ELECTRICS

1. If a generator produces voltage but ammeter reads zero

when load is turned on, the probable cause is;
a. Burned out current limiter or fuse in the
generator power lead
b. Revered polarity of generator field
c. Open field circuit

2. The interpole and compensating windings are

connected in series with the brushes of the generators.
The purpose is to;
a. Assist the shunt field winding
b. Regulate the output voltage
c. Control the effect of armature reaction

3. In large aircrafts, the source of electrical power is

normally;
a. AC generator with constant speed
b. DC generator of constant capacity
c. AC generator with variable speed

4. The operation of the carbon pile voltage regulator is

based on the fact that the contact electrical resistance
between the faces of carbon disc varies with the;
a. Actual area of contact of discs
b. Speed of generator
c. Pressure which hold the faces together
5. When RPM of a shunt wound motor increases, the
current drawn by it;
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Will remain same

6. The principal advantage of the series wound d.c.

motor is its;
a. Suitability for constant speed use
b. High starting torque
c. Low starting torque

7. In shunt-wound motors, the torque characteristic is

such that they (motors) must be started on;
a. Full load
b. Light or no load
c. Light, full or no load

8. To give warning of whether or not passengers’ entrance

doors are fully closed and locked, it is more
advantageous to use;
a. Micro switch
b. Push Button
c. Proximity switch
9. The function of limiting resistor as protection devices
is to
a. Cut the circuit in case of high current flow
b. Reduce he resistance of the circuit
c. Reduce the peak current during starting
10. The function of “economy resistor” of continuous
rated circuit breaker is to
a. Reduce coil current and prevent temperatures
rise
b. Re-trip the circuit breaker
c. Adjust the value of tripping current
11. The chemical principle during charging on Ni-Cad
battery is;
a. Oxygen is removed from the negative plate
and added to the positive plate
b. Oxygen is removed from the positive and added
to the negative plates
c. Hydroxide group is removed from the negative
plate and added to the positive plate
12. A certain battery is rated at 30 ampere-hours
based on the five hour discharge rate, it will
a. Deliver 30 amperes for 5 hours
b. Deliver 150 amperes for 4 hours
c. Deliver 6 amperes for 5 hours
13. To prevent reverse charging,
a. The polarity of the supply leads should be
checked with the aid of a center zero type
voltmeter
b. The polarity of each group of batteries should
be checked with center zero type voltmeter
c. The polarity of supply leads should be checked
with the aid of center zero type wattmeter
14. The minimum acceptable capacity of any battery
for use on aircraft is;
a. 100%
 b. 50%
c. 80%
15. Which is the truest statement about charging Ni-
Cad battery?
a. Two or more batteries can be charged in series
by constant- current
b. Two or more batteries can be charged in parallel
using constant-voltage
c. Both A&B are true
16. The algebraic sum of the voltage rise (drop)
encountered in tracing around any closed-loop
circuit;
a. Zero
b. 24 volt
c. 12 volt
17. The probable cause of too low a speed in a motor
is;
a. High voltage
b. Low voltage
c. Short-circuit in the field direction
18. Rectification is the process of converting
a. High value AC into a lower value
b. Direct current into alternating current
c. Alternating current into direct current
19. The voltage required of a generator in a 24-volt
system is;
a. 24 volts
b. 28 volts
c. 12 volts
20. The voltage regulators, the control of output
voltage is achieved by controlling the
a. RPM
b. Field strength
c. Number of armature windings
21. The external characteristics of a dc generator
means;
a. Relation between terminal voltage and load
current
b. Relation between the actual emf generated in
the armature windings and load current
c. Relation between the actual emf generated in
the field windings and load current
22. The field winding of aircraft dc generators are;
a. Parallel connected
b. Series connected
c. Series parallel connected
23. If the cable code is 3-R-123-S-20-C, the R
represents;
a. Cable size
b. Circuit function
c. Cable segment
24. In an ammeter circuit with a shunt resistor, a
current of 0.01 Amp causes full scale deflection of
the needle and the resistance of the movement is 5
ohms to use the ammeter where the range of current
is 0 to 30 amps, the value of the shunt resistance
must be;
a. 167 ohms
b. 0.167 ohms
 c. 0.00167 ohms
25. How should a voltmeter be connected?
a. In parallel with load
b. In parallel with source and series with load
c. In series with load
26. The most satisfactory movement for measuring
high frequency a.c. value is
a. Iron-vane movement
b. Hot-wire meter
c. A simple galvanometer
27. The current in a purely capacitive circuit will;
a. Lag the applied voltage
b. Lead the applied voltage
c. Be in phase with the applied voltage
28. The magnetic permeability of iron and its alloys is
a. High
b. Low
c. Equal to one
29. Electricity is produced in a generator by
electromagnetic induction and the direction of the
electromagnetic field produced is determined by;
a. Ohms law
b. Right hand rule
c. Left hand rule
30. The sentivity of electric measuring instrument is
determined by the amount of;
a. Power required to produce full scale deflection
b. Voltage required to produce full scale deflection
c. Current required to produce full scale
deflection
31. Lead- Acid batteries vary by type principally in
the;
a. Thickness of their plates only
b. Types of separators employed only
c. Thickness of their plates and the type of
separator employed
32. What period of time has been established as the
discharge time in rating aircraft battery capacity;
a. 5 hours
b. 1 hour
c. No established time
33. One of the information below is a means of telling
of a lead acid battery used in the aircraft
a. Amperage of a cell with full load
b. Gassing rate while charging at a normal rate
c. Specific gravity of the electrolyte
34. If battery acid is spilled in the battery
compartment, the correct procedure to follow is;
a. Apply sodium bicarbonate to powder the
affected area and wipe with oil soaked cloth
b. Apply bicarbonate solution to the affected
area followed by a water wash
c. Apply water to the affected area until the acid
turns cloudy white
35. To measure the state of charge for Ni-Cad battery;
a. Carry out a measured discharged test
b. Check out electrolyte relative density
c. Check battery voltage
36. During electrical leak check on Ni-Cad battery,
the value of leak current was found to be
0.020amps. Do you consider this value is;
a. unimportant, since voltage is measured during
leak test
b. permissible
c. impermissible
37. When performing capacity recycling, a cell voltage
of 1 volt was measured after 10 min of charge;
a. the cell in your opinion is acceptable
b. the cell could be recycled a second time to be
acceptable
c. the cell should be rejected
38. If it is necessary to return a battery to the
manufacturer or approved overhaul organization, it
should be sent;
a. in a charged condition
b. in accordance with manufacturer’s
transportation requirements
c. in a discharged condition
39. After changing a component;
a. C of M must be signed
b. C of C must be signed
c. C of C and C of M must be signed
40. Duplicate inspection means that;
a. The same licensed engineer inspects work done
on control twice
b. Two licensed engineers inspect work done on
controls, one inspecting one side of the controls
while the other inspects the other side
 c. Two licensed engineers inspect work done
on controls one at a time
41. An aircraft has four engines with variable pitch
propellers, the number of log books to be kept for
that aircraft are;
a. 9
b. 6
c. 3
42. Certificate of maintenance are usually valid for;
a. 50 flying hours
b. 12 calendar months
c. Specified calendar period or flying hours
43. Signing the C of M signifies that the aircraft, its
engines, radio and equipment are;
a. Maintained to the best ability of the
maintenance engineer
b. Maintained in accordance with an approved
maintenance schedule
c. Maintained in accordance with civil aircraft
inspection procedures
44. It is necessary to keep separate log books for
engine and propeller of an aircraft;
a. When the propeller is of variable pitch type
b. When the propeller is of fixed pitch type
c. In all cases
45. The validity period of C of M can be found;
a. In aircraft log book
b. Maintenance schedule
c. Maintenance manual
46. Certificate of fitness for flights issued under “A”
conditions may be signed by;
a. Surveyor
b. Certified aircraft engineer on the type
c. Chief pilot
47. Every C of A shall specify;
a. The category appropriate to the aircraft
b. The maximum take-off weight of the aircraft
c. The service life of the aircraft
48. The total number of hours flown by an aircraft is
obtained from;
a. The aircraft log book
b. The technical log book
c. The operation manual
49. A non-licensed engineer can sigh C of C if;
a. The work does not involve the use of test
equipment
b. He has five years working experience
c. He has company approval
50. Certificate of compliance is issued;
a. By an appropriately licensed aircraft engineer to
signify that the aircraft is maintained in
compliance with approval schedules and
regulations
b. By chief inspector to signify that the maintenance
schedule has been complied with
c. By appropriately licensed aircraft maintenance
engineer to signify that the repairs,
modifications, overhaul and inspections have
 been carried out with approved materials using
approved methods.
51. After the operating life of the aircraft, the
certificate of compliance;
a. Shall be preserved for two years
b. Shall be preserved for six months
c. Should be discarded
52. The equipment which must be approved before
being installed into the aircraft include;
a. Life jacket and radio equipment
b. Mooring, anchoring and on-water maneuvering
equipment
c. Torches, whistles and sea anchors
53. The amount of spare fuses for all electrical
circuits the fuses of which can be replaced in flight
shall be;
a. Ten of each rating
b. Three to five of each rating
c. Ten percent of the number of each rating or
three of each rating, whichever is greater
54. MOR scheme stands for;
a. Maintenance Organization Requirement
b. Mandatory Occurrence Report
c. Management Of Regulations
55. The following documents must always be on
board aircraft for flight;
a. Engine logbook, C of M and maintenance
Schedule
b. Maintenance Schedule, Maintenance Schedule
and Flight Manual
 c. C of R, C of A and Approved Flight Manual
56. For a newly acquired aircraft, the maintenance
schedule must be prepared by the;
a. The operator
b. The CAA surveyor
c. The manufacturer
57. It is required that the Civil Aviation Authority
approves;
a. The maintenance manual
b. Catering service providers
c. The minimum equipment list
58. Airworthiness directives applicable to an aircraft
are;
a. Mandatory
b. Optional
c. Air for information only
59. Impulse Couplings (started) when used are fitted;
a. Along the magneto shaft
b. Along the drive shaft
c. Between the magneto shaft and drive shaft
60. The power supply needed for smoke detection
system is normally;
a. 14 volts dc
b. 115 volts dc
c. 28 volts dc
61. The indication of fire detection system in the event
of fire is;
a. Illumination of warning light
b. Audible warning
 c. Illumination of warning light and audible
warning
62. The operations of unit type fire detector is caused
by;
a. Deferential expansion of dissimilar metals with
changes in temperature
b. Variation in resistance of the elements with
changes in temperature
c. Variation in capacitance of the element with
changes in temperature
63. During insulation resistance test for cartridge
unit, the acceptable value is;
a. Not less than 20 mega ohm
b. Not more than 20 mega ohm
c. Not more than 20 kilo ohm
64. A circuit with a voltage of 10 volt and current of 5
amperes has a resistance of;
a. 2 ohms
b. 5ohms
c. 10 ohms
65. There resistors, R1=3 ohms, R2=6 ohms, R3= 2
ohms are connected in parallel with a battery of 12
volts. The respective current through R1, R2 and
R3;
a. 6 amps, 3 amps, 4 amps
b. 4 amps, 2 amps, 6 amps
c. 2 amps, 6 amps, 4 amps
66. A rotating armature magneto to be fitted to a 6-
cylinder engine must be driven;
a. Half the speed of the engine
 b. One and a half times the speed of the engine
c. The same speed as the engine
67. Bonding is necessary for aircraft;
a. dissipating static charges from the airframe
b. Protecting the airframe from ice formation
c. Safe distribution of electrical charges and
current on the airframe
68. Navigation light requirements is that every aircraft
in flight or moving during the hours of darkness
shall display;
a. A green light at starboard wing tip, a red light
at port wing, white light visible from the rear
of the aircraft.
b. A red light at starboard wing tip, a green light at
port wing tip, white light visible from the rear of
the aircraft
c. White light at starboard wing tip, a green light at
port wing tip, a red light visible from the rear of
the aircraft.
69. The cable most suitable for use where sever
flexing under low temperature conditions is
encountered e.g. landing gear shock strut switch
circuit is;
a. EFGLAS
b. NYVIN
c. NYVINMETSHEATH
70. One of the installations where coaxial cables are
commonly use is;
a. Cylinder head thermocouple connection to
indicator
 b. Radio, for connection of antennae
c. Ignition system
71. The height of a lock nut is;
a. Half the width of a normal nut
b. Twice of a width of a normal nut
c. The same that of a normal nut
72. When using a stiff nut, how much thread should
project through the nut after tightening;
a. None
b. At least one and a half times
c. At least 3 threads
73. Spring washers can be used;
a. Only once
b. As many times as you like
c. As long as they retain their tension
74. When using spring washer,
a. Fit double spring washer without the plain washer
b. Fit coil round springs
c. Fit a plain washer between the spring washer
and the component and tighten down the nut
to the current torque
75. BA threads are used;
a. Under (one quarter inch) 6.25mm diameter
screw
b. Over (one quarter inch) 6.25mm diameter
c. Not used
76. The lead of a metric micrometer is;
a. Two revolutions of a thimble
b. One revolutions of a thimble
c. Two amvil revolutions
77. The lead of an English micrometer is;
a. 1/50 inch
b. 1/40 inch
c. 1/25 inch
78. The taper of the taper pin is;
a. 1 in 49
b. 1 in 48
c. 1 in 29
79. In wire locking, the untwisted length should not
be more than;
a. 3/8 inch
b. Half inch
c. 3 inches
80. Locking plates may be used repeatedly provided;
a. That the serration remain in a good fit around
b. It is springy
c. It is thick
81. In drawing center-lines are identified by;
a. Short dashes
b. Thin long chains
c. Dotted lines
82. Orthographic projection is a projection having;
a. full face and 45 degree to horizontal
b. Full face and 30 degree to horizontal
c. Two or more views to highlight necessary
details
83. Magnetic flaw detection is a type of
a. Non- destructive testing
b. Destructive testing
c. Hardness testing
84. Which of the following is a non- destructive
testing
a. Izod-impact test
b. Proof-stress test
c. Dye- penetrant testing
85. Alloying chromium with steel improves;
a. Brittleness of steel
b. Malleability of steel
c. Hardness of steel
86. An aircraft operating in a sea area can be
corroded as a result of salt- water, this type of
corrosion is known as;
a. Chemical corrosion
b. Electro-chemical corrosion
c. Inter-granular corrosion
87. In an aircraft industry, phosphor- bronze is used
for;
a. Valves
b. Bearing bushes
c. Motor-shafts
88. When is metals has been working-hardened
during cold-working if it is going to be cold-worked
further, it should be;
a. Annealed
b. Tempered
c. Normalized
89. Case- hardening is heat treatment used on;
a. Low carbon steel
b. Non-ferrous materials
c. High-carbon steel
90. Hardness of a metal is determined by its;
a. Ability to withstand indentation
b. The case with which a metal can be broken down
without changing shape
c. Either of the above
91. A circuit with 250 volts are supplying current at
50 Hz through 4.9 henry inductor has a reactance
value of;
a. 100 ohms
b. 245 ohms
c. 770 ohms
92. Fuses and circuit breakers are;
a. Devices used to produce electricity in aircraft
b. Devices used to protect circuits from excessive
current
c. Devices to give a warning alarm in the event of
power failure
93. The resistance value of a thermistor;
a. Increases with increase in temperature
b. Increases with decrease in temperature
c. Remains the sane with increase/ decrease
temperature
94. The materials commonly used in bi-metallic
switches are;
a. Brass and invar
b. Chrome and nickel
c. Brass and steel
95. Shunts are normally used;
a. In radio circuits
b. As heating elements
 c. In ammeter circuits
96. Relay contacts are classified as;
a. Normally open, normally closed and change
over contacts
b. Normally open, current limited and high voltage
contacts
c. Normally closed, high voltage and normally open
97. The solution for L= M+ (N/P) ² transposed for N is;
a. N=L-MP
b. N=P√ (L−M )
c. N=P(L²-M²)
98. The material from which a permanent magnet is
manufactured must have;
a. High coercivity and high remanence
b. High coercivity and low remanence
c. Low coercivity and low remainence
99. Apparent power is calculated using the formula;
a. VI
b. I²R
c. V²R
100.During millivolt drop test, the millivolt meter
reads 150mV at 300A. contact resistance is
therefore;
a. 0.0005 ohms
b. 50 milliohms
c. 50 ohms
d.