Pmls2 Quiz Questions

pmls2 quiz questions
Which of the following is the correct newborn screening handling procedures?
Applying blood drops to both sides of the filter paper

Hanging a specimen slip to dry in a vertical position
Layering successive blood drops in a collection circle
Using one large drop to entirely fill a collection circle
Possible cause/s of too thin and long smear: (SATA)
Drop of blood starts to dry out owing to delay in making smear

Angle of spreader slide is greater than 40 degrees
Drop of blood is too small
Drop of blood is too big
Chipped or dirty spreader slide
Angle of spreader slide is less than 30 degrees
Spreader slide pushed too slowly
Kernicterus, a condition in newborn where excess indirect bilirubin in the blood

(around _____) goes to the brain damaging it.
12-18mg/ dL
15-25mg/ dL
18-20mg/ dL
None of the above
How many grams of carbohydrates are given to the patient in a 2-hour

postprandial specimen?
75 ml
100 ml
125 ml
150 ml
Which of the following is inappropriate when collecting urine for routine

bacteriologic culture?
The container must be sterile

The midstream void technique must be used
The collected sample must be plated within 2 hours unless refrigerated
The sample may be held at 2°C–8°C for up to 48 hours prior to plating
What is the normal value of Ivy Bleeding time?
2-4 minutes
7-15 minutes
30 minutes
1-2 hours
The maximum length of a puncture device used on the heel is:
1.0 mm
1.5 mm
2.0 mm
2.5 mm
What is/ are the possible causes of streaks in the feathered edge? (SATA)

Spreader slide not placed flush against the smear slide
Pulling the spreader slide into the drop of blood so that the blood is pushed
instead of pulled
Urine pregnancy test:
Moderate Complexity
High Complexity
Waived Tests
Provider-Performed Microscopy Procedures
All are possible
Applying pressure about _____ inch away from the puncture site frequently
produces better blood flow than pressure very close to the site.
1/3
1/4
1/5
2/3
None of the above
Possible cause/s of a too thick and short smear: (SATA)

Angle of spreader slide is greater than 40 degrees
Drop of blood is too small
Drop of blood is too big
Angle of spreader slide is less than 30 degrees
When selecting a dermal puncture device, the most critical consideration is the:
width of the incision

amount of blood needed
depth of the incision
tests requested
The order of draw for a bilirubin, blood smear, and CBC by dermal puncture is:
CBC, blood smear, and bilirubin

blood smear, CBC, and bilirubin
bilirubin, blood smear, and CBC
blood smear, bilirubin, and CBC
Preferred specimen for pregnancy testing.
Midstream Clean Catch

Suprapubic Aspirate
24-hour urine
First Morning Urine
Bilirubin levels may decrease as much as _____ in a blood sample that has been
exposed to light for _____.
40%; 1 hour
50%; 2 hours
60%; 3 hours
70%; 4 hours
What test uses 25 mL 6N HCl as preservative? (SATA)
Aldosterone
Amylase
Calcium
Catecholamines
17-Hydroxycorticosteroids
Urine phosphorus
Urea Nitrogen
Uric Acid
Iodine
A blood smear prepared from an EDTA specimen should be made:
After the blood cells settled in the tube

At the time the specimen is collected
Before the specimen has been mixed
Within 1 hour of specimen collection
The concentration of this analyte is higher in blood collected by dermal

puncture than in venipuncture:
glucose
potassium
total protein
calcium
Failure to puncture across the fingerprint will cause:
blood to run down the finger

hemolysis
contamination of the sample
additional patient discomfort
The maximum length of a puncture device used on the heel is:
1.0 mm
1.5 mm
2.0 mm
2.5 mm
Which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?
Preservative tablets should be used for collecting random urine specimens

Containers may be washed and reused if rinsed in deionized H2O
Samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours
First morning voided samples are not acceptable when renal disease is suspected
The proper angle of the spreader slide when preparing a blood smear is:
15°
25°
30°
45°
What preservative should be used on a 24-hour urine sample that will be tested
for catecholamines?
1g boric acid per 100 mL urine

NaOH adjusted to pH 6 or above
HCl adjusted to pH 1.5-2.0
25mL 6N HCl
“Feather” is a term used to describe the appearance of:
A newborn screening blood spot

Blood in a thick malaria smear
Lipemia in a bilirubin specimen
The thinnest area of a blood film
^-^-^-^-^-^-^-^-^
The substance produced from a deep cough or from aspiration caused by

inserting a tube down the patient’s throat.
throat swab
sputum
oropharyngeal swab
nasopharyngeal swab
Correct answer
Which of the following is inappropriate when collecting urine for routine

bacteriologic culture?
The container must be sterile

The midstream void technique must be used
The collected sample must be plated within 2 hours unless refrigerated
The sample may be held at 2°C–8°C for up to 48 hours prior to plating
Common pathogens isolated from stool specimens except:
Clostridium difficile
Shigella
Corynebacterium
Escherichia coli
CSF samples are collected only by a qualified health-care provider by means of

a
venipuncture
lumbar puncture
spinal tap
anaerobic collection
Fluid from the blood vessels in the area of the infection
Expectorate
Excavate
Exfoliate
Exudate
Exuviate
Considered simple to perform and interpret, require no special training or

educational background, and require only minimum QC.
Moderate Complexity
High Complexity
Waived Tests
A and B
A serious secondary complication or infection that follows as a result of the

primary bacterial infection.
normal flora
pathogen
contaminant
sequela
Prepared by adding a few drops of saline to a sample.
Media inoculation
Gram stain
O & P test
Antibiotic Sensitivity Testing
Wet Mount
Subject to proficiency testing and on-site inspections.
Moderate Complexity
High Complexity
Waived Tests
All are possible
The causative agent of tuberculosis infection that does not live long when
exposed to light.
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Eschirichia coli
A condition wherein a patient have pathogenic bacteria in the bloodstream
uremia
septicemia
pyuria
hemoptysis
Drug Testing:
Moderate Complexity
High Complexity
Waived Tests
All are possible
Urine pregnancy test:
Moderate Complexity
High Complexity
Waived Tests
All are possible
A resident bacteria present in certain areas of the body.
normal flora
pathogen
contaminant
sequela
Performed to determine how effective antimicrobial therapy is against a certain

type of bacteria.
Media inoculation
Gram stain
O & P test
Wet Mount
The following microorganism causes vaginosis except:
Gardnerella vaginalis
Neisseria lactamica
Haemophilus ducreyi
Neisseria meningitides
Normal flora of the outer ear canal except:
Staphylococcus epidermis
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus spp
Corynebacterium genus.
The goal is to provide an opportunity for growth of isolated colonies so that

these can be further tested for identification and possibly sensitivity tested.
Media inoculation
Gram stain
O & P test
Wet Mount
The causative agent of tuberculosis infection that does not live long when
exposed to light.
Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Eschirichia coli
A type of media that allows for different types of bacteria to be identified based
on an indicator.
Selective media
Differential media
Enriched media
NOTA
The media should be at room temperature for storage but must be brought
to refrigerated temperature before use.
TRUE
FALSE
If an organism is resistant to a specific antibiotic, it will have a zone of inhibition

around the disc. If bacterial growth is present right up to the disc and there is
no visible zone of inhibition, this bacteria is sensitive.
First statement is true. Second statement is false.

First statement is false. Second statement is true.
Both are true
Both are wrong
All are advantages of POCT. Except:
Convenient to patients
Contributes to rapid diagnosis
Non-qualified staff reading the results
Minimally invasive
All are advantages
Gram-negative microorganisms will appear _______ and Gram-positive appear
______ after the Gram- staining procedure is complete.
pink-white
purple-pink
pink-purple
blue-pink
none of these
Performed by placing thin smears of stool (fresh or preserved) onto slides and
examining and/or staining them for examination.
Media inoculation
Gram stain
O & P test
Wet Mount
Technique that quickly and inexpensively provides information about the

bacteria that are present in a sample.
Media inoculation
Gram stain
O & P test
Wet Mount
All are disadvantages of POCT. Except:
Loss of quality results

Overpriced tests
Non-qualified staff reading the results
Multiplication of tests to avoid errors
All are disadvantages
Ideally, bacterial culture specimens should be collected before antibiotics are
introduced.
TRUE
FALSE
Occur in the dermis and subcutaneous layers of the skin, and may affect the
muscles and tissue layers beneath the skin.
Subcutaneous mycoses
Systemic mycoses
Superficial mycoses
A and B

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pmls2 quiz questions

Which of the following is the correct newborn screening handling procedures?

Applying blood drops to both sides of the filter paper

Possible cause/s of too thin and long smear: (SATA)

Drop of blood starts to dry out owing to delay in making smear

Kernicterus, a condition in newborn where excess indirect bilirubin in the blood

How many grams of carbohydrates are given to the patient in a 2-hour

Which of the following is inappropriate when collecting urine for routine

The container must be sterile

What is the normal value of Ivy Bleeding time?

The maximum length of a puncture device used on the heel is:

Chipped or dirty spreader slide

Urine pregnancy test:

Possible cause/s of a too thick and short smear: (SATA)

Drop of blood starts to dry out owing to delay in making smear

width of the incision

CBC, blood smear, and bilirubin

Preferred specimen for pregnancy testing.

Midstream Clean Catch

What test uses 25 mL 6N HCl as preservative? (SATA)

A blood smear prepared from an EDTA specimen should be made:

After the blood cells settled in the tube

The concentration of this analyte is higher in blood collected by dermal

Failure to puncture across the fingerprint will cause:

blood to run down the finger

The maximum length of a puncture device used on the heel is:

Which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?

Preservative tablets should be used for collecting random urine specimens

1g boric acid per 100 mL urine

“Feather” is a term used to describe the appearance of:

A newborn screening blood spot

The substance produced from a deep cough or from aspiration caused by

Which of the following is inappropriate when collecting urine for routine

The container must be sterile

Common pathogens isolated from stool specimens except:

CSF samples are collected only by a qualified health-care provider by means of

Considered simple to perform and interpret, require no special training or

A serious secondary complication or infection that follows as a result of the

Prepared by adding a few drops of saline to a sample.

Subject to proficiency testing and on-site inspections.

A condition wherein a patient have pathogenic bacteria in the bloodstream

Urine pregnancy test:

A resident bacteria present in certain areas of the body.

Performed to determine how effective antimicrobial therapy is against a certain

The following microorganism causes vaginosis except:

Normal flora of the outer ear canal except:

The goal is to provide an opportunity for growth of isolated colonies so that

If an organism is resistant to a specific antibiotic, it will have a zone of inhibition

First statement is true. Second statement is false.

All are advantages of POCT. Except:

Technique that quickly and inexpensively provides information about the

All are disadvantages of POCT. Except:

Loss of quality results

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