Investment Analysis and Portfolio Management
Investment Analysis and Portfolio Management
Investment Analysis and Portfolio Management
FOUNDATION
1 Financial Markets: A Beginners’ Module 120 60 100 NO 50 NO NO YES NO
2 Mutual Funds : A Beginners' Module 120 60 100 NO 50 NO NO YES NO
3 Currency Derivatives: A Beginner’s Module 120 60 100 NO 50 NO NO YES NO
4 Equity Derivatives: A Beginner’s Module 120 60 100 NO 50 NO NO YES NO
5 Interest Rate Derivatives: A Beginner’s Module 120 60 100 NO 50 NO NO YES NO
6 Commercial Banking in India: A Beginner’s Module 120 60 100 NO 50 NO NO YES NO
7 FIMMDA-NSE Debt Market (Basic) Module 120 60 100 YES 60 YES NO YES NO
8 Securities Market (Basic) Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
9 Clearing Settlement and Risk Management Module 60 75 100 NO 60 YES NO YES NO
10 Banking Fundamental - International 90 48 48 YES 29 YES NO YES NO
11 Capital Markets Fundamental - International 90 40 50 YES 30 YES NO YES NO
INTERMEDIATE
1 Capital Market (Dealers) Module 105 60 100 YES 50 NO NO YES NO
2 Derivatives Market (Dealers) Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
3 Investment Analysis and Portfolio Management 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
4 Fundamental Analysis Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
5 Operation Risk Management Module 120 75 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
6 Options Trading Strategies Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
7 Banking Sector Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
8 Treasury Management Module 120 60 100 YES 60 YES NO YES NO
9 Insurance Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
10 Macroeconomics for Financial Markets Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
11 NSDL–Depository Operations Module # 75 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
12 Commodities Market Module 120 60 100 YES 50 NO NO YES NO
13 Surveillance in Stock Exchanges Module 120 50 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
14 Technical Analysis Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
15 Mergers and Acquisitions Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
16 Back Office Operations Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
17 Wealth Management Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
18 Project Finance Module 120 60 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
19 Venture Capital and Private Equity Module 120 70 100 YES 60 NO NO YES NO
20 Financial Services Foundation Module ### 120 45 100 YES 50 NO NO YES NO
21 NSE Certified Quality Analyst $ 120 60 100 YES 50 NO NO YES NO
22 NSE Certified Capital Market Professional (NCCMP) 120 60 100 NO 50 NO NO YES NO
23 US Securities Operation Module 90 41 50 YES 30 YES NO YES NO
ADVANCED
1 Algorithmic Trading Module 120 100 100 YES 60 YES NO YES NO
2 Financial Markets (Advanced) Module 120 60 100 YES 60 YES NO YES NO
3 Securities Markets (Advanced) Module 120 60 100 YES 60 YES NO YES NO
4 Derivatives (Advanced) Module 120 55 100 YES 60 YES YES YES NO
5 Mutual Funds (Advanced) Module 120 60 100 YES 60 YES NO YES NO
6 Options Trading (Advanced) Module 120 35 100 YES 60 YES YES YES YES
7 Retirement Analysis and Investment Planning 120 77 150 NO 50 YES NO YES YES
8 Retirement Planning and Employee Benefits ** 120 77 150 NO 50 YES NO YES YES
9 Tax Planning and Estate Planning ** 120 77 150 NO 50 YES NO YES YES
10 Investment Planning ** 120 77 150 NO 50 YES NO YES YES
11 Examination 5/Advanced Financial Planning ** 240 30 100 NO 50 YES NO YES YES
12 Equity Research Module ## 120 49 60 YES 60 YES NO YES NO
13 Financial Valuation and Modeling 120 100 100 YES 60 YES NO YES YES
14 Mutual Fund and Fixed Income Securities Module 120 100 60 YES 60 YES NO YES YES
15 Issue Management Module ## 120 55 70 YES 60 YES NO YES NO
16 Market Risk Module ## 120 40 65 YES 60 YES NO YES NO
17 Financial Modeling Module ### 120 30 100 YES 50 YES NO YES NO
18 Business Analytics Module ### 120 66 100 NO 50 YES NO YES NO
# Candidates securing 80% or more marks in NSDL-Depository Operations Module ONLY will be certified as ‘Trainers’.
### Module of IMS Proschool
## Modules of Finitiatives Learning India Pvt. Ltd. (FLIP)
** Financial Planning Standards Board India (Certified Financial Planner Certification) FPSB India Exam
$ SSA Business School
The curriculum for each of the modules (except Modules of Financial Planning Standards Board India, Finitiatives Learning
India Pvt. Ltd. and IMS Proschool) is available on our website: www.nseindia.com
Preface
About NSE Academy
NSE Academy is a subsidiary of National Stock Exchange of India. NSE Academy straddles
the entire spectrum of financial courses for students of standard VIII and right up to MBA
professionals. NSE Academy has tied up with premium educational institutes in order to
develop pool of human resources having right skills and expertise which are apt for the
financial market. Guided by our mission of spreading financial literacy for all, NSE Academy
has constantly innovated its education template, this has resulted in improving the financial
well-being of people at large in society. Our education courses have so far facilitated more
than 41.8 lakh individuals become financially smarter through various initiatives.
NCFM is an online certification program aimed at upgrading skills and building competency. The
program has a widespread reach with testing centers present at more than 154+
• Online mode by creating an online login id through the link ‘Education’>‘Certifications’ >
‘Online Register / Enroll’ available on the website www.nseindia.com
• Offline mode by filling up registration form available on the website www.nseindia.com >
‘Education’ >’Certifications’ >‘Register for Certification’
Once registered, a candidate is allotted a unique NCFM registration number along with an
online login id and can avail of facilities like SMS alerts, online payment, checking of test
schedules, online enrolment, profile update etc. through their login id.
CON TEN TS
CH APTER 1 : OBJECTI VES OF I N VESTM EN T D ECI SI ON S ......................................... 1
1
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
3.4.1 Clean and dirt y prices and accrued int erest .............................................. 20
2
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
3
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
M OD EL TEST ................................................................................................. 8 2
4
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Note: Candidates are advised to refer to NSE's website: www.nseindia.com, click on 'NCFM'
link and then go to 'Announcements' link, regarding revisions/updations in NCFM modules or
launch of new modules, if any.
All content included in this book, such as text, graphics, logos, images, data compilation etc.
are the property of NSE. This book or any part thereof should not be copied, reproduced,
duplicated, sold, resold or exploited for any commercial purposes. Furthermore, the book in its
entirety or any part cannot be stored in a retrieval system or transmitted in any form or by any
means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording or otherwise.
5
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Our aim in this book is to provide a brief overview of three aspects of investment: the various
options available to an investor in financial instruments, the tools used in modern finance to
optimally manage the financial portfolio and lastly the professional asset management industry
as it exists today.
Returns more often than not differ across their risk profiles, generally rising with the expected
risk, i.e., higher the returns, higher the risk. The underlying objective of portfolio management
is therefore to create a balance between the trade-off of returns and risk across multiple asset
classes. Portfolio management is the art of managing the expected return requirement for the
corresponding risk tolerance. Simply put, a good portfolio manager’s objective is to maximize
the return subject to the risk-tolerance level or to achieve a pre-specified level of return with
minimum risk.
In our first chapter, we start with the various types of investors in the markets today, their
return requirements and the various constraints that an investor faces.
1 .2 Ty pe s of in v e st or s
There is wide diversity among investors, depending on their investment styles, mandates,
horizons, and assets under management. Primarily, investors are either individuals, in that
they invest for themselves or institutions, where they invest on behalf of others. Risk appetites
and return requirements greatly vary across investor classes and are key determinants of the
investing styles and strategies followed as also the constraints faced. A quick look at the broad
groups of investors in the market illustrates the point.
1 .2 .1 I n dividu a ls
While in terms of numbers, individuals comprise the single largest group in most markets, the
size of the portfolio of each investor is usually quite small. Individuals differ across their risk
appetite and return requirements. Those averse to risk in their portfolios would be inclined
towards safe investments like Government securities and bank deposits, while others may be
risk takers who would like to invest and / or speculate in the equity markets. Requirements of
individuals also evolve according to their life-cycle positioning. For example, in India, an individual
6
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
in the 25-35 years age group may plan for purchase of a house and vehicle, an individual
belonging to the age group of 35-45 years may plan for children’s education and children’s
marriage, an individual in his or her fifties would be planning for post-retirement life. The
investment portfolio then changes depending on the capital needed for these requirements.
1 .2 .2 I n st itu t ion s
Institutional investors comprise the largest active group in the financial markets. As mentioned
earlier, institutions are representative organizations, i.e., they invest capital on behalf of others,
like individuals or other institutions. Assets under management are generally large and managed
professionally by fund managers. Examples of such organizations are mutual funds, pension
funds, insurance companies, hedge funds, endowment funds, banks, private equity and venture
capital firms and other financial institutions. We briefly describe some of them here.
Box N o. 1 .1 :
The Indian financial markets are also witnessing active participation by institutions with
foreign institutional investors, domestic mutual funds, and domestic insurance companies
comprising the three major groups, owning more than a third of the shareholding in listed
companies, with the Government and promoters another 50%. Over the years the share of
institutions has risen in share ownership of companies.
1 .2 .2 .1 M u t u a l fu n ds
Individuals are usually constrained either by resources or by limits to their knowledge of the
investment outlook of various financial assets (or both) and the difficulty of keeping abreast of
changes taking place in a rapidly changing economic environment. Given the small portfolio
size to manage, it may not be optimal for an individual to spend his or her time analyzing
various possible investment strategies and devise investment plans and strategies accordingly.
Instead, they could rely on professionals who possess the necessary expertise to manage thier
funds within a broad, pre-specified plan. Mutual funds pool investors’ money and invest according
to pre-specified, broad parameters. These funds are managed and operated by professionals
whose remunerations are linked to the performance of the funds. The profit or capital gain
from the funds, after paying the management fees and commission is distributed among the
individual investors in proportion to their holdings in the fund. Mutual funds vary greatly,
depending on their investment objectives, the set of asset classes they invest in, and the
overall strategy they adopt towards investments.
1 .2 .2 .2 Pe n sion fu n ds
Pension funds are created (either by employers or employee unions) to manage the retirement
funds of the employees of companies or the Government. Funds are contributed by the employers
and employees during the working life of the employees and the objective is to provide benefits
7
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
to the employees post their retirement. The management of pension funds may be in-house or
through some financial intermediary. Pension funds of large organizations are usually very
large and form a substantial investor group for various financial instruments.
1 .2 .2 .3 En dow m e n t fu n ds
Endowment funds are generally non-profit organizations that manage funds to generate a
steady return to help them fulfill their investment objectives. Endowment funds are usually
initiated by a non-refundable capital contribution. The contributor generally specifies the purpose
(specific or general) and appoints trustees to manage the funds. Such funds are usually managed
by charitable organizations, educational organization, non-Government organizations, etc.
The investment policy of endowment funds needs to be approved by the trustees of the funds.
Insurance companies, both life and non-life, hold large portfolios from premiums contributed
by policyholders to policies that these companies underwrite. There are many different kinds
of insurance polices and the premiums differ accordingly. For example, unlike term insurance,
assurance or endowment policies ensure a return of capital to the policyholder on maturity,
along with the death benefits. The premium for such poliices may be higher than term policies.
The investment strategy of insurance companies depends on actuarial estimates of timing and
amount of future claims. Insurance companies are generally conservative in their attitude
towards risks and their asset investments are geared towards meeting current cash flow needs
as well as meeting perceived future liabilities.
1 .2 .2 .5 Ban k s
Assets of banks consist mainly of loans to businesses and consumers and their liabilities
comprise of various forms of deposits from consumers. Their main source of income is from
what is called as the interest rate spread, which is the difference between the lending rate
(rate at which banks earn) and the deposit rate (rate at which banks pay). Banks generally do
not lend 100% of their deposits. They are statutorily required to maintain a certain portion of
the deposits as cash and another portion in the form of liquid and safe assets (generally
Government securities), which yield a lower rate of return. These requirements, known as the
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR ratio) and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR ratio) in India, are stipulated
by the Reserve Bank of India and banks need to adhere to them.
In addition to the broad categories mentioned above, investors in the markets are also classified
based on the objectives with which they trade. Under this classification, there are hedgers,
speculators and arbitrageurs. Hedgers invest to provide a cover for risks on a portfolio they
already hold, speculators take additional risks to earn supernormal returns and arbitrageurs
take simultaneous positions (say in two equivalent assets or same asset in two different
8
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
markets etc.) to earn riskless profits arising out of the price differential if they exist.
Another category of investors include day-traders who trade in order to profit from intra-day
price changes. They generally take a position at the beginning of the trading session and
square off their position later during the day, ensuring that they do not carry any open position
to the next trading day. Traders in the markets not only invest directly in securities in the so-
called cash markets, they also invest in derivatives, instruments that derive their value from
the underlying securities.
1 .3 Con st r a in t s
Portfolio management is usually a constrained optimization exercise: Every investor has some
constraint (limits) within which she wants the portfolio to lie, typical examples being the risk
profile, the time horizon, the choice of securities, optimal use of tax rules etc. The professional
portfolio advisor or manager also needs to consider the constraint set of the investors while
designing the portfolio; besides having some constraints of his or her own, like liquidity, market
risk, cash levels mandated across certain asset classes etc.
We provide a quick outline of the various constraints and limitations that are faced by the
broad categories of investors mentioned above.
1 .3 .1 Liqu idit y
In investment decisions, liquidity refers to the marketability of the asset, i.e., the ability and
ease of an asset to be converted into cash and vice versa. It is generally measured across two
different parameters, viz., (i) market breadth, which measures the cost of transacting a given
volume of the security, this is also referred to as the impact cost; and (ii) market depth, which
measures the units that can be traded for a given price impact, simply put, the size of the
transaction needed to bring about a unit change in the price. Adequate liquidity is usually
characterized by high levels of trading activity. High demand and supply of the security would
generally result in low impact costs of trading and reduce liquidity risk.
1 .3 .2 I n ve st m e n t h or izon s
The investment horizon refers to the length of time for which an investor expects to remain
invested in a particular security or portfolio, before realizing the returns. Knowing the investment
horizon helps in security selection in that it gives an idea about investors’ income needs and
desired risk exposure. In general, investors with shorter investment horizons prefer assets
with low risk, like fixed-income securities, whereas for longer investment horizons investors
look at riskier assets like equities. Risk-adjusted returns for equity are generally found to be
higher for longer investment horizon, but lower in case of short investment horizons, largely
due to the high volatility in the equity markets. Further, certain securities require commitment
9
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
to invest for a certain minimum investment period, for example in India, the Post Office savings
or Government small-saving schemes like the National Savings Certificate (NSC) have a
minimum maturity of 3-6 years.
Investment horizon also facilitates in making a decision between investing in a liquid or relatively
illiquid investment. If an investor wants to invest for a longer period, liquidity costs may not be
a significant factor, whereas if the investment horizon is a short period (say 1 month) then the
impact cost (liquidity) becomes significant as it could form a meaningful component of the
expected return.
1 .3 .3 Ta x at ion
The investment decision is also affected by the taxation laws of the land. Investors are always
concerned with the net and not gross returns and therefore tax-free investments or investments
subject to lower tax rate may trade at a premium as compared to investments with taxable
returns. The following example will give a better understanding of the concept:
Ta ble 1 .1 :
Asse t Type Ex pe ct e d Re t u r n N e t Re t u r n
B 8% tax-free bonds 8% 8%
Although asset A carries a higher coupon rate, the net return for the investors would be higher
for asset B and hence asset B would trade at a premium as compared to asset A. In some
cases taxation benefits on certain types of income are available on specific investments. Such
taxation benefits should also be considered before deciding the investment portfolio.
1 .4 Goa ls of I n v e st or s
There are specific needs for all types of investors. For individual investors, retirement, children’s
marriage / education, housing etc. are major event triggers that cause an increase in the
demands for funds. An investment decision will depend on the investor’s plans for the above
needs. Similarly, there are certain specific needs for institutional investors also. For example,
for a pension fund the investment policy will depend on the average age of the plan’s participants.
In addition to the few mentioned here, there are other constraints like the level of requisite
knowledge (investors may not be aware of certain financial instruments and their pricing),
investment size (e.g., small investors may not be able to invest in Certificate of Deposits),
regulatory provisions (country may impose restriction on investments in foreign countries)
etc. which also serve to outline the investment choices faced by investors.
10
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
2 .1 I n t r odu ct ion
There are a wide range of financial securities available in the markets these days. In this
chapter, we take a look at different financial markets and try to explain the various instruments
where investors can potentially park their funds.
Financial markets can mainly be classified into money markets and capital markets. Instruments
in the money markets include mainly short-term, marketable, liquid, low-risk debt securities.
Capital markets, in contrast, include longer-term and riskier securities, which include bonds
and equities. There is also a wide range of derivatives instruments that are traded in the
capital markets.
Both bond market and money market instruments are fixed-income securities but bond market
instruments are generally of longer maturity period as compared to money market instruments.
Money market instruments are of very short maturity period. The equities market can be
further classified into the primary and the secondary market. Derivative market instruments
are mainly futures, forwards and options on the underlying instruments, usually equities
and bonds.
2 .2 Pr im a r y a n d Se con da r y M a r k e t s
A primary market is that segment of the capital market, which deals with the raising of capital
from investors via issuance of new securities. New stocks/bonds are sold by the issuer to the
public in the primary market. When a particular security is offered to the public for the first
time, it is called an Initial Public Offering (IPO). When an issuer wants to issue more securities
of a category that is already in existence in the market it is referred to as Follow-up Offerings.
Example: Reliance Power Ltd.’s offer in 2008 was an IPO because it was for the first time that
Reliance Power Ltd. offered securities to the public. Whereas, BEML’s public offer in 2007 was
a Follow-up Offering as BEML shares were already issued to the public before 2007 and were
available in the secondary market.
It is generally easier to price a security during a Follow-up Offering since the market price of
the security is actually available before the company comes up with the offer, whereas in the
case of an IPO it is very difficult to price the offer since there is no prevailing market for the
security. It is in the interest of the company to estimate the correct price of the offer, since
there is a risk of failure of the issue in case of non-subscription if the offer is overpriced. If the
issue is underpriced, the company stands to lose notionally since the securities will be sold at
a price lower than its intrinsic value, resulting in lower realizations.
11
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
The secondary market (also known as ‘aftermarket’) is the financial market where securities,
which have been issued before are traded. The secondary market helps in bringing potential
buyers and sellers for a particular security together and helps in facilitating the transfer of the
security between the parties. Unlike in the primary market where the funds move from the
hands of the investors to the issuer (company/ Government, etc.), in case of the secondary
market, funds and the securities are transferred from the hands of one investor to the hands
of another. Thus the primary market facilitates capital formation in the economy and secondary
market provides liquidity to the securities.
There is another market place, which is widely referred to as the third market in the investment
world. It is called the over-the-counter market or OTC market. The OTC market refers to all
transactions in securities that are not undertaken on an Exchange. Securities traded on an
OTC market may or may not be traded on a recognized stock exchange. Trading in the OTC
market is generally open to all registered broker-dealers. There may be regulatory restrictions
on trading some products in the OTC markets. For example, in India equity derivatives is one
of the products which is regulatorily not allowed to be traded in the OTC markets. In addition
to these three, direct transactions between institutional investors, undertaken primarily with
transaction costs in mind, are referred to as the fourth market.
2 .3 Tr a din g in Se con da r y M a r k e t s
Trading in secondary market happens through placing of orders by the investors and their
matching with a counter order in the trading system. Orders refer to instructions provided by
a customer to a brokerage firm, for buying or selling a security with specific conditions. These
conditions may be related to the price of the security (limit order or market order or stop loss
orders) or related to time (a day order or immediate or cancel order). Advances in technology
have led to most secondary markets of the world becoming electronic exchanges. Disaggregated
traders across regions simply log in the exchange, and use their trading terminals to key in
orders for transaction in securities. We outline some of the most popular orders below:
2 .3 .1 Type s of Or de r s
Lim it Pr ice / Or de r : In these orders, the price for the order has to be specified while entering
the order into the system. The order gets executed only at the quoted price or at a better price
(a price lower than the limit price in case of a purchase order and a price higher than the limit
price in case of a sale order).
M a r k e t Pr ice / Or de r : Here the constraint is the time of execution and not the price. It gets
executed at the best price obtainable at the time of entering the order. The system immediately
executes the order, if there is a pending order of the opposite type against which the order can
match. The matching is done automatically at the best available price (which is called as the
12
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
market price). If it is a sale order, the order is matched against the best bid (buy) price and if
it is a purchase order, the order is matched against the best ask (sell) price. The best bid price
is the order with the highest buy price and the best ask price is the order with the lowest
sell price.
St op Loss ( SL) Pr ice / Or de r : Stop-loss orders which are entered into the trading system,
get activated only when the market price of the relevant security reaches a threshold price.
When the market reaches the threshold or pre-determined price, the stop loss order is triggered
and enters into the system as a market/limit order and is executed at the market price / limit
order price or better price. Until the threshold price is reached in the market the stop loss
order does not enter the market and continues to remain in the order book. A sell order in the
stop loss book gets triggered when the last traded price in the normal market reaches or falls
below the trigger price of the order. A buy order in the stop loss book gets triggered when the
last traded price in the normal market reaches or exceeds the trigger price of the order. The
trigger price should be less than the limit price in case of a purchase order and vice versa.
D a y Or de r ( D a y) : A Day order is valid for the day on which it is entered. The order, if not
matched, gets cancelled automatically at the end of the trading day. At the National Stock
Exchange (NSE) all orders are Day orders. That is the orders are matched during the day and
all unmatched orders are flushed out of the system at the end of the trading day.
I m m edia t e or Ca n ce l or de r ( I OC) : An IOC order allows the investor to buy or sell a security
as soon as the order is released into the market, failing which the order is removed from the
system. Partial match is possible for the order and the unmatched portion of the order is
cancelled immediately.
2 .3 .2 M a t ch in g of or de r s
When the orders are received, they are time-stamped and then immediately processed for
potential match. The best buy order is then matched with the best sell order. For this purpose,
the best buy order is the one with highest price offered, also called the highest bid, and the
best sell order is the one with lowest price also called the lowest ask (i.e., orders are looked at
from the point of view of the opposite party). If a match is found then the order is executed
and a trade happens. An order can also be executed against multiple pending orders, which
will result in more than one trade per order. If an order cannot be matched with pending
orders, the order is stored in the pending orders book till a match is found or till the end of the
day whichever is earlier. The matching of orders at NSE is done on a price-time priority i.e., in
the following sequence:
• Best Price
13
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Orders lying unmatched in the trading system are ‘passive’ orders and orders that come in to
match the existing orders are called ‘active’ orders. Orders are always matched at the passive
order price. Given their nature, market orders are instantly executed, as compared to limit
orders, which remain in the trading system until their market prices are reached. The set of
such orders across stocks at any point in time in the exchange, is called the Limit Order Book
(LOB) of the exchange. The top five bids/asks (limit orders all) for any security are usually
visible to market participants and constitute the Market By Price (MBP) of the security.
2 .4 Th e M on e y M a r k e t
The money market is a subset of the fixed-income market. In the money market, participants
borrow or lend for short period of time, usually up to a period of one year. These instruments
are generally traded by the Government, financial institutions and large corporate houses.
These securities are of very large denominations, very liquid, very safe but offer relatively low
interest rates. The cost of trading in the money market (bid-ask spread) is relatively small due
to the high liquidity and large size of the market. Since money market instruments are of high
denominations they are generally beyond the reach of individual investors. However, individual
investors can invest in the money markets through money-market mutual funds. We take a
quick look at the various products available for trading in the money markets.
2 .4 .1 T- Bills
T-Bills or treasury bills are largely risk-free (guaranteed by the Government and hence carry
only sovereign risk - risk that the government of a country or an agency backed by the
government, will refuse to comply with the terms of a loan agreement), short-term, very liquid
instruments that are issued by the central bank of a country. The maturity period for T-bills
ranges from 3-12 months. T-bills are circulated both in primary as well as in secondary markets.
T-bills are usually issued at a discount to the face value and the investor gets the face value
upon maturity. The issue price (and thus rate of interest) of T-bills is generally decided at an
auction, which individuals can also access. Once issued, T-bills are also traded in the secondary
markets.
In India, T-bills are issued by the Reserve Bank of India for maturities of 91-days, 182 days
and 364 days. They are issued weekly (91-days maturity) and fortnightly (182-days and 364-
days maturity).
2 .4 .2 Com m e r cia l Pa pe r
Commercial papers (CP) are unsecured money market instruments issued in the form of a
promissory note by large corporate houses in order to diversify their sources of short-term
borrowings and to provide additional investment avenues to investors. Issuing companies are
required to obtain investment-grade credit ratings from approved rating agencies and in some
14
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
cases, these papers are also backed by a bank line of credit. CPs are also issued at a discount
to their face value. In India, CPs can be issued by companies, primary dealers (PDs), satellite
dealers (SD) and other large financial institutions, for maturities ranging from 15 days period
to 1-year period from the date of issue. CP denominations can be Rs. 500,000 or multiples
thereof. Further, CPs can be issued either in the form of a promissory note or in dematerialized
form through any of the approved depositories.
2 .4 .3 Ce r t ifica t e s of D e posit
A certificate of deposit (CD), is a term deposit with a bank with a specified interest rate. The
duration is also pre-specified and the deposit cannot be withdrawn on demand. Unlike other
bank term deposits, CDs are freely negotiable and may be issued in dematerialized form or as
a Usance Promissory Note. CDs are rated (sometimes mandatory) by approved credit rating
agencies and normally carry a higher return than the normal term deposits in banks (primarily
due to a relatively large principal amount and the low cost of raising funds for banks). Normal
term deposits are of smaller ticket-sizes and time period, have the flexibility of premature
withdrawal and carry a lower interest rate than CDs. In many countries, the central bank
provides insurance (e.g. Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) in the U.S., and the
Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) in India) to bank depositors up
to a certain amount (Rs. 100000 in India). CDs are also treated as bank deposit for this
purpose.
In India, scheduled banks can issue CDs with maturity ranging from 7 days – 1 year and
financial institutions can issue CDs with maturity ranging from 1 year – 3 years. CD are issued
for denominations of Rs. 1,00,000 and in multiples thereof.
2 .5 Re pos a n d Re v e r se Re pos
Repos (or Repurchase agreements) are a very popular mode of short-term (usually overnight)
borrowing and lending, used mainly by investors dealing in Government securities. The
arrangement involves selling of a tranche of Government securities by the seller (a borrower
of funds) to the buyer (the lender of funds), backed by an agreement that the borrower will
repurchase the same at a future date (usually the next day) at an agreed price. The difference
between the sale price and the repurchase price represents the yield to the buyer (lender of
funds) for the period. Repos allow a borrower to use a financial security as collateral for a cash
loan at a fixed rate of interest. Since Repo arrangements have T-bills as collaterals and are for
a short maturity period, they virtually eliminate the credit risk.
Reverse repo is the mirror image of a repo, i.e., a repo for the borrower is a reverse repo for
the lender. Here the buyer (the lender of funds) buys Government securities from the seller (a
borrower of funds) agreeing to sell them at a specified higher price at a future date.
15
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
2 .6 Th e Bon d M a r k e t
Bond markets consist of fixed-income securities of longer duration than instruments in the
money market. The bond market instruments mainly include treasury notes and treasury
bonds, corporate bonds, Government bonds etc.
2 .6 .1 Tr e a su r y N ot e s ( T- N ot e s) a n d T- Bon ds
Treasury notes and bonds are debt securities issued by the Central Government of a country.
Treasury notes maturity range up to 10 years, whereas treasury bonds are issued for maturity
ranging from 10 years to 30 years. Another distinction between T-notes and T-bonds is that T-
bonds usually consist of a call/put option after a certain period. In order to make these
instruments attractive, the interest income is usually made tax-free.
Interest on both these instruments is usually paid semi-annually and the payment is referred
to as coupon payments. Coupons are attached to the bonds and each bondholder has to
present the respective coupons on different interest payment date to receive the interest
amount. Similar to T-bills, these bonds are also sold through auction and once sold they are
traded in the secondary market. The securities are usually redeemed at face value on the
maturity date.
Apart from the central Government, various State Governments and sometimes municipal
bodies are also empowered to borrow by issuing bonds. They usually are also backed by
guarantees from the respective Government. These bonds may also be issued to finance
specific projects (like road, bridge, airports etc.) and in such cases, the debts are either repaid
from future revenues generated from such projects or by the Government from its own funds.
Similar to T-notes and T-bonds, these bonds are also granted tax-exempt status.
In India, the Government securities (includes treasury bills, Central Government securities
and State Government securities) are issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the
Government of India.
Bonds are also issued by large corporate houses for borrowing money from the public for a
certain period. The structure of corporate bonds is similar to T-Notes in terms of coupon
payment, maturity amount (face value), issue price (discount to face value) etc. However,
since the default risk is higher for corporate bonds, they are usually issued at a higher discount
than equivalent Government bonds. These bonds are not exempt from taxes. Corporate bonds
are classified as secured bonds (if backed by specific collateral), unsecured bonds (or debentures
which do not have any specific collateral but have a preference over the equity holders in the
16
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
event of liquidation) or subordinated debentures (which have a lower priority than bonds in
claim over a firms’ assets).
2 .6 .4 I n t e r n a t ion a l Bon ds
These bonds are issued overseas, in the currency of a foreign country which represents a large
potential market of investors for the bonds. Bonds issued in a currency other than that of the
country which issues them are usually called Eurobonds. However, now they are called by
various names depending on the currency in which they are issued. Eurodollar bonds are US
dollar-denominated bonds issued outside the United States. Euro-yen bonds are yen-
denominated bonds issued outside Japan.
Some international bonds are issued in foreign countries in currency of the country of the
investors. The most popular of such bonds are Yankee bond and Samurai Bonds. Yankee
bonds are US dollar denominated bonds issued in U.S. by a non-U.S. issuer and Samurai
bonds are yen-denominated bonds issued in Japan by non-Japanese issuers.
2 .6 .5 Ot h e r t ype s of bon ds
Zero coupon bonds (also called as deep-discount bonds or discount bonds) refer to bonds
which do not pay any interest (or coupons) during the life of the bonds. The bonds are issued
at a discount to the face value and the face value is repaid at the maturity. The return to the
bondholder is the discount at which the bond is issued, which is the difference between the
issue price and the face value.
Convertible bonds offer a right (but not the obligation) to the bondholder to get the bond
converted into predetermined number of equity stock of the issuing company, at certain, pre-
specified times during its life. Thus, the holder of the bond gets an additional value, in terms
of an option to convert the bond into stock (equity shares) and thereby participate in the
growth of the company’s equity value. The investor receives the potential upside of conversion
into equity while protecting downside with cash flow from the coupon payments.The issuer
company is also benefited since such bonds generally offer reduced interest rate. However, the
value of the equity shares in the market generally falls upon issue of such bonds in anticipation
of the stock dilution that would take place when the option (to convert the bonds into equity)
is exercised by the bondholders.
17
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
In case of callable bonds, the bond issuer holds a call option, which can be exercised after
some pre-specified period from the date of the issue. The option gives the right to the issuer
to repurchase (cancel) the bond by paying the stipulated call price. The call price may be more
than the face value of the bond. Since the option gives a right to the issuer to redeem the
bond, it carries a higher discount (higher yield) than normal bonds. The right is exercised if the
coupon rate is higher than the prevailing interest rate in the market.
Pu t t a ble Bon ds
A puttable bond is the opposite of callable bonds. These bonds have an embedded put option.
The bondholder has a right (but not the obligation) to sell back the bond to the issuer after a
certain time at a pre-specified price. The right has a cost and hence one would expect a lower
yield in such bonds. The bondholders generally exercise the right if the prevailing interest rate
in the market is higher than the coupon rate.
Since the call option and the put option are mutually exclusive, a bond may have both option
embedded.
Fix e d r a t e a n d floa t in g r a t e of in t e r e st
In case of fixed rate bonds, the interest rate is fixed and does not change over time, whereas
in the case of floating rate bonds, the interest rate is variable and is a fixed percentage over a
certain pre-specified benchmark rate. The benchmark rate may be any other interest rate such
as T-bill rate, the three-month LIBOR rate, MIBOR rate (in India), bank rate, etc. The coupon
rate is usually reset every six months (time between two interest payment dates).
2 .7 Com m on St ock s
Simply put, the shareholders of a company are its owners. As owners, they participate in the
management of the company by appointing its board of directors and voicing their opinions,
and voting in the general meetings of the company. The board of directors have general
oversight of the company, appoints the management team to look after the day-to-day running
of the business, set overall policies aimed at maximizing profits and shareholder value.
Shareholders of a company are said to have limited liability. The term means that the liability
of shareholders is limited to the unpaid amount on the shares. This implies that the maximum
loss of shareholder in a company is limited to her original investment. Being the owners,
shareholders have the last claim on the assets of the company at the time of liquidation, while
debt- or bondholders always have precedence over equity shareholders.
At its incorporation, every company is authorized to issue a fixed number of shares, each
priced at par value, or face value in India. The face value of shares is usually set at nominal
18
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
levels (Rs. 10 or Re. 1 in India for the most part). Corporations generally retain portions of
their authorized stock as reserved stock, for future issuance at any point in time.
Shares are usually valued much higher than the face value and this initial investment in the
company by shareholders represents their paid-in capital in the company. The company then
generates earnings from its operating, investing and other activities. A portion of these earnings
are distributed back to the shareholders as dividend, the rest retained for future investments.
The sum total of the paid-in capital and retained earnings is called the book value of equity of
the company.
2 .7 .1 Type s of sh a r e s
In India, shares are mainly of two types: equity shares and preference shares. In addition to
the most common type of shares, the equity share, each representing a unit of the overall
ownership of the company, there is another category, called preference shares. These preferred
shares have precedence over common stock in terms of dividend payments and the residual
claim to its assets in the event of liquidation. However, preference shareholders are generally
not entitled to equivalent voting rights as the common stockholders.
In India, preference shares are redeemable (callable by issuing firm) and preference dividends
are cumulative. By cumulative dividends, we mean that in case the preference dividend remains
unpaid in a particular year, it gets accumulated and the company has the obligation to pay the
accrued dividend and current year’s dividend to preferred stockholders before it can distribute
dividends to the equity shareholders. An additional feature of preferred stock in India is that
during such time as the preference dividend remains unpaid, preference shareholders enjoy
all the rights (e.g. voting rights) enjoyed by the common equity shareholders. Some companies
also issue convertible preference shares which get converted to common equity shares in
future at some specified conversion ratio.
In addition to the equity and fixed-income markets, the derivatives market is one of India’s
largest and most liquid. We take a short tour of derivatives in the 5th chapter of this module.
19
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Fixed-income securities are securities where the periodic returns, time when the returns fall
due and the maturity amount of the security are pre-specified at the time of issue. Such
securities generally form part of the debt capital of the issuing firm. Some of the common
examples are bonds, treasury bills and certificates of deposit.
In simple terms, an interest payment refers to the payment made by the borrower to the
lender as the price for use of the borrowed money over a period of time. The interest cost
covers the opportunity cost of money, i.e., the return that could have been generated had the
lender invested in some other assets and a compensation for default risk (risk that the borrower
will not refund the money on maturity). The rate of interest may be fixed or floating, in that it
may be linked to some other benchmark interest rate or in some cases to the inflation in the
economy.
Interest calculations are either simple or compound. While simple interest is calculated on the
principal amount alone, for a compound interest rate calculation we assume that all interest
payments are re-invested at the end of each period. In case of compound interest rate, the
subsequent period’s interest is calculated on the original principal and all accumulated interest
during past periods.
In case of both simple and compound interest rates, the interest rate stated is generally
annual. In case of compound interest rate, we also mention the frequency for which compounding
is done. For example, such compounding may be done semi-annually, quarterly, monthly,
daily or even instantaneously (continuously compounded).
3 .2 .1 Sim ple I n t e r e st Ra t e
I = P *R *T
Where,
P = principal amount
20
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Ex a m ple 3 .1
What is the amount an investor will get on a 3-year fixed deposit of Rs. 10000 that pays
8% simple interest?
I = P * R * T = 10000 * 8% * 3 = 2400
3 .2 .2 Com pou n d I n t e r e st Ra t e
In addition to the three parameters (Principal amount (P), Interest Rate (R), Time (T)) used
for calculation of interest in case of simple interest rate method, there is an additional parameter
that affects the total interest payments. The fourth parameter is the compounding period,
which is usually represented in terms of number of times the compounding is done in a year
(m). So for semi-annual compounding the value for m = 2; for quarterly compounding, m = 4
and so on.
The formula used for calculating total amount under this method is as under:
T *m
R
A = P 1 + –P
m
Where
A = Amount on maturity
R = interest rate
T = maturity in years
Ex a m ple 3 .2
What is the amount an investor will get on a 3-year fixed deposit of Rs. 10000 that pay 8%
interest compounded half yearly?
21
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Answer:
R *
T m
I nt erest = P 1 + –P
m
0.08
2 *3
= 10000 * 1 + – 10000 = Rs.2653.20
2
Ex a m ple 3 .3
Consider the same investment. What is the amount if the interest rate is compounded monthly?
Answer:
Here P = 10000, R = 8% and T = 3, m = 12. The total interest income comes to:
R *
T m
I nt erest = P 1 + –P
m
12 *3
= 10000 * 1 +
0.08
– 10000 = Rs.2702.37
12
Consider a situation, where instead of monthly or quarterly compounding, the interest rate is
compounded continuously throughout the year i.e. m rises indefinitely. If m approaches infinity,
∞
R
the equivalent annual interest rate is 1 + – 1 , which can be shown (using tools from
∞
Continuous compounding is widely assumed in finance theory, and used in various asset pricing
models—the famous Black-Scholes model to price a European option is an illustrative example.
Ex a m ple 3 .4
Consider the same investment (Rs. 10000 for 3 years). What is the amount received on
22
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Answer:
3 .3 Re a l a n d N om in a l I n t e r e st Ra t e s
The relationship between interest rates and inflation rates is very significant. Normally, the
cash flow from bonds and deposits are certain and known in advance. However, the value of
goods and services in an economy may change due to changes in the general price level
(inflation). This brings an uncertainty about the purchasing power of the cash flow from an
investment. Take a small example. If inflation (say 12%) is rising and is greater than the
interest rate (say 10% annually) in a particular year, then an investor in a bond with 10%
interest rate annually stands to lose. Goods worth Rs. 100 at the beginning of the year are
worth Rs. 112 by the end of the year but an investment of Rs. 100 becomes only Rs. 110 by
end of the year. This implies that an investor who has deposited money in a risk-free asset will
find goods beyond his reach.
An economist would look at this in terms of nominal cash flow and real cash flows. Nominal
cash flow measures the cash flow in terms of today’s prices and real cash flow measures the
cash flow in terms of its base year’s purchasing power, i.e., the year in which the asset was
bought/ invested. If the interest rate is 10%, an investment of Rs. 100 becomes Rs. 110 at the
end of the year. However, if inflation rate is 5% then each Rupee will be worth 5% less next
year. This means at the end of the year, Rs. 110 will be worth only 110/1.05 = Rs. 104.76 in
terms of the purchasing power at the beginning of the year. The real payoff is Rs. 104.76 and
the real interest rate is 4.76%. The relationship between real and nominal interest rate can be
established as under:
And
In our example, the real interest rate can be directly calculated using the formula:
1 + 0.10
Real interest rat e = – 1 = 0.0476 or 4.76%
1 + .05
23
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
3 .4 Bon d Pr icin g Fu n da m e n t a ls
The cash inflow for an investor in a bond includes the coupon payments and the payment on
maturity (which is the face value) of the bond. Thus the price of the bond should represent the
sum total of the discounted value of each of these cash flows (such a total is called the present
value of the bond). The discount rate used for valuing the bond is generally higher than the
risk-free rate to cover additional risks such as default risk, liquidity risks, etc.
Note that the coupon payments are at different points of time in the future, usually twice each
year. The face value is paid at the maturity date. Therefore, the price is calculated using the
following formula:
∑ (1 + y )
C(t )
Bond Price = t (1)
t
Where C(t) is the cash flow at time t and y is the discount rate. Since the coupon rate is
generally fixed and the maturity value is known at the time of issue of the bond, the formula
can be re-written as under:
∑ (1 + y )
Coupon Face Value
Bond Price = + (2)
t
t
(1 + y )T
Here t represents the time left for each coupon payment and T is the time to maturity. Also
note that the discount rate may differ for cash flows across time periods.
Ex a m ple 3 .5
Calculate the value of a 3-year bond with face value of Rs. 1000 and coupon rate being 8%
paid annually. Assume that the discount rate is 10%.
Here:
t=1 to 3
T=3
80 80 80 1000
Bond Pr ice = + + + = 950 .26
1 + 0.1 (1 + 0.1)2 (1 + 0.1)3
(1 + 0.1)3
Now let us see what happens if the discount rate is lower than the coupon rate:
24
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Ex a m ple 3 .6
80 80 80
Bond Pr ice = + + = 1053 .46
1 + 0.06 (1 + 0.06)2
(1 + 0.06)3
Since the discount rate is higher than the coupon rate, the bond is traded at a discount. If the
discount rate is less than the coupon rate, the bond trades at a premium.
Bonds are not traded only on coupon dates but are traded throughout the year. The market
price of the bonds also includes the accrued interest on the bond since the most recent coupon
payment date. The price of the bond including the accrued interest since issue or the most
recent coupon payment date is called the ‘dirty price’ and the price of the bond excluding the
accrued interest is called the ‘clean price’. Clean price is the price of the bond on the most
recent coupon payment date, when the accrued interest is zero.
For reporting purpose (in press or on trading screens), bonds are quoted at ‘clean price’ for
ease of comparison across bonds with differing interest payment dates (dirty prices ‘jump’ on
interest payment dates). Changes in the more stable clean prices are reflective of macroeconomic
conditions, usually of more interest to the bond market.
3 .5 .2 Cu r r e n t Yie ld
The main drawback of coupon yield and current yield is that they consider only the interest
payment (coupon payments) and ignore the capital gains or losses from the bonds. Since they
consider only coupon payments, they are not measurable for bonds that do not pay any
interest, such as zero coupon bonds. The other measures of yields are yield to maturity and
25
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
yield to call. These measures consider interest payments as well as capital gains (or losses)
during the life of the bond.
3 .5 .3 Yie ld t o m a t u r it y
Yield to maturity (also called YTM) is the most popular concept used to compare bonds. It
refers to the internal rate of return earned from holding the bond till maturity. Assuming a
constant interest rate for various maturities, there will be only one rate that equalizes the
present value of the cash flows to the observed market price in equation (2) given earlier. That
rate is referred to as the yield to maturity.
Ex a m ple 3 .7
What is the YTM for a 5-year, 8% bond (interest is paid annually) that is trading in the market
for Rs. 924.20?
Here,
t= 1 to 5
T=5
∑ (1 + y )
80 1000
924 .20 = +
1
t
(1 + y )5
Solving for y, which is the YTM, we get the yield to maturity for the bond to be 10%.
There is a negative relationship between yields and bond price. The bond price falls when yield
increases and vice versa.
Ex a m ple 3 .8
What will be the market price of the above bond (Example 3 7) if the YTM is 12%.
t= 1 to 5
T=5
Putting the values in equation (1), the bond price comes to:
26
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
∑ (1 + 0.12)
80 1000
Bond Pr ice = + = 901 .20
1
t
(1 + 0.12)5
Further, for a long-term bond, the cash flows are more distant in the future and hence the
impact of change in interest rate is higher for such cash flows. Alternatively, for short-term
bonds, the cash flows are not far and discounting does not have much effect on the bond price.
Thus, price of long-term bonds are more sensitive to interest rate changes.
Bond equivalent yield and Effective annual yield: This is another important concept that is of
importance in case of bonds and notes that pay coupons at time interval which is less than 1
year (for example, semi-annually or quarterly). In such cases, the yield to maturity is the
discount rate solved using the following formula, wherein we assume that the annual discount
rate is the product of the interest rate for interval between two coupon payments and the
number of coupon payments in a year:
T
∑
Coupon Face Value
Bond Price = t
+ T
y 1 + y (3)
1 +
t
2 2
YTM calculated using the above formula is called bond equivalent yield.
However, if we assume that one can reinvest the coupon payments at the bond equivalent
yield (YTM), the effective interest rate will be different. For example, a semi-annual interest
rate of 10% p.a. in effect amounts to
2
1 + 0.10 = 1.1025 or 10.25% .
2
Yield rate calculated using the above formula is called effective annual yield.
Ex a m ple 3 .9
Calculate the bond equivalent yield (YTM) for a 5-year, 8% bond (semi-annual coupon payments),
that is trading in the market for Rs. 852.80? What is the effective annual yield for the bond?
Here,
t= 1 to 10
T = 10
27
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
10
∑
40 1000
852.80 = t
+ 10
y 1 + y
1 +
1
2 2
2 2
y 0.12
1 + – 1 = 1 + – 1 = 0.1236 or 12.36%
2 2
3 .5 .4 Yie ld t o ca ll
Yield to call is calculated for callable bond. A callable bond is a bond where the issuer has a
right (but not the obligation) to call/redeem the bond before the actual maturity. Generally the
callable date or the date when the company can exercise the right, is pre-specified at the time
of issue. Further, in the case of callable bonds, the callable price (redemption price) may be
different from the face value. Yield to call is calculated with the same formula used for calculating
YTM (Equation 2), with an assumption that the issuer will exercise the call option on the
exercise date.
Ex a m ple 3 .1 0
Calculate the yield to call for a 5-year, 7% callable bond (semi-annual coupon payments), that
is trading in the market for Rs. 877.05. The bond is callable at the end of 3rd year at a call
price of Rs. 1040.
Here:
t= 1 to 6
T=6
∑
Coupon Callable Value
Bond Price = t
+ T
y y
1 + 1 +
t
2 2
we have:
28
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
∑
35 1000
877.05 = t
+ 6
y 1 + y
1 +
1
2 2
3 .6 I n t e r e st Ra t e s
While computing the bond prices and YTM, we assumed that the interest rate is constant
across different maturities. However, this may not be true for different reasons. For example,
investors may perceive longer maturity periods to be riskier and hence may demand higher
interest rate for cash flow occurring at distant time intervals than those occurring at short time
intervals. In this section, we account for the fact that the interest demanded by investors also
depends on the time horizon of the investment. Let us first introduce certain common concepts.
3 .6 .1 Sh or t Ra t e
Short rate for time t, is the expected (annualized) interest rate at which an entity can borrow
for a given time interval starting from time t. Short rate is usually denominated
as rt.
3 .6 .2 Spot Ra t e
Yield to maturity for a zero coupon bond is called spot rate. Since zero coupon bonds of
varying maturities are traded in the market simultaneously, we can get an array of spot rates
for different maturities.
Investors discount future cash flows using interest rate applicable for that period. Therefore,
the PV of an investment of T years is calculated as under:
Ex a m ple 3 .1 1
If the short rate for a 1-year investment at year 1 is 7% and year 2 is 8%, what is the present
value of a 2-year zero coupon bond with face value Rs. 1000 :
1000 1000
P= = = 865.35
1.07 * 1.08 1.1556
For a 2-year zero coupon bond trading at 865.35, the YTM can be calculated by solving the
following equation:
1000
865 .35 =
(1 + y 2 )2
The resulting value for y is 7.4988%, which is nothing but the 2-year spot rate.
29
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
3 .6 .3 For w a r d Ra t e
One can assume that all bonds with equal risks must offer identical rates of return over any
holding period, because if it is not true then there will be an arbitrage opportunity in the
market. If we assume that all equally risky bonds will have identical rates of return, we can
calculate short rates for a future interval by knowing the spot rates for the two ends of the
interval. For example, we can calculate 1-year short rate at year 3, if we have the 3-years spot
rate and 4-years spot rate (or in other words are there are 3-year zero coupon and a 4-year
zero coupon treasury bonds trading in the market). This is because, the proceeds from an
investment in a 3-year zero coupon bond on the maturity day, reinvested for 1 year should
result in a cash flow equal to the cash flow from an investment in a 4-year zero coupon bond
(since the holding period is the same for both the strategies).
Ex a m ple 3 .1 2
If the 3-year spot rate and 4-year spot rates are 8.997% and 9.371% respectively, find the
1-year short rate at end of year 3.
Given the spot rates, proceeds from investment of Re. 1 in a 3-year zero coupon bond will be
1* 1.089973 = 1.2949.
If we reinvest this (maturity) amount in a 1-year zero coupon bond, the proceeds at year 4 will
be 1.2949*(1+r 3).
This should be equal to the proceeds from an investment of Rs. 1 in a 4-year zero coupon
bond, assuming equal holding period return.
Proceeds from investment of Re. 1 in a 4-year zero coupon bond is 1*1.093714 = 1.4309
Solving,
1.2949 * (1 + r3 ) = 1.4309
r 3= 0.11 or 11%, which is nothing but the 1 year short rate at the end of year 3.
Future short rates computed using the market price of the prevailing zero coupon bonds’ price
(or prevailing spot rates) are called forward interest rates. We use the notation f i to represent
the 1-year forward interest rate starting at year i. For example, f 2 denotes the 1-year forward
interest rate starting from year 2.
3 .6 .4 Th e t e r m st r u ct u r e of in t e r e st r a t e s
We have discussed various interest rates (spot, forward, discount rates), and also seen their
behaviour, and connections with each other. The term structure of interest rates is the set of
relationships between rates of bonds of different maturities. It is sometimes also called the
30
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
yield curve. Formally put, the term structure of interest rates defines the array of discount
factors on a collection of default-free pure discount (zero-coupon) bonds that differ only in
their term to maturity. The most common approximation to the term structure of interest rates
is the yield to maturity curve, which generally is a smooth curve and reflects the rates of
return on various default-free pure discount (zero-coupon) bonds held to maturity along with
their term to maturity.
The use of forward interest rates has long been standard in financial analysis such as in pricing
new financial instruments and in discovering arbitrage possibilities. Yield curves are also used
as a key tool by central banks in the determination of the monetary policy to be followed in a
country. The forward interest rate is interpreted as indicating market expectations of the time-
path of future interest rates, future inflation rates and future currency depreciation rates.
Since forward rates helps us indicate the expected future time path of these variables, they
allow a separation of market expectations for the short, medium and long term more easily
than the standard yield curve.
The market expectations hypothesis and the liquidity preference theory are two important
explanations of the term structure of interest in the economy. The market expectation hypothesis
assumes that various maturities are perfect substitutes of each other and that the forward
rate equals the market expectation of the future short interest rate i.e. f i = E(r i ) , where i is
a future period. Assuming minimal arbitrage opportunities, the expected interest rate can be
used to construct a yield curve. For example, we can find the 2-year yield if we know the
1-year short rate and the futures short rate for the second year by using the following formula:
(1 + y 2 )2 = (1 + r1 ) * (1 + f 2 )
Since, as per the expectation hypothesis − f 2 = E(R2 ) , the YTM can be determined solely by
y
current and expected future one-period interest rates.
Liquidity preference theory suggests that investors prefer liquidity and hence, a short-term
investment is preferred to a long-term investment. Therefore, investors will be induced to hold
a long-term investment, only by paying a premium for the same. This premium or the excess
of the forward rate over the expected interest rate is referred to as the liquidity premium.
Therefore, the forward rate will exceed the expected short rate, i.e. f 2 > E(r2 ) , where f 2 – E(r2 )
represent the liquidity premium. The liquidity premium causes the yield curve to be upward
sloping since long-term yields are higher than short-term yields.
Ex a m ple 3 .1 3
Calculate the YTM for year 2-5 if the 1-year short rate is 8% and the future rates for years
2- 5 is 8.5% (f 2), 9% (f 3), 9.5% (f 4) and 10%(f 5) respectively.
31
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Answer:
y1 = r1 = 8%
It can be seen that because of the liquidity premium, the future interest rate increases with
time and this causes the yield curve to rise with time.
Box N o. 3 .1 :
Recall that discount factors are the interest rates used at a given point in time to discount
cash flows occurring in the future, in order to obtain their present value. So how do spot
rates, forward rates, and discount rates relate to each other?
A discount function (dt,m) is the collection of discount factors at time t for all maturities
m. Spot rates (st,m), i.e., the yields earned on bonds which pay no coupon, are related to
discount factors according to:
d t , m = e m *–S1m and
1
St , m = – 1nd t , m
m
The estimation of a zero coupon yield curve is based on an assumed functional relationship
between either par yields, spot rates, forward rates or discount factors on the one hand
and maturities on the other. Par yield curves are those that reflect return on bonds that
are priced at par, which just means that the redemption yield is equal to the coupon rate
of the bond.
There is a different forward rate for every pair of maturity dates. The relation between
the yield-to-maturity (YTM) and the implied forward rate at maturity is analogous to the
relation between average and marginal costs in economics. The YTM is the average cost
of borrowing for m periods whereas the implied forward rate is the marginal cost of
extending the time period of the loan, i.e. it describes the marginal one-period interest
rate implied by the current term structure of spot interest rate. Because spot interest
32
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
rates depend on the time horizon, it is natural to define the forward rates ft,m as the
instantaneous rates which when compounded continuously up to the time to maturity,
yield the spot rates (instantaneous forward rates are thus rates for which the difference
between settlement time and maturity time approaches zero).
m
1
St , m = –
m ∫f
0
(u ) du , or we can say
y
m
0∫
d t , m = exp f (u )du
Thus, knowing any of the four means that the other four can be readily computed.
However, the real problem is that neither of these curves is easily forecast able.
The effect of interest rate risks on bond prices depends on many factors, but mainly on coupon
rates, maturity date etc. Unlike in case of zero-coupon bonds, where the cash flows are only at
the end, in the case of other bonds, the cash flows are through coupon payments and the
maturity payment. One needs to average out the time to maturity and time to various coupon
payments to find the effective maturity for a bond. The measure is called as duration of a
bond. It is the weighted (cash flow weighted) average maturity of the bond.
T
Durat ion = ∑t * w
t =1
t
The weights (Wt) associated for each period are the present value of the cash flow at each
period as a proportion to the bond price, i.e.
CFt
PV of cash flow (1 + y )t
Wt = =
Bond Price Bond Price
This measure is termed as Macaulay’s durat ion 1 or simply, duration. Higher the duration of the
bond, higher will be the sensitivity towards interest rate fluctuations and hence higher the
volatility in the bond price.
This tool is widely used in fixed income analysis. Banks and other financial institutions generally
create a portfolio of fixed income securities to fund known liabilities. The price changes for
fixed income securities are dependent mainly on the interest rate changes and the average
1
The method was designed by Frederick Macaulay in 1856 and hence named as Macaulay Duration.
33
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
maturity (duration). In order to hedge against interest rate risks, it is essential for them to
match the duration of the portfolio of fixed income securities with that of the liabilities. A bank
thus needs to rebalance its portfolio of fixed-income securities periodically to ensure that the
aggregate duration of the portfolio is kept equal to the time remaining to the target date. One
should note that the duration of a short-term bond declines faster than the duration of the
long-term bond. When interest rates fall, the reinvestment of interests (until the target date)
will yield a lower value but the capital gain arising from the bond is higher. The increase or
decrease in the coupon income arising from changes in the reinvestment rates will offset the
opposite changes in the market values of the bonds in the portfolios. The net realized yield at
the target date will be equal to the yield to maturity of the original portfolio. This is also called
bond port folio im m unizat ion.
Ex a m ple 3 .1 4
What is the duration for a 5-year maturity, 7% (semi-annual) coupon bond with yield to
maturity of 12%?
Here:
t = 1 to 10
T = 10
Coupon payment = 3.5% of 1,000 = 35
YTM = 12 % or 6% for half year.
34
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
The selling price of the bond as calculated from column (d) is Rs. 816.00. The duration of the
bond is 4.2142 years.
Since for a zero coupon bond, the cash flow is only on the maturity date, the duration equals
the bond maturity. For coupon-paying bonds, the duration will be less than the maturity period.
Since cash flows at each time are used as weights, the duration of a bond is inversely related
to the coupon rate. A bond with high coupon rate will have lower duration as compared to a
bond with low coupon rate.
Ex a m ple 3 .1 5
What is the duration for a 5-year maturity zero coupon bond with yield to maturity of 12%?
Answer: One does not need to do any calculation for answering this question. All cash flows
are only on the maturity date and hence the duration for this bond is the maturity date.
Although duration helps us in measuring the effective maturity of the bond, investors are
concerned more about the bond price sensitivity with respect to change in interest rates. In
order to measure the price sensitivity of the bond with respect to the interest rate movements,
we need to find the so-called modified duration (MD) of the bond. Modified duration is calculated
from duration (D) using the following formula:
D
MD =
y ,
1+
n
Where,
The price change sensitivity of modified duration is calculated using the following formula:
Note the use of minus (-) term. This is because price of a bond is negatively related to the yield
of the bond.
Ex a m ple 3 .1 6
Refer to the bond in Example 3 14 i.e. 5-year maturity, 7% (semi-annual) coupon bond with
yield to maturity of 12%. Calculate the change in bond price if the YTM falls to 11%.
Answer: In Example 3 14, we calculated the duration to be 4.2142 and the bond price to be
816. The modified duration of the bond is:
35
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
D 4.2142 4.2142
MD = = = = 3.976
y .12 1.06
1+ 1+
n 2
The price change will -3.976*1 = 3.976% or Rs. 816 * 3.976% = 32.45
Check: The actual market price of a 5-year maturity, 7% (semi-annual) coupon bond with YTM
= 11% would be:
T 10
∑ ∑
Coupon Face Value 35 1000
Bond Price = t
+ T
= t
+ 10
= 849.25
y y t =1 0.11 0.11
1 + 1 + 1 + 1 +
t
2 2 2 2
Note that there is still some minor differences in the actual price and the bond price calculated
using the modified duration formula, due to what is called ‘convexity’. However, we would not
be covering the concept in this chapter.
36
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
4 .1 I n t r odu ct ion
The Efficient Markets Hypothesis (EMH) is one of the main pillars of modern finance theory,
and has had an impact on much of the literature in the subject since the 1960’s when it was
first proposed and on our understanding about potential gains from active portfolio management.
Markets are efficient when prices of securities assimilate and reflect information about them.
While markets have been generally found to be efficient, the number of departures seen in
recent years has kept this topic open to debate.
4 .2 M a r k e t Efficie n cy
The extent to which the financial markets digest relevant information into the prices is an
important issue. If the prices fully reflect all relevant information instantaneously, then market
prices could be reliably used for various economic decisions. For instance, a firm can assess
the potential impact of increased dividends by measuring the price impact created by the
dividend increase. Similarly, a firm can assess the value of a new investment taken up by
ascertaining the impact on its market price on the announcement of the investment decision.
Policymakers can also judge the impact of various macroeconomic policy changes by assessing
the market value impact. The need to have an understanding about the ability of the market to
imbibe information into the prices has led to countless attempts to study and characterize the
levels of efficiency of different segments of the financial markets.
The early evidence suggests a high degree of efficiency of the market in capturing the price
relevant information. Formally, the level of efficiency of a market is characterized as belonging
to one of the following (i) weak-form efficiency (ii) semi-strong form efficiency (iii) strong-
form efficiency.
4 .2 .1 W e a k - for m M a r k e t Efficie n cy
The weak-form efficiency or random walk would be displayed by a market when the consecutive
price changes (returns) are uncorrelated. This implies that any past pattern of price changes
are unlikely to repeat by itself in the market. Hence, technical analysis that uses past price or
volume trends do not to help achieve superior returns in the market. The weak-form efficiency
of a market can be examined by studying the serial correlations in a return time series.
Absence of serial correlation indicates a weak-form efficient market.
4 .2 .2 Se m i- st r on g M a r k e t Efficie n cy
The semi-strong form efficiency implies that all the publicly available information gets reflected
in the prices instantaneously. Hence, in such markets the impact of positive (negative)
37
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
information about the stock would lead to an instantaneous increase (decrease) in the prices.
Semi-strong form efficiency would mean that no investor would be able to outperform the
market with trading strategies based on publicly available information.
The hypothesis suggests that only information that is not publicly available can benefit investors
seeking to earn abnormal returns on investments. All other information is accounted for in the
stocks price and regardless of the amount of fundamental and technical analysis one performs,
above normal returns will not be had.
The semi-strong form efficiency can be tested with event-studies. A typical event study would
involve assessment of the abnormal returns around a significant information event such as
buyback announcement, stock splits, bonus etc. Here, a time period close to the selected
event including the event date would be used to examine the abnormal returns. If the market
is semi-strong form efficient, the period after a favorable (unfavorable) event would not generate
returns beyond (less than) what is suggested by an equilibrium pricing model (such as CAPM,
which has been discussed later in the book).
4 .2 .3 St r on g M a r k e t Efficie n cy
The level of efficiency ideally desired for any market is strong form efficiency. Such efficiency
would imply that both publicly available information and privately (non-public) available
information are fully reflected in the prices instantaneously and no one can earn excess returns.
A test of strong form efficiency would be to ascertain whether insiders of a firm are able to
make superior returns compared to the market. Absence of superior return by the insiders
would imply that the market is strongly efficient. Testing the strong-form efficiency directly is
difficult. Therefore, the claim about strong form efficiency of any market at the best remains
tenuous.
In the years immediately following the proposal of the market efficiency, tests of various forms
of efficiency had suggested that the markets are reasonably efficient. Over time, this led to
the gradual acceptance of the efficiency of markets.
4 .3 D e pa r t u r e s fr om t h e EM H
Evidence accumulated through research over the past two decades, however, suggests that
during many episodes the markets are not efficient even in the weak form. The returns are
found to be correlated both for short as well as long lags during such episodes. The downward
and upward trending of prices is well documented across different markets (momentum effect).
Then there is a whole host of other documented deviations from efficiency. They include, the
predictability of future returns based on certain events and high volatility of prices compared
to volatility of the underlying fundamentals. All these evidences have started to offer a challenge
to the earlier claim of efficiency of the market. The lack of reliability about the level of efficiency
of the market prices makes it less reliable as a guideline for decision-making.
38
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Alternative prescriptions about the behaviour of markets are widely discussed these days.
Most of these prescriptions are based on the irrationality of the markets in either processing
the information related to an event or based on biased investor preferences. For instance, if
the investors on an average are overconfident about their investment ability, they would not
pay close attention to new price relevant information that arises in the market. This leads to
inadequate price response to the information event and possibly continuation of the trend due
to the under reaction. This bias in processing information is claimed to be the cause of price
momentum. Biased investor preferences include aversion to the realization of losses incurred
in a stock. This again would lead to under reaction.
The market efficiency claim was based on the assumption that irrational (biased) investors
would be exploited by the rational traders, and would eventually lose out in the market,
leading to their exit. Therefore, even in the presence of biased traders the market was expected
to evolve as efficient. However, more recent evidence suggest that the irrational traders are
not exiting the market as expected, instead at many instances they appear to make profits at
the expense of the rational traders.
Some of the well-known anomalies—or departures from market efficiency—are calendar effects
like the January effect and various day-of-the-week effects and the so-called size effect. The
January effect was first documented in the US markets—stock returns were found to be higher
in January than in any other month. Since then, it has been empirically tested in a number of
international markets, like Tokyo, London, and Paris among others. While the evidence has
been mixed, the fact that it exists implies a persistent deviation from market efficiency.
Stock returns are generally expected to be independent across weekdays, but a number of
studies have found returns on Monday to be lower than in the rest of the week. One of the
reasons put forward to explain this anomaly is that returns on Monday are expected to be
different, given that they are across Friday-end-to-Monday-morning, a much longer period
than any other day, and hence with more information. This is why this departure from market
efficiency is also sometimes called the weekend effect.
The alternative prescriptions about the behaviour of markets based on various sources and
forms of investor irrationality are collectively known as behavioral finance. It implies that (i)
the estimation of expected returns based on methods such as the capital asset pricing model
is unreliable, and (ii) there could be many profitable trading strategies based on the collective
irrationality of the markets.
Departures from market efficiency, or the delays in markets reaching equilibrium (and thus
efficiency) leave scope for active portfolio managers to exploit mispricing in securities to their
benefit. A number of investment strategies are tailored to profit from such phenomena, as we
would see in later chapters.
39
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
5 .1 I n t r odu ct ion
A company’s financial statements provide the most accurate information to its management
and shareholders about its operations, efficiency in the allocation of its capital and its earnings
profile. Three basic accounting statements form the backbone of financial analysis of a company:
the income statement (profit & loss), the balance sheet, and the statement of cash flows. Let
us quickly summarize each of these.
A profit & loss statement provides an account of the total revenue generated by a firm during
a period (usually a financial year or a quarter), the expenses involved and the money earned.
In its simplest form, revenue generation or sales accrues from selling the products manufactured,
or services rendered by the company. Operating expenses include the costs of these goods
and services and the costs incurred during the manufacture. Beyond operating expenses are
interest costs based on the debt profile of the company. Taxes payable to the Government are
then debited to provide the Profit After Tax (PAT) or the net income to the shareholders of the
company.
Actual P&L statements of companies are usually much more complicated than this, with so-
called ‘other income’ (income from non-core activities), ‘negative’ interest expenses (from
cash reserves with the company), preferred dividends, and non-recurring, exceptional income
or expenses. The example given below is that of a large company in the Pharmaceutical sector
over the period 2006-2008.
40
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
I llu st r a t ion 5 .1
EBI T 4 ,4 5 7 5 ,9 2 6 1 4 ,5 4 3
Associates 0 0 0
Exceptional items 0 0 0
Pr e t a x pr ofit 5 ,8 6 9 8 ,3 3 4 1 5 ,9 9 4
Preferred dividends 0 0 0
Re por t e d n e t in com e 5 ,7 3 3 7 ,8 4 3 1 4 ,8 6 9
5 .2 .2 Th e Ba la n ce Sh e e t
Assets owned by a company are financed either by equity or debt and the balance sheet of a
company is a snapshot of this capital structure of the firm at a point in time; the sources and
applications of funds of the company.
A company owns fixed assets (machinery, and other infrastructure), current assets
(manufacturing goods in progress, money it expects to receive from business partners—
receivables, inventory etc.), cash and other financial investments. In addition to these three,
a company could also own other assets which carry value, but are not directly marketable, like
patents, trademarks, and ‘goodwill’—value not linked to assets, but realized from acquisitions.
These assets are financed either by the company’s equity (investments by shareholders) or by
debt. The illustrative example shown below is the balance sheet of a large Pharmaceutical
company.
41
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
I llu st r a t ion 5 .2
5 .2 .3 Ca sh Flow St a t e m e n t
The cash flow statement is the most important among the three financial statements, particularly
from a valuations perspective. As the name implies, such a statement is used to track the cash
flows in the company over a period. Cash flows are tracked across operating, investing, and
financing activities. Cash flows from operations include net income generation adjusted for
changes in working capital (like inventories, receivables and payables), and non-core accruals
(like depreciation, etc). A firm’s investment activities comprise fixed, and current assets (capital-
and operating expenditure), sometimes into other firms (like an acquisition), and generally
represent negative cash flows. Cash flows in financing activities are the net result of the firm’s
borrowing, and payments during the period. The sum total of cash flows from these three
heads represents the net change in cash balances of the firm over the period.
42
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Cash generation from operating activities of the firm, when adjusted for its capital expenditure
represent the ‘free cash’ available to it, for potential investment activities, acquiring other
firms or businesses, or distribution among its shareholders. As we will see in later topics, free
cash flows are the key to calculating the so-called intrinsic value of an asset in any discounted
valuation model. Our illustrative example below shows the cash flow statement (and free cash
flows) of a large pharmaceutical company over the period 2006-2008.
I llu st r a t ion 5 .3
Financial ratios are meaningful links between different entries of financial statements, as by
themselves the financial entries offer little to examine a company. In addition to providing
information about the financial health and prospects of a company, financial ratios also allow
a company to be viewed, in a relative sense, in comparison with its own historical performance,
others in its sector of the economy, or between any two companies in general. In this section
we examine a few such ratios, grouped into categories that allow comparison of size, solvency,
43
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
operating performance, growth profile and risks. The list below is by no means exhaustive,
and merely serves to illustrate a few of the important ones.
5 .3 .2 M e a su r e s of Liqu idit y
Short-term liquidity is imperative for a company to remain solvent. The ratios below get
increasingly conservative in terms of the demands on a firm to meet near-term payables.
Current ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities
Quick Ratio = (Cash + Marketable Securities + Receivables) / Current Liabilities
Acid test ratio = (Cash + Marketable Securities) / Current Liabilities
Cash Ratio = (Cash + Marketable Securities) / Current Liabilities
5 .3 .4 Ope r a t in g Pe r for m a n ce
Gross Profit Margin = Gross Profit / Net Sales
Operating Profit Margin = Operating Income / Net Sales
Net Profit Margin = Net Income / Net Sales
44
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
We shall take a look at another two categories, the market measures, and valuation ratios,
after the discussion on valuations.
In chapter 3, we examined a few of the major valuation methods for fixed income-generating
assets. Using financial statements and ratios, we now examine some of the concepts relating
to share valuations and to be more specific, we will deal with valuation of common stocks.
Common shareholders are the owners of the firm, and as such are the final stakeholders in its
growth, and risks; they appoint the management to run its day-to-day affairs and the Board of
Directors to oversee the management’s activities. The cash flows (return) to common
shareholders from the company are generally in the form of current and future dividends
distributed from the profits of the firm. Alternatively, an investor can always sell her holdings
in the market (secondary market), get the prevailing market price, and realize capital
appreciation if the returns are positive.
We now examine the valuation of common shares in some detail. As mentioned above, the
valuation of any asset is based on the present value of its future cash flows. Such a methodology
provides what is called the ‘int rinsic’ value of the asset—a common stock in our case. The
problem of valuing the stock then translates into one of predicting the future free cash flow
profile of the company, and then using the appropriate discount factor to measure what they
are worth today. The appropriately named discounted-cash flow technique is also referred to
as absolute valuation, particularly when compared to another widely-followed approach in
valuation, called relative valuation.
Relative valuation looks at pricing assets on the basis of the pricing of other, similar assets—
instead of pricing them independently—the core assumption being that assets with similar
earnings and growth profile, and facing the same risks ought to be priced comparably. Two
stocks in the same sector of the economy could thus be compared, and the same sector (and
its stocks) across countries. The discussion on relative valuation follows that of absolute or
intrinsic valuation.
Intrinsic value or the fundamental value refers to the value of a security, which is intrinsic to or
contained in the security itself. It is defined as the present value of all expected cash flows to
the company. The estimation of intrinsic value is what we would be dealing with in details in
this chapter.
5 .4 .1 .1 D iscou n t e d Ca sh Flow s
The discounted cash flow method values the share based on the expected dividends from the
45
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
shares. The price of a share according to the discounted cash flow method is calculated as
under:
∞
∑ (1 + r )
Div t
P0 = t
t =1
Since the profits of the firm are not certain, the actual future dividends are not known in
advance. However, the market forms an expectation of the future dividends and the value of a
share is the present value of expected future dividends of the company. It can be shown that
Div 1 + P1
the formula can be seen as an extension of the formula P0 = .
(1 + r )
As explained above, we can write the share price at the end of the year 1 as a function of the
2nd year dividend and price of share at the end of the year 2. Or,
Div 2 + P2
P1 =
(1 + r )
Similarly,
Div 3 + P3
P2 = and so on.
(1 + r )
Putting the values of P1, P2, P3, P4, we can write:
PN
Now when N tends to infinity, (1 + r )N tends to infinity and the value of tends to zero
(1 + r )N
and therefore may be ignored. So the current share price (P0) can be written as:
∞
∑ (1 + r )
Div t
P0 = t
t =1
5 .4 .1 .2 Con st a n t D ivide n d Gr ow t h
Let us see a special case of the above model when it is assumed that amount paid as dividends
grows at a constant rate (say g) every year. In this case, the cash flows in various years will be
as under:
Year Cash Flow
0 -P0
1 Div1
2 Div2 = Div1*(1+g)
3 Div3 = Div2*(1+g) = Div1*(1+g)2
4 Div4 = Div3*(1+g) = Div2*(1+g)2= Div1*(1+g)3
In this circumstance, where the dividend amount grows at a constant rate, the constant dividend
46
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
growth model states that the share price can be obtained using the simple formula:
Div 1
P0 =
r –g
This formula can be used only when the expected rate of return (r) is greater than the growth
rate (g). Otherwise, the present value of the growing perpetuity will reach infinite. This is even
true in real world. It is not possible for a stock’s dividend to grow at a rate g, which is greater
than r for infinite period. It can only be for a limited number of years. This model is not
applicable in such cases.
Example: RNL has paid a dividend of Rs. 10 per share last year (D0) and it is expected to grow
at 5% every year. If an investor’s expected rate of return from RNL share is 7%, calculate the
market price of the share as per the dividend discount model.
The market price of RNL share as per the dividend discount model with constant growth rate is
Rs. 525.
If we know the market price of the share, the dividend amount and the dividend growth rate,
then we can compute the expected rate of return (r) by using the following formula:
Div 1
r = + g
P0
5 .4 .1 .3 Pr e se n t Va lu e of Gr ow t h oppor t u n it ie s ( PVGO)
One can split the value of the shares as computed in the constant growth model into two parts
– the present value of the share assuming level stream of earnings (a level stream of earnings
is simply the current income extrapolated into the future, with no growth; in which case,
there’s no need to retain any of the earnings) and the present value of growth opportunities.
The value of growth opportunities is positive if the firm (and the market) believes that the firm
has avenues to invest which will generate a return that is more than the market expected rate
of return. Now when the firm’s income potential from additional investment is more than the
market expected rate of return, then for every penny re-invested (plowbacked rather than
distributed as dividend) will generate a return that is higher than the market expectation. The
47
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
The growth in the future dividend arises because the firms, instead of distributing 100% of the
earnings as dividends, plowbacks and invests certain portion of the current year profit on
projects whose yield will be greater than the market expected rate of return.
The growth rate in dividend (g), equals, the Plowback ratio * ROE.
Using the above concepts, we are now in a position to look at valuation using cash flows, with
the discounted free cash flow model. We first determine the value of the enterprise and then
value the equity by deducting the debt value from the firm value. Thus:
Market value of equity (V0) = Value of the firm + Cash in hand – Debt Value
The price of the share (P0) is the market value of the equity divided by the number of shares
outstanding.
It is simple to calculate the debt value since the payments to be made to debt holders is
predetermined and certain. However, the real problem lies with determining the value of the
firm. As per the discounted free cash flow model, the value of a firm is the present value of the
future free cash flow of the firm. The discounting rate is the firms weighted average cost of
capital (WACC) and not the market expected rate of return on equity investment. WACC is the
cost of capital that reflects the risk of the overall business and not the risk associated with the
equity investment alone. WACC is calculated using the following formula:
D E
WACC = r D (1 – T ) * + rE *
D+ E D+ E
where
The terminal value at year N is often computed by assuming that the FCF will grow at a
constant growth rate beyond year N, i.e.
48
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
What is free cash flow (FCF)? The free cash measures the cash generated by the firm that can
be distributed to the equity shareholders after budgeting for capital expenditure and working
capital requirements. While computing FCF, we assume that the firm is a 100% equity owned
company and hence we do not consider any payment to debt or equity holders while calculating
the free cash flow. Thus the formula for computing FCF is:
Term inal VFCF = EBI T * (1 – T ) + Depn – Capit al Expendit ure – I ncrease in Working Capit al
where T in t he t ax rat e.
We start with EBIT since we do not consider cash outflow in the form of interest payments.
Depreciation lowers the EBIT but is added back since it is a non-cash expenditure (does not
result in cash payments). Since the firm has to incur any planned capital expenditure and has
to finance any working capital requirement before distributing the profits to the shareholders
the same is deducted while calculating the free cash flows.
5 .4 .2 Re la t ive Va lu a t ion
Relative valuation models do calculate the share price but they are generally based on the
valuation of comparable firms in the industry. Various valuation multiples such as price-earning
ratio, enterprise value multiples, etc. are used by the finance professionals which depends on
the industry, current economic scenario, etc. Most of these models are generally used for
evaluation purpose as to whether a particular stock is overvalued or undervalued and less for
actual valuation of the shares.
As discussed in the first chapter, the face value or nominal value of a share is the price printed
on the share certificate. One should not confuse a share’s nominal value with the price at
which the company issues shares to the public. The price at which a company issues shares
may be more or less than the face value. The issue price is generally more than the face value
and the difference between the issue price and the face value is called as share premium.
Market price is the price at which the share is traded in the market. It is determined by the
demand and supply of the share in the market and depends on the market (buyers and sellers)
estimation of the present value of all future cash flows to the company. In an efficient market,
we assume that the market is able to gather all information about the company and price
accordingly. Market capitalization of a company is the total value of all shares of the company
and is calculated by multiplying the market price per share with the number of shares outstanding
in the market.
49
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
5 .4 .2 .1 Ea r n in g pe r Sh a r e ( EPS)
Earning per share is the firms’ net income divided by the average number of shares outstanding
during the year.
Calculated as:
Net Proift – Dividend on Preference Shares
EPS =
Average num ber of shares out st anding during t he year
5 .4 .2 .2 D ivide n d pe r Sh a r e ( D PS)
Dividends are a form of profit distribution to the shareholders. The firm may not distribute the
entire income to the shareholders, but decide to retain some portion of it for financing growth
opportunities. Alternatively, a firm may pay dividends from past years profit during years
where there is insufficient income. In this case, the dividends amount will be higher than the
earnings. The dividend per share is the amount that the firm pays as dividend to the holder of
one share i.e. total dividend / number of shares in issue.
The dividend payout ratio (DPR) measures the percentage of income that the company pays
out to the shareholders in the form of dividends. The formula for calculating DPR is:
Dividends DPS
DPR = =
Net I ncom e EPS
Retention ratio is the opposite of dividend payout ratio and measures the percentage of net
income not paid to the shareholders in the form of dividends. It is nothing but (1-DPR).
Calculate the earnings per share (EPS), dividend per share (DPS), dividend payout ratio and
50
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Answer:
Opening + closing 150,000 + 250,000
Aver age num ber of shar es = = = 200,000
2 2
Dividends 4,00,000
DPS = = =2
Average Num ber of shares 200,000
DPS 2
DPR = = = 0.4 or 40 %
EPS 5
5 .4 .2 .3 Pr ice - e a r n in gs r a t io ( P/ E Ra t io)
Price earning ratio for a company is calculated by dividing the market price per share with the
earnings per share (EPS).
The earning per share is usually calculated for the last one year. Sometimes, we also calculate
the PE ratio using the expected future one-year return. In such case, we call forward PE or
estimated PE ratio.
Example: Stock XYZ, whose earning per share is Rs. 50 is trading in the market at Rs. 2000.
What is the price to earnings ratio for XYZ?
Answer:
Market price per share 2000
Price Earnings Rat io = = = 40
Annual earning per share 50
5 .4 .2 .4 Pr ice - Book Ra t io
The price-book ratio is widely used as a conservative measure of relative valuation of an asset,
where the assets of the firm are valued at book. Investors also widely use the ratio to judge
whether the stock is undervalued or overvalued, as it’s less susceptible to fluctuations than the
51
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Price-book ratio = Market price of the share / Book Value per share.
5 .4 .2 .5 Re t u r n on Equ it y
Return on equity measures profitability from the equity shareholders point of view. It is the
return to the equity shareholders and is measured by the following formula:
Net I ncom e aft er Tax – Preferred Dividends
ROE =
Average Shareholder Equit y Excluding Preferred Share Capit al
Example: XYZ Company net income after tax for the financial year ending 31st March, 2009
was Rs. 10 million and the equity share capital as on 31st March, 2008 and 31st March 2009
was Rs. 80 million and Rs. 120 million respectively. Calculate the return on equity of
XYZ company for the year 2008-09.
Answer:
Opening Equit y + Closing Equit y 80 + 120
Aver age Equit y = = = 100 m illion
2 2
5 .4 .2 .6 Th e D u Pon t M ode l
The Du Pont model is widely used to decide the determinants of return profitability of a company,
or a sector of the economy. Returns on shareholder equity are expressed in terms of a company’s
profit margins, asset turn, and its financial leverage.
= Net Profits/Equity
The first component measures the operational efficiency of the firm through its net margin
ratio. The second component, called the asset turnover ratio, measures the efficiency in usage
of assets by the firm and the third component measures the financial leverage of the firm
through the equity multiplier. The analysis reflects a firms’ efficiency in different aspects of
business and is widely used now for control purpose. It shows that the firm could improve its
RoE by a combination of profitability (higher profit margins), raising leverage (by raising debt),
by using its assets better (higher asset turn) or a combination of all three.
52
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
The DuPont analysis could be easily extended to ascertain a sector’s profitability metrics for
comparability, or, for that matter, an entire market.
5 .4 .2 .7 D ivide n d Yie ld
Dividend yield is the ratio between the dividend paid during the last 1-year period and the
current price of the share. The ratio could also be used with the forward dividend yield instead—
expected dividends, for either the next 12 months, or the financial year.
Example: ABC Company paid a dividend of Rs. 5 per share in 2009 and the market price of
ABC share at the end of 2009 was Rs. 25. Calculate the dividend yield for ABC stock.
Answer:
5 .4 .2 .8 Re t u r n t o I n ve st or
The return what the investor earns during a year by holding the share of a company is not
equal to the dividend per share or the earnings per ratio. An investor’s earning is the sum of
the dividend amount that he received from the company and the change in the market price of
the share. The investment amount is equal to the market price of the share at the beginning of
the year. An investor’s return can be calculated using the following formula:
Example: The share price of PQR Company on 1st April 2008 and 31st March 2009 is Rs. 80
and Rs. 84 respectively. The company paid a dividend of Rs. 6 for the year 2008-09. Calculate
the return for a shareholder of PQR Company in the year 2008-09.
Answer:
If we write the dividends during the year as Div1, the price of the share at the beginning and
at the end of the year as P0 and P1 respectively, we can write the above formula as:
Div 1 + P1 – P0
r =
P0
Div 1 – P1
P0 =
(1 + r )
53
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
This implies that given the expected rate of return for an investor, the price of a share can be
calculated based on the investor expectation of the future dividends and the future share
price. We have already learned in the previous chapter about the factors that affect the expected
rate of returns and how one can calculate the expected rate of returns (e.g. using CAPM). Now
the question arises what determines the next year price (P1) of a share.
5 .5 Te ch n ica l An a ly sis
Our final approach to valuation is also considered the most controversial, with the numbers of
believers balancing those who find fault with the methodology. Technical analysis involves
making trading decisions by studying records or charts of past stock prices and volume, and in
the case of futures, open interest.
The technical analysts do not attempt to measure a security’s intrinsic value but believe in
making short-term profit by analyzing the volume and price patterns and trends. Technical
analysts use statistical tools like time series analysis (in particular trend analysis), relative
strength index, moving averages, regressions, price correlations, etc. The field of technical
analysis is based on the following three assumptions.
a) The market discounts everything: Technical analysts believe that the market price
takes into consideration the intrinsic value of the stocks along with broader economic
factors and the market psychology. Therefore, what is important is an analysis of the
price movement that reflects the demand and supply of a stock in the short run.
b) Price moves in trends: Trends are of three types, viz. uptrend, downtrend and horizontal
trend. Technical analysts believe that once trends are established in the prices, the
price moves in the same direction as the trends suggests.
c) History tends to repeat itself: This assumption leads to a belief that current investors
repeat the behavior of the investors that preceded them and therefore recognizable
price patterns can be observed if a chart is drawn.
There are various concepts that are used by technical analysts like support prices, resistance
levels, breakouts, momentum, etc. These concepts can be heard very often in business channels
and business newspapers. Supports refer to the price level through which a stock price seldom
falls and resistance is the price level through which a stock seldom surpasses. Breakout refers
to situation when the price actually falls below the support level or rises above the resistance
level. Once a breakout occurs, the role is reversed. If the price increases beyond the resistance
level, the resistance level becomes the support level and when the price falls below the support
level, the support level becomes the new resistance level for the stock. Momentum refers to
the rate at which price of a stock changes.
54
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
There are many questions, primarily raised by fundamental analysts, about the assumptions
of technical analysis. While it is understandable that price movements are caused by the
interaction of supply and demand of securities and that the market assimilates this information
(as mentioned in the first assumption), there is no consensus on the speed of this adjustment
or its extent. In other words, while prices may react to changes in demand-supply and other
market dynamics, the response could easily differ across securities, both in the time taken,
and the degree to which prices change. Other objections to technical analysis arise from
Efficient Markets Hypothesis, which we have seen in Chapter 4. Proponents of the EMH aver
that market efficiency would preclude any technical trading patterns to repeat with any
predictable accuracy, rendering the profitability of most such trading rules subject to chance.
Further, the success of a trading rule could also make it crowded, in the sense that most
technical traders follow a small set of rules (albeit with possibly different parameterizations),
speeding up the adjustment of the market, and thus reducing the potential gains. Finally,
technical analysis involves meaningful levels of subjectivity-interpretations may vary widely
on the same pattern of stock, or index prices-which also hinders systematic reasoning and
extensibility across different securities.
55
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
6 .1 I n t r odu ct ion
Understanding the risky behaviour of asset and their pricing in the market is critical to various
investment decisions, be it related to financial assets or real assets. This understanding is
mostly developed through the analysis and generalization of the behaviour of individual investors
in the market under certain assumptions. The two building blocks of this analysis and
generalization are (i) theory about the risk-return characteristics of assets in a portfolio (portfolio
theory) and (ii) generalization about the preferences of investors buying and selling risky
assets (equilibrium models). Both these aspects are discussed in detail in this chapter, where
our aim is to provide a brief overview of how finance theory treats stocks (and other assets)
individually, and at a portfolio level. We first examine the modern approach to understanding
portfolio management using the trade-off between risk and ret urn and then look at some
equilibrium asset-pricing models. Such models help us understand the theoretical underpinning
and (hopefully predict) the dynamic movement of asset prices.
The age-old wisdom about not putting “all your eggs in one basket” applies very much in the
case of portfolios. Portfolio risk (generally defined as the st andard deviat ion of returns) is not
the weighted average of the risk (standard deviation) of individual assets in the portfolio. This
gives rise to opportunities to eliminate the risk of assets, at least partly, by combining risky
assets in a portfolio. To give an example, consider a hypothetical portfolio with say, ten stocks.
Each of these stocks has a risk profile, a simple and widely used indicator of which is the
standard deviation of its returns. Intuitively, the overall risk of the portfolio simply ought to be
an aggregation of individual portfolio risks, in other words, portfolio risk simply ought to be a
weighted average of individual stock risks. Our assertion here is that the risk of the portfolio is
usually much lower. Why? As we shall see in the discussion here, this is largely due to the
interrelationships that exist between stock price movements. These so-called covariances
between stocks, could be positive, negative, or zero. An example of two IT services stocks,
reacting favourably to a depreciation in the domestic currency—as their export realizations
would rise in the domestic currency—is one of positive covariance. If however, we compare
one IT services company with another from the metals space, say steel, which has high foreign
debt, then a drop in the share price of the steel company (as the falling rupee would increase
the debt-service payments of the steel firm) and rise in share price of the IT services company,
would provide an example of negative covariance. It follows that we would expect to have zero
covariance between stocks whose movements are not related.
56
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Let us now examine why and how portfolio risk is different from the weighted risk of constituent
assets. Assume that we have the following two stocks, as given in table 6.1 here, and then
assume further that the returns of the two hypothetical stocks behave in opposite directions.
When A gives high returns, B does not and vice versa. We know this is quite possible, as in our
earlier comparison of a software company with a commodity play. For a portfolio with 60%
invested in A, the portfolio standard deviation becomes zero. Although the two stocks involved
were risky (indicated by the standard deviations), a portfolio of the two stocks with a certain
weight may become totally risk-free. The table below shows a portfolio of the two stocks with
weight of Stock A (W) being 0.6 and weight of stock B being (1-0.6) or 0.4. It can be seen that
irrespective of the market condition, the portfolio gives a return of 10%.
Standard deviation 5% 7% 0%
Correlation -1.0
Why does the portfolio standard deviation go to zero? Intuitively, the negative deviation in the
returns of one stock is getting offset by the positive deviation in the other stock. Let us
examine this in a somewhat more formal and general context.
Let us assume that you can form portfolios with two stocks, A & B, having the following
characteristics:
The total available amount that can be invested, is Re. 1. The proportional investments in each
of the stocks are as below,
57
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Stock A = W
Stock B = (1 - W)
σ 2p = W 2 σ 2A + (1 – W )2 σ 2B + 2W (1 – W ) Cov ( A, B)
That is, we would show that the variance of our portfolio, as denoted by the left hand side of
this equation, is dependent on the variance of stock A, that of stock B, and a third term, called
Cov(A,B). It is this third term that denotes the interrelationship between the two stocks. As
discussed before, such a relation could be positive, negative or zero. In cases with negative
covariance, portfolio variance would actually be lower than the (weighted) sum of stock
variances! In other words, since variance (or standard deviation) is the primary metric of risk
measurement, then we can say that the risk of the portfolio would be lower than individual
stocks considered separately.
RP = W RA + (1 – W )RB (1)
RP = W RA + (1 – W ) RB (2)
where, RP = Return on the portfolio and RP = Mean return on the portfolio. Let,
σ P = Std.deviation of portfolio returns, then the variance of the portfolio returns can be
derived as,
∑ (R – RP )
1 2
σ2P = p (3)
n
with a straightforward rearrangement and substitution for RP = and RP = from the expressions
(1) and (2), the portfolio variance is,
∑ (R )2 + (1 – W )2 ∑ (R )2 + 2W (1 – W ) 1n ∑ (RA – RA ) (RB – RB )
2 1 1
=W A – RA B – RB
n n
We know that,
∑ (R )2 = σ2A
1
A – RA ,
n
∑ (R )2 = σ2B
1
B – RB
n
58
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
∑ (R )( )
1
A – RA RB – RB = Cov ( A, B)
n
The covariance can be regarded as a measure of how much two variables change together
from their means. It can also be expressed as, Cov ( A, B) = ρ A, B σ A σ B , where ρ A, B is the
correlation between returns of stocks A and B. Therefore, if the correlation is positive and the
stocks have high standard deviations, then the covariance would be positive and large. It
would be negative if the correlation is negative.
Equation (4) suggests that the total portfolio variance comprises the weighted sum of variances
and weighted sum of the covariances too. Let us examine the insights from expression (4) for
the variance of combinations of stocks (or any other asset) with varying level of correlations.
Given the nature of the return relationship between the A and B (in Table 6.1), it is easy to see
that their correlation is -1.0. For the portfolio of stock A and B, the risk becomes zero, when
weight of stock A (W) = 0.6.
Covar -0.001728
Although the two stocks involved were risky (indicated by the standard deviations), one of
their possible combinations becomes totally risk-free. The variances of the individual stocks
are offset by their covariance in the portfolio (as shown in Table 6.2).
When the correlation between the two stocks is 1.0, the standard deviation of the portfolio
shall be just a weighted average of the standard deviation of the two stocks involved. This
implies that a portfolio with two perfectly positively correlated stocks cannot reduce risk. The
minimum portfolio standard deviation would always correspond to that of the stock with the
least standard deviation.
The standard deviation of the portfolio with two uncorrelated (correlation = 0) stocks would
always be lower than the case with correlation 1.0. It is possible to choose a value for W in
such a way, so that the portfolio risk can be brought down below that of the least less risky
stock involved in the portfolio.
59
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
However, in the real world the correlations almost always lie between 0 and 1. It is very
straightforward to understand that the variance of portfolios with stocks having correlation in
the 0 to 1 range would certainly be lower than those with stocks having correlation 1. At the
same time, the variance of these portfolios shall be higher than those with uncorrelated stocks.
Let us examine if we can reduce the portfolio variance by combining stocks with correlation in
the range of 0 to 1. Consider the two stocks, ACC and Dr. Reddy’s Laboratories (DRL) with
correlation around 0.21. As given in the following table, for a unique combination, the total
variance (standard deviation) of the portfolio is less than that of ACC, the least risky stock.
The details of the risk of this portfolio are provided in the following table.
This suggests that for certain values of W, the variance of the portfolio can be brought down by
combining securities with correlation the range of 0 to 1.
60
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Note: the portfolio sigma is the standard deviation. The portfolios are created by using actual
return data and assumed correlations, except 0.4, which is the actual correlation between the
two stocks.
With these insights we can now examine the behaviour of portfolios with a larger number of
assets.
6 .2 .1 Por t folio va r ia n ce - Ge n e r a l ca se
Let us assume that there are N stocks available for generating portfolios. Then, the portfolio
variance (given by equation 4) can be expressed as,
σ2P = ∑W i
2
σ2i + ∑∑W W σ i i ij (5)
where W i is the proportional investment in each of the assets and σij is the covariance between
the pair of assets i and j . The double summation sign in the second part indicates that the
covariance would appear for all possible combinations of i and j , except with themselves. For
i nst ance, if th ere are 3 st ocks, th ere woul d be six covarian ce t erms
(1-2, 1-3, 2-1, 2-3, 3-1, 3-2).
To examine the characteristics of including a large number of stocks in the portfolio, assume
that
1
Wi =
N
1 1
σ2P = ∑ σ2i + ∑ ∑ σ ij
N2 N2
61
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
1 1 2 N –1 1
= ∑ σi + ∑∑ σ ij
N N N N(N – 1)
1 2 N –1
= σi + σ ij
N N
1 1
= ( Avg. Variance) + 1 – ( Avg. Covariance )
N N
we create an equally weighted portfolio (equal investment in the stocks) of N asset s. Then,
2. Even by including a large number of assets, the portfolio variance cannot be reduced
to zero (except when they are perfectly negatively correlated). The part of the risk
that cannot be eliminated by diversifying through investments across assets is called
the m arket risk (also called the syst em at ic risk or non- diversifiable risk). This is
something all of us commonly experience while investing in the market. One can
reduce the risk of exposure to say HCL Technologies in the IT industry, by including
other stocks from the IT industry, like Infosys technologies, Tech Mahindra and so on.
If you consider the exposure to IT industry alone is troubling, you can also spread your
investment to other industries like Banking, Telecom, Consumer products and so on.
Going further, you can even invest across different markets, if you do not like to be
exposed to anyone economy alone. But even after international diversification a certain
amount of risk would remain. (international markets in the globalize world tend to
move together). This is the market risk or systematic risk or non-diversifiable risk.
3. Given the above, it appears that the relevant risk of an asset is what it contributes to
a widely-held portfolio, in other words, its covariance risk.
The most important insight from the analysis of portfolio risk is that a part of the portfolio
variance can be diversified away (unsystematic or diversifiable risk) by selecting securities
with less than perfect correlation. This along with the other insights obtained from the analysis
would help us to understand the pricing of risky assets in the equilibrium for any asset in the
capital market, under certain assumptions.
62
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
• All investors are m ean - v ar iance optimizers. This implies that investors are
concerned only about the mean and variance of asset returns. Investors would
either prefer portfolios which offer higher ret urn for t he sam e level of risk or
prefer portfolios which offer m inim um risk for a given level of ret urn (the indirect
assumption of mean-variance investors is that all other characteristics of the assets
are captured by the mean and variance).
• Investors have homogenous information about different assets. The well-organized
financial markets have remarkable ability to digest information almost
instantaneously (largely reflected as the price variation in response to sensitive
information).
• Transaction costs are absent in the market and securities can be bought and sold
without significant price impact.
• Investors have the same investment horizon.
Given these assumptions, it is not impossible to see that substantive arbitrage opportunities
would not exist in the market. For instance, if there is a portfolio which gives a higher return
for same level of risk, investors would prefer that portfolio compared to the existing one.
In light of the behaviour of portfolio risk and the above assumptions, let us try to visualize
what would be the relationship between risk and return of assets in the equilibrium.
6 .3 .1 M e a n - Va r ia n ce I n ve st or s a n d M a r k e t Be h a viou r
We can use a so-called mean-variance space to examine the aggregate behaviour of the
market (as all investors are mean-variance optimizers, these are the only variables that matter).
Evidently, all the assets in the market can be mapped on to a return-standard deviation space
as follows.
Source: NSE
63
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
All these stocks (in figure 6.2) have correlations between 0 and 1. Therefore, their combination
could theoretically be characterized as given in figure 6.3.
All the feasible portfolio combinations can be represented by the space enclosed by the curved
line and the straight-line. The curved line represents combinations of stocks or portfolios
where correlations are less than 1, whereas portfolios along the straight-line represent
combinations of stocks or portfolios with the maximum correlation (+1.0) (no portfolios would
lie to the right of the straight-line).
Obviously, a mean-variance investor would prefer portfolio A to B, given that it has lower risk
for the same level of return offered by B. Similarly, portfolio A would be preferred to portfolio
C, given that it offers higher return for the same level of risk. D is the minimum variance
portfolio among the entire feasible set. A close examination of the feasible set of portfolios
reveals that portfolios that lie along D-E represent the best available combination of portfolios.
Investors with various risk tolerance levels can choose one of these portfolios. These
portfolios offer the maximum return for any given level of risk. Therefore, these are called the
efficient port folios (and the set of all such portfolios, the efficient front ier), as represented in
Figure 6.4.
64
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Figu r e 6 .4 : Efficie n t Fr on t ie r
Ordinarily, the investor also has the opportunity to invest in a risk-free asset. Practically, this
could be a bank deposit, treasury bills, Government securities or Government guaranteed
bonds. With the availability of a risk-free security, the choice facing the mean-variance investor
can be conveniently characterised as follows:
As given in figure 6.5, with the presence of the risk-free asset, that has no correlation with any
other risky asset, the investor also gets an added opportunity to combine portfolios along the
efficient frontier with the risk-free asset. This would imply that the investor could partly put
the money in the risky security and the remaining in any of the risky portfolios.
Apparently, the portfolio choice of the mean-variance investor is no more the securities along
the efficient frontier (D-E). If an investor prefers less risk, then rather than choosing D by
going down the efficient frontier, he can choose G, a combination of risky portfolio M and the
risk-free asset. G gives a higher return for the level of risk of D. In fact, the same applies for
65
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
all the portfolios along the efficient frontier that lie between D and M (they offer only lower
returns compared to those which lie along the straight-line connecting the risk-free asset and
risky portfolio M).
This gives the powerful insight that, with the presence of the risk-free security, the most
preferred portfolio along the efficient frontier would be M (portfolios to the right of M along the
straight line indicates borrowing at the risk-free rate and investing in M).
An investor who does not want to take the risk of M, would be better off by combining with the
risk-free security rather than investing in risky portfolios with lower standard deviation (that
lie along the M-D).
Identification of M as the optimal portfolio, combined with the assumptions (1) that all investors
have the same information about mean and variance of securities and (2) they all have the
same investment horizon, suggest that all the investors would hold only the following portfolios
depending on the risk appetite.
2. The portfolio of risky assets and risk-free asset, which would be a combination of
M and RF.
All other portfolios are inferior to these choices, for any level of risk preferred by the investors.
Let us examine what would be the nature of the portfolio M. If all investors are mean-variance
optimizers and have the same information, their portfolios would invariably be the same.
Then, all of them would identify the same portfolio as M. Obviously, it should be a combination
of all the risky stocks (assets) available in the market (somebody should be willing to hold all
the assets available on the market). This portfolio is referred to as the market portfolio.
Practically, the m a r k e t por t folio can be regarded as one represented by a very liquid index
like the NIFTY. The line connecting the market portfolio to the risk-free asset is called the
Ca pit a l M ar k e t Lin e ( CM L) . All points along the CML have superior risk-return profiles to any
portfolio on the efficient frontier.
With the understanding about the aggregate behaviour of the investors in the securities market,
we can estimate the risk premium that is required for any asset. Understanding the risk
premium dramatically solves the asset pricing problem through the estimation of the discounting
factor to be applied to the expected cash flows from the asset. With the expected cash flows
and the discounting rate, the price of any risky asset can be directly estimated.
Let RM be the required rate of return on the market (market portfolio, M), RF be the required
rate of return on the risk free asset and σM be the standard deviation of the market portfolio..
From Figure 6.5, the rate of risk premium required for unit variance of the market is
estimated as,
66
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
RM – RF
(6)
σ 2M
In a very liquid market (where assets can be bought and sold without much hassles), investor
has the opportunity to hold stocks as a portfolio rather than in isolation. If investors have the
opportunity to hold a well-diversified portfolio, the only risk that matters in the individual
security is the incremental risk that it contributes to a well-diversified portfolio. Therefore, the
risk relevant to the prospective investor (or firm) is the covariance risk. Then, one can compute
the risk premium required on the security as follows
RM – RF
Risk prem ium on st ock = × Cov (i , M )
σ 2M
where, Cov( i,M) , is the covariance between the returns of stock i and the market returns
Cov (i , M )
(returns on portfolio M). The quantity represented by is popularly called the beta
σ2M
( β ). This measures the sensitivity of the security compared to the market. A beta of 2.0
indicates that if the market moves down (up) by 1%, the security is expected to move down
(up) 2%. Therefore, we would expect twice the risk premium as compared to the market. This
implies that the minimum expected return on this stock is 2 x (Rm – Rf ) . In general, the risk
premium on a security is β times (Rm – Rf ) . Obviously, the market portfolio will have a beta of
1.0 (covariance of a stock with itself is variance).
Now by combining the risk-free rate and the risk premium as estimated above, the total
required rate of return on any risky asset is,
Ri = RF + (RM – RF ) β i (7)
This approach to the estimation of the required return of assets (cost of equity, in case of
equity) is called the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM, pioneered by William Sharpe).
If CAPM holds in the market, all the stocks would be priced according to their beta. This would
imply that the stock prices are estimated by the market by discounting the expected cash
flows by applying a discounting rate as estimated based on equation (7).
Hence, all the stocks can be identified in the mean return-beta space, as shown below and
relationship between beta and return can be estimated. The line presented in the following
figure is popularly called the Se cu r it ie s M a r k e t Lin e ( SM L) .
67
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Figu r e 6 .6 : Se cu r it y M a r k e t Lin e
Prices (returns) which are not according to CAPM shall be quickly identified by the market and
brought back to the equilibrium. For instance, stocks A and B given in the following figure
(6.7) shall be brought back to the equilibrium through market dynamics.
This works as follows. Stock A, currently requires a lower risk premium (required rate of
return) than a specified by CAPM (the price is higher). Sensing this price of A as relatively
expensive, the mean-variance investors would sell this stock. The decreased demand for the
stock would push its price downwards and restore the return back to as specified by CAPM (will
be on the line). The reverse happens in case of stock B, with increased buying pressure.
Figu r e 6 .7 : Ar bit r a ge s a r ou n d SM L
6 .3 .2 Est im a t ion of Be t a
The beta of a stock can be estimated with the formula discussed above. Practically, the beta
68
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
of any stock can be conveniently estimated as a regression between the return on stock and
that of the market, represented by a stock index like NIFTY (the dependent variable is the
stock return and the independent variables is the market return).
Ri = α i + β i RM + e i , (8)
where the regression coefficient βi represents the slope of the linear relationship between the
stock return and the market return and α i denote the risk-free rate of return. The SLOPE
function in MS-Excel is a convenient way to calculate this coefficient from the model.
The beta of an existing firm traded in the market can be derived directly from the market
prices. However, on many occasions, we might be interested to estimate the required rate of
return on an asset which is not traded in the market. For instances like, pricing of an IPO,
takeover of another firm, valuation of certain specific assets etc.. In these instances, the
required rate of return can be estimated by obtaining the beta estimates from similar firms in
the same industry.
The beta can be related to the nature of the assets held by a firm. If the firm holds more risky
assets the beta shall also be higher. Now, it is not difficult to see why investors like venture
capitalists demand higher return for investing in start-up firms. A firm’s beta is the weighted
average of the beta of its assets (just as the beta of a portfolio is the weighted average of the
beta of its constituent assets).
The CAPM is founded on the following two assumptions (1) in the equilibrium every mean
variance investor holds the same market portfolio and (2) the only risk the investor faces is
the beta. Evidently, these are strong assumptions about the market structure and behaviour
of investors. A more general framework about asset pricing should allow for relaxation of
these strong and somewhat counterfactual assumptions. A number of alternative equilibrium
asset pricing models, including the general arbitrage pricing theory (APT), attempt to relax
these assumptions to provide a better understanding about asset pricing.
The arbitrage pricing theory assumes that the investor portfolio is exposed to a number of
systematic risk factors. Arbitrage in the market ensures that portfolios with equal sensitivity to
a fundamental risk factor are equally priced. It further assumes that the risk factors which are
associated with any asset can be expressed as a linear combination of the fundamental risk
factors and the factor sensitivities (betas). Arbitrage is then assumed to eliminate all
opportunities to earn riskless profit by simultaneously selling and buying equivalent portfolios
(in terms of risk) which are overpriced and underpriced.
69
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Under these assumptions, all investors need not have the same market portfolio as under
CAPM. Hence, APT relaxes the assumption that all investors in the market hold the same
portfolio. Again, as compared to CAPM, which has only one risk dimension, under the APT
characterization of the assets, there will be as many dimensions as there are fundamental
risks, which cannot be diversified by the investors. The fundamental factors involved could
for instance be the growth rate of the economy (GDP growth rate), inflation, interest rates
and any other macroeconomic factor which would expose the investor’s portfolio to
systematic risk.
In the lines of the assumptions of arbitrage pricing theory, a number of multifactor asset
pricing models have been proposed. One such empirically successful model is the so-called
Fam a- French t hree- fact or m odel. The Fama-French model has two more risk factors, viz.,
size, and book-to-market ratio as the additional risk factors along with the market risk as
specified by CAPM. The size risk factor is the difference between the expected returns on a
portfolio of small stocks and that of large stocks. And the book-to-market ratio is the difference
in the expected return of the portfolio of high book-to market-ratio stocks and that of low
book-to market-ratio stocks.
Theoretical and empirical evidence suggests that in the real market, expected returns are
probably determined by a multifactor model. Against this evidence, the most popular and
simple equilibrium model, CAPM, could be regarded as a special case where all investors hold
the same portfolio and their only risk exposure is the market risk.
70
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
7 .1 I n t r odu ct ion
Derivatives are a wide group of financial securities defined on the basis of other financial
securities, i.e., the price of a derivative is dependent on the price of another security, called
the underlying. These underlying securities are usually shares or bonds, although they can be
various other financial products, even other derivatives. As a quick example, let’s consider the
derivative called a ‘call option’, defined on a common share. The buyer of such a product gets
the right to buy the common share by a future date. But she might not want to do so—there’s
no obligation to buy it, just the choice, the option. Let’s now flesh out some of the details. The
price at which she can buy the underlying is called the strike price, and the date after which
this option expires is called the st rike dat e. In other words, the buyer of a call option has the
right, but not the obligation to take a long position in the underlying at the strike price on or
before the strike date. Call options are further classified as being European, if this right can
only be exercised on the strike date and American, if it can be exercised any time up and until
the strike date.
Derivatives are amongst the widely traded financial securities in the world. Turnover in the
futures and options markets are usually many times the cash (underlying) markets. Our
treatment of derivatives in this module is somewhat limited: we provide a short introduction
about of the major types of derivatives traded in the markets and their pricing.
7 .2 For w a r ds a n d Fu t u r e s
Forward contracts are bilateral (privately negotiated between two parties), traded outside a
regulated stock exchange (traded in the OTC or ‘Over the Counter’ market) and suffer from
counter-party risks and liquidity risks. Here counter-party risk refers to the default risk that
arises when one party in the contract defaults on fulfilling its obligations thereby causing loss
to the other party.
Futures contracts are also agreements to buy or sell an asset for a certain price at a future
time. Unlike forward contracts, which are traded in the over-the-counter market with no standard
contract size or delivery arrangements, futures contracts are standardized contracts and are
71
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
traded on recognized and regulated stock exchanges. They are standardized in terms of contract
sizes, trading parameters and settlement procedures, and the contract or lot size (no. of
shares/units per contract) is fixed.
Since futures contracts are traded through exchanges, the settlement of the contract is
guaranteed by the exchange or a clearing corporation (through the process of novation) and
hence there is no counter-party risk. Exchanges guarantee execution by holding a caution
amount as security from both the parties (buyers and sellers). This amount is called as the
margin money, and is adjusted daily based on price movements of the underlying till the
contract expires.
Compared to forward contracts, futures also provide the flexibility of closing out the contract
prior to the maturity by squaring off the transaction in the market. Occasionally the fact
forward contracts are bilateral comes in handy—two parties could suit a contract according to
their needs; such a futures may not be traded in the market. Primary examples are long-term
contracts—most futures contracts have short maturities of less than a few months.
The table here draws a comparison between a forward and a futures contract.
72
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
7 .3 Ca ll a n d Pu t Opt ion s
Like forwards and futures, options are derivative instruments that provide the opportunity to
buy or sell an underlying asset on a future date. As explained in the introduction, an option
contract is a contract written by a seller that conveys the buyers a right, but not an obligation
to either sell (put option) or buy (call option) a particular asset at a specified price in the
future. In case of call options, the option buyer has a right to buy and in case of put options,
the option buyer has a right to sell the security at the agreed upon price (called strike rate or
exercise price). In return for granting the option, the party (seller) granting the option collects
a payment from the other party. This payment collected is called the “premium” or price of
the option.
Options are like insurance contracts. Unlike futures, where the parties are denied of any favorable
movement in the market, in case of options, the buyers are protected from downside risks and
in the same time, are able to reap the benefits from any favorable movement in the exchange
rate. The buyer of the option has a right but no obligation to enforce the execution of the
option contract and hence, the maximum loss that the option buyer can suffer is limited to the
premium amount paid to enter into the contract. The buyer would exercise the option only
when she can make some profit from the exercise, otherwise, the option would not be exercised,
and be allowed to lapse. Recall that in case of American options, the right can be exercised on
any day on or before the expiry date but in case of a European option, the right can be
exercised only on the expiry date.
Options can be used for hedging as well as for speculation purposes. An option is used as a
hedging tool if the investor already has (or is expected to have) an open position in the spot
market. For example, in case of currency options, importers buy call options to hedge against
future depreciation of the local currency (which would make their imports more expensive)
and exporters could buy put options to hedge against currency appreciation. There are other
methds of hedging too—using forwards, futures, or combinations of all three—and the choice
of hedging is determined by the costs involved.
7 .4 For w a r d a n d Fu t u r e s Pr icin g
Forwards/ futures contract are priced using the cost of carry model. The cost of carry model
calculates the fair value of futures contract based on the current spot price of the underlying
asset. The formula used for pricing futures is given below:
F = Se rT Where :
F = Futures Price
73
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Example: Security of ABB Ltd trades in the spot market at Rs. 850. Money can be invested at
11% per annum. The fair value of a one-month futures contract on ABB is calculated as
follows:
1
0.1 1
F = Se rT = 850 * e 12 = 857.80
The presence of arbitrageurs would force the price to equal the fair value of the asset. If the
futures price is less than the fair value, one can profit by holding a long position in the futures
and a short position in the underlying. Alternatively, if the futures price is more than the fair
value, there is a scope to make a profit by holding a short position in the futures and a long
position in the underlying. The increase in demand/ supply of the futures (and spot) contracts
will force the futures price to equal the fair value of the asset.
The cost of carry is the cost of holding a position. It is usually represented as a percentage of
the spot price. Generally, for most investment, we consider the risk-free interest rate as the
cost of carry. In case of commodities contracts, cost of carry also includes storage costs (also
expressed as a percentage of the spot price) of the underlying asset until maturity.
Futures prices being lower than spot price (backwardation) is also explained by the concept of
convenience yield. It is the opposite of carrying charges and refers to the benefit accruing to
the holder of the asset. For example, one of the benefits to the inventory holder is the timely
availability of the underlying asset during a period when the underlying asset is otherwise
facing a stringent supply situation in the market. Convenience yield has a negative relationship
with inventory storage levels (and storage cost). High storage cost/high inventory levels lead
to negative convenience yield and vice versa.
The cost of carry model expresses the forward (future) price as a function of the spot price and
the cost of carry and convenience yield.
Where F is the forward price, S is the spot price, r is the risk-free interest rate, c is the
convenience yield and t is the time to delivery of the forward contract (expressed as a fraction
of 1 year).
74
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
7 .4 .2 Ba ck w a r da t ion a n d Con t a n go
The theory of normal backwardation was first developed by J. M. Keynes in 1930. The theory
suggests that the futures price is a biased estimate of the expected spot price at the maturity.
The underlying principle for the theory is that hedgers use the future market to avoid risks and
pay a significant amount to the speculators for this insurance. When the future price is lower
than the current spot price, the market is said to be backwarded and the opposite is called as
a cont ango m arket . Since future and spot prices have to converge on maturity (this is sometimes
called the law of one price), in the case of a backwarded market, the future price will increase
relative to the expected spot price with passage of time, the process referred to as backwardation.
In case of contango, the future price decreases relative to the expected spot price.
Backwardation and contango is easily explained in terms of the seasonal nature of commodities.
Commodity futures with expiration dates falling in post harvest month would face backwardation,
as the expected spot price would be lower. When hedgers are net short (farmers willing to sell
the produce immediately after harvest), or the risk aversion is more for short hedgers than the
long hedgers, the futures price would be a downward biased estimate of the expected spot
price, resulting into a backwarded market.
Our brief treatment of options in this module initially looks at pay-off diagrams, which chart
the price of the option with changes in the price of the underlying and then describes how call
and option prices are related using put-call parity. We then briefly describe the celebrated
Black-Scholes formula to price a European option.
Payoffs from an option contract refer to the value of the option contract for the parties (buyer
and seller) on the date the option is exercised. For the sake of simplicity, we do not consider
the initial premium amount while calculating the option payoffs.
In case of call options, the option buyer would exercise the option only if the market price on
the date of exercise is more than the strike price of the option contract. Otherwise, the option
is worthless since it will expire without being exercised. Similarly, a put option buyer would
exercise her right if the market price is lower than the exercise price.
The following figures shows the payoff diagram for call options buyer and seller (assumed
exercise price is 100)
75
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
From the pay-off diagrams it’s apparent that a buyer of call options would expect the market
price of the stock to rise, and buying the call option allows him to lock in the benefits of such
a rise, and also cap the downside in the event of a fall. The price of course is the premium. On
the other side, a seller of call options has a contrarian view, and hopes to profit from the
premium of the call options sold that would expire unexercised. It’s clear from the vertical axis
of the payoff diagram (which provides the payoff the contract), that while the downside of a
call option buyer is limited, it is not so for the seller.
In a similar sense, a buyer of put options would expect the market to fall, and profit from it,
with an insurance, or a hedge (in the event of an unexpected rise in the market), to cap the
downside. The price of the hedge is the put option premium.
76
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
7 .5 .2 Pu t - ca ll pa r it y r e la t ion sh ip
The put-call parity relationship gives us a fundamental relationship between European call
options and put options. The relationship is derived by noticing that the payoff from the following
two strategies is the same irrespective of the stock price at maturity. The two strategies are:
Strategy 1: Buy a call option and investing the present value of exercise price in risk-free
asset.
St r a t e gy 1 :
St r a t e gy 2 :
Since the payoff from the two strategies is the same therefore:
( )
Value of call option (C) + PV of exercise price Ke –rt = value of put option (P) + Current share
price (S0 ) , i.e.
C + Ke –rt = P + S0
77
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
The main question that is still unanswered is the price of a call option for entering into the
option contract, i.e. the option premium. The premium amount is dependent on many variables.
They are:
- The time to expiration i.e. period for which the option is valid (T)
One of the landmark inventions in the financial world has been the Black-Scholes formula to
price a European option. Fischer Black and Myron Scholes2 in their seminal paper in 1973 gave
the world a mathematical model to value the call options and put options. The formula proved
to be very useful not only to the academics but also to practitioners in the finance world. The
authors were later awarded The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of
Alfred Nobel in 1997. The Black-Scholes formula for valuing call options (c) and value of put
options (p) is as under:
–r (T –t )
c(S, t ) = SN (d1 ) – ke N (d 2 ) and
Where
σ2
ln + r +
S
(T – t )
K 2
d1 =
σ T –t
d 2 = d1 – σ T – t
Where,
N (.) is the cumulative distribution function (cdf) of the standard normal distribution
78
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Example: Calculate the value of a call option and put option for the following contract:
σ2 100 0.32
ln + r + ln
S
(T – t ) + 0.10 + (0.25)
K 2 105 2
d1 = = = – 0.0836
σ T –t 0.3 * 0.25
c (S, t ) = SN (d1 ) – ke –r (T − t ) N(d 2 ) = 100 * 0.4667 – 105 * e –.10 *0.25 * 0. 4076 = 4.9225
p(S, t ) = Ke –r (T – t ) N(–d 2 ) – SN(–d1 ) = 105 * e –0.10 *0.25 * 0.5924 – 100 * 0.5333 = 7.33
2
Black , Fischer ; My ron Scholes ( 1 973 ) . "Th e Pricin g of Opt ions an d Corp orat e Liabilit ies" . Jour nal of Polit ical
Econom y 81 ( 3) : 637- 654
79
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
CH APTER 8 : I nve st m e nt M a na ge m e nt
8 .1 I n t r odu ct ion
In the final chapter of this module we take a brief look at the professional asset management
industry. Worldwide, the last few decades have seen an increasing trend away from direct
investment in the markets, with the retail investor now preferring to invest in funds or the
index, rather than direct exposure into equities. This has naturally led to a sharp increase in
the assets under management of such firms.
The asset management industry primarily consists of two kinds of companies, those engaged
in investment advisory or w ealt h m an agem en t activities, and those into investment
management. In the first category, investment advisory firms recommend their clients to take
positions in various securities, and wealth management firm either recommend, or have custody
of their clients’ funds, to be invested according to their discretion. In both cases, the engagement
with clients is at an account level, i.e., funds are separately managed for each client. In
contrast, investment management companies combine their clients’ assets towards taking
positions in a single portfolio, usually called a fund ( or a m ut ual fund) . A unit of such a fund
then represents positions in each of the securities owned in the portfolio. Instead of tracking
returns on their own portfolios, clients track returns on the net asset value (NAV) of the fund.
In addition to the perceived benefits of professional fund management, the major reason
of investment into funds is the diversification they afford the investor. For instance, instead
of owning every large-cap stock in the market, an investor could just buy units of a
large-cap fund.
In this chapter, we shall examine the various types of such funds, differentiated by their
investment mandates, choice of securities, and of course, investment performance, where we
would outline a few of the key metrics used to measure investment performance of funds.
8 .2 I n v e st m e n t Com pa n ie s
Investment companies pool funds from various investors and invest the accumulated funds in
various financial instruments or other assets. The profits and losses from the investment
(after repaying the management expenses) are distributed to the investors in the funds in
proportion to the investment amount. Each investment company is run by an asset management
company who simultaneously operate various funds within the investment company. Each
fund is managed by a fund manager who is responsible for management of the portfolio.
Investment companies are referred to by different names in different countries, such as mutual
funds, investment funds, managed funds or simply funds. In India, they are called mutual
funds. Our treatment would use these names interchangeably, unless explicitly stated.
80
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
8 .2 .1 Be n e fit s of in ve st m e n t s in m a n a ge d fu n ds
- Ch oice of Sch e m e s: There are various schemes with different investment themes.
Through each scheme an investor has an opportunity to invest in a wide range of
investable securities.
- Dive rsifica tion : Scope for better diversification of investment since mutual fund assets
are invested across a wide range of securities.
- Liqu idit y: Easy entry and exit of investment: investors can with ease buy units from
mutual funds or redeem their units at the net asset value either directly with the
mutual fund or through an advisor / stock broker.
- Tr a n spa r e n cy: The asset management team has to on a regular basis publish the
NAV of the assets and broad break-up of the instruments where the investment
is made.
If asset prices always reflect their equilibrium values (expected returns equal to the value
specified by an asset pricing model), then an investor is unlikely to benefit from actively
searching for mispriced (overpriced/underpriced) opportunities in assets. In other words, the
investor is better off by simply investing in the market, or a representative benchmark. For
instance, under such assumptions, an Indian equity investor would achieve the best possible
outcome by trying to replicate the Nifty 50 by investing in the constituent stocks in the same
proportion as they are in the index.
Such investment assumes that gains in the market are those of the benchmark, and not in the
choice of individual securities, as opportunities in their selection, or timing of entry/exit are
too short to be taken advantage of. This, passive approach to investment rests upon the
theory of market efficiency, which we saw in chapter 4. Recall that the EMH postulates that
prices always fully reflect all the available information and any deviation from the full information
price would be quickly arbitraged away. In an efficient market, information about fundamental
factors related to the asset, or its market price, volume or any other related trading data
related has little value for the investor.
81
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Passive fund managers try to replicate the performance of a benchmark index, by replicating
the weights of its constituent stocks. Given daily price movement in stock prices, the challenge
for such managers is to minimize the so-called ‘tracking error’ of the fund, which is calculated
as the deviation in its returns from that of the index. The choice of the index further differentiates
between the funds, for example, an equity index fund would simply try to maintain the return
profile of the benchmark index, say, the NIFTY 50; but if investments are allowed across asset
classes, then the ‘benchmark’ could well consist of a combination of a equity and a debt index.
Recent evidence of systematic departures of asset prices in the from equilibrium values, as
envisaged under the market efficiency, has renewed interest in ‘active’ fund management,
which entails that optimal selection of stocks, and the timing of entry/exit could lead to ‘market-
beating’ returns.
This represents an opportunity for investors to engage in active strategies based on their
objective views about the assets. In a generic sense, such views are about the relative under
pricing or over pricing of an asset. Over pricing presents an opportunity to engage in short
selling, under pricing an opportunity to take a long position, and combinations of the two are
also possible, across stocks, and portfolios.
The objective of an active portfolio manager is to make higher profits from investing, with
similar, or lower risks attached. The risk of a portfolio, as noted in an earlier chapter, is usually
measured with the standard deviation of its assets. A good portfolio manager should have
good forecasting ability and should be able to do two things better than his competitors:
market timing and security selection.
By market timing, we refer to the ability of the portfolio manager to gauge at the beginning of
each period the profitability of the market portfolio vis-à-vis the risk-free portfolio of Government
bonds. The strength of such a signal would indicate the level of investment required in the
market.
82
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
the market—almost all the investment styles we would examine further in the chapter are
illustrative examples.
Active and passive fund management are not always chalk and cheese—there are techniques
that utilize both, like portfolio tilting. A tilted portfolio shifts the weights of its constituents
towards one or more of certain pre-specified market factors, like earnings, valuations, dividend
yields, or towards one or more specific sectors.
By their very nature of operations, active and passive investments differ meaningfully in terms
of their costs to the investors. Passive investment is characterized by low transaction costs
(given their low turnover), management expenses, and the risks attached. Active fund
management is understandably more expensive, but has seen costs falling over the years on
competitive pricing and increased liquidity of the markets, which reduced transaction costs.
8 .4 Cost s of M a n a ge m e n t : En t r y / Ex it Loa ds a n d Fe e s
Running a mutual fund involves certain costs (e.g. remuneration to the management team,
advertising expenses etc.) which may be recurring or non-recurring in nature. These costs are
recovered by the fund from the investors (e.g. from redemption fees) or from charges on the
assets (transaction fees, management fees and commission etc.) of the funds.
Generally, the management team is paid a fixed percentage of the asset under management
as their fees.
Investment management companies can be broadly classified on the basis of the securities
they invest in and their investment objectives. Before we look at either, we define the core
measure of return for a fund, the NAV, and so-called open, and closed- ended funds.
8 .5 N e t Asse t Va lu e
The net asset value NAV is the most important and widely followed metric of a fund’s
performance. It is calculated per share using the following formula:
Net asset value (NAV) is a term used to describe the per unit value of the fund’s net assets
(assets less the value of its liabilities). Hence the NAV for a fund is
Fund NAV = (Market Value of the fund portfolio – Fund Expenses) / Fund Shares Outstanding
Just like the share price of a common stock, the NAV of a fund would rise with the value of the
fund portfolio, and is instantly reflective of the value of investment.
83
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
8 .6 .1 Ope n e n de d a n d close d- e n de d fu n ds
Funds are usually open or closed-ended. In an open-ended fund, the units are issued and
redeemed by the fund, at any time, at the NAV prevalent at the time of issue / redemption.
The fund discloses the NAV on a daily basis to facilitate issue and redemption of units. Unlike
open-ended funds, closed-ended funds sell units only at the outset and do not redeem or sell
units once they are issued. The investors can sell or purchase units to (or from) other investors
and to facilitate such transactions, such units are traded on stock exchanges. Price of closed
ended schemes are determined based on demand and supply for the units at the stock exchange
and can be more or less than the NAV of the units.
We now examine the different kind of funds on the basis of their investments. While we had
earlier mentioned mutual fund investments represented as units in a single portfolio, in real
life, fund houses float various schemes from time-to-time, each a constituting a portfolio
where inputs translate into units. These schemes are differentiated by their charter which
mandates their investment into asset classes.
Beyond the type of instruments they invest in, fund houses are also differentiated in terms of
their investment styles. The approaches to equity investing could be diversified or undiversified,
growth, income, sector rotators, value, or market-timing based.
Each mutual fund scheme has a particular investment policy and the fund manager has to
ensure that the investment policy is not breached. The policy is laid right at the outset when
the fund is launched and is specified in the prospectus, the ‘Offer Docum ent ’ of the scheme.
The investment policy determines the instruments in which the money from a specific scheme
will be primarily invested. Based on these securities, mutual funds can be broadly classified
into equity funds (growth funds and income funds), bond funds, money market funds, index
funds, etc. Generally, fund houses have dozens of schemes floating in the market at any given
time, with separate investment policies for each scheme.
8 .6 .2 Equ it y fu n ds
Equity funds primarily invest in common stock of companies. Equity funds can be growth
funds or income funds. Growth funds focus on growth stocks, i.e., companies with strong
growth potential, with capital appreciation being the major driver, while income funds focus on
companies that have high dividend yields. Income funds focus on dividend income or coupon
payments from bonds (if they are not pure equity).
Equity funds may also be sector-specific wherein the investment is restricted to stocks from a
specific industry. For example, in India we have many funds focusing on companies in power
sector and infrastructure sector.
84
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
8 .6 .3 Bon d fu n ds
Bond funds invest primarily in various bonds that were described in the earlier segment. They
have a stable income stream and relatively lower risk. They could potentially invest in corporate
bonds, Government. bonds, or both.
8 .6 .4 I n de x fu n ds
Index funds have a passive investment strategy and they try to replicate a broad market
index. A scheme from such a fund invests in components of a particular index proportionate to
their representation in the benchmark. It is possible that a scheme tracks more than one index
(in some pre-specified ratio), in either equity, or across asset classes.
8 .6 .5 M on e y m a r k e t fu n ds
Money market mutual funds invest in money market instruments, which are short-term securities
issued by banks, non-bank corporations and Governments. The various money market
instruments have already been discussed earlier.
8 .6 .6 Fu n d of fu n ds
Fund of funds add another layer of diversification between the investor and securities in the
market. Instead of individual stocks, or bonds, these mutual funds invest in units of other
mutual funds, with the fund managers’ mandate being the optimal choice across mutual fund
schemes given extant market conditions.
8 .7 Ot h e r I n v e st m e n t Com pa n ie s
In addition to the broad categories mentioned here, there are many other kinds of funds,
depending on market opportunities, and investor appetite. Total return funds look at a
combination of capital appreciation and dividend income. Hybrid funds invest in a combination
of equity, bonds, convertibles, and derivative instruments. These funds could be further
distributed as ‘asset allocation’, ‘balanced’, or ‘flexible portfolio’ funds, based on the breadth of
their investment in different asset classes, and the frequency of modifying the allocation.
Global, regional, or emerging market funds recognize investment opportunities across the
world, and accordingly base their investment focus. Such funds could again comprise either, or
a combination of equity, debt, or hybrid instruments. We mention some other, specific types of
investment vehicles below.
8 .7 .1 Un it I n ve st m e n t Tr u st s ( UI T)
Similar to mutual funds, UITs also pool money from investors and have a fixed portfolio of
assets, which are not changed during the life of the fund. Although the portfolio composition is
actively decided by the sponsor of the fund, once established the portfolio composition is not
changed (hence called unmanaged funds).
85
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
The way an UIT is established is different from that of other mutual funds. UITs are usually
created by sponsors, who first make investment in the portfolio of securities. The entire portfolio
is then transferred to a trust and the trustees issue trust certificates to the public, which is
similar to shares. The trustees distribute the incomes from the investment and the maturity
(capital) amount to the shareholders on maturity of the scheme.
8 .7 .2 REI TS ( Re a l Est a t e I n ve st m e n t Tr u st s)
REITS are also similar to mutual funds, but they invest primarily in real estates or loans
secured by real estate. REIT can be of three types – equity, mortgage or hybrid trusts. Equity
trusts invest in real estate assets, mortgage trusts invest in loans backed by mortgage and
hybrid trusts invest in either.
8 .7 .3 H e dge Fu n ds
Hedge funds are generally created by a limited number of wealthy investors who agree to pool
their funds and hire experienced professionals (fund managers) to manage their portfolio.
Hedge funds are private agreements and generally have little or no regulations governing
them. This gives a lot of freedom to the fund managers. For example, hedge funds can go
short (borrow) funds and can invest in derivatives instruments which mutual funds cannot do.
Hedge funds generally have higher management fees than mutual funds as well as performance
based fees. The management fee (paid to the fund managers), in the case of hedge funds is
dependent on the assets under management (generally 2 - 4%) and the fund performance
(generally 20% of the excess returns over the market return generated by the fund).
Prior to the development of the modern portfolio theory (MPT), portfolio managers were
evaluated by comparing the return generated by them with some broad yardstick. The risk
borne by the portfolio managers or the source of performance such as market timing, market
volatility, the security selections and valuations were not considered. With the development of
the MPT, the goal of performance evaluation is to study whether the portfolio has provided
superior returns compared to the risks involved in the portfolio or compared to an equivalent
passive benchmark.
The performance evaluation approach tries to attribute the performance to the following:
- Risk
- Timing: market or volatility
- Security selection – of industry or individual stocks
86
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Therefore:
b) The portfolio performance must account for the difference in the risk
c) It should be able to distinguish the timing skills from the security selection skills.
The assessment of managed funds involves comparison with a benchmark. The benchmark
could be based on the Capital Market Line (CML) or the Security Market Line (SML). When it is
based on capital Market Line, the relevant measure of the portfolio risk is σ and when based
on Security Market Line, the relevant measure is β . Various measures are devised to evaluate
portfolio performance, viz. Sharpe Ratio, Treynor Ratio and Jensen Alpha.
8 .8 .1 Sh a r pe Ra t io
Sharpe ratio or ‘excess return to variability’ measures the portfolio excess return over the
sample period by the standard deviation of returns over that period. This ratio measures the
effectiveness of a manager in diversifying the total risk ( σ ). This measure is appropriate if one
is evaluating the total portfolio of an investor or a fund, in which case the Sharpe ratio of the
portfolio can be compared with that of the market. The formula for measuring the Sharpe
ratio is:
Shar pe Rat io = (r p – r f ) / σ p
This will be compared to the Shape ratio of the market portfolio. A higher ratio is preferable
since it implies that the fund manager is able to generate more return per unit of total risks.
However, managers who are operating specific portfolios like a value tilted or a style tilted
portfolio generally takes a higher risks, and therefore may not be willing to be evaluated based
on this measure.
8 .8 .2 Tr e yn or Ra t io
Treynor’s measure evaluates the excess return per unit of systematic risks ( β ) and not total
risks. If a portfolio is fully diversified, then β becomes the relevant measure of risk and the
performance of a fund manager may be evaluated against the expected return based on the
SML (which uses β to calculate the expected return). The formula for measuring the Treynor
Ratio is:
Theynor Rat io = (r p – r f ) / β p
The Jensen measure, also called Jensen Alpha, or portfolio alpha measures the average return
on the portfolio over and above that predicted by the CAPM, given the portfolio’s beta and the
average market returns. It is measured using the following formula:
87
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
α p = r p – [r f + β p (r M – r f )]
The returns predicted from the CAPM model is taken as the benchmark returns and is indicated
by the formula within the brackets. The excess return is attributed to the ability of the managers
for market timing or stock picking or both. This measure investigates the performance of
funds and especially the ability of the managers in stock selection in terms of these contributing
aspects.
This measure is widely used in evaluating mutual fund performance. If α P is positive and
significant, it implies that the fund managers are able to identify stocks with high potential for
excess returns. Market timing would refer to the adjustment in the beta of the portfolio in
tandem with market movements. Specifically, timing skills call for increasing the beta when
the market is rising and reducing the beta, when the market declines, for example through
futures position. If the fund manager has poor market timing ability, then the beta of the
portfolio would not have been significantly different during a market decline compared to that
during a market increase.
Example: The data relating to market portfolio and an investor ‘P’ portfolio is as under:
Beta ( β ) 1.4 1
Assuming that the risk-free rate for the market is 8%, calculate (a) Sharpe Ratio
(b) Treynor Ratio and (c) Jensen Alpha for the investor P and the market.
Answer:
***
88
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
M OD EL TEST
I N VESTM EN T AN ALYSI S AN D PORTFOLI O
M AN AGEM EN T M OD ULE
Q:1. __________ would mean that no investor would be able to outperform the market
with trading strategies based on publicly available information. [1 Mark]
(a) Semi strong form efficiency
(b) Weak-form efficiency
(c) Strong form efficiency
Q:2. A company's __________ provide the most accurate information to its management
and shareholders about its operations. [1 Mark]
(a) advertisements
(b) financial statements
(c) products
(d) vision statement
Q:3. ______ fund managers try to replicate the performance of a benchmark index, by
replicating the weights of its constituent stocks. [2 Marks]
(a) Active
(b) Passive
Q:4. Unlike term insurance, __________ ensure a return of capital to the policyholder on
maturity, along with the death benefits. [1 Mark]
(a) high premium or low premium policies
(b) fixed or variable policies
(c) assurance or endowment policies
(d) growth or value policies
Q:6. Security of ABC Ltd. trades in the spot market at Rs. 595. Money can be invested at
10% per annum. The fair value of a one-month futures contract on ABC Ltd. is (using
continuously compounded method): [2 Marks]
(a) 630.05
(b) 620.05
(c) 600.05
(d) 610.05
89
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Q:8. A portfolio comprises of two stocks A and B. Stock A gives a return of 8% and stock B
gives a return of 7%. Stock A has a weight of 60% in the portfolio. What is the
portfolio return? [2 Marks]
(a) 9%
(b) 11%
(c) 10%
(d) 8%
Q:9. Evidence accumulated through research over the past two decades suggests that
during many episodes the markets are not efficient even in the weak form.
[2 Marks]
(a) FALSE
(b) TRUE
Q:10. Mr. A buys a Put Option at a strike price of Rs. 100 for a premium of Rs. 5. On expiry
of the contract the underlying shares are trading at Rs. 106. Will Mr. A exercise his
option? [3 Marks]
(a) No
(b) Yes
Q:11. Price movement between two Information Technology stocks would generally have a
______ co-variance. [1 Mark]
(a) zero
(b) positive
(c) negative
Q:12. In the case of callable bonds, the callable price (redemption price) may be different
from the face value. [2 Marks]
(a) FALSE
(b) TRUE
Q:13. Term structure of interest rates is also called as the ______. [2 Marks]
(a) term curve
(b) yield curve
(c) interest rate curve
(d) maturity curve
90
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Q:15. A ________, is a time deposit with a bank with a specified interest rate. [1 Mark]
(a) certificate of deposit (CD)
(b) commercial paper (CP)
(c) T-Note
(d) T-Bill
Q:16. Prices (returns) which are not according to CAPM shall be quickly identified by the
market and brought back to the __________. [1 Mark]
(a) average
(b) standard deviation
(c) mean
(d) equilibrium
Q:17. Net acquisitions / disposals appears in the Cash Flow Statement of Companies.
[3 Marks]
(a) TRUE
(b) FALSE
91
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Q:20. _______ measures the percentage of net income not paid to the shareholders in the
form of dividends. [1 Mark]
(a) Withholding ratio
(b) Retention ratio
(c) Preservation ratio
(d) Maintenance ratio
Q:22. Banks and other financial institutions generally create a portfolio of fixed income
securities to fund known _______ . [2 Marks]
(a) assets
(b) liabilities
Q:23. Which of the following accounting statements form the backbone of financial analysis
of a company? [1 Mark]
(a) the income statement (profit & loss),
(b) the balance sheet
(c) statement of cash flows
(d) All of the above
Q:24. The balance sheet of a company is a snapshot of the ______ of the firm at a point in
time. [2 Marks]
(a) the sources and applications of funds of the company.
(b) expenditure structure
(c) profit structure
(d) income structure
Q:25. The need to have an understanding about the ability of the market to imbibe information
into the prices has led to countless attempts to study and characterize the levels of
efficiency of different segments of the financial markets. [1 Mark]
(a) TRUE
(b) FALSE
92
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Q:27. Mr. A buys a Call Option at a strike price of Rs. 700 for a premium of Rs. 5. Mr. A
expects the price of the underlying shares to rise above Rs. ______ on expiry date in
order to make a profit. [3 Marks]
(a) 740
(b) 700
(c) 720
(d) 760
Q:28. The ______ refers to the length of time for which an investor expects to remain
invested in a particular security or portfolio, before realizing the returns. [2 Marks]
(a) investment horizon
(b) credit cycle horizon
(c) duration horizon
(d) constraint horizon
Q:29. A ________ provides an account of the total revenue generated by a firm during a
period (usually a financial year, or a quarter). [1 Mark]
(a) Accounting analysis statement
(b) financial re-engineering statement
(c) promotional expenses statement
(d) profit & loss statement
Q:30. New stocks/bonds are sold by the issuer to the public in the ________ . [1 Mark]
(a) fixed income market
(b) secondary market
(c) money market
(d) primary market
93
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Q:31. Security of ABC Ltd. trades in the spot market at Rs. 525. Money can be invested at
10% per annum. The fair value of a one-month futures contract on ABC Ltd. is (using
continously compounded method): [2 Marks]
(a) 559.46
(b) 549.46
(c) 539.46
(d) 529.46
Q:32. If the market is _______, the period after a favorable (unfavorable) event would not
generate returns beyond (less than) what is suggested by an equilibrium model such
as CAPM. [1 Mark]
(a) weak-form efficient
(b) strong form efficient
(c) semi-strong form efficient
Q:33. A sell order comes into the trading system at a Limit Price of Rs. 120. The order will
get executed at a price of _______. [2 Marks]
(a) Rs. 120 or more
(b) Rs. 120 or less
Q:34. __________ have precedence over common stock in terms of dividend payments,
and the residual claim to its assets in the event of liquidation. [1 Mark]
(a) Preferred shares
(b) Equity shares
Q:35. One needs to average out the time to maturity and time to various coupon payments
to find the effective maturity for a bond. The measure is called as _____ of a bond.
[2 Marks]
(a) duration
(b) IRR
(c) YTM
(d) yield
Q:36. In case of compound interest rate, we need to know the _______ for which
compounding is done. [1 Mark]
(a) period
(b) frequency
(c) time
(d) duration
94
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Q:37. Net change in Working Capital appears in the Cash Flow Statement of Companies.
[3 Marks]
(a) FALSE
(b) TRUE
Q:38. A company's net income for a period is Rs. 15,00,00,000 and the average shareholder's
fund during the period is Rs. 1,00,00,00,000. The Return on Average Equity is :
[3 Marks]
(a) 13%
(b) 12%
(c) 15%
(d) 16%
Q:39. A portfolio comprises of two stocks A and B. Stock A gives a return of 14% and stock
B gives a return of 1%. Stock A has a weight of 60% in the portfolio. What is the
portfolio return? [2 Marks]
(a) 10%
(b) 9%
(c) 12%
(d) 11%
Q:40. Average Return of an investor's portfolio is 10%. The risk free return for the market is
8%. The Beta of the investor's portfolio is 1.2. Calculate the Treynor Ratio. [3 Marks]
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 6
Q:41. The share price of PQR Company on 1st April 2009 and 31st March 2010 is Rs. 20 and
Rs. 24 respectively. The company paid a dividend of Rs. 5 for the year 2009-10.
Calculate the return for a shareholder of PQR Company in the year 2009-10.
[1 Mark]
(a) 45%
(b) 65%
(c) 75%
(d) 55%
95
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Q:42. Portfolio management is the art of managing the expected _______ requirement for
the corresponding ________. [1 Mark]
(a) income, expenditure
(b) gain, losses
(c) profit, loss tolerance
(d) return, risk tolerance
Q:43. Average Return of an investor's portfolio is 55%. The risk free return for the market is
8%. The Beta of the investor's portfolio is 1.2. Calculate the Treynor Ratio.
[3 Marks]
(a) 41
(b) 39
(c) 43
(d) 45
Q:44. In addition to the perceived benefits of professional fund management, the major
reason of investment into funds is the ______ they afford the investor. [1 Mark]
(a) specialisation
(b) diversification
(c) variety
(d) expansion
Q:45. ABC Ltd. has paid a dividend of Rs. 10 per share last year and it is expected to grow
at 5% every year. If an investor's expected rate of return from ABC Ltd. share is 7%,
calculate the market price of the share as per the dividend discount model.
[2 Marks]
(a) 540
(b) 530
(c) 525
(d) 535
Q:46. The CAPM is founded on the following two assumptions (1) in the equilibrium every
mean variance investor holds the same market portfolio and (2) the only risk the
investor faces is the beta. [1 Mark]
(a) TRUE
(b) FALSE
96
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Q:47. Markets are inefficient when prices of securities assimilate and reflect information
about them. [1 Mark]
(a) TRUE
(b) FALSE
Q:48. Stock returns are generally expected to be independent across weekdays, but a number
of studies have found returns on Monday to be lower than in the rest of the week. This
departure from market efficiency is also sometimes called the _____ effect. [2 Marks]
(a) Monday-Friday
(b) weekday
(c) Monday
(d) weekend
Q:49. Over pricing in a stock presents an opportunity to engage in _____ the stock.
[2 Marks]
(a) short covering
(b) short selling
(c) active buying
(d) going long
Q:50. What is the amount an investor will get on a 1-year fixed deposit of Rs. 10000 that
pays 8% interest compounded quarterly? [1 Mark]
(a) 12824.32
(b) 13824.32
(c) 10824.32
(d) 11824.32
Q:52. Dividend Per Share = Total Dividend / Number of Shares in issue [1 Mark]
(a) TRUE
(b) FALSE
Q:53. Price movement between two Steel company stocks would generally have a ______
co-variance. [1 Mark]
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
97
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Q:54. The price of a derivative is dependent on the price of another security, called the
_____ . [1 Mark]
(a) basis
(b) variable
(c) underlying
(d) options
Q:58. ______ orders are activated only when the market price of the relevant security
reaches a threshold price. [2 Marks]
(a) Limit
(b) Market-loss
(c) Stop-loss
(d) IOC
Q:59. A portfolio comprises of two stocks A and B. Stock A gives a return of 9% and stock B
gives a return of 6%. Stock A has a weight of 60% in the portfolio. What is the
portfolio return? [2 Marks]
(a) 11%
(b) 9%
(c) 10%
(d) 8%
98
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837
Cor r e ct An sw e r s :
Qu e st ion N o. Answ er s Qu e st ion N o. Answ er s
1 (a) 31 (d)
2 (b) 32 (c)
3 (b) 33 (a)
4 (c) 34 (a)
5 (b) 35 (a)
6 (c) 36 (b)
7 (a) 37 (b)
8 (d) 38 (c)
9 (b) 39 (b)
10 (a) 40 (c)
11 (b) 41 (a)
12 (b) 42 (d)
13 (b) 43 (b)
14 (c) 44 (b)
15 (a) 45 (c)
16 (d) 46 (a)
17 (a) 47 (b)
18 (d) 48 (d)
19 (a) 49 (b)
20 (b) 50 (c)
21 (a) 51 (a)
22 (b) 52 (a)
23 (d) 53 (a)
24 (a) 54 (c)
25 (a) 55 (a)
26 (d) 56 (c)
27 (b) 57 (b)
28 (a) 58 (c)
29 (d) 59 (d)
30 (d) 60 (d)
________________________________________
99
Downloaded by Mamta Singh (savesshnavik@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD|34624837