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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 20 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. damaged B. practiced C. attacked D. escaped
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other
three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. effective B. romantic C. concentrate D. addiction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: These roads were barely wide enough for us to pass, __________?
A. were they B. weren’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 6: Relations between the two countries _______ further recently due to territorial disputes.
A. have been deteriorated B. have deteriorated
C. were deteriorated D. deteriorates
Question 7: Parents must keep an eye on their kids because they may eat stuff like pills or marbles
__________ mistake for candies.
A. at B. by C. for D. in
Question 8: __________ the students concentrate on their lessons, the more impatient their teachers
will become.
A. The least B. The less C. The fewer D. The fewest
Question 9: A fashionable couple bought two ____ rings at one of the most luxurious jewelry stores.
A. wedding beautiful gold B. gold beautiful wedding
C. beautiful gold wedding D. beautiful wedding gold
Question 10: Before the Olympic Games __________, the home team had been well trained to deal
with difficult situations.
A. had been taken place B. took place C. were taken place D. will take place
Question 11: __________ the fact that they did not know English, the visitors were unaware of what
their tour guide asked them to do.
A. Despite B. Due to C. In spite of D. Because
Question 12: Susan will have done voluntary work in hospitals for ten years __________ another job.
A. as soon as she had moved on to B. when she moved on to
C. by the time she moves on to D. after she will move on to
Question 13: __________ a number of difficulties in the first week, Maria ultimately decided to quit
her new job.
A. Having been encountered B. Being encountered
C. Having encountered D. To encounter

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Question 14: Intensive farming has brought about a __________ increase in outbreaks of food
poisoning in the countryside.
A. significance B. significantly C. significant D. signify
Question 15: My family highly encourage me to __________ a place at Oxford University because it
has a high reputation for academic achievement.
A. try out B. try on C. try for D. try out for
Question 16: TV viewers are beginning to get very annoyed with advertisements which are arranged
to __________ the gaps between game shows.
A. bridge B. fill C. narrow D. close
Question 17: You should seek advice from your sister because she knows a lot about the __________
of running a hotel business.
A. structures B. mechanics C. incentives D. constituents
Question 18: I would encourage every individual to support the staff who are under the __________
because of the overload of work.
A. weather B. table C. gun D. knife
Question 19: The ambulances were in _______ within 22 minutes to rush all victims to the hospital.
A. emergency B. presence C. league D. attendance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The state government is determined to tackle the problem of poverty in the inner cities.
A. attack B. encounter C. appeal D. impair
Question 21: All ingredients you need to cook soup are readily available from your local store, so you
can buy them whenever you want.
A. willingly B. commonly C. freely D. scarcely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: His report was harshly criticized by fellow students because the information was deemed
too sensitive to be discussed.
A. softly B. slightly C. gently D. severely
Question 23: He finally made a clean breast of everything and admitted that he had broken into the
art gallery and got away with two valuable paintings.
A. concealed the fact of everything B. revealed the truth of everything
C. exposed the truth to the public D. knew the fact of everything
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jury is asking Nanno, her new fellow student, about her hometown.
- Jury: “Where are you from?”
- Nanno: “__________.”
A. I come from nowhere
B. It’s Thailand, which is a country in South East Asia
C. About five kilometers
D. My parents take me to school every day

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Question 25: Billy and Laura are talking about working part-time.
- Billy: “I think working part-time is a distraction from our study.”
- Laura: “__________. It gives us the ability to spend money wisely and improve our time management
skills”
A. It makes sense to me B. It’s right
C. I totally agree with you D. I don’t quite agree
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction on each of the following questions.
Question 26: Yesterday evening, the search for the missing men are conducted in poor weather conditions.
A B C D
Question 27: A qualified engineer together with a friend of him has worked tirelessly for the construction
A B C D
of a new office for a week.
Question 28: This leaflet will give you the essence of how to prepare for a hurricane so that you can
A B C
minimize potential damage.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: We haven’t gone to the concert for two years.
A. We last went to the concert for two years ago.
B. We have gone to the concert for two years.
C. We went to the concert for two years.
D. The last time we went to the concert was two years ago.
Question 30: “Don’t forget to turn off the air conditioner or you will be punished” said my mother to me.
A. My mother reminded me of forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
B. My mother warned me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
C. My mother reminded me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
D. My mother warned me against forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
Question 31: It’s high time that the school improved its educational facilities.
A. The school ought to improve its educational facilities.
B. The school doesn’t have to improve its educational facilities.
C. The school should have improved its educational facilities.
D. The school must have improved its educational facilities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: You don’t know how hard I’ve tried to please you. I hope that you can have sympathy
for me.
A. I wish you knew how hard I have tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
B. If only you knew how hard I had tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
C. If you knew how hard I had tried to please you, you could have sympathy for me.
D. As long as you know how hard I’ve tried to please you, you can have sympathy for me.
Question 33: I put the mobile on the table. She then called me back.
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A. Only after she had called me back did I put the mobile on the table.
B. Had it not been for her call, I wouldn’t have put the mobile on the table.
C. Not only did she call me back but I also put the mobile on the table.
D. Hardly had I put the mobile on the table when she called me back.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
In the book The Population Bomb, which crystallized fears about the planet’s burgeoning
population, Paul Ehrlich predicted widespread famine, social upheaval and a deterioration in
environmental conditions.
The author was wrong. The green revolution that vastly increased agricultural production
starting in the 1960s meant his (34) __________ didn’t come to pass. From the 1960s through the
1900s, yields of rice and wheat in Asia doubled. (35)__________ as the continent’s population
increased by 60 per cent, grain prices fell, the average Asian consumed nearly a third more calories,
and the poverty rate was cut in half.
To keep doing that between now and 2050, we’ll need (36) __________green revolution. There
are two competing visions of (37)__________it will happen. One is high-tech, with a heavy emphasis
on continuing work of breeding better crops, but with modern genetic techniques. Scientists can now
identify and manipulate a huge variety of plant genes, for traits like disease (38) __________ and
drought tolerance. That is going to make farming more productive and resilient.
(Adapted from newscientist.com)
Question 34: A. predictions B. implication C. guesses D. anticipation
Question 35: A. When B. If C. Much D. Even
Question 36: A. other B. another C. many D. others
Question 37: A. how B. when C. what D. which
Question 38: A. insistence B. resistance C. persistence D. existence
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Education has been the focus of media attention since the virus has intermittently closed
classrooms and campuses over the past year. But despite the disruption, the widespread shift to online
learning has given learners and education providers a glimpse of the future.
For our latest Better Managers Briefing, I spoke with Paul Geddes – CEO of technology
training provider QA; and Tim Stewart – the vice chancellor of BPP University and a professor of
business education.
Taking education online was the first and most obvious short-term delivery impact of the
pandemic. For example, Tim says that for him and BPP as an awarding body, the biggest
accomplishment was being able to move assessments online, enabling thousands of students to sit
hundreds of exams under supervision and be able to continue gaining credits and to graduate.
“Inevitably, after the pandemic, some of this will move back offline,” he predicts, “but I think we will
see a much more significant role for online teaching, online assessment, online socializing and online
libraries.”
Mixing “on-demand” digital delivery with live online learning has been essential at QA, says
Paul. “For learners, live lessons mean that you’re more likely to turn up, you're focused, you're going
to pay attention and not be distracted… because your trainer could ask you a question at any time,” he
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says. “You can ask questions, you're part of a cohort that can learn from each other and the subject
matter can be tailored to your understanding.” Paul believes, “If you're in a cohort of learners, it’s still
important that you can have a cup of coffee with them and chat through what you’ve just learned in
class. But I don’t think things will return fully to where they were in terms of physical attendance.”
(Source: https://www.managers.org.uk/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. The changing landscape of education.
B. Between going online or staying offline.
C. What makes teaching and learning successful.
D. How to thrive in the workforce of the future.
Question 40: The word “intermittently” in paragraph 1 mostly means __________.
A. customarily B. repeatedly C. sporadically D. continually
Question 41: Which is NOT mentioned about online learning during the pandemic?
A. Students can continue their degree and graduate normally.
B. Students can be supervised individually through technology.
C. Students can interact with the teacher and other students.
D. Students can sit through tests and be graded.
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. trainers B. things C. learners D. questions
Question 43: According to the passage, how will the education change post-pandemic?
A. Digital delivery will be blended with live learning.
B. Companies will invest more in digital infrastructure.
C. Physical classrooms will have lower rates of attendance.
D. Technical and soft skills will be added to the curriculum.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
You’ve heard all the reasons why some people don’t learn languages, many of these founded on
long-held myths and misconceptions. The truth is, in today’s increasingly interconnected and
interdependent world, proficiency in other languages is a vital skill that gives you the opportunity to
engage with the world in a more immediate and meaningful way—whether in your neighborhood or
thousands of miles away—while better preparing you to compete and succeed in the global economy.
One of the most rewarding aspects of the human experience is our ability to connect with others.
Being able to communicate with someone in his or her language is an incredible gift. Bilinguals have
the unique opportunity to communicate with a wider range of people in their personal and professional
lives. Knowing the language makes you a local no matter where you are, opening up your world
literally and figuratively. You will be shaped by communities. You will be humbled by the kindness of
strangers. You will build lifelong friendships. And for these reasons alone, you will see the reward of
learning languages for many years to come.
Language skills can be a significant competitive advantage that sets you apart from your
monolingual peers. They are among the top eight skills required of all occupations—no matter your
sector or skill level—and the demand for bilingual professionals is rising exponentially. In fact,
between 2010 and 2015, the number of U.S. job postings specifically geared toward bilingual
candidates more than doubled. Employers are seeking professionals who can communicate seamlessly
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with customers in new and expanding overseas markets, as well as serve and sell to a large foreign-
born population here at home. With more than 60 million U.S. residents who speak a language other
than English at home, you don’t need to get on a plane to put your language skills to work. As an
added incentive, in many instances, language skills also lead to hiring bonuses and increased salaries.
Whatever your career aspiration—with language skills added to the mix, you’re ahead of the crowd!
(Adapted from https://www.leadwithlanguages.org/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. Reasons Not to Learn Foreign Languages B. Why Learn Foreign Languages?
C. What Foreign Languages to Learn? D. Who Need to Learn Foreign Languages?
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the benefits of knowing another language,
EXCEPT__________.
A. you can communicate with more people in their personal and professional lives.
B. you may become a local person wherever you go.
C. you will get suspicious if strangers are kind to you.
D. you will have many intimate friends.
Question 46: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. language skills B. monolingual peers C. eight skills D. occupations
Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Our ability to communicate with others is the first requirement in our jobs.
B. You have to learn languages for many years to travel alone.
C. There is an exponential increase in the demand for bilingual professionals.
D. You cannot succeed if you are unable to compete in the global economy.
Question 48: The word “geared” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. tended B. avoided C. trained D. left
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what kind of employees do the U.S employers want to hire?
A. the professionals who can speak a language other than English at home
B. the foreign employees who were born in their nation
C. the workers who can get on a plane to put their language skills to work
D. the professionals who can satisfy the demands to work with the international customers in their
nation and abroad
Question 50: The phrase “ahead of the crowd” in the last paragraph most probably means _______.
A. moving fast B. being outstanding C. becoming the owner D. being the tallest
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