NAME: __________________________________________________ SCORE: ____/____ RATING: _________

ID NUMBER: _________ COURSE: ___________

ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

1. For an SCR, the holding current IH, is defined as the

A. Minimum anode current required to hold the SCR in its conducting state
B. Maximum anode current that the SCR can safely handle
C. Minimum amount of anode current that will keep the SCR off
D. None of the above
2. Find the flux density in gauss having a flux of 20,000 Mx through a perpendicular area of 2 cm squared.
A. 20,000 G
B. 10,000 G
C. 40,000 G
D. 22,000 G
3. How much time is required for electromagnetic energy to travel one nautical mile and return to the source?
A. 18.54 microseconds
B. 6.18 microseconds
C. 12.36 microseconds
D. 24.72 microseconds
4. Which transistor bias circuit arrangement provides good Q-point stability, but requires both positive and negative supply
voltages?
A. base bias
B. collector bias
C. voltage-divider bias
D. emitter bias
5. A class A amplifier with RC = 3.3 kΩ and RE = 1.2 kΩ has a VCC = 20 V. Find IC (sat).
A. 4.4 mA
B. 6.1 mA
C. 16.7 mA
D. 20 mA
6. In this circuit βDC = 100 and VIN = 8 V. The value of RB that will produce saturation is:

A. 92 kΩ
B. 9.1 MΩ
C. 100 kΩ
D. 150 kΩ
7. A UJT has internal resistances of RB1 = 6 KΩ and RB2 = 3 KΩ, what is its interbase resistance?
A. 2 KΩ
B. 3 KΩ
C. 6 KΩ
D. 9 KΩ
8. Imagine four 100-μH inductors connected in a 2 × 2 series-parallel combination. Suppose there is no mutual inductance among
them. What is the net inductance of this matrix?
a. 25 μH
b. 50 μH
c. 100 μH
d. 200 μH

9. Suppose a coil and capacitor are connected in series, with jXL = j 40 and jXC = −j70, and the coil has an internal resistance of 10 Ω.
Suppose the frequency of operation is 12.5 MHz. This circuit will exhibit resonance at
a. some frequency below 12.5 MHz.
b. some frequency above 12.5 MHz.
c. 12.5 MHz; it is resonant under the conditions stated.
d. any and all frequencies.
10. Refer to Fig. 5-5B. Let each resistor have a value of 820 Ω. Suppose the top three resistors all lead to light bulbs of the exact same
wattage. If I1 = 50 mA and I2 = 70 mA, what is the power dissipated in the resistor carrying current I4?
 a. 33 W.
b. 40 mW.
c. 1.3 W.
d. It can’t be found using the information given.

11. Refer to Fig. 5-5A. Suppose the resistors each have values of 33 Ω. The battery provides 24 V. The current I1 is:

a. 1.1 A.
b. 730 mA.
c. 360 mA.
d. Not determinable from the information given.
12. Which one is the paramagnetic material?
A. Copper
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon
D. Bismuth
13. What is the property of the magnetic circuit that resists the establishment of flux?
A. Mutual inductance
B. Inductance
C. Reluctance
D. Permeance
14. The energy gap of an insulator is in the order of
A. zero electron volt (0 eV)
B. one electron volt (1 eV)
C. five electron volt (5 eV)
D. one-tenth electron volt (0.1 eV)
15. One ampere is equal to how many electrons per second?
A. 1 x 10e18 electrons / sec.
B. 1 x 10e19 electrons / sec.
C. 6.25 x 10e18 electrons / sec.
D. 6.25 x 10e19 electrons / sec.
16. If the electrical current carried by each of the two long parallel wire is doubled, and their separation is also doubled, the force
between them
A. also doubles
B. increases by a factor of four
C. decreases by a factor of four
D. decreases by a factor of two
17. To analyze the common-emitter amplifier, what must be done to determine the DC equivalent circuit?
A. leave circuit unchanged
B. replace coupling and bypass capacitors with opens
C. replace coupling and bypass capacitors with shorts
D. replace VCC with ground
18. A common-collector amplifier has (_____) input resistance, (_____) current gain, and (_____) voltage gain.
A. high, high, low
B. high, low, low
C. high, low, high
D. high, high, high
19. What is re′ equal to in terms of h parameters?
A. hre / hoe
B. (hre + 1) / hoe
C. hie – (hre / hoe)(1 + hfe)
 D. hfe
20. The maximum efficiency of a class B amplifier is _____ percent.
A. 50
B. 25
C. 70
D. 79
21. An amplifier has an output voltage of 7.6 V p-p at the midpoint of the frequency range. What is the output at fc?
A. 3.8 V p-p
B. 3.8 Vrms
C. 5.4 Vrms
D. 5.4 V p-p
22. In which type of amplifier is the input applied to the emitter and the output taken from the collector?
A. the common-base amplifier
B. the common-emitter amplifier
C. the common-collector amplifier
D. the emitter follower
23. A class A amplifier should be biased
A. At cutoff
B. Midway between saturation and cutoff
C. Very near saturation
D. None of the above
24. If the secondary voltage increases in a bridge rectifier with a capacitor-input filter, the load voltage will
A. Decrease
B. Stay the same
C. Increase
D. None of these
25. If a transistor operates at the middle of the load line, an increase in the base resistance will move the Q point
A. Down
B. Up
C. Nowhere
D. Off the load line

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

1. An error of 3% error is made in solving for the radius of a sphere. What is the percentage error in getting the volume?
A. 3%
B. 4%
C. 6%
D. 9%
2. What is the Laplace Transform of f(t) = t for 0<t<4 and f(t) = 5 for t>4?
A. 5/s^2 + (e^-4s)/s – (e^-4s)/s^2
B. 1/s^2 - (e^-4s)/s^3 – (e^-4s)/s^2
C. 1/s^2 + (e^-4s)/s – (e^-4s)/s^2
D. 1/s^2 - (e^-4s)/s + (e^-4s)/s^2
3. What is the cardinality of the set that has non-negative integers with exactly two digits as the elements?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 99
D. None of the above
4. For two sets with cardinality of 5 and 8, which of the following is an impossible cardinality of the union of the two sets?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 10
D. 13
5. There were 2 small circles C1 and C2 inside a large circle AB. AB is a diameter of the large circle. The centers C1 and C2 of the smaller
circles are on AB. The two small circles are congruent and tangent to each other and to the larger circle. The circumference of circle C1
is 8Pi. What is the area of the large circle?
A. 64Pi
B. 32Pi
C. 156Pi
D. 128Pi
6. DE is parallel to CB and (length of AE / length of EB) is 4. If the area of triangle AED is 20 square inches, what is the area, in
square inches, of triangle ABC?
A. 31.25
B. 80
C. 320
D. 1,600

7. What is the general solution for the differential equation y” = 20x 4?

A. Y = 6x6 + c1x + c2
B. Y = (3/2)x6 + c1x + c2
C. Y = (2/3)x6 + c1x + c2
D. Y = 3x6 + c1x + c2
8. A storage battery discharge at a rate which is proportional to the charge. If the charge is reduced by 50% of its original value at the
end of 2 days, how long will it take to reduce the charge to 25% of its original charge?
A. 3
 B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
9. If x varies directly as y and inversely as z, and x=14 when y=7 and z=2, find the value of x when y=16 and z=4.
A. 14
B. 4
C. 16
D. 6
10. For the sets A = {1,2} and B = {a,b,c}, how many elements are there in the Cartesian product A x B?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
11. The area of the circle x2 + y2 - 8y - 48 = 0 is
A. 96Pi
B. 64Pi
C. 48Pi
D. 20Pi
12. States that if f is a continuous function in the closed interval [a,b] with f(a) and f(b) of opposite sign, then there is a ac in the open
interval (a,b) such that f(c)=0.
A. Intermediate Value Theorem
B. Extreme Value Theorem
C. Bolzano Theorem
D. Cayley Theorem

13. As x increases from Pi/4 to 3Pi/4, |sin(2x)|

A. always increases
B. always decreases
C. increases then decreases
D. decreases then increases

14. A paint-store chain produces and sells latex and semi-gloss paint. Based on long-range sales, the probability that a customer will
purchase latex paint is 0.75. Of those that purchase latex paint, 60% also purchase rollers. But only 30% of semi-gloss paint buyers
purchase rollers. A randomly selected buyer purchases a roller and a can of paint. What is the probability that the paint is latex?

A. 0.578
B. 0.857
C. 0.758
D. 0.800
15. The probability that Tom will be alive in 20 years is 0.7, and the probability that Nancy will be alive in 20 years is 0.9. If we assume
independence for both, what is the probability that neither will be alive hi 20 years?
A. 0.04
B. 0.02
C. 0.03
D. 0.05
16. The probability that the head of a household is home when a telemarketing representative calls is 0.4. Given that the head of the
house is home, the probability that goods will be bought from the company is 0.3. Find the probability that the head of the house is
home and goods being bought from the company.
A. 0.12
B. 0.13
C. 0.14
D. 0.15

17. Evaluate the integral of (2 x3 + x )( x 4 + x 2+1)29 dx

1 4 2
A. ( x + x +1 ) +C
30
1 4 2 30
B. ( x + x +1 ) + C
30
1 4 2
C. ( x + x +1 ) +C
60
1 4 2 30
D. ( x + x +1 ) +C
60
18. Find the area in the first quadrant bounded by the curve y = 3x – x 3, the lines x = 0 and y = 2.
a. 0.550
b. 0.625
c. 0.480
d. 0.750
19. The area common to the parabolas y = x2 and y2 = x is revolved about the y-axis. Find the volume generated.
A. 0.94 cubic units
B. 0.81 cubic units
C. 0.89 cubic units
D. 0.74 cubic units
20. How many circular permutations can be made from 6 different objects?
A. 120
B. 125
C. 150
D. 175
21. Find the value of k for the equation x^2 + y^2 +4x -2y –k = 0 represents a point circle.
A. -4
B. -5
C. -6
D. -7
22. Find the equation of the curve at every point of which the tangent line has a slope of 2x.
A. y = x^2 - c
B. y = x + c
C. y = x^2 + c
D. y = x – c
23. Find the point in the parabola y^2 = 4x at which the rate of change of the ordinate and abscissa are equal.
A. (1, -2)
B. (1, 2)
C. (-1, 2)
D. (-1, -2)
24. The integral of any quotient whose numerator is the differential of the denominator is the ________________.
A. cologarithm
B. product
C. logarithm
D. Derivative
25. Determine B such that 3x + 2y – 7 = 0 is perpendicular to 2x – By + 2 = 0.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

GENERAL ENGINEERING AND APPLIED SCIENCES

1. What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?
A. Bureau of Communications
B. Department of Transportations and Communications
C. House of Representatives
D. National Telecommunications Commission
2. Calculate for the number of molecules of ethane (C2H6) present in 0.431 g of C2H6. (C atomic mass = 12.01 g; H atomic mass =
1.008 g).
A. 8.63 x 1021 C2H6 molecules
B. 8.75 x 1021 C2H6 molecules
C. 7.69 x 1021 C2H6 molecules
D. 9.13 x 1021 C2H6 molecules
3. How many water molecules are present in 5.34 mL of water at a temperature of 4 deg C, which the density of water at this
temperature is 1.00 g/mL? Atomic masses of H and O are 1.008 g and 16.00 g, respectively.
A. 1.84 x 1023 molecules
B. 1.78 x 1023 molecules
C. 1.74 x 1023 molecules
D. 1.87 x 1023 molecules
4. Determine the pressure exerted by hydrogen bromide gas having a density of 2.978 g/L at a temperature of 46 deg C. Hydrogen
and bromine has atomic masses of 1.008 g and 79.9 g, respectively.
A. 73 mmHg
B. 106 mmHg
C. 733 mmHg
D. 0.964 mmHg
5. What is the expression of the magnitude and direction of the lattice distortion associated with dislocation?
A. Vector graph
B. Line vector
C. Vector Diagram
D. Burgers Vector
6. An airplane has a speed of 120 mph and is heading in a direction due north. There is a crosswind of 30 mph 15 deg east of north.
What is the speed of the airplane and what is its direction relative to the ground?
A. 133.201 mph to the north
B. 133.201 mph, 3.23 deg east of north
C. 133.201 mph, 3.23 deg north of west
D. 133.201 mph, 26.77 deg east of north
7. Two circular shafts are made of the same material and have the same diameter, D. One of them is solid and one is hollow, with an
inner diameter, d, equal to half the outer diameter. What is the ratio of the polar moment of inertia of the solid shaft to the polar moment
of inertia of the hollow shaft?
A. ½
B. 8/5
C. 5/12
D. 16/15
8. An old railroad track exposed under direct sunlight is subject to thermal expansion. At a temperature of 20 deg F, the rails are 50
feet long with gaps of 0.01 feet. What stress would be induced in the rails at a temperature of 3 times the initial temperature if they are to
be prevented from buckling? (coefficient of linear expansion for the rail is 6.5 x 10-6/def F and Young’s modulus is 30 x 106)
A. 950 psi
B. 1400 psi
C. 1800 psi
D. 2500 psi
9. There is a compound that is made of vanadium and oxygen atoms. This compound is found to be 56% vanadium. What is the
equivalent weight of vanadium in this compound?
A. 9.8
B. 10.2
C. 11.4
D. 14.2
10. How many grams of sulfur will 15.0 g of Zn to form ZnS?
A. 7.14 g
B. 8.12 g
C. 7.36 g
D. 9.45 g
11. If a particle move in such a way that its velocity (in meters per second) at any time t (in seconds) is defined as: v = 6t2 – 15t + 18,
what is the displacement of the interval from t = 1 to t = 2?
A. 4.75 meters
B. 9.50 meters
C. 12.50 meters
D. 22.00 meters
12. What is the maximum moment of a 10-m beam with two 50-kN loads 3 m from both ends?
A. 75 kN-m
B. 150 kN-m
C. 300 kN-m
D. 350 kN-m
13. A solid circular shaft generates 100 kW while turning 1.5 rps. Find the twisting moment (in N-m) of the shaft if the allowable
shearing stress is 40 Mpa.
A. 10.610
B. 11.891
C. 11.562
D. 12.085
14. A pendulum that beats seconds and gives correct time on ground at a certain place is moved to the top of a tower 320m high. How
much time will the pendulum lose in 1 day? Assume earth’s radius to be 6400km.
a. 4.32 s
b. 4.23 s
c. 3.42 s
d. 3.24 s
15. Suppose you want to store 1.00 J of electric potential energy in a volume of 1.00 m3 in vacuum. What is the magnitude of the
required electric field?
a. 0.475 MV/m
b. 0.336MV/m
c. 0.225TV/m
d. 0.113TV/m
16. In fluid mechanics, this shows that the pressure of a fluid decreases as the speed of the fluid increases. In addition, the pressure of a
fluid decreases as the elevation increases.
a. Clairut’s equation
b. Bernoulli’s equation
c. Maxwell’s equation
d. Hyrdofluid equation
17. Here are the monthly data for the past 8 months. From these data, what are the forecasts for the following 4 months using linear
regression?
Period Actual
1 300
2 540
3 885
4 580
5 416
6 760
7 1191
8 760

A. 9th—825, 10th- 910.33, 11th – 995.66, 12th – 1,081

B. 9th--900, 10th- 967, 11th - 1034, 12th – 1,101
C. 9th--997, 10th- 1067.67, 11th – 1138.33, 12th – 1209
D. 9th--1027, 10th- 1,104, 11th – 1,181, 12th – 1,258
18. A piston cylinder device contains a liquid-vapor mixture of water at 400K. During a constant pressure process, 700 KJ of heat is
transferred to the water. As a result, part of the liquid in the cylinder vaporizes. Determine the entropy change of the water during this
process.
a. 1.75kJ/K
b. 280kJ-K
c. 7000kJ
d. 0.57K/kJ
19. Two identically charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal length. The strings make an angle 30◦ with each other. When
suspended in a liquid of density 0.8g/cm3, the angle remains the same. What is the dielectric constant of the liquid? The density of the
material of the sphere is 1.6g/cm3.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
20. What is the another term for “acid-test ratio”?
A. Current Ration
B. Quick Ratio
C. Profit Margin Ratio
D. Price-Earning Ratio
21. What rate of interest compounded annually is the same as the rate of interest of 8% compounded quarterly?
A. 8.07%
B. 8.12%
 C. 8.16%
D. 8.24%
22. What is the second modulus of a beam with a circle cross-section with a 0.85-m radius?
A. 0.48 m^3
B. 0.96 m^3
C. 1.45 m^3
D. 2.33 m^3
23. What is the unit of the modulus of elasticity?
A. N-m
B. Unitless
C. Pa
D. N-m/s
24. The resultant force of a distributed load is always equal to
A. twice the area under the loading curve
B. half the area under the loading curve
C. the area under the loading curve
D. one-fourth the area under the loading curve
25. A plano-convex lens has a focal length of 30 cm. What is the radius of the convex surface if its index of refraction is 1.55?
A. 15.5 cm
B. 16.5 cm
C. 18.5 cm
D. 17.5 cm

ELECTRONICS SYSTEMS AND TECHNOLOGIES

1. Calculate the optical power 100 km from a 0.5 mW source on a single mode fiber that has 0.10 dB per km loss.
A. 50 nW
B. 500 nW
C. 5 μW
D. 50 μW

2. What is the frequency range of C-band?

A. 8.5 to 12.5 GHz
B. 3.4 to 6.425 GHz
C. 12.95 to 14.95 GHz
D. 27.5 to 31 GHz

3. What height must a satellite be placed above the surface of the earth in order for its rotation to be equal to earth’s rotation?
A. 26,426.4 miles
B. 27,426.4 miles
C. 23,426.4 miles
D. 22,426.4 miles
4. Neutralization of an RF amplifier stage can be necessary in order to
A. Increase the amplifier’s gain
B. Prevent the generation of spurious oscillations
C. Reduce the amplifier’s gain
D. Reduce the level of the output harmonics
5. Indicate the false statement
A. HF mixers are generally noisier than HF amplifiers
B. Impulse noise voltage is independent of bandwidth
C. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which it is measured
D. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type
6. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. behaves as a low-pass filter
B. limits the amplitude of the IF signal to the required level
C. behaves as a high-pass filter
D. behaves as a bandstop filter
7. The noise output of a resistor is amplified by a noiseless amplifier having a gain of 60 and a bandwidth of 20 kHz. A meter
connected at the output of the amplifier reads 1 mV RMS. If the bandwidth of the amplifier is reduced to 5kHz, considering the
gain remains constant, what will be the new reading on the meter?
A. 0.5 mV
B. 0.5 µV
C. 5.0 mV
D. 5.0 µV
8. Signaling point that serves as the routers in the SS7 network.
A. Serving Switching Points
B. Signal Transfer Points
C. Service Control Points
D. Signal Switching Points
9. In Plain Old Telephone System, call blocking occurs
A. When there is an electrical power failure
B. When the receiver is busy
C. When there is a high utilization of trunks
D. When noise is present at the local loop
10. The synchronous modems are more expensive than the asynchronous modems because
A. they must contain clock recovery circuits
B. production volume is larger
C. they must operate on a larger bandwidth
D. They are larger’
11. A protocol is a rule governing a time sequence of events that must take place ____
A. between peers
 B. across an interface
C. between non-peers
D. none of the above
12. In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by
A. a data link layer
B. network layer
C. transport layer
D. session layer
13. RS-232, RS-449, RS-530, V-24, and X-21 are examples of?
A. standards for various types of transmission channels.
B. standards for interfaces between terminals and modems.
C. two methods of error detection and correction.
D. standards for end-to-end performance of data communication systems.
14. In PCM transmitter, the function of a sampling circuit is
A. To convert analog signal to digital signal
B. To sample the analog input voltage and convert to a series of constant-amplitude pulses
C. To sample the digital input voltage and convert to a series of analog input voltage
D. To convert digital signal to analog signal
15. In digital transmission, signal degradation can be removed using:
A. An amplifier
B. a regenerative repeater
C. A filter
D. all of the above
16. Transmission of binary signals requires
A. the same bandwidth as analog
B. less bandwidth than analog
C. more bandwidth than analog
D. a license from the NTC
17. Is the ratio of the largest possible magnitude to the smallest possible magnitude than can be decoded by the DAC.
A. Resolution
B. Quantization
C. Dynamic range
D. Voltage ratio
18. Which is true about FDMA?
A. With FDMA, digital signals are much easier to process than analog signals.
B. With FDMA, each channel is allocated a carrier frequency and channel bandwidth within the total frequency spectrum.
C. FDMA allows more than one mobile unit to use a channel at the same time by further dividing transmissions within each
cellular channel into dedicated periods.
D. All of the above
19. What is the mode of radio wave propagation that utilized ionosphere as a medium of transmission and / or reception of radio signals?
A. ground wave
B. sky wave
C. space wave
D. all of these
20. A receiver has a desired input signal of 18 MHz and an LO frequency of 19.6 MHz. The image frequency is
a. 1.6 MHz
b. 18 MHz
c. 19.6 MHz
d. 21.2 MHz
21. What values of L and C in an L network are required to match a 10 Ω transistor amplifier impedance to a 50 Ω load at 27 MHz?
a. L=47 nH, C=185 pF
b. L=118 nH, C=236 pF
c. L=0.13 µH, C=220 pF
d. L=0.3 µH, C=330 pF
22. A 1,000-hertz tone of a certain loudness causes the frequency- modulated carrier for the circuit to vary ±1,000 hertz at a rate of 1,000
times per second. If the AMPLITUDE of the modulating tone is
doubled, what will be the maximum carrier variation?
A. ±1,000 hertz at 1,000 times per second
B. ±1,000 hertz at 2,000 times per second
C. ±2,000 hertz at 1,000 times per second
D. ±2,000 hertz at 2,000 times per second
23) What are the two major sections of an AM transmitter?
A. Audio frequency unit and radio frequency unit
B. Audio frequency unit and master oscillator
C. Audio frequency unit and final power amplifier
D. Audio frequency unit and intermediate power amplifier
24. The intermediate power amplifier serves what function in a transmitter?
A. It generates the carrier
B. It modulates the carrier
C. It increases the frequency of the signal
D. It increases the power level of the signal
25. Fsk is NOT affected by noise interference for which of the
following reasons?
A. Noise is outside the bandwidth of an fsk signal
B. Fsk does not rely on the amplitude of the transmitted
signal to carry intelligence
C. The wide bandwidth of an fsk signal prevents noise
interference
D. Each of the above