the bond in a Cl2 molecule?
Options
Energy is absorbed.
Energy is released.
The molecule creates energy.
The molecule destroys energy.
Which atom has the least attraction for the electrons in a bond between that atom and an atom of
hydrogen?
Options
Carbon
Nitrogen
Oxygen
Fluorine
Which compound has the least ionic character?

Options
KCl
CaCl2
AlCl3
CCl4
Which kind of compound generally results when nonmetal atoms chemically combine with metal
atoms?
Options
Hydrogen
Ionic
Covalent
Metallic
As sodium reacts with fluorine to form the compound NaF, each sodium atom will
Options
Gain 1 electron
Gain 2 electrons
Lose 1 electron
Lose 2 electrons
Which formula correctly represents the compound calcium hydroxide?
Options
CaOH
Ca2OH
CaOH2
Ca(OH)2
A substance has a high melting point and conducts electricity in the liquid phase. This substance is
Options
Ne
Hg
NaCl
SiC
A substance that does not conduct electricity as a solid but does conduct electricity when melted is
most likely classified as
Options
An ionic compound
A molecular compound
A metal
A nonmetal
Which formula represents a molecular solid?

Options
NaCl(s)
C6H12O6(s)
Cu(s)
KF(s)
What occurs when a coordinate covalent bond is formed between nitrogen and hydrogen in the
ammonium ion, NH4 + ?
Options
Hydrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with nitrogen.
Nitrogen provides a pair of electrons to be shared with hydrogen.
Hydrogen transfers a pair of electrons to nitrogen.
Nitrogen transfers a pair of electrons to hydrogen.
Which type of bond would be formed when a hydrogen ion (H+ ) reacts with an ammonia
molecule (NH3)?
Options
A coordinate covalent bond
A nonpolar covalent bond
A metallic bond
An ionic bond
Which element has a crystalline lattice composed of positive ions through which electrons flow
freely?
Options
Bromine
Calcium
Carbon
Sulfur
The high electrical conductivity of metals is primarily due to
Options
High ionization energies
Filled energy levels
Mobile electrons
High electronegativities
Which is an example of a network solid?
Options
SiC(s)
CO2(s)
AgNO3(s)
Ag(s)
Which compound is a network solid?

Options
SiO2
Na2O
H2O
CO2
Which compound is a poor conductor of heat and electricity and has a high melting point?
Options
SiO2
CO2
H2O
N2O
Which combination of atoms can form a polar covalent bond?
Options
H and Br
H and H
N and N
Na and Br
Which type of bond is formed between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom in CH3OH?
Options
Ionic
Electrovalent
Polar covalent
Nonpolar covalent
In a nonpolar covalent bond, electrons are
Options
Shared equally by two atoms
Shared unequally by two atoms
Transferred from one atom to another
Located in a mobile "sea" shared by many atoms
Which substance is correctly paired with its type of bonding?
Options
NaBr–nonpolar covalent
HCl–nonpolar covalent
NH3–polar covalent
Br2–polar covalent
Hexane (C6H14) and water do not form a solution. Which statement explains this phenomenon?
Options
Hexane is polar and water is nonpolar.
Hexane is ionic and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is polar.
Hexane is nonpolar and water is ionic.
Which formula represents a polar molecule?
Options
Br2
CO2
CH4
NH3
Which of the following is the correct formula for propene?
Options
C4H10
C3H8
C4H8
C3H6
Which of these is the formula for an alkyne?
Options
C15H30
C10H18
C20H42
C30H64
Which of the following compounds has only single bonds?
Options
Octene
C3H4
C7H16
Decyne
Which of these is the formula for an alkene?
Options
C13H26
C19H36
C50H102
C14H30
Which of the following compounds does NOT exist?
Options
Acetylene
Methene
Nonyne
Cyclopentane
Acetylene is best described as
Options
The simplest alkyne.
An alkene with two carbon atoms.
An alkyne containing only one carbon atom.
More than one of the above
The formula for butane is
Options
C3H8
C4H10
C4H8
C3H10
Which of these is NOT an isomer of 2-heptene?
Options
1-heptene
Cycloheptane
3-heptene
2-heptyne
Ethanol is sometimes called
Options
Ethyl alcohol
Isopropyl alcohol
Butanol
Ethane
Which of these alcohols is incorrectly matched with its name?
Options
C7H15OH - heptanol
C10H21OH - decanol
C8H15OH - octanol
C9H19OH - nonyl alcohol
The general formula of monosaccharides is
Options
CnH2nOn
C2nH2On
CnH2O2n
CnH2nO2n
The general formula of polysaccharides is
Options
(C6H10O5)n
(C6H12O5)n
(C6H10O6)n
(C6H10O6)n
The aldose sugar is
Options
Glycerose
Ribulose
Erythrulose
Dihydoxyacetone
A triose sugar is
Options
Glycerose
Ribose
Erythrose
Fructose
A pentose sugar is
Options
Dihydroxyacetone
Ribulose
Erythrose
Glucose
The pentose sugar present mainly in the heart muscle is
Options
Lyxose
Ribose
Arabinose
Xylose
Vitamin C is required for the production and maintenance of:
Options
Collagen
Hormone
Ascorbic Acid
Red Blood Cells
Vitamin C deficiency is leads to:
Options
Scurvy
Cold
Cancer
Rickets
Which of the following is a function of Vitamin A in the body?
Options
Vision, bone and body growth
Immune defenses, maintenance of body linings and skin
Normal cell development and reproduction
All of the above
Common food sources of Vitamin A are:
Options
Milk, eggs, butter, cheese, cream, and liver
White sugar, honey, and sugar cane
Broccoli, apricots, cantaloupe, carrots, sweet potato, spinach
Both A and C
Vitamin B-12 deficiency caused by lack of intrinsic factor is called:
Options
Pernicious anemia
Poor circulation of the red blood cells
Beri Beri
None of the above
What groups of people need additional Vitamin K?
Options
Premature newborns
People who do not have enough bile to absorb fat
Both A and B
None of the above answers
The vitamin Folate works together with to produce new red blood cells.
Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B-12
None of the above
Which of the following is not a water soluble vitamin?

Options
Tocopherol
Pyridoxine
Pantothenic acid
Niacin
Which of the following is not a Fat-soluble vitamin?
Options
Calciferol
Retinoids
Tocopherol
Ascorbic acid
Which of the following Vitamin is also called as Pyridoxine?
Options
Vitamin B5
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B2
Which of the following is not included in fat soluble vitamins?
Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin B
How many types of vitamins are there?
Options
Two
Three
Four
Five
Which of the following statements is true about a peptide bond (RCONHR')?
Options
It is non planar.
It is capable of forming a hydrogen bond.
The cis configuration is favoured over the trans configuration.
Single bond rotation is permitted between nitrogen and the carbonyl
Which of the following statements is untrue about protein secondary structure?
Options
The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and beta turns are examples of protein secondary
structure.
The ability of peptide bonds to form intramolecular hydrogen bonds is important to secondary
structure
The steric influence of amino acid residues is important to secondary structure.
The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character of amino acid residues is important to secondary
structure.
Identify which of the following terms refers to the arrangement of different protein subunits in a
multiprotein complex.
Options
Primarystructure
Secondarystructure
Tertiarystructure
Quaternarystructure
Identify which of the following terms refers to the overall three dimensional shape of a protein.
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid serine.
Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above
Identify the strongest form of intermolecular bonding that could be formed involving the residue
of the amino acid valine.
Options
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals interactions
None of the above
What type of ring structure is present in structures A and B?

Options
Quinoline
Purine
Naphthalene
Pyrimidine
What type of structures are the compounds (i) - (iv)?
Options
Nucleic acids
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Deoxyriboses
On which of the following molecules would you find a codon?
Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA
On which of the following molecules would you find an anticodon?
Options
Messenger RNA
Ribosomal RNA
Transfer RNA
Small nuclear RNA
The amino acid that has hydrocarbon branch chain is:
Options
Lysine
Cysteine
Glutamic acid
Valine
Which of the following substances can give diesters:
Options
Lysine
Serine
Glycine
Alanine
Serine is:
Options
A monoamino–monocarboxylic aromatic acid
A monoamino–dicarboxylic acid
A diamino–monocarboxylic acid
A hydroxylated amino acid
In phosphorproteins, the phosphoric acid is bound to hydroxyl groups by bonds of type:
Options
Ether
Ionic
Carbonyl
Ester
The number of water molecules, eliminated when a molecule of heptapeptide is formed, is:
Options
5
6
7
8
The following substance contains 3 oxygen atoms in the molecule:
Options
Glycine
Valine
Lysine
Cysteine
Regarding pH, the following statement is true:
Options
When mixing an acid and a base, the mixture that results has the pH = 14.
The sum of pH values of substances in a solution is always equal to 14.
The add of small quantities of acid or base to a buffer solution does not change significantly its
pH.
The solution of a weak acid has high values of pH.
Regarding pH, the following statement is true:
Options
It is a parameter characterizing the strength of an acid or a base.
It is a characteristic of each acid or base.
It is a measure of the concentration of H in an aqueous solution.
It has different values if the substance is solid or gaseous.
Acids are chemical species able to:
Options
Give molecules
Give atoms
Give protons
Give molecular hydrogen
The formic acid has the following characteristic chemical property, unlike the other saturated
carboxylic acids:
Options
Is the weakest acid
Has reducing character
Has oxidant character
Sublimates easily
With Tollens reagent, aldehydes suffer a reaction of:
Options
Oxidation
Hydrogenation
Reduction
Condensation
What can result by the reduction of a ketone?
Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – ketone
What can result by the reduction of an aldehyde?
Options
A primary alcohol
A secondary alcohol
A carboxylic acid
A compound with a mixed function alcohol – aldehyde
Which of the following compounds reacts with an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide?
Options
Methane
Propanol
Phenol
Benzene
Which of the following is a branched chain hydrocarbon?
Options
Ethene
2-methyl-2-butene
2-butene
2-pentene
The linear alkanes cannot participate to reactions of:
Options
Addition
Dehydrogenation
Oxidation
Substitution
Which of the following substances: (I) naphthalene, (II) ethanol, (III) triolein, (IV) glucose, (V)
amylopectin, (VI) glutamic acid, does not dissolve in water?
Options
I, III, VI
I, III, V
II, IV, IV
I, IV
The separating process of the components of a mixture, based on the differences between the
boiling points of the components, is possible by:
Options
Extraction
Distillation
Sublimation
Crystallization
The separation process of a solid component of a mixture, based on its property to pass through
heating direct from the solid phase into the gaseous phase, without melting, is called:
Options
Crystallization
Decantation
Sublimation
Distillation
Which of the following substances presents only primary carbon atoms in its structure?
Options
Methane
Acetylene
Ethane
Propane
How many secondary carbon atoms contain the following hydrocarbon chain? СН3-СН2- СН2-
СН2- СН3
Options
N=5
N=3
N=0
N=2
The combustion of a hydrocarbon will produce mandatory:
Options
SO2
CO2
CO
SO3
Which one of the following will exhibit highest osmotic pressure at 25°C?
Options
KCl
Glucose.
Urea.
Calcium chloride.
Unit of molarity is:
Options
Kg / litre.
Mol / litre.
Gm / litre.
None of these.
Two solutions C and D are separated by a semi-permeable membrane. If liquid flows from D to C
then.
Options
Both have same concentration.
D is less concentrated than C.
D is more concentrated than C.
None of these.
When sugar is added to water, what is the change observed in boiling and freezing points of
water?
Options
Both boiling point and freezing point decreases.
Both boiling point and freezing point increases.
Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases.
Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases.
When a solute is dissolved in water it shows:
Options
Decrease in freezing point of water.
Decrease in boiling point of water.
Increase in vapour pressure of water.
All of the above.
The boiling point of Benzene, Ethanol, Octane and Pentane are 80°C, 78°C, 126°C and 36°C
respectively. Which of the following will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature.
Options
Benzene.
Octane.
Pentane.
Entahol.
Molecular weight of non-volatile and soluble solute can be determined by:
Options
Elevation of boiling point.
Depression in freezing point.
Lowering of vapour pressure.
Osmotic pressure.
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Question (1/6)
Which can act as buffer?
Options
NH4 Cl + HCl
CH3 COOH + H2 CO3
40ml of 0.1M NaCN + 20ml of 0.1M HCN
NaCl + NaOH
NaCl and 1M HCl are present in an aqueous solution. The solution is
Options
Not a buffer solution with pH < 7
Not a buffer solution with pH > 7
A buffer solution with pH < 7
A buffer solution with pH > 7
For an acid buffer solution the pH is 3. The pH can be increased by
Options
Increasing the concentration of salt
PrevIncreasing the concentration of acid
SkipDecreasing the concentration of salt
NextIndependent of concentration of acid & salt
Which of the following does not react with water?
Options
Barium
Calcium
Beryllium
Strontium
Which among the following statements is true about the following chemical reaction? 3Fe(s) + 4H2
O → Fe3 O4 (s) + 4H2
Options
Iron metal is getting reduced
Water is acting as a reducing agent
Water is acting as an oxidizing agent
Water is getting oxidized
Identify the products formed in the following reaction CH3 COOCH3 + H2 O → A + B
Options
CH3 COOH and CH3 OH
CH3 COOOH and CH4
CO2 and C2 H6
No reaction
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Question
21. 21 (1/25)
22. 22
How
23. might
23 solid sodium carbonate be obtained from sodium carbonate solution?
24. 24
Options
25. 25
Centrifugation
Filtration
Evaporation
It cannot be extracted
What is the best description of blood?
Options
Sol
Foam
Solution
Aerosol
A suspension is formed from uniform particles of solid, of diameter 10 Mm, suspended in a

solvent. What is the best description of this system?
Prev
Options
Skip
Monodisperse and coarse
Next
Monodisperse and colloidal
Polydisperse and coarse
Polydisperse and colloidal
Which one of the following dispersions does not have liquid continuous phase?
Options
Nanosuspension
Microemulsion
Gel
Foam
Which one of the following systems has the smallest sized domains in its dispersed phase?
Options
Nanoemulsion
Coarse suspension
Coarse emulsion
Microemulsion
Which of the following sequences correctly describes the change in domain structure as more oil
is added to a water-in-oil emulsion?
Options
Bicontinuous, spherical, cylinder-like
Spherical, cylinder-like, bicontinuous
Spherical, bicontinuous, cylinder-like
Cylinder-like, spherical, bicontinuous
Which method for the production of dispersions involves the formation of particles from
materials dissolved in true solutions?
Options
Bottom-up
Top-down
Milling
High pressure homogenization
The scattering of light by coarse and colloidal dispersed systems is known as?
Options
Contrast matching
DLVO theory
Tyndall effect
Creaming
Which of the following is not a mechanism for the separation of a physically unstable suspension
of magnesium hydroxide in water?
Options
Flocculation
Aggregation
Ostwald ripening
Hydrolysis
In the DLVO theory of colloids, normal thermal motion may be sufficient to overcome the energy
barrier that leads to irreversible particle aggregation. The name of this energy barrier is which
one of the following?
Options
Primary maximum
Secondary maximum
Primary minimum
Secondary minimum
One of following substances that belongs to colloid system is....

Options
Milk
Mineral water
Vinegar
Salty water
Dispersed phase and dispersing medium of smoke are..
Options
Solid in liquid
Liquid in solid
Solid in gas
Gas in solid
Margarine is a colloid system of...
Options
Foam
Emulsion
Aerosol
Solid emulsion
Light scattering in colloid system is known as..
Options
Brownian Motion
Tyndall Effect
Coagulation
Electrophoresis
These following things are colloid properties, except...
Options
Composed of 2 phase
Stable
Homogeneous
Can be filtered
An _________ is a sol with the continuous phase a gas. Fog is an _________ of water droplets.
Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis
An _________ is a sol in which the suspended particles are liquid droplets and the continuous phase
is also a liquid. The 2 phases are immiscible, otherwise a solution would form.
Options
Aerosol
Emulsion
Agglomerate
Electrophoresis
A _________ is a sol of solid particles scattered in a liquid. Foam is a colloidal system in which gas
bubbles dispersed in a liquid or solid.
Options
Streaming potential
Electrophoresis
The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles with
each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
Options
Magnitude
Shape
Surface
Size
Is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the stationary liquid
induced by an external field.
Options
Emulsion
Electrophoresis
Is the charged field generated by charged particles moving in a stationary liquid.
Options
Emulsion
Electrophoresis
Is the generation of an electric field by locomotion of the liquid along stationary charged surfaces.
Options
Streaming potential
Electrophoresis
Emulsion is:
Options
Butter;
River ooze;
Stained glass;
Textile fabrics.
Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to
Options
Prevent making of a colloid
Stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization
Stabilize the mixture
Enrich the aroma
Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of
Options
Liquid dispersed in gas
Gas dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in gas
Solid dispersed in liquid
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23. 23 (1/46)
24. 24
Amount
25. 25 of amino acid residues in proteins ranges from
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.50-2000
28
29.2000-4000
29
30.4000-6000
30
31.7000-10,000
31
32. 32
33. 33
Polar amino acids are usually found
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.On36surface of proteins
37. 37
Inside core of proteins
38. 38
39.At39sides of proteins
40.Can
40 be present anywhere in proteins
41. 41
Sulfur
42. 42atom of cysteine is involved in formation of
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Sulfide
45 group
46.Sulfhydryl
Prev 46 group
SkipSulfite group
NextSulphates
Number of amino acids that have hydrophobic side chains are
Options
7
8
9
10
Bond formed between two amino acid molecules is
Options
Peptide bond
Sulfur linkage
Ionic bond
Coordinate covalent bond
A mutation has changed an isoleucine residue of a protein to Glutamic acid, which statement best
describes its location in a hydrophilic exterior
Options
On the surface since it is hydrophilic in nature
In side the core of the protein since it is hydrophobic in nature
Any where inside or outside
Inside the core of protein since it has a polar but uncharged side chain
Glycine and proline are the most abundant amino acids in the structure of
Options
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Insulin
Collagen 3- Some proteins contain
Which out of the following amino acids carries a net positive charge at the physiological pH ?
Options
Valine
Leucine
Isoleucine
None of the followings
Mother of a mal nourished child has been instructed to include a complete protein in diet for her
child, which out of the followings proteins should be recommended?
Options
Pulses
Wheat
Soy Protein
Milk
All of the below mentioned amino acids can participate in hydrogen bonding except one
Options
Serine
Cysteine
Threonine
Valine
Which out of the followings is not a fibrous protein?
Options
Carbonic anhydrase
Collagen
Fibrinogen
Keratin
Which one of the following amino acids may be considered a hydrophobic amino acid at
physiological p H of 7.4
Options
Isoleucine
Arginine
Aspartic acid
Threonine
Which of the characteristics below apply to amino acid Glycine?
Options
Optically inactive
Hydrophilic, basic and charged
Hydrophobic
Hydrophilic, acidic and charged
Which of the amino acids below is the uncharged derivative of an acidic amino acid?
Options
Cystine
Tyrosine
Glutamine
Serine
Choose the correct category for milk protein casein out of the followings
Options
Nucleoprotein
Phosphoprotein
Lipoprotein
Glycoprotein
Which of the following statements about amino acids is correct?
Options
Amino acids are classified according to the structures and properties of their side chains.
Amino acids are uncharged at neutral pH.
Amino acids in proteins are mainly in the D-configuration.
Twenty four amino acids are commonly used in protein synthesis.
Which type of bonding is responsible for the secondary structure of proteins?
Options
Disulphide bridges between cysteine residues.
Hydrogen bonding between the C=O and N-H groups of peptide bonds.
Peptide bonds between amino acids.
Salt bridges between charged side chains of amino acids
Which term below best defines the 'quaternary structure' of a protein?
Options
The arrangement of two or more polypeptide subunits into a single functional complex
The folding of the polypeptide backbone in three-dimensional space.
The interaction of amino acid side chains.
The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.
Which of the following most accurately describes how secondary structures in proteins are
stabilised?
Options
Through ionic bonds operating between oppositely charged amino acid side chains.
Through covalent bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
Through hydrogen bonds between different amino acid side chains.
Through hydrogen bonds joining different parts of the peptide backbone.
Which amino acid can form disulphide bonds?
Options
Glycine.
Proline.
Glutamate.
Cysteine.
Which of the following statements is false?
Options
Primary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Secondary structure of a protein determines how it folds up into a unique three dimensional
structure
Three dimensional structure of a protein determines the function of a protein
Amino acid sequence is absolutely invariant for a particular protein
Who deduced the double-helical structure of DNA?
Options
Frederick Sanger
Mendel
Watson and Francis Crick
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
Tertiary conformation of proteins is maintained by 3 types of bonds namely ionic, hydrogen and
Options
Sulfide
Disulfide
Covalent
Peptide
Hemoglobin is a
Options
Monomer
Dimer
Trimer
Tetramer
Native state of a protein can be disrupted by
Options
Temperature
PH
Removal of water
Presence of hydrophilic surfaces
Identify the wrong statement
Options
Hemoglobin is a globular protein
Hemoglobin is a fibrous protein
Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water
Collagen is a fibrous protein
1In 3° structure of proteins, folding and shaping is done by
Options
Hydrophobic interactions
Polar interactions
Hydrogen bonding
None of the mentioned
β-pleated sheets are the examples of
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen bonding between peptide bonds in the same
chain is
Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure
A structure that has hydrogen bonds between polypeptide chains arranged side by side is
Options
Primary structure
α-helix
β-pleated sheets
Tertiary structure
Identify the amino acids containing nonpolar, aliphatic R groups
Options
Phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan
Glycine, alanine, leucine
Lysine, arginine, histidine
Serine, threonine, cysteine
The two amino acids having R groups with a negative net charge at pH 7.0 are
Options
Aspartate and glutamate
Arginine and histidine
Cysteine and methionine
Proline and valine
Which among the following is a non-essential amino acid?
Options
Serine
Threonine
Lysine
Histidine
Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
Options
Cysteine
Asparagine
Glutamine
Phenylalanine
Which of the following is an imino acid?
Options
Alanine
Glycine
Proline
Serine
Number of chiral centers in isoleucine is
Options
1
2
3
4
Which of the following are an example of epimers?
Options
Glucose & Galactose
Glucose & Ribose
Mannose & Glucose
A&c
Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by
Options
Selwinoff’s reagent
Benedict’s reagent
Fehling’s reagent
Barfoed’s reagent
Which of the following is an example of monosaccharide?
Options
Galactose
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
Which of the following is an example of disaccharide?
Options
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Maltose
In maltose, between which of the following carbons there is a linkage?
Options
C1, C2
C2, C3
C1, C4
C2, C4
Which of the following carbohydrates is a triose?
Options
Glucose
Ribose
Ribulose
Glyceraldehyde
Lactose is a disaccharide of which of the following sugar units?
Options
Glucose and fructose
Glucose and galactose
Glucose and sucrose
Glucose and ribose
In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?
Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose
In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in liver?
Options
Glycogen
Starch
Dextrin
Cellulose
Which of the following are the storage polysaccharides?
Options
Glycogen
Cellulose
Chitin
Glucose
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22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/87)
24. 24
The
25.addition
25 of a catalyst to the reaction system
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.Increases
28 the rate of forward reaction only
29.Increases
29 the rate of reverse reaction
30.Increases
30 the rate of forward but decreases the rate of backward reaction
31.Increases
31
the rate of forward as well as backward reaction equally
32. 32
On33. 33
increasing the temperature the rate of reaction increases mainly because
34. 34
35. 35
Options
36.The
36 activation energy of the reaction increases
37. 37
Concentration of the reacting molecules increases
38. 38
39.Collision
39 frequency increases
40.None
40 of these
41. 41
The
42.value
42 of activation energy is primarily determined by
43. 43
Options
44. 44
45.Temperature
45
46. 46
PrevEffective collision
47. 47
SkipConcentration of reactants
48. 48
NextChemical nature of reactants and products
49. 49
50. of
Sum 50exponents of molar concentration is called
51. 51
52. 52
Options
53.Order
53 of reaction
54. 54
55.Molecularity
55
56. 56 of reaction
Rate
57.Average
57 of reaction
58. 58
In59.
rate59expression the concentration of reactants is negative. It shows
60. 60
Options
61. 61
62.Concentration
62 of reactant does not change
63.Concentration
63 of product increases
64.Concentration
64
of reactant decreases
65. 65
66.Concentration
66 of reactant increases
67. 67
Unit of rate of reaction is
68. 68
69. 69
Options
70. 70
Moles dm-3 sec-1
71. 71
72.Moles
72 sec-1
73.Moles
73 dm-3
74.Mol-1
74 dm-3 sec-1
75. 75
Rate
76. of
76disappearance of reactant is equal to
77. 77
Options
78. 78
79.Rate
79 of reaction
80.Energy
80 released during reaction
81. 81
Rate of formation of product
82. 82
83.A 83
and b
84. 84
Radiations are absorbed in
85. 85
86. 86
Options
87. 87
Spectrophotometer method
Optical relation method
Dilatometric method
Refractometric method
Activated complex is formed due to
Options
Pressure
Ineffective collisions
Effective collision
Temperature
Energy required to form transition state is called
Options
Ea
V
P.E
K.E
Which of the following will have very high rate of reaction?
Options
Double decomposition reaction
Ionic reactions
Neutralization reaction
All of above
Greater the concentration of reactant
Options
Greater will be dx/dt
Dx/dt will be moderate
Lesser will be dx/dt
Any of above
Anything which increases rate of reaction without being involved in the reaction
Options
Promoter
Inhibitor
Catalyst
All of the above
The substances that reduces the effectiveness of a catalyst are called
Options
Promoters
Inhibitors
Poisoning catalysts
Pro-catalysts
When catalysts and reactants are in more than one phase it is
Options
Homogeneous catalysis
Heterogeneous catalysis
Catalysis
Ea
Each catalyst has
Options
Specificity
Its own Ea
Special structure
All of above
Biocatalytical proteins are
Options
Enzymes
Lipids
Substrate
Any of above
A catalyst can not effect
Options
Products
Chemical equilibrium
Reactants
Both a & b
An enzyme has its specificity due to
Options
Substrate
Temperature
Structure
Pressure
When the reaction completes in more than one steps rate of reaction will be determined by
Options
Fast step
Slowest step
All steps
Molecularity of the reaction
Energy of activation for backward reaction is less than forward reaction for ________ reaction
Options
Endothermic
Exothermic
Moderate
Fast
Which statement is incorrect about catalyst
Options
It is used in smaller amount
Decrease activation energy
Specific in action
It affects specific rate constant
Which of these reactions are monomolecular?
Options
N2O4 → 2NO2
2HI → H2 + I2
Options
2HI → H2 + I2
Options
2HI → H2 + I2
NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl
Which of these reactions are dimolecular?
Options
2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
N2O4 → 2NO2
O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
Options
Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH
H2O2+H2S→H2SO4+H2O
Options
Cl2 → 2Cl
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
Options
2HI → H2 + I2
HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O

Options
2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
2HI → H2 + I2
L2 → 2Cl
Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?
Options
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
The point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
The forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.
Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous solutions:
Options
Solubility product constant (Ksp);
Acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
Molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
Molarboiling-point constant (Kb).
Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) shifted to reactants, if:
Options
Temperature will be increased
Pressure will be decreased
Concentration of ammonia will be decreased
Concentration of hydrogen will be increased.
Rate of decomposition of H2O2 will increase if:
Options
Temperature will be increased
Inhibitor will be added
Solvent will be added
Temperature will be decreased
Rate of chemical reaction between gases with increase of pressure, in common:
Options
Increase
Decrease
Remain the same
All of this is possible
For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, increasing of chemical rate of forward reaction is
IMPOSSIBLE if we’ll increase:
Options
Temperature
Pressure
Concentration of hydrogen
Concentration of ammonia
Equilibrium of process N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH shifted to product, if we’ll:
Options
Increase pressure
Increase temperature
Decrease temperature
Decrease concentration of nitrogen
Which factor will effect on shifting of chemical equilibrium for reaction Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) = 3Fe(s)
+ 4H2O(g):
Options
Adding catalyst to system
Changing of pressure
Changing of Fe3O4 concentration
Increasing of hydrogen concentration
Rate of chemical reaction Mg with acetic acid will NOT increase, if we’ll:
Options
Use Mg powder
Add HI to system, as catalyst
For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H process, increasing of temperature will NOT lead to:
Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
For N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH process, decreasing of temperature will NOT lead to:
Options
Shifting of equilibrium to reactants
Increasing reaction rate for backward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for forward reaction
Decreasing reaction rate for backward reaction
For reaction 2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2- ΔH shifting equilibrium to product is impossible, if we’ll:
Options
Increase pressure
Increase concentration of oxygen
Pressure changing will NOT effect for reaction:
Options
FeO(s) + CO(g) = Fe(s) + CO2(g
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
2CO(g) + O2(g) = 2CO2(g)
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)
Decreasing of pressure shifts equilibrium to products in case:
Options
FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)
Increasing of concentration of reactants shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:
Options
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g)
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl
Fe(s) + H2O(g) = FeO(s) + H2(g)
H2(g) + I2(g) = 2HI
Increasing of temperature shifts equilibrium to reactants in case:
Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2NH3(g) = N2(g) +3H2(g)+ ΔH
2H2(g) + O2 = 2H2O – H
СаСО3 = СаО + СО2+ ΔH
For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll:
Options
Decrease pressure
Increase concentration of CO2
Increase pressure
For reaction C(s) + 2N2O(g) = 2N2(g) + CO2(g)- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due
these factors:
Options
Increasing of pressure; decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; increasing N2O concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing CO2 concentration
Increasing of pressure; decreasing N2O concentration
With the highest rate of chemical reaction, next oxidation reaction will go:
Options
Cu on air in standard conditions
Cu on pure O2 with temperature elevation
Mg on air in normal temperature
Mg on pure O2 with temperature elevation
To increase product’s yield of reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H, one should:
Options
Decrease pressure
Add catalyst
Increase concentration of hydrogen
For reaction SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, due these factors:
Options
Increasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature
Decreasing of pressure; Increasing of temperature
Increasing of pressure; Decreasing of temperature
For reaction SO32-(sol) + H2O = HSO3- (sol)+ OH-(sol)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is
impossible, if we’ll:
Options
Add an acid
Add a water
Add an alkali
Decreasing of volume will NOT shift equilibrium to reactants in case:
Options
CaCO3(s) = CaO(s) + CO2(g)
H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3(sol)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
2NH3(g) = N2(g) + 3H2(g)
Increasing of volume will shift equilibrium to products in case:
Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)
2C(s) + O2(g) = 2CO(g)
H2SO3(sol) = H2O(l) + SO2(g)
BaO(s) +CO2(g) = BaCO3(g)
If temperature is increased, then:
Options
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is increases.
Rate of exothermic reactions is increases but decreases for endothermic reactions
Rate of endothermic reactions is increases but decreases for exothermic reactions
Rate of exothermic as well as endothermic reactions is decreases.
For reaction H2O(l) + CO2(g) = H2CO3- ΔH shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:
Options
Increase pressure
Decrease pressure
Increase H2CO3 concentration
Changing of concentration of A will NOT effecton rate of reaction:
Options
A(g) + B(g) = AB(g)
2A(g) + B(g) = A2B(g)
2A(s) + 2B(g) = 2AB(s)
A(g) + 2B(g) = AB2(g)
Rate of homogeneous exothermic reaction of ammonia synthesis CANNOT be increased, if we’ll
Options
Use catalyst
Increase pressure
Choose the main reason of reaction rate elevation though temperature increase.
Options
Number of molecular collisions is increased
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is increased
Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate due to:
Options
Activation energy is increased
Activation energy is decreased
Number of active molecules is decreased
Enthalpy of reaction is increased
Addition of catalyst increases reaction rate of:
Options
Only straight reaction
Only backward reaction
Both types: straight and backward reactions
For homogeneous reactions
When system moves to equilibrium…
Options
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases.
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases
Equilibrium of process N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), if temperature is increased, shifts to reactants.

Why?
Options
Because rate of backward reaction increases and rate forward of decreases
Rate of forward reaction increases and rate of backward decreases
Rates of forward and backward reactions are increases, but in greater degree increases for
backward reaction
Rates of forward and backward reactions are decreases, but in greater degree decreases for
forward reaction
For reaction HNO2 + H2O = H3O+ + NO2 + ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll
Options
Add to system some acid
Increase pressure
For reaction CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(l)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll
Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Increase CO concentration
Increasing of pressure and decreasing of temperature separately will NOT shift equilibrium in
same direction:
Options
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO(g) – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g) – H
Increasing of temperature and decreasing of pressure separately will shift equilibrium in same
direction:
Options
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl – H
2CO(g) + O2 = 2CO2 – H
N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g)+ ΔH
H2(g) + Cl2(g) = 2HCl + ΔH
Industrial synthesis of sulfur oxide (VI) SO2 + O2 = SO3 – H is carried out at high temperaturein
order to:
Options
Shift equilibrium to right
Shift equilibrium to left
Increase rate of reaction
Decrease activation energy of process
For reaction 2HgO(s)= 2Hg(s) + O2(g)+ ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if we’ll:
Options
Increase pressure
Increase O2 concentration
For reaction FeO(s) + H2(g) = Fe(s) + H2O(g)- ΔH, shifting equilibrium to products is possible, if
we’ll:
Options
Increase pressure
Increase concentration of FeO
Increase concentration of H2O
Find correct statement:
Options
The higher activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
The lower activation energy of reaction, the higher reaction rate
Reaction rate doesn’t depend on activation energy of reaction
Enthalpy of reaction depends on number of steps of reaction
How reaction rate changes for reaction Mg + 2HCl = MgCl2 + H2, if piece of Mg (1 g) will break into
1000 same blocs?
Options
Remain the same
Increase 10 times
Increase 100 times
Increase 1000 times
For reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g), shifting equilibrium to products is impossible, if we’ll add
to system:
Options
Ammonia
HCl
N2
H2
For one-step reaction rate equation is v=kc(A2) That reaction is…
Options
B2(g) + A2(g) = 2AB
2B2(g) + A2 = 2B2A(g)
B(s) + A2(g) = BA2(g)
2BA2(g) + A2(g) = 2BA2(g)
Reaction rate of forward reaction A2(g) + 3B2(g) = 2AB3(g), that was found from concentration
changes of A, is 0,01mol/l*sec. Calculate reaction rate from concentrations of B2 and AB3:
Options
0,02 and 0,01
0,03 and -0,02
0,03 and 0,02
0,02 and 0,04
How many times rate of reaction A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(l) changes, if concentration of A2 increases
for 3 times.
Options
3
6
9
12
For reaction 2A2(g) + B2(g) = 2A2B(g), if concentration of A2 decreases for 3 times, how reaction
rate will change?
Options
Increase for 3 times
Decrease for 3 times
Increase for 9 times
Decrease for 9 times
How many times pressure should be increased, if we want speed up reaction A(g) + 2B(g) =
2AB2(g) for 125 times?
Options
5
25
100
125
For reaction A + B = AB, if pressureincreases for 4 times, how reaction rate will change?
Options
Remain the same
Increases for 8 times
Increasing concentration of A for 2 times will lead to reaction rate increasing for 4 times, in
reaction…
Options
A2(g) + B2(g) = 2AB(g)
A2(g) + B(s) = BA2(s)
2A2(g) = B(g)
2A2(s) = B(g) + 2C(g)
224.Volume of exuded H2, in reaction between Fe and H2SO4(sol), if piece of Fe (10g) will break in
125 cubes, increases for:
Options
2 times
5 times
15 times
125 times
Solvents can be…
Options
Liquid
Gaseous
Solid
Every one of these types
Solutions, in difference with pure substances…
Options
Homogeneous
Instable
Have constant composition
Can be colored or colorless
If in solution, in certain conditions, can be added an extra quantity of solute, then this solution
cannot be…
Options
Concentrated
Diluted
Saturated
Unsaturated
After addition an extra quantity of solute to solution, it did not dissolve. Then we can say, that
solution:
Options
Diluted
Concentrated
Saturated
Unsaturated
On solubility of solid substances in liquids doesn’t affect:
Options
Temperature
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Stirring
For reaction 2CO(g) + O2(g) → 2CO2 (g) - ΔH, shifting equilibrium to reactants is possible, if we’ll
Options
Decrease pressure
Increase pressure
Increase CO concentration
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25. 25
26. 26
Question
27. 27 (1/285)
28. 28
Which
29. 29of the following statements is true?
30. 30
Options
31. 31
32.NaCl
32 is a neutral salt;
33.KOH
33 is an acid;
34.HCl
34 and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
35.NaBr
35 is basic salt.
36. 36
37. 37
Functional Group of Ether:
38. 38
39. 39
Options
40.H40–C=O
41. 41
C–O–C
42. 42
43.C 43
–C
44.C 44
–X
45. 45
Which
46. 46pairing is not a set of conjugates?
47. 47
Options
48. 48
49.OH-
49 and H2O;
50.HC2H3O2
50 and C2H3O2-;
51.HCl
51 and Cl-;
52.NH3
52 and NH4+;
53. 53
54. 54
Functional
Prev Group of Aldehyde:
55. 55
Skip
56. 56
Options
Next
57.C 57
– CO - C
58. 58
C – CH = O
59. 59
60.C 60
–X
61.O61
= C – OH
62. 62
Which
63. 63reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?
64. 64
Options
65. 65
66.HF
66+ LiOH → H2O + LiF;
67.2HCl
67 + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2;
68. 68
2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2
69. 69
70.K2O
70 + H2O → 2KOH;
71. 71
Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?
72. 72
73. 73
Options
74. 74
75.KOH
75 is potassium hydroxide;
76.H2SO3
76 is sulfurous acid;
77.HI77is hydroiodic acid;
78.HClO2
78 is chloric acid
79. 79
80. 80salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?
Which
81. 81
Options
82. 82
83.AgCl;
83
84.PbBr2;
84
85. 85
Ca3(PO4)2;
86. 86
87.Na2CO3
87
88. 88
A 89.
solution
89 of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:
90. 90
91. 91
Options
92. 92
93.Unsaturated;
93
94.Supersaturated;
94
95.Saturated
95
96.Dilute
96
97. 97
98.net
The 98 ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium carbonate and
99.
sodium 99 chloride would include all of the following except:
100. 100
Options
101. 101
102.Cl-;
102
103.2Na+;
103
104. 104
CaCO3d
105. 105
106.All
106of the substances above
107. 107
Functional
108. 108 Group of Ketone:
109. 109
Options
110. 110
111.C-CO-C
111
112.C 112
–X
113.C 113
– OH
114.#NAME?
114
115. 115
Which
116. 116solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?
117. 117
Options
118. 118
119.1.5
119
m NaCl;
120.1.5
120
m AgCl;
121. 121
2.0 m C6H12O6;
122. 122
123.2.0 m CaCl2
123
124. 124
Functional Group of Amine:
125. 125
126. 126
Options
127. 127
128.C 128
– NR – R’
129.O129
= C – OH
130.H130
–C=O
131.C 131
– OH
132. 132
133. 133
Which equation is correctly balanced?
134. 134
Options
135. 135
136.Na136
+ Cl2 → 2NaCl;
137.CH4
137+ 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;
138. 138
2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
139. 139
140.H2SO4
140 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;
141. 141
Functional
142. 142 Group of Amide:
143. 143
Options
144. 144
145.O145
= C – OH
146.C 146
– NR – R’
147.H147
–C=O
148.HOC
148– NR – R’
149. 149
150. 150has lowest oxidation number in
Sulphur
151. 151
Options
152. 152
153.H2SO3
153
154.SO2
154
155. 155
156.H2SO4
156
H2S
157. 157
158. 158
Functional
159. 159 Group of Nitrile:
160. 160
Options
161. 161
162.- C≡N
162
163.O163
= C – OH
164.C 164
– NR – R’
165.HOC
165– NR – R’
166. 166
167. 167
Amino acides are building blocks of:
168. 168
Options
169. 169
170.Ketones
170
171. 171
Aldehydes
172. 172
173.Proteins
173
Ethers
174. 174
175. 175
Which
176. 176of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
177. 177
Options
178. 178
179.H2S
179
180.SO3
180
181.H2O2
181
182.F2182
183. 183
184. 184 are composed of:
Proteins
185. 185
186. 186
Options
187.20187
different amino acids
188. 188
15 different amino acids
189. 189
190.15190
different aldehydes
191.17191
different ethers
192. 192
Which
193. 193of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
194. 194
Options
195. 195
196.O3196
197.KMnO4
197
198.H2O2
198
199.K2Cr2O7
199
200. 200
201.
In the201
redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
202. 202
203. 203
Options
204.X=2
204y=4 z=10
205. 205
X=2 y=6 z=5
206. 206
207.X=2
207y=3 z=8
208.X=2
208y=3 z=10
209. 209
Reduction
210. 210 involves
211. 211
Options
212. 212
213.Loss
213of electrons
214.Gain
214 of electrons
215.Increase
215 in the valency of positive part
216. 216
Decrease in the valency of negative part
217. 217
218. 218 type of α-amine acid - triptophane
Determine
219. 219
220. 220
Options
221.Essential
221
222.Non-essential
222
223. 223
Semi- essential
224. 224
225.None
225 of these
226. 226
Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine
227. 227
228. 228
Options
229. 229
Aliphatic
230. 230
231.Aromatic
231
232.Heterocyclic
232
233.Complex
233
234. 234
The
235.strongest
235 reducing agent is
236. 236
Options
237. 237
238.HNO2
238
239.H2S
239
240. 240
H2SO3
241. 241
242.SnCl2
242
243. 243
Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of sugar rest
244. 244
245. 245
Options
246. 246
247.C1247
248.C2248
249.C3249
250.C4250
251. 251
252. 252 acid exists in form of cation in
α-Amine
253. 253
Options
254. 254
255.Acidic
255 medium
256.Neutral
256 medium
257. 257
Basic medium
258. 258
259.Any
259medium
260. 260
An electrolyte
261. 261 is one
262. 262
Options
263. 263
264.Which
264 conducts electric current
265.Which
265 is capable of ionization by passing electric current
266.Which
266 dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
267.None
267 of the above
268. 268
269. 269 acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in
α-Amine
270. 270
Options
271. 271
272.Acidic
272 medium
273.Neutral
273 medium
274. 274
275.Basic
275 medium
276.Any
276medium
277. 277
278. 278
Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to
279. 279
280. 280
Options
281.Dilution
281
282. 282
Number of ions
283. 283
284.Current
284 density
285.Volume
285 of the solution
How many α-amine acidrests are in polypeptide
Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100
Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:
Options
-1/3
-1
+1
-3
Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides
Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Hydrofobic
Which of the following is an insulator?
Options
Graphite
Aluminium
Diamond
Silicon
Choose peptide bond
Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
-C-C-
In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O
Options
X=4 y=6
X=8 y=3
X=8 y=6
X=3 y=8
Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O
Options
10
8
5
2
Lactose is
Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide
Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
Options
F2
Cl2
Br2
I2
Oxidation involves
Options
Loss of electrons
Gain of electrons
Increase in the valency of negative part
Decrease in the valency of positive part
Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by
Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination
Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of
Options
Aldose
Pyranose
Fructose
Furanose
Glicaric acids are produced under action of
Options
Mild oxidant
Strong reductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant
Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide
Options
Coordination
Ionic
Hydrogen
Glycoside
Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms
Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1
Components of nucleotide
Options
Protein
Amine acid rest
OH
Thymine
Monomeric link of protein
Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid rest
Ethylene
Unsaponified lipids are

Options
Mono-component
Di-component
Three-component
Poly-component
DNA contains
Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine
Complexlipidsformunderhydrolysis
Options
Alcohols, carboxylicacids
Carboxylicacids
Alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols
Determine type of α-amine acid - valine
Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine
Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex
Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of
Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation
α-amine acid exists in form of anion in
Options
Acidic medium
Neutral medium
Basic medium
Any medium
How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein
Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100
In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is
Options
-2
-1
0
-4
The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
Options
SO2
CaO
Al2O3
CrO3
In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
Options
Intermolecular
Intramolecular
Disproportion
None of them
Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?
Options
CH3COONa
C2H5OH
NaCl
KOH
Element accepting electrons is called
Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant
One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
Options
F
Cl
He
Na
The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:
Options
-3 to +5
-1 to +1
-3 to -5
-5 to +1
Strong electrolytes are those which
Options
Dissolve readily in water
Conduct electricity
Dissociate into ions at high dilution
Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions
Which of the following conducts electricity?
Options
Crystal NaCl
Diamond
Molten KBr
Sulphur
How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides
Options
01-10
10-100
100-200
More than 100
In electrolysis, oxidation takes place at
Options
Anode
Cathode
Both A & B
The surface of the electrolyte solution
Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode
Options
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaMen+
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0+ RT/nFlnaox /ared
V = Ae-E/Rt
Bonds stabilizingtertiary structure of proteins
Options
Coordination
Hydrofobic
Glycoside
Metallic
Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell
Options
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
V = Ae-E/Rt
Choose disulphide bond
Options
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
–C-C-
Oxidation Number of Halogens are:
Options
-1
-2
4
0
How many cheiralcentres are in aldopentose
Options
1
2
3
4
Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:
Options
1
-2
-4
0
Sucrose is
Options
Monose
Unreducing disaccharide
Amine acid
Reducing disaccharide
Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode
Options
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
V = Ae-E/Rt
Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by
Options
Oxidation
Reduction
Esterification
Transamination
Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell
Options
φ = RT/nFln a1 /a2
φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn
Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called

Options
Transamination
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation
In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation number
Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Intramolecular
Disproportion
In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed
Options
Intermolecular
Double exchange
Counter disproportion
Disproportion
Gliconic acids are produced under action of
Options
Mild oxidant
Strongreductant
Mildreductant
Strong oxidant
Element loosing electrons is called
Options
Product
Oxidant
Reactant
Reductant
Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides
Options
Glycozides
Acids
Polyols
Salts
Bond between sugar rest and pyrimidine N-base in nucleoside is formed between atoms:
Options
C5 and N1
C1 and N9
C3 and N9
C1 and N1
Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:
Options
The interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
The heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
The scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
The study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems
in terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.
Components of nucleoside
Options
Phosphate group
Carbonyl group
Thymine
Sugar rest
In what case there is an oxidation process:
Options
KMnO4→MnO2;
HNO2→NO2;
Cl2O→HCl;
P→H3PO4.
Monomeric link of terpene
Options
Sugar rest
Isoprene
Amine acid res
Ethylene
Point out the correct statements:
Options
A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.
Indicate name of terpenes at n = 3
Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene
Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl →
CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
Options
1
6
14
3
Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene
What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?
Options
Mn(OH)2;
MnO42-;
MnO2;
Mn2+.
Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene
What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?
Options
Fe2O3 + HCl;
FeCl3+H2S;
Fe+ HCl;
SO3+NaOH.
Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction: KMnO4 + H2O2
+H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O
Options
2
5
10
3
Options
Monoterpene
Diterpene
Triterpene
Sesquiterpene
An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:
Options
Accepts electrons;
Donates electrons;
Increases its oxidation number;
Decreases its concentration
Saponified lipids are
Options
Mono-component
Three-component
Without any component
Poly-component
Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
Options
Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.
The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is:
Options
1+;
2+;
0;
1-;
RNA contains
Options
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, thymine
Cytosine, guanine, uracil, adenine
Cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine
Thymine, cytosine, uracil, adenine
Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?
Options
HCl;
KClO3;
HClO2;
KClO4
Simple lipids form under hydrolysis
Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols
In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:
Options
Al;
Fe3+
Fe3+Al3+;
Al3+ Fe3+;
Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine
Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine:
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine
Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:
Options
Loses 1 electron;
Loses 1 proton;
Gains 1 electron;
Gains 1 proton
Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?
Options
Cr;
Ni2+;
Cr3+;
Ni
Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine
Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex
When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:
Options
2
3
5
10
Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine

Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex
What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?
Options
It allows ion migration;
It allows neutron migration;
It allows electron migration;
It prevents ion migration;
Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?
Options
Br2;
Cl2;
F2;
I2
Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is called:
Options
Neutralization;
Esterification;
Electrolysis;
Hydrolysis
Determine type of α-amine acid - leucine:
Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:
Options
In molecule of cytochrome b
In molecule of vitamin B12
In molecule of catalase
In molecule of vitamin B6
Determine type of α-amine acid - serine:
Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex
Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:
Options
Enzyme catalase
Enzyme superoxide dismutase
Cytochrome P450
Glutathione peroxidase
Reduced intake of vitamins causes:
Options
Hypervitaminosis
Hypovitaminosis
Avitaminosis
Acidosis
Determine type of α-amine acid – serine;
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Vitamin A deficiency can cause:
Options
Xeroftalmia
Increased blood coagulation
Growth acceleration
Anemia
The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:
Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin B1
Vitamin K
Thiamine
Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine
Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex
ZnO is used as
Options
Protective
Astringent
Both (a) & (b)
Antidote
Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be
Options
Oxidation
Halogenation
Protein precipitate
All of the above
Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine;
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Hydrogen peroxide is used as
Options
Antiseptic
Acidifying agent
Protective
Antioxidant
Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine:
Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
KMnO4 solutions are used for
Options
Antibacterial
Antifungal
Both of the above
Antioxidant
Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these elements:
Options
C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;
H, P, S, C, O, N;
O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;
H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;
Options
Cu
P
Br
As
Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine:
Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine
Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex
Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine
Options
Essential
Non-essential
Semi- essential
None of them
Determine type of α-amine acid - lysine:
Options
Neutral
Acidic
Basic
Slightly Polar
Choose biogenic microelement
Options
Cu
S
Ca
Mg
Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine
Options
Aliphatic
Aromatic
Heterocyclic
Complex
Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?
Options
Rayon
Insulin
Gun cotton
Paper
Complex lipids form under hydrolysis

Options
Alcohols, carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids
Alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
Alcohols
Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of
Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
Less than 10 -7 cm
Number of cheiralcentres in aldohexose
Options
1
2
3
4
Six major biogenic elements :
Options
Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table
Fatty acids are
Options
Unsaturated dicarboxylic acids
Long-chain alkanoic acids
Aromatic carboxylic acids
Aromatic dicarboxylic acids
Five minor biogenic elements:
Options
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called

Options
Proteins
Terpenes
Carbohydrates
Soaps
Trace elements:
Options
Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
Soap is
Options
A mixture of salts of fatty acids
A salt of glycerol
A mixture of ethers
A mixture of aromatic ethers
Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
Options
10-7% - 10-12%
10-9%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-2%
Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
Options
10-2%
10-3– 10-5 %
10-9%
10-7% - 10-12
Fats and oils are
Options
Monoesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycerol
Triesters of glycerol
Diesters of glycol
Choose biogenic microelement
Options
O
S
N
Zn
Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:
Options
More unsaturation
Higher melting points
A glycerol backbone
Longer fatty acids
Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing
Options
12 carbons
14 carbons
16 carbons
18 carbons
Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by
Options
Hydrogenation
Saponification
Hydrolysis
Oxidation of double bonds
Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:
Options
1
3
-1
-3
Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives
Options
Vanaspati ghee
Margarine
Both of these
None of these
Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:
Options
Saponification
Fermentation
Diazotization
Rancidification
Saponification of a fat
Options
Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps
Produces glycerol and soap
Is used in the production of detergents
Is used in the production of lactic acid
Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?
Options
Fats
Waxes
Soaps
Oils
The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its
Options
Iodine number
Octane number
Saponification number
Melting point
Zwitterion is
Options
An ion that is positively charged in solution
An ion that is negatively charged in solution
A compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid
A carbohydrate with an electrical charge
A coordination compound consists of
Options
A metal ion and counterions
Ligands bound to counterions
A complex ion and counterions
A metal ion bound to one or more ligands
The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:
Options
0
4
3
6
A zwitterions has which of the following properties
Options
No net charge
A high melting point
Soluble in water
All of these
Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]
Options
Name the following coordination compound: K4[Fe(CN)6]
Potassium cyanoferrate(II)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:
Options
Carbonion
Zwitterions
Carbonium ions
Free radicals
The coordination number is:
Options
The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
The number of positively charged particles in the complex
Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?
Options
Carbonyl compounds
Amino acids
Phenols
Heterocyclic compounds
Number of hem sections in mioglobin
Options
1
2
3
4
The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric field is
known as its:
Options
Isoelectric point
Dipole moment
Iodine number
Wave length
Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2
Options
Cationic
Anionic
Monodentate
Neutral
The isoelectric point of a protein is
Options
The pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface
The pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges
The electric charge number under isothermal conditions
None of these
Glycine is
Options
NH2CH2COOH
NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2
NO2 CH2CH2 COOH
Br CH2 COOH
Ethylenediamine would be called
Options
Dentate
Bidentate
Tridentate
Tetradentate
Glycine is a unique amino acid because it
Options
Has no chiral carbon
Has a sulphur containing R group
Cannot form a peptide bond
Is an essential amino acid
Proteins are
Options
Polyamides
Polymers of ethylene
α-Aminocarboxylic acids
Polymers of propylene
The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:
Options
C,H,O,P,S
N,C,H,O,I
N,S,C,H,O
C,H,O,S,I
Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?
Options
Peptide linkage
Ester linkage
Ether linkage
α,β-Linkage
Name the following coordination compound: [Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
Options
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
Triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
Amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Which of the following are bidentate ligands? (1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide (2) ammonia,
NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2- (3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
Options
1, 4, 5
1, 5, 6
1, 6
2, 3, 4, 5
The primary structure of a protein refers to:

Options
Whether the protein is fibrous or globular
The amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain
The orientation of the amino acid side chains in space
The presence or absence of an α-helix
The α-helix is a common form of
Options
Primary structure
Tertiary structure
Secondary structure
None of these
What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
Options
0
1+
2+
3+
Number of hem sections in hemoglobin
Options
1
2
3
4
The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of
Options
Optical activity
Hydrogen bonding
Resonance
Delocalization
Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound
Options
Central ion
Ligands
Outer sphere ions
All constituents
Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements
Options
Does’tchang
Increases
Decreasis
None
The double helical structure of DNA is held together by
Options
Sulphur-sulphur linkages
Peptide bonding
Hydrogen bonding
Glycosidic bonds
Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps
Options
0
1
2 and more
Always without steps
Upon hydrolysis, proteins give
Options
Amino acids
Hydroxyl acids
Fatty acids
Alcohols
Dentantness of porfyrin
Options
2
3
4
5
Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces
Options
Ammonia and carbon dioxide
Urea and uric acid
A mixture of amino acids
Glycogen and a fatty acid
Nynhydring test is given by
Options
Carbohydrates
Proteins
Alkanes
Alkenes
Particles playing role of ligands are
Options
Positive ions
Chelates
Negative ions
Complex ions
Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?
Options
Ninhydrin test
Biuret test
Xanthoproteic tes
Tollens test
A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is called
Options
Xanthoproteic test
Ninhydring test
Biuret test
Million’s test
A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its formula.
Options
[Cl(H2O)4Cr2]
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]
[ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
[CrCl2(H2O)4]
What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?
Options
1
3
-2
0
A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is
Options
A protein
An amino acid
A monosaccharide
Pyridine
Monosaccharides are classified according to
Options
The number of carbon atoms in the molecule
Whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group
Their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes
All of the above
Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?
Options
Carbonyl;
Nitro;
Acetate;
Oxalate.
Which is a monosaccharide?
Options
Sucrose
Maltose
Galactose
Cellulose
Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride
Options
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl
[(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl
[(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl
[Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]
Which is a disaccharide?
Options
Glucose
Maltose
Fructose
Cellulose
Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
Options
Ribose
Fructose
Sucrose
Glucose
The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide
Options
Indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light
Indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate
Indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group
Indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate
What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?
Options
Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine
What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?
Options
Tetraamminecopper(II)
Coppertetraammine (II)
Tetraammine(II)copper
Tetra(II)amminecopper
The principal sugar in blood is
Options
Fructose
Glucose
Sucrose
Galactose
Ligand «en» is an example of:
Options
Bidentate ligand;
Monodentate ligand;
Tridentate ligand;
Hexadentate ligand.
The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is
Options
Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)
Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex

Options
Cationic
Anionic
Trigonal
Neutral
Donor of electrons in coordination compound
Options
Central ion
Outer sphere ions
Ligands
None
Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements
Options
Doesn’t change
Increases
Decreases
None of them
Coordination number of iron in hem
Options
2
3
5
6
Dentatness of EDTA
Options
2
3
4
6
With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability
Options
Increases
Doesn’t change
Decreases
None of them
Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of
Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model
Particles playing role of central ion are
Options
Positive ions
Neutral molecules
Negative ions
Complex ions
Find ligand of weak field
Options
OH-
Au
CN-
Fe2+
What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?
Options
Hexaaquacobalt(II)
Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
Cobalthexaaqua(II)
Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
Options
K3[Fe(CN)6]
Fe [K2(CN)6]
(CN)6[Fe K2]
[FeK2(CN)6
What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?
Options
Tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
Chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
Tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
Tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride
Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate
Options
[(en)3Co]SO4
[Co(en)3SO4]
[SO4(en)3]Co
[Co(en)3]SO4
What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?
Options
Linear;
Tetrahedral;
Octahedral;
Trigonal
Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of
Options
Rate of reaction
Donor-acceptor interaction
Protons number
Electrostatic model
Find ligand of strong field
Options
OH-
Au
Cl-
NH3
Dentatness of ligand is
Options
Number of central ions
Charge of central ion
Number of bonds of ligand with central ion
Ion’s total number
Disperse systems consists of:
Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Sol, gel
Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:
Options
Dispersion medium, dispersed phase
Coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
Sol, gel
Glucose cannot be classified as
Options
A hexose
An oligosaccharide
An aldose
A monosaccharide
What is a disperse system?
Options
It is microheterogeneous system with a highly developed internal surface between the phases.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium are mutually
immiscible liquid.
It is dispersion system in which the dispersed phase is solid and the dispersing medium –
liquid.
It is suspension of fine particles of liquids or solids in the gas.
Coarse systems include
Options
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Gel, suspensions.
Which of the following statements is false about glucose?
Options
It is a reducing sugar
It is a disaccharide
It has a pyranose form
It is a polyalcohol
Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?
Options
Its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal
It is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone
It is oprtically active
It shows mutarotation
What is the Emulsion?
Options
immiscible liquid.
liquid.
Common table sugar is
Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
Maltose
Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?
Options
Glucose
Fructose
Lactose
None of the above
Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?
Options
It is also called table sugar
It may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol
It reduces Fehling’s solution
It does not reduce Tollens’ reagent
What is the suspension?
Options
immiscible liquid.
liquid.
The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is
Options
Lactose
Sucrose
Maltose
Fructose
What is the aerosol?
Options
immiscible liquid.
liquid.
Sols are:
Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.
Starch
Options
Is a trisaccharide
Is also called amylose
Is also called amylopectin
Is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin
Gels are:
Options
Gelatin, jelly, marmalade.
Gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
Blood, lymph.
Blood, jelly, marmalade.
Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:
Options
Medical products
Colored glass
Pumice
Fog
Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:
Options
Soil
Moist soil
Rocks
Fog
Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:
Options
Natural gas
Gas from oil droplets
Smog
Colored glass
Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:
Options
Natural gas
Aerosols
Dust storms
Pearl
Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:
Options
Fizzy drinks, foam
Body fluids
Pastes,mortar
Smog
Colloidal solutions include:
Options
Molecular, ionic, molecular ionic
Sol, gel
Saline solution in water
Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:
Options
Cosmetic products
Porous chocolate
Some alloys
Fog
Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:
Options
Dust in the air
Aerosol
Fog
Does not exist
Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:
Options
Sols
Emulsion oil
Fizzy drinks
Fog
Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:
Options
Cream, milk
Foam
Pastes
Chocolate
Colloid particles have sizes of
Options
Greater than 10 -3 cm
10 -5 - 10 -3 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m
Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
Options
Negative
Positive
Without charge
Zero
Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
Options
Ba2+
H+
SO4 2-
H+
Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing
Options
Condensation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization
Which substance may be micelle’s aggregate
Options
NaCl
Сa3(PO4)2
CaCl2
FeCl3
Optical property typical to colloid systems
Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion
Find optical property
Options
Diffusion
Osmosis
Electroosmosis
Absorption
Powder is
Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g
Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties
Options
μ
η
φ
ξ
Particles of coarse systems have sizes of
Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -9 - 10 -7 m
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -9 m
Particles of true solutions have sizes of
Options
Greater than 10 -5 m
10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
10 -7 - 10 -5 m
Less than 10 -7 m
Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
Options
Positive
Negative
Without charge
Zero
Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
Options
None
Cl-
SO4 2-
Ba2+
Choose condensation method of colloids producing
Options
Coagulation
Change of solvent
Red-ox reaction
Peptization
Optical property typical to coarse systems
Options
Reflection
Absorption
Scattering
Diffusion
Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one
Options
Absorption
Osmosis
Brownian movement
Diffusion
Aerosol is
Options
L/s
L/l
S/l
S/g
Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties

Options
μ
η
Md
λ
Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
Options
Suspensions;
Electrolytes;
Molecular solutions;
Alloys
Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:
Options
Colloids;
Gas mixtures;
Saturated solutions;
Alloys.
The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:
Options
Coagulation;
Tyndall effect;
Peptization;
Dialysis
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1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5
6. 6
7. 7
8. 8
9. 9
10. 10
11. 11
12. 12
13. 13
14. 14
15. 15
16. 16
17. 17
18. 18
19. 19
20. 20
21. 21
22. 22
Question
23. 23 (1/328)
24. 24
Solutions
25. 25 which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity
26. 26 or osmolality. These concentration units express:
27. 27
Options
28. 28
29.Concentrationofwater;
29
30.Concentration
30 of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
31.Concentration
31 of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
32.Concentration
32
of electrolytes.
33. 33
34. 34organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?
Which
35. 35
36. 36
Options
37.CCl4;
37
38. 38
C3H5(OH)3;
39. 39
40.C6H6;
40
41.C6H12O6.
41
42. 42
Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:
43. 43
44. 44
Options
45. 45
46.3 46
Prev
% sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
47. 47
Skip0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
48. 48
Next0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
49. 49
20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.
50. 50
51.structure
The 51 of an alkene contains
52. 52
53. 53
Options
54.Only
54 single bonds;
55. 55
56.A 56
double bond;
57.Two
57 double bonds;
58.A 58
triple bond.
59. 59
Define
60. 60the Raoult’scryoscopic law:
61. 61
Options
62. 62
63.Freezing
63 points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
64. 64
solvents;
65.Freezing
65
points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
66. 66
solvents;
67. 67
68.Freezing
68 points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
69.Freezing
69 points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
70. 70
The
71.first
71 Raoult’s Law is defined as:
72. 72
Options
73. 73
74.The
74 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
75. 75
76.The
76 decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
77.The
77 vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of
pure 78
78. solvents;
79.The
79 vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure
80. 80
solvents.
81. 81
As82.
the82members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van der
Waals83forces between the molecules
83.
84. 84
85. 85
Options
86.Decreases;
86
87. 87
Increases;
88. 88
89.Remains
89 the same;
90.Decreases
90 then increases.
91. 91
In92.
order
92 to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:
93. 93
Options
94. 94
95.To95increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
96.To96add some electrolytes into a solution;
97.To97add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
98.To98increase temperature.
99. 99
100. 100
Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?
101. 101
102. 102
Options
103.CH4;
103
104. 104
C2H6;
105. 105
106.C3H8;
106
107.C4H10.
107
108. 108
What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?
109. 109
110. 110
Options
111. 111
112.6 112
113.2 113
114.8 114
115. 115
116.4 116
117. 117
118. 118is a spontaneous process defined as:
Osmosis
119. 119
Options
120. 120
121.A 121
reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane
122. 122
from a solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
123.A 123
124. 124
from a truesolution to a colloidal solution;
125. 125
A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane
126. 126
from a pure water to a solution;
127. 127
128.A 128
from a
129. 129dilute solution into a more concentrated one.
130. 130
In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?
131. 131
132. 132
Options
133. 133
134.CH3COOH;
134
C3H5(OH)3;
135. 135
136.CH3CH2OH;
136
137.CH3OH.
137
138. 138
A139. 139 in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used commercially
process
140.
to 140 the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called
increase
141. 141
Options
142. 142
143.Polymerization;
143
144.Hydrogenation;
144
145. 145
Esterification;
146. 146
147.Cracking.
147
148. 148
Organic
149. 149compounds must contain
150. 150
Options
151. 151
152.Oxygen;
152
Nitrogen;
153. 153
154.Hydrogen;
154
155.Carbon.
155
156. 156
157.angle
The 157 formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an organic
158. 158 is a(an)
compound
159. 159
Options
160. 160
161.Dihedral
161 angle;
162.Right
162 angle;
163. 163
164.Tetrahedral
164 angle;
165.Acute
165 angle.
166. 166
A167.
specific
167 arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an organic
molecule
168. 168 is known as a(an)
Options
169. 169
170.Carboxyl
170 group;
171. 171
Functional group;
172. 172
173.Group;
173
174. 174 group.
Alkyl
175. 175
The
176.ability
176 of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of compounds that
are
177. 177
178. 178
Options
179. 179
180.Molecular;
180
181.Ionic;
181
182.Polar;
182
183.Atomic.
183
184. 184
185. many
How 185 carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?
186. 186
187. 187
Options
188.5 188
189. 189
8
190. 190
191.6 191
192.13192
193. 193
The
194.series
194 of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two adjacent
carbon
195. 195atoms is known as the
196. 196
Options
197. 197
198.Alkanes;
198
199.Alkenes;
199
200.Alkynes;
200
201.Benzenes.
201
202. 202
203. 203 reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated hydrocarbons
Addition
204. 204unsaturated hydrocarbons
because
205. 205
206. 206
Options
207.Contain
207 multiple bonds;
208. 208
Have a greater molecular mass;
209. 209
210.Have
210 tetrahedral bonds;
211.Contain
211 more atoms.
212. 212
A213.
dihydroxy
213 alcohol that is made from ethane is
214. 214
Options
215. 215
216.Ethanol;
216
217.Glycerol;
217
218.Ethylene
218 glycol;
219. 219
Ethane.
220. 220
A221.
long 221
chain protein is an example of a(an)
Options
222. 222
223.Fat;
223
224. 224
Polymer;
225. 225
226.Isomer;
226
Monomer.
227. 227
228. 228
Which
229. 229represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
230. 230
Options
231. 231
232.C2H4;
232
233.C2H6;
233
234.C3H8;
234
235.C4H10.
235
236. 236
237. many
How 237 double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?
238. 238
239. 239
Options
240.1 240
241. 241
2
242. 242
243.3 243
244.4 244
245. 245
Cryoscopy
246. 246 and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:
247. 247
Options
248. 248
249.Density;
249
250.Viscosity;
250
251.Molar
251 mass;
252.Osmotic
252 pressure.
253. 253
254.osmolarity
The 254 of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:
255. 255
256. 256
Options
257.2.0×10-2osmol;
257
258. 258
1.0×10-1osmol;
259. 259
260.3.0×10-2osmol;
260
261.5.0×10-3osmol.
261
262. 262
Osmolarity
263. 263 is:
264. 264
Options
265. 265
266.The
266molarity of particles in a solution;
267.The
267amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
268.Mass
268 percentage concentration;
269. 269
The concentration in parts per thousand.
270. 270
271. 271
Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?
272. 272
273. 273
Options
274.Butane;
274
275.Propane;
275
276.1-chlorobutane;
276
277. 277
278.1-chloropropane.
278
279. 279
Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:
280. 280
281. 281
Options
282. 282
TT= MRT;
283. 283
284.Tf284
= Kf Cm;
285.Tb285
= KbCm;
286.Tf286
=iKf Cm.
287. 287
A288.
fermentation
288 reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both can produce
289. 289
Options
290. 290
291.An291
ester;
292.An292
alcohol;
293. 293
An acid;
294. 294
295.A 295
soap.
296. 296
Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:
297. 297
298. 298
Options
299. 299
300.740-780
300 kPa;
301.140-240
301 kPa;
302.840-980
302 kPa;
303.60-70
303 kPa.
304. 304
305. 305 properties of solutions depend upon:
Colligative
306. 306
Options
307. 307
308.The
308number of the solute particles;
309.The
309chemical structure of solute;
310. 310
Catalysts;
311. 311
312.PH scale.
312
313. 313
Which
314. 314is a saturated hydrocarbon?
315. 315
Options
316. 316
317.C3H8;
317
318.C6H6;
318
319.C2H5OH;
319
320.C2H4O2.
320
321. 321
322. 322
Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
323. 323
Options
324. 324
325.Increases
325
326.Remains
326 same
327. 327
328.Decreases
328
No effect
Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution
Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
None of them
Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
Options
Increases
Remains same
Decreases
Increases then decreases
For spontaneous processes?
Options
∆H ≥ 0
∆S ≤ 0
∆G ≥ 0
∆H≤ 0
Colligative property of solution of nonelectrolyte doesn’t depend on
Options
Concentration
Nature of solvent
Temperature
Nature of solute
Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional to
Options
Temperature
Molar fraction of solute
Molar fraction of solvent
Mixing rate
Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Hypertonic
Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic
Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called
Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic
Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
Options
Hypotonic
Isoosmotic
Saturated
Isotonic
Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry
Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry
Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
Options
Cryometry
Osmometry
PH-metry
Ebuliometry
Which molecule will have a single pi bond?
Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Propane;
Propyne.
CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as
Options
A carbohydrate;
An ester;
An alcohol;
An organic acid.
Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?
Options
Benzene;
Propyne;
Methane;
Ethanol.
As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling points
Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.
As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the ratio of carbon
atoms to hydrogen atoms
Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases
The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
Options
Nature of solute and solvent
Rate at which the gas dissolves
Temperature
Pressure
Which compound is most likely to react by addition?

Options
CH4;
C3H6;
C4H10;
C5H12.
Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?
Options
Propanol;
Glycerol;
Butanol;
Pentanol.
Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as
Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Pentene;
Butene.
Which involves the colligative properties?
Options
Heating of solvent.
Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature
Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.
A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an
Options
Alkene;
Alkane;
Alkyne;
Alkadiene.
Both cellulose and proteins are classified as
Options
Aldehydes;
Esters;
Polymers;
Ketones.
The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration
is known as :
Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Active Transport
Phagocytosis
The compound 2-propanol is classified as a
Options
Primary alcohol;
Secondary alcohol;
Tertiary alcohol;
Dihydroxy alcohol.
What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?
Options
10
8
6
4
Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?
Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Pentane;
Propane.
Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?
Options
C5H8;
C5H10;
C5H12;
C5H14.
The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Phagocytosis
Osmosis
The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally
Options
Ionic;
Coordinate covalent;
Covalent;
Hydrogen.
The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
against the concentration gradient is known as :
Options
Active Transport
Diffusion
Osmosis
Phagocytosis
As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the number
of double bonds per molecule
Options
Decreases;
Increases;
Remains the same;
Decreases then increases.
In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and
Options
Water;
Carbon dioxide;
An acid;
A base.
Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?
Options
C2H5OH;
C2H4(OH)2;
C3H5(OH)3;
C3H6(OH)2.
In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound formed is
Options
An ester;
A ketone;
An acid;
An ether.
Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon
Options
Ethene;
Ethane;
Ethylene;
Ethyne.
Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?
Options
Al(OH)3;
C3H5(OH)3;
Ca(OH)2;
C2H4(OH)2.
The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is
Options
Glycerol;
Ethylene glycol;
Propene;
Propanoic acid.
Which organic compound is a ketone?
Options
CH3OH;
CH3COCH3;
CH3COOH;
CH3COOCH3.
Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?
Options
Butane;
Ethane;
Methane;
Propane.
Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?
Options
Oxidation;
Cracking;
Haber;
Contact.
Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have
Options
Low melting points;
Low vapor pressure;
High conductivity in solution;
High boiling points.
What is the formula for pentanol?
Options
C5H12;
C5H11OH;
C4H10;
C4H9OH.
Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?
Options
Benzene;
Propene;
Toluene;
Butadiene
Colligative properties of the solution depend on
Options
Nature of solute
Nature of solvent
Number of particles present in the solution
Number of moles of solvent only
Which compound contains a triple bond?
Options
CH4;
C2H2;
C3H6;
C4H10.
Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?
Options
Substitution;
Oxidation;
Addition polymerization;
Condensation, polymerization.
Which one is a colligative property?
Options
Boiling point
Vapour pressure
Osmotic pressure
Freezing point
In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling points by
Options
The contact process;
The Haber process;
Fractional distillation;
Cracking.
Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?
Options
Osmotic pressure
Elevation of b.p.
Vapour pressure
Depression of f.p.
Which is not a colligative property?
Options
Freezing point
Lowering of vapour pressure
Depression of freezing point
Elevation of boiling point
Organic acids are composed of a
Options
C = O group at the end of the chain
COO– group
C = O and COH group on the same carbon
C = O and COH group on different carbons
Which of the following is a true statement?
Options
Ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
Ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol
Organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone
Which of the following is a colligative property?
Options
Surface tension
Viscosity
Osmotic pressure
Boiling point
The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of
Options
Solute molecules to the solvent molecules
Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute
The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law was
given by
Options
Raoult
Ostwald
Van’t Hoff
Lewis
According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to
Options
Moles of solute
Mole fraction of solvent
Moles of solvent
Mole fraction of solute
A mixture of benzene and toluene forms
Options
An ideal solution
Non-ideal solution
Suspension
Emulsion
When common salt is dissolved in water
Options
M. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution increases
B. p. of the solution decreases
Both m. p. and b. p. decreases
Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to
Options
Molecular wt. of solute
Molecular wt. of solvent
Molality of solute
None of these
When a solution is separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then phenomenon
taking place is called
Options
Osmosis
Diffusion
Cataphoresis
Plasmolysis
The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:
Options
П =ST/C
П = CT/S
П = SC/T
П / C = ST
Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3
Options
An alcohol with an ether
A carboxylic acid with a ketone
A carboxylic acid with an alcohol
A ketone with an aldehyde
If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in 100mL water,
which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
Options
Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
None of them.
The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is
Options
Ethylpropanoate
Propylethanoate
Propethanoate
None of the above
What happens during osmosis?
Options
Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
Which of the following is classified as an ether?
Options
CH3CHOHCH3
CH2(OH)CH2CH3
CH2COCH3
CH3OCH3
According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?
Options
The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.
The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.
Polymers are
Options
Molecules made of monomers
Molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule
Macromolecules
All of the above
In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
Options
1000C
Boiling point
Melting point
Freezing point
Classify this reaction: CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH
Options
Chlorination
Oxidation
Hydration
Elimination
A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)
Options
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte
Polar substance
Nonpolar substance
The first member of the ketone family is:

Options
Methanone
Ethanone
Propanone
Butanone
A substance that vaporizes easily is known as
Options
Volatile
Nonvolatile
Electrolyte
Nonelectrolyte
Acetic acid is weak because
Options
It is unstable
It is an organic aliphatic acid
It is slightly ionized
None of these
Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?
Options
Concentrated sulfuric acid
Dilute sulfuric acid
Water
None
At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw at
this temperature will be
Options
1x10-6
1x10-12
1x10-14
1x10-5
How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?
Options
The rotate at different rates
They have different colours
They have different melting/boiling points
They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions
One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is
Options
1.8 x 10-7
0.8 x 10-9
3.6 x 10-7
3.6 x 10-9
What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?
Options
PCl3 and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol
HCl and an alcohol, under reflux
Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl
What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?
Options
A carboxylic acid
A carboxylate salt
Water
Does not react
The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2% ionized
weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).
Options
0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively
1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is
Options
10-Dec
10-Feb
10-Apr
Oct-13
The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is
Options
Oct-13
1013
6.023 x 107
6.0233 x 1010
PH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately
Options
10
7
1
14
Name this molecule:
Options
1,2-dimethylbutane
3,4-dimethylbutane
Hexane
3-methylpentane
The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is
Options
8
-8
Between 7 and 8
Between 6 and 7
What are alcohols not used in?
Options
Wine
Vinegar
Plastics
Methylated spirits
Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is
Options
8
1 x 10-7
7
1
An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric
What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?

Options
Hydration
Hydrolysis
Esterification
Polymerisation
The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to
Options
Acidic impurities
Ionization
Hydrolysis
Dissociation
What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?
Options
CnH2n+1OH
CnH2nOH
CnH2n+2OH
CnH2n+1COOH
FeCl3 solution is
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
Amphoteric
Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.
Options
Ethanoic acid
Ethanol
Butanoic acid
Ethyl ethanoate
Which is true about ethanoic acid?
Options
It has a higher boiling point than ethanol
It dissociates completely in water
It dimerises in water
It reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water
Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is
Options
Neutral
Weakly acidic
Strongly acidic
Alkaline
An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show
Options
An acidic reaction
A neutral reaction
A basic reaction
Both acidic and basic reaction
Esters are ________.
Options
Made from alcohols and non-organic acids
Used to make perfumes and flavorings
Poisonous
Foul-smelling compounds
An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is
Options
Faintly acidic
Fairly acidic
Faintly alkaline
Almost neutral
What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?
Options
Carbon monoxide and water
Carbon and water
Carbon dioxide and water
Carbon monoxide and hydrogen
Which one of the following is acid salt?
Options
Na2S
Na2SO3
NaHSO3
Na2SO4
What are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid
Options
Ethyl methanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
Methyl ethanoate and water
CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?
Options
Na2SO4
BiOCl
Pb(OH)Cl
Na2HPO4
What is true about carboxylic acids?
Options
Carboxylic acids are strong acids
Carboxylic acids can react with metals
Alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids
Carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds
Which one is not an acid salt?
Options
Na2H2PO4
NaH2PO2
NaH2PO3
None of the above
Esterification is a __________.
Options
Condensation reaction
Irreversible reaction
Addition reaction
Neutralization reaction
Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?
Options
NaCl
NH4Cl
KCl
Na2SO4
Which is false about the formation of ethanol?
Options
Ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane
Ethanol contains a hydroxyl group
Ethanol is used as a fuel
Ethanol is a solvent
Which one will not be hydrolysed?
Options
Potassium nitrate
Potassium cyanide
Potassium succinate
Potassium carbonate
What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?
Options
Concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm
Concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis
Options
CH3COOK
NaNO3
KCl
K2SO4
In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form
Options
2 bond
3 bond
4 bond
5 bond
Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution
Options
(NH4)2SO4
Ba(NO3)2
CrCl3
CuSO4
Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:
Options
One σ bond, one π bond
Two π bond, one π bond
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, two π bond
Acetylene has a total of:
Options
One σ bond, two π bond
Two σ bond, four π bond
Three σ bond, two π bond
One σ bond, four π bond
The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from
Options
A strong acid and strong base
A strong acid and weak base
A weak acid and weak base
A weak acid and strong base
Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?
Options
KNO3
NaOH
FeCl3
NaCN
In propene there are
Options
Eight σ bond, one π bond
Seven σ bond, two π bond
Six σ bond, three π bond
Nine σ bond
In propyne there are
Options
Six σ bond, two π bond
Seven σ bond, one π bond
Six σ bond, one π bond
Eight σ bond
1-Buten -3-yne has
Options
Six σ bond, four π bond
Seven σ bond, three π bond
Eight σ bond, two π bond
Nine σ bond, one π bond
Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is
Options
CH3CH2CH3
CH3C≡CH
CH2CH=CH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2
Compound in which carbon use only sp3 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is:
Options
CH4
H2N-CH2-NH2
H3C-OH
(CH3)3COH
When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to
Options
2 other atoms
4 other atoms
3 other atoms
5 other atoms
Compound in which carbon use only sp2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is
Options
C6H6
H2N-CH2-NH2
CH2=CH-CH=CH2
CH3CH=C=CH2
Which of the following is a planar molecule?
Options
Formaldehyde
Acetone
Formic acid
Acetic acid
What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?
Options
180o
120o
109.5o
115.5o
The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is
Options
60o
109.28o
120o
118.28o
The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is
Options
60o
120o
90o
180o
What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?
Options
1.20 Ǻ
1.35 Ǻ
1.54 Ǻ
1.68 Ǻ
The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:
Options
Triple, duble, single
Single, duble, triple
Single, triple, duble
Duble, triple, single.
Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?
Options
C-C < C=C < C≡C
C-C > C≡C > C=C
C≡C > C-C > C=C
C≡C < C=C< C-C
Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?
Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3
The carbon-carbon length is maximum in
Options
CH2 = CH2
CH3CH3
HC ≡ CH
CHCI3
Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?
Options
Ethyl alcohol
Formaldehyde
Diethyl ether
1,3-butadien
Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?
Options
Cis-1,2-dichloroetylene
O- dichlorobenzene
Trans-1,2- dichloroetylene
P- dichlorobenzene
Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?
Options
CI2
CO2
CCI4
CHCI3
Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?
Options
Carbon tetrachloride
Chloromethane
Dichloromethane
Chloroform
Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?
Options
CH3CI
CH3Br
CH3F
CH3I
Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?
Options
ClCH2CHClCOOH
CH3CHClCHClCOOH
CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH
C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH
Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?
Options
Ketone
Aldehyde
Amine
Ester
Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the same
carbon atom?
Options
Ester
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the same
carbon atom?
Options
Amide
Ketone
Carboxylic acid
Ester
One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other compounds is
that in aldehydes and ketones
Options
The carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other
carbonyl compounds.
The polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.
The molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.
The carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.
The carbonyl group is
Options
Found only in aldehydes and ketones.
Produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.
A functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.
A general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.
All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true except
Options
The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.
The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.
Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.
In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.
The IUPAC name for acetone is
Options
2-propanone.
Dimethyl ketone
1-propanone.
3-propanal.
The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is
Options
3-propanal.
2-propanone.
Acetone.
1-propanone.
Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid solution?
Options
NH4Cl
Al2(SO4)3
AgNO3
NaCN
The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is
Options
3- methyl 1 butanone.
2-methylbutanal.
3-methylbutanal
Isopentanal
A buffer solution changes its pH
Options
Increase in pH
Decrease in pH
No change in pH
No change in electrical conductivity
The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is
Options
Isobutyl acetone
2- methyl – 4- butanone
4 –methyl – 2- butanone.
4- methyl – 2- pentanone.
About buffer solution which in incorrect?
Options
It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base
It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
All of the above
Which of the following names does not fit a real compound?
Options
3-octanone
2-butanone
3- methyl -3-pentanone all are correct
3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone
Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?
Options
Strong acid and its salt of a weak base
Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
Strong acid and its salt of a strong base
Which is a buffer solution?
Options
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
CH3COOH + NH4Cl
NaOH + NaCl
Which of the following is a buffer?
Options
NaOH + CH3COONa
NaOH + Na2SO4
K2SO4 + H2SO4
NH4OH + NH4Cl
Which is not a buffer solution?
Options
NH4Cl + NH4OH
CH3COOH + CH3COONa
CH3COONa
Borax + Boric acid
Which of the following names does not fit a real compound
Options
3-ethylpentanal
4-methylpentanal
3- methyl- 2- pentanal
2-methylpentanal
PH of blood is
Options
Less than 6
Greater than 7 and less than 8
Greater than 8 and less than 9
Greater than 10
Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?
Options
They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded
to oxygen.
Most have distinctive odors.
They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.
They are polar.
Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is
Options
Acetic acid + Sodium acetate
Boric acid + Borax
Citric acid + Sodium citrate
All
All of the following are properties of acetone except
Options
Flammable.
Intoxicating.
Solvent for organic substances.
Nutrient.
Give name to positively charged particles:
Options
Radicals;
Molecules;
Anions;
Cations.
Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?
Options
Flavoring
Preservative
Hormone
Solvent
What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?
Options
NaNO2;
NaHCO3;
Na2CO3;
KMnO4
Which compound has the lowest boiling point?
Options
CH3-CO-CH3
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
Options
High heat capacity;
High polarity of molecules;
Lowfreezingpoint;
Low water ionization constant.
Which compound has the highest boiling point?
Options
CH3-CHO
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
Options
Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
Ionic strength;
Concentration of a gas in a solution;
Ion product for water.
Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:

Options
0.01M
0.001M;
0.1 M;
1.0M.
Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:
Options
Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
Atmospheric pressure;
Boiling point;
Vapor pressure.
According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:
Options
Electrons donors;
Electrons acceptor
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.
Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
Options
KCl/HCl;
NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4;
KHSO4/H2SO4;
NH3 /NH4Cl.
Strong electrolytes are characterized by:
Options
Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
Ionization constant of water;
Acid ionization constant;
Which compound has the lowest boiling point
Options
CH3-CH2-CHO
CH3-CH2-CH3
CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by
Options
H2.
Lactic acid.
NADH.
Pyruvic acid.
All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except
Options
It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.
Its systematic name is ethanal.
Its common name is acetaldehyde.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.
Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:
Options
Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.
All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except
Options
Its systematic name is propanone.
Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone
Its common name is acetone.
Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3
According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:
Options
Electrons donor;
Electrons acceptors;
Protons donors;
Protons acceptors.
The acid-base state of blood is determined of:
Options
PH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
POHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
PH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
Concentration of H+ and OH-.
Complex substances or compound classes are divided into
Options
Oxides, acid, base, salt
Oxides, base
Alkalis, salt, oxides
Ampholytes, Alkalis
Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
Hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)
The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is methyl ethyl
ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound are ____ .
Options
2-butanone;
2-propanone;
3-butanone;
3-butanone;
Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
Options
Hydroxide(OH -)
Hydrogen(H +)
Ammoniumcation(NH+4)
(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)
Tollens' reagent is used to
Options
Distinguish amines from aldehydes.
Reduce aldehydes.
Distinguish aldehydes from ketones.
Reduce ketones.
The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7
Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a
Options
Primary alcohol.
Secondary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid.
Ketone.
The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7
Oxidation of a ketone produces
Options
An aldehyde
A carboxylic acid
A primary alcohol
No reaction
The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will be?
Options
PH<7
PH> 7
PH ~7
PH = 7
All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except
Options
Oxidation of ketones produces esters.
Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +.
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.
The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
Options
PH<7
PH>7
PH ~7
PH = 7
All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except
Options
The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.
Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.
The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .
Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
Which compound will give a positive Tollen's test?
Options
Pentanal
3-pentanone
2-pentanone
Pentanoic acid
Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam
Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?
Options
A silver wire dissolves.
A brick-red precipitate forms.
The light blue color of the reagent disappears.
A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.
Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam
Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?
Options
A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.
A red precipitate forms from a blue solution
A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless
A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.
Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride

Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
What is the product of oxidation of butanal?
Options
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol
Butanoic acid
What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?
Options
Butanoic acid
Butanal
2-butanol
No reaction
Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
Options
Acidicb
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?
Options
An aldehyde
A hemiacetal
A carboxylic acid
None, ketones don't oxidize
Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?
Options
Gold
Copper
Lead
Silver
Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
Reduction of an aldehyde produces a
Options
Tertiary alcohol.
Carboxylic acid
Secondary alcohol.
Primary alcohol.
Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)
Options
Carboxylic acid.
Secondary alcohol
Aldehyde.
Tertiary alcohol.
Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
What is the product of reduction of butanal?
Options
Butanoic acid
Butane
2-butanol
1-butanol
Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them
What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?
Options
Butanal
1-butanol
2-butanol
Butanoic acid
Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of them
What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?
Options
3-methyl –2- pentanal
2- methyl -3-pentanol
3-methyl – 2-pentanol
3- methyl –2- pentene
Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam
Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?
Options
Galactose
Lactose
Maltose
Sucrose
Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutrald
None of theam
Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite
Options
Acidic
Basic
Neutral
None of theam
Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide
Options
2
13
1
7
What is the molecular formula for Glucose?
Options
CH3OH
C6H1206
C12H22O11
C6H12O5
Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide
Options
2
13
1
7
Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide
Options
2
13
1
7
Maltose is composed of which two sugars?
Options
Glucose and Glucose
Glucose and Galactose
Glucose and Fructose
Fructose and Galactose
PH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of
Options
Acid (H+-)
Conjugate base (-OH-)
Salt
Both A and Bswer D
PH can be kept constant with help of
Options
Saturated solution
Buffer solution
In which form is Glucose stored in animals?
Options
Starch
Glycogen
Dextrins
Cellulose
Buffers present in blood contain

Options
HCO3-
Hemoglobin
H2PO4-
All of them
All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-
Options
Glycogen
Inulin
Starch
Cellulose
Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings
Options
Sucrose
Ribulose
Fructose
Ribose
Choose the keto triose-
Options
Glyceraldehyde
Erythrose
Dihydroxyacetone
Arabinose
Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in
Options
Aerobic respiration
Anaerobic respiration
Transpiration
Photosynthesis
One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
Options
Carbolic anhydrase
Carbonic anhydrase
Carbolic hydrase
Carbonic hydrase
A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is-
Options
Xylose
Lyxose
Xylulose
Aldose
Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer? acetic
acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride
Options
Hydrochloric acid only
Sodium chloride or potassium acetate
Acetic acid only
Acetic acid or hydrochloric acid
α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-
Options
Epimers
Keto- Aldose Isomers
Anomers
Optical isomers
When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is
Options
Oxide
Ether
Salt
Alcohol
All tests are negative for sucrose except-
Options
Benedict
Seliwanoff
Barfoed
Osazone
When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
Options
Salt
Water
Carbon dioxide
All of above
Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-
Options
4
12
8
16
Salt among following is
Options
HCl
KCl
HNO3
H3PO4
Galactose and Glucose are-
Options
Epimers
Isomers
Anomers
Ketose- Aldose isomers
Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
Options
Neutralization
Hydrogenation
Halogenation
Sublimation
The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around one carbon
atom are called-
Options
Optical isomers
Stereo isomers
Anomers
Epimers
Basic formula for monobasic acid is
Options
AH
HA
Ha
AH
Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is
Options
High
Low
Same
Constant
What does the following equation represent? α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose
Options
Stereo isomerism
Mutarotation
Optical isomerism
Epimerization
Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
Options
Concentration of acid
PH of solution
Concentration of water molecules
Both A and B
The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-
Options
Glucose
Xylose
Lyxose
Fructose
Dulcitol is a -
Options
Sugar acid
Amino sugar
Deoxysugars
Sugar alcohol
Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-
Options
Arabinose
Erythrose
Trehalose
Ribulose
A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-
Options
Starch
Dextrin
Glycogen
Cellulose
PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing?
Options
Concentration of acid
Value of Ka
Water potential
Both A and B
Invert sugar is-
Options
Starch
Glucose
Fructose
Hydrolytic product of Sucrose
Ka is called
Options
Acid dissociation constant
Base dissociation constant
Avogadro constant
Salt dissociation constant
The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-
Options
Hyaluronic acid
Cellulose
Chitin
Chondrosamine
Which one of the following is a weak acid?
Options
HNO3
HI
HBr
HNO2
Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?
Options
Insulin
Dextrin
Cellulose
Glycogen
Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
Options
MgCl2
Ba(NO3)2
LiClO4
CsBr
A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-
Options
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
Trehalose
Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?
Options
H2O
KF
HF
HNO2
The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-
Options
Glucopyranose
Glucoside
Glucofuranose
Glucosamine
Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
Options
HClO
CH3COOH
HF
HCN
A stronger base:
Options
Is also a stronger acid;
Is also a stronger electrolyte;
Tastes sour;
Yields fewer OH- ions in solution;
Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?
Options
Benedict
Molisch
Seliwanoff
Osazone
Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?
Options
C3 H7O2N
C13H26O2
C6H12O6
C20H40O2
When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:
Options
Water and a salt
An acid and a base;
A salt and hydrogen gas;
A nonmetal oxid
Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?
Options
Ribose
Fructose
Glucose
Glyceraldehyde
A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution then
turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?
Options
HCl;
H2CO3;
KOH;
CH3CH2OH;
Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:
Options
1×10-11 M;
1×10-9 M;
1×10-7 M;
1×10-5 M;
Which of following is an anomeric pair?
Options
D-glucose and L-glucose
α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
D-glucose and D-fructose
α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose
A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:
Options
KOH;
CH4
H2SO4;
NH3
Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
Options
Glucuronate
Gluconate
Glucose
Muramic acid
Which is true about a solution that is acidic?
Options
H+] equals zero;
[OH-] equals [H+];
H+] is less than [OH-];
H+] is greater than [OH-
From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:
Options
The glucose residue is the β anomer.
The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
The compound is in its furanose form
According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:
Options
Donate a proton;
Yield H+ ions;
Donate an electron pair;
Acceptor of protons.
The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:
Options
A purine nucleotide
A pyrimidine nucleotide.
Adenosine
AMP
What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 40.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?
Options
100.0 mL;
80.0 mL;
40.0 mL;
20.0 mL
Functional Group of Alkane:
Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH
As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:
Options
Increase;
Decrease;
Remain the same;
Approach zero
Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
Options
H–C=O
C – OH
O=C–O–C
None
Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?
Options
1
7
10
14
Functional Group of Alkyl halide:
Options
None
C–X
C=C
C – OH
The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:
Options
A single replacement;
A neutralization reaction;
The process of hydrolysis;
A synthesis reaction;
How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?
Options
A pH of 2 is three times as strong;
A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;
A pH of 2 is three times as weak;
Functional Group of Alkyne:
Options
H–C=O
#NAME?
#NAME?
C≡C
Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?
Options
Chlorous acid
Acetic acid;
Perchloricacid;
Hypochlorous acid
Functional Group of Alcohol:
Options
C – OH
H–C=O
C–X
C–X
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Question
23. 23 (1/34)
24. 24
Scientist
25. 25 who first isolated nuclei of pus cells was
26. 26
Options
27. 27
28.F.Sanger
28
29.M.steward
29
30.F.Miescher
30
31.A.Einstein
31
32. 32
33. is
NAD 33an abbreviation for
34. 34
Options
NicotineAbusiveDepartment
NicotineAvoidDirections
Nicotinamideadeninedinucleotide
Nicotinamidedinucleotide
Phosphoric acid can be joined with OH group of a pentose sugar with help of
Options
Phosphodiesterbond
PrevIonicbond
SkipCovalentbond
NextEsterlinkage
RNA is synthesized from DNA by process of
Options
Translation
Transcription
Transgenic
Duplication
According to Erwin Chargoff analysis, ratio of adenine and thiamine is
Options
Equal
Unequal
Less
More
Nucleic acids
Options
Are also called nucleotides
Do not contain purine
Are polymers
Do not contain uracil
Which of the following will not be found in DNA?
Options
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine
Guanine
A nucleotide is composed of
Options
An acid, a base, and a sugar
A base, a sugar, and a phosphate
A base, and sugar
An acid, a sugar, and a phosphate
Oligonucleotides are formed from 2 to 10
Options
Strands
Hydrogen bonds
Nucleosides
Nucleotides
The variable portion of DNA is the sequence of _
Options
Phosphoric acids
Sugars
Bases
Phosphates
Which pair is a complementary base pair?
Options
C-G
A-G
A-C
G-G
Gene expression is activation of a gene to produce a specific __________ .
Options
Protein
TRNA
Amino acid
DNA
To which of the following does thymine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?
Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine
What term is used to describe the process by which DNA is copied to produce two daughter DNA
molecules?
Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription
What term is used to describe the process by which a segment of DNA is copied to produce a
molecule of messenger RNA?
Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription
What term is used to describe the process by which proteins are synthesised from a genetic code?
Options
Reproduction
Replication
Translation
Transcription
To which of the following does guanine form hydrogen bonds in DNA?
Options
Adenine
Thymine
Cytosine
Guanine
The sugar in RNA is __________ , the sugar in DNA is __________
Options
Deoxyribose, ribose
Ribose, deoxyribose
Ribose, phosphate
Ribose, uracil
Nucleoside is a pyrimidine or purine base
Options
Covalently bonded to a sugar
Ionically bonded to a sugar
Hydrogen bonded to a sugar
None of the above
In gel electrophoresis,what fragments will move most quickly through a gel?
Options
Large fragments
Small fragments
Large genome
Noneofthese
Which pyrimidine base contains an amino group at carbon 4?
Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine
The glycosidic bonds in DNA and RNA
Options
Connect the sugar to the base
Can be hydrolyzed by OH- ion
Stabilize Watson-Crick H-bonds
Are free to rotate over about 180°
Nucleic acids can be analyzed experimentally by their
Options
Molecular weight
Absorption of visible light
Absorption of uv light
None of these
A purine with an amine (NH2) group on the 6th carbon is
Options
Adenine
Cytosine
Thymine
Guanine
Which of the following is found on RNA but not DNA?
Options
Uracil
Deoxyribose
Phosphate
Adenine
Which of the following is a purine?
Options
Cytosine
Adenine
Thymine
Uracil
Identify the purine base of nucleic acids in the following
Options
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Adenine
Which of the following are not the components of RNA?
Options
Thymine
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine
Which of the following statements is true?
Options
Sugar component of a nucleotide is ribose
Sugar component of a nucleotide is deoxyribose
The bases in nucleotides are attached to a pentose sugar moiety by a glycosidic linkage
The sugar molecule of the nucleotide is in L-configuration
What is the composition of nucleoside?
Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate
What is the composition of nucleotide?
Options
A sugar + a phosphate
A base + a sugar
A base + a phosphate
A base + a sugar + phosphate
Group of adjacent nucleotides are joined by
Options
Phosphodiester bond
Peptide bond
Ionic bond
Covalent bond
The sugar molecule in a nucleotide is
Options
Pentose
Hexose
Tetrose
Triose
Building blocks of nucleic acids are
Options
Nucleotides
Nucleosides
Amino acids
Histones
INTERNATIONAL SCHOOL OF MEDICINE
Exam tests on Chemistry.

Unit 1.
Thermodynamics.
1. Thermodynamics studies –
a) General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.
c) The rate of chemical reactions.
d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.
2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:

3. What is the Open System?

b) Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings
c) Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings
d) homogeneous in composition and physical properties throughout the volume
4. What is the Closed System?

5. What is the Isolated System?

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
Chemistry Key By Group 1

7. Energy but not matter can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
8. Neither matter nor energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?
a) Open System
b) Closed System
c) Isolated System
d) Adiabatic System
9. Thermodynamic processes may be:

10. What is the Isothermal process?

11. What is the Isobaric process?

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?

14. A process during which the temperature T = const is called?

b) Isobaric process
d) Adiabaticprocess
15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?

b) Isobaric process
d) Adiabaticprocess
16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?

b) Isobaric process
d) Adiabaticprocess
17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?

b) Isobaric process
d) Adiabaticprocess
18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?

b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Vant Hoff
d) Gibbs
19. The basic formula for Entropy;

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
d) S = KlnW
20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
d) S = KlnW

21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.

a) Q=∆U+A
b) H=U+pV
d) ∆S = S(initial) - S(final)
22. Internal energy is called?

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
24. Enthalpy is called?

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

a) Internal energy
b) Enthalpy
c) Entropy;
26. The heat transfer are divided into

27. What is the thermal conductivity?

d) None of them.
28. What is the convection?

d) None of them.
29. What is the radiation?

d) None of them.
30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?

b) Rudolf Clausius
c) Mendeleev
d) Gibbs
31. What is the endothermic process?

32. What is the exothermic process?

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?

d) Endothermic reactions
34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

d) Exothermic reactions
35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.

a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
c) ΔHr = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W
36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law

a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
c) Q= ΔU+ W
d)ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:

a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6
c) ΔH = Σ ΔHc° (reactants) - Σ ΔHc° (product)
d) Q= ΔU+ W
38. System consisting of three phases is called

a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open
39. System consisting of one phase is called

a) heterogeneous
b) homogeneous
c) isolated
d) open
40. What is the heterogeneous system?

41. What is the homogeneous system?


42. What are the units of energy?

a) volta
b)pascal
c)liter
d)joule
43. Spontaneous process occurs only
a) without external energy

b) at constant temperature
c) in forward direction
d) with external energy help
44. Internal energy is ……

a) energy of system at constant pressure
b) Gibbs energy
c) energy of system at constant volume
d) measure of systems randomness
45. Enthalpy is expressed by following

a) H = U + pV
b) ∆H1 = ∆H2 + ∆H3
c) H = G + TS
d) Qp = ∆H
46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state

a) A b) G c) Qp d) H
47. Find state parametre

a) Q b) G c) T d) H
48.Indicate which function isn’t function of state

a) Q b) G c) Qp d) S
49. Find state parameter
a) Q b) G c) v d) H
50.For spontaneous processes
a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0
Chemical kinetics
51. Chemical kinetics studies –
a) energy changes during chemical transformations.

b) the rate of chemical reactions.
c) general laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.
d)of chemical processes that cause electrons to move.
52. Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule is called?

a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Trimolecular
d) Radical reaction
53. Reaction elementary act which is carried out in a collision of two particles is called?
a) Monomolecular
b) Radical reaction
c) Dimolecular
d) Trimolecular
54.Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles:
a) Monomolecular
b) Dimolecular
c) Radical reaction
d) Trimolecular
55. What is the Monomolecular reaction?
a) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of one molecule.

c) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) Reactions in which there is a chemical conversion of four molecules.
56. What is theDimolecular Reaction?

c) Conjugate reactions.
d) Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
57. What is theTrimolecular reaction?

c)Reaction elementary act which is carried out in the collision of three particles.
d) reactions proceeding simultaneously.
58. Enzymes isais a substance that …
a) increase the rate of reaction

b) decrease the rate of reaction
c) biological catalyst of reaction
d) no effect on the reaction rate
59. A substance that increases the reaction rate-

a) Catalyst c) Indicator
b) Inhibitor d) Reducing agents.
60. A substance that decrease the reactionrate-
a) Catalyst
b) Inhibitor
c) Enzymes
d) Indicator
61. Reversible reactions are called?
c) process of substance dissolution
d) reactions proceeding in parallel
62. Irreversible reactions are called?

c) reactions proceeding in parallel
d) process of substance dissolution
63. The reactions that can go forwards or backwards is called?

c) Soluble
d) Insoluble
64. The reactions that cannot go back is called?

c) Soluble
d) Insoluble

65. A material that dissolves is called?
c) Soluble
d) Insoluble
66. A material that doesn’t dissolve is called?

c) Soluble
d) Insoluble
a) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) I2 → I • + I •
b) Cl2 → 2Cl
d) 2HI → H2 + I2

b) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl +S

b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O
d) 2FeCl3 +H2S → 2FeCl2 +2HCl
a) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr

b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

b) 2HI → H2 + I2
c) N2O4 → 2NO2
d) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
c) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4→Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
a) N2O4 → 2NO2
b) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

a) 2NH4NO3→ 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) N2O4 → 2NO2
c) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2

a) O2 + NO + NO → 2NO2
b) I2 → I • + I •
c) CH3Br + KOH → CH3 OH + KBr
d) N2O4 → 2NO2

c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) Cl2 → 2Cl

a) Na2S2O3 + H2SO4 = Na2SO4 + S + SO2 + H20
b) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
c) 2NO + H2 → N2O + HOH

a) Cl2 → 2Cl
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
a) 2HI → H2 + I2
b) HCLO3 + P + H2O = H2PO4 + HCL
c) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O

a) 2NH4NO3 = 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O
b) 3NaClO = NaClO3 + 2NaCl
c) 2HI → H2 + I2
d) l2 → 2Cl
83. Which expression corresponds to the chemical equilibrium constant for this reaction?
N2 +3H2 = 2NH3
a) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] + [H2] 3 c) Kc = [NH3] 2 / [N2] [H2] 3
2
b) Kc = [NH3] / [N2] [H2] d) Kc = [N2] [H2] 3 / [NH3] 2
84. What is the equilibrium constant of this reaction?

2NO + O2→2NO2
a) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] [O2] c) Kc = [NO2] 2 / [NO] 2 [O2]
2
b) Kc = [NO] [O2] / [NO2] d) Kc = [NO2] / [NO] [O2]
85. The equilibrium constant for the reaction?

2CO (g) + O2 (g) = 2CO2 (g):
a)Kc = [CO2] 2 / [CO] 2 [O2]; c) Kc = 1 / [CO2];
b) Kc = [CO2] / [CO]; d) Kc = [CO] / [CO2].
86. Equilibrium constant of NaNO3 ↔ NaNO2 + O2 reaction is (imp by group1)

a) K= [O2]
b) K= [NaNO2]/ [NaNO3 ]
c) K= [NaNO2]. [O2 ]/ [NaNO3 ]
d) K= [NaNO3 ]
87. Equilibrium constant of CaCO3 ↔ CaO + CO2 reaction is(imp by group1)

a) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]/ [CaCO3 ]

b) K = [CO2 ]
c) K = [CaO]/ [CaCO3 ]
d) K = [CaO]. [CO2 ]
88. In what direction the equilibrium state of N2+ H2 ↔ NH3 reaction will be shifted at pressure
elevation?
a) backward
b) forward
c) won’t shifted
d) towards reactants
89. The rate constant of a reactions depends on

a) Temperature
b) Initial concentration of the reactants
c) Time of reaction
d) Extent of reaction
90. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the(imp by group1)
a) Concentration of the reactant
b)Concentration of the product
c)Time
d)Temperature
91. A catalyst is a substance which

a) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
b) Changes the equilibrium constant of reaction
c) Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
d) Supplies energy to the reaction
92.The rate of reaction of substances is proportional of their
a) Stability
b) Molecular weight
c) Equivalent weight
d) Active mass
93. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are
a) Same
b) Different
c) One side more
d) Not definite
94.A chemical reaction is at equilibrium when the rate of forward and backward reaction are
a) Unequal b)Constant c)Equal d)Increased

95. The law of mass action was enunciated by
a) Guldberg and Waage

b) Bodenstein
c) Berthlot
d) Graham
96.According to Le Chatelier principle, an increase in the temperature of the following reaction

will
N2+O2= 2NO – 43200 cal
a) Increase the yield of NO

b) Decrease by yield of NO
c) Not effect on the yield of NO
d) Not help the reaction to proceed
97.Given the reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)

Why is the reaction slower when a single piece of zinc is used than when powdered zinc of the
same mass is used?
a) the powdered zinc is more concentrated;
b) the single piece of zinc is more reactive;
c) the powdered zinc requires less activation energy;
d) the powdered zinc has a greater surface area.
98. Which takes place when a catalyst is added to a reaction at equilibrium?
a) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the right;
b) the point of equilibrium is shifted to the left;
c) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased unequally;
d) the forward and reverse reactions rates are increased equally.
99.As the frequency and the number of effective collisions between reacting particles increases,
the rate of the reaction:
a) increases; b) decreases; c) remains the same; d) approaches zero

100. Which factors are equal in a reversible chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?
a) The number of moles of the reactants and products;
b) The potential energies of the reactants and products;
c) The activation energies of the forward and reverse reactions;
d) The rates of reaction for the forward and reverse reactions.
101. A catalyst is added to a system at equilibrium. The concentration of the reactants will then:
(imp by group1)
a) decrease; b) increase; c) remain the same; d) approach zero
102. In an effort to speed up a reaction between a solid and a gas one would not:
a) make an effort to concentrate the reactants as best as possible;
b) add a catalyst;
c) cool the reaction down;
d) use a powdered solid instead of one big lump of the same solid.
103. Which reaction below is expected to go to completion?
I. Zn + HCl; II. HCl + NaOH; III. Ag1+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
a) II only; b) III only; c) I and II only; d) II and III only
Solutions.
104. Molarity is expressed as
a)grams/litre b) litres/mole c)moles/litre d)moles/1000 gm
105.Amolal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in
a)1000 gm of the solvent c)onelitre of the solution
b) one litre of the solvent d) 22.4 litres of the solution
106. Normality is expressed as

a)moles/litre b)gm equivalents/litre c)moles/1000 gm d)gram/litre
107. The normality of 10% (w/v) acetic acid is
a) 1 N b) 10 N c) 1.7 N d) 0.83 N
108. Normality of a solution containing 0.50 g-eq of a substance in 2 litres of solution is
a) 1N
b) 0x1N
c) 4N
d) None
109. The normality of a solution of NaOH; 100ml. of which contains 4g of NaOH is
a) 0x1
b) 1.0
c) 4.0
d) 0.4
110. Normality of sulphuric acid containing 50g of the acid in 500 ml of solution is
a) 2.04 N
b) 0.49 N
c) 0.98 N
d) 0.35 N
111. What is the normality of a 1 M solution of H3PO4?
a) 0.5 N
b) 1.0 N
c) 2.0 N
d) 3.0 N
112.Normality of 2M sulphuric acid is
a) 2N
b) 4N
c) N/2
d) N/4
113.The normality of a 2.3 M sulphuric acid solution is
a) 0.46 N
b) 0.23 N
c) 2.3 N
d) 4.6 N

114. The weight of pure NaOH required to prepare 250 cm3 of 0.1 N solution is
a) 4g
b) 1g
c) 2g
d) 10 g
115. Molarity of a 0.2 N Na2CO3 solution will be
a) 0.05 M
b) 0.2 M
c) 0.1 M
d) 0.4 M
116. The molarity of pure water is
a) 55.6
b) 50
c) 100
d) 18
117. The number of moles in 180 g of water is
a) 1
b) 10
c) 18
d) 100
118. The number of moles of KCl in 1000 ml of 3 molar solution is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 1.5
119.Molarity of 4% NaOH solution is
a) 0.1 M
b) 0.5 M
c) 0.01 M
d) 1.0 M
120. What is the solution?



121. What is the solute?
122. What is the solvent?
123. What is the concentration?
124. A mixture consisting of a solute and a solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
125. Component of a solution present in the lesser amount is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
126. Component of a solution present in the greater amount is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
127. Amount of a solute present in a solution per standard amount of solvent is called?
a) Solution
b) Solute
c) Solvent
d) Concentration
128. Mass fraction is called?
a) The number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.

b) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
d) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
129. Mass fraction is expressed in:
a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.
130. Mathematical expression of the Mass fraction

neq msolute
a) CE = c) =
V msolution
CM CEME
T= = msubstance1000
b) 1000 1000 d) B=
M  m solution
131.The molar concentration iscalled?

d) the mass of solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
132. Molar concentration is expressed in:
a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.
133. Mathematical expression of the Molar concentration

neq
CE =
a) msolute c) V
=
msolution
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000

134. The molar concentration of equivalent is called?

a) the equivalent amount of a substance contained in 1 liter of solution.
b) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
c) the mass of substance in 1 liter of solution.
d) the ratio of the mass of the solute in the mass solution:
135. The molar concentration of equivalent is expressed in:
a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.
136. Mathematical expression of the molar concentration equivalent
a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000
137. The molal concentration is:

d) the number of moles solute contained in 1 kg of solvent.
138. Molal concentration is expressed in:
a) mol / kg.
b) percentage
c) mol / l.
d) g / ml.
139. Mathematical expression of theMolal concentration
a) msolute c) neq
= CE =
msolution V
nsolute msolute
C = ------------- = --------------------- msubstance1000

140. Find volume concentration
a) mass percent
b) normality
c) molality
d) mass fraction
141. Who had developed theory of solutions chemical nature

a) Vant Hoff
b) Mendeleev
c) Arrhenius
d) Lomonosov
142. Find equivalent mass of sulphuric acid

a) 98 b) 2 c) 32 d) 49
143. Find equivalent mass of phosphoric acid
a) 98 b) 2 c) 32.6 d) 49
144. Find equivalent mass of calcium hydroxide

a) 98 b) 37 c) 32 d) 49
145. “Activation energy” term is introduced by

a) coordination theory
b) theory of valent bonds
c) theory of active collisions
d) theory of electrolytic dissociation
146. When there is a low concentration of solute in a solution, it is known as
a) diluted solution
b) saturated solution
c) concentrated solution
d) unsaturated solution
147.Solution is highly concentrated when solute is in
a) high concentration
b) low concentration
c) high temeprature
d) low temeprature
148. One of most common kind of titration involves exact neutralization of an alkali (-OH-) by
a/an
a) base
b) acid

c) salt
d) suspension
149. Number of moles of solute dissolved per dm3 of solution is

a) molality
b) percentage
c) concentration
d) molarity
150. A homogeneous mixture of two substances is a

a) colloid.
b) suspension
c) solution.
d) compound.
151. The dissolving medium in the solution is the

a) solute. c)solution.
b) solvent. d) mixture.
152. Which of the following is not a solution?

a) zinc c) brass
b) sterling silver d) stainless steel
153. What is the solvent in 70% alcohol solution?

a) alcohol c) sugar
b) water d) kerosene
154. Which of these solutions is in solid phase?

a) tincture of iodine c) aerosol
b)air-iodine solution d)dental amalgam
155. Which of the following is not a property of solution?

a)It has a definite composition.
b)It has a homogeneous composition.
c)It is consist of a single phase.
d)It can be physically separated into its components.
156. A solution containing the maximum amount of dissolved solute is

a)concentrated. c)dilute.
b)unsaturated. d)saturated.
157. Of the following, which will increase the solubility of a gas in water?
a)increasing the temperature c) increasing the volume
b)increasing the pressure d)decreasing the pressure
158. What opposing processes occur in saturated solution?

a) Vaporization and condensation c)Oxidation and reduction

b) Dissolution and crystallization d) Dissociation and reduction
159. Which solutions has concentration of 1M? The molar mass of sucrose is 342 g. A solution
containing
a) 342 g sucrose in 658 g of water
b) 342 g sucrose in 1000 mL of solution
c) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of water
d) 342 g sucrose in 1000 g of solution
160. Kerosene is a nonpolar solvent. Which solute will dissolve in it?

a.) hexane c)ethanol
b)sodium carbonate d)potassium chloride
161. Most salt become soluble in water as the

a) pressure is increased. c)temperature is decreased.
b)temperature is increased. d) pressure is decreased.
162. It refers to the mass of solute dissolve in 100 g of solution.

163. The number of moles of solute divided by the number of kilograms of solvent is
164. It refers to the process of preparing a less concentrated solution from a more concentrated
solution.
a) Molarity c)Dilution
b)Normality d)Molality
165. In dilution of solution,

a) a solute is added to the solution.
b)solvent is added to the solution.
c) the amount of moles increases.
d)volume of solution decreases.
166. A 40% alcohol contains

a)40 mL alcohol in 100 mL of water.
b)40 mL alcohol in 60 mL of water.
c)60 mL of alcohol in 100 mL of water.
d)60 mL of alcohol in 40 mL of water.
Colligative properties of solutions.
167. Solutions are:

а) isolated systems, separated from the surroundings by an interface surface;

b) homogeneous systems which do not exchange by mass withthe surroundings;
c)homogeneous systems which contain at least two components;
d) heterogeneous systems which contain at least two components.
168. Solubility of solids depends upon:

a) temperature, the nature of solutes and solvents; c) heat of solution;
b) pressure; d) all answers are right.
169. In accordance with the state of solvents solutions are:

a) liquid, transparent, colored;
b) solid, liquid, turbid;
c) gaseous, liquid, solid;
d) liquid, turbid, colored.
170. Name equilibrium constants which characterize homogeneous equilibrium in aqueous
solutions:
a) solubility product constant (Ksp);
b) acid ionization constant (Ka);base ionization constant (Kb);
c) molar freezing-point constant (Kf);
d) molarboiling-point constant (Kb).
171. Colligative (collective) properties of solutions depend upon the number

of solute particles and not their nature. They are:
a) vapor pressure lowering;
b)density;
c) viscosity;
d) diffusion.
172. The statement that solubility of a gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial
pressure above the solution is defined as:
a) The Henry’s law;
b) The Sechenov equation;
c) The Ostvald’s dilution law;
d) The Paul’s principle.
173. An erythrocyte placed into 10% NaCl solution undergoes:

a) Hemolysis;
b) Plasmolysis;
c) Swelling;
d) Precipitation.
174. Point out a solution with the highest boiling point:

a) 0.01M sucrose;
b) 0.01 M sodium phosphate;
c) 0.01 М potassium chloride;
d) 0.01 M sodium carbonate.
175. The Raoult’sebullioscopic law can be defined as:

а) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayslower than that of pure solvents;
b) boiling points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are alwayshigher than that of pure solvents;
c) boiling points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutionsthat contain nonvolatile
solutes;
d) boiling points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes.
176. Solutions which are applied in medicine for intravenous injections are characterized by their
osmolarity or osmolality. These concentration units express:
a) concentrationofwater;
b) concentration of substances unable to diffuse through cell membranes;
c) concentration of substances able to diffuse through cell membranes;
d) concentration of electrolytes.
177.Point outsolutions which are isotonic with blood plasma:

а) 3 % sodium chloride;4.5 % glucose;
b) 0.9 % glucose;0.9 % sodium chloride;
c) 0.9 % sodium chloride; 4.5 % glucose;
d) 20 % glucose; 10% CaCl2.

178. Define the Raoult’scryoscopic law:
a)Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always lower than that of pure
solvents;
b) Freezing points of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes are always higher than that of pure
solvents;
c) Freezing points of pure solvents are always lower than that of solutions;
d) Freezing points of pure solvents are always higher than that of solutions.
179. The first Raoult’s Law is defined as:

a) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always less than that of pure
solvents;
b) The decrease in vapor pressure is not proportional to the mole fraction of a solute;
c) The vapor pressure of solutions containing nonvolatile solutes is always higher than that of pure
solvents;
d) The vapor pressure of solutions containing volatile solutes is always less than that of pure solvents.
180. In order to increase solubility of gases in water it is necessary:

a) to increase gas pressure above water; solution;to decrease temperature;
b) to add some electrolytes into a solution;
c)to add some nonelectrolytes into a solution;
d) to increase temperature.
181. Osmosis is a spontaneous process defined as:

a) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
solution of a weak electrolyte into a solution of a strong electrolyte;
b) A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
truesolution to a colloidal solution;
c) A reversible thermodynamic process of solute diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
pure water to a solution;
d)A reversible thermodynamic process of water diffusion through semipermeable membrane from a
dilute solution into a more concentrated one.

182. Cryoscopy and ebullioscopy are experimental methods to determine:
a)Density; c) Viscosity;
b) Molar mass; d) Osmotic pressure.
183. The osmolarity of 5.0×10-2 M NaCl is equal to:

a) 2.0×10-2osmol; c) 3.0×10-2osmol;
-1
b) 1.0×10 osmol; d) 5.0×10-3osmol.
184. Osmolarity is:

a) the molarity of particles in a solution;
b) the amount of solute dissolved in a specified amount of solution;
c) mass percentage concentration;
d) the concentration in parts per thousand.
185. Osmotic pressure can be calculated according to the following equation:

a)  = MRT;
b) Tf = Kf Cm;
c) Tb = KbCm;
d) Tf =iKf Cm.
186. Normal osmotic pressure of blood plasma is:

a) 740-780 kPa;
b) 140-240 kPa;
c) 840-980 kPa;
d) 60-70 kPa.
187. Colligative properties of solutions depend upon:

a) the number of the solute particles;
b) the chemical structure of solute;
c) catalysts;
d) pH scale.

188. Boiling point of solution with concentration rise
a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) no effect
189. Solvent’s saturated vapor pressure over solution

a) increases
b) remains same
c) Decreases
d) None of them
190. Osmotic pressure of solution with concentration rise
a) increases
b) remains same
c) decreases
d) increases then decreases
191. For spontaneous processes

a) ∆H ≥ 0 b) ∆S ≤ 0 c) ∆G ≥ 0 d) ∆H≤ 0
192. Colligative property of solution of nonelectrolyte doesn’t depend on

a) concentration
b) nature of solvent
c) temperature
d) nature of solute
193. Saturated vapour pressure of solution (according to Raoult’s law) is directly proportional
to
a) temperature
b) molar fraction of solute
c) molar fraction of solvent
d) mixing rate
194. Solutions having osmotic pressure higher than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) Hypertonic
195. Solutions having osmotic pressure less than that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
196. Solutions having same osmotic pressure are called

a) hypotonic

b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
197. Solutions having osmotic pressure same with that of blood plasma are called
a) hypotonic
b) isoosmotic
c) saturated
d) isotonic
198. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of Vant Hoff law is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
199. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of freezing point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
200. Method of determination of molar mass of solute on the base of boiling point is called
a) cryometry
b) osmometry
c) pH-metry
d) ebuliometry
201. The solubility of a gas dissolved in a liquid is not affected by the
a.)Nature of solute and solvent c)Temperature
b)Rate at which the gas dissolves d)Pressure
202. Which involves the colligative properties?

a)Heating of solvent.
b)Allowing a carbonated beverage to warm to room temperature.
c)Adding salt to the water in which pasta is being cooked.
d)Pouring a concentrated solution into a dilute solution.
203. The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower
concentration is known as :
a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Active Transport
d) Phagocytosis
204. The movement of water molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low
a) Active Transport
b) Diffusion
c) Phagocytosis

d) Osmosis
205. The movement of molecules from an area of low concentration to an area of high
concentration against the concentration gradient is known as :
a) Active Transport c) Diffusion
b) Osmosis d)Phagocytosis
206. Colligative properties of the solution depend on
a) Nature of solute
b) Nature of solvent
c) Number of particles present in the solution
d) Number of moles of solvent only
207. Which one is a colligative property?
a) Boiling point
b) Vapour pressure
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Freezing point
208. Which of the following is not a colligative propretry?
a) Osmotic pressure
b) Elevation of b.p.
c) Vapour pressure
d) Depression of f.p.
209. Which is not a colligative property?
a) Freezing point
b) Lowering of vapour pressure
c) Depression of freezing point
d) Elevation of boiling point
210. Which of the following is a colligative property?
a) Surface tension
b) Viscosity
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Boiling point
211. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number of
a) Solute molecules to the solvent molecules

b) Solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
c) Solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution

d) Solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute
212. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute. This law
was given by
a) Raoult
b) Ostwald
c) Van’t Hoff
d) Lewis
213. According to Raoult’s law, the relative lowering of vapour for a solution is equal to
a) Moles of solute
b) Mole fraction of solvent
c) Moles of solvent
d) Mole fraction of solute
214. A mixture of benzene and toluene forms
a) An ideal solution
b) Non-ideal solution
c) Suspension
d) Emulsion
215. When common salt is dissolved in water
a) M. p. of the solution increases

b) B. p. of the solution increases
c) B. p. of the solution decreases
d) Both m. p. and b. p. decreases
216. Elevation of boiling point of a solution is directly proportional to
a) Molecular wt. of solute

b) Molecular wt. of solvent
c) Molality of solute
d) None of these
217. When a #solutionis separated from a solvent by semipermeable membrane, then

phenomenon taking place is called ………………….(solute #correction)
a) Osmosis
b) Diffusion
c) Cataphoresis
d) Plasmolysis

218. The osmotic pressure of a solution is given by theformula:
a) П =ST/C
b) П = CT/S
c) П = SC/T
d) П / C = ST
219. The melting point of an impure compound is generally ____________ that of the pure solid.
a)less than c)greater than
b)the same as d) greater than or equal to
220. If Solution A contains5 gNaCl in 100 mL water and Solution B contains 10 gNaCl in
100mL water, which of the following is true about solution A and B ?
a) Solution A has greater boiling point than Solution B.
b) Solution B has greater boiling point than Solution A.
c) Solution A and B have the same boiling point.
d) none of them.
221. What happens during osmosis?

a) Pure solvent diffuses through a membrane but solutes do not.
b) Pure solutes diffuse through a membrane but solvent does not.
c)Gazes diffuse through a membrane into a solution and build up pressure.
d) Pure solvent and a solution both diffuse at the same time through a membrane.
222. According to Raoult`s law, which statement is FALSE?
a) The solubility of a gaz increases as the temperature increases.

b) The greater the pressure of a gaz over a solution the greater its solubility.
c)The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution is less than that of pure solvent.
d) The vapor pressure of a solvent over a solution decreases as its mole fraction increases.
223. In what temperature does the vapor pressure of the liquid equal the atmospheric pressure?
a)1000C c) melting point
b) boiling point d) freezing point
224. A substance whose water solution an electric current is called a (n)
a) electrolyte c) polar substance

b) nonelectrolyte d)nonpolar substance

225. A substance that vaporizes easily is known as
a) volatile c)electrolyte
b) nonvolatile d) nonelectrolyte
Electrolytic dissociation of water, acids, bases and salts.
Salts hydrolysis. Buffer systems.
226. Acetic acid is weak because
a) It is unstable
b) It is an organic aliphatic acid
c) It is slightly ionized
d) None of these
227. At 800 C pure distilled water has [H3O+] concentration equal to 1x10-6mol/L. The value of Kw
at this temperature will be
a) 1x10-6
b) 1x10-12
c) 1x10-14
d) 1x10-5
228. One litre of water contains 10-7 moles of H+ ions. Percentage degree of inonization of water is
a) 1.8 x 10-7
b) 0.8 x 10-9
c) 3.6 x 10-7
d) 3.6 x 10-9
229. The concentration of [H+] and concentration of [OH-] of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of 2%
ionized weak acid is (ionic product of water = 1x10-14).
a) 0.02 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-11 M respectively

b) 1 x 10-3 M and 3 x 10-11 M respectively
c) 2 x 10-3 M and 5 x 10-12 M respectively
d) 3 x 10-12 M and 4 x 10-13 M respectively
230. The concentration of hydrogen ion [H+] in 0.01 M HCl is
a) 10-12 b)10-2 c)10-4 d)10-13
231. The number of hydrogen ions in 1 ml solution of pH 13 is
a) 10-13

b) 1013
c) 6.023 x 107
d) 6.0233 x 1010
232. pH of 10-10 molar HCl solution is approximately
a) 10
b) 7
c) 1
d) 14
233. The pH of a 10-8 molar solution of HCl in water is
a) 8
b) -8
c) Between 7 and 8
d) Between 6 and 7
234. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is
a) 8
b) 1 x 10-7
c) 7
d) 1
235. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 is
a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric
236. The aqueous solution of FeCl3 is acidic to
a) Acidic impurities
b) Ionization
c) Hydrolysis
d) Dissociation
237. FeCl3 solution is
a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric

238. Aqueous solution of sodium acetate is
a) Neutral c)Strongly acidic

b) Weakly acidic d)Alkaline
239. An aqueous solution of aluminiumsulphate would show
a) An acidic reaction
b) A neutral reaction
c) A basic reaction
d) Both acidic and basic reaction
240. An aqueous solution of ammonium acetate is
a) Faintly acidic
b) Fairly acidic
c) Faintly alkaline
d) Almost neutral
241. Which one of the following is acid salt?
a) Na2S
b) Na2SO3
c) NaHSO3
d) Na2SO4
242. Which salt can be classified as an acid salt?
a) Na2SO4
b) BiOCl
c) Pb(OH)Cl
d) Na2HPO4
243. Which one is not an acid salt?
a) Na2H2PO4
b) NaH2PO2
c) NaH2PO3
d) None of the above
244. Which of the following salts when dissolved in water hydrolyse?
a) NaCl
b) NH4Cl
c) KCl
d) Na2SO4

245. Which one will not be hydrolysed?
a) Potassium nitrate
b) Potassium cyanide
c) Potassium succinate
d) Potassium carbonate
246. Which of the following salt undergoes hydrolysis?
a) CH3COOK c)KCl
b) NaNO3 d)K2SO4
247. An aqueous solution of ammonium carbonate is
a) Weakly acidic
b) Weakly basic
c) Strongly acidic
d) Neither acidic nor basic
248. Which of the following dissolves in water to give is neutral solution
a) (NH4)2SO4
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) CrCl3
d) CuSO4
249. The aq. Solution of a salt is alkaline. This shows that salt is made from
a) A strong acid and strong base

b) A strong acid and weak base
c) A weak acid and weak base
d) A weak acid and strong base
250. Which of the following aqueous solution will have a pH less than 7.0?
a) KNO3
b) NaOH
c) FeCl3
d) NaCN
251. Addition of which chemical decreases the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid
solution?
a) NH4Cl
b) Al2(SO4)3
c) AgNO3
d) NaCN

252. A buffer solution changes its pH
a) Increase in pH
b) Decrease in pH
c) No change in pH
d) No change in electrical conductivity
253. About buffer solution which in incorrect?
a) It contains a weak acid and its conjugate base

b) It contains a weak base and its conjugate acid
c) It shows change in pH on adding small amount of acid or base
d) All of the above
254. Which solutions are mixed to form a buffer solution?
a) Strong acid and its salt of a weak base

b) Weak acid and its salt of a strong base
c) Weak acid and its salt of a weak base
d) Strong acid and its salt of a strong base
255. Which is a buffer solution?
a) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONH4
c) CH3COOH + NH4Cl
d) NaOH + NaCl
256. Which of the following is a buffer?
a) NaOH + CH3COONa
b) NaOH + Na2SO4
c) K2SO4 + H2SO4
d) NH4OH + NH4Cl
257. Which is not a buffer solution?
a) NH4Cl + NH4OH
b) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
c) CH3COONa
d) Borax + Boric acid
258. pH of blood is
a) Less than 6
b) Greater than 7 and less than 8
c) Greater than 8 and less than 9

d) Greater than 10
259. Combination used in preparation of buffer solution is
a) Acetic acid + Sodium acetate

b) Boric acid + Borax
c) Citric acid + Sodium citrate
d) All
260. Give name to positively charged particles:
а) radicals; b) molecules; c) anions; d) cations.
261. What substance is applied in medicine to correct acidosis?

a) NaNO2; b) NaHCO3; c) Na2CO3; d) KMnO4.
262. Water is the best medium for electrolytes dissociation due to its:
a) High heat capacity;
b) High polarity of molecules;
c) Lowfreezingpoint;
d) Low water ionization constant.
263. Weak electrolytes are characterized by:
a) Ionization percent; acid ionization constant; base ionization constant;
b) Ionic strength;
c) Concentration of a gas in a solution;
d) Ion product for water.
264. Gastric juice pH is approximately 1. The hydrogen ions molarity in it is:
а) 0.01M; b) 0.001M; c) 0.1 M; d) 1.0M.
265.Buffer capacity of a solution depends upon:

a)Nature of components; the ratio of concentrations of buffer components.
b) Atmospheric pressure;
c) Boiling point;
d) Vapor pressure.
266. According to the Bronsted theory acids are defined as:

а) Electrons donors;

c) Protons donors;
267. Specify which of the following systems can be classified as a buffer system:
a) KCl/HCl; c) KHSO4/H2SO4;
b) NaH2PO4/Na2HPO4; d) NH3 /NH4Cl.
268. Strong electrolytes are characterized by:

a) Ionic strength of solution; activity coefficient of electrolytes;
b) Ionization constant of water;
c) Acid ionization constant;
d) All answers are right.
269. Point out the buffer systemof blood plasma:

а)Hemoglobin buffer system; oxyhemoglobin buffer system;
b) Acetate buffer systems; ammonia buffer systems;
c) Hydrocarbonatebuffer systems; acetate buffer systems;
d)Hydrophosphate buffer system;ammonia buffer system.
270. According to the Bronstedtheory bases are defined as:

а) Electrons donor;
c) Protons donors;
271. The acid-base state of blood is determined of:

a) pH value, HCO3- concentration and pressure of CO2;
b) pOHvalue, H+ and OH- concentration;
c) pH value, CH3COO- and H+ concentration;
d) concentration of H+ and OH-.

272. Complex substances or compound classes are divided into
a) oxides, acid, base, salt
b) oxides, base
c) Alkalis, salt, oxides
d) Ampholytes, Alkalis
273. Electrolytes under dissociation as anions forming only __________ions are called bases.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
d) hydrogencations(H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)
274. Electrolytes that under dissociation as cations form only _________ions are called acids.
a) hydroxide(OH -)
b) hydrogen(H +)
d) (H +) and hydroxide ions ( OH -)
275. The salt formed by a weak base and strong acid (hydrolysis by cation) pH will be?
a)pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7
276. The salt formed by a strong base and strong acid pH of solution will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7
277. The salt formed by a strong base and weak acid (hydrolysis by anion) pH of solution of will
be?
a) pH<7 b) pH> 7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7
278. The salt formed by a weak acid and weak base (hydrolysis by cation and anion) pH will be?
a) pH<7 b) pH>7 c) pH ~7 d) pH = 7
279. Determine acidity of solution of cesium chloride

a) acidicb) basic c) neutral d) none of theam
280. Determine acidity of solution of calcium chloride

a) acidic b) basic c) neutrald) none of theam
281. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium chloride

282. Determine acidity of solution of copper chloride

a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of theam
283. Determine acidity of solution of barium chloride

a) acidicb) basic c) neutral d) none of theam

e
284. Determine acidity of solution of strontium chloride
285. Determine acidity of solution of iron chloride

286. Determine acidity of solution of iron sulphate

287. Determine acidity of solution of strontium sulphate

288. Determine acidity of solution of copper sulphate

289. Determine acidity of solution of ammonium sulphate

290. Determine acidity of solution of barium acetate Formatted: Indent: Hanging: 0.01"
a) acidic b) basic c) neutral d) none of them
291. Determine acidity of solution of potassium acetate

a) acidicb) basic c) neutral d) none of them
292. Determine acidity of solution of sodium acetate

293. Determine acidity of solution of calcium acetate

294. Determine acidity of solution of barium sulphite

a) acidic b)basic c)neutral d) none of theam
295. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of potassium hydroxide
a) 2 b) 13 c) 1 d) 7
296. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of sodium hydroxide
a) 2 b) 13 c) 1 d) 7
297. Determine pH of 0.1 M solution of cesium hydroxide

a) 2 b) 13 c) 1 d) 7
298. pH of buffer solution depends upon concentration of

a) acid (H+-)
b) conjugate base (-OH-)
c) salt
d) both A and Bswer D

299. PH can be kept constant with help of

a) saturated solution
b) unsaturated solution
c) buffer solution
d) super saturated solution
300. Buffers present in blood contain

a) HCO3-
b) hemoglobin
c) H2PO4-
d) all of them
301. Enzyme (carbonic anhydrase) is used in

a) aerobic respiration
b) anaerobic respiration
c) transpiration
d) photosynthesis
302. One of best catalyst which increases rate of reaction by million times is
a) carbolic anhydrase c)carbolic hydrase
b) carbonic anhydrase d)carbonic hydrase
303. Which of the following could be added to a solution of sodium acetate to produce a buffer?
acetic acid hydrochloric acid potassium acetate sodium chloride
a) hydrochloric acid only c) acetic acid only

b) sodium chloride or potassium acetate d)acetic acid or hydrochloric acid
304. When a metal replaces hydrogen atom then compound form is

a) oxide
b) ether
c) salt
d) alcohol
305. When acid reacts with metal carbonate, products are
a) salt
b) water
c) carbon dioxide
d) all of above
306. Salt among following is
a) HCl
b) KCl
c) HNO3
d) H3PO4
e)
307. Process in which acids (H+) and bases (OH-) react to form salts and water is called
a) neutralization

b) hydrogenation
c) halogenation
d) sublimation
308. Basic formula for monobasic acid is

a) AH
b) HA
c) Ha
d) aH
309.Position of equilibrium will be left if value of Ka is

a) high
b) low
c) same
d) constant
310. Value of Ka can be calculated by determining
a) concentration of acid c)concentration of water molecules
b)pH of solution d)both A and B
311. PH of weak acid can be calculated by knowing
b) value of Ka
c) water potential
d) both A and B
312. Ka is called
a) acid dissociation constant
b) base dissociation constant
c) Avogadro constant
d) salt dissociation constant
313. Which one of the following is a weak acid?

a) HNO3
b) HI
c) HBr
d) HNO2
314.Which salt is not derived from a strong acid and a strong soluble base?
a) MgCl2
b) Ba(NO3)2
c) LiClO4
d) CsBr
315. Which one of the following is a strong electrolyte?

a) H2O
b) KF
c) HF
d)HNO2

316.Which of the following weak acids ionizes to give the strongest conjugate base?
a) HClO
b) CH3COOH
c) HF
d) HCN
317. A stronger base:
a) is also a stronger acid; c) tastes sour;
b) is also a stronger electrolyte; d) yields fewer OH- ions in solution;
318. When HCl(aq) reacts with Zn(s) the products formed are:
a) water and a salt; b) an acid and a base; c) a salt and hydrogen gas; d) a nonmetal oxid
319. A substance is added to a solution containing two drops of phenolphthalein. The solution
then turns pink. Which substance would produce this color change?
a) HCl; b) H2CO3; c) KOH; d) CH3CH2OH;
320. Litmus is red when the H+ concentration in the solution is:
a) 1×10-11 M; b)1×10-9 M; c) 1×10-7 M; d)1×10-5 M;
321. A substance is dissolved in water and the only positive ions in the solution are H+ ions. This
substance is:
a) KOH; b)CH4 c) H2SO4; d) NH3
322. Which is true about a solution that is acidic?
a) [H+] equals zero; c) [H+] is less than [OH-];
b) [OH-] equals [H+]; d) [H+] is greater than [OH-]
323. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, a base can:
a) donate a proton; c)donate an electron pair;
b) yield H+ ions; d) acceptor of protons.

324. What volume of 0.200 M NaOH (aq) is needed to neutralize 40.0 mL of a 0.100 M HCl (aq)?
a) 100.0 mL; b) 80.0 mL; c) 40.0 mL; d) 20.0 mL
325. As an acidic solution is titrated with drops of base, the pH value of the solution will:
a) increase; c) remain the same;
b) decrease; d) approach zero
326. Which pH value demonstrates a solution with the greatest concentration of OH- ions?
a) 1; b) 7; c) 10; d) 14.
327. The reaction: HI(aq) + LiOH(aq) →H2O(l) + LiI(aq) is classified as:
a) a single replacement; c) the process of hydrolysis;
b) a neutralization reaction; d) a synthesis reaction;
328. How many times stronger is an acid with a pH of 2 than an acid with a pH of 5?
a) A pH of 2 is three times as strong;
b) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as strong;
c) A pH of 2 is three times as weak;
d) A pH of 2 is one thousand times as weak;
329. Which substance below is expected to be the strongest electrolyte?
a) chlorous acid; b) acetic acid; c) perchloricacid; d) hypochlorous acid
330. Which of the following statements is true?
a) NaCl is a neutral salt; c) HCl and KOH react to form hydrogen gas and water.
b) KOH is an acid; d) NaBr is basic salt.
331. Which pairing is not a set of conjugates? WRONG OPTIONS
a) OH- and H2O; c) HCl and Cl-;

b) HC2H3O2 and C2H3O2-; d) NH3 and NH4+;
332. Which reaction below is incorrect based upon the reactants given?
a) HF + LiOH → H2O + LiF; c) SO2 + H2O → H2SO3;
b) 2HCl + Zn → H2O + ZnCl2; d) K2O + H2O → 2KOH;
333. Which compound below is not correctly paired with its name?
a) KOH is potassium hydroxide;
b) H2SO3 is sulfurous acid;
c) HI is hydroiodic acid;
d) HClO2 is chloric acid
334. Which salt has a solubility that is different from the other ?
a) AgCl; b) PbBr2; c) Ca3(PO4)2; d) Na2CO3
335. A solution of a salt and 100 grams of water that can still dissolve more solute at a given
temperature is classified as:
a) unsaturated; b) supersaturated; c) saturated; d) dilute
336. The net ionic equation for the reaction between CaCl2 and Na2CO3 to form calcium
carbonate and sodium chloride would include all of the following except:
a)Cl-; b) 2Na+; c) CaCO3 d) all of the substances above
337. Which solution listed below is going to have the highest boiling point?
a) 1.5 m NaCl; c) 2.0 m C6H12O6;
b) 1.5 m AgCl; d) 2.0 m CaCl2
338. Which equation is correctly balanced?
a) Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl;
b) CH4 + 3O2 → CO2 + H2O;

c) 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 → 2KNO3 + PbI2;
d) H2SO4 + KOH → K2SO4 + H2O;
Unit 2.
Electrochemistry. Redox reactions.
339 . Sulphur has lowest oxidation number in

a)H2SO3 b)SO2 c)H2SO4 d)H2S
340. Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent:
a)H2S b)SO3 c)H2O2 d)F2
341. Which of the following agent if the most oxidizing :
a)O3 b)KMnO4 c)H2O2 d)K2Cr2O7
342. In the redox reaction: xCrCl3+yH2O2+zNaOH→Na2CrO4+NaCl+H2O
a)X=2 y=4 z=10 b)x=2 y=6 z=5 c)x=2 y=3 z=8 d)x=2 y=3 z=10
343. Reduction involves
a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of positive part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of negative part
344. The strongest reducing agent is
a)HNO2 b)H2S c)H2SO3 d)SnCl2
345. An electrolyte is one

a)Which conducts electric current c)Which dissociates into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent
b)Which is capable of ionization by passing electric current d)None of the above
346. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to

a)Dilution b)number of ions c)current density d)volume of the solution
347. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is:

a)-1/3 b) -1 c) +1 d) -3
348. Which of the following is an insulator?

a) Graphite b) Aluminium c) Diamond d)Silicon

349. In the redox reaction: xKMnO4+yNH3→KNO3+MnO2+KOH+H2O
a)X=4 y=6 b)x=8 y=3 c)x=8 y=6 d)x=3 y=8
350. Coefficient before HNO3 in given reaction MnO+PbO2+HNO3→HMnO4+Pb(NO3)2+H2O

a) 10 b) 8 c) 2 d) 5
351. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?
a)F2 b)Cl2 c)Br2 d)I2
352. Oxidation involves

a)Loss of electrons c)Increase in the valency of negative part
b)Gain of electrons d)Decrease in the valency of positive part

a)Anode b)Cathode c)Both A & B d)The surface of the electrolyte solution
354. In H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is

a)-2 b) -1 c) 0 d) -4
355. The compound which could act both as oxidizing as well as reducing agent is:
a)SO2 b)CaO c)Al2O3 d)CrO3
356.In which red-ox reaction different atoms of same substance change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular b) intramolecular c) disproportion d) none of them
357.Which of the following is a poor conductor of electricity?

a) CH3COONa b)C2H5OH c)NaCl d)KOH
358 Element accepting electrons is called

a) product b) oxidant c) reactant d) reductant
359.One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states:
a)F b) Cl c)He d)Na

360.The oxidation number of nitrogen varies from:
a) -3 to +5 b)-1 to +1 c)-3 to -5 d) -5 to +1
361.Strong electrolytes are those which

a)Dissolve readily in water c)Dissociate into ions at high dilution
b)Conduct electricity d)Completely dissociate into ions at all dilutions
362.Which of the following conducts electricity?

a) crystal NaCl b)diamond c)molten KBr d)sulphur

a)Anode b)Cathode c)Both A & B d)The surface of the electrolyte solution
364. Choose equation for electrode potential of zinc electrode

d) V = Ae-E/Rt
365. Choose equation for electrode potential of concentration galvanic cell

d) V = Ae-E/Rt
366. Oxidation Number of Halogens are:

a) -1 b) -2 c)+4 d) 0
367. Oxidation Number of Oxygen is:

a) +1 b) -2 c)- 4 d) 0
368. Choose equation for electrode potential of red-ox electrode

d) V = Ae-E/Rt
e) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn
369. Choose equation for electrode potential of chemical galvanic cell


d) φ = φ0 cu - φ0 Zn +RT/nFlnacu /azn
370. In which red-ox reaction atoms of different substances change oxidation numbers
a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
d) intramolecular
de) disproportion
371. In which red-ox reaction oxidation number of same element is changed

a) intermolecular
b) double exchange
d) disproportion
372. Element loosing electrons is called

a) product
b) oxidant
c) reactant
d) reductant
373. Electrochemistry is the branch of chemistry that deals with:

a) the interconversion of electrical energy and chemical energy;
b) the heat energy associated with chemical reactions;
c) the scientific study of the structure, properties and reactions of organic compounds;
d) the study of macroscopic, atomic, subatomic, and particulate phenomena in chemical systems in
terms of the principles, practices and concepts of physics.
374. In what case there is an oxidation process:

a) KMnO4→MnO2; b) HNO2→NO2;
c) Cl2O→HCl; d) P→H3PO4.
375. Point out the correct statements:

a)A conjugate pair of oxidizing and reducing agents is characterized by its reduction potential;
b) A reduction potential can be calculated by the Rauolt/s equation;
c) High reduction potentials correspond to weak oxidizing agents;
d) Low reduction potentials correspond to weak reducing agents.

376. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following equation:
K2Cr2O7 + KI + HCl → CrCl3 + I2 + KCl + H2O
а) 1; b) 6; c) 14; d)3.
377. What products are formed at reduction reaction of KMnO4 in the presence of base?
a) Mn(OH)2; b) MnO42-; c) MnO2; d) Mn2+.
378. What reactions occurring in aqueous solutions are redox?
a) Fe2O3 + HCl; b) FeCl3+H2S; c) Fe+ HCl; d) SO3+NaOH.
379. Point out the coefficient before the reducing agent in the following reaction:
KMnO4 + H2O2 +H2SO4 → MnSO4 + O2 +K2SO4 + H2O
а) 2; b) 5; c) 10; d) 3.
380. An oxidizing agent is an atom, a molecule or an ion, which:

а) accepts electrons;
b) donates electrons;
c) increases its oxidation number;
d) decreases its concentration.
381. Point out the scheme for galvanic cell that consistsfromzinc consists from zinc and copper
a) Zn|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Cu;
b) Cu|Zn+2(aq)|Cu+2(aq)|Zn;
c) Cu||Cu+2(aq) | Zn+2(aq)|Zn;
d) Zn|Zn+2(aq)||Cu+2(aq)|Cu.
Formatted: Font: (Default) Times New
Roman, 12 pt, Bold
Formatted: Normal, Indent: Left: -0.2", First
382. The oxidation number for hydrogen in NaH is: line: 0", Space After: 0 pt, Line spacing:
single
a) 1+; b) 2+; c) 0; d) 1-; e) 2-. Formatted: Indent: Left: -0.2", First line: 0"

383. Of the compounds below, in which one does chlorine have the highest oxidation number?
a) HCl; b) KClO3; c) HClO2; d) KClO4; e) CaCl2.
384. In the reaction Al + Fe3+ →Al3+ + Fe, the oxidizing agent is:
a) Al; b) Fe; c) Fe3+Al3+; d) Al3+ Fe3+; e) none of the above.
4. In the chemical cell reaction 2Cr + 3Ni2+ → 2Cr3+ + 3Ni, which species is reduced?
a) Cr; b) Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni; e) none of the above.
385. When Fe2+ is oxidized to Fe3+, the Fe2+ ion:
a) loses 1 electron; b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron; d) gains 1 proton
Formatted: Subtle Emphasis, Font: (Default)

+Body, 11 pt, Not Bold, Russian (Russia)
a) loses 1 electron; b) loses 1 proton; c) gains 1 electron;
d) gains 1 proton; e) gains 1 neutron.
3386. Which half reaction demonstrates conservation of mass and conservation of charge? Formatted: Indent: Left: -0.2", First line: 0"
a) Cl2 + e- → Cl1-; c) Cl2 → 2Cl1- + e-; Formatted: Justified, Indent: Left: -0.2", First
line: 0"
b) Cl2 + 2e- → Cl1-; d) Cl2 + e- → 2Cl1-; e) Cl2 + 2e- → 2Cl1-.. In the chemical cell Formatted: Font: Bold
2+ 3+
reaction 2Cr + 3Ni → 2Cr + 3Ni, which species is reduced?
a) Cr; b) Ni2+; c) Cr3+; d) Ni
Formatted: Justified, Indent: Left: -0.2", First

line: 0"
387. When the equation Co+ Ni2+ →Co3+ + Ni is balanced, the sum of the coefficients is:
a) 2; b) 3; c) 5; d) 10; e) 15.
388. What is the purpose of the salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) it allows ion migration; c) it allows electron migration;
b) it allows neutron migration; d) it prevents ion migration;
e) it prevents neutron migration.
389. Making reference to electro negativity values, which substance is most easily reduced?
a) Br2; b) Cl2; c) F2; d) I2
390. When nonspontaneous redox reactions occur by use of an external current, the process is
called:
a) neutralization; b) esterification; c) electrolysis; d) hydrolysis
Biogenic elements.
391. Cobalt as a biogenic element is found:
a) in molecule of cytochrome b
b) in molecule of vitamin B12
c) in molecule of catalase
d) in molecule of vitamin B6
392) Zinc as a biogenic element is component of:
a) enzyme catalase
b) enzyme superoxide dismutase
c) cytochrome P450
d) glutathione peroxidase
393) Reduced intake of vitamins causes:
a) hypervitaminosis
b) hypovitaminosis
c) avitaminosis
d) acidosis
394) Vitamin A deficiency can cause:

a) xeroftalmia
b) increased blood coagulation
c) growth acceleration
d) anemia
395) The nervous activity malfunctions are a consequence of hypovitaminosis of:
a) vitamin D
b) vitamin B1
c) vitamin K
d) thiamine
396. ZnO is used as
a) protective c) both (a) & (b)
b) astringent d) antidote
397. Inorganic antimicrobial agent can be
a) oxidation c) protein precipitate
b) halogenation d) all of the above
398. Hydrogen peroxide is used as
a) antiseptic b) acidifying agent c) protective d) antioxidant
399. KMnO4 solutions are used for
a) antibacterial b) antifungal c) both of the above d) antioxidant
400. All living systems composed from six organogenic elements. Choose these
elements:
a). C, N, As, B, Al, Cl;
b). H, P, S, C, O, N;
c). O, Cl, Na, K, Ca, Mg;
d). H, F, Br, Bi, As, I;

a)Cu b)P c)Br d)As

a)Cu b)S c)Ca d)Mg
403. Particles of microheterogeneous systems have sizes of

b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 cm
d) less than 10 -7 cm
404. Six major biogenic elements :

a) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
b) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
d) Elements that are in the first group of the periodic table.
405.Five minor biogenic elements:

a) Elements found in almost all of Earth’s living systems, often in relatively large quantities
b) Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
c) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
406. Trace elements:

a) Elements found in many of Earth’s living systems, and/or in relatively small quantities
b) Elements that are in the second group of the periodic table.
d)Essential elements necessary only in very small quantities to maintain the chemical reactions
407. Macroelements (or macrominerals) – the content in the organism is more than:
a)10-7% - 10-12% c) 10-3– 10-5 %
-9
b)10 % d) 10-2%
408. Microelements (or trace elements) – the content in the organism is:
a)10-2% c) 10-9%
-3 -5
b) 10 – 10 % d) 10-7% - 10-12

a) O b) S c) N d) Zn

a) O b) Fe c) N d) C

a) O b) S c) N d) I


a) P b) Cl c)Cu d) I

a) Pb b) Cl c) I d) Ca

a) Pb b) l c) O d) Mn

a) Pb b) C c)Cu d) I
Complex compounds.
415. Oxidation number of cobalt in K[Co(CO)2Cl4] is:

a)+1 b)+3 c)-1 d)-3
416. A coordination compound consists of

a) a metal ion and counterions b) ligands bound to counterions
c) a complex ion and counterions d) a metal ion bound to one or more ligands
417. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is:

a)0 b)+4 c)+3 d)+6

K4[Fe(CN)6]
a)tetrapotassiumhexacyanoferrate(II) c) potassium hexacyanoferrate(III)
b) potassium cyanoferrate(II) d) potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)
419. The coordination number is:

a) The number of donor atoms surrounding the central metal atom in a complex ion
b) The molecules or ions that surround the metal in a complex ion
c) The atom in a ligand that is bound directly to the metal atom
d) The number of positively charged particles in the complex
420. Number of hem sections in mioglobin

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
421. Determine type of [Cu(NH3)2]Cl2

a) cationic b) anionic c) monodentate d) neutral
422. Ethylenediamine would be called

a) dentate b)bidentate c) tridentate d)tetradentate

[Cr(NH3)3(H 2O)3]Cl3
a) triamminetriaquachromium(III) trichloride
b) triammineaquachromium(III) trichloride
c) triamminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
d)amminetriaquachromium(III) chloride
424. Which of the following are bidentate ligands?

(1) oxalate, - C 2O 4 2- (4)hydroxide
(2) ammonia, NH3 (5)nitrite, NO 2-
(3) chloride, Cl- (6) en
a) 1, 4, 5 b)1, 5, 6 c) 1, 6 d) 2, 3, 4, 5
Ca 3  Fe(CN)6 2
425. What is the charge of the central metal ion in ?
a) 0 b) 1+ c) 2+ d) 3+
426. Number of hem sections in hemoglobin

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
427. Acceptor of electrons in coordination compound

a) central ion b) ligands c) outer sphere ions d) all constituents
428.Complex forming ability in the sequence of d-p-s-elements

a) does’tchang b) increases c) decreasis d) none
429.Dissosiation of complex is carried out in…steps

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 and more d) always without steps
430. Dentantness of porfyrin

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
431.Particles playing role of ligands are

a) positive ions b) chelates c) negative ions d) complex ions
432. A complex ion contains a Cr3+ bound to four H2O molecules and two Cl– ions. Write its
formula.
a) [Cl(H2O)4Cr2] c) [ (H2O) Cr 4Cl2]
b) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2] d) [CrCl2(H2O)4]
433. What are the oxidation numbers of the metals in K[Au(OH)4]?

a) +1 b) +3 c) -2 d) 0
434. Which among the following is a polydentate ligand?

a) carbonyl; b) nitro; c) acetate; d) oxalate.
435. Write the formula of tetraaquadichlorochromium(III)chloride?

a) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2] Cl c) [(HOH)4Cl2Cr] Cl

b) [(HOH)4CrCl2] Cl d) [Cr(HOH)4Cl2Cl]
436. What is the systematic name of Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ?

a) Diamminedichloroplatinum(II)
b) Dichlorodiammineplatinum(II)
c) Platinum(II)diamminedichloro
d) Dichloroplatinum(II)diammine
437. What is the systematic name of Cu(NH3)42+ ?

a) Tetraamminecopper(II)
b) Coppertetraammine (II)
c) Tetraammine(II)copper
d) Tetra(II)amminecopper
438. Ligand «en» is an example of:

a) bidentate ligand; b) monodentate ligand;
c) tridentate ligand; d) hexadentate ligand.
439. The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is

a) Hexafluoridoplatinate (VI) xenon
b) Xenolhexafluoridoplatinate (V)
c) Xenon hexafluoridoplatinate (VI)
d) Xenoniumhexafluoridoplatinum (V)
440. Determine type of K2[CuCl4 ] complex

a) cationic b) anionic c) trigonal d) neutral
441. Donor of electrons in coordination compound

a)central ion b)outer sphere ions c) ligands d) none
442. Complex forming ability in raw of s-p-d-elements

a) doesn’t change b) increases c) decreases d) none of them
443.Coordination number of iron in hem

a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6
444. Dentatness of EDTA

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6
445. With rise of instability constant of complex it’s stability

a) increases b) doesn’t change c) decreases d) none of them
446. Theory of crystal field explains formation of complexes on the base of

a) rate of reaction
c) protons number

447. Particles playing role of central ion are

a) positive ions
b) neutral molecules
c) negative ions
d) complex ions
448. Find ligand of weak field

a) OH- b) Au c) CN- d) Fe2+
449. What is the systematic name of Co(H2O)62+ ?

a) Hexaaquacobalt(II)
b) Hexaaqua(II)cobalt
c) Cobalt(II)hexaaqua
d) Cobalthexaaqua(II)
450. Write the formula of Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

a) K3[Fe(CN)6] c) (CN)6[Fe K2]
b) Fe [K2(CN)6] d) [FeK2(CN)6
451. What is the systematic name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl?

a) tetraaquadichlorochromium(III) chloride
b) chloridetetraaquadichlorochromium(III)
c) tetraaquadichlorochromiumchloride(III)
d) tetraaqua(III) dichlorochromiumchloride
452.Write the formula of tris(ethylenediamine)cobalt(II) sulfate

a) [(en)3Co]SO4 c) [SO4(en)3]Co
b) [Co(en)3SO4] d) [Co(en)3]SO4
453. What are the geometry of the following complex: [Ag(NH3)2]+ ?

a) linear; c) octahedral;
b) tetrahedral; d) trigonal
454. Theory of valent bonds explains formation of complexes on the base of

a) rate of reaction
c) protons number
455. Find ligand of strong field

a) OH- b) Au c) Cl- d) NH3
456. Dentatness of ligand is

a) number of central ions
b) charge of central ion
c) number of bonds of ligand with central ion
d) ion’s total number
Unit 3.
Colloids.
457. Disperse systems consists of:

b) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
d) sol, gel
458. Disperse systems by the particle size are classified into:

b) coarse system, colloid systems, true solutions
c) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
d) sol, gel
459. What is a disperse system?

immiscible liquid.
460. Coarse systems include:

a) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) sol, gel
d) Gel, suspensions.
461. What is the Emulsion?
immiscible liquid.
462. What is the suspension?

immiscible liquid.
463. What is the aerosol?

immiscible liquid.
464. Sols are:

b) blood, lymph.
c) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
d) Blood, jelly, marmalade.
465. Gels are:

b) gelatin, lymph, marmalade.
c) blood, lymph.
d) blood, jelly, marmalade.
466. Dispersion medium: solid of discontinuous phase - gas is:

a) medical products
b) colored glass
c) pumice
d) fog
467. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – liquid is:

a) Soil
b) Moist soil
c) Rocks
d) fog
468. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

a) natural gas
b) gas from oil droplets

c) smog
d) colored glass
469. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase solid – is:

a) natural gas
b) aerosols
c) dust storms
d) pearl
470. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase liquid – is:

a) Fizzy drinks, foam
b) body fluids
c) pastes,mortar
d) smog
471. Colloidal solutions include:

a) emulsions, suspensions, aerosols
c) sol, gel
d) saline solution in water
472. Dispersion medium: solid, discontinuous phase – solid is:

a) cosmetic products
b) porous chocolate
c) some alloys
d) fog
473. Dispersion medium: gas, discontinuous phase – gas is:
a) Dust in the air

b) Aerosol
c) Fog
d) Does not exist
474. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase solid – is:

a) Sols
b) Emulsion oil
c) Fizzy drinks
d) Fog
475. Dispersion medium: liquid, discontinuous phase gas – is:

a) cream, milk
b) foam
c) pastes
d) chocolate
476. Colloid particles have sizes of

b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
477. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) negative
b) positive
c) without charge
d) zero
478. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =
a) Ba2+ b) H+ c) SO4 2- d) H+
479. Choose dispersion method of colloid systems producing

a) condensation
c) red-ox reaction
d) peptization

a) NaCl
b) Сa3(PO4)2
c) CaCl2
d) FeCl3
481. Optical property typical to colloid systems

a) reflection
b) absorption
c) scattering
d) diffusion
482. Find optical property

a) diffusion
b) osmosis
c) electroosmosis
d) absorption
483. Emulsion is

a) l/s b) l/l c) s/l d) g/l
484. Powder is
a) l/s b) l/l c) s/l d) s/g
485. Find parameter which is in equation for molecular-kinetic properties

a) μ b) η c) φ d) ξ
486. Particles of coarse systems have sizes of

b) 10 -9 - 10 -7 m
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
487. Particles of true solutions have sizes of

b) 10 -5 - 10 -3 cm
c) 10 -7 - 10 -5 m
488. Determine charge of colloid particle produced according reactionВаCl2 + H2SO4(excess) =

a) positive
b) negative
c) without charge
d) zero
489. Find potential defining ions in micelle produced according reaction ВаCl2(excess)+ H2SO4 =
a) none b) Cl- c) SO4 2- d) Ba2+
490. Choose condensation method of colloids producing

a) coagulation
c) red-ox reaction
d) peptization

a) NaNO3 b) Fe(NO3)3 c) Ca(NO3 )2 d) none

a) NaNO3 b) Ag Cl c) Ca(NO3 )2 d) Ba(NO3) 2

a) NaNO3 b) Fe(NO3)3 c) PbS d) Ba(NO3) 2
494. Optical property typical to coarse systems

a) reflection c) scattering
b) absorption d) diffusion
495. Find property which isn’t molecular-kinetic one

a) absorption c) Brownian movement
b) osmosis d) diffusion
496. Aerosol is
a) l/s b) l/l c) s/l d) s/g
497. Find parameter which is in equation for optical properties

a) μ b) η c) m d) λ
498. Mixtures from which particles settle out upon standing are defined:
a) Suspensions; b) Electrolytes; c) Molecular solutions; d) Alloys.
499. Heterogeneous mixtures containing particles that are intermediate in size:

a) Colloids; b)Gas mixtures; c) Saturated solutions; d) Alloys.
500. The scattering of visible light in all directions is called:

a) Coagulation; b) Tyndall effect; c) Peptization; d) Dialysis.
501. Chaotic movement of colloidal particles is:

a) Osmosis; b) Diffusion; c) Brownian motion; d) Coagulation .
502. Colloidal dispersion of liquids in liquids is defined as:

a) Aerosol; b) Emulsion; c) Sol; d) Foam.
503. Fog and smoke are:

a) Aerosols; b) Emulsions; c) Gels; d) Foams.
504. Sol consists of:

a) Liquid droplets dispersed throughout a gas;
b) Solid particles dispersed throughout a gas;
c) Solid particles dispersed in a liquid;
d) liquid droplets dispersed throughout another liquid.

505. Stability of a disperse system is:
a) Emergence of dregs; decreasing of osmotic pressure; changing of electrical conductance and
viscosity;
b) Process of particles integration;
c) Movement of the charged particles under influence of an external electric field;
d) Constancy in time of its state and main properties.
506. Aggregate stability is defined by ability of disperse systems to counteract:

a) Coalescing of particles;
b) Sedimentation of particles;
c) Destruction of particles;
d) Subdivision of particles.
507. The structure of ironic hydroxide sol:

a) {m [Fe(OH)3]n Fe3+ 3(n-x) Cl-}3x+ 3xCl-;
b) {m[BaSO4] n Ba2+ 2(n-x)NO3-}2x+ 2xNO3-;
c) {m[BaSO4] n SO42-2(n-x)K+}2x- 2xK+;
d) {m[Au] n AuO2- (n-x)K+}x- x K+.
508. According to the micellar theory, the colloidal solutions structure: sol consists from:
a) Two parts: micellae and intermicellar liquid;
b) Precipitate and water;
c) Mixture of gases;
d) Atoms and ions.
509. The methods of cleaning colloidal solutions are:

a) Compensation dialysis; dialysis;
b) Condensation; crystallization;
c) Sublimation; distillation;
d) Filtration; ultra filtration.
510. Disperse phase of sparkling drinks is:

a) N2; b) H2O; c) CO2; d) O2.
511. Aerosol is:

a) Powder; b) Dust cloud; c) Hairspray; d) All answers are right.
512. Emulsion is:

a) Milk; b) Foam; c) Jelly; d) Fog.
513. Biological gel is:

a) Cartilage; b) air; c) clouds; d) river water.
514. The similarity of suspension and emulsion is to:

a) These are heterogeneous systems;
b) Particles are visible with the naked eye;
c) They are easily besieged;
d) All answers are right.
515. Coarse disperse system is:

a) Solution; c)Sol;
b) Suspension; d)Gel.
516. Chromatography is:

a) The method of separation of heterogeneous mixtures;
b) A type of disperse systems;
c) A continuous phase;
d) The method of separation of homogeneous mixtures.
517. Inward force that tends to minimize the surface area of a liquid is called as:
a) Surface tension;
b) Surface energy;
c) Internal energy;
d) Heat of dissolution.

518. Aerosols with a liquid disperse phase are called:
a) Fog;
b) Dust;
c) Smoke;
d) Steam.
519. Distinguish a colloidal solution and a true solution according to the following:
a) Color;
b) Transparence;
c) Size of particles;
d) Odor.
520. Emulsion is:

a) Butter; b) River ooze; c) Stained glass; d) Textile fabrics.
521. Define the disperse phase aggregative state in fog:

a) Liquid;
b) Solid;
c) Gas;
d) All answers are right
522. What condensed methods of obtaining the colloid systems are based on?
a) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a liquid;
b) On the integration of particles at the aggregation of molecules and ions;
c) On the crushing of solid materials or liquids and dispersion of their particles throughout a gas;
d) On the sol obtaining from a precipitation using peptizator.
523. Suspensions according to the degree of dispersity are:
a) Coarse dispersed;
b) Colloidal;
c) Molecular;
d) True solution.
524. Coagulation is:

a) Chaotic movement of particles;
b) Dissociation of electrolyte solutions;
c) Destruction of the native protein structure;
d) The process by which the dispersed phase of a colloid is made to aggregate and thereby separate
from the continuous phase.
525. Optical properties of dispersed systems are:
a) Viscosity, flowability;
b) Opalescence, light absorption;
c) Diffusion, Brownian motion;
d) dissolution, swelling.
526. Electro-kinetic phenomenon is:
a) Opalescence; c) Electrodialysis;
b) Light absorption; d) Electrophoresis and electroosmosis.
527. A micelle which is formed as a result of formation of a double electric layer is:
a) Negatively charged; c) Electro neutral;
b) Positively charged; d) Negatively and positively charged.
528. Difference between colloids and crystalloids is of
a) Diameter b)Particle size c)radius d)solubility
529. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order
a) suspension> colloidal > true solution b)true solution > suspension > colloidal
c) suspension> colloidal = true solution d) none of the above
530. Colloids can be purified by

a) peptization b) coagulation c) dialysis d) bredic arc method
531. which is a natural colloid?
a) sodium chloride b)urea c)cane sugar d) blood
532. Which one of the following is not a colloid
a) milk b) blood c)ice cream d) urea solution
533. Milk is a colloid in which
a) a liquid is dispersed in liquid c) a gas is dispersed in liquid
b) a solid is dispersed in liquid d)some sugar is dispersed in water
534. an aerosol is a colloidal system of
a) a liquid dispersed in a solid c) a gas dispersed in air
b) a liquid dispersed in a gas d)none of the above
535. Which of the following is a homogeneous system
a) muddy water b)bread c)concrete d)a solution of sugar in water
536. Which of the following is an emulsifier?
a) soap b)water c)oil d)NaCl
537. Lyophobic colloids are
a) reversible colloids b)irreversible colloids c)protective colloids d)gum proteins
538. Which of the following methods is used for the destruction of sol?
a)condensation c)diffusion through animal membrane
b)dialysis d)addition of an electrolyte
539. Colloidal solutions are not purified by
a) dialysis b) electrodialysis c) ultrafiltration d) electrophoresis
540. Suspensions are
a) visible to naked eye c) invisible under electron microscope
b) not visible by any means d) invisible through microscope
541. Which of the following is lyophilic colloid?

a) gelatin b) sulphur c) gold d) carbon
542. Starch dispersed in hot water is an example of
a) lyophilic sol b) associated colloid c) hydrophobic sol d) emulsion
543. The extra stability of lyophilic colloids is due to
a) charge on their particles
b) a layer of medium of dispersion on their particles
c) the smaller size of their particles
d)the large size of their particles
544. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because
a)the colloidal particles have positive charge
b)the colloidal particles have negative charge
c) the colloidal particles are solvated
d) there are strong electrostatic repulsions between the negatively charged colloidal particles.
545. Which of the following is not a property of hydrophilic sols?
a)high concentration of dispersed phase can be easily attained
b)coagulation is reversible
c)viscosity and surface tension are nearly same as that of water
d)the charge of the particle depends on the pH value of the medium; it may be positive, negative, or
even zero
546. When a colloidal solution is observed under an ultramicroscope, we can see
a)light scattered by colloidal particles c)shape of the particle
b)size of the particle d)relative size
547. Light scattering takes place in
a)solution of electrolyte c)electrodialysis
b)colloidal solutions d)electroplating
548.Maximum coagulation power is in
a)Na+ b)Ba2+ c)Al3+ d)Sn4+

549. The coagulation power of an electrolyte for As2S3 decreases in the order
a)Na+ ,Al3+ , Ba2+ b)Cl- , SO42- , PO43- c) Al3+, Ba2+ , Na+ d)PO43-, SO42-,Cl-
550. Tyndall phenomena is exhibited by
a)NaCl solution b)starch solution c)urea solution d)FeCl3 solution
551. Brownian movement or motion, the paths of the particles are
a)linear b)curved c)zigzag d)uncertain
552. The separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension is known as
a)Photolysis b)dialysis c)pyrolysis d)peptisation
553. Separation of colloidal particles from those of molecular dimension with electricity is known
as
a)electrolysis b)electrophoresis c)electrodyalysis d)none of the above
554. Which property of colloidal suspension is used to determine the nature of charge on the
particles?
a)dialysis b)electrophoresis c)sedimentation d)ultrafiltration
555. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to
a)prevent making of a colloid c)stabilize the mixture
b) stabilize the colloid and prevent crystallization d)enrich the aroma
556. Which one of the following is not represented by sols?
a)absorption b)tyndall effect c)flocculation d)paramagnetism
557. Absorption is the phenomenon in which a substance
a) accumulates in the surface of the other substance
b) goes into the body of the other substance
c) remains close to the other substance
d) forms chemical bonds with other substences.

a)colloidal S b)Colloidal antimony c)colloidal gold d)colloidal platinum
559. As2S3 sol is

a)positive colloid b)negative colloid c)neutral colloid d)none of the above

560. Cloud or fog is an example of colloidal system of
a)liquid dispersed in gas c)solid dispersed in gas
b)gas dispersed in gas d)solid dispersed in liquid
561. Which of the following is a colloid?
a)sugar solution b)urea solution c)silicic acid d)NaCl solution
562. Which one of the following in not a colloidal solution?
a) smoke b) ink c) blood d) air
563. Milk is
a) fat dispersed in milk c) water dispersed in fat
b) fat dispersed in water d) water dispersed in oil
564. Pumice stone is an example of a colloid in which
a)solid is dispersed in liquid c)gas is dispersed in a solid
b)liquid is dispersed in a solid d)solid is dispersed in a solid
565. Butter is a colloid formed when
a) fat is dispersed in water c) water is dispersed in fat
b) fat globules are dispersed in water d) none of the above
566.Which of the following is not a colloid?
a) chlorophyll b) smoke c) ruby glass d) milk
567. Which of the following is a homogeneous system?
a)muddy water c)concrete
b)bread d)a solution of sugar in water
568. A colloidal suspension in liquid state is defined as
a)gel b)homogeneous solution c)sol d)aerosol
569. If dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is a solid, the colloid is known as
a) a sol b)a gel c)an emulsion d)a foam

570. A colloidal system in which gas bubbles are dispersed in a liquid is known as
a)foam b)sol c)aerosol d)emulsion
571. Emulsifiers are generally
a)soap b)synthetic detergents c) lyophilic sols d)all of the above
572. Butter is
a) emulsion b) aerosol c) suspension d) none
573. The colloidal system consisting of a liquid as dispersed phase in a solid as dispersion medium
is termed as
a)aerosol b)gel c)emulsion d)foam
574. Which one of an example of gel?
a)soap b)fog c)cheese d)milk
575. Colloidal solution of a gas in a gas is called
a) aerosol b)cannot be prepared c) gas aerosol d) gasosol
576. The _________ of colloids are of maximum importance since the interaction of the particles
with each other and the principal phase is of primary concern.
a) Magnitude
b) Shape
c) Surface
d) Size
577. When dispersed phase is liquid and dispersion medium is gas then the colloidal system is
called
a)smoke b)clouds c)jellies d)emulsions
578. Milk is an example of
a) pure solution b)emulsion c)gel d)suspension
579. The migration of colloidal particles under influence of an electric field is known as
a)electro-osmosis b)Brownian movement c)cataphoresis d)dialysis
580. Tyndall effect will be observed in
a)solution b)precipitate c)sol d)vapour
581. Tyndall effect in colloidal solution is due to

a)scattering of light c)absorption of light
b)reflection of light d)presence of electrically charged particles
582. The Brownian motion is due to
a)temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
b)attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles
c)impact of molecules of the dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
d)convective currents
583. The sky looks blue due to
a)dispersion effect b) reflection c)transmission d)scattering
584. The blue color of water in the sea is due to
a)refraction of the blue light by the impurities in sea water
b)reflection of blue sky by sea water
c)scattering of blue light by water molecules
d)absorption of other colors except the blue color by water molecules
a)colloidal S b)colloidal antimony c)colloidal gold d)colloidal silver
586. Random motion of colloidal particles is known as
a)dialysis b)Brownian movement c)electro-osmosis d)Tyndall effect
587. is an example of colloidal system of
a)solid dispersed in liquid b)solid dispersed in gas
c)liquid dispersed in gas d)gas dispersed in gas
588. In which of the following Tyndall effect is not observed?
a)suspension b)emulsion c)sugar solution d)gold sol
589. Which of the following is a lyophilic colloid?
a)milk b)gum c)fog d)blood

590. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is
a)suspension b)emulsion c)gel d)True solution
591. The method usually employed for the destruction of a colloidal solution is
a)dialysis b)addition of electrolytes
c)diffusion through animal membrane d)condensation
592. As the concentration increases to the critical micelle concentration (C.M.C.) soap particles
abruptly collected into spherical structures called _________
a) Ball
b) Sphere of ions
c) Micelles
d) Dirt particle
593. _________ is the movement of charged surfaces with corresponding ions and H2O in the
stationary liquid induced by an external field.
a) Colloidal suspension
b) Emulsion
c) Sedimentation potential
d) Electrophoresis
594. Which of the following is utilized in foam formation?

a) Minerals
b) Vitamins
c) Proteins
d) Starch
595. At high concentration of soap in water, soap behaves as ______________
a) Molecular colloid
b) Associated colloid
c) Macromolecular colloid
d) Lyophillic colloid
596. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?
a) Aqueous solution of soap below critical micelle concentration

b) Aqueous solution of soap above critical micelle concentration
c) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride
d) Aqueous solution of sugar
597. Method by which lyophobic sol can be protected

a) By addition of oppositely charged sol
b) By addition of an electrolyte
c) By addition of lyophilic sol
d) By boiling
598. Freshly prepared precipitate sometimes gets converted to colloidal solution by
a) Coagulation
b) Electrolysis
c) Diffusion
d) Peptisation
599. Which of the following electrolytes will have maximum coagulating value for AgI/Ag +
a) Na2S
b) Na3PO4
c) Na2SO4
d) NaCl
600. A colloidal system having a solid substance as a dispersed phase and a liquid as a dispersion
a) Solid sol
b) Gel
c) Emulsion
d) Sol
601. The values of colligative properties of colloidal solution are of small order in comparison
to those shown by true solutions of same concentration because of colloidal particles
____________
a) Exhibit enormous surface area

b) Remain suspended in the dispersion medium
c) Form lyophilic colloids
d) Are comparatively less in number
Unit 4
Organic compounds.
602. Which element is present in all organic compounds?
a) carbon b)nitrogen c)oxygen d)phosphorous
603.Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

a) low melting point c)soluble in polar solvents
b)high melting point d)insoluble in nonpolar solvents
604.Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is
a)slower because organic particles are ions
b) slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds
c)faster because organic particles are ions
d)faster because organic particles contain covalent bonds
605.Which compounds are isomers?
a) 1-propanol and 2-propanol c)methanol and methanal
b)methanoic acid and ethanoic acid d)ethane and ethanol
606.Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?
a)Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygen.
b)Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity.
c)Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbon atoms.
d) Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atoms.
607.Which polymers occur naturally?
a)starch and nylon
b) starch and cellulose
c)protein and nylon
d)protein and plastic
608.What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?
a)butane b)butene c)benzene d)butyne
609. In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a
regular
a)pyramid b)tetrahedron c)square d)rectangle

610. In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per
molecule?
a)C2H2 and C2H6 b)C2H2 and C3H6 c)C4H8 and C2H4 d)C6H6 andC7H8
611. Which compound contain an alcohol group?
a) acetone b) methanale c)methanol d) dimethyl ether
612. The products of the fermentation of sugar are ethanol and
a)water b)oxygen c)carbon dioxide d)sulfur dioxide
613. Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?
a)ethane b)ethene c)ethyne d)ethanol
614. What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl?
a)an addition reaction c)a saponification reaction
b)a substitution reaction d)an esterification reaction
615. What is the maximum number of covalent bonds than an atom of carbon can form?
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4
616. Which class of organic compounds can be represented as R -- OH?
a)acids b)alcohols c)esters d)ethers
617. Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms?
a)2-methylpropane b)2-methylbutane c)propane d)butane
618. What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?
a)ketone b)protein c)ester d)acid
619. During fractional distillation, hydrocarbons are separated according to their
a)boiling points b)melting points c)triple points d)saturation points
a)CH3OH b)CH3OCH3 c)CH3COOH d)CH3COOCH3

621. Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different
a)percentage compositions; c)molecular formulas;
b)molecular masses; d)structural formulas.
a)CH3 CH2 OH; b)CH3 OCH3 ; c)CH3 COOH; d)CH3COOCH3 .
623. Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one
additional carbon atom and
a) one hydrogen atom; b)two hydrogen atoms;
c)three hydrogen atoms; d) four hydrogen atoms.
624. Which formula represents a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) C2H2 ; b) C2 H4 ; c) C3 H6 ; d) C3 H8 .
625. The members of the alkane series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has
the same
a) empirical formula; b) general formula; c) structural formula; d) molecular formula.
626. What could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH?
a) methanol; b) methane; c) methyl methanoate; d) methanoic acid.
627. A compound with the formula C6 H6 is
a) toluene; b) benzene; c) butene; d) pentene.
628. C2H4+ H2<======> C2H6 The above reaction is an example of ____ reaction.
a)addition; b) substitution; c) saponification; d) esterification.
629. The compound C4H9OH is an isomer of
a) C3H7COCH3; c) C2H5OC2H5;
b)CH3COOC2H5; d) CH3COOH.
630. What is the total number of carbon atoms contained in an ethyl group?
a) 1; b)2; c) 3; d) 4.
631.Which compound is a member of the alkane series?
a) C2H6; b) C3H6; c) C4H6; d) C6H6.

632. A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and
a) carbon dioxide; b) water; c) glycerol; d) ethanol.
633.The general formula for the alkyne series is
a) CnHn; b) CnH2n; c) CnH2n+2; d) CnH2n-2.
634. Which compound represents a member of the benzene series?
a) acetylene; b) ethylene; c) toluene; d) propene.
635.Which compound is an isomer of CH3COOH?
a) HCOOCH3; b)CH3CH2COOH; c) CH3CH2OH; d) CH3COOCH3
636.Which compound is a member of the alkene series?
a) benzene; b) toluene; c) acetylene; d) ethane
637. All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are
a) single covalent; b) double covalent; c) triple covalent; d) coordinate covalent
638.Which normal alkene has the highest boiling point at 1 atmosphere?
a) C2H4; b) C3H6; c) C4H8; d) C5H10.
639.Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?
a) an esterification reaction; c) a saponification reaction;
b) a neutralization reaction; d) a fermentation reaction.
640.Given the following reaction: C4H10+ Br2<======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is
an example of _______ reaction.
a) substitution; b) addition; c) polymerization; d) fermentation.
641.In a molecule of C3H8, the total number of covalent bonds is
a) 11; b) 10; c) 3; d) 8.
642.Which compound is an ester?
a) CH3COOH; b) CH3CHO; c) CH3COOCH3; d) CH3COCH3.
643.The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

a) a polymer; b) a soap; c) an ester; d) an alcohol.
644.Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures
are called
a) isomers; b) isotopes; c) allotropes; d) homologs.
645.Which is the formula of a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) C2H2; b) C2H4; c) C5H8; d) C5H12.
646.CnH2n+2 is the general formula of a homologous series. Which is a member with this
characteristic?
a) acetylene; b) benzene; c) propane; d) toluene.
647. A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same
a) structural formula; c) number of carbon atoms;
b) molecular formula d)number of hydrogen atoms.
648.Which is the formula for ethanoic acid?
a) CH3COOH; b) CH3CH2OH; c) CH3CH2COOH; d) CH3CH2CH2OH.
649.The compound CH3COOCH3is classified as
a) an acid; b) an alcohol; c) an ester; d) a hydrocarbon.
650.Each member in the alkane series of hydrocarbons, when considered in successive order,
has 1 more carbon atom and how many more hydrogen atoms?
a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4.
651.Which molecular formula represents pentene?
a) C4H8; b) C4H10; c) C5H10; d) C5H12.
652.A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group?
a) propanol; b) butanol; c) pentanol; d) glycerol.
653.Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in
a) organic acids; b) esters; c) alkynes; d) alkanes.
654.Which molecule contains a triple covalent bond?

a) C2H2; b) C2H4; c) C3H6; d) C3H8.
655.Which formula represents an acid?
a) CH3COOCH3; b) CH3OH; c) CH3COOH; d) CH3CH2CH3.
656.Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and
formic acid. This type of reaction is called
a) fermentation; b) esterification; c) saponification; d) polymerization.
657. Which formula represents a member of the alkene series?
a) C3H6; b) C2H6; c) C2H2; d) C6H6.
658. Ethyne (acetylene) has which one of the following shapes?
a) tetrahedral; b) planar triangular; c) linear; d) bent.
659. Compared with organic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have
a) greater solubility in water; c) a tendency to form ions more readily;
b) more rapid reaction rates; d) lower melting points.
660. Which represents the functional group of an organic acid?
a) -COOH; b) -OR; c) -CHO; d) -NH2.
661. C3H6+ H2= C3H8 The above reaction is an example of______ reaction.
a) substitution; b) addition; c) polymerization; d) esterification.
662. The isomers of propanol differ in
a) the number of carbon atoms; c) molecular mass;
b) the arrangement of the carbon atoms; d) the position of functional group.
663. Which is the formula of an alcohol?
a) Ba(OH)2; b) HCHO; c) CH3COOH; d) C5H11OH.
664. C3H5(OH)3 The above organic compound is classified as
a) a carbohydrate; b) an ester; c) an organic acid; d) an alcohol.
665. Which compound can have isomers?
a) C2H4; b) C2H2; c) C2H6; d) C4H8.

666. C2H4+ Br2= ? What reaction occurs when the above chemicals react?
a)polymerization; b) substitution; c) addition; d) esterification.
667.Which organic compound is a product of a fermentation reaction?
a) CCl2F2; b) C2H2; c) C2H5OH; d) C2H5OC2H5.
668.Which organic compound is a product of an esterification reaction?
a) C3H8; b) C3H7OH; c) CH3COOH; d) CH3COOCH3.
669.Which organic compound is a product of a saponification reaction?
a) CCl4; b) C3H5(OH)3; c) C6H6; d) C6H12O6.
670.The structure of an alkene contains
a) only single bonds; b) a double bond; c) two double bonds; d) a triple bond.
671. As the members of the alkane series increase in molecular mass the magnitude of the van
der Waals forces between the molecules
a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases.
672.Which hydrocarbon has more than one possible structural formula?
a) CH4; b) C2H6; c) C3H8; d) C4H10.
673.What is the number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of ethyne?
a) 6; b) 2; c) 8; d) 4.
674.In an aqueous solution, which compound will be acidic?
a) CH3COOH; b) C3H5(OH)3; c) CH3CH2OH; d) CH3OH.
675.A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used
commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is
called
a) polymerization; b) hydrogenation; c) esterification; d) cracking.
676. Organic compounds must contain
a) oxygen; b) nitrogen; c) hydrogen; d) carbon.
677. The angle formed between any two carbon-hydrogen bonds in a molecule of an
organic compound is a(an)

a) dihedral angle; b) right angle; c) tetrahedral angle; d) acute angle.
678. A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an
organic molecule is known as a(an)
a) carboxyl group; b) functional group; c) group; d) alkyl group.
679.The ability of the carbon atom to form covalent bonds result in the formation of
compounds that are
a) molecular; b) ionic; c) polar; d) atomic.
680.How many carbon atoms are in one molecule of 2,3,3-trimethylpentane?
a) 5; b) 8; c) 6; d) 13.
681.The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two
adjacent carbon atoms is known as the
a) alkanes; b) alkenes; c) alkynes; d) benzenes.
682.Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated
hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons
a) contain multiple bonds; c) have tetrahedral bonds;
b) have a greater molecular mass; d) contain more atoms.
683.A dihydroxy alcohol that is made from ethane is
a) ethanol; b) glycerol; c) ethylene glycol; d) ethane.
684.A long chain protein is an example of a(an)
a) fat; b) polymer; c) isomer; d) monomer.
685.Which represents an unsaturated hydrocarbon?
a) C2H4; b) C2H6; c) C3H8; d) C4H10.
686.How many double bonds are in one molecule of 1,3-butadiene?
a) 1; b) 2; c) 3; d) 4.

687.Which is an isomer of 2-chloropropane?
a) butane; b) propane; c) 1-chlorobutane; d) 1-chloropropane.
688.A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they both
can produce
a) an ester; b) an alcohol; c) an acid; d) a soap.
689.Which is a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) C3H8; b) C6H6; c) C2H5OH; d) C2H4O2.
690.Which molecule will have a single pi bond?
a) benzene; b) propene; c) propane; d) propyne.
691.CH3CH2OH The above organic compound is classified as
a) a carbohydrate; b) an ester; c) an alcohol; d) an organic acid.
692.Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?
a) benzene; b) propyne; c) methane; d) ethanol.
693. As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increases their boiling
points
694. As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the
ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms [Imp]
a) decreases; b) increases; c) remains the same; d) decreases then increases
695. Which compound is most likely to react by addition?
a) CH4; b) C3H6; c) C4H10; d) C5H12.
696. Which alcohol contains three hydroxyl groups per molecule?
a) propanol; b) glycerol; c) butanol; d) pentanol.
697. Toluene belongs to the same series of hydrocarbons as
a) benzene; b) propene; c) pentene; d) butene.

698. A hydrocarbon molecule containing one triple covalent bond is classified as an
a)alkene; b) alkane; c) alkyne; d) alkadiene.
699. Both cellulose and proteins are classified as
a) aldehydes; b) esters; c) polymers; d) ketones.
700. The compound 2-propanol is classified as a
a) primary alcohol; b) secondary alcohol; c) tertiary alcohol; d) dihydroxy alcohol.
701. What is the total number of hydrogen atoms in a molecule of butene?
a) 10; b) 8; c) 6; d) 4.
702. Which of the following compounds has the greatest possible number of isomers?
a)butane; b) ethane; c) pentane; d) propane.
703. Which is the correct molecular formula of pentene?
a) C5H8; b) C5H10; c) C5H12; d) C5H14.
704. The bonds between the atoms in an organic molecule are generally
a) ionic; b) coordinate covalent; c) covalent; d) hydrogen.
705. As the length of the chain of carbon atoms in molecules of the alkene series increases, the
number of double bonds per molecule
706.In a condensation polymerization, the two products formed are a polymer and
a)water; b) carbon dioxide; c) an acid; d) a base.
707. Which is the correct molecular formula of 1,2-ethanediol?
a) C2H5OH; b) C2H4(OH)2; c) C3H5(OH)3; d) C3H6(OH)2.
708. In the reaction C2H5OH + CH3OH --> C2H5OCH3+ H2O, the organic compound
formed is
a) an ester; b) a ketone; c) an acid; d) an ether.
709.Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?
a) ethene; b) ethane; c) ethylene; d) ethyne.
710. The compound C2H2 belongs to the series of hydrocarbons with the general formula
a)CnHn; b) CnH2n; c) CnH2n-2; d) CnH2n+2.
711. Which compound is a dihydroxyl alcohol?
a) Al(OH)3; b) C3H5(OH)3; c) Ca(OH)2; d) C2H4(OH)2.
712. The name of the compound having the formula C3H5(OH)3 is
a) glycerol; b) ethylene glycol; c) propene; d) propanoic acid.
713. Which organic compound is a ketone?
a) CH3OH; b) CH3COCH3; c) CH3COOH; d) CH3COOCH3.
714. Which of the following compounds has the lowest normal boiling point?
a) butane; b) ethane; c) methane; d) propane.
715. Which process increases the yield of gasoline and kerosene from crude oil?
a) oxidation; b) cracking; c) Haber; d) contact.
716. Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular
forces have
a) low melting points; c) high conductivity in solution;
b) low vapor pressure; d) high boiling points.
717. What is the formula for pentanol?
a) C5H12; b) C5H11OH; c) C4H10; d) C4H9OH.
718. Which compound is a member of the alkene series of hydrocarbons?
a) benzene; b) propene; c) toluene; d) butadiene.
719. Which compound contains a triple bond?
a) CH4; b) C2H2; c) C3H6; d) C4H10.
720. Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?
a)substitution; b) oxidation; c) addition polymerization; d) condensation, polymerization.
721. In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling
points by
a) the contact process; b) the Haber process; c) fractional distillation; d) cracking.

722.Organic acids are composed of a
a)C = O group at the end of the chain c) C = O and COH group on the same carbon
b) COO– group d ) C = O and COH group on different carbons
723. Which of the following is a true statement?
a)ketones are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of an
oxidizing agent
b ) aldehydes are produced by placing a hot copper wire into a primary alcohol in the presence of
an oxidizing agent
c)ketones are produced by oxidizing a primary alcohol
d)organic acids are by oxidizing a ketone
724. Organic salts – esters – are produced by reacting
CH3CH2CH(CH3)CCC(CH3)2CH3
a) an alcohol with an ether
b) a carboxylic acid with a ketone
c) a carboxylic acid with an alcohol
d) a ketone with an aldehyde
725.The name of an ester produced by a reaction between propanol and ethanoic acid is
a) ethylpropanoate c) propethanoate
b) propylethanoate d) none of the above
726. Which of the following is classified as an ether?
a)CH3CHOHCH3 c)CH3CH2CO
b)CH2(OH)CH2CH3 d)CH3OCH3
727. Polymers are
a)molecules made of monomers
b)molecules made of regularly repeating units that extend throughout a molecule
c)macromolecules
d)all of the above

728. Classify this reaction:
CH2=CH2 + H2O ==> C2H5OH
a) Chlorination b) Oxidation c) Hydration d) Elimination
729. The first member of the ketone family is:
a)Methanone c)Propanone
b)Ethanone d) Butanone
730. Esterification reactions between an alcohol and a carboxylic acid require what catalyst?
a) Concentrated sulfuric acid c) Water
b) Dilute sulfuric acid d)None
731. How do you differentiate between two optical isomers?
a) The rotate at different rates
b) They have different colours
c) They have different melting/boiling points
d) They rotate the plane of polarised light in different directions
732. What is the most common method of producing a chloroalkane?
a) PCl3 and an alcohol
b)HCl and an alcohol
c)HCl and an alcohol, under reflux
d) Reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, followed by addition of HCl
733.What is a product when an ester is hydrolysed under alkaline conditions?
a) A carboxylic acid b) A carboxylate salt c) Water d) Does not react
734. Name this molecule:
a) 1,2-dimethylbutane
b) 3,4-dimethylbutane
c) hexane

d) 3-methylpentane
735. What are alcohols not used in?
a)wine b)vinegar c)plastics d)methylated spirits
736. What is the reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid called?
a)hydration c)esterification
b)hydrolysis d)polymerisation
737. What is the general molecular formula of alcohol?
a)CnH2n+1OH c)CnH2n+2OH
b)CnH2nOH d)CnH2n+1COOH
738. Vinegar tastes sour because of ______.
a)ethanoic acid c)butanoic acid
b)ethanol d)ethyl ethanoate
739. Which is true about ethanoic acid?
a)it has a higher boiling point than ethanol
b)it dissociates completely in water
c)it dimerises in water
d)it reacts with calcium carbonate to produce calcium ethanoate and water
740. esters are ________.
a)made from alcohols and non-organic acids
b)used to make perfumes and flavorings
c)poisonous
d)foul-smelling compounds
741. What are produced when ethanol is burns completely in air?
a)carbon monoxide and water
b)carbon and water
c)carbon dioxide and water
d)carbon monoxide and hydrogen

742. what are the products of the reaction between methanol and ethanoic acid
a)ethyl methanoate and water
b)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
c)methyl ethanoate and water
d)CH3COOCH3 and hydrogen
743. What is true about carboxylic acids?
a)carboxylic acids are strong acids
b)carboxylic acids can react with metals
c)alkanes oxidize to form carboxylic acids
d)carboxylic acids cannot form hydrogen bonds
744. esterification is a __________.
a)condensation reaction c)addition reaction
b)irreversible reaction d)neutralization reaction
745. Which is false about the formation of ethanol?
a)ethanol is produced through the hydration of ethane
b)ethanol contains a hydroxyl group
c)ethanol is used as a fuel
d)ethanol is a solvent
746. What are the conditions for dehydration of alcohols?
a)concentrated hydrochloric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
b)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
c)concentrated sulfuric acid as dehydrating agent and pressure at 18 atm
d)concentrated carboxylic acid as dehydrating agent and temperature at 180 degrees Celsius
747. In stable organic compounds, carbon will always form
a)2 bond b)3 bond c)4 bond d)5 bond

748. Carbon-carbon double bond consist of:
a)one σ bond, one π bond c)one σ bond, two π bond
b)two π bond, one π bond d)two σ bond, two π bond
749. Acetylene has a total of:
a)one σ bond, two π bond c)three σ bond, two π bond
b)two σ bond, four π bond d)one σ bond, four π bond
750. In propene there are
a)eight σ bond, one π bond c)six σ bond, three π bond
b)seven σ bond, two π bond d)nine σ bond
751. In propyne there are
a)six σ bond, two π bond c)six σ bond, one π bond
b)seven σ bond, one π bond d)eight σ bond
752. 1-Buten -3-yne has
a)six σ bond, four π bond c)eight σ bond, two π bond
b)seven σ bond, three π bond d)nine σ bond, one π bond
a)CH3CH2CH3 b)CH3C≡CH c)CH2CH=CH2 d)CH2=CH-CH=CH2
a) CH4 b)H2N-CH2-NH2 c)H3C-OH d)(CH3)3COH
755. When the carbon atom is sp2 hybridized in a compound, it is bonded to
a)2 other atoms b)4 other atoms c)3 other atoms d)5 other atoms
a) C6H6 b) b)
c) CH2=CH-CH=CH2 d) CH3CH=C=CH2

757. Which of the following is a planar molecule?
a)formaldehyde b)acetone c)formic acid d)acetic acid
758. What is bond angle between the hybrid orbitals in methane?
a)180o b)120o c)109.5o d)115.5o
759.The H-C-C bond angle in ethane is
a)60o b)109.28o c)120o d)118.28o
760. The H-C-H bond angle in ethylene is
a)60o b)120o c)90o d)180o
761. What is the bond length of a carbon-carbon double bond?
a)1.20 Ǻ b)1.35 Ǻ c)1.54 Ǻ d)1.68 Ǻ
762. The carbon-carbon bond lengths in rank of increasing bond length is:
a)triple, duble, single
b)single, duble, triple
c)single, triple, duble
d) duble, triple, single.
763.Which of the following is is the correct order of bond lengths?
a)C-C < C=C < C≡C b)C-C > C≡C > C=C
c)C≡C > C-C > C=C d)C≡C < C=C< C-C
764.Which of the following hydrocarbons has the shortest C-C bond length?
a)CH2 = CH2 b)CH3CH3 c)HC ≡ CH d)
765.The carbon-carbon length is maximum in
a)CH2 = CH2 b)CH3CH3 c)HC ≡ CH d)
766. Which of the following compounds have planar molecules?
a)ethyl alcohol b)formaldehyde c)diethyl ether d)1,3-butadien
767. Which of the following compounds will show dipole moment?
a)cis-1,2-dichloroetylene c)trans-1,2- dichloroetylene

b)o- dichlorobenzene d)p- dichlorobenzene
768. Which molecule has a nonzero dipole moment?
a)CI2 b)CO2 c)CCI4 d)CHCI3
769. Which of the following compounds have lowest dipole moment?
a)carbon tetrachloride c)dichloromethane
b)chloromethane d)chloroform
770. Which molecule has the greatest dipole moment?
a)CH3CI b)CH3Br c)CH3F d)CH3I
771. Which of the following is propan-1-ol?
a) c)
b) d)
b) 1-chloro-1-methylpropan-1-ol
c) 2-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
773. Which of the following is hexan-2-ol?
a)
b)
c)
d)
a) 3-chlorobutan-3-ol c) 2-chlorobutan-3-ol
b)3-chlorobutan-2-ol d) 2-chlorobutan-2-ol
a) propan-2-ol b) butan-2-ol c)propanol d) butanol
a) c)
b) d)
a) ethoxyethane b) methoxyethane c) ethoxybuthane d) methoxymethane
a) c)
b) d)
779. Which of the following is pentan-3-ol?

a) c)
b) d)
780. Which of the following is ethoxyethane?
a) c)
b) d)
781.Which of the following is 3-methypentan-3-ol?
a) c)
b) d)
a) 2,2-dimethylpropan-1-ol c) 1-methoxy-2-methylpropane
b) 2-methoxy-1-methylpropane d)2-methoxy-2-methylpropane
a)

d)
a) 1-chloro-2-methylpropan-3-ol c) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-1-ol
b) b)2-chloro-3-methylpropan-1-ol d) 3-chloro-2-methylpropan-2-ol
a)butanol b)propanol c)propan-1-ol d)butan-1-ol
a)
b) c) d)
a)1-chlorobutan-3-ol c)4-chlorobutan-2-ol
b)1-chlorobutan-2-ol d)2-chlorobutan-3-ol

a) c)
b) d)
a)3-chlorobutan-1-ol c)1-chloropropan-3-ol
b)3-chloropropan-1-ol d)1-chlorobutan-3-ol
a) c)
b) d)
791. Which molecule is 2,3-dichlorobuthanoic acid?
a) ClCH2CHClCOOH c) CH3C(CH3)ClCHClCOOH
b) CH3CHClCHClCOOH d)C(CH3)2CClCHClCOOH
792.Which type of compound does not contain a carbonyl group?
a)ketone b)aldehyde c)amine d)ester
793.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and a hydroxyl group bonded to the
same carbon atom?
a)ester b)amide c)ketone d)carboxylic acid
794.Which functional group contains a carbonyl group and an ether linkage bonded to the
same carbon atom?
a)amide b)ketone c)carboxylic acid d)ester
795. One of the major differences between aldehydes and ketones as compared to other
compounds is that in aldehydes and ketones

a)the carbonyl carbon has bond angles of 120°C, unlike the comparable bond angles in other
carbonyl compounds.
b) the polar carbonoxygen bond is less reactive than the hydrocarbon portion of the molecule.
c) the molar masses tend to be much smaller than in the other types of compounds.
d) the carbonyl group carbon atom is bonded to atoms that do not attract electrons strongly.
796. The carbonyl group is
a)found only in aldehydes and ketones.
b)produced by reduction reactions of primary or secondary alcohols.
c)a functional group in which carbon and oxygen are joined by a double bond.
d)a general term for any functional group involving a carbonoxygen bond.
797. All of the statements concerning the carbonyl group in aldehydes and ketones are true
except
a)The bond is polar, with a slight negative charge on the oxygen atom.
b)The bond angles about the central carbon atom are 120°.
c)Because the bond is polar, carbonyl groups readily form hydrogen bonds with each other.
d) In condensed form the carbonyl group can be written as -CHO.
798. Which molecule is formaldehyde?
a) b)
c) d)
799. Which molecule is 2- butanone?
a) b)

c) d)
778. Which molecule is propanal?
a) b)
c) d)
800. Which molecule is acetone?
a) c)
b) d)
801. Which is the correct systematic name for the molecule shown?
a)ethyl methyl acetone c)3-hexanone
b)methyl propyl ketone d)propyl methyl ketone
802. Which molecule is a ketone?
a ) c)

b) d)
803. Which molecule is an aldehyde?
a) c)
b) d)
804.The IUPAC name for acetone is
a)2-propanone. b)dimethyl ketone. c)1-propanone. d)3-propanal.
805. The IUPAC name for dimethyl ketone is
a)3-propanal. b)2-propanone. c)acetone. d)1-propanone.
806. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH2 –CHO is
a)3- methyl 1 butanone. b)2-methylbutanal. c)3-methylbutanal. d)isopentanal.
807. The correct name for CH3 -CH(CH3)-CH 2 -CO-CH3 is
a)isobutyl acetone. c)4 –methyl – 2- butanone.
b)2- methyl – 4- butanone. d)4- methyl – 2- pentanone.
a)4-heptanone b)2- methyl -3- hexanone
c)3-heptanone d)isopropyl n-propyl ketone

a)isopentanal b)2- methyl – 4- butanone c)2- methyl- 1- butanone d)3-methylbutanal
a)3-octanone c)3- methyl -3-pentanone all are correct
b)2-butanone d)3 –methyl- 1 -pentanone
a) 3-ethylpentanal
b) 4-methylpentanal
c)3- methyl- 2- pentanal
d) 2-methylpentanal
812. Which of the following is not a property of aldehydes and ketones?
a)They cannot form hydrogen bonds with water because they have no hydrogen atoms bonded
to oxygen.
b) Most have distinctive odors.
c) They have higher boiling points than alkanes of similar molar mass.
d) They are polar.
813. All of the following are properties of acetone except
a)flammable. b)intoxicating. c)solvent for organic substances. d)nutrient.
814. Which of the following is a use of formaldehyde?
a)flavoring b)preservative c)hormone d)solvent
a)CH3-CO-CH3 b)CH3-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH
816. Which compound has the highest boiling point?
a)CH3-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CHO c)CH3-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH

a)CH3-CH2-CHO b)CH3-CH2-CH3 c)CH3-CH2-CH2-OH d)CH3-CH2-CH2-CH3
818. In biochemical reactions, reduction of carbonyl groups is carried out by
a)H2. b)lactic acid. c)NADH. d)pyruvic acid.
819. All of the following are true concerning a two-carbon aldehyde except
a)It has a higher boiling point than an alcohol of similar molecular weight.
b)Its systematic name is ethanal.
c)Its common name is acetaldehyde.
d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CHO.
820. All of the following are true concerning a three-carbon ketone except
a)Its systematic name is propanone.
b)Another acceptable name is methyl ethyl ketone.
c)Its common name is acetone.
d)Its condensed formula is CH3-CO-CH3
821. The common name of an industrial solvent used in many manufacturing processes is
methyl ethyl ketone. The correct systematic name and structural formula of this compound
are ____ .
a)2-butanone; c)3-butanone;
b)2-propanone; d)3-butanone;
822. Tollens' reagent is used to
a)distinguish amines from aldehydes. c)reduce aldehydes.
b)distinguish aldehydes from ketones. d)reduce ketones.
823. Oxidation of an aldehyde produces a

a)primary alcohol. b)secondary alcohol. c)carboxylic acid. d)ketone.
824. Oxidation of a ketone produces
a)an aldehyde b)a carboxylic acid c)a primary alcohol d)no reaction
825. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyls are true except
a)Oxidation of ketones produces esters. c)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
b)Tollen's test involves reduction of Ag +. d)Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu 2+.
826. All of the following statements about oxidation of carbonyl are true except
a)The Benedict's test involves reduction of Cu2+.
b)Ketones do not react with mild oxidizing agents.
c)The Tollens' test involves oxidation of Ag+ .
d)Oxidation of aldehydes produces carboxylic acids.
a) pentanal b)3-pentanone c)2-pentanone d)pentanoic acid
828. Which observation denotes a positive Tollen's test?
a)A silver wire dissolves.
b)A brick-red precipitate forms.
c)The light blue color of the reagent disappears.
d)A silver deposit forms on the glass surface.
829. Which observation denotes a positive Benedict's test?
a)A mirror-like deposit forms from a colorless solution.
b)A red precipitate forms from a blue solution.
c)A red - brown solution becomes clear and colorless.
d)A pale yellow solution with an odor of chlorine changes to a purple color.

830. What is the product of oxidation of butanal?
a)butane b)2-butanol c)1-butanol d)butanoic acid
831. What is the product of oxidation of 2 - butanone?
a)butanoic acid b)butanal c)2-butanol d)no reaction
a) c)
b) d)
833. What is product of the oxidation of a ketone?
a)an aldehyde b)a hemiacetal c)a carboxylic acid d)none, ketones don't oxidize.
834. What is the element that causes oxidation in the Tollens test for aldehydes?
a) gold b) copper c) lead d) silver
835. Reduction of an aldehyde produces a
a)tertiary alcohol. b)carboxylic acid. c)secondary alcohol. d)primary alcohol.
836. Reduction of a ketone produces a(an)
a)carboxylic acid. b)secondary alcohol. c)aldehyde. d)tertiary alcohol.
837. What is the product of reduction of butanal?
a)butanoic acid b)butane c)2-butanol d)1-butanol
838. What is the product of reduction of 2- butanone?
a)butanal b)1-butanol c)2-butanol d)butanoic acid

839.What is the product of the reduction of 3- methyl -2-pentanone?
a)3-methyl –2- pentanal c)3-methyl – 2-pentanol
b)2- methyl -3-pentanol d)3- methyl –2- pentene
840. Which of the followings is a simple sugar or monosaccharide?
a)Galactose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Sucrose
841.What is the molecular formula for Glucose?
a)CH3OH b)C6H1206 c)C12H22O11 d)C6H12O5
842.Maltose is composed of which two sugars?
a)Glucose and Glucose c)Glucose and Fructose
b)Glucose and Galactose d)Fructose and Galactose
843. In which form is Glucose stored in animals?
a)Starch b)Glycogen c)Dextrins d)Cellulose
844. All are glucosans (polymers of glucose) except-
a)Glycogen b)Inulin c)Starch d)Cellulose
845. Choose the Aldose sugar out of the followings-
a)Sucrose b)Ribulose c)Fructose d)Ribose
846. Choose the keto triose-
a)Glyceraldehyde b)Erythrose c)Dihydroxyacetone d)Arabinose
847. A pentose sugar present in the heart muscle is- {RIBOSE}
a)Xylose b)Lyxose c)Xylulose d)Aldose
848.α-D Glucose and β- D glucose are-
a)Epimers b)Keto- Aldose Isomers c)Anomers d)Optical isomers
849. All tests are negative for sucrose except-
a)Benedict b)Seliwanoff c)Barfoed d)Osazone

850. Glucose can have ————- isomers due to the presence of 4 asymmetric carbon atoms-
a)4 b)12 c)8 d)16
851. Galactose and Glucose are-
a)Epimers b)Isomers c)Anomers d)Ketose- Aldose isomers
852. The compounds having same structural formula but differing in configuration around
one carbon atom are called-
a)Optical isomers b)Stereo isomers c)Anomers d)Epimers
853. What does the following equation represent?
α-D Glucose +112ο→+52.5ο→ +19οβ- D glucose
a)Stereo isomerism b)Mutarotation c)Optical isomerism d)Epimerization
854. The carbohydrate of blood group substance is-
a)Glucose b)Xylose c)Lyxose d)Fructose
855.Dulcitol is a -
a)Sugar acid b)Amino sugar c)Deoxysugarsd)Sugar alcohol
856. Which of the following is a non reducing sugar-
a)Arabinose b)Erythrose c)Trehalose d)Ribulose
857. A Polysaccharide formed by β1→4 Glycosidic linkages is-
a)Starch b)Dextrin c)Glycogen d)Cellulose
858. Invert sugar is-
a)Starch b)Glucose c)Fructose d)Hydrolytic product of Sucrose
859. The Polysaccharide found in the exoskeleton of insects is-
a)Hyaluronic acid b)Cellulose c)Chitin d)Chondrosamine
860. Which of the following is a polymer of fructose?
a)Insulin b)Dextrin c)Cellulose d)Glycogen
861. A disaccharide produced on hydrolysis of starch is called-
a)Sucrose b)Lactose c)Maltose d)Trehalose
862.The typical cyclical structure of Glucose is α and β D-

a)Glucopyranose b)Glucoside c)Glucofuranose d)Glucosamine
863. Which test can be undertaken to differentiate between Glucose and Fructose?
a)Benedict b)Molisch c)Seliwanoff d)Osazone
864. Which of the following molecules is a carbohydrate?
a)C3 H7O2N b)C13H26O2 c)C6H12O6 d)C20H40O2
865. Which of the following monosaccharides is not an aldose?
a)Ribose b)Fructose c)Glucose d)Glyceraldehyde
866. Which of following is an anomeric pair?
a)D-glucose and L-glucose c)D-glucose and D-fructose
b)α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose d)α-D-glucose and β-L-glucose
867. Which of the following monosaccharides is not a carboxylic acid?
a)Glucuronate b)Gluconate c)Glucose d)Muramic acid
868. From the abbreviated name of the compound Gal (β 1 →4) Glc, we know that:
a)The glucose residue is the β anomer.
b)The galactose residue is at the non reducing end.
c)C-4 of glucose is joined toC-1 of galactose by a glycosidic bond.
d)The compound is in its furanose form
869.The compound that consists of ribose linked by an N-glycosidic bond to N-9 of adenine is:
a)A purine nucleotide. b)A pyrimidine nucleotide. c)Adenosine. d)AMP
870.Functional Group of Alkane:

871. Functional Group of Cycloalkane:
a)H – C = O b) C – OH c)O = C – O – C d)None
872. Functional Group of Alkyl halide:

873. Functional Group of Alkene:

a)H – C = O b)C – OH c)C – X d)C=C

874. Functional Group of Alkyne:
a) b) - C≡N c)C – OH d)C≡C
875. Functional Group of Alcohol:

a)C – OH b)H – C = O c)C – X d)- C≡N
876. Functional Group of Ether:

a)H – C = O b) C – CO – C c) C – C d)C – X
877. Functional Group of Aldehyde:

a) b)C – CH = O c)C – X d)O = C – OH
878. Functional Group of Ketone:

a)C – CO - C b)C – X c)- C≡N d)O = C – OH
879. Functional Group of Carboxylic Acid:

a)O = C – OH b)C – X c)C – OH d)- C≡N
880. Functional Group of Amine:

a)C – NR – R’ b)O = C – OH c)H – C = O d)C – OH
881. Functional Group of Amide:

a)O = C – OHb)C – NR – R’ c)H – C = O d)HOC – NR – R’
882.Functional Group of Nitrile:

a)- C≡N b)O = C – OH c)C – NR – R’ d)HOC – NR – R’
883. Functional Group of Aromatic ring:

a) b)O = C – OH c)HOC – NR – R’ d)- C≡N
884. Amino acides are building blocks of:

a)ketones b)aldehydes c)proteins d)ethers
885. Proteins are composed of:

a)20 different amino acids c)15 different aldehydes
b)15 different amino acids d)17 different ethers

887. Determine type of α-amine acid - triptophane

888. Determine type of α-amine acid - tyrosine

a) aliphatic b) aromatic c) heterocyclic d) complex

889. Phosphoric acid usually esterificates alcoholic groups at following carbon atoms of
sugar rest
a) C1 b) C2 c) C3 d) C4
890. α-Amine acid exists in form of cation in

891. α-Amine acid exists in form of zwitter-ion in

892. How many α-amine acid rests are in polypeptide

a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100
893. Bonds stabilizingsecondary structure of peptides

a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)hydrofobic
894. Choose peptide bond

a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) -C-C-
895. Lactose is
a)monose b)unreducing disaccharide c)amine acid d)reducing disaccharide
896. Glicaric acids are produced from aldoses by

a)oxidation b)reduction c)esterificationd)transamination
897. Sugar rest enters into composition of natural nucleoside in form of ****
a)aldose b)pyranose c)fructose d)furanose
898. Glicaric acids are produced under action of

a)mild oxidant b)strong reductant c)mild reductant d)strong oxidant
899. Which bonds are used for formation of nucleotide

a)coordination b)ionic c)hydrogen d)glycoside
901. Components of nucleotide

a)protein b)amine acid rest c)OH d)thymine
902.Monomeric link of protein

903.Unsaponified lipids are

a) mono-component b) di-component c) three-component d) poly-component

904.DNA contains

a)alcohols, carboxylicacids
b)carboxylicacids
c)alcohols, carboxylicacids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols
906. Determine type of α-amine acid - valine

907.Determine type of α-amine acid – glutamic acid

908.Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine

909.Biogenic amines are produced under reaction of

a)transamination b)oxidation c)reduction d) decarboxylation
910. α-amine acid exists in form of anion in

a)acidic medium b)neutral medium
c)basic medium d)any medium
911. How manyα-amine acidrests are in protein

a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d)more than 100
912. How manyα-amine acidrests are in oligopeptides

a)1-10 b)10-100 c) 100-200 d) more than 100
913.Bonds stabilizing tertiary structure of proteins

a)coordination b)hydrofobic c)glycoside d)metallic
914.Choose disulphide bond

a)-CO-NH- b)–S-S- c)H2N–CH2– d) –C-C-
915.How many cheiral centres are in aldopentose

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
916.Sucrose is
a)monose c)amine acid
b)unreducing disaccharide d)reducing disaccharide
917.Aldites (polyols) are produced from aldoses by

a)oxidation c)esterification
b)reduction d)transamination
918.Reaction of amine acids biosynthesis from oxoacids is called

a)transamination c)reduction
b)oxidation d)decarboxylation
919.Gliconic acids are produced under action of

a)mild oxidant c)mild reductant
b)strong reductant d)strong oxidant
920.Products of acidic catalysis of monosaccharides

a)glycozides b)acids c)polyols d)salts
922.Components of nucleoside
a)phosphate group b)carbonyl group c)thymine d)sugar rest
923.Monomeric link of terpene



926.Indicate name of terpenes at n = 4


928. Saponified lipids are

a)mono-component b)three-component c)without any component d) poly-component
929. RNA contains

930. Simple lipids form under hydrolysis

a)alcohols, carboxylic acids
b)carboxylic acids
c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
d)alcohols
931. Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine

932. Determine type of α-amine acid – phenylalanine

933.Determine type of α-amine acid - alanine

934.Determine type of α-amine acid - glysine

935.Determine type of α-amine acid – tyrosine

936. Determine type of α-amine acid - histidine


938. Determine type of α-amine acid – leucine



941.Determine type of α-amine acid – serine

942. Determine type of α-amine acid – histidine

943. Determine type of α-amine acid - isoleucine

944. Determine type of α-amine acid – isoleucine

945. Determine type of α-amine acid -isoleucine

946. Determine type of α-amine acid – threonine

947. Determine type of α-amine acid - threonine


949. Determine type of α-amine acid – lysine


951. Determine type of α-amine acid - phenylalanine

952. Which of the following products is not derived from cellulose?
a)Rayon b)insulin c)gun cotton d)paper
a)alcohols, carboxylic acids c)alcohols, carboxylic acids, carbohydrates etc.
b)carboxylic acids d)alcohols
954. Number of cheiral centres in aldohexose
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)4
955. Fatty acids are
a)unsaturated dicarboxylic acids c)aromatic carboxylic acids
b)long-chain alkanoic acids d)aromatic dicarboxylic acids
956. Sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids are called
a)proteins b)terpenes c)carbohydrates d)soaps
957. soap is
a)a mixture of salts of fatty acids b)a salt of glycerol
c)a mixture of ethers d)a mixture of aromatic ethers
958. a wax is
a)a nonpolar solid c)a triacylglycerol

b)a long-chain alcohol d)none of these
959.Fats and oils are
a)monoesters of glycerol c)triesters of glycerol
b)diesters of glycerol d)diesters of glycol
960. Fats differ from waxes in that fats have:
a)more unsaturation c)a glycerol backbone
b)higher melting points d)longer fatty acids
961. Oleic acid is a fatty acid containing
a)12 carbons b)14 carbons c)16 carbons d)18 carbons
962. Liquid oils can be converted to solid fats by
a)hydrogenation b)saponification c)hydrolysis d)oxidation of double bonds
963. Partial hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the presence of Ni catalyst at 200⁰C gives
a)Vanaspati ghee b)margarine c)both of these d)none of these
964. Alkaline hydrolyses of oils or fats is called:
a)saponification b)fermentation c)diazotization d)rancidification
965.Saponification of a fat
a)Always results in the formation of insoluble soaps c)is used in the production of detergents
b)produces glycerol and soap d)is used in the production of lactic acid
966. Which of the following compounds will not be classified as lipids?
a)Fats b)waxes c)soaps d)oils
967. The degree of unsaturation of a fat can be determined by means of its
a)Iodine number b)octane number c)saponification number d)melting point
968. Zwitterion is
a)an ion that is positively charged in solution
b)an ion that is negatively charged in solution
c)a compound that can ionize both as a base and an acid
d)a carbohydrate with an electrical charge

969. A zwitterions has which of the following properties
a)no net charge b)a high melting point c)soluble in water d)all of these
970. An aqueous solution of glycine is neutral because of the formation of:
a)carbonion b)zwitterions c)carbonium ions d)free radicals
971. Which of the following compounds form zwitterions?
a)carbonyl compounds b)amino acids c)phenols d)heterocyclic compounds
972. The pH which the amino acid shows no tendency to migrate when placed in an electric
field is known as its:
a)isoelectric point b)dipole moment c)iodine number d)wave length
973. The isoelectric point of a protein is
a)the pH at which the protein molecule has no charges on its surface
b)the pH at which a protein in solution has an equal number of positive and negative charges
c)the electric charge number under isothermal conditions
d)none of these
974. Glycine is
a)NH2CH2COOH c)NO2 CH2CH2 COOH
b) NH2CH2 CH2CH2CH2 NH2 d)Br CH2 COOH
975. Glycine is a unique amino acid because it
a)has no chiral carbon c)cannot form a peptide bond
b)has a sulphur containing R group d)is an essential amino acid
976. Proteins are
a)polyamides b)polymers of ethylene c)α-Aminocarboxylic acids d)polymers of propylene
977. The 5 elements present in most naturally occurring proteins are:
a)C,H,O,P,S b)N,C,H,O,I c)N,S,C,H,O d)C,H,O,S,I
978. Which of the following is the main structural feature of proteins?
a)peptide linkage b)ester linkage c)ether linkage d)α,β-Linkage
979. The linear arrangement of amino acid units in proteins is called:

a)primary structure b)secondary structure c)tertiary structure d)quaternary structure
980. The primary structure of a protein refers to:
a)whether the protein is fibrous or globular
b)the amino acid sequence in the polypeptide chain
c)the orientation of the amino acid side chains in space
d)the presence or absence of an α-helix
981. The α-helix is a common form of
a)primary structure b)tertiary structure c)secondary structure d)none of these
982. The α-helix is held in a coiled conformation partially because of
a)optical activity b)hydrogen bonding c)resonance d)delocalization
983. The double helical structure of DNA is held together by
a)sulphur-sulphur linkages b)peptide bonding c)hydrogen bonding d)glycosidic bonds
984. Upon hydrolysis, proteins give
a)amino acids b)hydroxyl acids c)fatty acids d)alcohols
985. Complete hydrolysis of proteins produces
a)ammonia and carbon dioxide b)urea and uric acid
c)a mixture of amino acids d)glycogen and a fatty acid
986. Nynhydring test is given by
a)carbohydrates b)proteins c)alkanes d)alkenes
987. Which of the following tests is not used for testing proteins?
a)ninhydrin test b)biuret test c)xanthoproteic test d)tollens test
988. A protein solution on warming with concentrated HNO3 may turn yellow. This test is
called
a)xanthoproteic test b)ninhydring test c)biuret test d)million’s test
989. A compound gives a positive Tollens’ test but negative Ninhydrin test. It is
a)a protein b)an amino acid c)a monosaccharide d)pyridine
990. Monosaccharides are classified according to

a)the number of carbon atoms in the molecule
b)whether they contain an aldehyde or a ketone group
c)their configurational relationship to glyceraldehydes
d)all of the above
991. Which is a monosaccharide?
a)sucrose b)maltose c)galactose d)cellulose
992. Which is a disaccharide?
a)glucose b)maltose c)fructose d)cellulose
993. Which of the following is not a monosaccharide?
a)ribose b)fructose c)sucrose d)glucose
994. The designation D or L before the name of a monosaccharide
a)indicates the direction of rotation of polarized light
b)indicates the length of the carbon chain in the carbohydrate
c)indicates the position of the OH group on the carbon next to the primary alcohol group
d)indicates the position of the asymmetric carbon atoms in the carbohydrate
995. The principal sugar in blood is
a)fructose b)glucose c)sucrose d)galactose
996. Glucose cannot be classified as
a)a hexose b)an oligosaccharide c)an aldose d)a monosaccharide
997. Which of the following statements is false about glucose?
a)it is a reducing sugar b)it is a disaccharide c)it has a pyranose form d)it is a polyalcohol
998. Which of the following statements is false about glyceraldehydes?
a)its IUPAC name is 1,2-dihydroxypropanal c)it is oprtically active
b)it is isomeric with 1,3-dihydroxypropanone d)it shows mutarotation
999. Common table sugar is
a)glucose b)sucrose c)fructose d)maltose

1000.Which of the following carbohydrates is sweeter than sucrose?
a)glucose b)fructose c)lactose d)none of the above
1001.Which of the following statements is false about sucrose?
a)it is also called table sugar c)it reduces Fehling’s solution
b)it may be fermented by yeast to produce alcohol d)it does not reduce Tollens’ reagent
1002. The sugar that yields only glucose on hydrolysis is
a)lactose b)sucrose c)maltose d)fructose
1003. Starch
a)is a trisaccharide c)is also called amylopectin
b)is also called amylose d)is a mixture of amylase + amylopectin
Docent Aitkeeva Ch.A.

9 October 2017

All Mcqs 2020 Chem

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Exam tests on Chemistry.

a) + General laws of mutual energy conversions from one form to another.

b) Energy changes during chemical transformations.

c) The rate of chemical reactions.

d) Chemical processes that cause electrons to move.

2. By interaction with the environment Thermodynamic systems are divided into:

c) + Open, Closed, Isolated

d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

3. What is the Open System?

4. What is the Closed System?

5. What is the Isolated System?

6. Matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is called?

9. Thermodynamic processes may be:

c) Open, Closed, Isolated

d) + Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

10. What is the Isothermal process?

11. What is the Isobaric process?

12. What is the Isochoric (or isometric) process?

13. What is the adiabaticprocess?

15. A process during which the pressure P = const is called?

16. A process during which the specific volume v = const is called?

17. A process during which the heat Q = 0 is called?

18. Who had opened the first law of thermodynamics?

19. The basic formula for Entropy;

20. Mathematical expression of the first law of thermodynamics:

21. Fine the formula of Internal energy.

22. Internal energy is called?

23. Sum of all potential and kinetic energies of all components

24. Enthalpy is called?

25. Heat flow in processes occurring at constant pressure

26. The heat transfer are divided into

c) Open, Closed, Isolated

d) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

27. What is the thermal conductivity?

29. What is the radiation?

30. Who had opened the second law of thermodynamics?

31. What is the endothermic process?

32. What is the exothermic process?

33. Reactions accompanied by the increasing of heat are called?

b) Open, Closed, Isolated

c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

34. Reactions accompanied by the releasing of heat are called

b) Open, Closed, Isolated

c) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal, Adiabatic

35. Which is the basic formula of Hess's Law.

a) + ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6

b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)

36. Which is the second effect formula of Hess's Law

a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6

b) ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)

37. Which is the third effect formula of Hess's Law:

a) ∆H1 = ∆H2 +∆H3 = ∆H4 + ∆H5 + ∆H6

b) + ΔHr = Σ ΔHf° (product) - Σ ΔHf°(reactants)

38. System consisting of three phases is called

39. System consisting of one phase is called

40. What is the heterogeneous system?

41. What is the homogeneous system?

42. What are the units of energy?

43. Spontaneous process occurs only

a) + without external energy

44. Internal energy is ……

45. Enthalpy is expressed by following

46. Indicate which function isn’t function of state