Practice ,.

est 2

Australian Council for Educational Research

Copyright © 2009 Australian Council for Educational Research
INTRODUCTION

lJMAT is a test of general reasoning ability and is designed to provide a measure of your aptitude for the study of
medicine and the health professions.

The purpose of "L'MAT is to assess the general skills and abilities developed over the course of your education
and life experience that are considered by the universities to be important to the study and practice of medicine
and the health sciences. To operate most effectively in these career areas graduates will need to be flexible; to
have good thinking skills (critical and analytical); to be able to respond quickly to new situations and problems;
and to have a well developed ability to understand and respond to patients' needs and individual situations. For
these reasons OMAT has been developed as a test that is not based on learned academic curriculum or study of
particular subjects, but as a test of your response to stimuli that will not necessarily be familiar. UM-\T is designed
to complement academic achievement and to give universities a more rounded picture of applicants to assist them
in selection decisions. Most UMAT user universities also require shortlisted applicants to attend an interview.

UMAT is not based on any cuniculurn or subject areas; therefore you do not need any special knowledge. Intensive
preparation is not advisable or necessary, although wide and critical reading may provide helpful preparation for
Sections 1 and 2. However, as with any test, some practice in answering questions of a similar type, and under
similar time constraints as those fom1d in the real test, is helpful and reassuring to most candidates. It is also helpful
to practise using a machine-readable answer sheet similar to the one in the actual test.
STRUCTURE AND CONTENT OF UMAT
lJl\.fAT is divided into tbree separately timed Sections designed to measure ability in the following areas:

Section 1 Logical Reasoning and Problem Solving

Questions in this Section are based on a brieftext or piece of information presented graphically. Iii the test there
are 44 questions to be answered in 65 minutes. For each question you are to decide \\hich of the four options given
is the correct answer, based only on the information given. The questions assess your ability to comprehend,
draw logical conclusions, reach solutions by identifying relevant facts, evaluate information, pinpoint additional or
missing information, and generate and test plausible hypotheses.

Section 2 Understanding People

Section 2 assesses the ability to understand and reason about people. Questions are based on a scenario, dialogue
or other text representing specific interpersonal situations. The questions will assess your ability to identify,
understand, and, where necessary, infer the thoughts, feelings, behaviour and/or intentions ofthe people represented
in the situations. In the test there are 40 questions to be answered in 50 minutes.

Sectjon 3 Non-verballleasoning

Questions in this Section may be of several kinds. All are based on patten1S or sequences of shapes and are
designed to assess your ability to reason in the abstract and solve problems in non-verbal contexts. In the test there
are 38 questions to be answered in 50 minutes.

All UMAT questions are in multiple choice format. This means that each question has four or five possible
responses, from which you are to select the one aJ.1Swer you think is correct or best. There is only one correct
response.
GENERAL ADVICE ON TAKING UMAT
In addition to gaining familiarity with actual D"MAT questions, working through the UMAT Practice Test will
help you in building your general test-taking skills. It will help you to:
• build a positive attitude
• be prepared and confident
• use your time wisely
• develop your test-taking strategies
• apply strategies for an.c;;wering multiple-choice questior1c;;
• check your answers

Before the test day

Build a positive att.itude
Part of your preparation for UMAT is to develop a contident attitude. Thic;; will also help you in controlling any
pre-test nerves and give you the best char1ce of doing well.

Focus on positive thoughts about the test, not negative ones. Be aware that although the topic or subject matter
may be new to you, the questions will not depend on any knowledge of the particular subject matter or information
provided in the stimulus material. UMAI questions are designed to assess your ability to respond to new and
m1known situatior1c;; and problems, and to use the skills you have built up over the whole span of your life and
education. Yi.m should keep in mind that questions are not based on any pruticular subject knowledge that you
might bring to the test. Question<; are based solely on the information contained in the stimulus material, and
success depends on your ability to use your skills of reasoning and problem solving to reach a solution. So, even
if the topic of a question is new to you, thic;; should not affect your ability to apply your general skills to fmd the
answer.

Be prepared
There are two key aspects to being prepared:

Find out in advance as much as possible about the test.

Most importantly, you should read the UMAT lnjbrmation Booklet thoroughly as it contains all the essential
information you need to take the test and interpret your result<;. It is also a good idea to consult the UMAT webpage
at http://umat.acer.edu.au trom time to time, for information updates and answers to frequently asked questions.

You should know:

• how long the test takes (how much time allowed for each Section);
• the rules you will be expected to follow during the test; and
• the type and number of questions in each Section.

2 Make sure you know the practical details.

You should know:
• when you will receive your Admission Ticket;
• your test centre address and reporting time allowed (on the Admission Ticket);
• documents you must take with you on the day;
• equipment you will need for the test (pencils and eraser);
• items you are prohibited from taking into the test; and
• how to complete your answer sheet and mark your answers.

All this infom1ation can be found in the UMAT Information Booklet.

iii
On the day ofdte test

Allow yourself plenty of time to get to the test centre. This is particularly important if you are taking the test in
one of the major capital cities (especially Melbomne and Sydney) which attract very large nmnbers of candidates.
Traffic congestion is likely around the entrance to the test centre. Avoid arriving at the test centre feeling flustered
or anxious.

Do not forget to eat breakfast and, depending on the reporting time at your designated centre, you may wish to eat
a small snack before you go into the test room. You will not be allowed to take any food or drink, other than bottled
water, into the test room.

Remember that the test will take 23/4 hours, plus time for all candidates to be seated and instructions to be read. You
should expect to be at the test centre for 4 to 4% hours in total.

Once you are seated in the test room:

Use your time wisely

• Take a moment to settle in and focus on the task ahead; use the waiting time to consciously rela.x.
• Listen carefully to instructions given by the test supervisor.
• Read the written instructions on the front cover of your test book.
• Take note of the finishing time of each test Section as it is announced. Finishing times will be written up on the
white board at the front ofthe room (Remember that each Section is separately timed and you are not allowed to
move to another Section until instructed to do so.)

Apply your test-taking strategies

• Once you have been told to begin work on a Section, scan through the \\hole Section first to familiarise yourself
with the kinds and number of questions.
• Note where on the answer sheet you must record your answers to the questions in this Section.
• When you are ready to begin, read each piece of stimulus material and its related question!s carefhlly before
selecting your preferred answer. Be aware that there is only one correct response to each question.
• You may find it helpful to underline key information on the test book.
• Start from the beginning, but do not spend too much time on any question you are finding difficult. You may
choose to skip such questions and come back to them later to reconsider. If you decide to skip a question, it
would be a good idea to mark it in the test book so you can check it later. (Do not put any stray marks on your
machine-readable answer sheet.) If you skip a question you should also make sure all subsequent answers are
placed against the correct question number on the answer sheet.
• Remember that if you mark two responses to any question it will be considered wrong. If you decide to change
an answer, make sure to erase it completely before filling in your new choice on the answer sheet.
• Keep track of the time and try to pace yourself evenly through the Section.
• If possible allow a few minutes at the end of the Section to review and check over your answers.
(The supervisor will armounce when there are 10 minutes remaining.)
• Answer as many questions as possible. (Remember that marks are not deducted tor wrong answers.)
• N~Y.~r-mark your arJSwers in the test book with the intention of trarJSferring them to the answer sheet later.
Answers should be recorded directly onto the answer sheet. Transferring answers from the test book to the
arJSwer sheet wastes time, and there is the chance of not leaving sufficient time at the end of the Section to
complete the transfer.
UMAT PRACTICE TEST
UMAT Practice Test is made up of previously used "G'MAT questions selected to provide examples ofthe kinds and
style of questions you will find in the test. The UMAT Practice Test is equivalent to a full test and you are advised
to allow yourself the following times to complete each Section:

Practice Test time: 165 minutes

The Practice Test consists of three sections

Section 1 44 questions 65 minutes

Section2 40 questions 50 minutes
Section 3 38 questions 50 minutes

Tear out the answer sheet at the end of this book and mark your answers on this as you would in the real test. Do
not look at the correct answers given on the final page m1til you have completed all three Sections.

When answering a question,

• read all response options carefully, even if you think you know the answer.
• eliminate responses you know are wrong.
• if none of the alternatives given seems to be correct, re-read the question and try to work out what you have
missed. There is always one correct choice.
 UMAT
UNDERGRADUATE MEDICINE AND HEALTH SCIENCES
ADMISSION TEST

Practice Test 2

Test time: 165 minutes

Total number of questions: 122

The test consists of three sections.

Section 1 44 questions 65 minutes

Section 2 40 questions 50 minutes

Section 3 38 questions 50 minutes

Attempt all questions.

Do not spend too much time on any one question.

Mark the one answer you think is best for each question.

Incorrect answers, unanswered questions and questions for which more than one answer has been marked
are given a score of zero.

If you dedde to change an answer, erase it completely and mark your new answer clearly.
• SECTION 1
Section 1
Logical Reasoning and Problem Solving
For each question, decide which answer is correct based only on the information given.
Questions 1 - 44

Question 1
10 DIAMOND
In the Mohs scale for the hardness of minerals, a mineral will scratch only 9 CORUNDUM
those below it on the scale (i.e. those with a higher number will scratch any
with a lower number).
8 TOPAZ
7 QUARTZ
Human fingernail ha.c;; a hardness of about 2.5.
6 ORTHOCLASE
The mineral acerite scratches llngernail, but does not scratch orthoclase.
5 APATITE
The mineral georgi.te is scratched by acerite, but not by llngernail. 4 FLUORITE
1 This means that
3 CALCITE
2 GYPSUM
A georgi.te will scratch calcite but will not scratch apatite.
B apatite may be harder than georgi.te but softer than acerite. 1 TALC
C calcite may be harder than acerite but softer thangeor;gite.
D if georgi.te scratches fluorite it will scratch apatite.

Question 2

Early in 1998, fires destroyed 30 000 square kilometres of forest an area the size of Belgium in Borneo. This
is ahnost six times the extent of previous otllcial estimates, and is bigger than the area burnt on the island during
the previous year's more heavily publicised fires.
The 1998 flres appear to have spread trorn pahn-oil plantations and raged despite a large frre-flghting effort by
the authorities. They lasted fi:om late January to May, when heavy rains extinguished most of them. Some coal
seams and peat bogs are still burning underground.

2 :From this information it follows that

A estimates ofthe size of the 1997 tires originally put them at almost six times the size of Belgium.
8 at the beginning of 1998 fires started the previous year were still burning tmderground.
C the fires in 1997 appear to have started from burning operations in pahn-oil plantations.
D an early estimate of the area damaged by fire in Borneo in 1998 was about one-sixth the area
of Belgium.
Question 3
Section 1
•
Inhabitants ofNuristan speak a variety oflanguages and dialects. The Siah Posh, or Black-robed Kafirs, inhabit
the nmth and east. They speak different dialects ofBashgul~ and all apparently understand one another. ill
the centre and the south live the Safed Posh, or \Vhite-robed Kafirs. Two of their three tribes, the Wai and the
Parun, speak different languages that are mutually tmintelligible, and unintelligible to all of the Siah Posh. The
exception to this is one small group of the Wai, who speak a dialect containing element<; ofBashguli and Parun.
It is not clear whether the third tribe of the Sated Posh the Ashkun can understand, or be understood by,
speakers of any of the oth.er languages.

3 From this information, which of the following is best supported'?

A A northern Nuristani is likely to be able to understand a Panm.
B There are Black-robed Katlrs who can understand and be understood by the Parun.
C Some Wai are able to understand and be tmderstood by most of the Black-robed Kafirs.
D All White-robed Katlrs can converse with any Bashguli-speaker who can also converse with a Wai.

Question 4

Plants are not defenceless again.c;;t attack. Ha.rmfill mkro-organism intruders can set otl' responses in a plant that
will protect it agaim;t further damage. How do plants recognise and deal with harmful intruders? Scientists have
disc(wered in cotton hundreds of proteins (known as resiYtance proteins) involved in this defence. One part of a
molecule of such a protein recognises particular intruders as being ha.rmfhl. The other part sends a message to
cell nuclei, which then trigger a variety of responses.
One response, known as the hypersensitive response, is the self-destruction of cells, "vhich often prevents the
firrther spread of an intruder. Another, more subtle, response is the production of antimicrobial compounds called
phytoalexins, which are toxic to the intruder concerned A third response is the production of proteins, such as
chitinase and glucanase, that attack the cell walls of intruders, such as fungi. (The cell walls of ftmgi contain
chitin and glucan.) Finally, plant cells may strengthen their own walls, impeding further entry of the harmful
intruder, and trapping those intruders already present in the cells. These cells will then self-destruct.

4 According to this information, which of the following is the best conclusion?

A The hypersensitive response involves the production and release of substances toxic to intruding
micro-organisms.
B Ph)'toalexins are manufactured to attack harmfitl micro-organisms that have previously been
recognised by a resistance protein.
C h1 one response to intruding micro-organisms, plants use chitin and glucan to strengthen their cell
walls against further invasion, or to prevent the escape of micro-organisms already present.
D All of the possible responses by plants to intrusion by harmful micro-organisms hwolve
the self-destruction of plant cells in their immediate vicinity.

COl"~tiTI!'.'lJE STRAIGHT ON ~
• Section 1
Question 5

Animals repeatedly subjected to harmless stimuli often learn to stop responding to them- a process known as
habituation. Two groups of rats put through ten trials initially responded vigorously to loud noises made in their
vicinity. The rats in one of the groups had been injected with hydrocortisone, which is known to prevent the
secretion of adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH). Average responses of the groups are shown in the graph.

i O not injected with

hydrocortisone
response
(arbitrary
e injected with
hydrocortisone
units)

2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Trial number

5 Which of the following is most strongly supported by the results of the experiment?
A It is likely that either ACTH increases the level of arousal in response to stimuli or hydrocortisone
decreases it.
B It is likely that hydrocortisone increases the level of arousal in response to stimuli, regardless of any
effect it may have onACTH.
C The longer rats are exposed to harmless noise, the less they respond.
D It is likely that ACTH decreases the level of arousal in response to stimuli.

Question 6

In a study carried out in London, saliva samples were taken from volunteers every hour throughout the day from
the time they awoke. It was found that the amount of cortisol, a hormone associated with high stress levels,
was significantly higher in each sample taken from the volunteers who woke early (before 7:30 am) than in the
samples of those who woke late (after this time). The vohmteers had been free to wake at a time that they liked
and all had slept for similar mnnbers of hours.

6 Of the following, these findings would least support the conclusion that
A a high level of cortisol causes people to wake early.
B the fear of waking late raises cortisol levels.
C waking early causes high cortisol levels.
D waking late increases cortisol levels.
Question 7
Section 1
•
On the island ofBlamania, two-thirds of the males are married to three-quarters of the females.
Each marriage is between two people only, one male with one female.

7 It can be said with certainty that

A just two of Blamania's females are not married.
B fewer Blamanian males than females are unmarried.
C less than one-third of the Blamanian population is unmarried.
D the total population ofBlarnania is more than twice the number of married Blamanians.

Question 8

Infants with sleep disorders are often treated with behavioural therapies. However, some sleep disorders result
from chemical imbalances affecting the brain that can only be treated with medication that will reduce or correct
the imbalance.

8 It follows that
A most sleep disorders are not the result of chemical imbalances in an infant's brain.
B behavioural therapy reduces the symptoms, but not the causes, of sleep disorders in infants.
C medication is always more effective than behavioural therapy in treating infants' sleep disorders.
D behavioural therapy does not alter chemical imbalances in the brains of infants with some sleep
disorders.

Question 9

Consider the following diagram concerning the languages spoken by the world's population.

20 most spoken
languages
total 6060 languages
+

---
--- ---
--- --- ---
--- ---- --- --- ---

total6.2 billion people

fewer than 0.3% speak one of
the 3340 least spoken languages

9 From the information provided it can be concluded that

A approximately 45% of the world's languages have more than 10 000 speakers.
B approximately 45% of the world's languages have fewer than 10 000 speakers.
C the 20 most spoken languages are spoken by more than 99.7% of the world's population.
D the percentage of all languages with more than 10 000 speakers is approximately the same as
the percentage of all people who speak those languages.
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON-+
5
• Section 1
Question 10

This graph shows the age differences for all couples who married during 1997.

12~~--------------------------------------------,

j 10 & same age

-···•···· bridegroom older
~ 8~--------~------------------~ -........ bride older
8
~ 6~--~----~~--------------------------------------~
4r---~~------~r-------------------------------~

2~--------~~------~~~--------------------------~

oL-~~~~~~~~~~~~~-.~~~h4H
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Age difference (years)

10 Which one of the following statements applies to the ages of the couples who married in 1997?
A More than 80% of the bridegrooms were older than their brides.
B For about 78% of all couples, the partners were not of the same age.
C There was an age difference of three years for about 11% of all couples.
D For the majority of couples, there was an age difference of more than four years.

Question 11

Drinking wine appears to decrease the risk of coronary heart disease. The antioxidant hypothesis suggests that
this is due to certain substances that are found in wine, especially in red wine.
Consider the following two possibilities:
I Wine drinking is associated with a generally healthy lifestyle.
II Red- and white-wine drinking are each associated with a similar decrease in the risk of coronary heart
disease.

11 If true, which ofl and II would support the antioxidant hypothesis?

A I only
B II only
C both I and II
D neither I nor II

6
Question 12
Section 1
•
The diagrams below show who runs small businesses by gender and age.

-
by gender by age
-

67% 59%

133%1 l1o%l 131%1

- -
females males younger 30to 50 older
than 30 than 50

12 Together, these two diagrams indicate that

A about 100/o of business managers older than 50 are female.
B the typical small-business manager is likely to be a male aged over 50.
C at most, about 20% of business managers aged between 30 and 50 are female.
D it is possible that none of the female business managers are aged between 30 and 50.

Question 13

Bon-bons are party packages that come in boxes of twelve. In each box, half of the bon-bons are green and half
are red. In each box equal numbers of bon-bons contain either a plastic whistle, a clicker or a blow-out. Equal
numbers also contain a copy of one of four jokes.

13 In a box of bon-bons, there

A must be one or more green bon-bons containing a blow-out.
B can be no more than four bon-bons containing a whistle and either joke 1 or joke 4.
C can be as many as six red bon-bons containing a clicker and either joke 2 or joke 3.
D will be more red bon-bons containing joke 1 or 2 than green bon-bons containing a whistle.

Question 14

In the following figure, the number of smileys (@) adjacent to a numbered square (including diagonally adjacent)
is indicated by the number in that square. The pattern either side of the central 3 x 5 rectangle is repeated
indefinitely.
x andy can be either smileys or numbers.

1 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 2 @ 2 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 X y 1 X y 3 ? 3 y X 1 y X 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 2 @ 2 1 1 1 1 1 1
1 1 1

14 In this figure, the ? in the central square

A must be a2.
B must be an x if each y is a 1.
C must be a y if each x is a smiley.
D cannot be a smiley.
CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON~
7
• Section 1
Question 15

Consider these three propositions:

I Ofthe ten most poisonous spiders in the world, Australia has nine of them.
II Australia has the world's nine most poisonous spiders.
III Ofthe ten most poisonous spiders in Australia, nine are the world's most poisonous.

15 From this information it follows that even if

A proposition I is true, proposition II need not be true.
B proposition II is true, proposition I need not be true.
C proposition II is true, proposition III need not be true.
D proposition III is true, proposition II need not be true.

Question 16

According to the World Conservation Union's recently published 'Red List', more than 11 000 species
of plants and animals face extinction in the near future, in most cases as a result ofloss of habitat.
This includes about 24% of mammal species and 12% of bird species living at present.
The list identifies 180 mammal species in the highest risk category- 'critically endangered'- and 340 in the
next risk category - 'endangered'. This compares with 169 and 315 in those categories just four years ear tier.
For birds, the situation is 182 species critically endangered and 321 endangered, compared with an earlier 168
and235.

16 According to this information, which of the following is the best conclusion?

A A greater number of mammal species are critically endangered than are bird species.
B In the year of the report's publication, there were just over 2600 mammal species still living.
C If it were true that in the four years leading to the publication of the report no bird species had
become extinct, the percentage of endangered and critically endangered bird species would have
increased by about 2 %%.
D In the four years leading to the publication of the report, the ratio of critically endangered
to endangered species has decreased for birds but remained almost the same for mammals.

Question 17

Consider these two scales, which are balanced:

17 Which one of the following will balance the scales

shown on the right?

Ill Ill Ill

A B c D

8
Question 18
Section 1
•
In a recent study, predictions that middle-class educated women would be more likely than working-class women
to complete successful negotiations for a change in the distribution of housework were not validated However,
the study did support the hypothesis that tertiary-educated men would respond more positively than other men to
any overtures their wives made for assistance.
The study also provided support for the view that increasing women's earning power significantly increases
their negotiating power. In particular, women whose earnings were substantial were somewhat more likely to
be married to men who took some responsibility for housework than were women whose earnings were much
less than those of their husbands. Nevertheless, a majority of the husbands (62%) whose wives were providing
between one-third and two-thirds of the household income failed to provide the level of participation in
housework their wives were seeking.

18 From this information it follows that

A when a wife's income increases, there is a high chance that she will be successful in persuading her
husband to do a larger share of the housework.
B a man's income production is more important than his level of education in determining whether his
wife will be successful in encouraging him to increase his share of household duties.
C working-class wives proved to be less successful than anticipated in encouraging their husbands to do
more of the housework.
D a woman's income production is more important than her level of education in determining whether
she will be successful in encouraging her husband to increase his share of household duties.

Question 19

In each of three boxes, Eve puts two hats: two black hats in the first box, two white hats in the second,
and a black hat and a white hat in the third. She labels the boxes as shown.

Carol then changes all the labels around so that no box is labelled correctly.

19 Can Eve determine the contents of all three boxes by looking into just one box?
A Yes, by looking in either BB or WW, but not by looking in BW.
B Yes, by looking in HW, but not by looking in BB or WW.
C Yes, and it does not matter which box she looks in.
D No, she must look in at least two of the boxes.

CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON-?

9
• Questions 20
Section 1
22

A game is played with two four-sided dice. Each side of each die is
marked by one of each of these four symbols: AD, 0 or*·

Each symbol represents a different number, either I, 2, 3 or 4.

The nmnbers are randomly allo,,ated to a symbol at the start of ead1
game.

The players take turns to throw the dke and move their ''our1ter along the playing board shown, according to the
total value oftheir throw.

(A*) represents a~ on die 1 ar1d a* on die 2; (0, 0) represents a 0 on both dice, etc.

t!
s
1:'-J
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

20 On their first turns, Felicia throws(*,~) ar1d Mal throws (0, D).
On their second turns, Felicia throws <*• Ql and Mal throws(~, 0). Felicia is now on position 11.
Who is closest to position 20 after their second turn?
A Felicia
B Mal
C Felicia ar1d Mal equally
D It is not possible to determine who is closest to position 20.

21 On their first tlllns, Bill moves to position 3 after throwing (A*) and Freya moves to position 5 after
throwing <*· D).
On their second turns, Bill throws (0, [])and Freya throws(~, 0).
'Who is closest to position 20 after their second turn?
A Bill
B Freya
C Bill ar1d Freya equally
I) It is not possible to determine who is closer to position 20.

22 Joshua throws (0, 0), (D, ~), <*• *), (0, []) and (0, *) and moves to position 20.
If D = 1, then which one of the following is true of*?
A It is greater thar1 both ~ and 0.
B It is less than both b. and 0.
C It could be greater thar1 b. and less than 0.
D It could be greater than A 0, and 0

10
Question 23
Section 1
•
Events are better remembered ifthey trigger some level of emotional arousal. In a study investigating this tendency
in relation to the ADRA2B gene, two groups of people (one with the standard gene and one with a variant of it)
were shown three types of photographic images: those that typically elicit either a positive emotion (e.g. children
playing), a negative emotion (e.g. a polluted river), or no pmticulm· emotion (e.g. a chair).

The level of arousal the images elicited in the participants during viewing was measured. After some time, the
people's memory of the images was tested.

The graphs below present the participants' recall of the emotion-arousing images relative to their recall of the
neutral images.

,...._ 350
'-"'
O'
.2 '-' 180 300
~
~
"'
1160 250 D ADRA2B

] :::: 140 200 II ADRA2B variant

~ .~ 120 150
g
~
~
!=: 100 ..................._ 100 ..~.-..__.....
Positive Negative Positive Negative
images images images images

23 \Vhich of the following is most strongly suggested by the data?

A Any effect of the ADRA2B variant on memory is not caused by int'reasing arousal.
B Emotionally arousing images are better remembered than neutral ones, but only for people with the
ADRA2B variant.
C Arousal is greater in people with the ADRA2B variant, "Which enables negative images to be
remembered better thart positive images.
I) The increased arousal elicited by negative images, compared to positive images, is enhanced in
people with the ADRA2B variant, but this does not affect recall of the ilnages.

Question 24

Of the 24 dogs attending puppy school

six are small;
twelve are brown;
fifteen have long hair;
one is small and brown and has long hair;
two are small and brown but their hair is not long;
two a:re small and have long hair but they are not bro\Vn.

24 How many dogs attending puppy school are brown and have long hair, but are not small?
A. two
B three
C four
D It is not possible to determine this from the information given.

COl\jiJNUE STRAIGHT ON ~
11
• Section 1
Questions 25 - 28

Consider the following rules that could be used in order to select one shape from pairs of shapes:
Rule I Select the left shape.
Rule II If one of the shapes is grey, select that shape.
Rule III If both shapes are grey, select the left shape; otherwise select the right shape.
Rule IV If one or both shapes are grey, select the left shape; otherwise select the right shape.
RuleY If the left shape is grey, select the left shape; otherwise select the right shape.

The shape that has been selected is indicated by a black arrow under the shape.

25 Which of the rules could be used to make this selection?

t
A either Rule I or Rule IV
B either Rule II or Rule III
C either Rule II or Rule IV
D either Rule IV or Rule V

26 Suppose that a selection has been made using either just Rule IV or just Rule V.
For which one of the following pairs of shapes would it be possible to determine which one of these two
rules had been used in making this selection?

A a white triangle and a white square

DO
B a white triangle and a grey square
D
c a grey triangle and a white square
.AD
D a grey triangle and a grey square
.A
27 Suppose that a new rule is used to make the four selections shown below.
Section 1
•
selection 1 selection 3

60 6
t t
selection 2 selection 4

•o
t •
Which one of the following new rules would produce these four selections?
t
A Select the left shape if either or both of the shapes are grey, otherwise select the right shape.
B Select the left shape unless just one of the shapes is grey, in which case select the right shape.
C Select the right shape if the triangle is white or the square is grey or both, otherwise select
the left shape.
D Select the right shape if the triangle is white or the square is grey but not both, otherwise select
the left shape.

28 Other rules may need to be considered if two selections are made one after the other.
Rule VI Select the shape on the opposite side to the first selection.
Rule VII If the first shape selected is grey, select the shape on the same side as the first
selection, otherwise select the shape on the opposite side.

After selection 1 has been made, which of Rules VI and VII could be used to make selection 2?

selection 1 selection2

6 6
t t
A Rule VI but not Rule VII
B either Rule VI or Rule VII
c neither Rule VI nor Rule VII
D Rule VII but not Rule VI

CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON--?

• Section 1
Questions 29-31

While some forms of cholesterol are not harmfbl to humans, an excess ofthe form known as LDL is believed
to increase the likelihood of heart disease, obesity and diabetes. A link between a high-fat diet and raised
cholesterol levels has long been noted. However, in the natives of Greenland a high-fat diet (seal, whale and fish)
is not assodated with these conditions. These people have lower LDL levels than comparable groups of Danish
people eating a typical Western diet based on dairy foods and meat.
Nutritioni!>ts believe that there are substances, known as omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids, found in the food of
the Greenland natives that explain the ditlerence. These tatty acids are also found in plant sterols. Two recent
studies have investigated the effect of plant sterols on LDL.

Study I One hundred men and women with normal cholesterol levels or mild hypercholesterolaemia were
given varying amounts of sterols, in food !>'Preads, for 24 days: 0.0 g/day (as a placebo), 0.83 g/day,
1.61 g/day or 3.24 giday.
In the groups that took sterols, there was a redu,,tion ranging from 6.6 to 9.9% in the level ofLDL.
There was no significant difference in the average reduction between those who took the three
different levels of sterols. There was no significant reduction in LDL in the control group.
Study II Iwenty-two hypercholesterolaemic men and women were given, tm 28 days, either a placebo or 2.4 g/day
of sterols. The sterols were taken as a combination of food spread (0.8 g/day), bread (0.8 g/day) and
cereal (0.8 g/day).
There was an average 10.4% reduction in LDL for those that took sterols, but no signifkant reduction
for the others.
Note:
A placebo is a 'pretend' treatment, with no known effect on a particular disorder.
The prefix 'hyper-' mear1s 'in an elevated or excessive amount'.
The suflix '-aemia' refers to the blood.
A control group is used for comparison with groups who have some form of treatment.

29 A hypercholesterolaemic person has

A too mud1 cholesterol in their diet.
B elevated blood pressure due to excessive cholesterol.
C too mud1 cholesterol in their blood.
)) lowered sterol levels due to excessive cholesterol.

30 In Study I, the control group

A was given the placebo.
B was given nothing at all.
C had normal cholesterol levels.
D had the same reduction in LDL as those who took sterols.

31 Considering the results of Study I and Study II, of the following, the best conclusion is that
A sterols are ineffective at lowering normal levels ofLDL.
B the longer sterols are taken, the greater their effect on LDL levels.
C the minimum dose of sterols can have maximum impact on LDL levels.
D adding steroL~ to foods other than spreads greatly increases their effectiveness at
lowering LDL.

14
Questions 32 - 34
Section 1
•
In the 2 x 2 grid shown at right, each square is coloured
differently from each adjacent square. (Squares diagonally
opposite each other are also considered to be adjacent.) Four
different colours are needed. . ....
.......... .....
....... ...
....... ...
....... ...

32 Suppose that on this map ofmainlandAustralia,

Vic. is coloured green.
The map designer colours each adjacent state a
different colour, but keeps the number of colours
used to a minimum.
Which other state(s) are also coloured green?
A NT
B WAandQld
C any one ofNT, WA or Qld
D any two of NT, WA or Qld

33 Suppose that black, red, green and white are used to colour each square of a 3 x 3 grid a different colour
to every adjacent square.
When the top left square is black and the top right square is red, the colour of the bottom left square
A must be red.
B must be black.
C can be either red or black.
D can be any of red, black, green or white.

34 Suppose that four colours are used to colour each square of a 4 x 4 grid a different colour to every
adjacent square.
The fewest squares possible of any of the four colours is
A one.
B two.
C three.
D four.

CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON-+

15
• Section 1
Questions 35- 37

When grains oftwo different sizes (e.g. two different sands) are mixed together and then poured down a vertical
wall, a slope forms down which further added grains tumble. A model of this phenomenon has been developed
that uses grains oftwo different shapes- square (1 x 1 unit in size) and rectangular (1 x 2 units). The model's
rules governing the tumbling of the grains are as follows:
As they are poured one at a time, the grains stack onto the first column next to the wall (with rectangular
grains upright).
If a grain is added to the first column such that the step down to the next column is more than three
units high, the grain tumbles down the slope from column to column until it reaches a stable position,
i.e. where the height difference to the next column does not exceed three units.
If a grain does not reach a stable position on the slope and tumbles all the way to the bottom,
an avalanche occurs.
In an avalanche, any grain on the top of any column tumbles if the step to the next column is more than
two units high. It continues to tumble until it reaches a position where the step is no more than two units
high. All such grains tumble simultaneously.
Once all grains that could initially tumble in an avalanche have completed their tumbling, any further
grains that are now able to tumble will do so. This process continues until all steps are two or less units
high.

In the example shown in Figure 1, the rectangular grain x added to the first column will tumble to the bottom
of the slope. This triggers an avalanche, after which the grains y and z are in the positions shown in Figure 2.

-
-
-
z
- -
y
- -
xl
Figure 1 Figure 2

35 For the situation shown in Figure 1, if a square grain were added instead of a rectangular grain, the grain
would come to rest
A on the first column.
B on the second column.
C on the third column.
D at the bottom of the slope.

16
36 Which one of the following is not a possible configuration of grains?
Section 1
•
A B c D

37 In the situation shown below, a rectangular grain, w, has just been added and has tumbled to the bottom.

-
- r-
- r-
-

- r-

-
Hwl
Which one of the following shows the situation after the ensuing avalanche?

r- -
- r- -
- r- r- - - r-
- f- - f- -

- r- -- - r- -

- -
h - r-
I - -
II
A B c D

CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON~

• Section 1
Questions 38 - 40

Many structures are made from a grid of squares. In order to be structurally sound, the grid must be rigid. This can
be achieved by adding a diagonal brace to some of the squares. To determine the minimum number of braces needed,
a dot diagram can be used.
A dot diagram uses dots to represent the row and column coordinates of each square in the grid:

The left-hand dots represent the grid's rows and the right-hand dots represent the grid's columns.

Lines in the dot diagram represent those squares that contain a brace. Each line connects the dots that
represent the coordinates of a single braced square.

For example, Figure 1 shows a 2 x 3 grid of six squares, four of which ([1,1], [1,2], [2,2] and [2,3]) contain
diagonal braces. Figure 2 is the corresponding dot diagram. The square at Row 1, Column 1 is braced, and thus
represented in the dot diagram by the line connecting the Row 1 and Column 1 dots. The other braced squares
are similarly represented.

Row 1 Column 1
Row 1
Row2 Column 2
Row2
Column 3

Figure 1 Figure 2

A grid will be rigid if all the dots of its dot diagram are connected by a single complex of lines. The 3 x 3 grid
represented in Figure 3 has a single complex; that represented in Figure 4 has two separate complexes.

Figure 3 Figure 4

18
38 What is the minimum number of braced squares required to make rigid a 4 x 4 grid?
A seven
Section 1
•
B eight
C nine
D ten

39 Consider the grid shown below.

This grid's rigidity

A requires all the braces shown.
B will not be affected if any one of the six braces is removed.
C will not be affected if the brace in square [2, 1] or square [2,3] is removed.
D will not be affected ifthe brace in any one of squares [1,3], [1,4], [2,3] or [2,4] is removed.

40 Consider the two grids I and II shown below.

I II

Which one of the following is true of these two grids?

A I is rigid, II is not rigid.
B II is rigid, I is not rigid.
C Both I and II are rigid.
D Neither I nor II is rigid.

CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON~

19
• Section 1
Questions 41 and 42

Mouse cytomegalovims (MCM:V) is a virus that spreads among European species of mice through animal-to-
animal contact. It cannot live outside live mice, and does not infect Australia's native mouse species. It is not
tatal to the mice it infects, and occurs in some 80% of the European mice in Australia.

In an effort to ''ontrol severe European mouse plagues in this country, scientists have modified MCMV to include
a protein, ZP3, that is found on the surface of European mouse eggs. After a temale mouse has been infected
with the modified virus, her immune system, naturally primed to atta,,k foreign substan,,es, including normal
MCMV, will attack the ZP3 on the surface of her o\\n eggs, rendering her infertile.

41 This mouse control method works because

A female mouse eggs are attacked by MCMV.
B ZP3 is treated by the female mouse as a foreign substance.
C the yom1g of infected mice are irrnnm1e to ZP3, but any offspring they have will be sterile.
D the female mouse's irrnnm1e system is sensitised to treat some of her own MCMV as foreign.

42 Suppose that the following were found:

I Modified MCMV is much less contagious than llill1lodified MCMV.
II ZP3 does not occur on the surface of Australian native mouse eggs.
Some people have concerns that releasing the modified MCMV virus into the \\ild poses a potential
health risk to Australian native mice.
'Which ofl and II could be used to support these concerns?
A I only
B II only
C both I and II
D neither I nor II

20
Questions 43 and 44
Section 1
•
A study was carried out of300 booking clerks at a large US airline. Of these clerks, 100 were smokers,
100 used to smoke but no longer did, and 100 had never smoked. The groups were called 'smokers',
'ex-..~mokers' and '!lever smoked', respectively. It was fmmd that 'smokers' were absent because of illness
for an average of 6.16 days a year, while 'ex-smokers' lost 4.53 days, and 'never smoked' lost 3.86 days.

The work output (sales income, rate of answering calls, and so on) of the three groups showed that
the productivity ofthe 'smokers' was 4.0% below 'never smoked' and 8.3% below 'ex-smokers'

43 When measuring performance in tenns of absences due to illness and of output while at work, the data
show that
A both measures were best for 'never smoked' individuals.
B 'ex-smokers' performed best on both measures.
C 'ex-smokers' had more absences due to ilh1ess, but higher productivity while at work than
'never smoked'.
D 'ex-smokers' had fewer absences due to illness, but lower productivity while at work than
'never smoked'.

44 Suppose that the work output of an 'ex-smoker' while at work was given a value of 100 tmits.
V.bich of the following values would then be most consistent with the other data?
A 104 units for 'never smoked'
B 96 units for 'never smoked'
C 96tmits for 'smokers'
D 87 units for 'smokers'

END OF SECTION 1

STOP
DO NOT CONTINUE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

21
0 Section 2
SECTION 2 Understanding People Questions 45 - 84

Questions 45-47

In this excerpt from a novel, Lannie is reminiscing about the time Fred brought their sons to visit the
clinic where she was being treated for her depression.

They had been bored. They had asked her to come back. She had said, 'I will if you'll help me.' And
Fred had said, 'Now, now, Lannie, you know I won't have the boys turned into housewives.' The
youngest, who was nearly twelve and already taller than his mother, had begged his father to let them
go look rotmd the town and find a hamburger and a video arcade. When they had gone Fred said,
'You can see how they miss you.'
'Not really,' she replied, watching her husband's eyes shift.
'Don't you love them?'
'Of course I love them.'
'Then why don't you come home?'
'I don't think they love me. They just miss what I do for them. I want a life. Just a bit of a life
outside the kitchen and the wash-house.'
'Not much wash-house.' It was a grim piece of jocularity. 'The tanks are just about empty.'
Peeved, Lannie lost it. She began to yell.
'Then you'd want me to go down to the creek hole and beat the bloody clothes on rocks while
I utter little orgiastic cries of pleasure and the other wives look on and say, "I want to do what she's
doing"?'
'Jesus, you're disgusting!' Fred said. 'Bloody disgusting. You're not being like the other wives
now. They don't make unreasonable demands.'

45 Lannie's attitude to her sons is best described as

A guilty sorrow.
B hopeless despair.
C S)'mpathetic concern.
D disdainful resignation.

46 Lannie's behaviour towards Fred during the conversation arises mostly from her feelings of
A hatred.
B regret.
c contempt.
D suspicion.

47 During the conversation, Fred's attitude to Lannie changes fi·om

A apathy to appeasement.
B curiosity to astonishment.
C affection to disappointment.
D condescension to indignation.
 Section 2 0

Questions 48 and 49

In the passage below, Lois has just arrived by trainfrom the country. Nancy has met her at the train
station. Both women are in their thirties.

So good of you, Nancy, to undertake to pilot me round. 1

Nancy: [making sure that her coat sways becomingly] What do you think of my coat? 2

Lois: Oh, ... er very nice, very nice indeed. But isn't it rather heavy for such a warm 3
day?

Nancy: Oh dear, no. Fur of this quality is never heavy. 4

[Lois smiles.] 5

Nancy: It was a present from Harry, you see. On my last birthday. He paid a ruinous price 6
for it- he's a regular spendthrift where I'm concerned.

Lois: Really? And so it has been a success your maniage'? 7

[Nancy smiles.] 8

48 From the corwersation, which one of the following is most accurate?

A Lois is jealous of Nancy.
B Lois is indebted to Nancy.
C Nancy is insecme with Lois.
D Nancy empathises with Lois.

49 From the context, it is most likely that N ar1cy's smile (8) is one of
A delight.
B smugness.
c ba.."lhfulness.
D embarrassment.
0 Section 2
Questions 50 52

ln. this passage from a novel, Biddy has barged in.to her mother:Y bedroom to .fin.d her moth.m·
examining her exposed breast in the bedroom mirrm:

'Why can't you knock?' Murn accuses, her face scnmching up like her nipple.
Normally Biddy would retreat, embarrassed and apologizing, humiliated by her mother's
shame. But this time she doesn't. '\Vhat are you doing, Mum?'
Mum is startled by her tone. She has tucked her breast back into her fi:ock. There is something
furtive about the way she does it. And she can't get her mouth around the words she needs, the kind 5
of words she usually has no trouble with when she wants to put Biddy in her place.
Biddy has shut the door and leaves a chair backed against it so no one else can barge in the
way she did. 'What's the matter, Mum?' she insists. She walks towards her. '\\<'hat's wrong with your
breast?'
Mm11 shakes her head in a disturbed kind of way. 'There's nothing tl1e matter with it except for 10
the five children tl1at fed from it.'
Biddy is supposed to cringe. But she is learning she can make Mum cringe too. She stands
close, closer tl1an people usually stand. Then she takes Mmn by tlle shoulders and holds her at arm's
length. She looks into tl1e face of her mother like Mun1 is her daughter. Mun1looks down, like she
really is a daughter again. 15
'It's a lump, isn't it? You've found a lump?'
Mum doesn't nod. She won't nod. But she hasn't shaken her head either. If she did her tears
might leave her eyes too quick.
'When did you discover it? Ju.~t now? Have you been to see a doctor about it? You haven't, have
you?' She brushes the tears off Mum's cheeks with the blade of her hand. 'Well you're going to. I'll 20
take you myself if I have to.'
'It's nothing to worry about,' Mum sniffles. 'It's not what you think it is. I've had one before
and it's gone away.'
'Wl1at!' Biddy is horrified. 'Let me check for myself.' Her fingers move to the buttons on
Mum's frock.
But Mum dusts them away, repulsed. 'You'll do no such thing,' she says. 'What would you
know, a girl of your age? You're no doctor.'

50 When Biddy asks '\\''hat's \\Tong with your breast'?' (lines 8-9), Mum's response suggests that she mainly
feels
A anxious and defiant.
B sullen and depressed.
C shamed and humbled.
D secretive and tongue-tied.

24
 Section 2 0
51 ' ... except for the five children .. .' (lines 10 and 11 ). What appears to be Mum's motive for saying this'?
A She regrets ever having her children.
B She is laying blame on the family for her condition.
C She wants to reassure Biddy that everything will be alright.
D She is trying to re-establish her status in her relationship with Biddy.

52 'Mum ... hasn't shaken her head either.' (line 17)

The reason for Mum's failure to answer the question is most likely to be that she
A thinks it is none of Biddy's business.
B doesn't want to admit to her suspicions.
C doesn't believe there is anything wrong.
D wants Biddy to believe there is nothing \\Tong.

Question 53

A patient (malej is visiting a physiotherapist (female) for back pain.

Patient: I have to say that I'm only coming to see you because the doctor insisted I did. I've
tried all this before and I don't really think it will get rid of my pain.

Therapist: Well, there's no guarantee that it will, but I'll do my best.

Patient: What do you mean, 'there's no guarantee that it will'? If you don't think it will help,
why don't I just leave now?

Therapist: I didn't say that. I actually don't know ifl can help you until I've examined you and
learnt more about your symptoms. And even if we can't get rid of all the pain, at the
very least this should help you tmderstand your condition better and know how to
prevent it getting worse.

Patient: That's what I keep hearing tl·om you medical people. But all I want is for the pain to
go away, forever. I don't want to have to learn to live with it.

53 Which of the following responses by the physiotherapist would best convey to the patient that she
tmderstands his situation?
A 'Well, as I said, I can't really guarantee anything. I can only do my best.'
B 'Unfortunately that's not a realistic expectation, so there's not much point in wishing it.'
C 'I don't think anybody likes to live with pain. It tends to completely dominate your life, doesn't it?'
D 'I know exactly what you mean. I deal with people in pain every day, so I know all about pain and
how it affects people.'

CONTil't'l.i'E STRAIGHT ON ~
25
0 Section 2
Questions 54 57

ln. the .following passage fi'Om a play, Angela is an. architect working .for a large firm, Deborah is the
.firms human resources matulger, and Sam (not present) is Angelas boss.

Angela: Ifi'm here to be fired, please fire me.

Deborah: You've been taking a lot of time offlately, Angela'?

Angela: I've got a kid with severe asthma who \\mries me out of my brain. \\Then he's carted
off to hospital, do you think I'm not going to go and be with him? You got kids?

Deborah: Two. Tell me your story.

Angela: My story? I haven't got a story. My life hasn't even got up to the table of contents.

Deborah: You're divorced.

Angela: Isn't everyone? Look, please, I don't want to discuss my life. Ifl'm here to be fired,
then fire me.

Deborah: Angela, there's no way I'm going to recommend that an architect who won a
University medal is fired tmtil I know why she isn't performing up to expectations.

Angela: Expectations? Whose expectation.<;? Sam's expectations? I give Sam exactly what he
expects. And when the monstrosities don't sell, I cop the blame!

Deborah: You could surely get work somewhere else.

Angela.: What do you think I've been trying to do for the past five years or so? lh1fortunately
the stuff I've been forced to design for Sam is deeply unimpressive.

54 Deborah's main intention dming the corwersation is to

A find out more about Angela's personal problems.
B help Angela balance her home and working lives.
C explore what influences Angela's work performance.
D reassure Angela that she is valued as a member of the firm.
 Section 2 0
55 Angela's main concern is her
A feeling of injustice.
B unrealistic workload.
C need for compassion.
I) inability to focus on her work.

56 Vv'hat does Angela ultimately want most to come out ofthis discussion?
A more fulfilling work
B more understanding of her situation
C more time off to spend with her son
D more explanation of Sam's expectations

57 Overall, Angela's responses are best described as

A arrogant and defiant.
B defensive and dispirited.
C unconcerned and flippant.
D submissive and grovelling.
0 Section 2
Questions 58 62

The .following passage is .from a n.ovel. Nazneen. has recently come to London.from a Bangladeshi
village as part of an arranged marriage with a man twenty years oldm; named Chanu. Here, her
fiiend Razia is visiting Nazneen. at her home, and they have been chatting about some mutual
acquaintances. Razia then asks Nazneen about her husband.

'Any news of the promotion?' asked Razia.

'My husband says they are racist, particularly Mr. Dalloway. He thinks he will get the promotion,
but it will take him longer than any white man. He says that ifhe painted his skin pink and white then
there would be no problem.' Charm had begun, she had noticed, to talk less of promotion and more
of racism. He had warned her about making friends with 'them', as though that were a possibility. 5
All the time they are polite. They smile. They say 'please 'this and 'thank you' that. Make no mistake
about it, they shake your hand with the right, and with the lejl they stab you in the back.
'Well,' said Razia, 'this could be true.'
Nazneen turned the words over. This could be true. She waited for more. Razia was unpicking
a thread from her jmTlper. 10
Nazneen said, 'My husband says it is discrimination.'
'Ask him this, then. Is it better than our own country, or is it worse? If it is worse, then why is
he here? If it is better, why does he complain?'
These were question<; she had neither asked nor thought of asking. She was in this country
because that was \Vt1at had happened to her. Anyone else, therefore, was here for the same reason. 15
'I don't know if he complainc;;,' Na7..neen found herself saying. 'He ju~t likes to talk about
things. He says that racism ic;; built into the "system". I don't know what "system" he mean<; exactly.'
'My son's teacher, she's a good one,' said Ra.zia. 'She helps him a lot, and he likes her. My
husband has a work colleague, he gives us things. Clothes that hie;; children have grown out of. A
machine for drying hair. A. radio and stepladders. All sorts of things. There are good ones, and bad 20
ones. Just like us. And some of them you can be fi:iendly with. Some aren't so friendly. But they leave
us alone, and we leave them alone. That's enough for me.

58 Judging by her response, N azneen regarded Razia 's question (line 1) as

A rude.
B trivial.
c appropriate.
D mtexpected.

28
 Section 2 0
59 Nazneen's comment 'My husband says it is dic;crimination' (line 12) seem-; mainly intended to
A defend her husband.
8 criticise her husband.
C overcome an awkward silence.
D seek Razia's \-iew ofthe matter.

60 \\'hich of the following best describes how Nazneen regards Razia?

A Nazneen is suspicious ofRazia.
8 Nazneen respects Razia's views.
C Nazneen is intimidated by Razia.
I> Nazneen wholeheartedly takes on Razia's views.

61. Nazneen's thoughts at lines 15 to 17 suggest a tendency, on her part, for

A selfislmess and prejudice.
8 passivity and lack of reflection.
C tolerance and open-mindedness.
D understanding of and interest in other people.

62 With respel~t to her husband, Nazneen appears to be

A submissive but reflective.
B protective but critical.
C stubborn and controlling.
I> uncaring and self-interested.
0 Section 2
Questions 63 65

In the following passage, Phillip reflects on his mother~~ battle with a terminal illness.

Mum seemed so well, so physically strong and graceful as she moved towards me, and her skin had
finally lost that bloodless papery texture. It was the first time in months that l had actually begun to
hope. Then the doctor asked me quietly to come outside. He was a serious ymmg man, almost a boy
with a kind, chubby face.
'You know she's not going to make it, don't you'?'
It wasn't a question. He was telling me honestly to lose that hope, get rid of it, or I wouldn't
make it either. Just when I had dared to tlrink that she might ''orne home ar1d be again tl1at strong ar1d
dominant woman.
I nodded.
Perhaps I knew deep do\\n that those few graceful steps that seemed to me like dancing were 10
not a new begimling, just a good night's sleep lightening the dark circles beneath my mother's eyes.
It was all nothing.
My mother's joyful words, 'Darling, watch,' as she had taken those few tentative steps towards
me. 'Phillip, see how well I move,' smiling as though it was all over.
The hardest thing was going back into the room 15

63 How did Phillip feel about tl1e do,,tor's decision to reveal that his mother was 'not going to make it'
(line 5)?
A He was relieved to fmally know tl1e truth and be able to let go of his false hope.
B He felt the doctor had been foolish and insensitive to destroy all his hope.
C He accepted the doctor's judgment and could even m1derstand it.
D He felt betrayed that the doctor had not told llim sooner.

64 Which of the following best explains \Vhy Phillip reflects on his mother's behaviour after the doctor's
revelation?
A He is trying to discover if his mother had been neglected in any way by the hospital staff.
B He is indulging in some fond memories of his mother while he still can.
C He is trying to convince himself that the doctor is mistaken.
D He is confirming to himselfthat the doctor is right.

65 The passage suggests tl1at in going back into the room Phillip would most likely have
A calmly told his mother what the doctor had revealed.
B tried to sound even more positive than before.
C not revealed what tl1e doctor had told him.
D burst into tears upon seeing hi~ mother.

30
 Section 2 0
Questions 66 - 68

The following passage is part of a counselling session. A father is talking to a counsellor about his
daughter's behaviour. She has come home from secondary boarding school after completing her
second term..

She just goes on and on and on about how she teels homesick and misses us. W11at am I supposed
to do? I listen tor a while and then my impatience gets the better of me and I say: 'For goodness
sake, will you just get off this bandwagon. Of course you miss us, that will pass everyone goes
through this. It's no worse than anyone else's situation. You are just trying to get your own way.
You haven't given it a real go.' Julie generally just sobs. She tries to tell me that her homesickness
is getting w:>rse instead of better. I tell her to pull herself together. Then I change the subject
completely. I say: 'Hey, how about that team of ours, how good was our win on the weekend!' It
usually brings her around I'm not sure why.

66 V.'b.y does Julie's father ask the counsellor 'What am I supposed to do?' (lines 1 and2)?
A to elicit advice about how to help Julie
B to de fend his response to Julie's behaviour
C to express his disappointment in the counsellor
D to acknowledge his sense of failure in dealing with Julie

67 The father's comment 'I'm not sure why' (line 8) about the effectiveness of changing the su~ject suggests
that he
A has not given the matter much thought.
B suspects his daughter is hiding her true feelings.
C has doubts about the appropriateness of his strategy.
D is trying to sound modest about his success in managing his daughter.

68 Judging from the father's manner in recounting tltis incident, the most likely reason he has chosen to tell the
counsellor is
A to show the com1Sellor that he can be an effective parent.
B because he is concerned about his daughter's mental health.
C as an example of the kind of difficulties he has to deal with.
n because he feels ashamed about his treatment of hi.<; daughter.

COI.'iiiNUE STRAIGHT ON~

31
0 Section 2
Questions 69 and 70

The fOllowing dialogue is between a male doctor and a female patient.

Doctor: So, how are you feeling today, Mrs Lee?

],atient: Not good, Doctor. My back's still very sore. Just like when I first came to see you
about this last week.
Doctor: There's no improvement at all?
Patient: No, not at all. Worse, if anything.
I>octor: And you've been taking the medicine I prescribed for you?
Patient: Yes.
Doctor: And not doing those things arotmd the house that make you worse, as I
recommended?
Patient: Oh yes, as much as I can.
Doctor: [laughs] What does that mean? Does that mean you've continued to do them?
Patient: [sighs] Doctor, you don't understand, I have responsibilities to my family.
Doctor: And responsibilities to yourselt:
Patient: [laughs]
Doctor: It's true. And if you don't look after yourself, then you won't be able to look after
others.
Patient: Doctor, please, all I want is some stronger medicine to help me get on with what I
have to do.
Doctor: That won·'t help you in the long term.
Patient: That's OK, I just want something to help me in the short term.
Doctor: [pause] I understand your situation, but there is little point giving you stronger
medicine if you're not also avoiding those things which are causing your problems.
The medicine won't flx your back. It may even cause you to injure yourself more
seriously.
Patient: [becoming teary] Please, Doctor.
Doctor: [pause] Mrs Lee, is there something else you need to tell me about?

69 \\''hat is the patient's main expectation regarding her condition?

A to be free of the pain
B to be able to cope with her pain
C to mderstand the treatment options
D to receive sympathy and understanding

70 The doctors final question is best desClibed as

A routine .
.B suspicious.
c insensitive .
.l) sympathetic.
 Section 2 0
Questions 71 and 72

When she was 14, Elizabeth~~ olde1' b1'othe1' (Ied) died after a long illness. In this passage, Elizabeth,
now an adult; r~1lects on this period qf"lzer life.

My father immersed himself in his work after Ted died. He'd always done that to some degree. But
now he descended and did not come up for air. My mother, "Whose life had for so long revolved
around my brother, turned her formidable focus on me. I became her constant companion. Her solace
for having lost one child was that she had another one in whom to lose herself. It was bad timing. At
fourteen, I was just at the age when I was trying to find and assert my independence. And the years 5
on the side-lines of my brother's illness had long since made me decide I didn't, <;ouldn 't need my
parents. I resolved the dilemma by appearing, on the surface, the perpetual child my mother wanted
me to be, while quietly turning to the adolescent's novocaine 1 - alcohol and drugs- establishing a
pattern of demure self-destruction that would last more than a decade.
Later I would add an eating disorder to my repertoire of dysftmctional coping- first anorexia, 10
then bulimia, then obsessive exercise. Relationships became another common refhge, until tl1ey
became demanding rather than distracting. I discovered that I was very good at shutting off emotion,
abruptly. If one boyfriend got too threatening, too com1ected, I could exchange him for another
quite easily. It wasn't such a bad tl1ing, in retrospect, because somehow I always fom1d myself in
reL<:ttionships in which my need-; were overlooked, a state of affairs that would eventually trigger in 15
me an inexplicable and very old rage.

1 novocaine: a local anaesthetic commonly used by dentists to block pain during dental procedures

71 Elizabeth says that in retrospect her easy 'exchange' of boyfriends (line 13) was not such a bad thing
because these relationships
A made her learn to assert her needs.
B taught her to control her emotions.
C finally forced her deep feelings to erupt.
D allowed her to gradually understand her feelings.

72 How does Eli7..abeth suggest she viewed her father's behaviour at the time of Ted's death?
A with gratitude
8 with bitterness
C with sympathy
D with indifference

CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON~

0 Section 2
Questions 73 - 76

The .following passage is from a short stmy. Nick is in bed when he receives a phone call from his
.fnend, Philip, husband ofAnthea.

The phone rang close to midnight, jerking Nick back fi:om the brink of sleep.
'Nick Harvey.'
'Nick I hope 1 haven't woken you.'
'I'm sorry,' he mumbled, still drugged with sleep. ''Wbo is this?'
'Nick, it's Philip. Philip Tandy. I know it's late, but it's impo1tant. I'm trying to track down a 5
horrible rumour.'
The words splashed his ears like cold water; he was instantly awake.
'It's about Anthea,' the voice continued. 'A horrible lie. I wonder if you'd heard it?'
Nick was cautious, noncommittal: 'I heard something. It was a bit vague.'
'I thought you might have. I've just been speaking to Josie and David- they seemed to think 10
they first heard the run1our from you.'
Nick was dumbfounded: 'When was this?'
'A few minutes ago,' Philip said. 'I've just got off the phone to David'
'No, when was I supposed to have told them?'
'At some school fimction. A month ago. They are certain it carne from you.' 15
Nick shivered in his warm bed, momentarily lost for words. This was simply not true. In f.'l.ct,
the opposite wa.c;; true: he wa.c;; certain he had first heard the story trom Josie. But what could he say?
His closest friends had already turned him in; it seemed petty, given the gravity ofthe rumour itc;;elf,
to quibble. And he had passed the rumour on- to his fi:iends, perhaps, but certainly to his wife. And
through her to other friend<;. 20

(Later, Nick is listening to his v.i.fe, Cassie, discuss tlu1 incident with a friend on the phone.)

'Can you believe he would ring ... Really? He rang them too? ... He must be ringing everyone
like a chain letter. I wonder where he'll end up ... not here, thank God ... of course, I don't blame
him. Imagine how Anthea is feeling! No, I couldn't face her ... If it's not true it's almost as bad.'
Nick took up this last odd nuance with Cassie when she had finally finished on the phone, some 25
minutes later.
'V.1Iat do you mean: "almost as bad"']' he said. 'If she hasn't got cancer, wl1at does it matter?'
She seemed surprised that he didn't understand. 'How would you feel if people believed you
had cancer? Wouldn't it make you ... uneasy?'
'It wouldn't worry me in the slightest. 1 haven't got cancer.' 30

34
 Section 2 0
73 Philip's words 'I hope I haven't woken you' (line 3) are most likely said with
A timidity.
B open hostility.
C genuine courtesy.
D dismissive formality.

74 Philip's actions seem to stem mainly fi·om feelings of

A obligation.
_B persecution.
c protectiveness.
n vindictiveness.

75 In line 8, regarding the nunour, Philip asks of Nick, 'I wonder if you'd heard it?'
Philip's intention here is most likely to
A openly accuse Nick of disloyalty.
B solicit Nick's knowledge and advice.
C see ifNick can confirm his suspicions.
D demonstrate to Nick that he does not suspect him

76 The way Cassie speaks about Philip's behaviour (lines 22-24) suggests that she finds it
A appropriate and necessary.
B rude despite its reasonableness.
C ridiculous to the point of being hmnorous.
D melodramatic despite being understandable.

CONTI1'11:JE STRAIGHT ON ~
0 Section 2
Questions 77 79

The following passage is taken from a play. Barbara and Stuart are an Australian couple who have
moved to Denmark for six months where Stuart has a job at a university. They have moved into an
aparlment with their two young sons.

Barbara: Stuart, we must have that babysitter whether we can afford it or not. The kids are 1
wonderlhl, I love them, but after I've spent one day with them I feel as if I've lost
twenty sophisticated words from my vocabulary forever.

Stuart: What do you want to do?

Barbara: Read, think, anything! Maybe even work on my thesis 1• 3

Stuart: You said you \\-'Ouldn't. 4

Barbara: What harm would it do?

Stuart: Barbara, you promised. We agreed to come here on the clear tmderstanding that you 6
wouldn't work on your thesis for the six months we were away.

Barbara: I've thought that one through and I don't think it was a reasonable thing to ask. 7

Stuart: So you make a bargain back horne and try to wriggle out of it as soon as you get 8
here.

Barbara: I don't think it was a reasonable thing to ask. 9

Stuart: Then why didn't you say so at the time'? 10

Barbara: I wasn't sure at the time, but since we've got here I've had time to think. 11

Stuart: About what? 12

Barbara: About our marriage, and I-'m worried. 13

Stuart: There·'s nothing wrong with our marriage. 14

1 thesis: written work submitted for a university degree

36
 Section 2 0
77 Stuart's reaction to Barbara's proposal that she could work on her thesis is best described as
A detached.
B anguished.
C obstructive.
D unrestrained.

78 Barbara's response in (7) is best described as a

A spontaneous retort.
B carefully planned rejoinder.
C hasty retreat from her former stance.
I> sympathetic acknowledgement of Stuart's concerns.

79 vVhich pair of words most accurately describes how Barbara and Stuart appear in the passage'?
Barbara Stuart
A insecure troubled
B disillusioned controlling
c helpless \'lllnerable
D intimidated confused

CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON~

37
0 Section 2
Questions 80 82

The following has been offered as a 'guided dialogue 'for teachers and child-carers when cot~fi·on.ting
a fight in the playgrowul

Opening Ok now, let's sort this out.

Step 1 Jackie, exactly what happened?

Keisha, now you tell me what happened.

Step 2 How did you feel when she hit you'?

How do you think she felt when you pushed her?

Step 3 \Vhy do you think this fight happened?

Step 4 What could you do differently if this happens again?

\Vhat can we do now so we can all return to what we were doing before the flght'?

Closing Ok, go back and play.

80 The main aim of the Step 1 questions appears to be to

A see if one of the children is lying.
B find out who is primarily to blame.
C let each child give her view of events.
D get the children to agree about what happened.

81 The Step 2 questions appear to be based on the assumption that children

A only hurt one another by accident.
B do not care if they hurt one another.
C are too young to understand how other people feel.
D will not hurt others if they understand how they feel.

82 Which of the following responses to the Step 3 question would a teacher following the guided dialogue
prefer to hear?
A 'Because she hit me first.'
B 'Because everyone picks on me.'
C 'Because I have a right to play too.'
D 'Becau.c;;e I thought she did it on purpose.'

38
 Section 2 0
Questions 83 and 84

ln. the following passage, a man reflects on how his brother:r death affected hisjathe1:

When my brother died of cancer in 1966 at age thirty-nine, my father began a grie"ving process that lasted almost
twenty-five years. During that time he suffered from chronic, debilitating headaches that could not be cured. At one
point, a doctor tried to tell him that his headaches were related to his grief, but my father persisted in regarding the
pain as a medical problem, and the torment continued. After my father's death at eighty-six, I thought about how
he could have been helped.

83 What is the writer's main point in this passage?

A to illustrate his own grief
.B to describe his own sen..o;;e of helplessness
C to show the magnitude of his father's grief
D to criticise the treatment his father received

84 Regarding his father, the writer thinks the medical profession behaved in
A a limited manner.
B an uncaring manner.
C a conscientious manner.
D a self-interested manner.

END OF SECTION 2

STOP
DO NOT CONTINUE UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

39
* Section3
SECTION 3 Non-Verbal Reasoning Questions 85-122

Questions 85 - 98 Next in the Series

For each of the following items, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply continues
the series.

85

r=il~
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A B c D E

... ?•

A B c D E

40
 Section3 *
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CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON~

41
* Section 3

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42
93

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Section 3

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CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON~

43
*
%
Section 3

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44
Questions 99 - 110 Missing Segment
Section3 *
For each of the following items, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply completes
the picture.

99

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CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON~

45
* Section3

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103

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46
 Section3 *
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CONTINUE STRAIGHT ON~

47
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Section 3

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50
 Section3 *

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END OFTEST

51
52
 -·---- • UMAT IL-----------------~I
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PLEASE DO NOT FOLD OR DEFACE THIS SHEET IN ANY WAY

54
ACER thanks rights holders who have kindly granted permission to reproduce the
material cited below. Every effort has been made to trace and acknowledge copyright.
However, should any infringement have occurred, ACER tenders its apology
and invites copYJ.ight owners to contact ACER at <permissions@acer.edu.au>.

ACK...~OWLEDGME!'i"'TS: Extract from Brick Lane by Monica Ali, published by

Black Swan/Doubleday. Reprinted by pennission of The Random House Group Ltd;
Thea Astley, Drylands, Penguin Group (Australia), Melbourne, 1999; Chris Eipper,
Dieback, McPhee Gribble: Melbourne, 1990; Elizabeth J. Bruce and Cynthia L.
Schultz, Through Loss, ACER Press: Camberwell Vic., 2004; Elizabeth De Vita-
Raeburn, The Empty Room: Surviving the Loss of a Brother or Sister at Any Age,
Scribner: New York, 2004; Peter Goldsworthy, Little Deaths, Angus & Robertson
(HarperCollins), 1993; John H. Harvey, Give Sorrow Words: Perspectives on Loss
and Trauma, Bnnmer/}.:fazel: Philadelphia, P.-\, 2000; Hemy Handel Richardson, The
Coat, eBooks@Adelaide 2004; Extract from 'Corporate Vibes' by David Williamson
It) Copyright 1999. Reproduced by permission from Currency Press Pty Ltd, Sydney
Australia; Extract from 'The Perfectionist' by David Williamson © Copyright
1983. Reproduced by permission from Currency Press Pty Ltd, Sydney Au..<:tralia.
56
 ANSWERS

Section 1

1 B 12 D 23 A 34 D
2 D 13 B 24 B 35 c
3 c 14 B 25 B 36 A
4 B IS A 26 B 37 D
s A 16 D 27 D 38 A
6 D 17 c 28 B 39 D
7 c 18 D 29 c 40 D
8 D 19 c 30 A 41 B
9 A 20 A 31 c 42 D
10 c 21 c 32 B 43 c
11 D 22 c 33 B 44 B

Section 2

45 D ss A 65 c 75 c
46 c 56 A 66 B 76 D
47 D 57 B 67 A 77 c
48 c 58 c 68 c 78 B
49 B 59 D 69 B 79 B
so A 60 B 70 D 80 c
51 D 61 B 71 c 81 D
52 B 62 A 72 D 82 D
53 c 63 c 73 D 83 c
54 c 64 D 74 c 84 A

Section 3

85 D 95 B lOS B us A
86 B 96 A 106 A 116 D
87 B 97 E 107 c 117 E
88 A 98 B 108 A 118 B
89 D 99 D 109 A 119 E
90 A 100 D 110 c 120 c
91 c 101 B 111 D 121 A
92 E 102 c 112 E 122 c
93 D 103 E 113 A
94 E 104 c 114 B

57
58